OTA

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

"Boxing" fracture is: - a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal - subcapital fracture of the fifth metacarpal - typical fracture resulting from boxing - a fracture with volar angulation

"Boxing" fracture is: - subcapital fracture of the fifth metacarpal+ - a fracture with volar angulation+

"Halo effect" makes difficult assessment of prosthesis loosening: - on radiographic film - on digital radiography - on conventional tomography - on CT

"Halo effect" makes difficult assessment of prosthesis loosening: - on digital radiography - on CT

Diagnose of the distal radius fracture is made by: - X-ray - scintigraphy - CT - MR

Diagnose of the distal radius fracture is made by: - X-ray+ - CT+

Which of the following is/are true of *Ewing's sarcoma*? - tumor typically occurs in facial bones and the skull - consists of small blue cells - shows neuroectodermal origin - despite treatment the tumor has an unfavorable prognosis

*Ewing's sarcoma* - consists of *small blue cells* - shows *neuroectodermal* origin

Which of the following is/are true of *Ewing's sarcoma*? - tumor typically occurs in diaphyses and metaphyses of long bones - consists of large eosinophilic cells - shows neuroendocrine differentiation - shows a typical translocation t (11; 22) (q24, q12)

*Ewing's sarcoma* - tumor typically occurs in *diaphyses and metaphyses* of long bones - shows a typical translocation *t (11; 22)* (q24, q12)

*Legg-Calve-Perthes* disease is usually *not* found in: - boys aged 16-20 years - boys aged 4-10 years - girls aged 10-16 years - NONE of the above

*Legg-Calve-Perthes* disease is usually *not* found in: - boys aged 16-20 years - girls aged 10-16 years (up to 10)

Which of the following is/are *NOT* true of *osteomyelitis*? - in the acute phase of the disease sequestra take origin - sequestra typically arise in the chronic phase of the disease - disease can be associated with AA amyloidosis - disease may be associated with AL amyloidosis

*NOT* true of *osteomyelitis* - in the *acute phase* of the disease *sequestra* take origin - disease may be associated with *AL amyloidosis*

Which of the following diseases can arise within *Paget disease* later in life: - plasmacytoma and other tumors in the bone marrow - osteosarcoma - bone tuberculosis - primary bone tumors

*Paget disease* later in life - osteosarcoma - primary bone tumors

Which of the following is/are true of *Paget's disease*? - a synonym is ostitis deformans - it is a common disease of blacks - is not genetically based - a monostotic form of the disease has also been described

*Paget's disease* - a synonym is *ostitis deformans* - a *monostotic form* of the disease has also been described

Which of the following is/are true of *Paget's disease*? - a synonym is fibrous dystrophy - it is a common disease of ethnic Asians - microscopically we find non-caseous granulomas - microscopically we find mosaic bone

*Paget's disease* - it is a common disease of *ethnic Asians* - microscopically we find *mosaic bone*

Which of the following is/are true of *Paget's disease*? - a synonym is fibrous dysplasia - typically affects whites - is not related to viral infections - a polyostotic form of the disease is also described

*Paget's disease* - typically affects *whites* - a *polyostotic form* of the disease is also described

Which of the following is/are true of *bone TB*? - there is typically a hematogenous spread of mycobacteria during childhood - gibbus is caused by a collapse of the ribs - TB osteomyelitis typically occurs in the spine - the disease is caused by an acid resistant cocci

*bone TB* - there is typically a *hematogenous* spread of mycobacteria during *childhood* - TB *osteomyelitis* typically occurs in the *spine*

Which of the following is/are true of *bone TB*? - there is typically a hematogenous spread of mycobacteria into bones - the acute phase of the disease has the character of abscess - can manifest as a destruction of bone (caries) - the basic morphological characteristics of the disease include pannus

*bone TB* - there is typically a *hematogenous* spread of mycobacteria into bones - can manifest as a *destruction of bone* (caries)

Which of the following is/are true of *bone cysts*? - solitary bone cysts typically shows multiple compartments - aneurysmal bone cysts are typically unicameral - aneurysmal bone cysts typically contains blood - a synonymous term for a juxtaarticular bone cyst is intraosseous ganglion

*bone cysts* - *aneurysmal* bone cysts typically contains *blood* - a synonymous term for a juxtaarticular bone cyst is *intraosseous ganglion*

Which of the following is/are true of *bone cysts*? - solitary bone cysts are typically unicameral - aneurysmal bone cysts typically shows multiple compartments - aneurysmal bone cysts typically contains endothelial lining - intraosseous ganglion is not related to the synovial lining of the joint

*bone cysts* - *solitary* bone cysts are typically *unicameral* - *aneurysmal* bone cysts typically shows *multiple compartments* aneurysmal: long word, multiple. Solitary: short, uni

Which of the following statements about *bone sequestra* is/are true? - it is not mineralized - shows a multiplication of osteoblasts - can remain in tissue for long time - it is a necrotic bone fragment

*bone sequestra* - can remain in tissue for *long time* - it is a *necrotic bone fragment*

Which of the following is/are true of *chondrogenic tumors*? - Ollier disease is characterized by the occurrence of multiple chondromas - osteochondroma originate within the diaphysis of long bones - chondromyxoid fibroma occurs in the metaphyses of individuals younger than 20 years - five-year survival rate is a key cure criteria for chondrosarcoma

*chondrogenic tumors* - *Ollier disease* is characterized by the occurrence of *multiple chondromas* - *chondromyxoid fibroma* occurs in the *metaphyses* of individuals *younger than 20 years*

Which of the following is/are true of *chondrogenic tumors*? - chondroma never turns malignant - Ollier disease is characterized by the occurrence of multiple osteochondromas - chondroblastoma occurs in the epiphysis of individuals younger than 20 years - periosteal chondrosarcoma has a better prognosis compared with classic (conventional) chondrosarcoma

*chondrogenic tumors* - *chondroblastoma* occurs in the *epiphysis* of individuals younger than 20 years - *periosteal chondrosarcoma* has a *better* prognosis compared with classic (conventional) chondrosarcoma

Which of the following is/are true of *chondrogenic tumors*? - chondroma typically occur in short tubular bones of the hands and feet - osteochondroma is a true tumor - chondroblastoma is a locally aggressive benign tumor - periosteal chondrosarcoma has a significantly worse prognosis compared with classic (conventional) chondrosarcoma

*chondrogenic tumors* - *chondroma* typically occur in *short tubular bones* of the hands and feet - *chondroblastoma* is a *locally aggressive* benign tumor

Blunt liver trauma could be diagnosed using: - USG investigation - endoscopy - CT investigation - native X-ray of the abdomen

Blunt liver trauma could be diagnosed using - USG investigation - CT investigation

Which of the following is/are true of *chondrogenic tumors*? - chondroma typically occurs in facial bones and the skull - osteochondroma is a synonym for osteocartilaginous exostosis - chondroblastoma is a malignant tumor - classical (conventional) chondrosarcoma arises mainly in the pelvis, femur and shoulder joint

*chondrogenic tumors* - *osteochondroma* is a synonym for *osteocartilaginous exostosis* - classical (conventional) *chondrosarcoma* arises mainly in the *pelvis, femur and shoulder joint*

Which of the following is/are true of *chondrogenic tumors*? - Ollier disease is not a predisposing factor for malignant tumors - osteochondroma rarely turns malignant - Ollier disease is characterized by the occurrence of multiple chordomas - five-year survival is not a cure criteria for chondrosarcoma

*chondrogenic tumors* - osteochondroma *rarely* turns malignant - five-year survival is *not* a cure criteria for chondrosarcoma Ollier disease: benign cartilaginous tumors (enchondroma) develop close to growth plate cartilage, consist of multiple echondromas (cartilage cyst)

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous dysplasia*? - bone lesions which are typical during child and adolescent ages - it is a disease that predisposes bones to malignancies - benign bone disease - another name for chronic osteomyelitis

*fibrous dysplasia* - bone lesions which are typical during *child and adolescent* ages - *benign* bone disease

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous dysplasia*? - it is a degenerative disease - always affects multiple bones - is part of the McCune-Albright syndrome - bone trabeculae are formed by primary bone

*fibrous dysplasia* - is part of the *McCune-Albright syndrome* - bone trabeculae are formed by *primary* bone

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous dysplasia*? - is associated with renal failure - it is a disability of one or more bones - it is a congenital disorder of bone maturation - bone tissue in the lesion develops normally

*fibrous dysplasia* - it is a *disability of one or more bones* - it is a *congenital* disorder of *bone maturation*

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous dysplasia*? - it is an inflammatory disease - is always a disability of only one bone - there is a genetic basis for the disease - bone trabeculae have a characteristic shape of the letter C and / or O within the lesion

*fibrous dysplasia* - there is a *genetic* basis for the disease - bone trabeculae have a characteristic shape of the letter *C and / or O* within the lesion

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous dysplasia*? - it is a metabolic defect - affected bones are not deformed - typically affects young individuals - may be rarely complicated by a malignant tumor

*fibrous dysplasia* - typically affects *young* individuals - may be *rarely* complicated by a *malignant tumor*

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous osteodystrophy*? - it is a degenerative disease - bones are typically soft and in advanced stages can be sliced with a knife - bone cyst may occur - is a change in bone tissue during hyperthyroidism

*fibrous osteodystrophy* - bones are typically soft and in advanced stages can be sliced with a knife - bone cyst may occur

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous osteodystrophy*? - it is an inflammatory disease - can manifest as a fracture - skeleton involvement may be accompanied with the presence of brown tumors - metaphyseal fibrous defects regularly occur in the disease

*fibrous osteodystrophy* - can manifest as a *fracture* - skeleton involvement may be accompanied with the presence of *brown tumors*

Which of the following is/are true of *fibrous osteodystrophy*? - it is a congenital metabolic defect - is a term synonymous with fibrous dysplasia - is the change of bones in hyperparathyroidism - manifests as bone deformity

*fibrous osteodystrophy* - is the change of bones in *hyperparathyroidism* - manifests as *bone deformity*

Which of the following is/are true of *giant cell bone tumors*? - tumors have a clear osteoplastic character - this is an entirely benign tumor - does not arise in association with fibrous osteodystrophy - it is a tumor of adulthood

*giant cell bone tumors* - does *not* arise in association with fibrous osteodystrophy - it is a tumor of *adulthood*

Which of the following is/are true of *giant cell bone tumors*? - the tumor has a clear osteolytic character - it is always a malignant tumor - tumor arises in association with fibrous osteodystrophy - corresponds morphologically to brown bone tumors

*giant cell bone tumors* - the tumor has a *clear osteolytic* character - corresponds morphologically to *brown bone tumors*

Which of the following is/are true of *giant cell bone tumors*? - tumor arises in the epiphysis of long bones - is a potentially malignant tumor - tumor arises in association with fibrous dysplasia of bones - is one of the stages of fibrous osteodystrophy

*giant cell bone tumors* - tumor arises in the *epiphysis* of *long* bones - is a *potentially malignant* tumor

Which of the following *metabolically* determined diseases also damage joints and cause *arthritis*? - alkaptonuria - diabetes mellitus - gout - hyperaldosteronism

*metabolically* determined diseases also damage joints and cause *arthritis* - alkaptonuria - gout

Which of the following is/are true of *necrosis of bones*? - bone marrow necrosis also occurs during the necrosis of bone - adjacent bone marrow to the necrosis typically is not affected - necrotic bone trabeculae are resorbed - Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease affects the femoral head

*necrosis of bones* - *bone marrow necrosis* also occurs during the necrosis of bone - *Legg-Calvé-Perthes* disease affects the *femoral head*

Which of the following is/are true of *necrosis of bones*? - a synonym is a bone infarct - microscopically it is a characteristic atrophy - skeletal stability is compromised - Kohler's disease affects the femoral head

*necrosis of bones* - a synonym is a *bone infarct* - skeletal *stability is compromised*

Which of the following is/are true of *necrosis of bones*? - cell nuclei of necrotic osteocytes lose dyeability - is not a premalignant condition - is typically complicated by the deposition of amyloid - Kohler's disease the affects os naviculare

*necrosis of bones* - cell nuclei of necrotic osteocytes *lose dyeability* - *Kohler's* disease the affects *os naviculare*

Which of the following is/are true of *necrosis of bones*? - Kohler's disease is an example of traumatic necrosis - tumors can arise in old bone infarcts - Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is an example of aseptic necrosis - Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease affects os navicular

*necrosis of bones* - tumors can arise in *old bone infarcts* - *Legg-Calvé-Perthes* disease is an example of *aseptic necrosis*

Which of the following conditions are *not* associated with *increased osteoclast activity*? - hyperkalemia - late phase of Paget's disease of the bone - hyperparathyroidism - NONE of the above

*not* associated with *increased osteoclast activity* - hyperkalemia - late phase of Paget's disease of the bone (hyperparathyroidism: remember that PTH increases the Ca2+ level -> higher osteoclast activity)

Which of the following factors is/are *not* involved in the creation and development of *osteoporosis*? - postmenopause - bedridden patients - diabetes mellitus type I - Paget disease

*not* involved in the creation and development of *osteoporosis* bedridden: old age, bed lying disease - diabetes mellitus type I - Paget disease

Which of the following states/conditions does *not* predisposed a person to the development of *osteoarthritis*? - obesity - healed local trauma - Hashimoto's thyroiditis - Addison disease

*not* predisposed a person to the development of *osteoarthritis* - Hashimoto's thyroiditis - Addison disease

Which of the following is/are true of *ochronosis*? - manifests as a black discoloration of cartilage - manifests as blue colored sclera - costal and bronchial cartilages are involved - bronchial and costal cartilages are never affected

*ochronosis* - manifests as a *black discoloration of cartilage* - *costal and bronchial* cartilages are involved

Which of the following is/are true of *ochronosis*? - manifests as a black discoloration of cartilage - microscopically hemosiderin is found in cartilage - secondary ochronosis occurs with prolonged use of phenol - arthritis is not a part of the clinical manifestations of the disease

*ochronosis* - manifests as a *black discoloration of cartilage* - secondary ochronosis occurs with *prolonged use of phenol*

Which of the following is/are true of *ochronosis*? - manifests as a deposition of homogentisic acid - shows homovanilmandelic acid deposition - arthritis is a part of the clinical manifestations of the disease - arthritis is not part of the clinical manifestations of the disease

*ochronosis* - manifests as a deposition of *homogentisic acid* - *arthritis* is a part of the clinical manifestations of the disease

Which of the following is/are true of *ochronosis*? - manifests as a red coloration of cartilage - microscopically a black granular pigment can be found in cartilage - arthritis at a young age is a typical part of the disease - soft tissues are never colored with pigment

*ochronosis* - microscopically a *black granular pigment* can be found in cartilage - arthritis at a *young age* is a typical part of the disease

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - osteoid osteoma is associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - osteoblastoma is a rare benign, locally aggressive tumor - parosteal (juxtacortical) osteosarcoma is a tumor with a relatively good prognosis

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoblastoma* is a rare benign, *locally aggressive* tumor - *parosteal (juxtacortical) osteosarcoma* is a tumor with a relatively *good* prognosis

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma typically occurs in pelvic bones - osteoid osteoma consists of a nidus and sclerotic rim - osteoblastoma is a malignant tumor - conventional osteosarcoma is the most common malignant bone tumor

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoid osteoma* consists of a *nidus and sclerotic rim* - *conventional osteosarcoma* is the most common *malignant* bone tumor

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - multiple osteoma is a part of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - osteoid osteoma occurs most frequently in the young, less than 20 years of age - osteoblastoma is a frequent tumor in adults - conventional osteosarcoma typically causes hematogenous metastases

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoid osteoma* occurs most frequently in the *young*, less than 20 years of age - conventional osteosarcoma typically causes *hematogenous* metastases

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is not part of Gardner's syndrome - osteoid osteoma typically manifests with pain - osteoblastoma is not part of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - conventional osteosarcoma is an example of a surface osteosarcoma

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoid osteoma* typically manifests with *pain* - *osteoblastoma* is *not* part of *Peutz-Jeghers syndrome*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is not part of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - osteoid osteoma typically occurs in facial bones and the skull - osteoblastoma differs from osteoid osteoma only in size and lack of a sclerotic rim - parosteal (juxtacortical) osteosarcoma is prognostically unfavorable

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoma* is *not* part of *Peutz-Jeghers syndrome* - osteoblastoma differs from osteoid osteoma only in *size* and *lack of a sclerotic rim*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors in Gardner's syndrome - osteoid osteoma is associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors in Gardner's syndrome - osteoblastoma is associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors in Gardner's syndrome - peripheral osteosarcomas grow primarily on the bone surface

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoma* is associated with *polyposis* of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors in *Gardner's syndrome* - *peripheral osteosarcomas* grow primarily on the bone *surface*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is considered a hamartoma - osteoid osteoma is part of Gardner's syndrome - osteoblastoma histologically corresponds to osteoid osteoma - conventional osteosarcoma typically occurs in adulthood

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoma* is considered a *hamartoma* - *osteoblastoma* histologically corresponds to *osteoid osteoma*

Acute change of water balance during trauma is found predominantly in the compartment of: - extracellular fluid - blood and interstitial fluid - intracellular fluid - transcellular fluid

Acute change of water balance during trauma is found predominantly in the compartment of: - extracellular fluid - blood and interstitial fluid

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is often associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors - osteoid osteoma is part of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome - telangiectatic variant of conventional osteosarcoma has a very poor prognosis - telangiectatic variant of conventional osteosarcoma has a favorable prognosis

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoma* is often associated with *polyposis* of the colon and *benign soft tissue tumors* - *telangiectatic* variant of conventional osteosarcoma has a very *poor* prognosis

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma is part of Gardner's syndrome - osteoid osteoma is part of Gardner's syndrome - osteoblastoma is often associated with polyposis of the colon and benign soft tissue tumors - conventional osteosarcoma has a telangiectatic variant

*osteogenic tumors* - *osteoma* is part of *Gardner's syndrome* - conventional osteosarcoma has a *telangiectatic* variant

Which of the following is/are true of *osteogenic tumors*? - osteoma typically occurs in facial bones and the skull - osteoid osteoma consists of a nidus and sclerotic rim - osteoblastoma is a malignant, locally aggressive tumor - conventional osteosarcoma is not related to Paget's disease

*osteogenic tumors* - osteoma typically occurs in *facial bones* and the *skull* - osteoid osteoma consists of a *nidus* and *sclerotic rim* (osteosarcoma is related to Pagets)

Which of the following is/are true of *osteomyelitis*? - purulent exudate typically spreads through Havers channels into the joint cavity - purulent exudate typically spreads through Havers channels under the periosteum - disease has a tendency to become chronic - walls of the abscess cavity in the bone typically do not collapse

*osteomyelitis* - *purulent exudate* typically spreads through Havers channels *under* the periosteum - walls of the abscess cavity in the bone typically *do not collapse*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteomyelitis*? - in the acute phase of the disease sequestra take origin - an acute phase of the disease has the character of an abscess - sequestra represents necrotic bone tissue - sequestra is vital bone tissue

*osteomyelitis* - an acute phase of the disease has the character of an *abscess* - sequestra represents *necrotic bone tissue*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteomyelitis*? - hematogenous spreading typically affects diaphysis of long bones - hematogenous spreading typically affects metaphyses of long bones - hematogenous origin is typical in adults - hematogenous origin is typical in children

*osteomyelitis* - hematogenous spreading typically affects *metaphyses of long bones* - hematogenous origin is typical in *children*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteoporosis*? - a localized form is called atrophy of the bone - is the loss of mineralized bone tissue components only - is a precancerous condition - affected bone trabeculae show histologically normal construction

*osteoporosis* - a *localized form* is called *atrophy* of the bone - affected bone trabeculae show histologically *normal construction*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteoporosis*? - localized form never occurs - affected bone is soft and breaks easily - fractures in osteoporosis are absent - is not a precancerous

*osteoporosis* - affected bone is *soft* and *breaks easily* - is *not* a precancerous

Which of the following is/are true of *osteoporosis*? - diffuse form is called atrophy of bones - is the loss of mineralized and non-mineralized bone components - occurs in men in the context of low levels of estrogen - occurs in men as senile osteoporosis

*osteoporosis* - is the loss of *mineralized* AND *non-mineralized bone components* - occurs in men as *senile osteoporosis*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteoporosis*? - it is a diffuse disease of the skeleton - localized osteoporosis can occur in patients with chronic rheumatoid arthritis in adjacent joints with ankylosis - it is a precancerous lesion - it is a precancerous condition

*osteoporosis* - it is a *diffuse* disease of the skeleton - localized osteoporosis can occur in patients with *chronic rheumatoid arthritis* in adjacent joints with *ankylosis*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteoporosis*? - generalized form never occurs - microscopically it is the loss of normally developed bone tissue - secondary osteoporosis can be, for example, caused by drugs - is typically complicated by the deposition of amyloid

*osteoporosis* - microscopically it is the loss of *normally developed* bone tissue - *secondary* osteoporosis can be, for example, caused by *drugs*

Which of the following is/are true of *osteoporosis*? - localized form is called osteopenia - is a loss of non-mineralized bone tissue components only - occurs in women in relation to menopause - occurs in women as senile osteoporosis

*osteoporosis* - occurs in women in relation to *menopause* - occurs in women (and MEN) as *senile osteoporosis* Osteopenia refers to bone mineral density (BMD) that is lower than normal peak BMD but not low enough to be classified as osteoporosis

Which of the following is/are true of *pseudogout*? - a synonym is arthritis urica - deposition of crystals in the joints occurs - in a histological diagnosis von Kossa, a staining reaction is used - giant cell inflammatory response is not included among gouty morphological changes

*pseudogout* - *deposition of crystals* in the joints occurs - in a histological diagnosis *von Kossa*, a staining reaction is used

Which of the following is/are true of *pseudogout*? - a synonym is arthritis calcinosa - a synonym is arthritis urticaria - a synonym is chondrocalcinosis - a synonym is osteonecrosis

*pseudogout* - a synonym is *arthritis calcinosa* - a synonym is *chondrocalcinosis* Everything w/calcium! Calcium deposit

Which of the following is/are true of *pseudogout*? - a synonym is arthritis calcinosa - occurs during the deposition of salts of uric acid in joints - occurs during the deposition of calcium salts in joints - polarized light is not used in histological diagnosis

*pseudogout* - a synonym is *arthritis calcinosa* - occurs during the deposition of *calcium salts* in joints

Which of the following is typical of *rheumatoid arthritis*? - deposits of uric acid in the joint cavity - presence of IgG autoantibodies called rheumatoid factor - nonspecific growth of granulation tissue - panus in joints - antinuclear antibodies in serum (ANCA)

*rheumatoid arthritis* - presence of *IgG* autoantibodies called *rheumatoid factor* - nonspecific growth of *granulation tissue* - *panus* in joints

Which of the following is/are true of *staphylococcal* infection of *long bones* in children? - there is a hematogenous spread - the condition has not yet been described - there is direct implantation of infectious agents - hematogenous spread generally does not occur

*staphylococcal* infection of *long bones* in children - there is a *hematogenous* spread - there is *direct implantation* of infectious agents

Which of the following is/are true of *synovial osteochondromatosis*? - is a degenerative disease - occurs congenitally - is a tumor of joints - nodes in the joint correspond to chondromas

*synovial osteochondromatosis* - is a *tumor* of joints - nodes in the joint correspond to *chondromas*

Which of the following is/are true of *synovial osteochondromatosis*? - is a metabolic defect - pathologic deposits are mostly multiple - does not lead to clinically manifested locomotion disorders - is rarely complicated by chondrosarcoma

*synovial osteochondromatosis* - pathologic deposits are mostly *multiple* - is *rarely* complicated by *chondrosarcoma*

Which of the following is/are true of *synovial osteochondromatosis*? - pathological foci are located in the synovial membrane - the border of pathological lesions compared to surrounding tissue is typically sharp

*synovial osteochondromatosis* - pathological foci are located in the *synovial membrane* - the border of pathological lesions compared to surrounding tissue is typically *sharp*

Which of the following is/are true of *synovial sarcoma*? - typically arises inside joints - is a soft tissue carcinosarcoma - a tumor of uncertain histogenesis - a tumor with an excellent prognosis

*synovial sarcoma* - is a *soft tissue carcinosarcoma* - a tumor of *uncertain* histogenesis

Which of the following is/are true of *synovial sarcoma*? - typically metastasizes to lungs - never metastasizes, only recurs locally - generally shows a biphasic arrangement - never shows mucus deposition

*synovial sarcoma* - typically *metastasizes to lungs* - generally shows a *biphasic arrangement*

Which of the following is/are true of *synovial sarcoma*? - typically arises out of a joint - is a fibroadenoma soft tissue - is a mixed tumor - never shows mucus deposition

*synovial sarcoma* - typically arises *out of a joint* - is a *mixed* tumor

Which of the following is/are true of *syphilis of the bones*? - a congenital form of the disease has not yet been described - morphologic manifestation may be a gumma - may result in the formation of a second cortical periosteum - bone tissue changes occur during the primary stage of the disease

*syphilis of the bones* - morphologic manifestation may be a *gumma* - may result in the formation of a *second cortical periosteum* Pic: congenital syphilis: 6 year old girl

Which of the following is/are true of *villoglandular pigmented synovitis*? - is a metabolic defect - pathological foci are isolated and never fuse - clinically threaten complete destruction of the joint - pathological deposits can be demonstrated histochemically with Perls reaction

*villoglandular pigmented synovitis* - clinically threaten *complete destruction* of the joint - pathological deposits can be demonstrated histochemically with *Perls reaction*

Which of the following is/are true of *villoglandular pigmented synovitis*? - is a degenerative disease - corresponds microscopically to giant cell tumors of tendon sheaths - typically shows the presence of giant multinucleated cells - multinucleated giant cells are typically not present

*villoglandular pigmented synovitis* - corresponds microscopically to *giant cell tumors* of *tendon sheaths* - typically shows the presence of *giant multinucleated cells*

Which of the following is/are true of *villoglandular pigmented synovitis**? - is a degenerative disease - is not related to giant cell tumors of tendon sheaths - is a tumor of joints - exhibits pathological hemosiderin pigmentation

*villoglandular pigmented synovitis* - is a *tumor* of joints - exhibits *pathological hemosiderin pigmentation*

Which of the following is/are true of *villoglandular pigmented synovitis*? - pathological deposits can be demonstrated histochemically with the PAS reaction - pathologic deposits can be demonstrated histochemically with the Perls reaction - shows a pathological lipofuscin pigmentation - exhibits pathological hemosiderin pigmentation

*villoglandular pigmented synovitis* - pathologic deposits can be demonstrated histochemically with the *Perls reaction* - exhibits *pathological hemosiderin pigmentation*

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - Aspirin is contraindicated in children with chickenpox or flu symptoms - Aspirin is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease - Aspirin is the drug of choice for rheumatoid arthritis - Aspirin should be avoided in diabetics

- Aspirin is contraindicated in children with chickenpox or flu symptoms - Aspirin is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - Ibuprofen produces an irreversible inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase - Aspirin produces an irreversible inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase - Diclofenac lacks an antiinflammatory effects - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) lacks an antiinflammatory effects

- Aspirin produces an irreversible inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) lacks an antiinflammatory effects

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - COX-2 selective NSAIDs have the advantage of a rapid onset of analgesic action - COX-2 selective NSAIDs have the advantage of a lower risk of gastropathy - COX-2 selective NSAIDs have the advantage of a lower risk of bleeding - COX-2 selective NSAIDs have the advantage of a lower cardiovascular risk

- COX-2 selective NSAIDs have the advantage of a lower risk of gastropathy - COX-2 selective NSAIDs have the advantage of a lower risk of bleeding

Which of the following statements is correct? - Pethidine is an opioid antagonist - Naloxone is an opioid antagonist - Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist - Phenacetin is an opioid antagonist

- Naloxone is an opioid antagonist - Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - Naloxone has a low affinity for mu receptors - Naloxone is effective only by the parenteral route - Naloxone has a significantly longer half-life than morphine - Naloxone acts by competitive inhibition

- Naloxone is effective only by the parenteral route - Naloxone acts by competitive inhibition

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - Opioids are used therapeutically as analgesics - opioids are used therapeutically as antidepressants - opioids are used therapeutically as sedatives - opioids are used therapeutically as anti-diarrheals

- Opioids are used therapeutically as analgesics - opioids are used therapeutically as anti-diarrheals

Which of the following statements is correct? - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in overdose produces hepatotoxicity - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in overdose produces metabolic acidosis - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in overdose produces liver failure - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in overdose produces Reye´s syndrome

- Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in overdose produces hepatotoxicity - Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in overdose produces liver failure

