OB/GYNE Final Review
Which AFI is indicative of oligohydramnios? a. 4.3cm b. 9.2cm c. 16.5cm d. 25.6cm
A.
Which of these congenital anomalies is NOT associated with VACTERL? a) Holoprosencephaly b) Cleft lip c) Polydactyly d) Anal atresia e) Spina bifida
A.
Which skeletal anomaly is associated with in-utero fractures? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta type II B. Thanatophoric dysplasia C. Achondrogenesis D. Arthrogryposis
A.
The recipient twin in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome exhibits: A. Oligohydramnios B. Hydrops C. IUGR D. Anemia
B.
The term "chocolate cyst" refers to a(n): A. Corpus luteum B. Endometrioma C. Teratoma D. Corpus hemorrhagicum
B.
A normal cervical length in a nulliparous woman measures: A. 0.5-1.0 cm B. 1.0-2.0 cm C. 2.0-3.0 cm D. 3.0-4.0 cm E. 4.0-5.0 cm
C.
Days 6-13 in the ovary are which ovarian phase? a. Proliferative b. Secretory c. Follicular d. Luteal
C.
The most common congenital heart defect is: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Hypoplastic left heart
C.
The term double bubble denotes: A. Fetal stomach next to the heart B. Urachal cyst next to the bladder C. Dilated duodenum next to the fetal stomach D. Choledochal cyst next to the stomach E. Bilateral hydronephrosis
C.
Fetal blood passes from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta via the: A. Ductus arteriosus B. Ductus venosus C. Foramen ovale D. Hypogastric arteries
A.
The hormone responsible for proliferation of the endometrium is: A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. FSH D. LH
A.
The most common tumor of the female pelvis is: A. Myoma B. Teratoma C. Cystadenoma D. Cervical carcinoma
A.
The heart should occupy approximately ____ of the fetal thorax. A. ¼ B. 1/3 C. ½ D. 2/3
B.
The benign overgrowth of endometrial tissue in to the myometrium is called: a) Endometrial hypertophy b) Choriocarcinoma c) Adenomyomyosis d) Asherman syndrome e) Endometritis
C.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the: A. Fetal liver B. Yolk sac C. Fetal kidneys D. Placenta E. Maternal ovaries
D.
The double bleb sign refers to the sonographic presentation of: a) The amnion and the adjacent yolk sac b) A heterotopic pregnancy c) A bicornuate uterus d) The amnion and chorion e) Two uterine gestational sacs
D.
A 21 year old primigravida is referred for a sonographic examination for elevated MS-AFP. The sonographer notes an echogenic mass lateral to the umbilical cord insertion. The mass is not contained within a membrane. This finding is most likely: A. Gastroschisis B. Omphalocele C. Limb-body wall complex D. Meconium peritonitis
A.
Fertilization occurs at which site normally? a. Ampulla of the fallopian tube b. Endometrial cavity c. Uterine cornu d. Isthmus of the fallopian tube
A.
If a 24-year old female shows a multilayered endometrium measuring 8 mm, she is probably: A. Mid cycle B. Bleeding C. Menstruating D. Menopausal E. Pregnant
A.
Painless vaginal bleeding is the hallmark of: A. Placenta previa B. Incompetent cervix C. Placenta accrete D. Abruptio placenta
A.
The abdominal circumference measurement should be taken at the level of: a. Stomach and portal sinus of the umbilical vein b. Kidneys c. Umbilical cord insertion d. Stomach and ductus venosum
A.
The following condition is an indication for immediate delivery, for without it there is the risk of intrauterine demise: a) Placental abruption b) Uterine infection c) Incompetent cervix d) Vasa previa e) Implantation bleed
A.
The following is an indication for immediate delivery, for without it there is the risk of intrauterine demise: a) Placental abruption b) Uterine infection c) Incompetent cervix d) Vasa previa e) Implantation bleed
A.
The foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the _____ to the _____. a. Right atrium; left atrium b. Left atrium; right atrium c. Pulmonary artery; aortic arch d. Right atrium; IVC
A.