Which of the following statements is correct? - Tramadol is a strong opioid - Tramadol is a non-opioid - Tramadol is a weak opioid - Tramadol is an inhibitor of reuptake of serotonin a noradrenaline

- Tramadol is a weak opioid - Tramadol is an inhibitor of reuptake of serotonin a noradrenaline

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - antiplatelet effect of aspirin is caused by inhibiting the production of prostacyclin - antiplatelet effect of aspirin is caused by inhibiting the production of thromboxane - hepatotoxicity caused by paracetamol overdose can be antagonized by acetylcysteine - hepatotoxicity caused by paracetamol overdose can be antagonized by atropine

- antiplatelet effect of aspirin is caused by inhibiting the production of thromboxane - hepatotoxicity caused by paracetamol overdose can be antagonized by acetylcysteine

Mark the correct answer(s): - articaine is very important local anaesthetic in stomatology - bupivacaine or levobupivacaine are local anesthetics with long-lasting effect used in epidural anaesthesia - trimecaine, lidocaine and articaine are amino-ester local anaesthetics - procaine is amino-amide local anaesthetic

- articaine is very important local anaesthetic in stomatology - bupivacaine or levobupivacaine are local anesthetics with long-lasting effect used in epidural anaesthesia lidocaine, trimecaine, artisane -> amides cocaine, procaine, benzocaine.-> esters

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - death by overdose with strong opioids is caused by excessive hypertension - death by overdose with strong opioids is caused by gastrointestinal bleeding - death by overdose with strong opioids is caused by inhibition of respiration - death by overdose with strong opioids can be prevented by naloxone

- death by overdose with strong opioids is caused by inhibition of respiration - death by overdose with strong opioids can be prevented by naloxone

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - in patients with painful bony metastases oral morphine may be used - in patients with painful bony metastases a combination of an opioid with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) could be beneficial - opioids do not produce important adverse effects in patients with painful bony metastases - in patients with painful bony metastases carbamazepine may have better analgesic effects than opioids

- in patients with painful bony metastases oral morphine may be used - in patients with painful bony metastases a combination of an opioid with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) could be beneficial

Digoxin overdose/intoxication: - is characterized by nausea, vomiting, restlessness, faintness, convulsions, tachycardia leading to serious arrhythmias, changed colour vision - is characterized by sedation, bradycardia, muscle relaxation, remarkable miosis - potassium supply is part of the overdose therapy - there is no specific antidote for digoxin overdose therapy

- is characterized by nausea, vomiting, restlessness, faintness, convulsions, tachycardia leading to serious arrhythmias, changed colour vision - potassium supply is part of the overdose therapy

Which of the following is/are true of *bone TB*? - typically there is direct spread of mycobacteria into bones - typically bones of calva are affected - manifests in the form of cold abscesses - we can distinguish exudative and proliferative forms (fungus)+

- manifests in the form of *cold abscesses* - we can distinguish *exudative and proliferative forms* (fungus)

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of opioids - constipation is a common adverse effect of opioids - peptic ulcer is a common adverse effect of opioids - dependence is a common adverse effect of treatment with opioids

- nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of opioids - constipation is a common adverse effect of opioids

Choose the correct statements: - depolarizing myorelaxants competitively block cholinergic receptors - non-depolarizing myorelaxants competitively block cholinergic receptors - the action of depolarizing myorelaxants induces action potentials - the action of non-depolarizing myorelaxants induces action potentials

- non-depolarizing myorelaxants competitively block cholinergic receptors - the action of depolarizing myorelaxants induces action potentials

Choose the correct statements: - peripheral myorelaxants are divided to depolarizing and non-depolarizing - central myorelaxants are divided to depolarizing and non-depolarizing - diazepam is a central myorelaxant - suxamethonium is a central myorelaxant

- peripheral myorelaxants are divided to depolarizing and non-depolarizing - diazepam is a central myorelaxant

Mark the correct answer(s): - ropivacaine and mepivacaine cause weak vasoconstriction - local anaesthetics have amino-ester or amino-amide molecular structure - local anaesthetics are structurally close to cocaine and that´s why most of them have certain risk of dependency provoking - local anaesthetics are weak acids

- ropivacaine and mepivacaine cause weak vasoconstriction - local anaesthetics have amino-ester or amino-amide molecular structure

Choose the correct statements: - tetrazepam is a depolarizing central myorelaxant - tetrazepam is a hyperpolarizing central myorelaxant - tetrazepam is a depolarizing peripheral myorelaxant - diazepam is a hyperpolarizing central myorelaxant

- tetrazepam is a hyperpolarizing central myorelaxant - diazepam is a hyperpolarizing central myorelaxant

Choose the correct statements: - the effect of central myorelaxants can be abolished by neostigmine - the effect of depolarizing myorelaxants can be abolished by neostigmine - the effect of non-depolarizing myorelaxants can be abolished by neostigmine - the effect of some central myorelaxants can be abolished by flumazenil

- the effect of non-depolarizing myorelaxants can be abolished by neostigmine - the effect of some central myorelaxants can be abolished by flumazenil (benzodiazepam)

Which of the following statements is/are correct? - the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding after NSAIDs is higher in infants - the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding after NSAIDs is higher in diabetes - the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding after NSAIDs is higher in elderly (>65 years) - the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding after NSAIDs is higher in ulcer disease

- the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding after NSAIDs is higher in elderly (>65 years) - the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding after NSAIDs is higher in ulcer disease

Which is/are true of the muscles: - tonic system muscles are prone to tightness or shortness - phasic system muscles are prone to weakness or inhibition - following structural lesions in the central nervous systems (such cerebral palsy or cerebrovascular accident), the phasic muscles tend to be spastic - patterns of muscle imbalances caused by structural changes within the muscle itself

- tonic system muscles are prone to tightness or shortness - phasic system muscles are prone to weakness or inhibition

ANESTHESIOLOGY AND INTENSIVE CARE

-->

ARTEFICIAL JOINT REPLACEMENTS

-->

BONE TUMORS

-->

BURNS

-->

CLINICAL ANATOMY

-->

EPIDEMIOLOGY AND PREVENTION OF INJURY

-->

GENERAL TRAUMATOLOGY

-->

HAND SURGERY

-->

NEUROSURGERY

-->

NUCLEAR MEDICINE

-->

ORTHOPEDICS

-->

PATHOLOGY

-->

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

-->

PEDIATRIC SURGERY

-->

PHARMACOLOGY

-->

PLASTIC SURGERY

-->

RADIOLOGY

-->

REHABILITATION

-->

REPLANTATION SURGERY

-->

SEPTIC ORTHOPEDICS

-->

TRAUMATOLOGY SURGERY

-->

18-year-old girl presents with a lump on the surface of the femoral metaphysis. Histological examination reveals mature bone covered with a cartilage cap. Which of the following diagnosis would fit best? - enchondroma - osteocartilaginous exostosis - osteochondroma - osteoma

32-year-old woman complains of *pain and stiffness of joints*. She argues that her difficulties have been present for at least *six months*. On physical examination a *symmetrical erythema* with swelling of phalangeal-metacarpal joints was detected. What is the most likely pathology? - non-specific granulation tissue formation - hyperplastic and disorganized cartilage - crystals in joint fluid - proliferative synovitis

32-year-old woman complains of *pain and stiffness of joints*. She argues that her difficulties have been present for at least *six months*. On physical examination a *symmetrical erythema* with swelling of phalangeal-metacarpal joints was detected. What is the most likely pathology? - *non-specific granulation tissue* formation - *proliferative synovitis*

Axilla contains: - n. radialis - n. suprascapularis - n. infrascapularis - n. ulnaris

Axilla contains: - n. radialis - n. ulnaris

52 year old female suffering from pain on right site of thorax after a fall from height. Saturation 99% on mask oxygen, vital functions stable. Diagnosis of serial fracture of ribs with paradox movements of right hemithorax. What statement is correct? - intubation is not indicated - restriction of analgesia and sedation in prevention of hypercapnia - external fixation of ribs - test of response on non-invasive distension (CPAP)

52 year old female suffering from pain on right site of thorax after a fall from height. Saturation 99% on mask oxygen, vital functions stable. Diagnosis of serial fracture of ribs with paradox movements of right hemithorax. - intubation is not indicated - test of response on non-invasive distension (CPAP)

Axilla: - is hexagonal pyramid shaped - is ventrally bordered by the m. pectoralis major - is medially bordered by the humerus and its muscles - contains terminal part of the a. subclavia

Axilla: - is ventrally bordered by the m. pectoralis major - contains terminal part of the a. subclavia

Absolute indications for surgical treatment are: - fractures with neuro-vascular injury - open fractures grade II. and grade III. (Gustilo-Anderson) - unstable fractures and significantly displaced fractures - all fractures of polytraumatised patients

Absolute indications for surgical treatment are: - fractures with neuro-vascular injury+ - open fractures grade II. and grade III. (Gustilo-Anderson)+

According to the mechanism of injury, the most severe thermal injuries are: - electric arc flash burns - hot water scalds - caused by flame and explosions in closed spaces - burns from electric current

According to the mechanism of injury, the most severe thermal injuries are: - caused by flame and explosions in closed spaces+ - burns from electric current+

A healthy elderly person is most likely to show decreased auditory acuity for which of the following: - high-frequency tones - low-frequency tones - tones of higher wave length - tones presented by air but not by bone conduction

A healthy elderly person is most likely to show decreased auditory acuity for which of the following: - low-frequency tones - tones presented by air but not by bone conduction

Accumulation of Tc-99m labeled biphosphonates in bone tissue depends on: - local blood flow and capillary permeability - properties of the radiopharmaceutical used - metabolic activity of bony cells (osteoblasts and osteoclasts) and turnover of bony minerals - volume of surrounding soft tissue

Accumulation of Tc-99m labeled biphosphonates in bone tissue depends on: - local blood flow and capillary permeability - metabolic activity of bony cells (osteoblasts and osteoclasts) and turnover of bony minerals

A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after attempting suicide by cutting her wrist. The deepest part of the wound is between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and the flexor digitorum superficialis. This patient will most likely to have a deficit in which of the following: - adduction and abduction of the fingers - ability of the thumb to stand up against other fingers - adduction of the thumb - opposition of the thumb

A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after attempting suicide by cutting her wrist. The deepest part of the wound is between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and the flexor digitorum superficialis. This patient will most likely to have a deficit in which of the following: - ability of the thumb to stand up against other fingers - opposition of the thumb (thumb + o)

Acetabulum: - top of the acetabulum is made up of os ilium - is made up of body of the three pelvic bones - os pubis makes up half of the acetabular cup - in childhood it is made up of os ilium and ischii only

Acetabulum: - top of the acetabulum is made up of os ilium+ - is made up of body of the three pelvic bones+

A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency room in a coma. CT scan of the head demonstrates a subarachnoid hemorrhage without parenchymal hemorrhage. Which of the following could be the source of bleeding? - arteria basilaris - bridging veins - rupture of a circle of Willis aneurysm - subdural bleeding

A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency room in a coma. CT scan of the head demonstrates a subarachnoid hemorrhage without parenchymal hemorrhage. Which of the following could be the source of bleeding? - arteria basilaris - rupture of a circle of Willis aneurysm subdural = bridging veins

A 45-year-old man has abnormal circadian variation in body temperature, disruption of the sleep-wake cycle, and an impaired nocturnal surge of secretion of melatonin. The lesion can involve which of the following nuclei: - preoptic - pretectal - suprachiasmatic thalamic - supraoptic

A 45-year-old man has abnormal circadian variation in body temperature, disruption of the sleep-wake cycle, and an impaired nocturnal surge of secretion of melatonin. The lesion can involve which of the following nuclei: - suprachiasmatic thalamic -> temp - supraoptic -> sleep wake

Neostigmine: - is antagonist of suxamethonium - is antagonist of benzodiazepines - is antagonist of acetylcholinesterase - has parasympathomimetic effects

Neostigmine: - is antagonist of acetylcholinesterase - has parasympathomimetic effects

A 49-year-old man is taken to the emergency department because of neck pain that began after the car he was driving was hit in the rear by a small delivery-type truck. X-rays of the neck show no cervical fractures. A diagnosis of "whiplash" is made, and he is fitted with a neck brace. Several hours later he begins to have headaches and numbness in the scalp over the left occipital region. The cause is compression of which of the following structures: - cervical spinal cord including the dorsal root - dorsal segment of the second cervical nerve root - cerebri media - left vertebral artery

A 50-year-old man has had gradually progressive weakness of the hands during the past year. Physical examination shows atrophy of the forearm muscles, fasciculations of the muscles of the chest and upper extremities, and hyperreflexia of the lower extremities. Babinski sign is present bilaterally. Sensation is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? - amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - lower motor neuron disease - Guillain-Barré syndrome - multiple sclerosis

A 60-year-old man develops a tremor in his fingers. The tremor is most pronounced when he reaches for his coffee cup or points to an object. Which of the following components of the motor system is most likely to be involved? - basal ganglia - cerebellar hemisphere - fronto-ponto-cerebellar tract - thalamic nuclei

A 60-year-old man develops a tremor in his fingers. The tremor is most pronounced when he reaches for his coffee cup or points to an object. Which of the following components of the motor system is most likely to be involved? - cerebellar hemisphere - fronto-ponto-cerebellar tract cerebellum - fine motor movements

A 72-year-old man collapses while playing golf. He has a 5-year history of angina pectoris and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Paramedics arrive in 10 minutes. Examination shows no respirations or blood pressure; an ECG shows no ventricular complexes. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is attempted for 10 minutes without success. Which of the following could be the cause of death in this patient? - atrial fibrillation - severe ischemia of the myocardium - neurogenic syncope - ventricular fibrillation

A 72-year-old man collapses while playing golf. He has a 5-year history of angina pectoris and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Paramedics arrive in 10 minutes. Examination shows no respirations or blood pressure; an ECG shows no ventricular complexes. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is attempted for 10 minutes without success. Which of the following could be the cause of death in this patient? - severe ischemia of the myocardium - ventricular fibrillation

A drug that blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors would interfere with the functions of: - the sympathetic division of autonomic outflow - the parasympathetic division of autonomic outflow - salivatory glands - sweat glands

A drug that blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors would interfere with the functions of: - the parasympathetic division of autonomic outflow - salivatory glands

A healthy 35-year-old woman has a cast removed from her leg after 6 weeks of immobilization. Which of the following best characterizes her gastrocnemius muscle at this time? - decrease in number of fast fibers - decrease in number of myofibrils - increase in number of mitochondria - numeric atrophy

A little school boy - has dry, warm scarlet skin, fever, dry mucosa (mouth, eyes), mydriasis, tachycardia, he is confused (intermittent coma): - it is presumably organophosphates poisoning (e.g. DDT field spraying) - it is presumably poisoning with atropine or scopolamine containing plants (Atropa belladonna, Datura stramonium etc.) - atropine can be used as a specific antidote in this poisoning/overdose - physostigmine (=ACHEI) can be used as a specific antidote in this poisoning/overdose

A little school boy - has dry, warm scarlet skin, fever, dry mucosa (mouth, eyes), mydriasis, tachycardia, he is confused (intermittent coma): - it is presumably poisoning with atropine or scopolamine containing plants (Atropa belladonna, Datura stramonium etc.) - physostigmine (=ACHEI) can be used as a specific antidote in this poisoning/overdose

A man (60) is brought to the emergency room with *left leg pain* in the hip area, it happened when getting up from a chair. X-ray shows a *fracture* line running through the neck and the presence of lytic deposits in fractures. Chest X-ray shows irregular shading of the upper lobe of the right lung. The fracture can be described as: - comminutive - pathological - depressed - arising out of suspected tumor metastasis

A man (60) is brought to the emergency room with *left leg pain* in the hip area, it happened when getting up from a chair. X-ray shows a *fracture* line running through the neck and the presence of lytic deposits in fractures. Chest X-ray shows irregular shading of the upper lobe of the right lung. The fracture can be described as: - pathological - arising out of suspected tumor metastasis

A patient suffered severe damage to several lumbar spinal nerves following a motorcycle accident. In addition to a number of sensory and motor deficits, this person experiences problems with normal function of the urinary bladder. Which of the following contributes to the bladder dysfunction? - disturbances in the ejection phase of bladder function - impaired control of internal sphincter muscles - impaired control of external sphincter muscles - stress incontinence

A patient with a crushed leg can be at risk of cardiac failure due to: - tachycardia - hypernatremia - hypercalcemia - hyperkalemia

A patient with a crushed leg can be at risk of cardiac failure due to: - tachycardia - hyperkalemia

A patient with burns is at risk of: - hypovolemic shock - hypernatremia - edemas due to low oncotic pressure - arrhythmias due to hypercalcemia

A patient with burns is at risk of: - hypovolemic shock - edemas due to low oncotic pressure

A person whose cortical EEG presents low voltage and high frequency (beta) waves is probably: - dreaming - in REM sleep - in stage 2 (moderate deep) non-REM sleep - in a coma

A person whose cortical EEG presents low voltage and high frequency (beta) waves is probably: - dreaming - in REM sleep

A reduction in ACh esterase in the neuromuscular junction will cause: - local muscarinic signs - local nicotinic signs - tremor, spasms and paralysis - increase in muscle tone

A reduction in ACh esterase in the neuromuscular junction will cause: - local nicotinic signs - tremor, spasms and paralysis (then you'll have increased Ach - nicotinic)

A small human body frame size is associated with all the following diseases EXCEPT: - osteoarthritis - achondroplasia - osteogenesis imperfecta - Paget's disease

A small human body frame size is associated with all the following diseases EXCEPT: - osteoarthritis - Paget's disease

A toxin attacks a cell causing the cell's membrane voltage to depolarize to near 0 mV. As a result, what will happen to cell volume? - remain constant - increase - decrease - does not remain constant

A toxin attacks a cell causing the cell's membrane voltage to depolarize to near 0 mV. As a result, what will happen to cell volume? - increase - does not remain constant

A traumatic bleeding into the rectus sheet most likely originates from the: - umbilical artery - superficial epigastric artery - inferior epigastric artery - superior epigastric artery

A traumatic bleeding into the rectus sheet most likely originates from the - inferior epigastric artery - superior epigastric artery

A typical Colles fracture dislocation is compared to: - the fork - the mount - the spoon - the handle

A typical Colles fracture dislocation is compared to: - the fork+ - the mount+ fml

A young man in coma, shows gasping breath, bradycardia, hypotension, remarkable unresponsive miosis, syringe marks on the body: - it is presumably opioid overdose - it is presumably benzodiazepine overdose - flumazenil can be used as a specific antidote in this poisoning - naloxone can be used as a specific antidote in this poisoning

A young man in coma, shows gasping breath, bradycardia, hypotension, remarkable unresponsive miosis, syringe marks on the body: - it is presumably opioid overdose - naloxone can be used as a specific antidote in this poisoning

ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) classification: - is a 4 point sele - includes criteria for extent of surgery - non-includes criteria for emergency of surgery - is a 6 point scale

ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) classification: - non-includes criteria for emergency of surgery - is a 6 point scale The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients *before* surgery.

ASA Status Classification Systém: - Status 5 - A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation - Status 2 - probability of death after surgery is 10 % - Letter E means Emergeny - Status 1 means minor surgery (without opening body cavity)

ASA Status Classification Systém - Status 5 - A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation - Letter E means Emergeny

Abdominal injury in children is diagnosed by: - clinical examination only - clinical and USG examination - clinical and laboratory examination - laparoscopy

Abdominal injury in children is diagnosed by: - clinical and USG examination+ - clinical and laboratory examination+

Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in shock causes: - vasoconstriction - vasodilation - sodium shifts - sodium and water retention

Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in shock causes - vasoconstriction - sodium and water retention

Abdominal regions: - the epigastrium is a space between the anterior wall of stomach and the diaphragm - the hypogastrium is a space between the posterior wall of stomach and anterior face of the pancreas - the pubic region is the same area as the hypogastrium - the term „hypochondrium" designates the subcostal region

Abdominal regions: - the pubic region is the same area as the hypogastrium - the term „hypochondrium" designates the subcostal region

Active injury prevention strategies mean: - educational intervention programs - use of printed materials, media - law or policy that must be followed - use of seat belts, helmets

Active injury prevention strategies mean: - educational intervention programs - use of printed materials, media

AC dislocation Tossy 3 is: - a lesion of acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments - characterized by the presence of „the key symptom" - a definite indication for conservative treatment - lesion of only the acromioclavicular ligament

AC dislocation Tossy 3 is: - a lesion of acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments+ - characterized by the presence of „the key symptom"+

AO classification of the proximal humerus fractures: - complexity of the fracture increases from A type to C type - C type has a higher risk of avascular necrosis of the humeral head - not used in practice - A type involves comminuted fracture of the joint surface of the humeral head

AO classification of the proximal humerus fractures: - complexity of the fracture increases from A type to C type+ - C type has a higher risk of avascular necrosis of the humeral head+

ARDS: - is associated with massive exudative lung edema - is the clinical manifestation of "shock lung" - is the same as "shock kidney" - causes hypocapnia

ARSD - is associated with massive exudative lung edema - is the clinical manifestation of "shock lung" acute respiratory distress syndrome

Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: - typical X-ray findings are swelling, osteolysis, sequester formation - the therapy is based surgical procedure (incision, evacuation, drainage, removal sequester), intravenous usage of ATB - sequester is not a typical for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis - the characteristic is a slow and gradual onset of disease, fever is not typical clinical symptom

Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: - typical X-ray findings are swelling, osteolysis, sequester formation+ - the therapy is based surgical procedure (incision, evacuation, drainage, removal sequester), intravenous usage of ATB+

Acute intoxication with amphetamine derivates (methamphetamine = Pervitin, MDMA etc.): - amphetamine derivates in their pure form (without admixtures or dash) have practically no risks of rhabdomyolysis or disseminative intravascular coagulation - is characterized by cardiovascular system stimulation and central stimulation, hyperactivity, mydriasis, sweating, hyperthermia, sometimes hallucinations - intoxication therapy is only symptomatic, no specific antidote is at the disposal - methamphetamine (Pervitin) intoxication is not life dangerous

Acute intoxication with amphetamine derivates (methamphetamine = Pervitin, MDMA etc.): - is characterized by cardiovascular system stimulation and central stimulation, hyperactivity, mydriasis, sweating, hyperthermia, sometimes hallucinations - intoxication therapy is only symptomatic, no specific antidote is at the disposal

Acute peripheral bone osteomyelitis shows: - positive in all three phases of bone scan - increased accumulation of Tc-99m MIBI - increased accumulation of labeled leukocytes - decreased accumulation of labeled leukocytes

Acute peripheral bone osteomyelitis shows: - positive in all three phases of bone scan - increased accumulation of labeled leukocytes

Acute septic arthritis (for example gonitis): - can be caused by iatrogenic activity - cannot be caused by iatrogenic activity - CRP (C-reactive protein) is often around 200 mg/l in lab tests - CRP (C-reactive protein) is often around 20 mg/l in lab tests

Acute septic arthritis (for example gonitis): - can be caused by iatrogenic activity+ - CRP (C-reactive protein) is often around 200 mg/l in lab tests+ iatrogenic - resulting from the activity of physicians (e.g. joint puncture)

Acute subdurale hematoma: - "classic" CT appearance occurs hyperdensity biconvex (lenticular) shape on the convexity - "classic" CT appearance occurs hypodensity biconvex (lenticular) shape on the convexity - "classic" CT appearance occurs hyperdensity crescentic shape on the convexity - on CT is crescentic shape usually over large part of hemisphere

Acute subdurale hematoma: - "classic" CT appearance occurs hyperdensity crescentic shape on the convexity - on CT is crescentic shape usually over large part of hemisphere

Addition of adrenaline to local anaesthetic is contraindicated in: - infiltration anaesthesia in face - infiltration anaesthesia in stomatology - circular infiltration anaesthesia of a finger - circular infiltration anaesthesia in penis

Addition of adrenaline to local anaesthetic is contraindicated in: - circular infiltration anaesthesia of a finger - circular infiltration anaesthesia in penis

Adductory canal (Canalis adductorius): - runs between portions of the m. adductor magnus - contains the n. ischiadicus and its branches - contains the a. femoralis - distally runs between heads of the m. triceps surae

Adductory canal (Canalis adductorius): - runs between portions of the m. adductor magnus - contains the a. femoralis

Administration of drugs during cardiac arrest - what statement is right: - administration to v. femoralis is the most safe a effective way - the drugs for endotracheal application are: epinephrine, atropine, lidocain in the same dosage as intravenous adm. - intracardial injection is not recommended - intramedular (intraosseal) administration is alternative way to i.v. administration

Administration of drugs during cardiac arrest - what statement is right: - intracardial injection is not recommended - intramedular (intraosseal) administration is alternative way to i.v. administration

Adrenalin: - is basic drug in resuscitation (CPR) - in administered during resuscitation every 3-5 minutes - in administered during resuscitation according to evidence based medicine - initial dose during CPR is 1 mg, and may be increased during repeated administration

Adrenalin: - is basic drug in resuscitation (CPR) - in administered during resuscitation every 3-5 minutes

After an injury in the hand area: - we always apply the tourniquet - we use compression bandage - we stabilize the limb on the splint - we do not stop the bleeding to prevent the worsening of fingers nutrition

After an injury in the hand area: - we use compression bandage+ - we stabilize the limb on the splint+

After defibrillation: - check the rhythm and give adrenalin in case of pulseless ventricular tachycardia - independently of the rhythm continue resuscitation for 2 minutes before assessment the result - in an adult, administer adrenalin 1 mg i.v. after first unsuccessful shock - in an adult, administer adrenalin 1 mg i.v. after third unsuccessful shock and repeat every 3 - 5 minutes till normal rhythm restoration or termination of resuscitation

After defibrillation: - independently of the rhythm continue resuscitation for 2 minutes before assessment the result - in an adult, administer adrenalin 1 mg i.v. after third unsuccessful shock and repeat every 3 - 5 minutes till normal rhythm restoration or termination of resuscitation

After thoracic drainage insertion due to pneumothorax is necessary: - to make x- ray controle - start ATB treatment in 1 hour period - to apply the continuous negative pressure in drainage system and thoracic cavity - to apply fluctuating negative - positive pressure ( cca 1 kPa) in drainage system to prevent colapse of lung and infection

After thoracic drainage insertion due to pneumothorax is necessary: - to make x- ray controle - to apply the continuous negative pressure in drainage system and thoracic cavity

Allergic reaction to local anaesthetic: - is rare - cannot be predicted - is more frequent in geriatric patients - is present in approx. 3 % of local anaesthesias

Allergic reaction to local anaesthetic: - is rare - cannot be predicted

American Society of Anesthesiology (ASA) classification before anaesthesia: - is used in USA only and is not relevant for patients in the Czech Republic - is objective classification for perioperative (30 days) mortality - ASA Status 3 is used for a patient with severe systemic disease - ASA classification does not include the risk of surgery

American Society of Anesthesiology (ASA) classification before anaesthesia: - ASA Status 3 is used for a patient with severe systemic disease - ASA classification does not include the risk of surgery

Amino-ester local anaesthetics: - are more widely used than amino-amide local anaesthetics - are synthetic cocaine derivates - have higher risks of allergic adverse effects in comparison to amino-amide local anaesthetics - have lower interaction risks than amino-amide local anaesthetics

Amino-ester local anaesthetics: - are synthetic cocaine derivates - have higher risks of allergic adverse effects in comparison to amino-amide local anaesthetics

Among clinical signs of unstable pelvic injuries include: - pain with no response to analgesics (opioids) - instability and crepitus on examination - increasing bleeding or hematoma - loss of sacral sensory functions

Among clinical signs of unstable pelvic injuries include: - instability and crepitus on examination+ - increasing bleeding or hematoma+ INstable - Instability - Increased bleeding

Among fractures of the proximal femur include: - fractures of the femoral neck - subtrochanteric fractures - supracondylar fractures - intercondylar fractures of the femur

Among fractures of the proximal femur include: - fractures of the femoral neck+ - subtrochanteric fractures+

Among most widely used classifications of pelvic injuries include: - Weber's classification - Garden classification - AO classification - Young-Burgess classification

Among most widely used classifications of pelvic injuries include: - AO classification+ - Young-Burgess classification+

Among random skin flaps belong: Indian flap Z-plasty axial groin flap door flap

Among random skin flaps belong: Z-plasty+ door flap+

Among signs of unstable injuries of pelvis include: - transversal fracture of sacrum - fracture of both pubic rami - fracture of the L5 transverse process - fracture of spina ischiadica

Among signs of unstable injuries of pelvis include: - fracture of the L5 transverse process+ - fracture of spina ischiadica+ ..alt du ikka har hørt om

Among the most serious complications of conservative therapy include: - compartment syndrome, Volkmann's ischemic contracture, plaster sores - deep venous thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism PE - weight of plaster - injuries of visceral organs

Among the most serious complications of conservative therapy include: - compartment syndrome, Volkmann's ischemic contracture, plaster sores+ - deep venous thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism PE+

Among the typical fractures of the growing skeleton are counted: - bowing fracture - Monteggia's lesion - metaphyseal torus fracture - spiral fracture

Among the typical fractures of the growing skeleton are counted: - bowing fracture+ - metaphyseal torus fracture+

Among the typical sequels of the fractures of the growing skeleton are counted: - disturbance of growth - growth arrest - arthrosis - nonunion

Among the typical sequels of the fractures of the growing skeleton are counted: - disturbance of growth+ - growth arrest+

Among typical features for ageing joints include: - joint space narrowing (loss of elasticity) - loss of bone mass (osteoporosis) - formation of osteophytes - formation of bone cysts

Among typical features for ageing joints include: - joint space narrowing (loss of elasticity)+ - loss of bone mass (osteoporosis)+

Amputated part is cooled during transport to replantation centre: - in isotonic sterile solution - in the form of dry cooling - in the form of dry cooling, just the amputation area is covered by wet gaze - around amputated part is laid crushed ice

Amputated part is cooled during transport to replantation centre: - in the form of dry cooling+ - in the form of dry cooling, just the amputation area is covered by wet gaze+

Amputated part is: - cooled to a temperature of 4 C - cooled to temperature of 10 C - is kept frozen - must not freeze

Amputated part is: - cooled to a temperature of 4 C + - must not freeze+

An increase in the parasympathetic stimulation of the urinary bladder will result in: - relaxation of all regions of smooth muscle within the bladder - contraction of the detrusor muscle - contraction of the external urethral sphincter - in decreased tone of the internal urethral sphincter

An increase in the parasympathetic stimulation of the urinary bladder will result in: - contraction of the detrusor muscle - in decreased tone of the internal urethral sphincter

An infant presents with severe growth retardation and bleeding tendencies. Upon further examination, you observe that plasma triglyceride levels are extremely low even after a meal. You suspect a defect in: - bile acid production - pancreatic enzyme production - Rh incompatibility - hemophilia A

An injured rotator cuff: - is not require treatment - requires full reparation for good shoulder joint function - the most common symptom is a pain - suture of rotator cuff is contraindicated in osteoporotic bone

An injured rotator cuff: - requires full reparation for good shoulder joint function + - the most common symptom is a pain+

An injury of the middle band of extensor above PIP joint: - presents as the buttonwhole deformity - presents as the Boutonniere deformity - presents by an inability of finger flexion - does not present, it is difficult to find

An injury of the middle band of extensor above PIP joint: - presents as the buttonwhole deformity+ - presents as the Boutonniere deformity+

Nerve supply of finger is maintained by: - n. medianus - only n. ulnaris - only n. radialis - all mentioned nerves

Nerve supply of finger is maintained by: - n. medianus+ - all mentioned nerves+

An unconscious patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is brought into the emergency room with irregular breathing, a blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, a strong smell of acetone on his breath, and blood glucose of 15 mmol/l. What combination of possible reasons can account for the patient's state? - an IDDM (type I) and accidental injection of inappropriate dose of insulin with his last meal - an IDDM (type I) and erroneously used saline instead of insulin injections all day - a NIDDM (type II) and a high fat, low carbohydrate diet - body building and misuse of anabolic steroids for body forming

An unconscious patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is brought into the emergency room with irregular breathing, a blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, a strong smell of acetone on his breath, and blood glucose of 15 mmol/l. What combination of possible reasons can account for the patient's state? - an IDDM (type I) and erroneously used saline instead of insulin injections all day - body building and misuse of anabolic steroids for body forming

Angular displacement of fragments can be: - ad latus (transversal) - with impaction - valgus - varus

Angular displacement of fragments can be: - valgus - varus angular - vinkel - v

Ankle sprains: - ligament injuries are divided into three levels - distension, partial rupture, complete rupture - always treat surgical revision and suture ligaments - is the most typical injury of women in the postmenopausal period - in most cases are treated with conservative plaster fixation with fixation length proportional to the degree of injury

Ankle sprains: - ligament injuries are divided into three levels - distension, partial rupture, complete rupture+ - in most cases are treated with conservative plaster fixation with fixation length proportional to the degree of injury+

Anterior axillary line: - corresponds to the position of proximal segment of the cephalic vein - runs through the anterior axillary fold - represents the borderline between the axilla and thorax - is perpendicular to the node of Sorgius

Anterior axillary line: - runs through the anterior axillary fold - represents the borderline between the axilla and thorax

Anti-shock therapy: - is initiated in adult patients with TBSA ≤ 5% - includes timely and adequate sedation - is always initiated in pediatric patients - includes volume therapy using resuscitative solutions (crystalloids, colloids) according to the Parkland or modified Brooke formulae

Anti-shock therapy: - includes timely and adequate sedation+ - includes volume therapy using resuscitative solutions (crystalloids, colloids) according to the Parkland or modified Brooke formulae+

Antidote of opioids si: - naloxon - sugammadex - naltrexon - opioids do not have antagonists

Antidote of opioids si: - naloxon - naltrexon

Apixaban: - directly inhibits the catalytic site of factor Xa - inhibits coagulation after antithrombin activation which blocks the factor Xa effect - can be applied orally and intravenously, its effect is well predictable without necessary effect monitoring and with low risks of drug interactions - its effect can be terminated by indirect factor Xa inhibitors

Apixaban: - directly inhibits the catalytic site of factor Xa - can be applied orally and intravenously, its effect is well predictable without necessary effect monitoring and with low risks of drug interactions

Arterial bleeding is controlled using: - pelvic clamps - selective embolization - procoagulant factors - open tamponade

Arterial bleeding is controlled using: - selective embolization+ - open tamponade+

Arthrocentesis of knee containing blood suggests: - meniscus injury - injury to the anterior cruciate ligament - injury of the lateral collateral ligament - osteochondral fracture

Arthrocentesis of knee containing blood suggests: - injury to the anterior cruciate ligament+ - osteochondral fracture+

Arthrocentesis of knee containing synovial fluid suggests: - osteochondral fracture - meniscus injury - chronic instability - acute instability

Arthrocentesis of knee containing synovial fluid suggests: - meniscus injury+ - chronic instability+

As a part of basics in microsurgery technique is: - operation microscope and special operating stool for hand support - special operating table with accessories - enlargement and special instruments - special instruments and ultra-soft atraumatic suture material

As a part of basics in microsurgery technique is: - enlargement and special instruments+ - special instruments and ultra-soft atraumatic suture material+

As a zone of no-man's land is called: - the area of chiasma tendineum - zone 2 - zone 3 - the insertion of the tendon to the bone

As a zone of no-man's land is called: - the area of chiasma tendineum+ - zone 2 + - zone 3

As avulsion fracture occurs in association with: - femoral neck - olecranon - scaphoid - spina ilica anterior inferior

As avulsion fracture occurs in association with: - olecranon - spina ilica anterior inferior traction (avulsion = one tendon is stronger so its pulling the bone of making it break) olecranon - albue spina ilica anterior inferior - pelvis (skjer hos sportsutøvere når musklene som er festet har stor contraction)

As complication of fracture healing may be considered: - avascular necrosis - osteomyelitis - osteosclerosis - osteomalacia

As complication of fracture healing may be considered: - avascular necrosis - osteomyelitis

As stress fractures can be classified: - pathologic fractures - march fractures - greenstick fractures - fatigue fractures

As stress fractures can be classified: - march fractures - fatigue fractures

Attachments of the ribs onto the sternum: - the 1st - 7th ribs are attached directly to the sternum - 1st rib has on the sternum a common attachment with the clavicle - the 8th rib attaches on the cartilage of the 7th rib - the costal cartilages ossify after the 40th year

Attachments of the ribs onto the sternum: - the 1st - 7th ribs are attached directly to the sternum - the 8th rib attaches on the cartilage of the 7th rib

Autologous graft is: transferred from one region to another of the same individual transferred from one individual to another within the same species transferred between species transferred in cultured keratinocytes

Autologous graft is: transferred from one region to another of the same individual+ transferred in cultured keratinocytes+

Axial pattern flaps: have random blood supply have a well-defined vascular supply may be used as a free flaps have not a better blood supply than other flaps

Axial pattern flaps: have a well-defined vascular supply+ may be used as a free flaps+

Between joint preserving operations belong in osteoarthritis of hip and knee: - arthroscopic wash-out, cartilage transplantation, synovectomy - varus and valgus osteotomy, shelf procedures (Bosworth) - total replacement arthroplasty, hemiarthroplasty, unicompartemal replacement - joint resection (Girdlestone arthroplasty), arthrodesis

Between joint preserving operations belong in osteoarthritis of hip and knee: - arthroscopic wash-out, cartilage transplantation, synovectomy - varus and valgus osteotomy, shelf procedures (Bosworth) ...bare tenk på før du trenger total replacement. Girdlestone er senere (?)

Between structures behind lateral ankle (malleolus lateralis) DOES NOT belongs: - v. saphena magna - n. suralis - v. saphena parva - n. saphenous

Between structures behind lateral ankle (malleolus lateralis) DOES NOT belongs: - v. saphena magna - n. saphenous

Between structures behind medial ankle (malleolus medialis) belongs: - n. tibialis - n. fibularis - v. saphena parva - tendon of the m. tibialis post.

Between structures behind medial ankle (malleolus medialis) belongs: - n. tibialis - tendon of the m. tibialis post.

Between structures in front of medial ankle (malleolus medialis) DOES NOT belong: - n. suralis - n. saphenous - tendon of m. tibialis ant. - v. saphena parva

Between structures in front of medial ankle (malleolus medialis) DOES NOT belong: - n. suralis - v. saphena parva

Bilateral lung contusion is: - life threatening status - ATB therapy is indicated - surgery is usually not indicated - hemodialysis is necessary

Bilateral lung contusion is: - life threatening status - ATB therapy is indicated

Birth fractures: - are always pathological - are very frequent even in developed countries - are treated strictly conservatively - most common location is collar bone

Birth fractures: - are treated strictly conservatively+ - most common location is collar bone+

Blast syndrome: - is the same as crush syndrome - could be due to the tunneling in mines - is due to the high pressure wave during an explosion - primarily affects organs containing air

Blast syndrome: - is due to the high pressure wave during an explosion - primarily affects organs containing air

Block rib fracture leads to: - paradoxical ventilation - respiratory failure - hemoptysis - subileus status

Block rib fracture leads to - paradoxical ventilation - respiratory failure

Based on the site, the most serious burns are: - those of the face and neck - those of the front of the torso - inhalation injuries - hard to determine because the burn site does not matter

Based on the site, the most serious burns are: - those of the face and neck+ - inhalation injuries+

Basic equipment of every ICU bed includes: - syringe pump - blood gas analyser - intravenous infusion pump - defibrillator

Basic equipment of every ICU bed - syringe pump - defibrillator

Basic prerequisites for dynamic kidney scintigraphy are: - good patient hydration - voiding just before imaging - suppression of thyroid gland - sedation in children

Basic prerequisites for dynamic kidney scintigraphy are: - good patient hydration - voiding just before imaging

Beach chair position: - position of the patient during surgery of the shoulder joint - position of the patient during CT examination of the shoulder joint - improves visibility during surgery of the shoulder joint - unsuitable in total proximal humerus replacement

Beach chair position: - position of the patient during surgery of the shoulder joint+ - improves visibility during surgery of the shoulder joint+

Before surgery should not be discontinued the use of: - beta-blockers - ACE inhibitors - oral antidiabetics - anti-parkinsonics

Before surgery should not be discontinued the use of - beta-blockers - anti-parkinsonics

Blood loss during unstable pelvic injuries is most often caused by: - bleeding from the bone - venous bleeding - arterial bleeding - capillary bleeding

Blood loss during unstable pelvic injuries is most often caused by: - bleeding from the bone+ - venous bleeding+

Blunt trauma associated with rapid deceleration causes two different types of vascular injury in the abdomen: - avulsion of small branches from the major vessels - completely disrupt exposed vessels - intimal tear with secondary thrombosis of lumen - rupture of abdominal aorta

Blunt trauma associated with rapid deceleration causes - avulsion of small branches from the major vessels - intimal tear with secondary thrombosis of lumen

Bone densitometry: - is a qualitative method of osteoporosis evaluation - determines the degree of osteoporosis by means of a T-score - measures absorption of X-rays in bone - determines the degree of osteoporosis by means of the cortical index

Bone densitometry: - determines the degree of osteoporosis by means of a T-score - measures absorption of X-rays in bone

Botulinum poisoning will result in which of the following changes at the neuromuscular junction: - a block of Na+ entry to the postsynaptic nerve terminal - a block of Cl- entry to the postsynaptic nerve terminal - an increase in miniature end-plate potentials (MEPP) amplitude - a block of Ca2+ entry to the presynaptic nerve terminal

Botulinum poisoning will result in which of the following changes at the neuromuscular junction: - an increase in miniature end-plate potentials (MEPP) amplitude - a block of Ca2+ entry to the presynaptic nerve terminal

Brain concussion: - is brain trauma free of any anatomical changes, thus functional - vegetative symptoms are present - there are no vegetative symptoms during brain concussion - indicates multiple microscopic brain traumas

Brain concussion: - is brain trauma free of any anatomical changes, thus functional - vegetative symptoms are present

Brain death diagnostic procedure for transplant programm is: - brain panangiography - brain scintigraphy - EEG - apnoic test only

Brain death diagnostic procedure for transplant programm is: - brain panangiography (Cerebral angiography uses a catheter, x-ray imaging guidance and an injection of contrast material to examine blood vessels) - brain scintigraphy ( radioisotope is administered IV and its distribution monitored with a gamma camera) brain brain brain

Brain perfusion scintigraphy in traumatology is useful: - in acute phase of serious brain contusion - in minor accidents to verify brain injury - in moderate accidents in later stages to detect the extent of brain injury - it is not useful at all

Brain perfusion scintigraphy in traumatology is useful: - in minor accidents to verify brain injury - in moderate accidents in later stages to detect the extent of brain injury

Brain perfusion scintigraphy is not indicated for: - measurement of dopamine receptors density - measurement of cerebrovascular reserve - confirmation of brain death - differentiation of ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke

Brain perfusion scintigraphy is not indicated for: - measurement of dopamine receptors density - differentiation of ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke

By primary treatment are tissues rinsed with: - hydrogen peroxide - isotonic sterile solution - isotonic saline solution - very low concentrated heparin solution

By primary treatment are tissues rinsed with: - isotonic sterile solution+ - isotonic saline solution+

Characteristic of capnometry: - method for monitoring partial tension of CO2 in expired gasses - method for monitoring partial tension of CO2 in blood - cannot be used for continuous monitoring - can be used for continuous monitoring

Characteristic of capnometry: - method for monitoring partial tension of CO2 in expired gasses - can be used for continuous monitoring

Characteristic of defibrillation: - energy of the first shock is 100 J, when unsuccessful can be increased to 200 J - energy of the first shock is 300 J, when unsuccessful can be increased to 360 J - energy of the shock is always 360 J - chest compressions can be interrupted only after electrodes placement

Characteristic of defibrillation: - energy of the shock is always 360 J - chest compressions can be interrupted only after electrodes placement

Hypoxemia occurs in traumatic pneumothorax as a result of: - change of V/Q ratio - decrease level of hemoglobin - hypoxic hypoxia - stagnant hypoxia

Hypoxemia occurs in traumatic pneumothorax as a result of: - change of V/Q ratio - hypoxic hypoxia

Cerebellar lesions results in which of the following symptoms: - hypotonia, ataxia and intention tremor - hypertonia, tremor in rest and ataxia - paresis, dysmetria and hyporeflexia - dysmetria, tremor and abasia

Cerebellar lesions results in which of the following symptoms: - hypotonia, ataxia and intention tremor - dysmetria, tremor and abasia

Cerebral contusion: - is a serious diffuse brain lesion - is hemorrhagically changed necrotic brain tissue - is always a solitary lesion - can be solitary or multiple

Cerebral contusion: - is hemorrhagically changed necrotic brain tissue - can be solitary or multiple

Cervicocapital endoprosthesis (hemiarthroplasty) can be used in replacement for the : - hip - knee - shoulder - ankle

Cervicocapital endoprosthesis (hemiarthroplasty) can be used in replacement for the : - hip - shoulder

Characteristic of capnography: - change of capnographic curve is the first sign of pulmonary embolism - cannot be used in spontaneous breathing - is the most reliable sign of intubation to oesophagus - cannot be used in artificial ventilation

Characteristic of capnography: - change of capnographic curve is the first sign of pulmonary embolism - is the most reliable sign of intubation to oesophagus

CAN syndrome: - is on the decline nowadays - is in fact only a social diagnosis - there are multilocular long-bone fractures in various stage of healing on X-ray - each long bone fracture in a baby without satisfying explanation from parents must be suspicious

CAN syndrome: - there are multilocular long-bone fractures in various stage of healing on X-ray+ - each long bone fracture in a baby without satisfying explanation from parents must be suspicious+

Callus in fracture healing is: - periosteal - endosteal - subcortical - epiphyseal

Callus in fracture healing is: - periosteal - endosteal

Carpal canal (Canalis carpi) contains: - tendons of the m. flexor digitorum spf. - tendons of the m. flexor digitorum prof. - the r. profundus n. ulnaris - the r. profundus n. radialis

Carpal canal (Canalis carpi) contains - tendons of the m. flexor digitorum spf. - tendons of the m. flexor digitorum prof.

Carpal canal (Canalis carpi): - is bordered by the ossa carpi ulnari - contains the n. ulnaris - contains the n. medianus - is bordered by the lig. carpi obliquum palmary

Carpal canal (Canalis carpi): - is bordered by the ossa carpi ulnari - contains the n. medianus

Carpal tunnel syndrome: - is one of the entrapment syndromes - involves the compression of the median nerve - is caused by compression of structures in the Guyon´s channel - is an injury of the radial nerve in the wrist

Carpal tunnel syndrome: - is one of the entrapment syndromes+ - involves the compression of the median nerve+

Caudal blockade: - is type of subarachnoid blockade - is contraindicated u in children younger than 6 years - is used for postoperative analgesia - has no risk of postdural puncture headache

Caudal blockade: - is used for postoperative analgesia - has no risk of postdural puncture headache

Causes of hemoperitoneum in abdominal trauma is: - liver laceration - pancreas contusion - rupture of small bowel - spleen rupture

Causes of hemoperitoneum in abdominal trauma is: - liver laceration - spleen rupture

Central dislocation of acetabular fracture: - there is no injury of the sciatic nerve - has a poor prognosis - accompanied by retroperitoneum bleeding - never requires a total hip replacement

Central dislocation of acetabular fracture: - has a poor prognosis+ - accompanied by retroperitoneum bleeding +

Characteristic of isoflurane: - low safety margin - main anaesthetic for inhalational induction in children - causes bronchoconstriction - causes hypotension

Characteristic of isoflurane - low safety margin - causes hypotension ISOFLURANE Unsuitable anaesthestic for inhalational induction to general anaesthesia in children because of irritation

Characteristic of ketamine: - low safety margin - increases muscle tone - causes bronchodilatation - causes necrosis when administered paravasal

Characteristic of ketamine - increases muscle tone - causes bronchodilatation

Characteristic of non-depolarising peripheral muscle relaxants: - can be antagonised by flumazenil - can be antagonised by neostigmine - can be antagonised by atropine - antidote is reversible blockator of acetylcholinesterase

Characteristic of non-depolarising peripheral muscle relaxants: - can be antagonised by neostigmine - antidote is reversible blockator of acetylcholinesterase

Characteristic of propofol: - causes burn sensation in vein after administration - accumulates in tissues - has anti-emetic effect - has good analgesic action

Characteristic of propofol - causes burn sensation in vein after administration - has anti-emetic effect

Characteristic of subarachnoid anaesthesia: - risk of postdural puncture headache - slow onset - large volume of local anaesthetic must be used - is contraindicated during hypovolemia

Characteristic of subarachnoid anaesthesia - risk of postdural puncture headache - is contraindicated during hypovolemia

Characteristic of toxic reaction after local anaesthetics: - one of signs are convulsions - one of signs are urtica and skin rush - can be treated by intravenous administration of corticosteroids - can be treated by intravenous administration of lipids

Characteristic of toxic reaction after local anaesthetics: - one of signs are convulsions - can be treated by intravenous administration of lipids

Characteristics of benzodiazepins: - antidote of benzodiazepines is naloxon - antidote of benzodiazepines is sugammadex - antidote of benzodiazepines is flumazenil - any antidote restores memory between aministration of benzodiazepine and antidote

Characteristics of benzodiazepins - antidote of benzodiazepines is flumazenil - any antidote restores memory between aministration of benzodiazepine and antidote

Characteristics of consent with anaesthesia: - must be written only - must be informed - parents must always consent for anaesthesia of their child - a court may consent for a patient

Characteristics of consent with anaesthesia: - must be informed - a court may consent for a patient

Characteristics of epidural anaesthesia: - rapid onset - tachycardia - urine retention - hypotension

Characteristics of epidural anaesthesia: - urine retention - hypotension

Characteristics of intravenous regional anaesthesia: - the most commonly used drug is propofol - administration of local anaesthetic to exsanguinated isolated extremity - is used mainly in children - has high risk of toxic reaction

Characteristics of intravenous regional anaesthesia - administration of local anaesthetic to exsanguinated isolated extremity - has high risk of toxic reaction

Characteristics of malignant hyperthermia: - is present in childhood only - can be induced by suxamethonium - can be induced by volatile anaesthetics - can be induced by benzodiazepines

Characteristics of malignant hyperthermia: - can be induced by suxamethonium (Suxamethonium chloride, also known as suxamethonium or succinylcholine, is a medication used to induce muscle relaxation and short-term paralysis) - can be induced by volatile anaesthetics

Characteristics of osteoarthritis: - non-inflammatory joint disease, with regressive changes in cartilage, with changes of bone and soft tissues of joints - can affect any joint, but most often weight-bearing joints of the lower limb (hip and knee) - mainly is a manifestation of age - if early diagnosed, can be cured pharmacologically well

Characteristics of postoperative pain: - majority of patients is compliant to tolerate moderate pain - behaviour of the patient is more reliable than his verbal assessment - it is not recommended to combine opioids with other analgesics - acute pain stimulates sympathetic nerve system

Characteristics of postoperative pain: - majority of patients is compliant to tolerate moderate pain - acute pain stimulates sympathetic nerve system

Characteristics of propofol: - causes hypotension - has good analgesic effect - causes burning sensation in veins during administrativ - is agent of choice for use in patients in haemorrhagic shock

Characteristics of propofol: - causes hypotension - causes burning sensation in veins during administrativ

Characteristics of subarachnoid anaesthesia: - rapid onset - tachycardia - urinary retention - use for postoperative analgesia

Characteristics of subarachnoid anaesthesia: - rapid onset - urinary retention

Characteristics of subarachnoid blockade: - can be performed in lumbar area only - is used for postoperative analgesia - induce excellent motor blockade - high risk of toxic reaction

Characteristics of subarachnoid blockade: - can be performed in lumbar area only - induce excellent motor blockade

Characteristics of suxamehonium: - antagonisation can be done by sugammadex - suxametonium cannot be antagonised - suxamehtonium increases plasmatic potassium - suxamehtonium decreases plasmatic potassium

Characteristics of suxamehonium: - suxametonium cannot be antagonised - suxamehtonium increases plasmatic potassium

Choose the correct statements about antagonism of effects of benzodiazepines: - fluticasone is an antidote - flumazenil is an antidote - it is based on inhibition of excessive stimulation of GABA - formoterol is an antidote

Choose the correct statements about antagonism of effects of benzodiazepines: - flumazenil is an antidote - it is based on inhibition of excessive stimulation of GABA

Compartment syndrome in children: - it doesn´t occur in childhood - it can be found only in compound fractures - it is necessary to keep it mind in all fractures - it is even possible to cause it iatrogenically

Compartment syndrome in children: - it is necessary to keep it mind in all fractures+ - it is even possible to cause it iatrogenically+

Choose the correct statements about pancuronium and atracurium: - they are non-depolarizing central myorelaxants - their effect can be abolished by "recurarization" - they competitively block cholinergic receptors without formation of action potentials - neostigmine is a possible antidote

Choose the correct statements about pancuronium and atracurium: - they competitively block cholinergic receptors without formation of action potentials - neostigmine is a possible antidote

Choose the correct statements about tubocurarine: - it is a peripheral myorelaxant - it induces depolarization - its effect can be abolished by administration of cholinesterase inhibitors - it is a central myorelaxant

Choose the correct statements about tubocurarine: - it is a peripheral myorelaxant - its effect can be abolished by administration of cholinesterase inhibitors abolish - put and end to

Chopart joint: - is the articulation between talus and cuboid - has a sigmoid shape - injury in this area do not occur - it is a complex joint of the calcaneocuboid and talonavicular joint

Chopart joint: - has a sigmoid shape+ - it is a complex joint of the calcaneocuboid and talonavicular joint +

Chronic subdural hematoma: - history of injury is probably less than 1 week - injury history is longer than 3 weeks - is not associated with an accident history - manifested mental changes, headache, hemiparesis

Chronic subdural hematoma: - injury history is longer than 3 weeks - manifested mental changes, headache, hemiparesis

Chronic subdural hematoma: - contains a large clot volume - is largely liquid - its evacuation usually involves drilling a trepan hole - for evacuation a larger craniotomy is needed

Chronic subdural hematoma: - is largely liquid - its evacuation usually involves drilling a trepan hole

Clinic signs of pneumothorax are: - respiratory difficulties - wound in the thoracic wall, light red-coloured blood is flown out, mostly stubbing or shooting wounds - paleness, icterus - sound of escaping CO2

Clinic signs of pneumothorax are: - respiratory difficulties - wound in the thoracic wall, light red-coloured blood is flown out, mostly stubbing or shooting wounds

Clinical signs of hemodynamic instability are: - systolic blood pressure <80 mm Hg - heart rate <100 min - hemoglobin <100 g/l - blood loss which does not respond to treatment

Clinical signs of hemodynamic instability are: - systolic blood pressure <80 mm Hg+ - blood loss which does not respond to treatment+

Clinical symptoms of blunt intraabdominal trauma are: - abdominal pain, tenderness, distention, diminished peristaltic sounds - thoracic pain, dyspnea, cyanosis - hypotension, tachycardia - altered mental status

Clinical symptoms of blunt intraabdominal trauma are: - abdominal pain, tenderness, distention, diminished peristaltic sounds - hypotension, tachycardia

Closed reduction in pediatric traumatology: - is performed strictly on the operation theatre - is performed under general anesthesia - is performed using myorelaxation - is performed in local anesthesia

Closed reduction in pediatric traumatology: - is performed under general anesthesia+ - is performed using myorelaxation+

Closed traumatic pneumothorax in children is diagnosed by means of: - inspection - auscultation - X ray examination - videothoracoscopy

Closed traumatic pneumothorax in children is diagnosed by means of: - auscultation+ - X ray examination+

Closed traumatic pneumothorax in children is treated: - by surgery (thoracotomy) - continual chest suction - one-step chest suction - inside the pediatric intensive care unit

Closed traumatic pneumothorax in children is treated: - continual chest suction+ - inside the pediatric intensive care unit+

Cobb angle: - expresses the severity of scoliosis curve - is angle connecting the tops of curves and midline - is an complementary angle between lines drawn perpendicular to the lines led from the end vertebrae - expresses the degree of rotation of the vertebral bodies

Cobb angle: - expresses the severity of scoliosis curve+ - is an complementary angle between lines drawn perpendicular to the lines led from the end vertebrae+

Codman classification: - divides proximal humeral fractures in four fragments - is the basis for Neer classification - concerns only open fractures of the proximal humerus - concerns only osteoporotic fractures

Codman classification: - divides proximal humeral fractures in four fragments+ - is the basis for Neer classification+

Colles fracture: - is extra-articular fracture of distal radius - is associated with a typical volar dislocation of the peripheral fragment - is the fracture of ulna with dislocation of the distal end of radius - arises mostly by falling on outstretched upper extremity

Colles fracture: - is extra-articular fracture of distal radius+ - arises mostly by falling on outstretched upper extremity+

Colloid solutions for infusions are: - dextrans - hydroxyethylstarch - Hartmann´s solution - Ringer´s solution

Colloid solutions for infusions are: - dextrans - hydroxyethylstarch innholder sukker (colloid, substanser løst ut i vann)