The left ovarian vein drains into the ______, and the right ovarian vein drains into the ______. A. Left renal vein; IVC B. IVC; IVC C. Right renal vein; left renal vein D. IVC; right renal vein
A.
The menstrual cycle is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Adrenal glands B. Hypothalamus C. Pituitary D. Ovaries E. A and B
A.
The most accurate sonographic method of establishing gestational age is: A. Crown-rump length measurement B. Single dimension gestational sac measurement C. Patient menstrual history D. Biparietal diameter
A.
The most common pelvic mass encountered during pregnancy is: A. Corpus luteal cyst B. Leiomyoma C. Bicornuate uterus D. Endometrioma
A.
The most common pelvic mass encountered during pregnancy is: A. Corpus luteal cyst B. Leiomyoma C. Bicornuate uterus D. Endometrioma
A.
The most common tumor of the female pelvis is: a. Myoma b. Teratoma c. Cystadenoma d. Cervical carcinoma
A.
The muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries are the: A. Piriformis B. Obturator internus C. Iliposoas D. Levator Ani E. Coccygeus
A.
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the : A. Perimetrium B. Endometrium C. Parametrium D. Myometrium
A.
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the: A. Perimetrium B. Endometrium C. Parametrium D. Myometrium
A.
What is lithopedion? a) Calcified fetus b) Absent fetal tone c) Bone fusion d) Calcium deficiency e) Fetal gallstone
A.
Which skeletal anomaly is associated with in-utero fractures? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta type II b. Thanatophoric dysplasia c. Achondrogenisis d. Arthrogryposis
A.
All of the following are indications for prenatal genetic testing EXCEPT: a) Prior pregnancy with congential anomaly b) Maternal age greater than 30 c) Maternal diabetes d) Family history of congentital anomalies e) Prenatal exposure to teratogens
B.
All of these Doppler ultrasound findings in the uterine arteries are associate with a growth-restricted pregnancy EXCEPT: a) Reversal of end-diastolic flow b) Increase of end-diastolic flow on serial surveillance c) Decrease of end-diastolic flow on serial surveillance d) No end-diastolic flow e) C and D
B.
During pregnancy the normal cervical length should not measure less than: a) 1.5 cm b) 2.5 cm c) 3.5 cm d) 4.5 cm e) 5.5cm
B.
Fetal bradycardia is less than _____ beats per minute. a. 120 b. 100 c. 160 d. 200
B.
Fetal skin thickening, called anasarca, is considered when the skin thickness reaches or exceeds ____ cm. A. 0.1 B. 0.5 C. 1.0 D. 5.0
B.
Normal embryoinic midgut herniation occurs at approximately: a) 6 menstrual weeks b) 8 menstrual weeks c) 10 menstrual weeks d) 12 menstrual weeks e) 14 menstrual weeks
B.
Placental tissue covering the internal cervical os is known as: A. Low-lying placenta B. Placenta previa C. Placenta increta D. Abruptio placenta
B.
The "quad screen" derives a statistical risk of Trisomies 21 and 18 by using all of the following maternal serum values except: A. Alpha feto protein B. PAPP-A C. Estriol D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B.
The discriminatory zone at which a gestational sac should be seen using transvaginal sonography in the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy is when the serum HCG level reaches ___ mlu/ml 3IRP. A. 500-1000 B. 1000-2000 C. 2000-4000 D. 4000-8000
B.
The hormone primarily responsible for ovulation is: A. FSH B. LH C. Progesterone D. Estrogen
B.
The inner cell mass of the blastocyst develops into all of the following except: a. Embryonic disk b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
B.
The most common fetal thoracic abnormality is ____. A. Diaphragmatic hernia B. Pleural effusion C. Pulmonary sequestration D. Cystic adenomatoid malformation
B.
The term "chocolate cyst" refers to a(n): A. Corpus luteum B. Endometrioma C. Teratoma D. Corpus hemorrhagium
B.
Where is the yolk sac located? a. Between the amnion and the embryo b. Between the amnion and the chorion c. Within the amniotic cavity d. In the subchorionic region
B.