Colloid solutions: - are cleared from intravascular space more rapidly than crystalloids - decrease blood pressure - increase blood pressure - can be composed of starch molecules

Colloid solutions: - increase blood pressure+ - can be composed of starch molecules+

Collum chirurgicum humeri: - is narrow place under the great and small tubercles - predilection site of fractures - is situated intraarticulary - can be seen only on CT

Collum chirurgicum humeri: - is narrow place under the great and small tubercles+ - predilection site of fractures+

Common adverse effects of central muscle-relaxant drugs are: - somnolence - sedation - agitation - hallucinations

Common adverse effects of central muscle-relaxant drugs are: - somnolence - sedation Sentral - So - Se

Common adverse effects of opioids are: - nausea and vomiting - constipation - peptic ulcer - thrombocytopenia

Common adverse effects of opioids are: - nausea and vomiting - constipation

Compartment syndrome in children: - is diagnosed by X-ray - is diagnosed by means of clinical signs - is diagnosed by means of intrafascial pressure measuring - is diagnosed by angiography

Compartment syndrome in children: - is diagnosed by means of clinical signs+ - is diagnosed by means of intrafascial pressure measuring+

Compartment syndrome in children: - doesn´t need any special care, it heals spontaneously - it is treated only by cooling and elevating of the injured extremity, pain is solved by pain-killers - it´s always necessary to release all surgical dressing - intrafascial pressure above 30 mm Hg indicates adequate fasciotomy

Compartment syndrome in children: - it´s always necessary to release all surgical dressing+ - intrafascial pressure above 30 mm Hg indicates adequate fasciotomy+

Compartment syndrome is typical after hemorrhage in: - muscles coated by tight fascia - brain cysts - lungs - parts of body surrounded by solid cover

Compartment syndrome is typical after hemorrhage in: - muscles coated by tight fascia - parts of body surrounded by solid cover

Compartment syndrome is: - caused by circular, deep burns - a condition in which increased tissue pressure in a compartment space damages the circulation and neuromuscular function of the tissue filling the compartment - caused by increasing of the volume and decreasing of the content of a compartment space - is associated with reduced intra-abdominal pressure in the abdominal cavity

Compartment syndrome is: - set of symptoms, resulting from increased pressure in a closed anatomical space (compartment, loge), leading to local ischemia - increase the pressure above 30-40 mmHg in the space defined by the skeleton and muscles or intermuscular septa - long-term compression of muscles, then accumulation of myoglobin in the kidney can cause renal failure - primary nerve injury (failure occurs after injury and not changed in time)

Compartment syndrome is: - set of symptoms, resulting from increased pressure in a closed anatomical space (compartment, loge), leading to local ischemia+ - increase the pressure above 30-40 mmHg in the space defined by the skeleton and muscles or intermuscular septa+

Compartment syndrome: - typically develops as a result of burring - typically develops as a result of bleeding into the third space - endangers the injured tissue by ischemia - leads to necrosis development, if untreated

Compartment syndrome: - endangers the injured tissue by ischemia - leads to necrosis development, if untreated

Compensable (reserve) volume in man without brain atrophy: - is about 200 to 250 ml - is about 70 to 100 ml - is about 300-320 ml - an increase above this threshold will cause increased intracranial pressure

Compensable (reserve) volume in man without brain atrophy: - is about 70 to 100 ml - an increase above this threshold will cause increased intracranial pressure

Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), formerly Sudeck's atrophy we divide into: - acute phase (reduced sympathetic activity), dystrophic phase (increased sympathetic activity), atrophic stage (irreversible) - CRPS type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy) and CRPS type II (causalgia) - acute (to 6 months) and chronic - juvenile and adult form

Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), formerly Sudeck's atrophy we divide into: - acute phase (reduced sympathetic activity), dystrophic phase (increased sympathetic activity), atrophic stage (irreversible)+ - CRPS type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy) and CRPS type II (causalgia)+

Complication of aortic decelerating trauma could be: - abdominal aorta aneurysm - false thoracal aneurysm - aortic dissection aneurysm - arteria poplitea aneurysm

Complication of aortic decelerating trauma could be: - false thoracal aneurysm - aortic dissection aneurysm

Complication of epidural anaesthesia is not: - epidural haematoma - muscle rigidity - postdural puncture headache - failure of the method

Complication of epidural anaesthesia is not: - muscle rigidity - postdural puncture headache -> subarachnoid

Complications of post-operative care caused by insufficient rehabilitation may include: - pneumonia - laparotomy wound dehiscence - pulmonary embolism - urinary tract infection

Complications of post-operative care caused by insufficient rehabilitation may include: - pneumonia - pulmonary embolism

Complications of subclavian vein cannulation may include: - pneumothorax - pneumoperitoneum - hemothorax - empyema

Complications of subclavian vein cannulation may include: - pneumothorax - hemothorax affect thorax

Compound fractures are: - classified according to Gustilo Anderson schedule - classified according to Salter and Harris schedule - classified according to AO schedule - classified according to Tscherne schedule

Compound fractures are: - classified according to Gustilo Anderson schedule + - classified according to Tscherne schedule +

Compound fractures in children are treated: - always with antibiotics - surgical stabilization of fragments is always indicated - in case of osteosynthesis the external fixation is usually a method of choice - nonoperative treatment is unacceptable

Compound fractures in children are treated: - always with antibiotics+ - in case of osteosynthesis the external fixation is usually a method of choice+

Compressive fractures occur in: - vertebral bodies - calcaneus - clavicle - metacarpals

Compressive fractures occur in: - vertebral bodies - calcaneus

Condition for use uf non-depolarising muscle relaxants is: - performing of artificial ventilation - unconsncious of a patient - accessibility of naloxon - accessibility of dantrium (Dantrolenu)

Condition for use uf non-depolarising muscle relaxants is: - performing of artificial ventilation - unconsncious of a patient

Conditions that often lead to a sudden loss of consciousness include: - chronic renal failure - arrhythmias - cerebral ischemia - cerebellar hemorrhage

Conditions that often lead to a sudden loss of consciousness include: - arrhythmias - cerebral ischemia -> when brain doesn't get enough O2

Congenital deformity is caused by the disorder: - of ossification - of lumbarization - of segmentation - of formation

Congenital deformity is caused by the disorder: - of segmentation+ - of formation+

Consequences after acetabular fractures: - higher risk of earlier arthritis - no enhanced risk of aseptic necrosis of femoral head - late problems are possible to solve by total hip replacement - no arthritis after osteosynthesis of acetabular fractures

Consequences after acetabular fractures: - higher risk of earlier arthritis+ - late problems are possible to solve by total hip replacement+

Conservative treatment is based: - on fracture reduction, fixation and retention - after fixation removal subsequent physiotherapy to restore function - fixation in a plaster cast - analgesics to relieve pain, application of ice

Conservative treatment is based: - on fracture reduction, fixation and retention+ - after fixation removal subsequent physiotherapy to restore function+

Conservative treatment of fractures is characterized by: - indirect (secondary) healing with callus formation - is indicated for the majority of pediatric fractures - longer period of treatment, due to the plaster fixation - cannot carry out physiotherapy

Conservative treatment of fractures is characterized by: - indirect (secondary) healing with callus formation+ - is indicated for the majority of pediatric fractures+

Considered to be an injury : - drowning - wasp sting with allergic reaction - suicide - infective tick bite

Considered to be an injury : - drowning - suicide

Contaminated wounds are rarely accompanied by: - suppuration - infection by tuberculosis - sepsis development - healing "per primam intentionem", i.e. "without complications"

Contaminated wounds are rarely accompanied by: - infection by tuberculosis - healing "per primam intentionem", i.e. "without complications"

Contraindications of local anaesthesia is: - lack of equipment for artificial ventilation - lack of defibrilator - lack of ECG monitor - lack of knowledge of resuscitation

Contraindications of local anaesthesia is: - lack of equipment for artificial ventilation - lack of knowledge of resuscitation

Contraindications of the knee replacement are: - peripheral arterial disease (PAD), infection around the joint, leg ulcers - infection anywhere in the body, age, obesity (BMI > 40) - age more than 75 years - movement restrictions greater than ½ the range of flexion

Contraindications of the knee replacement are: - peripheral arterial disease (PAD), infection around the joint, leg ulcers+ - infection anywhere in the body, age, obesity (BMI > 40)+ ..alt med infeksjon

Contraindications of thiopentone use: - shock - lack of equipment for artifitial ventilation - intracranial hypertension - rapid sequence induction to general anaesthesia

Contraindications of thiopentone (short time sedative) use - shock - lack of equipment for artifitial ventilation

Contrecoup traumatic brain injury can be explained by: - brain injury at the site of direct impact force - brain injury at the opposite site of direct impact force - cerebral contusion at the opposite site of direct impact force - cerebral contusion at the site of direct impact force

Contrecoup traumatic brain injury can be explained by: - brain injury at the opposite site of direct impact force - cerebral contusion at the opposite site of direct impact force just think Countercoup means opposite

Contusion of the kidney manifests usually as: - hematuria - anuria - pain - uremia

Contusion of the kidney manifests usually as - hematuria - pain

Contusion of the pancreas (lesion of I. Gr) manifests as: - elevation of pancreatic amylases connected with leukocytosis - hemoperitoneum - epigastric pains - pneumoperitoneum

Contusion of the pancreas (lesion of I. Gr) manifests as: - elevation of pancreatic amylases connected with leukocytosis - epigastric pains

Which are correct theses: - atropine can be used as a specific antidote in toadstool (Amanita muscarine) intoxication - physostigmine can be used as a specific antidote in organophosphates (DDT) poisoning - atropine can be used as a specific antidote in consumption of part of plants - Atropa belladonna or Datura stramonium - alcohol (ethanol) can be used as a specific antidote in methanol consumption/overdose

Correct - atropine can be used as a specific antidote in toadstool (Amanita muscarine) intoxication - alcohol (ethanol) can be used as a specific antidote in methanol consumption/overdose

Coxitis (septic arthritis of the hip): - the hip joint fluid collection (effusion) is not a typical clinical sign - an ultrasound scan is essential for diagnosis, it is necessary to compare both hip joints to assess effusion - X-ray changes can be seen with delay - affects only the pediatric population

Coxitis (septic arthritis of the hip): - an ultrasound scan is essential for diagnosis, it is necessary to compare both hip joints to assess effusion+ - X-ray changes can be seen with delay+

Craniocerebral injury: - is rarely a part of polytrauma - is often part of polytrauma - shock is a typical symptom for brain injury - the development of shock is suspected of other associated injuries

Craniocerebral injury: - is often part of polytrauma - the development of shock is suspected of other associated injuries

Crush syndrome can induce renal failure because: - renal perfusion is low - there is a lot of free hemoglobin in plasma that is filtrated into kidney tubules - there is a lot of free myoglobin in plasma that is filtrated into kidney tubules - renal tubules are damaged

Crush syndrome can induce renal failure because: - there is a lot of free myoglobin in plasma that is filtrated into kidney tubules - renal tubules are damaged

Crush syndrome: - is the same as blast syndrome - is one of the causes of renal failure - is characterized by tympanic and lung injury - is connected with vessel wall injury

Crush syndrome: - is one of the causes of renal failure - is connected with vessel wall injury

Crystalloid solutions: - remain in bloodstream longer then colloid solution - escape from bloodstream more slowly than colloids - their disadvantage are possible allergic reactions - their advantage are minimal allergic reactions

Crystalloid solutions: - their disadvantage are possible allergic reactions+ - their advantage are minimal allergic reactions+

Cubital fossa (Fossa cubitalis) contains: - n. radialis - n. ulnaris - n. medianus - n. axillaris

Cubital fossa (Fossa cubitalis) contains: - n. radialis - n. medianus

Cubital fossa (Fossa cubitalis): - is medially bordered by the m. pronator teres - contains the n. cutaneus antebrachii lat. - is proximally bordered the m. biceps brachii - contains terminal branches of the n. axillaris

Cubital fossa (Fossa cubitalis): - is medially bordered by the m. pronator teres - is proximally bordered the m. biceps brachii

Iatrogenic lesion of the hollow abdominal organ occurs mostly during: - colposcopy - colonoscopy - gastroscopy - cystoscopy

Iatrogenic lesion of the hollow abdominal organ occurs mostly during: - colonoscopy - gastroscopy

Curare poisoning will result in which of the following changes at the neuromuscular junction: - a block of Na+ entry to the postsynaptic nerve terminal - a block of Cl- entry to the postsynaptic nerve terminal - a saturation of ACh postsynaptic receptors - a block of Ca2+ entry to the presynaptic nerve terminal

Curare poisoning will result in which of the following changes at the neuromuscular junction: - a block of Na+ entry to the postsynaptic nerve terminal - a saturation of ACh postsynaptic receptors

Cutted extensors tendons: - we usually suture with mattress stitches - we do not suture, they are treated only by fixation - we fixate without suture and we use it in cases of insertion at the distal phalanges - we connect them with wire cerclage

Cutted extensors tendons: - we usually suture with mattress stitches+ - we fixate without suture and we use it in cases of insertion at the distal phalanges+

Determine the diagnosis of compartment syndrome: - is a clinical diagnosis, taken from history of patient and clinical symptoms - additional investigations: oximetry, measurement pressure in compartment - is present tight bandage or plaster and peripheral edema - no palpable pulse in the peripheral arteries

Determine the diagnosis of compartment syndrome: - is a clinical diagnosis, taken from history of patient and clinical symptoms+ - additional investigations: oximetry, measurement pressure in compartment+

DIC could be a complication of: - fetal fluid embolism - epilepsy - hypoglycemic states - severe shock state

DIC could be a complication of: - fetal fluid embolism - severe shock state

Dabigatran: - inhibits coagulation after antithrombin activation - directly inhibits the catalytic site of thrombin - is comparably effective as well as safe in comparison with warfarin in the thromboembolic prophylaxis - can be applied orally, has renal excretion and low risks of drug interactions

Dabigatran: - directly inhibits the catalytic site of thrombin - can be applied orally, has renal excretion and low risks of drug interactions

Damage of the brain temporal lobe would lead to: - the decrease of skeletal muscle motility - hearing loss - disruption of integration activity of the cerebral hemispheres - narrowing of the visual field

Damage of the brain temporal lobe would lead to: - hearing loss - narrowing of the visual field

Debridement: - is an incision of muscle fascia - is the surgical removal of necrotic tissue - can be surgical, enzymatic - is usually done by laminar necrectomy

Debridement: - is the surgical removal of necrotic tissue - can be surgical, enzymatic

Decerebration: - is the sign of transversal lesion above the brain stem - manifests as extension in all four limbs after delivering a pain stimulus - could be the sign of developed compression of the brain stem - always has a fatal prognosis

Decerebration: - manifests as extension in all four limbs after delivering a pain stimulus - could be the sign of developed compression of the brain stem decerebrate posture

Definite indication of replantation is: - amputation of the big toe - multiple finger amputations on the leg - amputation at the distal third of forearm - amputation of the thumb at thenar level

Definite indication of replantation is: - amputation at the distal third of forearm+ - amputation of the thumb at thenar level+ hendene er prioritert

Definite indication of replantation is: - amputation at the palm level - amputation of the index finger in proximal phalanx level - amputation at the wrist level - amputation of the index finger in MP joint level

Definite indication of replantation is: - amputation at the palm level+ - amputation at the wrist level+

Definite indication of replantation is: - amputation of the thumb - amputation of the index finger - multiple finger amputation - amputation of the ring-finger

Definite indication of replantation is: - amputation of the thumb+ - multiple finger amputation+

Definitive surgical stabilization of the pelvic ring is performed by: - iliosacral screws - plate and screws - tension band technique - external fixation

Definitive surgical stabilization of the pelvic ring is performed by: - iliosacral screws+ - plate and screws+

Delayed relaxation of striated muscles following voluntary contraction due to hyperexcitability of muscle membrane is called: - myotonia - myokymia - myopathy - paramyotonia

Delayed relaxation of striated muscles following voluntary contraction due to hyperexcitability of muscle membrane is called: - myotonia - myopathy

Delayed spleen rupture: - develops 48 hours and later after trauma - is treated mostly conservatively - in 70% of cases develops in the first 14 days after trauma - develops due to penetrating abdominal trauma

Delayed spleen rupture: - develops 48 hours and later after trauma - in 70% of cases develops in the first 14 days after trauma

Delayed splenic rupture: - arises mostly due to penetrating abdominal trauma - in 70% of cases develops in the first 14 days after trauma - is treated predominantly using conservative methods - develops 48 hours after trauma and later

Delayed splenic rupture: - in 70% of cases develops in the first 14 days after trauma - develops 48 hours after trauma and later

Description of the curve is characterized by: - vertebra on the top of curve - position of the upper and lower stable vertebrae - position of the upper and lower end vertebrae - position of the upper and lower neutral vertebrae

Description of the curve is characterized by: - vertebra on the top of curve+ - position of the upper and lower end vertebrae+

Destruction of the substantia nigra, pars compacta, results in which of the following: - increased stimulation of neurons in the globus pallidus externa - increased stimulation of glutamatergic neurons in the thalamus - increased stimulation of GABAergic neurons in the striatum - development of Parkinson's syndrome

Destruction of the substantia nigra, pars compacta, results in which of the following: - increased stimulation of GABAergic neurons in the striatum - development of Parkinson's syndrome

Diagnose of cardiac arrest in basic life support (BLS) includes: - assessment of consciousness - carotid artery palpation - assessment of normal breathing - assessment of pupil size and EEG

Diagnose of cardiac arrest in basic life support (BLS) includes: - assessment of consciousness - assessment of normal breathing

Diagnosis of fractures of the tibia diaphysis: - is often already evident from the clinical examination - crepitations, pathological movement, swelling, pain, possibly a breach of the skin cover - the need is always to do a CT scan - X-ray diagnosis is usually enough by native frame in 2 perpendicular projections with capture of the need and ankle joint - we usually make at the operating room

Diagnosis of fractures of the tibia diaphysis: - is often already evident from the clinical examination - crepitations, pathological movement, swelling, pain, possibly a breach of the skin cover+ - X-ray diagnosis is usually enough by native frame in 2 perpendicular projections with capture of the need and ankle joint+

Diagnostic adjunctive test in liver injury are: - ultrasonography - abdomen x-ray - diagnostic peritoneal lavage - multidetector computed tomography scanning

Diagnostic adjunctive test in liver injury are: - ultrasonography - multidetector computed tomography scanning

Diaphragm functions are: - postural functio - principal expiratory muscle - accessory expiratory muscle - principal inspiratory muscle

Diaphragm functions are: - postural functio - principal inspiratory muscle

Diaphyseal fracture of the clavicle: - it is rare in childhood - it belongs to the most frequent fractures in childhood - in childhood it is treated nonoperatively on principle - there is indication for osteosynthesis in displaced fractures even in childhood

Diaphyseal fracture of the clavicle: - it belongs to the most frequent fractures in childhood+ - in childhood it is treated nonoperatively on principle+

Diffuse axonal brain injury: - means disrupting of the axons in the brain's white matter - is not the primary traumatic brain injury - is often followed by long-term unconsciousness - is most commonly caused by longitudinal forces directed against the brain

Diffuse axonal brain injury: - means disrupting of the axons in the brain's white matter - is often followed by long-term unconsciousness

Diffuse increase of radioactivity in the painful testis on scintigraphy is probably the sign of: - late stage of torsion - seminoma - epididymitis - hydrocele

Diffuse increase of radioactivity in the painful testis on scintigraphy is probably the sign of: - late stage of torsion - epididymitis

Digital arteries are: - at the ulnar side of fingers - at the radial side of fingers - at the dorsal area of fingers - in the middle of the finger

Digital arteries are: - at the ulnar side of fingers+ - at the radial side of fingers+

Direct factor-Xa inhibitor anticoagulatives (anticoagulants): - are e.g. rivaroxaban and apixaban (called "xabans") - is e.g. dabigatran (called "agatrans") - are conveniently used for thromboembolic prophylaxis in patients with renal failure - can be applied orally even in patients early after surgery

Direct factor-Xa inhibitor anticoagulatives (anticoagulants): - are e.g. rivaroxaban and apixaban (called "xabans") - can be applied orally even in patients early after surgery

Direct thrombin inhibitor anticoagulatives (anticoagulants): - are e.g. rivaroxaban and apixaban (called "xabans") - is e.g. dabigatran (called "agatrans") - are conveniently used for thromboembolic prophylaxis in patients with renal failure - can be applied orally even in patients early after surgery

Direct thrombin inhibitor anticoagulatives (anticoagulants): - is e.g. dabigatran (called "agatrans") - can be applied orally even in patients early after surgery

Displaced fracture of the pubic rami is treated: - with cancellous bone grafting - with plate - with pubic screws - with the Kirschner wires

Displaced fracture of the pubic rami is treated: - with plate+ - with pubic screws+ screws and plate, wire is too much

Displacement of one hemipelvis about 2 cm causes: - increasing the volume of the pelvis by 25% - increasing the volume of the pelvis by 50% - blood loss with volume of 2-3 liters - sacral plexus injury

Displacement of one hemipelvis about 2 cm causes: - increasing the volume of the pelvis by 50%+ - blood loss with volume of 2-3 liters+

Distal humerus: - consist of two columns - trochlea humeri is part of the condyle of humerus - fossa olecrani is situated on ventral part of distal humerus - medullary canal reaches up to trochlea humeri

Distal humerus: - consist of two columns+ - trochlea humeri is part of the condyle of humerus+

Distal radius fracture reduction is performed by: - tension and a countermove - posting with "Chinese Finger" - rotating wrist movements - only under general anesthesia

Distal radius fracture reduction is performed by: - tension and a countermove+ - posting with "Chinese Finger"+

Distal radius fractures are treated with: - reduction and plaster fixation - primary arthroplasty - internal fixation - predrilled nailing

Distal radius fractures are treated with: - reduction and plaster fixation+ - internal fixation+ ...må fixes på

Diuresis after a traumatic event is typically decreased in response to: - ACTH activation - kinin system activation - decrease kidney perfusion - activation of both aldosterone and ADH

Diuresis after a traumatic event is typically decreased in response to: - decrease kidney perfusion - activation of both aldosterone and ADH

Dominant indicative criteria for replantation include: - the manner of cooling of amputated part during the transport to the replantation centre - general status of the patient after an amputation injury - the extent of crush zone of the amputated part and the stump - administration of antibiotics of the patient before his transfer to the replantation centre

Dominant indicative criteria for replantation include: - general status of the patient after an amputation injury+ - the extent of crush zone of the amputated part and the stump+

Drug of choice for treatment of severe anaphylactic reaction is: - adrenalin 0.2 - 0.3 mg i.m. - adrenalin in small increments 0.01 mg i.v. - diazepam in increments 5 mg i.v. - thiopentone 200 - 300 mg i.v.

Drug of choice for treatment of severe anaphylactic reaction is: - adrenalin 0.2 - 0.3 mg i.m. - adrenalin in small increments 0.01 mg i.v.

Duodenum: - consists of the descending, infra-pancreatic and the ascending part - most of it is placed secondary retroperitoneally - is supplied by the branches of coeliac trunk and the superior mesenteric a. - whole duodenum belongs to the contents of the supra-mesocolic part of the abdominal cavity

Duodenum: - most of it is placed secondary retroperitoneally - is supplied by the branches of coeliac trunk and the superior mesenteric a.

During a boxing match, a contestant is "knocked out" by a blow from the lateral side of the skull. He recovers after a few minutes, and he is asymptomatic for the next 12 hours. Then he develops a severe headache, changes in mental status, nausea, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the diagnosis? - basilar skull fracture - intracerebral hemorrhage - bridging veins hemorrhage - subdural hematoma

During a severe injury the pain sensation could be blocked physiologically by: - acid tissue metabolites - brain endorphins - histamine - cleavage products of pro-opiomelanocortin

During a severe injury the pain sensation could be blocked physiologically by: - brain endorphins - cleavage products of pro-opiomelanocortin

During hypovolemic shock: - the stress response is activated - muscle vasodilatation is present - the patient is hyperventilating - the patient could have hypoglycemia

During hypovolemic shock: - the stress response is activated - the patient is hyperventilating

During replantation we try to treat: - all tissue structures cut off by trauma - all tissue structures which can be treated - vessels which secure the restoration of perfusion of amputated part - only those tissue structures which secure the restoration of perfusion and function of amputated part

During replantation we try to treat: - vessels which secure the restoration of perfusion of amputated part+ - only those tissue structures which secure the restoration of perfusion and function of amputated part+

Effect of benzodiazepines: - sedation - anti-convulsive - vasopersoric - mild diuretic

Effect of benzodiazepines: - sedation - anti-convulsive Benzodiazepines are a class of medications that work in the central nervous system and are used for a variety of medical conditions. Benzodiazepines are a group of medicines that are sometimes used to treat anxiety, sleeping problems and other disorders. Examples include diazepam, lorazepam. Convulsive = litt som seizures, sudden m. contraction and relaxation

Each finger innervates: - one digital nerve - two digital nerves - four digital nerves - has individual innervation

Each finger innervates: - two digital nerves+ - has individual innervation+

Early necrectomy (excisions): - was put into practice by Zora Janzekovic in 1970 - is carried out within 10 days after injury - is carried out regularly in primary treatment of patients - is a preferred method carried out within 5 days after injury

Early necrectomy (excisions): - was put into practice by Zora Janzekovic in 1970 - is a preferred method carried out within 5 days after injury

Edema occurring in inflammation is mainly the effect of: - increase capillary permeability - increase of circulatory blood volume - endothelial reaction - blockade of lymphatic drainage

Edema occurring in inflammation is mainly the effect of: - increase capillary permeability - endothelial reaction

Effects of opioids: - analgesia - respiratory depression - convulsions - mydriasis

Effects of opioids: - analgesia - respiratory depression

Elective surgery is postponed: - in patient with upper airway infection 7 - 10 days after onset of symptoms - in patient with upper airway infection 7 - 10 days after relieve of symptoms - in patients with BP 140/90 mm Hg till normalisation - in patients with BP 140/90 mm Hg is mo reason to postpone surgery

Elective surgery is postponed: - in patient with upper airway infection 7 - 10 days after relieve of symptoms - in patients with BP 140/90 mm Hg is mo reason to postpone surgery

Endogenous cortisol secretion: - is lowest after awakening in the morning - is lowest in the evening and during the first half of the night - is highest after awakening in the morning - is highest in the evening and during the first half of the night

Endogenous cortisol secretion: - is lowest in the evening and during the first half of the night - is highest after awakening in the morning

Epidural hematoma: - can be treated by neurosurgery only - can be treated by puncture under X-ray control - can be treated by drugs improving haemocoagulation - permanent neurological damage is after 6 h

Epidural hematoma: - can be treated by neurosurgery only - permanent neurological damage is after 6 h

Epidural hematoma: - occurs in injuries of meningeal arteries during calva fractures - sources of bleeding are meningeal arteries even without calva fractures - most often occurs in parietal location - most often occurs in occipital location

Epidural hematoma: - occurs in injuries of meningeal arteries during calva fractures - sources of bleeding are meningeal arteries even without calva fractures

Epidural space can be detected by: - loss of resistance technique - ultrasonography - electrostimulation - hanging drop technique

Epidural space can be detected by - loss of resistance technique - hanging drop technique

Essential for normal muscle tone is: - acetylcholine - succinylcholin - neostigmine - acetylcholinesterase

Essential for normal muscle tone is - acetylcholine - acetylcholinesterase

Estrogens: - enhance calcification of bone - induce osteolysis - inhibit osteoblastic activity - increase density of bone

Estrogens: - enhance calcification of bone - increase density of bone

Which is/are true of Ewing's sarcoma: - a malignant tumor resulting from bone marrow and affects children and adolescents less than 20 years - occurs mostly on the basis of osteomyelitis - is the least vascularized tumor, angiography and scintigraphy so that is mostly negative - the tumor is highly sensitive to chemotherapy and is radiosensitive, so the combined treatment (radiation + surgery + cytostatic) is indicated

Ewing's sarcoma: - a malignant tumor resulting from bone marrow and affects children and adolescents less than 20 years+ - the tumor is highly sensitive to chemotherapy and is radiosensitive, so the combined treatment (radiation + surgery + cytostatic) is indicated+

Which of the following is/are true of Ewing's sarcoma? - occurrence in metaphyses - presence in the pineal gland - affects vertebral bodies - occurs in the diaphysis

Ewing's sarcoma? - occurrence in metaphyses - occurs in the diaphysis

Exacerbation of osteoarthritis is characterized by: - constant background rest pain and activity related pain - soft tissue irritation (swollen and stiff joints, with effusion) - redness of affected joints - increase in serum inflammatory parameters - ESR, CRP

Exacerbation of osteoarthritis is characterized by: - constant background rest pain and activity related pain+ - soft tissue irritation (swollen and stiff joints, with effusion)+

Examination fundus of the eye: - is require for head injury exam - is required for head injury, but after 24 hours - in acute head injury it is not of great importance - papilledema is not in acute stage of head injury

Examination fundus of the eye: - in acute head injury it is not of great importance - papilledema is not in acute stage of head injury

Extensors of fingers on the hand: - are superficial and deep - go to the dorsal aponeurosis - are on fingers flat - are on fingers elliptical

Extensors of fingers on the hand: - go to the dorsal aponeurosis+ - are on fingers flat+

External fixation in Children´s fractures is indicated: - almost never - in the compound fractures - its indication spectrum is varied - no indication in pediatric skeletal traumatology can be found

External fixation in Children´s fractures is indicated: - in the compound fractures+ - its indication spectrum is varied+

Fracture of shaft of radius healed in angulation is clinically manifested by: - limiting a rotational movement - n. ulnaris paresthesia - atypical position of the forearm - elbow flexion contracture

Fracture of shaft of radius healed in angulation is clinically manifested by: - limiting a rotational movement+ - atypical position of the forearm+

Fascial necrectomy is: - the same as fasciotomy - the removal of skin and subcutaneous tissue necrosis up to the level of muscle fascia - the removal of necrotic, full-thickness skin including the muscle fascia - carried out by sharp dissection or blunt avulsion

Fascial necrectomy is: - the removal of skin and subcutaneous tissue necrosis up to the level of muscle fascia - carried out by sharp dissection or blunt avulsion

Fasciotomy is indicated if: - present clinical signs, pressure in compartment more then 30-40 mmHg (for children more than 30 mmHg) - suspicion of compartment syndrome and primary fracture treatment can be carried out with preventive fasciotomy - operative treatment of fracture is indicated - occurs primary injury of nerve and acute arterial occlusion

Fasciotomy is indicated if: - present clinical signs, pressure in compartment more then 30-40 mmHg (for children more than 30 mmHg)+ - suspicion of compartment syndrome and primary fracture treatment can be carried out with preventive fasciotomy+

Fat pad sign: - is a picture of fat bodies on the X-ray of the elbow - seen on dislocation of fat bodies in intraarticular injuries of the distal humerus - is X-ray of the elbow in obese patients - is always a sign of comminuted fracture of the distal humerus

Fat pad sign: - is a picture of fat bodies on the X-ray of the elbow+ - seen on dislocation of fat bodies in intraarticular injuries of the distal humerus+

Femoral triangle (Trigonum femorale): - is bordered by the m. adductor longus medially - contains the n. ischiadicus - contains the a. femoralis - runs between heads of the m. adductor brevis

Femoral triangle (Trigonum femorale): - is bordered by the m. adductor longus medially - contains the a. femoralis

Fentanyl: - can be used for general anaesthesia induction - can be used in injection, transdermal and buccal drug form - has long-lasting massive effects - is about 5 times stronger analgesic as sufentanil

Fentanyl: - can be used for general anaesthesia induction - can be used in injection, transdermal and buccal drug form

Fibrinolytic drugs: - are non-selective (working through plasmin activation) and selective (which act directly on the thrombus) - are in-direct (working through antithrombin activation) and direct (which act on catalytic site of thrombin) - use of streptokinase is accompanied by remarkable risks of allergic reaction and hypotension - use of alteplase is accompanied by remarkable risks of allergic reaction and symptomatic hypotension

Fibrinolytic drugs: - are non-selective (working through plasmin activation) and selective (which act directly on the thrombus) - use of streptokinase is accompanied by remarkable risks of allergic reaction and hypotension

Find correct answer for securing airways in patients with epiglottis and laryngitis: - muscle relaxant are used for tracheal intubation - intubation is performed in general anaesthesia and spontaneous ventilation - the use of muscle relaxants is contraindicated - tracheostomy in analgesic sedation is the most appropriate way

Find correct answer for securing airways in patients with epiglottis and laryngitis: - intubation is performed in general anaesthesia and spontaneous ventilation - the use of muscle relaxants is contraindicated

First signs of opioid overdose are: - decreased respiratory rate - short inspirium and long expirium - hypotension - unconsciousness

First signs of opioid overdose are: - decreased respiratory rate - short inspirium and long expirium

First steps in examination in chest injury are: - physical examination - diagnostic puncture of pleural cavity - CT scan of thorax - chest x-ray

First steps in examination in chest injury are: - physical examination - chest x-ray

Fissures are usually seen in: - flat bones - skull bones - vertebral bodies - the coccyx

Fissures are usually seen in: - flat bones - skull bones

Flail-chest injury results in abnormalities of: - ventilation - spinal column moving - oxygenation - circulation in aorta

Flail-chest injury results in abnormalities of - ventilation - oxygenation

Flaps: are segments of tissue consist only of the skin and subcutaneous tissue consist only of the muscles can be classified according vascular supply

Flaps: are segments of tissue+ can be classified according vascular supply+

Flexor tendons are sutured: - always with resorbable stitches - with monofilament suture fibre - only with braided non resorbable fibres - with fixation stitches and with the suture around the tendon on its circumference

Flexor tendons are sutured: - with monofilament suture fibre+ - with fixation stitches and with the suture around the tendon on its circumference+

Following radio-nuclei methods can be used for detection of bile leak: - dynamic liver and bile scintigraphy - static liver scintigraphy - cholescintigraphy with Tc-99m IDA - scintigraphy of abdominal cavity

Following radio-nuclei methods can be used for detection of bile leak: - dynamic liver and bile scintigraphy - cholescintigraphy with Tc-99m IDA

For brain death confirmation which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be used: - freely crossing blood-brain barrier - Tc-99m pertechnetate, Tc-99m DTPA - lipophilic substances like Tc-99m HMPAO, Tc-99m ECD - I-123 IBZM, I-123 DaTSCAN

For brain death confirmation which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be used: - freely crossing blood-brain barrier - lipophilic substances like Tc-99m HMPAO, Tc-99m ECD

For brain death confirmation which of the following scintigraphic examinations is required according to law due to transplantation reasons: - bone scan of the skull - brain perfusion scintigraphy with Tc-99m labeled lipophilic tracers - brain perfusion scintigraphy with Tc-99m pertechnetate - brain perfusion scintigraphy with radiopharmaceuticals which freely cross blood-brain barrier

For brain death confirmation which of the following scintigraphic examinations is required according to law due to transplantation reasons: - brain perfusion scintigraphy with Tc-99m labeled lipophilic tracers - brain perfusion scintigraphy with radiopharmaceuticals which freely cross blood-brain barrier

For detection of epidural space is used: - Tuohy´s needle - Drapka´s needle - Waters´s needle - hanging drop

For detection of epidural space is used: - Tuohy´s needle - hanging drop

For diagnosis of esophageal perforation, which of the following is/are recommened: - esophagography - ultrasonography - chest X-ray - multi-detector computed tomography

For diagnosis of esophageal perforation, which of the following is/are recommened: - esophagography - multi-detector computed tomography

For epidural hematoma is typical: - unconsciousness immediately after head injury - lucid interval for several hours - contralateral hemiparesis - contralateral mydriasis

For epidural hematoma is typical: - lucid interval for several hours - contralateral hemiparesis

For fracture of neck of femur, the position of the hip is: - in the internal rotation - in the external rotation - in extension - in a semi-flex position

For fracture of neck of femur, the position of the hip is: - in the external rotation+ - in a semi-flex position+

For fractures of the femoral neck in the biologically younger patients we use the which of the following procedures: - conservative - implantation of a total hip arthroplasty - osteosynthesis - implantation of hemiarthroplasty

For fractures of the femoral neck in the biologically younger patients we use the which of the following procedures: - implantation of a total hip arthroplasty+ - osteosynthesis+

For induction to general anaesthesia is used: - thiopentone - propofol - nitrous oxide - nitric oxide

For induction to general anaesthesia is used: - thiopentone - propofol

For lowering of systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid therapy-adverse effects: - "pulse therapy" can be used - short-lasting corticosteroids are used in lowest effective doses - long-lasting corticosteroids are used in lowest effective doses - corticosteroids should be quickly removed as soon as remission is reached

For lowering of systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid therapy-adverse effects: - "pulse therapy" can be used - short-lasting corticosteroids are used in lowest effective doses *pulse corticosteroid therapy*: high dose glucocorticoid treatment in short term infusion during several days. Used in transplantation rejection. Methylprednisolone 0,5-1g (every 3 hours, 3 days i a row)

For morbus Bechterew is typical: - occurs more frequently in younger and middle-aged women - is caused by a viral infection - starting at SI joints and progresses cranially - X-ray creates an image of bamboo pole

For morbus Bechterew is typical: - starting at SI joints and progresses cranially+ - X-ray creates an image of bamboo pole+

For primary direct healing of fractures is typical: - non forming of the periosteal and endosteal callus - occurs after perfect anatomical reduction and stable internal fixation - must be ensured by plaster of Paris - does not occur in older patients

For primary direct healing of fractures is typical: - non forming of the periosteal and endosteal callus+ - occurs after perfect anatomical reduction and stable internal fixation+

For the diagnosis of osteoarthritis is characterized by: - most present with pain, stiffness and functional loss, joint crepitus - swelling joints, deformity, moderate effusion, abbreviated legs - fever with increased warmth of overlying skin of joint - in the lab examination high levels of inflammatory parameters - ESR, CRP, RF

For the diagnosis of osteoarthritis is characterized by: - most present with pain, stiffness and functional loss, joint crepitus - swelling joints, deformity, moderate effusion, abbreviated legs

For the early changes in osteoarthritis is typical: - located in the superficial layer of cartilage, leads to the necrosis and reduction in the number of chondrocytes - cracks in the cartilage, may extend to the subchondral bone - generated deep ulcerations to the subchondral bone necrosis and pseudocysts - collapse of the pseudocyst, deformation of congruence of the articular surface, formation of osteophytes

For the early changes in osteoarthritis is typical: - located in the superficial layer of cartilage, leads to the necrosis and reduction in the number of chondrocytes+ - cracks in the cartilage, may extend to the subchondral bone+

For the osteosynthesis of hand bones we use: - Kirschner wires - splints and screws - silicon plates - ceramic plates

For the osteosynthesis of hand bones we use: - Kirschner wires+ - splints and screws+

For the reconstruction of nerves we use the suture of: - myelin sheaths - every single nerve fibres - perineurium - epineurium

For the reconstruction of nerves we use the suture of: - perineurium+ - epineurium+

Foveola radialis: - is bordered by the m. flexor pollicis longus distally - contains the v. basilica - contains the r. superficialis n. radialis - is bordered by the m. abductor pollicis longus palmary

Foveola radialis: - contains the r. superficialis n. radialis - is bordered by the m. abductor pollicis longus palmary

Fracture of posterior column of the acetabulum: - relatively rare - usually connected with hip dislocation dorsally - vasa glutea superiora cannot be affected - after reposition of femoral head is not necessary fixation of posterior column

Fracture of posterior column of the acetabulum: - relatively rare+ - WHAT? - usually connected with hip dislocation dorsally+

Fracture of posterior wall of the acetabulum: - the most frequent type of acetabular fracture - we mostly choose surgically way of treatment - never injured articular surface of the acetabulum - we mostly choose conservative way of treatment

Fracture of posterior wall of the acetabulum: - the most frequent type of acetabular fracture+ - we mostly choose surgically way of treatment+

Levels of which hormone will be increased after a traumatic event: - adrenaline (epinephrine) - LH, ADH and dopamine - cortisol - insulin

Levels of which hormone will be increased after a traumatic event: - adrenaline (epinephrine) - cortisol

Fracture of vertebral body in children: - surgical treatment is always indicated - spinal cord injury is always present - it is a simple and stable injury in most cases - conservative treatment in almost all cases is indicated

Fracture of vertebral body in children: - it is a simple and stable injury in most cases+ - conservative treatment in almost all cases is indicated+

Fractures of anterior wall of the acetabulum: - rarer than fracture of posterior wall - the same frequency as fracture of posterior wall - occurs in older patients with osteoporosis - always rises as high-energy trauma

Fractures of anterior wall of the acetabulum: - rarer than fracture of posterior wall+ - occurs in older patients with osteoporosis+

Fractures of bones on the hand: - we treat by physiotherapy - we treat by the splint fixation - we perform the osteosynthesis - we reposition but do not fixate to preserve the movement

Fractures of bones on the hand: - we treat by the splint fixation+ - we perform the osteosynthesis+

Fractures of femoral diaphysis in children: - are classified according to Salter-Harris schedule - age plays the deciding role in treatment - in case of osteosynthesis the elastic stable intramedullary nailing is preferable - osteosynthesis is indicated on principle, regardless of age

Fractures of femoral diaphysis in children: - age plays the deciding role in treatment+ - in case of osteosynthesis the elastic stable intramedullary nailing is preferable+

Fractures of the ankle joint: - are a combination of bony and ligamentous injury - one of the most common fractures of the lower limb - are the most typical fracture in osteoporosis - patients in middle age are almost absent

Fractures of the ankle joint: - are a combination of bony and ligamentous injury+ - one of the most common fractures of the lower limb+

Fractures of the ankle joint: - divided into three groups according to Weber - always treat conservatively by reduction and plaster fixation - division into types A, B and C is given by the relationship between the height of the fibular fracture line and the fibular syndesmosis - due to the nerve supply are not accompanied by pain

Fractures of the ankle joint: - divided into three groups according to Weber+ - division into types A, B and C is given by the relationship between the height of the fibular fracture line and the fibular syndesmosis+

Fractures of the calcaneus: - it is the most common fracture in the tarsus - always carry a native X-ray projections in 2 planes and CT scan - due to structure of the calcaneus are almost absent - does not cause future problems for the injured patient´s

Fractures of the calcaneus: - it is the most common fracture in the tarsus+ - always carry a native X-ray projections in 2 planes and CT scan+

Fractures of the calcaneus: - are not serious, mostly injured do not seek treatment - the most common mechanism of injury is a fall from a height and sprains - we use in the diagnosis X-ray in one projection and CT scan is not necessary - insufficient clinical and X-ray examination of fracture risk oversight and diagnostic conclusion as just ankle sprains

Fractures of the calcaneus: - the most common mechanism of injury is a fall from a height and sprains+ - insufficient clinical and X-ray examination of fracture risk oversight and diagnostic conclusion as just ankle sprains+

Fractures of the diaphysis of the tibia: - are treated fundamentally conservative by reduction and plaster fixation - the most common type of osteosynthesis is intramedullary nailing - ere often open - development of compartment syndrome is never seen

Fractures of the diaphysis of the tibia: - the most common type of osteosynthesis is intramedullary nailing+ - ere often open+

Fractures of the distal radius: - are typical for a post-menopausal women - are characteristic especially for teens - are usually associated with osteoporosis - are always extraarticular

Fractures of the distal radius: - are typical for a post-menopausal women+ - are usually associated with osteoporosis+

Fractures of the femoral head may occur together with fracture of: - anterior edge of the acetabulum - posterior edge of the acetabulum - posterior pillars of the acetabulum - neck of femur

Fractures of the femoral head may occur together with fracture of: - posterior edge of the acetabulum+ - neck of femur+

Fractures of the forearm: - only involve one broken bone - always require x-rays of the whole forearm - are always treated conservatively with high plaster - always require surgical treatment

Fractures of the forearm: - always require x-rays of the whole forearm+ - are always treated conservatively with high plaster+

Fractures of the phalanges: - we treat mostly conservative by taping - carry out internal fixation of fractures especially of the base phalang of the thumb - operate substantially by plate fixation - always perform fixation by Kirschner wires

Fractures of the phalanges: - we treat mostly conservative by taping+ - carry out internal fixation of fractures especially of the base phalang of the thumb +

Fractures of the talus: - a serious injury with risk of development of bone necrosis - it is the most common fracture in foot - fracture luxation and / or strong fragments dislocations are indicated for the most urgent surgical treatment - always treat conservatively with early mobilization and full weight bearing

Fractures of the talus: - a serious injury with risk of development of bone necrosis+ - fracture luxation and / or strong fragments dislocations are indicated for the most urgent surgical treatment+

Fractures with many fragments is: - comminutive - compressive - intraarticular - burst

Fractures with many fragments is: - comminutive - burst A bone injury that results in more than 2 separate bone components is known as a comminuted fracture

Free flap trasnfer: mean tissue transfer from distant parts of the body using microsurgery is the transfer of axial flaps is always used as the first method of choice do not allow reconstruction of complicated defects, where is the loss of several types of tissues

Free flap trasnfer: mean tissue transfer from distant parts of the body using microsurgery+ is the transfer of axial flaps+

Free flaps: are only skin flaps are only muscle flaps are also toe transfers are also omental or intestinal flaps

Free flaps: are also toe transfers+ are also omental or intestinal flaps+

Liver trauma manifest frequently as: - bradycardia as a result of the bile effusion - tachycardia - circulatory failure - icterus

Liver trauma manifest frequently as - tachycardia - circulatory failure

Free flaps: can be harvested anywhere on the body have a well-defined vascular pedicle the vessels nourishing the flap are isolated, detached and then reattached to suitable distant recipient vessels can be used at any time

Free flaps: have a well-defined vascular pedicle+ the vessels nourishing the flap are isolated, detached and then reattached to suitable distant recipient vessels+

Full thickness skin graft: survive transplantation less well can be used on contaminated defects most constricts Is usually used to cover smaller well vascularized defects, most often in the face

Full thickness skin graft: survive transplantation less well+ defects, most often in the face+

Further poison (toxic substance) absorption can be prevented: - through emesis induction (in oral intoxications) - by giving absorbing substances (Carbo medicinalis) - by forced diuresis - by hemodialysis

Further poison (toxic substance) absorption can be prevented: - through emesis induction (in oral intoxications) - by giving absorbing substances (Carbo medicinalis)

Galeazzi fracture is: - injury of children and adults - radial shaft fracture with dislocation of the lower end of the ulna - scaphoid fracture - injury only of preschool children

Galeazzi fracture is: - injury of children and adults+ - radial shaft fracture with dislocation of the lower end of the ulna+

Gall bladder: - has a layer of smooth muscle cells in its wall - its fundus projects into the McBurney´s point - consists of a fundus, body and neck - is not developed in the newborns

Gall bladder: - has a layer of smooth muscle cells in its wall - consists of a fundus, body and neck

Gas inhalational general anaesthesic agent is not: - all of them - isoflurane - nitrous oxide - desflurane

Gas inhalational general anaesthesic agent is not: - isoflurane - desflurane

Gender distribution of injuries in childhood and adolescence is most distinctive in age groups: - 0-4 years - 5-9 years - 10-14 years - 15-19 years

Gender distribution of injuries in childhood and adolescence is most distinctive in age groups - 10-14 years - 15-19 years

General anaesthestic agent that has not sympathomimetic effects is: - thiopentone - ketamine - desfurane - all of them

General anaesthestic agent that has not sympathomimetic effects is: - thiopentone - desfurane

Generalized osteoporosis is characterized by: - deficiency of bone mass - increase of T-score in densitometry - structural disorder of bones - increased formation of osteoid

Generalized osteoporosis is characterized by: - deficiency of bone mass - structural disorder of bones there is a decrease of T score

Girdlestone operation: - is a simple extraction of endoprosthesis - is indicated in periprosthetic fracture - is indicated in infected prosthesis - means re-implantation of prosthesis

Girdlestone operation: - is a simple extraction of endoprosthesis - is indicated in infected prosthesis it involves removing part of the ball or head of the thigh bone (femur), thereby allowing it to fuse with the socket of the hip (acetabulum) in the straight leg position.

Glasgow coma scale, among others, measures these aspects: - the ability to establish any kind of contact - brain stem reflexes - eye opening - the best motor response

Glasgow coma scale, among others, measures these aspects: - eye opening - the best motor response

Glucocorticoid intraarticular application is used: - in primary immunopathological induced inflammatory joint lesions - in septic arthritis - only in strictly aseptic conditions - preventively in suspected joint cavity infections

Glucocorticoid intraarticular application is used: - in primary immunopathological induced inflammatory joint lesions - only in strictly aseptic conditions

Which of the following is/are true of *gout*? - only a chronic form of gouty arthritis is known - acute gouty arthritis is dominated by macrophages in the inflammatory infiltrate - belongs to a group of crystal arthropathies - polymorphonuclears are involved in the acute phase of joint inflammation

Gout - belongs to a group of *crystal arthropathies* - *polymorphonuclears* are involved in the *acute* phase of joint inflammation

Which of the following is/are true of *gout*? - soft tissues are not affected by pathological deposits - polymorphonuclears are involved in the acute phase of joint inflammation - gouty tophi are a manifestations of acute inflammation - gouty tophi are a manifestation of chronic inflammation

Gout - polymorphonuclears are involved in the acute phase of joint inflammation - gouty tophi are a manifestation of *chronic* inflammation -> affects soft tissue!!

Which of the following is/are true of *gout*? - we can distinguish between primary and secondary gout - crystals of uric acid salts have a characteristic shape of an envelope - affects soft tissues of the joint and adjacent bone - giant cell inflammatory response is not included among gouty morphological changes

Gout - we can distinguish between primary and secondary gout - affects *soft tissues* of the joint and adjacent bone

Greater sciatic foramen (Foramen ischiadicum majus): - is bordered by the lig. sacrospinale medially - is bordered by the lig. sacrotuberale caudally - contains the vasa glutea sup. - contains the vasa glutea inf.

Greater sciatic foramen (Foramen ischiadicum majus): - contains the vasa glutea sup. - contains the vasa glutea inf.

Growth plate: - is a cartilaginous structure - is a fibrous structure - there are on both proximal and distal ends of long bones - there is only on the distal end of long bones

Growth plate: - is a cartilaginous structure+ - there are on both proximal and distal ends of long bones+

Harris acetabuloplasty: - is indicated after prosthesis extraction - means supra-acetabular graft implantation - means infra-acetabular graft implantation - prevents femoral component dislocation

Harris acetabuloplasty: - means supra-acetabular graft implantation - prevents femoral component dislocation

Heimlich´s manoeuvre is used in case of: - foreign body aspiration - prevention of aspiration of gastric content - hypotension - suffocation because of airways obstruction

Heimlich´s manoeuvre is used in case of: - foreign body aspiration - suffocation because of airways obstruction

Hemiarthroplasty of the hip is characterized as: - replaces only the head and neck of femur, correspond to the size of the original head - usually indicated for fractures of the neck biologically older patients - we perform in young patients with good quality of the acetabulum - is advantageous for economic reasons

Hemiarthroplasty of the hip is characterized as: - replaces only the head and neck of femur, correspond to the size of the original head+ - usually indicated for fractures of the neck biologically older patients+

Hemothorax is characterized: - bleeding in pleural cavity connected with complete or partial lung collapse - paleness, anemia, sometimes hemoptysis, hypotension, bradycardia - frequently non-traumatic origin - clinically shortened percussion above lung

Hemothorax is characterized: - bleeding in pleural cavity connected with complete or partial lung collapse - clinically shortened percussion above lung

Hepatic injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination - laboratory examination - X ray examination - clinical examination only

Hepatic injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination+ - laboratory examination+

Hepatic injury in children is treated: - nonoperative only - nonoperative in the first choice - by surgery on principle - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only

Hepatic injury in children is treated: - nonoperative in the first choice+ - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only+

Hepatoduodenal ligament: - contains the common bile duct and the portal vein - is another term for the round hepatic ligament - is absent by the agenesis of the gall bladder - represents the caudal margin of the original ventral mesentery

Hepatoduodenal ligament: - contains the common bile duct and the portal vein - represents the caudal margin of the original ventral mesentery

Herniation of the disc occurs: - mostly in the area of the thoracolumbar transition - bulging nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosus into the spinal canal - with the rupture of ligamentum longitudinale posterius - with sudden movement and lifting heavy object

Herniation of the disc occurs: - bulging nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosus into the spinal canal+ - with sudden movement and lifting heavy object+

Heterotopic ossifications: - pathological radiopaque formation around the joints - help to stability of the fracture - brain injury do not increase their incidence - prostaglandin PGE 2 is a mediator of ossification

Heterotopic ossifications: - pathological radiopaque formation around the joints+ - prostaglandin PGE 2 is a mediator of ossification+

Hidden penetrating brain injury could manifest: - as pneumocephalus - as bloody otorrhea or rhinorrhea - as cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea or rhinorrhea - as septic fever

Hidden penetrating brain injury could manifest: - as pneumocephalus - as cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea or rhinorrhea

High doses of short-lasting treatment (not exceeding 48 hours) with glucocorticoids is used: - in anaphylactic shock, in snake bite - in status asthmaticus, in brain edema - to prevent thrombus formation - in peptic ulcer treatment

High doses of short-lasting treatment (not exceeding 48 hours) with glucocorticoids is used: - in anaphylactic shock, in snake bite - in status asthmaticus, in brain edema

High doses of short-lasting treatment (not exceeding 48 hours) with glucocorticoids: - has practically no risks - can induce ventricle dysrhythmia complications - can induce in diabetics, hyperglycemia and hyperglycemic coma - can induce in diabetics, hypoglycemic coma

High doses of short-lasting treatment (not exceeding 48 hours) with glucocorticoids: - can induce ventricle dysrhythmia complications - can induce in diabetics, hyperglycemia and hyperglycemic coma

Hip joint pain in childhood must be considered in terms of occurrence in the differential diagnosis with: - coxitis (septic arthritis of the hip) - transient synovitis of the hip (also called toxic synovitis) - Gaucher´s disease - neuropathic joint

Hip joint pain in childhood must be considered in terms of occurrence in the differential diagnosis with: - coxitis (septic arthritis of the hip)+ - transient synovitis of the hip (also called toxic synovitis)+

Hospitalization of persons for injury by groups of external causes in CR (choose 2 most frequent groups): - suicides - falls - traffic accidents - electric current, fire, scalding

Hospitalization of persons for injury by groups of external causes in CR (choose 2 most frequent groups): - falls - traffic accidents

How are radionuclide cisternography images acquired : - with SPECT technique - planar images of the head in anterior and both lateral views - sequential multistatic planar imaging within 24 to 48 hours - dynamic scintigraphy for 2 hours after intravenous injection

How are radionuclide cisternography images acquired : - planar images of the head in anterior and both lateral views - sequential multistatic planar imaging within 24 to 48 hours

How does hypovolemic shock differ from cardiogenic shock: - level of blood pressure in arteries - heart rate - central venous pressure - jugular veins distension

How does hypovolemic shock differ from cardiogenic shock - central venous pressure - jugular veins distension Cardiogenic shock - caused by failure of contractility leading to lower systemic perfusion Hypovolemic shock - low blood volume (vomiting, diarrhea, burns bleeding - all decreases the volume)

How long after a fracture does a bone scan usually normalized: - one month - half year - one year - it can be positive for times longer than one year

How long after a fracture does a bone scan usually normalized: - one year - it can be positive for times longer than one year

Humerotricipital foramen (Foramen humerotricipitale): - is bordered by the humerus medially - is bordered by the m. teres major distally - contains the n. axillaris - contains the a. circumflexa humeri ant.

Humerotricipital foramen (Foramen humerotricipitale): - is bordered by the m. teres major distally - contains the n. axillaris

Hypovolemic shock is induced by blood loss: - higher than 20-30% of the total blood volume - 0.3-0.5 l of blood - greater than 9/10 of the total blood volume - of 1 liter of blood

Hypovolemic shock is induced by blood loss: - higher than 20-30% of the total blood volume - of 1 liter of blood

Liver trauma manifests frequently as: - hemobilia - hemoperitoneum - pneumoperitoneum - chylascos

Liver trauma manifests frequently as: - hemobilia - hemoperitoneum

Idiopathic scoliosis: - is divided into infantile, juvenile and adolescent - occurs more frequently in girls - always progresses to the end of the growth - is indicated of conservative treatment with brace

Idiopathic scoliosis: - is divided into infantile, juvenile and adolescent+ - occurs more frequently in girls+

If a fracture is suspected the following imaging methods can be used: - radiography - ultrasound - CT - MRI

If a fracture is suspected the following imaging methods can be used: - radiography - CT

If the communication in the anterior cranial fossa is proven, the following approach is indicated: - surgery - sleep state and increased head position - there is usually no indication for surgical treatment - antibiotic therapy

If the communication in the anterior cranial fossa is proven, the following approach is indicated: - surgery - antibiotic therapy

If the patient loses 25% of his blood volume, increase in which of the following items will occur: - cardiac output - heart rate - total peripheral resistance - muscle perfusion

If the patient loses 25% of his blood volume, increase in which of the following items will occur: - heart rate - total peripheral resistance

Iliopectineal fossa (Fossa iliopectinea): - contains the n. femoralis - contains the a. profunda femoris - is bordered by the m. iliopsoas laterally - is bordered by the m. pectineus medially

Iliopectineal fossa (Fossa iliopectinea): - is bordered by the m. iliopsoas laterally - is bordered by the m. pectineus medially

Imaging in three-phase bone scan is routinely performed: - immediately and 2-3 minutes after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 30 minutes after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 1 hour after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 2-3 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical

Imaging in three-phase bone scan is routinely performed: - immediately and 2-3 minutes after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 2-3 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical

Imaging method that can demonstrate meniscal and cruciate ligaments injury: - plain radiograph - MRI - arthrography - CT

Imaging method that can demonstrate meniscal and cruciate ligaments injury: - MRI+ - arthrography+

Imaging of dynamic kidney scintigraphy begins: - 1 minute after injection of radiopharmaceutical - simultaneously with injection of radiopharmaceutical - 10 minutes after injection of radiopharmaceutical - just before injection of radiopharmaceutical

Imaging of dynamic kidney scintigraphy begins: - simultaneously with injection of radiopharmaceutical - just before injection of radiopharmaceutical can't wait when it comes to dynamic renal stuff - peeee

In Monteggia fracture we find: - fracture of radius - fracture of ulna - dislocation of radial head - distal radio-ulnar subluxation

In Monteggia fracture we find: - fracture of ulna - dislocation of radial head Monteggia fracture-dislocations comprise of a fracture of the ulna shaft and dislocation of the radial head.