Which of the following ovarian tumors is associated with GI primary malignancy? a. Dysgerminoma b. Krukenberg tumor c. Brenner tumor d. Struma ovarii
B.
Which of these statements about twins is NOT true? a) Monozygotic twins can be dichrionic b) Monozygotic twins share the same amniotic sac c) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is specific to monozygotic gestations d) 100% of dizygotic twins are dichorionic e) Chorionicity is realated to placentation
B.
A patient who has never had a menstrual period is said to have: A. Menopause B. Precocious puberty C. Primary amenorrhea D. Secondary amenorrhea
C.
Chronic maternal hypertension causes which of the following placental changes? A. Immature B. Enlarged C. Prematurely mature D. Accessory lobe
C.
Failure for the forebrain to divide results in ____________. a. Dandy-Walker malformation b. Hydrocephalus c. Holoprosencephaly d. Hydranencephaly
C.
In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, which section of the fallopian tube is potentially the most life-threatening? a) Ligamentous b) Ampulla c) Interstitial d) Fimbrial e) Isthmic
C.
Measurement of the yolk sac is performed: A. Outer-to-outer B. Outer-to-inner C. Inner-to-inner D. In three planes
C.
The S/D ratio in the umbilical artery should not exceed _____ in the 3rd trimester. A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1
C.
The first action a sonographer should take when placing the transducer on the maternal abdomen is to determine: A. Number of fetuses B. Fetal lie C. Presence of fetal cardiac activity D. Presence of fetal anomalies
C.
The most common congenital heart defect is: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Ventricular septal defect D. Hypoplastic left heart
C.
The normally herniated midgut usually returns to the fetal abdomen by ___ weeks. a. 8 b. 9 c. 12 d. 16
C.
The normally herniated midgut usually returns to the fetal abdomen by ____ weeks. A. 8 B. 9 C. 12 D. 16
C.
Asymmetic intrauterine growth restriction is not associated with: A. Malnutrition B. Uteroplacental insufficiency C. Drug abuse D. Maternal infection
D.
Days 6-13 in the uterus are considered the ____ phase. A. Follicular B. Luteal C. Secretory D. Proliferative
D.
Fetal cells can be retrieved for karyotyping by all of the following methods except: A. Amniocentesis B. CVS C. Umbilical blood sampling D. FISH
D.
Pathologic features of Trisomy 18 include all of the following except: A. Single umbilical artery B. Clenched fists with overlapping fingers C. Large choroid plexus cysts D. Thickened nuchal folds
D.
Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall is placenta ______. A. Previa B. Accrete C. Precreta D. Abruption
D.
The BPD measurement is most accurate: A. Throughout pregnancy B. After 34 weeks LMP C. In the first trimester D. From 12 to 33 weeks LMP
D.
The effects of maternal infection on the fetus do not include: A. IUGR B. Cardiac anomalies C. Cranial anomalies D. Macrosomia
D.
The hormone(s) responsible for gallstone formation during pregnancy is/are: a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) B and C e) A and B
D.
The most dangerous location for an ectopic pregnancy is: A. Abdominal B. Ampullary C. Ovarian D. Cornual
D.
The most dangerous location for an ectopic pregnancy is: A. Abdominal B. Ampullary C. Ovarian D. Cornual
D.
The tricuspid valve inserts ____ to the mitral valve. a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Superior d. Inferior
D.
What anatomic region should be assessed in order to perform a Doppler examination on the uterine artery? A. Medial to the cervix B. Superior to the uterine fundus C. Adjacent to the cornua D. Lateral to the cervix E. Anterior to the body of the uterus
D.
When do fetal kidneys begin to develop? a) End of 7th menstrual week b) Beginning of 7th menstrual week c) End of 6th menstrual week d) Beginning of 6th menstrual week e) Beginning of 5th menstrual week
D.
Which is NOT a part of the fallopian tube? A. Interstitial area B. Ampulla C. Infundibulum D. Piriformis E. Isthmus
D.
Which of the following is least likely to be a sonographic finding in a fetus with Trisomy 21? a. Increased nuchal fold b. Endocardial cushion defect c. Shortened femurs d. Clinched hands
D.