In alcohol (ethanol) intoxication: - a serious intoxication (blood alcohol over 3.0 ‰) is characterized by central excitation, cardiovascular stimulation, sweating, hyperthermia - a serious intoxication (blood alcohol over 3.0 ‰) is characterized by deep sedation, somnolence, ataxia, even coma, respiratory depression, hypothermia, frequently hypoglycaemia - clomethiazole or tiapride can be used for pacification of aggressive alcohol intoxicated patient - atropine can be used for central depressor effect reduction

In alcohol (ethanol) intoxication: - a serious intoxication (blood alcohol over 3.0 ‰) is characterized by deep sedation, somnolence, ataxia, even coma, respiratory depression, hypothermia, frequently hypoglycaemia - clomethiazole or tiapride can be used for pacification of aggressive alcohol intoxicated patient

In anterior inferior dislocation of hip position in the hip joint is in: - flexion - extension - external rotation - internal rotation

In anterior inferior dislocation of hip position in the hip joint is in: - extension+ - external rotation+ POSTERIOR (internal)- i = extension POSTERIOR (internal)-s = flexion ANTERIOR (external) - i = extension ANTERIOR (external) - s = flexion

In anterior superior dislocation of hip joint position in the hip joint is in: - flexion - extension - external rotation - internal station

In anterior superior dislocation of hip joint position in the hip joint is in: - flexion+ - external rotation+

In attempting to introduce a catheter into the right internal jugular vein, a resident inadvertently damages the cervical sympathetic trunk in a patient. Which of the following findings are most likely to be seen in this patient as a result of the injury? - constriction of the right pupil - exophthalmos in the right side - right eyelid ptosis - paralysis of the platysma muscle on the right side

In case of a mass burn disaster, the patients are sorted according to: - their place of residence - their age and sex - their chance of survival - their TBSA value or their associated injuries

In case of a mass burn disaster, the patients are sorted according to: - their chance of survival+ - their TBSA value or their associated injuries+

In case of injury to the abdominal wall by a penetrating object, which we find in the wound, we try to: - remove it immediately - leave it in situ - gently cover it with a sterile cloth - take a picture

In case of injury to the abdominal wall by a penetrating object, which we find in the wound, we try to: - leave it in situ - gently cover it with a sterile cloth

In case of suffocating laryngitis i children: - airways are secured by tracheal intubation with muscle relaxation - airways are secured by tracheostomy - airways are secured by tracheal intubation with general anaesthesia and spontaneous ventilation - is treated my systemic corticosteroids

In case of suffocating laryngitis i children: - airways are secured by tracheal intubation with general anaesthesia and spontaneous ventilation - is treated my systemic corticosteroids

In cause of lesion of the hollow abdominal organs we could observe: - very often pneumoperitoneum on the X- ray - development of the acute peritonitis - hematuria - constipation

In cause of lesion of the hollow abdominal organs we could observe: - very often pneumoperitoneum on the X- ray - development of the acute peritonitis

In chronic ankle instability: - it is usually the fibular ligament or the deltoid ligament insufficiency and in diagnosis we use magnetic resonance - therapy is long-term fixation of plaster - a minimum of 6 months - we provide raffia of damaged ligaments, eventually ligaments plasty - after operational revisions and ligaments plasty we never use plaster cast and we recommend early full weight bearing

In chronic ankle instability: - it is usually the fibular ligament or the deltoid ligament insufficiency and in diagnosis we use magnetic resonance+ - we provide raffia of damaged ligaments, eventually ligaments plasty+

In comparison with warfarin, the indirect thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors have: - faster onset of action - higher risks of drug interactions - well predictable effect without necessary effect monitoring - the possibility of effect termination by protamine sulfate

In comparison with warfarin, the indirect thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors have: - faster onset of action - well predictable effect without necessary effect monitoring

In compensated hypovolemic shock: - lactic acidosis is present - vegetative nervous system ensures maintenance of blood pressure - vegetative nervous system ensures increases cardiac output - arteriolar vasoconstriction results in decreased perfusion of the kidneys

In compensated hypovolemic shock: - vegetative nervous system ensures maintenance of blood pressure - arteriolar vasoconstriction results in decreased perfusion of the kidneys

In displacement of the ad longitudinem fragments can be: - distracted - contracted - rotated - subluxated

In displacement of the ad longitudinem fragments can be: - distracted - rotated

In loosening of femoral component we can find: - periosteal reaction - sclerotisation - focal osteolysis - fistulization

In loosening of femoral component we can find: - periosteal reaction - focal osteolysis

In organophosphate intoxication (insecticides - DDT, chemical weapons etc.): - the patient has dry mouth, mydriasis, increased heart rate and body temperature - a specific antidote can be used - atropine - only symptomatic and non-specific treatment can be used (no specific antidote) - the patient has typical signs of cholinomimetic/parasympathomimetic overdose

In organophosphate intoxication (insecticides - DDT, chemical weapons etc.): - a specific antidote can be used - atropine - the patient has typical signs of cholinomimetic/parasympathomimetic overdose

In osteoporosis we find: - elevation of Ca levels in the blood - decreased Ca levels in the blood - inhibition of osteoblastic activity - increased fragility of bones

In osteoporosis we find: - inhibition of osteoblastic activity - increased fragility of bones

In patients with suspected of osteomyelitis of peripheral bones, which of the following radionuclide methods can be useful: - in vitro labeled leukocytes scintigraphy - Tc-99m MIBI scintigraphy - I-123 MIBG scintigraphy - Tc-99m labeled monoclonal antibodies against leukocytes

In recurrent dislocation of the shoulder we look for: - Hill-Sachs lesion of humeral head - Bankart lesion of the glenoid - Salter-Harris chondral lesion - SLAP lesion of glenoid labrum

In recurrent dislocation of the shoulder we look for: - Hill-Sachs lesion of humeral head - Bankart lesion of the glenoid Zachs bank har forsvunnet (dislocated)

In remarkable benzodiazepine overdose/intoxication (deep CNS depressor effect and strong muscle-relaxation) besides common precautions: - naloxone can be used for deep central depressor effect reduction - acetylcysteine (ACC) can be used as a specific antidote - flumazenil can be used as a specific antidote - naloxone can be used as a specific antidote

In remarkable benzodiazepine overdose/intoxication (deep CNS depressor effect and strong muscle-relaxation) besides common precautions - naloxone can be used for deep central depressor effect reduction - flumazenil can be used as a specific antidote

In resuscitation algorithm is abnormal breathing: - tachypnoea - gasping - apnoea - Kussmaul´s breathing

In resuscitation algorithm is abnormal breathing: - gasping - apnoea (typisk for noen når de sover, plutselig stopper de å puste)

In rheumatology, systemic glucocorticoid application is often use e.g.: - in systemic lupus erythematosus - in rheumatoid arthritis with extraarticular lesions - in golf or tennis knee pain - in tendovaginitis

In rheumatology, systemic glucocorticoid application is often use e.g.: - in systemic lupus erythematosus - in rheumatoid arthritis with extraarticular lesions

In salicylate or barbiturate intoxication (=slight acids): - slight urine acidification can speed up their elimination (using IV bolus of 1 mmol acetic acid) - slight urine alkalization can speed up their elimination (using IV bolus of 1 mmol sodium bicarbonate) - hemoperfusion can be used for their elimination - a specific antidote can be used

In salicylate or barbiturate intoxication (=slight acids): - slight urine alkalization can speed up their elimination (using IV bolus of 1 mmol sodium bicarbonate) - hemoperfusion can be used for their elimination

In suspected hip prosthesis loosening: - we can use radionuclide methods (a combination of bone scintigraphy and leucoscan) that help us to distinguish whether the septic or aseptic loosening - first of all is indicated PET CT examination to differentiate aseptic or septic loosening - there is no typical X-ray signs for septic or aseptic loosening prosthesis, we make a decisions for revision surgery based on the objective findings and laboratory results - control X-ray film is indicated, where you can find typical changes particularly around the prosthesis (change in position of the prosthesis)

In suspected hip prosthesis loosening: - we can use radionuclide methods (a combination of bone scintigraphy and leucoscan) that help us to distinguish whether the septic or aseptic loosening+ - control X-ray film is indicated, where you can find typical changes particularly around the prosthesis (change in position of the prosthesis)+

In the Czech Republic, the classification according to the extent or depth of skin damage is: - two-degree - three-degree - three-degree, 2nd degree is A and B - four-degree

In the Czech Republic, the classification according to the extent or depth of skin damage is: - three-degree+ - three-degree, 2nd degree is A and B+

In the compensated stage of shock: - blood pressure decreases - heart rate increases - urine excretion increases - total peripheral resistance of vessels increases

In the compensated stage of shock: - heart rate increases - total peripheral resistance of vessels increases

In the decompensated stage of shock: - blood pressure decreases - cardiac output increases - total peripheral resistance of vessels decreases - morphological tissue damage is present

In the decompensated stage of shock: - blood pressure decreases - total peripheral resistance of vessels decreases

In the posterior inferior dislocation of the hip is the hip joint in position: - flexion - extension - internal rotation - external station

In the posterior inferior dislocation of the hip is the hip joint in position: - extension+ - internal rotation+ INFERIOR dislocation - EXtension (e er nærmere i)

In the primary traumatic brain injuries we include: - intracerebral hemorrhage - brain contusion - diffuse axonal injury - brain edema

In the primary traumatic brain injuries we include - brain contusion - diffuse axonal injury

In treatment of fractures in children the antibiotics are used: - always - in some indicated cases only (protected blood clot) - in out-patient department only - the initial dose is administered intravenously

In treatment of fractures in children the antibiotics are used: - in some indicated cases only (protected blood clot)+ - the initial dose is administered intravenously+

In unstable pelvic injuries are found most often at the same time: - fractures of the lower limbs - chest injuries - head traumas - injuries to the abdominal organs

In unstable pelvic injuries are found most often at the same time: - chest injuries+ - head traumas+

In which fractures has a use in the treatment skeletal traction: - fracture of patella - femoral neck fracture - pertrochanteric femur fracture - fracture of the femoral shaft

In which fractures has a use in the treatment skeletal traction (hengende i wire ext): - pertrochanteric femur fracture+ (pertrochanteric fracture fracture of the femur passing through the greater trochanter.) - fracture of the femoral shaft+

In which of the following sites has an increased incidence of osteoporosis-associated fractures? - vertebrae - metacarpal bones - hip - none of the above

In which of the following sites has an increased incidence of osteoporosis-associated fractures? - vertebrae - hip

Increase in sympathetic stimulation to the eye is responsible for: - contraction of pupillary dilator muscles - relaxation of ciliary muscles - contraction of pupillary sphincter muscles - contraction of m. levator palpebrae

Increase in sympathetic stimulation to the eye is responsible for: - contraction of pupillary dilator muscles - relaxation of ciliary muscles

Increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting have: - non-smokers - young men - persons with history of kinetosis - seniors

Increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting have - non-smokers - persons with history of kinetosis

Indication for hip joint replacement is: - femoral head necrosis - osteomyelitis - advanced osteoarthritis - morbus Perthes

Indication for hip joint replacement is: - femoral head necrosis - advanced osteoarthritis

Indication of resuscitation care is: - failure of 1 or more vital functions in treatable disease - Galsgow Coma Scale below 8 in course of treatable disease - in sepsis - in respiratory failure of any ethiology

Indication of resuscitation care is: - failure of 1 or more vital functions in treatable disease - Galsgow Coma Scale below 8 in course of treatable disease

Indications for implantation of joint replacement are: - after exhausting conservative treatment - for primary and secondary coxarthrosis, rheumatoid arthritis, fractures, tumors - if patient has severe pain, also without x-ray changes - if health instance company pay expenses with surgery

Indications for implantation of joint replacement are: - after exhausting conservative treatment+ - for primary and secondary coxarthrosis, rheumatoid arthritis, fractures, tumors+

Indications for providing chest compressions are: - asystole - sinus bradycardia - atrial fibrillation - ventricular fibrillation

Indications for providing chest compressions - asystole - ventricular fibrillation

Indications for replantation of the upper limb include: - amputation of the thumb at the last phalanx level - single amputation of one of the three phalanx finger - amputation at the wrist level - amputation in proximal third of the forearm

Indications for replantation of the upper limb include: - single amputation of one of the three phalanx finger+ - amputation in proximal third of the forearm+

Inflammatory degenerative joint diseases include: - rheumatoid arthritis, JRA - juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, Still's disease, ankylosing spondylitis (M. Bechtěrev) - here Reiter's syndrome, Felty´s syndrome, Sjögren's syndrome, psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic arthropathy - septic arthritis, such as coxitis, gonitis - neuropathic joint disability - Charcot arthropathy

Inflammatory degenerative joint diseases - rheumatoid arthritis, JRA - juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, Still's disease, ankylosing spondylitis (M. Bechtěrev) - here Reiter's syndrome, Felty´s syndrome, Sjögren's syndrome, psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic arthropathy

Infrapiriform foramen (Foramen infrapiriforme): - is bordered by the m. piriformis caudally - contains the vasa glutea inf. - contains the n. pudendus - contains the a. circumflexa femoris ant.

Infrapiriform foramen (Foramen infrapiriforme): - contains the vasa glutea inf. - contains the n. pudendus

Inhalation general anaesthetics - are e.g. propofol and etomidate - cause associative general anesthesia - cannot be used for sedation or self-service analgesia - are e.g. isoflurane and sevoflurane

Inhalation general anaesthetics - cause associative general anesthesia - are e.g. isoflurane and sevoflurane propofol and etomidate are IV

Injured hand is treated by: - usually under local anaesthesia - on principle of nerve blockage - on principle of general anaesthesia - nerve blockage is indicated in more extensive procedures

Injured hand is treated by: - usually under local anaesthesia+ - nerve blockage is indicated in more extensive procedures+

Injured interrupted peripheral nerves: - we always suture with very delicate stitches - we only move them closer and do not suture - we suture every single axon - we suture every single bundles under the microscope

Injured interrupted peripheral nerves: - we always suture with very delicate stitches+ - we suture every single bundles under the microscope+

Injuries caused by anteroposterior compression are most often associated with: - crush syndrome - bleeding - injuries of the lower extremities - urogenital lesions

Injuries caused by anteroposterior compression are most often associated with: - bleeding+ - urogenital lesions+

Injuries caused by lateral compression are most associated with: - trauma of visceral organs - bleeding - injuries of the lower extremities - head injury

Injuries caused by lateral compression are most associated with: - trauma of visceral organs+ - head injury+

Injury of following tissues may be verified by ultrasound: - bone - tendon - cartilage - ligament

Injury of following tissues may be verified by ultrasound: - tendon - cartilage CT

Injury of sciatic nerve is caused: - by iatrogenic injury in posterior surgical approach - by current fracture of upper part of pubic bone - by dislocation of fragments of posterior column - no injury of the sciatic nerve occurs in acetabular fractures

Injury of sciatic nerve is caused: - by iatrogenic injury in posterior surgical approach+ - by dislocation of fragments of posterior column+

Injury of the following organs can be detected by scintigraphy: - kidneys and liver - lungs and gut - spleen and brain - muscles and ligaments

Injury of the following organs can be detected by scintigraphy: - kidneys and liver - spleen and brain

Injury of the hollow abdominal organs is mostly caused by: - excessive strain of the abdominal wall - blunt abdominal trauma - penetrating abdominal trauma - serial fractures of the ribs

Injury of the hollow abdominal organs is mostly caused by: - blunt abdominal trauma - penetrating abdominal trauma

Injury to Lisfrank and Copart joint: - most common type of injury is sprains with the necessity of fixation in plaster casts or brace for 4-6 weeks - in the case of luxation is often luxation fracture - in current practice do not occur - are characterized by minimal pain without need to weight bearing reduction

Injury to Lisfrank and Copart joint: - most common type of injury is sprains with the necessity of fixation in plaster casts or brace for 4-6 weeks+ - in the case of luxation is often luxation fracture+

Injury to which knee structure(s) causes locking? - lateral meniscus - anterior cruciate ligament - posterior cruciate ligament - medial meniscus

Injury to which knee structure(s) causes locking? - lateral meniscus+ - medial meniscus+

Integrated rescue system can by contacted in the Czech republic by phone number: - 112 - 155 - by fix-phone only - by cell phone only

Integrated rescue system can by contacted in the Czech republic by phone number: - 112 - 155

Intensive care is not indicated in these situations: - patients over 75 - patients in terminal stages of cancer - patients with gastrointestinal bleeding - the risk of intensive care is higher that supposed benefit

Intensive care is not indicated in these situations: - patients in terminal stages of cancer - the risk of intensive care is higher that supposed benefit

Intercostal spaces: - covers on their inner faces the endothoracic fascia - in their middle segments are placed intercostal lymphatic nodes - from the 3rd one caudally do not contain the intercostalis internus - from the 7th caudally intercostal nerves exit and descend to the abdominal wall

Intercostal spaces: - covers on their inner faces the endothoracic fascia - from the 7th caudally intercostal nerves exit and descend to the abdominal wall

Interpretation of monitoring during anaesthesia and intensive care: - myaocardial ischemia is best recognised by changes of ST-T segments on ECG monitor - CVP is the reliable monitoring of preload - pulse oximetry is un- accurate during anaemia - sufficient whole body oxygen supply can be assessed by haemoglobin oxygen saturation in mixed venous blood in pulmonary artery

Interpretation of monitoring during anaesthesia and intensive care: - pulse oximetry is un- accurate during anaemia - sufficient whole body oxygen supply can be assessed by haemoglobin oxygen saturation in mixed venous blood in pulmonary artery

Intertrochanteric (pertrochanteric) fractures usually are treated: - with total hip replacement - osteosynthesis with nail - with hemiarthroplasty - osteosynthesis with plate

Intertrochanteric (pertrochanteric) fractures usually are treated: - osteosynthesis with nail+ - osteosynthesis with plate+ nail and plate

Intestinal traumatic perforation in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination - laparoscopy - clinical examination - X ray examination (standing plain view)

Intestinal traumatic perforation in children is diagnosed by: - clinical examination+ - X ray examination (standing plain view)+

Intestinal traumatic perforation in children is treated: - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only - nonoperative in the first choice - by surgery on principle - surgical revision, primary suture, intestinal resection or enterostomy

Intestinal traumatic perforation in children is treated: - by surgery on principle+ - surgical revision, primary suture, intestinal resection or enterostomy+

Into the basic characteristics of scoliosis include: - oblique pelvis - unequal shoulder height - rotation of the head to the side of the primary curve - significant forward bend - sagittal imbalance

Into the basic characteristics of scoliosis include: - oblique pelvis+ - unequal shoulder height+

Intracranial bleeding in children is diagnosed by means of: - neurological examination - X-ray examination - CT scan - MRI examination

Intracranial bleeding in children is diagnosed by means of: - neurological examination+ - CT scan+

Intracranial hypertension threatens the patient's life by: - rupture of a cerebral vessels - brain herniation - worsening of cerebral perfusion - failure of the internal environment

Intracranial hypertension threatens the patient's life by: - brain herniation - worsening of cerebral perfusion

Intracranial hypertension: - lumbar drainage recommended - lumbar drainage contraindicated - urgent ventricular drainage recommended - neither lumbar nor ventricular drainage recommended

Intracranial hypertension: - lumbar drainage contraindicated - urgent ventricular drainage recommended

Intracranial pressure is normally: - 20 to 35 mm Hg (torr) - 10 to 15 mm Hg (torr) - elevated levels may suffer brain ischemia - its values do not affect the brain perfusion

Intracranial pressure is normally: - 10 to 15 mm Hg (torr) - elevated levels may suffer brain ischemia

Intracranial pressure monitoring: - performed primarily in craniotraumas - most often an epidural sensor is used - mostly an intraparenchymal or intraventricular sensor is used - sensor applied by lumbar puncture

Intracranial pressure monitoring: - performed primarily in craniotraumas - mostly an intraparenchymal or intraventricular sensor is used

Intramedullary nailing of humeral fractures: - we have antegrade and retrograde nailing - has advantage of less invasivity - nonunion never occurs - paralysis of the radial nerve never happens

Intramedullary nailing of humeral fractures: - we have antegrade and retrograde nailing+ - has advantage of less invasivity+

Intravenous administration of benzodiazepines may result in: - hypoventilation and apnoea - convulsions - hypotension - polyuria

Intravenous administration of benzodiazepines may result in: - hypoventilation and apnoea - hypotension blir så relaxed at det er hypo av alt

Invasive methods for securing airways are: - cricotomy - tracheostomy - tracheal intubation - oral airway

Invasive methods for securing airways are: - cricotomy (hull i cricoid) - tracheostomy (hull i trachea)

Ischemic period for amputated part which involves muscle tissue: - must not exceed 7 hours - is the period of time between amputation and the restoration of circulation - is the period of time between amputation and admission to the replantation centre - must not exceed 6 hours

Ischemic period for amputated part which involves muscle tissue: - is the period of time between amputation and the restoration of circulation+ - must not exceed 6 hours+

Isolated rib fracture might lead to the trauma of: - spleen and liver - lung and pleura - vocal cords - presacral plexus

Isolated rib fracture might lead to the trauma of - spleen and liver - lung and pleura

Jugular oximetry: - SvjO2 measuring (venose blood O2 saturation in jugular bulb) - SvjO2 measuring (arterial blood O2 saturation in jugular bulb) - is an obsolete method, no longer used - normal values between 55 - 71%

Jugular oximetry: - SvjO2 measuring (venose blood O2 saturation in jugular bulb) - normal values between 55 - 71%

LCP implants: - rigid connection of head of screw into the plate - suitable in osteoporotic fracture - unsuitable in comminuted fractures - it is not possible to use minimally invasive approach

LCP implants: - rigid connection of head of screw into the plate+ - suitable in osteoporotic fracture+

Lacuna musculorum: - is bordered by the arcus iliopectineus medially - contains n. cutaneus femoris lat. - is bordered by the m. transversus abdominis ventrally - contains the vasa femoralia

Lacuna musculorum: - is bordered by the arcus iliopectineus medially - contains n. cutaneus femoris lat.

Lacuna vasorum: - runs between anterior and medial group of muscles of thigh - contains the n. cutaneus femoris med. - contains the r. femoralis n. genitofemoralis - contains the vasa femoralia

Lacuna vasorum: - contains the r. femoralis n. genitofemoralis - contains the vasa femoralia

Laryngeal mask airway is valuable for airway securing in: - long surgery - risk of gastric content aspiration - impossible intubation - difficult face mask ventilation

Laryngeal mask airway is valuable for airway securing in - impossible intubation - difficult face mask ventilation

Late complications of diaphragm rupture are: - spontaneous pneumothorax, respiratory insufficiency - nonspecific gastrointestinal disorders, incarceration of prolapse organs in the chest - respiratory insufficiency, tension pneumothorax - myocardial infarction, gastrointestinal disorders

Late complications of diaphragm rupture are: - nonspecific gastrointestinal disorders, incarceration of prolapse organs in the chest - respiratory insufficiency, tension pneumothorax

Lateral X-ray projection of the elbow: - use to evaluate radiohumeral joint - cannot evaluate dislocation in elbow - is not commonly used - elbow is flexed to 90 degrees

Lateral X-ray projection of the elbow: - use to evaluate radiohumeral joint+ - elbow is flexed to 90 degrees +

Lateral approach to the humeral shaft: - in nowadays is not used - it is made in radial intermuscular septum - it is not necessary to prepare the radial nerve - it is made mostly with extremity on the auxiliary table

Lateral approach to the humeral shaft: - it is made in radial intermuscular septum+ - it is made mostly with extremity on the auxiliary table+

Lesion of the hollow abdominal organs is diagnosed by: - computed tomography of the abdominal cavity and small pelvis - gastroscopy - clinical investigation - angiography

Lesion of the hollow abdominal organs is diagnosed by: - computed tomography of the abdominal cavity and small pelvis - clinical investigation

Lesser sciatic foramen (Foramen ischiadicum minus): - contains the a. pudenda interna - is bordered by the lig. sacrotuberale dorsally - contains the n. pudendus - contains the terminal branches of the n. cutaneus feomoris post.

Lesser sciatic foramen (Foramen ischiadicum minus): - contains the a. pudenda interna - contains the n. pudendus

Letournel's classification: - divides fractures of the acetabulum in simple and combined - fractures of both column are among simple fractures - fracture of the posterior wall is rarer than fracture of the anterior wall - T-fractures are example of combined fractures

Letournel's classification: - divides fractures of the acetabulum in simple and combined+ - T-fractures are example of combined fractures+

Levels of which hormone will be increased after a traumatic event: - ACTH - LH and FSH - ADH and aldosterone - growth hormone

Levels of which hormone will be increased after a traumatic event: - ACTH - ADH and aldosterone

Local glucocorticoid therapy involves mainly: - water-insoluble derivates (corticoid esters) - methylprednisolone acetate and betamethasone dipropionate - hydrocortisone and cortisol - fludrocortisone acetate

Local glucocorticoid therapy involves mainly: - water-insoluble derivates (corticoid esters) - methylprednisolone acetate and betamethasone dipropionate

Local therapy corticosteroids are applied: - subcutaneously in the painful area - by direct injection into soft tissue - injection into the tendon covering in tendovaginitis - directly into the tendon tissue in tendovaginitis

Local therapy corticosteroids are applied: - by direct injection into soft tissue - injection into the tendon covering in tendovaginitis

Localised osteoporosis can be considered: - periarticular porosis in rheumatoid arthritis - involutional osteoporosis in seniors - postmenopausal osteoporosis - Sudeck´s dystrophy

Localised osteoporosis can be considered: - periarticular porosis in rheumatoid arthritis - Sudeck´s dystrophy

Locking compression plate: - are classified as „internal fixator" - it is possible to use minimally invasive technique - osteoporotic fractures are not indicated - are used only on the upper extremity

Locking compression plate: - are classified as „internal fixator"+ - it is possible to use minimally invasive technique+

Lunate surface of the acetabulum: - is covered with articular cartilage - is much thicker in cranial part - pulvinar of the acetabulum is situated around lunate surface - articular cartilage is much thicker in distal part

Lunate surface of the acetabulum: - is covered with articular cartilage+ - is much thicker in cranial part+

Magill´s forceps is used for: - treatment of complications during central venous catheter insertion - insertion of nasogastric tube - insertion of tracheal tube - in obstetrics during difficult delivery

Magill´s forceps is used for: - insertion of nasogastric tube - insertion of tracheal tube

Main mechanism of short action of thiopentone is: - redistribution - rapid metabolism - absence of active metabolites - movement of thiopentone from brain to muscles

Main mechanism of short action of thiopentone is: - redistribution - movement of thiopentone from brain to muscles

Male, 35 yrs old patient (M) after the head and thorax impact. On field: GCS 12 points, spontaneous breathing, HR 120/min, systemic pressure 90/70 Torr, RR 44/min. Later (minutes period) GCS 8 points, mydriatic pupil left site - dilation on 6 mm. What intervention is adequate: - dexamethazon administration for treatment of brain oedema - hyperventilation to reach PaCO2 under 25 torr - intubation and artifitial ventilation if GCS under 8 points - continuous administration of vazopressors for hypotension preventiv

Male, 35 yrs old patient (M) after the head and thorax impact. On field: GCS 12 points, spontaneous breathing, HR 120/min, systemic pressure 90/70 Torr, RR 44/min. Later (minutes period) GCS 8 points, mydriatic pupil left site - dilation on 6 mm. What intervention is adequate: - intubation and artifitial ventilation if GCS under 8 points - continuous administration of vazopressors for hypotension preventiv

Manifestations of neurogenic shock are: - occurrence of bradycardia - increased venous return - vasoconstriction in the gastrointestinal tract - loss of vasomotor tone

Manifestations of neurogenic shock are: - occurrence of bradycardia - loss of vasomotor tone

Which of the following statements is/are true of Marfan syndrome? - it is a hereditary AD disease - it is a genetic defect of fibrillin - patients exhibit phocomelia - hamartomas are found in the retina

Marfan syndrome? - it is a hereditary AD disease - it is a genetic defect of fibrillin

Which of the following statements is/are true of Marfan syndrome? - it is an acquired disease - it is a genetic defect of fibrin - patients exhibit long fingers (arachnodactylia) - wall of aorta is often affected

Marfan syndrome? - patients exhibit long fingers (arachnodactylia) - wall of aorta is often affected Marfan -> collagen, elastin, fibrillin - not fibrin AD disease

Mark frequent adverse effects of systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid treatment: - higher predisposition to infectious diseases - osteoporosis - emaciation, anorexia - sedation, somnolence

Mark frequent adverse effects of systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid treatment: - higher predisposition to infectious diseases - osteoporosis

Mark the drug combination used for analgosedation in clinical practice (including trauma medicine): - fentanyl with aminophenazone - ketimine with midazolam - fentanyl with midazolam - fentanyl with suxamethonium

Mark the drug combination used for analgosedation in clinical practice (including trauma medicine): - ketimine with midazolam - fentanyl with midazolam analgosedation - no fear, no pain -> good analgesia

Marked osteoporosis may be seen in: - Albers-Schonberg disease - osteogenesis imperfecta - morbus Cushing - fluorosis

Marked osteoporosis may be seen in: - osteogenesis imperfecta - morbus Cushing

Maximal reduction of the risk of injury of child passenger in car during collision is if car restraint (child car seat- under 150 cm/36 kg): - is used in combination with safety belts for adults - corresponds to weight of child - corresponds to age of child - corresponds to height of child

Maximal reduction of the risk of injury of child passenger in car during collision is if car restraint (child car seat- under 150 cm/36 kg): - corresponds to weight of child - corresponds to height of child

Which of the following diseases are associated with McCune-Albright syndrome? - fibrous dysplasia - osteosarcoma - Paget's disease - pubertas praecox

McCune-Albright syndrome - fibrous dysplasia - pubertas praecox

Mechanism of action of central muscle-relaxant drugs can be: - stimulation of serotonergic receptors - inhibition of GABAergic transmission - induction of hyperpolarization - agonist of alpha-2 receptors

Mechanism of action of central muscle-relaxant drugs can be: - induction of hyperpolarization - agonist of alpha-2 receptors

Medial bicipital groove (Sulcus bicipitalis medialis): - runs between the anterior and lateral group of muscles of the arm - contains the n. cutaneus antebrachii med. - contains the v. basilica - contains terminal branches of the n. musculocutaneus

Medial bicipital groove (Sulcus bicipitalis medialis): - contains the n. cutaneus antebrachii med. - contains the v. basilica

Meshing: - means perforation of grafts using a mesh dermatome - was introduced by Vaneput and Tanner in 1964 - means perforation of grafts in the case of hematoma expression - means reducing of grafts

Meshing: - means perforation of grafts using a mesh dermatome - was introduced by Vaneput and Tanner in 1964

Metatarsal fractures: - non dislocated fractures we treat conservatively by plaster fixation - displaced fractures usually are treated with reduction and transfixation by Kirschner wires or by plate fixation - the method of choice in the treatment is taping - plaster fixation must intervene to gluteal furrow

Metatarsal fractures: - non dislocated fractures we treat conservatively by plaster fixation+ - displaced fractures usually are treated with reduction and transfixation by Kirschner wires or by plate fixation+

Metatarsal fractures: - the most common mechanism of injury is subject to fall on dorsum of the forefoot - fatigue fractures occur mostly in 2 to 4 metatarsal - X-ray diagnosis is sufficient dorsoplantar native frame - we never operate

Metatarsal fractures: - the most common mechanism of injury is subject to fall on dorsum of the forefoot+ - fatigue fractures occur mostly in 2 to 4 metatarsal+

Methods of invasive monitoring do not include measurement of: - central venous pressure - intracranial pressure - diuresis - rectal temperature

Methods of invasive monitoring do not include measurement of: - diuresis - rectal temperature

Microsurgical technique: - is the super specialty within the plastic surgery field - is the technique which extends possibilities of surgical branches - in plastic surgery field enabled the performance of replantations - is the super specialty for surgical branches

Microsurgical technique: - is the technique which extends possibilities of surgical branches+ - in plastic surgery field enabled the performance of replantations + ...apparently not super anywhere

Middle joint of the finger is called: - MP joint - DIP joint - PIP join - interphalangeal joint

Middle joint of the finger is called: - PIP join+ - interphalangeal joint+

Middle mediastinum: - contains heart in the pericardial sac - vagus n. is located on the right side - caudally does not extends to the diaphragm - phrenic nerves are between the parietal pleura and pericardium

Middle mediastinum: - contains heart in the pericardial sac - phrenic nerves are between the parietal pleura and pericardium

Minimal interval between low-molecular weight heparin and epidural catheter removal si: - 2 h - 4 h - 6 h - administration of heparine immediately after catheter removal is contraindicated

Minimal interval between low-molecular weight heparin and epidural catheter removal si: - 2 h - administration of heparine immediately after catheter removal is contraindicated

Minimal interval between low-molecular weight heparine and spinal puncture : - 4 h before puncture - 12 h before puncture - 2 h after puncture - 4 h after puncture

Minimal interval between low-molecular weight heparine and spinal puncture : - 12 h before puncture - 2 h after puncture

Minimal interval clopidogrel and spinal puncture: - puncture cannot be performed if the interval is less than 12 h - minimal interval is 24 h - minimal interval is 2 days - minimal interval is 5 days

Minimal interval clopidogrel and spinal puncture: - puncture cannot be performed if the interval is less than 12 h - minimal interval is 5 days

Mobile segment of the spine: - consists of two adjacent vertebrae and interspaced disc, ligaments and facet joints - is located on the top of lordosis and kyphosis - Is the basic functional unit of the spine - in stabilization of the spine is necessary to omit mobile segment

Mobile segment of the spine: - consists of two adjacent vertebrae and interspaced disc, ligaments and facet joints+ - Is the basic functional unit of the spine+

Monteggia fracture is: - fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation - fracture of the proximal radius with dislocation of the ulna - fracture of one bone of forearm and dislocation of the proximal end of the second bone - a typical fracture of elderly

Monteggia fracture is: - fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation+ - fracture of one bone of forearm and dislocation of the proximal end of the second bone+

Most frequent cause of arterial thoracic trauma is: - domestic violence - work connected trauma - traffic accidents - home connected trauma

Most frequent cause of arterial thoracic trauma is: - work connected trauma - traffic accidents

Most frequent cause of liver trauma is: - blunt contusion of the abdominal wall (direct mechanism) - penetrating trauma (shooting wounds, stabbing wounds) - indirect mechanism par contre coup - per-operation lesions

Most frequent cause of liver trauma is: - blunt contusion of the abdominal wall (direct mechanism) - penetrating trauma (shooting wounds, stabbing wounds)

Most frequent endogenous causes of falls in senior age are: - medication (mis)use - orthostatic syndrome - vertebrogenic algic syndrome - associated with the bathroom (up to 50 % of all falls in seniors)

Most frequent endogenous causes of falls in senior age are - orthostatic syndrome - vertebrogenic algic syndrome

Most frequent first medical treatment of injuries is in: - injuries "other" (at home, etc.) - work place and school injuries - traffic injuries - sport injuries

Most frequent first medical treatment of injuries is in: - injuries "other" (at home, etc.) - sport injuries

Most frequently affected organs by blunt abdominal trauma are: - spleen - liver - mesentery of small intestine - retroperitoneum

Most frequently affected organs by blunt abdominal trauma are - spleen - liver

Most frequently are performed: - hip arthroplasties - knee arthroplasty - shoulder arthroplasty - ankle arthroplasty

Most frequently are performed: - hip arthroplasties+ - knee arthroplasty+

Motor innervation of the abdominal muscles: - comes from the sacral plexus - has its sources in the intercostal nerves and partially in the lumbar plexus - does not come from the phrenic nerve - all abdominal muscles have their innervation from the dorsal rami of L1 - L5

Motor innervation of the abdominal muscles: - has its sources in the intercostal nerves and partially in the lumbar plexus - does not come from the phrenic nerve

Muscle and musculocutaneous flaps: have random pattern flaps are flaps on the trunk are special types of axial pattern flaps depending on the type of blood supply can be divided into 5 groups

Muscle and musculocutaneous flaps: are special types of axial pattern flaps+ depending on the type of blood supply can be divided into 5 groups+

Muscle and musculocutaneous flaps: have worse vascular supply than skin flaps preferably are used for chronic infected defects are not resistant to infection are usually rotated around the site of entrance of vascular pedicle

Muscle and musculocutaneous flaps: preferably are used for chronic infected defects+ are usually rotated around the site of entrance of vascular pedicle+

Muscle bellies of finger flexors lies in: - the palm - the forearm on the volar side - the forearm on the dorsal side - proximally from the wrist

Muscle bellies of finger flexors lies in: - the forearm on the volar side+ - proximally from the wrist+

Musculofibular canal (Canalis musculofibularis): - is bordered by the fibula laterally - contains the n. fibularis - contains the a. fibularis - is bordered by the m. flexor hallucis longus dorsally

Musculofibular canal (Canalis musculofibularis): - is bordered by the fibula laterally - contains the a. fibularis

Musculus coracobrachialis: - is innervated by radial nerve - causes flexion of the forearm - belongs to anterior part of muscle group of the arm - is a forearm muscle

Musculus coracobrachialis: - causes flexion of the forearm+ - belongs to anterior part of muscle group of the arm+

N. medianus innervates: - thenar - antithenar - the majority of the thumb, 2nd and 3rd digit - dorsum of the hand

N. medianus innervates: - thenar+ - the majority of the thumb, 2nd and 3rd digit+

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with increase serum alkaline phosphatase? - Marfan syndrome - bone metastases - rickets - osteoporosis

NOT associated with increase serum alkaline phosphatase? - Marfan syndrome - osteoporosis (Rickets -> change in shape of bone -> slightly increased alkaline phosphatase)

Which of the following properties are NOT associated with pannus formation? - proliferation of synovial cells - neovascularization - caseous necrosis - histiocytic infiltrates

NOT associated with pannus formation? - caseous necrosis - histiocytic infiltrates

Which of the following properties are NOT associated with pannus formation? - cartilage erosion - granulomatous inflammation - liquefactive necrosis - lymphocytic infiltrates

NOT associated with pannus formation? - granulomatous inflammation - liquefactive necrosis

Which of the following symptoms are NOT characteristic for Paget's disease? - osteomyelitis - the possibility of transformation into osteosarcoma - bone deformities - increased levels of calcitonin

NOT characteristic for Paget's disease - osteomyelitis - increased levels of calcitonin

Which of the following morphological features are NOT characteristic of osteoarthritis? - erosion of articular cartilage - pannus formation - subchondral cyst formation - giant cell granuloma formation

NOT characteristic of osteoarthritis? - pannus formation - giant cell granuloma formation

Which of the following is/are NOT true of osteopenia? - it is associated with a lack of vitamin D - it is associated with malabsorption - it is associated with achondroplasia - it is associated with osteomyelitis

NOT true of osteopenia - it is associated with achondroplasia - it is associated with osteomyelitis

Which of the following is/are NOT true of tuberculous osteomyelitis? - it is associated with destruction of bones by TB - it is associated with the direct spread to the bone through pleural cavity - it is associated with fibrinoid necrosis of vessel walls - its predilection for the vertebrae

NOT true of tuberculous osteomyelitis? - it is associated with the direct spread to the bone through pleural cavity - it is associated with fibrinoid necrosis of vessel walls

Naloxone: - is a partial agonist of opioid receptors - has short-lasting effects (about 60 minutes) - naloxone can be used for deep central depressor effect reduction in ehanol intoxication - can be used as a specific antidote in paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose

Nalaxone - has short-lasting effects (about 60 minutes) - naloxone can be used for deep central depressor effect reduction in ehanol intoxication

Necessary component of nonsurgical treatment of head injury: - is monitoring of intracranial tension just one time - is continual monitoring of intracranial pressure - is availability of CT imaging - is monitoring of consciousness and neurological status

Necessary component of nonsurgical treatment of head injury: - is continual monitoring of intracranial pressure - is availability of CT imaging

Necessary in deceleration aortic trauma is: - hemostasis - assurance of life functions - transport to the hospital - prevention of infected complications

Necessary in deceleration aortic trauma is: - assurance of life functions - transport to the hospital

Necessary in penetrating thoracal aorta and its branches is: - clinical investigation - CT angiography - X-ray scan - urgent surgery

Necessary in penetrating thoracal aorta and its branches is: - clinical investigation - urgent surgery

Necrosis of the femoral head bone occurs most often after: - intertrochanteric fractures - dislocation of the hip - fractures of the neck - subtrochanteric fractures

Necrosis of the femoral head bone occurs most often after: - dislocation of the hip+ - fractures of the neck+

Neer´s X-ray projections: - complex X-ray view of the shoulder joint - they cannot be made in case of allergy to contrast medium - comprise scapular, axillary and anteroposterior projections - they are a combination of axillary and thoracic projections

Neer´s X-ray projections: - complex X-ray view of the shoulder joint+ - comprise scapular, axillary and anteroposterior projections+

Next steps after 3rd unsuccesfull attempt of intubation with standard laryngoscope in situatetion "cannot intubate, cannot ventilate" are: - use of videolaryngoscope - use of bronchoscopeu - use of laryngeal mask airway - coniotomy

Next steps after 3rd unsuccesfull attempt of intubation with standard laryngoscope in situatetion "cannot intubate, cannot ventilate" are: - use of laryngeal mask airway - coniotomy

Non-depolarising muscle relaxants: - decrease tone of striated muscles - releases bronchospasm - does not induce amnesia - induce analgesia

Non-depolarising muscle relaxants: - decrease tone of striated muscles - does not induce amnesia

Nonsurgical treatment in head injury: - route against development of cerebral edema - route against development of hyperosmolarity - ensure only vital function - route against development of intracranial hypertension

Nonsurgical treatment in head injury: - route against development of cerebral edema - route against development of intracranial hypertension

Nonunion (pseudoarthrosis) is characterized by: - occurring as typical complication only after conservative treatment - occurrence in both conservative and surgical treatment, classify non-union of bone after 6 months treatment of fracture - distinguish nonunion into hypervascular (vital) and avascular (avital) type (mechanical or biological problem) - standard treatment algorithm is: blockade of sympathetic, pharmacotherapy (Protazin, Plegomazin, Secatoxin, calcitonin, calcium), followed by hydrotherapy

Nonunion (pseudoarthrosis) is characterized by: - occurrence in both conservative and surgical treatment, classify non-union of bone after 6 months treatment of fracture+ - distinguish nonunion into hypervascular (vital) and avascular (avital) type (mechanical or biological problem)+

Nonunion of the humerus: - no sign of healing of the fracture within six months - cannot be seen when using nailing - re-osteosynthesis and bone grafting are the solution - is total distal humerus replacement

Nonunion of the humerus: - no sign of healing of the fracture within six months+ - re-osteosynthesis and bone grafting are the solution+

Normal bone in adults: - contains about 90% of mineral salts - contains about 30% of organic matter - is able to remodel after a displaced fracture - is not able to remodel after displaced fracture

Normal bone in adults: - contains about 30% of organic matter - is not able to remodel after displaced fracture 60-70 % is minerals (inorganic)

Normal saline (physiological saline): - is 0.9% NaCl solution - can cause alkalosis - can cause acidosis - is 5% NaCl solution

Normal saline (physiological saline): - is 0.9% NaCl solution - can cause acidosis

Not considered an injury: - drowning - wasp sting - frostbite - infective tick bite

Not considered an injury: - wasp sting - infective tick bite

Obturator canal (Canalis obturatorius) contains: - n. obturatorius - vasa obturatoria - r. obturatorius a. pudendae internae - r. obturatorius n. ilioinguinalis

Obturator canal (Canalis obturatorius) contains: - n. obturatorius - vasa obturatoria

Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery at the level of T4 would cause which of the following symptoms: - paraparesis - hemiparesis - quadriparesis - bilateral paresis in the legs

Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery at the level of T4 would cause which of the following symptoms: - paraparesis - bilateral paresis in the legs (the only 2 that fits)

Olecranon bursitis („student's elbow" or „baker's elbow"): - cannot be caused by repeated injury of olecranon bursa - typical clinical signs are manifested by swelling, rubor, fluctuations around the olecranon - it can also occur iatrogenically by a puncture - olecranon bursitis is indicated only for conservative treatment

Olecranon bursitis („student's elbow" or „baker's elbow"): - typical clinical signs are manifested by swelling, rubor, fluctuations around the olecranon+ - it can also occur iatrogenically by a puncture+

Which of the following complications may present with Ollier disease? - bone deformity - increased risk of chondrosarcoma occurrence - increased risk of Paget's disease - congenital malformations involving the skeleton

Ollier disease? - bone deformity - increased risk of chondrosarcoma occurrence

Omental bursa (lesser sac): - is located in the supra-mesocolic part of the abdominal cavity - is located secondary retroperitoneally - its posterior wall represents the transversal fascia - is developmental derivative of both the ventral and dorsal mesentery

Omental bursa (lesser sac): - is located in the supra-mesocolic part of the abdominal cavity - is developmental derivative of both the ventral and dorsal mesentery

Omotricipital foramen (Foramen omotricipitale): - is bordered by the humerus medially - is bordered by the m. teres minor proximally - contains the vasa circumflexa scapulae - contains the n. infrascapularis

Omotricipital foramen (Foramen omotricipitale): - is bordered by the m. teres minor proximally - contains the vasa circumflexa scapulae

On amputation injuries associated with the upper limb in children: - is necessary always assess the possibility of replantation - apply the same criteria as in adults - change the majority of relative indications for replantation to absolute - is contraindicated the replantation of single finger

On amputation injuries associated with the upper limb in children: - is necessary always assess the possibility of replantation+ - change the majority of relative indications for replantation to absolute+

On non-contrast CT scan we perceive especially: - hyperdense of blood regions - enlarged ventricles - enlarged subarachnoidal space - shift of midline structures (e.g. 3rd ventricle)

On non-contrast CT scan we perceive especially: - hyperdense of blood regions - shift of midline structures (e.g. 3rd ventricle)

On the scene of the burn accident, the first aid of burn wounds includes: - elimination of the cause of thermal damage and ensure the patient´s vital functions - cooling burned surfaces, especially the face, neck, and hands; prevent hypothermia; and apply sterile dressing over wounds - cooling all affected areas, especially in children, regardless of the burn extent - performing releasing incisions

On the scene of the burn accident, the first aid of burn wounds includes: - elimination of the cause of thermal damage and ensure the patient´s vital functions+ - cooling burned surfaces, especially the face, neck, and hands; prevent hypothermia; and apply sterile dressing over wounds+

One action potential in a motor neuron of the motor unit evokes a number of action potentials in the appropriate skeletal muscle fibers. The effect is caused by: - low and slow degradation of ACh - decreased number of ACh receptors - depletion of ACh esterase - decreased number of Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic terminal

One action potential in a motor neuron of the motor unit evokes a number of action potentials in the appropriate skeletal muscle fibers. The effect is caused by: - low and slow degradation of ACh - depletion of ACh esterase (the only things making sense)

One-large-dose of glucocorticoid (e.g. methylprednisolone infusion) is used: - in polytrauma - in prevention of septic and toxic shock development - in osteoporosis treatment - in peptic ulcer treatment

One-large-dose of glucocorticoid (e.g. methylprednisolone infusion) is used: - in polytrauma - in prevention of septic and toxic shock development

Open abdominal injury in children is/are treated: - nonoperative only - by surgery on principle - surgery is indicated only in case of eventration of intestine - even small penetrating injury requires surgical revision

Open abdominal injury in children is/are treated: - by surgery on principle+ - even small penetrating injury requires surgical revision+

Open fractures with soft tissue defects: - indication for acute surgery - the administration of antibiotics will wait at least until the first microbiological cultivation results to prevent the rising of microbial resistance - there is high risk of infection (almost Gram positive) - immediately after transferring to hospital, to ambulance is necessary to remove temporary wound cover, perform basic debridement, to prevent the spread of pathological microorganisms (bacteria, viruses), this procedure is done before entering operating theatre

Open fractures with soft tissue defects: - indication for acute surgery+ - there is high risk of infection (almost Gram positive)+

Open pelvic ring injuries are associated mainly with: - mortality of up to 30% - mortality of up to 50% - with significant blood loss - with sexual dysfunction

Open pelvic ring injuries are associated mainly with: - mortality of up to 50%+ - with significant blood loss+

Orotracheal intubation is indicated in patients with craniocerebral injuries: - Glasgow Coma Scale under 13 - Glasgow Coma Scale under 8 - in case of hypoxia to prevent aspiration - is performed depending on the examination findings

Orotracheal intubation is indicated in patients with craniocerebral injuries: - Glasgow Coma Scale under 8 - in case of hypoxia to prevent aspiration

Osteoarthritis can be characterized as: - degenerative joint disease - disease of articular cartilage in synovial joints - inflammatory arthropathy - one of the autoimmune disease of joints

Osteoarthritis can be characterized as: - degenerative joint disease+ - disease of articular cartilage in synovial joints+

Osteoclasts: - stimulate calcification of bone - stimulate production of osteoid - stimulate resorption of bone - proliferate in hyperparathyroidism

Osteoclasts: - stimulate resorption of bone - proliferate in hyperparathyroidism

Osteosynthesis of acetabular fractures is made: - by using various types of plates - by using lags crews - by using absorbable material - only by using of transfixation with Kirschner´s wires

Osteosynthesis of acetabular fractures is made: - by using various types of plates+ - by using lags crews+ ..alltid skruer og plater, wire er for mye

Osteosynthesis of the proximal humerus fractures: - is performed in about 20 % of these fractures - is indicated only for biologically young people - is not indicated for open fractures - mostly using LCP implants

Osteosynthesis of the proximal humerus fractures: - is performed in about 20 % of these fractures+ - mostly using LCP implants+

Pain (dolor) as one of the inflammatory signs: - is induced by the pressure of local edema on free nerve endings - occurs as an effect of bradykinin production - is a compensatory mechanism activated by injury - is a secondary mechanism activated by injury

Pain (dolor) as one of the inflammatory signs: - is induced by the pressure of local edema on free nerve endings - occurs as an effect of bradykinin production Bradykinin is an inflammatory mediator. It is a peptide that causes blood vessels to dilate (enlarge)

Pancreas trauma: - often is single - elevated amylase and lipase have important prognostic value - post-traumatic pancreatic fistula is common - could manifests as melena

Pancreas trauma: - elevated amylase and lipase have important prognostic value - post-traumatic pancreatic fistula is common

Pancreatic injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination - laboratory examination - X ray examination - clinical examination only

Pancreatic injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination+ - laboratory examination+

Paracetamol (acetaminophen): - cannot be overdosed, it is very safe, broadly used and freely sold drug - if needed, it is used repeatedly in at a minimum of 4 h intervals between doses, maximum 4 g daily (eight 500 mg tablets) - if needed, it is used repeatedly in at a minimum of 8 h intervals between doses, maximum 10 g daily (twenty 500 mg tablets) - in children under 12 years of age the maximum daily dose is 2.6 g (60 mg/kg)

Paracetamol - if needed, it is used repeatedly in at a minimum of 4 h intervals between doses, maximum 4 g daily (eight 500 mg tablets) - in children under 12 years of age the maximum daily dose is 2.6 g (60 mg/kg)

Paracetamol (acetaminophen) intoxication: - is practically out of the question, it is very safe and freely sold drug - atropine can be used as a specific antidote - can cause serious liver damage - acetylcysteine can be used as a specific antidote

Paracetamol (acetaminophen) intoxication: - can cause serious liver damage - acetylcysteine can be used as a specific antidote

Paralysis of the radial nerve: - there is weakening of the extensors of the forearm and hand - always irreversible - frequent in fractures of humerus shaft - it is only iatrogenic injury

Paralysis of the radial nerve: - there is weakening of the extensors of the forearm and hand+ - frequent in fractures of humerus shaft+

Parameter of intracranial homeostasis - CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure) - which one is correct? - Cerebral perfusion pressure above 40 torr (in children) - CPP above 60 torr - CPP above 50 torr - CPP above 70 torr

Parameter of intracranial homeostasis - CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure) - which one is correct? - Cerebral perfusion pressure above 40 torr (in children) - CPP above 60 torr

Parenchymal organ injury (liver, kidney) looks like: - defect in (reduced) appropriate radiopharmaceutical accumulation - increased radiopharmaceutical accumulation - photopenic area in the organ - these injuries are unable to be detected by scintigraphy

Parenchymal organ injury (liver, kidney) looks like: - defect in (reduced) appropriate radiopharmaceutical accumulation - photopenic area in the organ (imagine there is so high flow normally) these organs are photogenic

Passive injury prevention strategies mean: - law or policy that must be followed - use of seat belts, helmets - educational intervention programs - personal interaction, use of printed materials, media

Passive injury prevention strategies mean: - law or policy that must be followed - use of seat belts, helmets

Pathological changes in bones can be presented as: - decreased accumulation of radiopharmaceutical - increased accumulation of radiopharmaceutical - diffusely increased accumulation around the bone - there is no change in the level of accumulation comparing to normal bone

Pathological changes in bones can be presented as: - decreased accumulation of radiopharmaceutical - increased accumulation of radiopharmaceutical

Pathophysiology of compartment syndrome: - is an increase of pressure in the compartment (bleeding, inflammation, burns) - reduction in the compartment's volume (tight bandage, plaster incorrect fixation, scarring of the skin) - is caused by a failure of the arterial supply and venous collapse - increased pressure must last at least 48 hours to cause damage

Pathophysiology of compartment syndrome: - is an increase of pressure in the compartment (bleeding, inflammation, burns)+ - reduction in the compartment's volume (tight bandage, plaster incorrect fixation, scarring of the skin)+

Patient preparation for dynamic kidney scintigraphy includes: - nothing per os for 24 hours - reduced drinking 2 hours before examination - emptying of urinary bladder - good hydration (at least half liter of beverage)

Patient preparation for dynamic kidney scintigraphy includes: - emptying of urinary bladder - good hydration (at least half liter of beverage)

Patient with 2 days fever (38 Celsius), right knee pain with swelling: - indications for a joint puncture and send a sample for histological examination - indications for joint puncture and send a sample for microbiological and biochemical tests - indications for essential laboratory screening, including CRP, WBC, procalcitonin - primary indications for ultrasound examination to exclude a septic fluid inside the joint

Patient with 2 days fever (38 Celsius), right knee pain with swelling: - indications for joint puncture and send a sample for microbiological and biochemical tests+ - indications for essential laboratory screening, including CRP, WBC, procalcitonin+

Penetrating injuries: - are open fractures only - dura mater is always ruptured - may be the case of gunshot wounds - penetrating injury is not indicated for surgical treatment

Penetrating injuries: - dura mater is always ruptured - may be the case of gunshot wounds

Penetrating thoracal trauma could be complicated by: - sepsis - heart tamponade - exsanguination - acute cardiac failure

Penetrating thoracal trauma could be complicated by: - heart tamponade - exsanguination (blood loss)

Perforating trauma of the gall bladder must be treated by: - cholecystostomy - drainage of the biliary tract - cholecystectomy - drainage of sub-hepatic region

Perforating trauma of the gall bladder must be treated by: - cholecystectomy - drainage of sub-hepatic region

Perforation of the intrathoracic esophagus causing: - mediastinitis - pneumothorax - hemothorax - mediastinal emphysema

Perforation of the intrathoracic esophagus causing - mediastinitis - mediastinal emphysema

Perfusion pressure of the brain is: - difference in mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure - sum of mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure - normally about 70 -75 mm Hg (Torr), the minimum is 50 mm Hg (torr) - physiological value is about 100 mm Hg (torr)