Which of the following is not a sign of pre-eclampsia? A. Elevated blood pressure B. Proteinuria C. Edema D. Abnormal glucose tolerance test
D.
Which stage of endometriosis involves the ovaries? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
D.
A 12-year-old patient presents with primary amenorrhea and pelvic pressure. The most likely cause of her symptom is: a) Pregnancy b) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease c) Cystic Teratoma d) Leiomyoma e) Hematocolpos
E.
A mature follicle ready for ovulation is referred to as the: A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus albicans C. Preantral follicle D. Theca-lutein cyst E. Graafian follicle
E.
Biophysical profile assessment with ultrasound does not include: A. Fetal breathing B. Fetal tone C. Amniotic fluid assessment D. Gross body movement E. Umbilical cord Doppler
E.
Sonographic visualization of the tibia and fibula in the same scanning plane as the metatarsals of the foot is associated with _____. A. Clubfoot B. Amniotic band syndrome C. Trisomy 18 D. Caudal regression syndrome
A.
With normal growth during the first trimester, the size of the gestational sac should increase daily by: a) 1 mm b) 2 mm c) 5 mm d) 10 mm e) 1 cm
A.
Your patient has a suspicious adnexal neoplasm. To assist ruling out metastasis, you scan the: a) Lymph nodes b) Breasts c) Liver d) Spleen e) Kidneys
A.
A fetus that weighs 4600 grams at term is said to be: a) Small for gestational age (SGA) b) Macrosomic c) Post-term d) Growth-restricted e) Diabetic
B.
Sonographic detection of overlapping cranial bones, associated with fetal demise, is called ___ sign. A. Robert's B. Spaulding's C. Meckel's D. Potter's
B.
TORCH infections do not include: a. Toxoplasmosis b. Hepatitis c. Cytomegalovirus d. Rubella
B.
The "double bubble" sign is associated with: A. Bivascular cord B. Duodenal atresia C. Conjoined twins D. Ectopic pregnancy
B.
The "double bubble" sign is associated with: A. Bivascular cord B. Duodenal atresia C. Conjoined twins D. Ectopic pregnancy
B.
The endometrium appears thickest during the _____ portion of the menstrual cycle. A. Proliferative B. Secretory C. Luteal D. Follicular
B.
The vessels normally found in the umbilical cord are: A. Two arteries and two veins B. Two veins and one artery C. Two arteries and one vein D. One vein and one artery
C.
When a sonographer discovers a bicornuate uterus, which area should also be evaluated? A. Lymph nodes B. Liver C. Kidneys D. Fallopian tubes
C.
Which statement is TRUE for an infinatile uterus? a) The corpus and fundus are the most prominent portions of the uterus b) The size and shape remain constant throughout life c) The cervix occupies most of the length of the uterine body until puberty d) Pubertal changes cause the uterus to atrophy and the ovaries to enlarge e) Transvaginal sonography is the best technique for visualization
C.
hCG is secreted by: A. Dividing cells of blastomere B. Amnion C. Trophoblast / chorion D. Embryo
C.
A blood test used to screen for ovarian cancer is: A. BhCG B. Estrodial level C. CEA D. CA-125
D.
An 80 year old patient presents for sonographic evaluation for vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most important to obtain? A. Bilateral ovarian measurements B. Transverse uterine diameter C. Doppler evaluation of radial arteries D. Endometrial thickness measurements
D.
An abnormal value for nuchal fold thickness is greater than: a) 2-3 mm b) 3-4 mm c) 4-5 mm d) 5-6 mm e) 6-7 mm
D.
The floor of the pelvis is formed by the: A. Coccygeal muscles B. Piriformis muscles C. Obturator internus muscles D. Iliopsoas muscles E. Levator Ani muscles
E.
When the urinary bladder is empty, the uterus is normally: A. Anteverted B. Retroverted C. Retroflexed D. Inverted E. Anteflexed
E.
Which of the following terms describes a patient who has never been pregnant? A. Multigravida B. Nullipara C. Multipara D. Primigravida E. Nulligravida
E.