Perfusion pressure of the brain is: - difference in mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure - normally about 70 -75 mm Hg (Torr), the minimum is 50 mm Hg (torr)

Periarticular ossifications around the endoprosthesis: - appear in acute infections - appear in creeping infections - restrict joint movement - precede a periprosthetic fracture

Periarticular ossifications around the endoprosthesis: - appear in creeping infections - restrict joint movement

Perilunar dislocation: - is the dislocation of lunate - is the dislocation of the carpus except lunate - is associated with injury of ligaments - is the dislocation of the distal radius

Perilunar dislocation: - is the dislocation of the carpus except lunate+ - is associated with injury of ligaments+

Physical examination - palpation of chest wall injury may reveal: - fractures of the ribs or clavicle - lung contusion - subcutaneous emphysema - hemothorax

Physical examination - palpation of chest wall injury may reveal: - fractures of the ribs or clavicle - subcutaneous emphysema

Physiologically stabilizes the pelvic ring: - symphysis - m. iliopsoas - pelvic floor - sacroiliac ligaments

Physiologically stabilizes the pelvic ring: - symphysis+ - sacroiliac ligaments+

Physiotherapy after an injury of hand tendons is: - possible after the complete healing of tendons which means at least after 5-6 weeks - only passive, exercise without tendon load - the combination of passive, semi active and active physiotherapy - absolutely necessary for the renewal of hand function

Physiotherapy after an injury of hand tendons is: - the combination of passive, semi active and active physiotherapy+ - absolutely necessary for the renewal of hand function+

Pilon fractures of the tibia: - it is a compression fracture of the distal tibia extending into the ankle joint - the balance sheet is a necessity preoperative CT scans to verify the amount and location of fragments - it is a low-energy trauma - account for 20% of all fractures of the lower extremity

Pilon fractures of the tibia: - it is a compression fracture of the distal tibia extending into the ankle joint+ - the balance sheet is a necessity preoperative CT scans to verify the amount and location of fragments+

Rachitis, unlike osteoporosis, is characterized by: - cup-like blurring of the metaphyses - increased number of fractures - acceleration of bone aging - overproduction of osteoid

Rachitis, unlike osteoporosis, is characterized by: - cup-like blurring of the metaphyses - overproduction of osteoid RICKETS

Pleura: - the pleural cupula proceeds into the scaleno-vertebral triangle - the visceral pleura extends into the interlobar fissures - the parietal pleura does not have sensory innervation - the parietal pleura joins with the visceral pleura around the opening of the pulmonary artery

Pleura - the pleural cupula proceeds into the scaleno-vertebral triangle - the visceral pleura extends into the interlobar fissures

Pneumothorax is divided into: - traumatic and spontaneous - closed, opened, caused by hypotension - complete + partial - bilious and meconious

Pneumothorax is divided into: - traumatic and spontaneous - complete + partial

Popliteal fossa (Fossa poplitea): - is bordered by the m. biceps femoris distally - contains the v. popliteal - contains terminal branch of the n. femoralis - its floor makes the m. popliteus

Popliteal fossa (Fossa poplitea): - contains the v. popliteal - its floor makes the m. popliteus

Portal vein: - originates as the junction of the splenic and superior mesenteric vein - is located in the hepatic porta ventrally to the cystic duct - does not receive the veins from the head of pancreas - drains also the blood from the greater omentum

Portal vein: - originates as the junction of the splenic and superior mesenteric vein - drains also the blood from the greater omentum

Position of the acetabulum: - directs externally, down and forward - inclination of the acetabulum is approximately 45 degrees - acetabular cup and frontal plane form the right angle in childhood - anteversion of the acetabulum cup is more than 70 degrees

Position of the acetabulum: - directs externally, down and forward+ - inclination of the acetabulum is approximately 45 degrees+

Post-traumatic arthrosis of the ankle: - we never see - we solve by ankle arthrodesis or by total arthroplasty - is an indication for amputation of the lower leg - manifested by pain, limitation of joint movement in the TC joint with the development of compensatory mechanisms of other small foot joints, and by swelling and ankle joint disfiguration

Post-traumatic arthrosis of the ankle: - we solve by ankle arthrodesis or by total arthroplasty+ - manifested by pain, limitation of joint movement in the TC joint with the development of compensatory mechanisms of other small foot joints, and by swelling and ankle joint disfiguration+

Postdural puncture headache can be treated by: - paracetamol - blood patch - fluid restriction - benzodiazepines

Postdural puncture headache can be treated by - paracetamol - blood patch

Posterior column of the acetabulum: - is easily evaluated by the iliac projection - is more massive than anterior column - its X-ray view is not important for diagnosis of acetabular fractures - treatment of its fracture is only conservative

Posterior column of the acetabulum: - is easily evaluated by the iliac projection+ - is more massive than anterior column+

Posttraumatic epilepsy: - occurs immediately after injury - manifested at intervals of several weeks or even years - is always due to wrong treatment of cranial trauma - is for example after severe contusions

Posttraumatic epilepsy: - manifested at intervals of several weeks or even years - is for example after severe contusions

Posttraumatic splenic pseudocyst could be diagnosed using: - gastroscopy - ultrasonography - computed tomography - scintigraphy

Posttraumatic splenic pseudocyst could be diagnosed using: - ultrasonography - computed tomography

Pre-operative starving: - oral intake of clear fluids is possible up to 2 hours before surgery - clear fluids are water, tea, black coffee, juices without pulp - oral intake of solid food must be stopped at least 4 hours before - drugs increasing pH of gastric content are obligatory before induction to general anaesthesia

Pre-operative starving: - oral intake of clear fluids is possible up to 2 hours before surgery - clear fluids are water, tea, black coffee, juices without pulp

Presternal region: - is bordered by the margins of sternum - extends up to the osseous ends of the ribs - it is possible to provide the sternal puncture in this region - is anteriorly covered only by the periosteum

Presternal region: - is bordered by the margins of sternum - it is possible to provide the sternal puncture in this region

Prevention of venous thromboembolism is performed: - of all hospitalized patients in bed - patients with plaster fixation of the lower limbs - only of patients with a history of PE or DVT - only of patients with diabetes

Prevention of venous thromboembolism is performed: - of all hospitalized patients in bed+ - patients with plaster fixation of the lower limbs+

Primary measures for displaced unstable pelvic ring injury are: - provision of basic life support - prevention of thromboembolic disease - prevention of infectious complications - stabilization of the pelvic ring

Primary measures for displaced unstable pelvic ring injury are: - provision of basic life support+ - stabilization of the pelvic ring+

Probability of difficult intubation is: - Mallampati score 1 - small mouth - limited neck movement - Mallampati score 2

Probability of difficult intubation is - small mouth - limited neck movement

Prolapse of intervertebral disc is best diagnosed by: - CT - MRI - Perimyelo CT - Sandberg projections

Prolapse of intervertebral disc is best diagnosed by: - MRI+ - Perimyelo CT+

Prolapse of lumbar intervertebral disc: - commonly manifests intermittent claudication - manifests with radicular symptom - can lead to the development of myelopathy - can also cause cauda equina syndrome

Prolapse of lumbar intervertebral disc: - manifests with radicular symptom+ - "radiated" along the dermatome - can also cause cauda equina syndrome+

Pronatory canal (Canalis pronatorius): - runs between the heads of m. supinator - contains the n. medianus - contains the a. brachialis - runs between heads of the m. flexor digitorum spf.

Pronatory canal (Canalis pronatorius): - contains the n. medianus

Proximal femoral fractures in children: - are frequent - displaced fractures require surgical treatment - put patients at risk of avascular necrosis of femoral capital epiphysis - only conservative treatment is indicated

Proximal femoral fractures in children: - displaced fractures require surgical treatment+ - put patients at risk of avascular necrosis of femoral capital epiphysis+

Radial and ulnar arteries: - send direct branches to every single finger - end at the wrist area - create arcus palmaris superficialis - create arcus palmaris profundus

Radial and ulnar arteries: - create arcus palmaris superficialis+ - create arcus palmaris profundus+

Radial head fracture: - is an intra-articular fracture - is always treated conservatively - is usually associated with instability of the elbow - occurs only in children

Radial head fracture: - is an intra-articular fracture+ - is usually associated with instability of the elbow+

Radiological signs of vertebral osteoporosis are: - blurring of end plates of vertebral bodies - wedge-like compression of vertebral bodies - excavation of end plates of vertebral bodies - localised osteolysis of vertebral bodies

Radiological signs of vertebral osteoporosis are: - wedge-like compression of vertebral bodies - excavation of end plates of vertebral bodies

Reasons of post-operative hypoxaemia are: - alveolar hypoventilation, e.g. because of residual effect of general anaesthetics, muscle relaxants, opioids etc. - obesity - increased pulmonary compliance after anaesthesia - use of desflurane during anaesthesia

Reasons of post-operative hypoxaemia are - alveolar hypoventilation, e.g. because of residual effect of general anaesthetics, muscle relaxants, opioids etc. - obesity

Reasons of postponing of elective surgery: - upper airway infection - unknown previous medication - anti-parkinsonic therapy that was not stopped at least 5 days before surgery - beta-blocker therapy that was not stopped at least 5 days before surgery

Reasons of postponing of elective surgery: - upper airway infection - unknown previous medication

Recommended ways of adrenaline administration during resuscitation of adults: - intravenous - intratracheal - intraosseal - intracardial

Recommended ways of adrenaline administration during resuscitation of adults: - intravenous - intraosseal

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (Sudeck) in the early stage looks like: - diffusely increased blood flow including blood pool in the extremities - decreased blood flow in the extremities - increased bone accumulation in more sites of extremity, namely near the joints - there are no changes in bone scan

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (Sudeck) in the early stage looks like: - diffusely increased blood flow including blood pool in the extremities - increased bone accumulation in more sites of extremity, namely near the joints

Which of the following is/are true of Reiter's syndrome? - it is an ankylosing spondylitis - it is an osteoarthritis localized on vertebrae - it is associated with urethritis - it is a seronegative arthritis

Reiter's syndrome - it is associated with urethritis - it is a seronegative arthritis

Releasing incisions are: - made intradermally - indicated in the case of deep compressive necrosis, especially in the case of circular burns of the limbs, neck or trunk - linear or made using a zigzag method through skin and subcutaneous tissue - not indicated in the case of electric injury

Releasing incisions are: - indicated in the case of deep compressive necrosis, especially in the case of circular burns of the limbs, neck or trunk - linear or made using a zigzag method through skin and subcutaneous tissue

Renal injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination - CT scan - laparoscopy - urine test only

Renal injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination+ - CT scan+

Renal injury in children is treated: - nonoperative only - nonoperative in the first choice - by surgery on principle - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only and in children with urine extravasation

Renal injury in children is treated: - nonoperative in the first choice+ - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only and in children with urine extravasation+

Replantation is a surgical procedure in which: - all important functional structures including restoration of blood circulation are reconstructed - all functional units are reconstructed - the continuity of amputated part of the human body is restored including its function - the continuity of amputated part of the human body is restored

Replantation is a surgical procedure in which: - all important functional structures including restoration of blood circulation are reconstructed+ - the continuity of amputated part of the human body is restored including its function+ FUNCTION

Replantation: - belongs to the operations indicated from vital indication - can be considered in specific cases as the operation indicated from vital indication - the lifesaving operations have the priority before replantation - is not considered to be the part of group of operations indicated from vital indication

Replantation: - the lifesaving operations have the priority before replantation+ - is not considered to be the part of group of operations indicated from vital indication+

Revascularization involves: - sufficient restoration of blood supply interrupted by trauma - treatment of subtotal amputation - the restoration of blood supply in subtotal ischemic amputation - vessel anastomosis

Revascularization involves: - sufficient restoration of blood supply interrupted by trauma+ - the restoration of blood supply in subtotal ischemic amputation+

Which of the following is/are associated with rheumatoid arthritis? - symmetrical joint disease - fever - predisposition to sarcomas development - AL amyloidosis

Rheumatoid arthritis? - symmetrical joint disease - fever

Rib prominence - asymmetry of paravertebral zones: - is measured in patient with his back to doctors in forward bend - is due enhanced kyphosis of thoracic spine - as measured in centimeters or degrees - expresses the current developmental defect of the ribs

Rib prominence - asymmetry of paravertebral zones: - is measured in patient with his back to doctors in forward bend+ - as measured in centimeters or degrees+

Risk factors influencing severity of falls: - height of the fall - body and surface features - quality and type of the footwear - higher frequency of falls - higher experience in falling

Risk factors influencing severity of falls: - height of the fall - body and surface features

Skin grafts can be used: to any soft tissue defect to the shallow planer defects to the exposed bone to the defect where a muscle is exposed

Skin grafts can be used: to the shallow planer defects+ to the defect where a muscle is exposed+

Risser sign: - evaluate the rotation of the vertebral bodies - presents fusion of vertebral ossification nuclei on top of the main curve - assesses the gradual ossification of the iliac crest apophysis - expresses the perspective of bone growth

Risser sign: - assesses the gradual ossification of the iliac crest apophysis+ - expresses the perspective of bone growth+ The Risser sign is an indirect measure of skeletal maturity, whereby the ossification stage of the iliac apophysis is used to judge the ossification of the spinal vertebrae

Rivaroxaban: - directly inhibits the catalytic site of factor Xa - inhibits coagulation after antithrombin activation which blocks the factor Xa effect - can be applied orally, its effect is well predictable without necessary effect monitoring and with low risks of drug interactions - its effect can be terminated by protamine sulfate

Rivaroxaban: - directly inhibits the catalytic site of factor Xa - can be applied orally, its effect is well predictable without necessary effect monitoring and with low risks of drug interactions

Rupture of the Achilles tendon: - rupture is most commonly located in the sinewy parts about 3-5 cm above the insertion on the calcaneus - the most common site of injury is musculotendinous transition - there is always a bit of separation from calcaneus bone - usually are treated with revision, suture and plaster fixation or the suture and fixation brace

Rupture of the Achilles tendon: - rupture is most commonly located in the sinewy parts about 3-5 cm above the insertion on the calcaneus+ - usually are treated with revision, suture and plaster fixation or the suture and fixation brace+

SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome): - is always caused by bacterial or fungal infection - often manifests as bradycardia and II. degree AV block - is common after major surgery - can be complicated by failure of one or more organs or organ systems

SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome): - is common after major surgery - can be complicated by failure of one or more organs or organ systems

Scaphoid fracture is clinically manifested by: - palpable pain in the fossa tabatière - painful wrist movement - wrist atypical position - crepitation

Scaphoid fracture is clinically manifested by: - palpable pain in the fossa tabatière+ ...snusgropen - painful wrist movement+

Scaphoid fractures are treated: - with plaster fixation included thumb - with external fixation - with tension band wiring - with Herbert screw osteosynthesis

Scaphoid fractures are treated: - with plaster fixation included thumb+ - with Herbert screw osteosynthesis+

Scapular notch (Incisura scapulae): - is a notch on lateral edge of the scapula - contains the vasa suprascapularis - is bridged by the superior transverse scapular ligament - contains the n. suprascapularis

Scapular notch (Incisura scapulae): - is bridged by the superior transverse scapular ligament - contains the n. suprascapularis

Scheuermann's disease (juvenile or adolescent hyperkyphosis of spine): - occurs more frequently in boys between 12 to 18 years - is characterized by a wedge-shaped deformity of the vertebrae in the lower thoracic spine - is always characterized by the presence of Schmorl nodules - is treated with gradual correction by corset

Scheuermann's disease (juvenile or adolescent hyperkyphosis of spine): - occurs more frequently in boys between 12 to 18 years+ - is characterized by a wedge-shaped deformity of the vertebrae in the lower thoracic spine+

Scoliosis is a disease characterized by: - impaired development of the vertebral bodies - occurrence only during adolescence - deformity of the spine in the frontal plane - major (primary) and minor (secondary) curves

Scoliosis is a disease characterized by: - deformity of the spine in the frontal plane+ - major (primary) and minor (secondary) curves+ The most common types of scoliosis are: - idiopathic scoliosis+ - degenerative scoliosis+

Scoring system of intensive care patients is: - APACHE II score - SOFA score - ISS - AIS

Scoring system of intensive care patients is: - APACHE II score - SOFA score (AIS, ISS - acute patients)

Screws of external fixation for stabilization of the pelvis can be introduced: - into supra-acetabular bone - into the iliac crest - into the upper arm of the pubic bone - trans sacral insertion

Screws of external fixation for stabilization of the pelvis can be introduced: - into supra-acetabular bone+ - into the iliac crest+

Second zone of flexors: - lies in the palm - lies above proximal phalanges of fingers - consists of tendon crossing (chiasma tendineum) - is in the area of middle phalanges of fingers

Second zone of flexors: - lies above proximal phalanges of fingers+ - consists of tendon crossing (chiasma tendineum)+

Secondary (false) splenic cyst: - has own epithelial cover - is mostly of parasitary origin - has not own epithelial cover - is mostly of trauma origin

Secondary (false) splenic cyst: - has not own epithelial cover - is mostly of trauma origin

Secondary injury process: - is activated by infection of the wound - can be decreased by removing of the damaged tissue - can be decreased by cooling of the damaged tissue - is terminated by the use of antibiotics

Secondary injury process: - can be decreased by removing of the damaged tissue - can be decreased by cooling of the damaged tissue

Secondary mechanisms of injury do not include: - electrical current injury - inflammation - hypothermia - enzymatic injury

Secondary mechanisms of injury do not include: - electrical current injury - hypothermia

Select the false claim about an acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: - it is predominantly a disease of childhood - progress of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is not different in different ages and there is no differences in disease progress according to the vascular supply of the bone - in the neonatal period is most commonly affected the proximal humerus - in the early stages of the disease is significantly influenced by the general patient condition, the disease can remind septic arthritis

Select the false claim about an acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: - progress of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is not different in different ages and there is no differences in disease progress according to the vascular supply of the bone+ - in the neonatal period is most commonly affected the proximal humerus+

Skin mesh graft: survive transplantation less well is full thickness skin graft due to mesh increase its surface allow drainage of secretions

Skin mesh graft: due to mesh increase its surface+ allow drainage of secretions+

Select the true statement of the nonunion, pseudoarthrosis: - nonunion can be caused by adverse biomechanical conditions in the fracture - cannot be caused by infection - nonunion is a definite condition in which reparative processes are completed and healing without therapeutic surgery is not possible - prolonged healing time of is known as nonunion

Select the true statement of the nonunion, pseudoarthrosis: - nonunion can be caused by adverse biomechanical conditions in the fracture+ - nonunion is a definite condition in which reparative processes are completed and healing without therapeutic surgery is not possible+

Select the true statement(s) about osteomyelitis: - the disease is classified as either acute or chronic or subacute, depending on the length of time the infection or symptoms persist - acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is mainly in childhood period - clinical symptoms of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis does not arise from full health - fever is not typical clinical symptom of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis

Select the true statement(s) about osteomyelitis: - a transition from acute to chronic phase is not frequent - the most frequent microbial agent is Staphylococcus aureus - during neonatal period OM does not occur - osteomyelitis is an inflammatory disease of the cortical bone and bone marrow

Select the true statement(s) about osteomyelitis: - the most frequent microbial agent is Staphylococcus aureus+ - osteomyelitis is an inflammatory disease of the cortical bone and bone marrow+

Sensitive innervation of the abdominal wall: - comes from the intercostal nerves and from some nerves of the lumbar plexus - comes only from the nerves of the lumbar plexus - parietal peritoneum is on the right side innervated by the vagus n. and on the left by the sympathetic fibres - the Head´s zones project the abdominal organs into the other body regions

Sensitive innervation of the abdominal wall: - comes from the intercostal nerves and from some nerves of the lumbar plexus - the Head´s zones project the abdominal organs into the other body regions

Separation of patients in ICUs: - enables more effective utilization of nursing staff - decreases the risk of transmission of infection - provides more privacy for the patient - is not suitable for the treatment of septic patients

Separation of patients in ICUs: - enables more effective utilization of nursing staff+ - decreases the risk of transmission of infection+

Septic arthritis can often occur: - according to hematogenous infection (oral cavity) - iatrogenically - resulting from the activity of physicians (e.g. joint puncture) - according to aerogenic spread of infection - the most common cause is pleural metastasis, inflammation

Septic arthritis can often occur: - according to hematogenous infection (oral cavity)+ - iatrogenically - resulting from the activity of physicians (e.g. joint puncture)+

Septic loosening of the total hip replacement: - can be caused by infection focus (for example focus in oral cavity) - cannot be caused by hematogenous spreading - typical changes can be demonstrated on X-ray films - septic loosening cannot lead to bony structural changes around prosthesis

Septic loosening of the total hip replacement: - can be caused by infection focus (for example focus in oral cavity)+ - typical changes can be demonstrated on X-ray films+

Sequester is: - part of the necrotic bone without blood supply - part of bone where bacterial population can persist - newly formed bone, resulting in secondary fracture healing - bone fragment with a residual vascular supply

Sequester is: - part of the necrotic bone without blood supply+ - part of bone where bacterial population can persist+

Severe sepsis and septic shock: - is a major cause of death in non-cardiological ICUs - mortality ranges from 10 to 20% - main causes of hypotension are systemic vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability - antibiotic therapy should not be started before cultivation results are obtained

Severe sepsis and septic shock - is a major cause of death in non-cardiological ICUs - main causes of hypotension are systemic vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability

Side effect of nitrous oxide is: - increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting - diffusion to and distension of hollow organs - risk of malignant hyperthermia - bronchospasm

Side effect of nitrous oxide is - increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting - diffusion to and distension of hollow organs

Side effect of suxamethoniium si: - myalgia - hypokalemia - malignant hyperthermia - miosis

Side effect of suxamethoniium si: - myalgia - malignant hyperthermia

Sign of opioid overdose: - miosis - disturbance of consciousness - hypertension - tachycardia

Sign of opioid overdose - miosis - disturbance of consciousness

Sign of opioid overdose: - miosis - respiratory depression - cramps - sweating

Sign of opioid overdose - miosis - respiratory depression

Significant hepatic injury may occur as a result of: - motor-vehicular deceleration - jump to swimming- pool - falls - direct impact

Significant hepatic injury may occur as a result of: - motor-vehicular deceleration - direct impact

Signs and symptoms of toxic reaction to local anaesthesitcs are: - hypotension - bronchospasm - hyperthermia - metal taste in mouth

Signs and symptoms of toxic reaction to local anaesthesitcs are: - hypotension - metal taste in mouth

Single one bone forearm fracture: - doesn´t exist - arises by direct force - may be associated with dislocations of the second bone - is always associated with significant dislocations and shortening

Single one bone forearm fracture: - arises by direct force+ - may be associated with dislocations of the second bone+

Skin graft: consists of epidermis and dermis contains only the dermis contains only the epidermis is completely separated from the native blood supply

Skin graft: consists of epidermis and dermis+ is completely separated from the native blood supply+

Skin grafts are harvested: using special knives only by a scalpel by dermatomes only by dermatomes

Skin grafts are harvested: using special knives+ by dermatomes+ never only

So called postdural puncture headache is: - typical complication of epidural blockade - typical complication of subarachnoid blockade - depend on needle design - depends on level of puncture

So called postdural puncture headache is: - typical complication of subarachnoid blockade - depend on needle design

So called „strong"opioid is: - piritramid - pentazocin - fentanyl - tramadol

So called „strong"opioid is: - piritramid (Piritramide is a synthetic opioid analgesic (narcotic painkiller) - fentanyl (Fentanyl is a powerful synthetic opioid analgesic that is similar to morphine but is 50 to 100 times more potent)

Source of bleeding in epidural hematoma can be: - the middle meningeal artery - the final branch of internal carotis artery - the final branch of external carotis artery - bridging vessel

Source of bleeding in epidural hematoma can be: - the middle meningeal artery - the final branch of external carotis artery

Spatial relations and the body image will be damaged in a patient that has a lesion in: - the dorsal medullar funiculi - the right premotor cortex - the right cerebellar hemisphere - the right parietal cortex

Spatial relations and the body image will be damaged in a patient that has a lesion in: - the dorsal medullar funiculi - the right parietal cortex

Spinal cord fractures can be diagnosed by: - MRI - three phase bone scan - planar scintigraphy with Tc-99m HMPAO - ultrasonography

Spinal cord fractures can be diagnosed by: - MRI - three phase bone scan HMPAO - brain

Spinoglenoidal notch (Incisura spinoglenoidalis): - is bordered by the lig. transversum scapulae sup. - contains the n. suprascapularis - contains the vasa infraglenoidalia - contains the vasa suprascapularia

Spinoglenoidal notch (Incisura spinoglenoidalis): - contains the n. suprascapularis - contains the vasa suprascapularia

Spleen: - is located ventrally to the left colic flexure - its long axis is parallel to the 10th rib - its whole surface is covered by the visceral peritoneum - is attached to the diaphragm by the splenocolic ligament

Spleen: - its long axis is parallel to the 10th rib - its whole surface is covered by the visceral peritoneum

Splenic injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination - CT scan - X ray examination - clinical examination only

Splenic injury in children is diagnosed by: - USG examination+ - CT scan+

Splenic injury in children is treated: - nonoperative only - nonoperative in the first choice - by surgery on principle - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only

Splenic injury in children is treated: - nonoperative in the first choice+ - surgery is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients only+

Splenic injury manifests clinically as: - left lower abdominal quadrant pains - radiation pain to the left shoulder - ileosus status - circulatory instability

Splenic injury manifests clinically as - radiation pain to the left shoulder - circulatory instability

Splenic injury may manifest clinically: - through irritation of the peritoneum from intraperitoneal hemorrhage - through respiratory failure - in signs and symptoms caused by acute blood loss - pain in the right shoulder

Splenic injury may manifest clinically: - through irritation of the peritoneum from intraperitoneal hemorrhage - in signs and symptoms caused by acute blood loss

Spondylolisthesis is diagnosed by: - discography - oblique radiographs in 45 degrees - CT - MRI

Spondylolisthesis is diagnosed by: - oblique radiographs in 45 degrees+ - CT+

Spondylolisthesis: - occurs most frequently in the lower lumbar spine - occurs in particular on the basis of the mechanism of accident - is the shift of the upper vertebrae dorsally to the next lower vertebra - takes place at the level of the intervertebral disc

Spondylolisthesis: - occurs most frequently in the lower lumbar spine+ - takes place at the level of the intervertebral disc+ *forward displacement* of a vertebral bone in relation to the natural curve of the spine, most commonly occurring after a fracture, and most often the fifth lumbar vertebra

Spondylosis (spondylarthritis): - degenerative nature affecting the intervertebral joints - degenerative nature affecting the intervertebral discs - resulting in a narrowing of the spinal canal - leading to instability of the spine

Spondylosis (spondylarthritis): - degenerative nature affecting the intervertebral joints+ - resulting in a narrowing of the spinal canal+

Spontaneous pneumothorax means: - spontaneous thoracic trauma - non traumatic pneumothorax - traumatic pneumothorax - caused by emphysematous bulla

Spontaneous pneumothorax means: - non traumatic pneumothorax - caused by emphysematous bulla

Stab wounds of the lung leads to: - hemothorax - craniotomy - respiratory insufficiency - crush syndrome

Stab wounds of the lung leads to: - hemothorax - respiratory insufficiency

Staphylococcus aureus: - gram negative - gram positive - the most common microorganism, which is responsible for postoperative infections - pathogens attacks only human hosts

Staphylococcus aureus: - gram positive+ - the most common microorganism, which is responsible for postoperative infections+

Static liver scintigraphy can be used for: - liver trauma - rupture, hematoma - injury of bile ducts - suspicion of splenosis - suspicion of diaphragm rupture

Static liver scintigraphy can be used for: - liver trauma - rupture, hematoma - suspicion of splenosis

Stenosis of the spinal canal: - occurs mainly in patients over the age of 60 - commonly found in the cervical and lower lumbar spine - best diagnosed on functional radiographs - in particular clinically manifested in the resting position

Stenosis of the spinal canal: - occurs mainly in patients over the age of 60+ - commonly found in the cervical and lower lumbar spine+

Stent graft could be therapeutically used by: - decelerating aortic trauma - subclavian artery trauma - crural arteries trauma - external carotid trauma

Stent graft could be therapeutically used by: - decelerating aortic trauma - subclavian artery trauma

Sternum trauma arises: - by hyperextension of the spinal column - direct anterior wall thoracic trauma - by thoracic compression - spontaneously

Sternum trauma arises: - direct anterior wall thoracic trauma - by thoracic compression

Sub-capsule or intra-parenchymatous splenic hematoma could develop into: - complete absorption and fibrotization - lung embolization - portal hypertension - posttraumatic pseudocyst

Sub-capsule or intra-parenchymatous splenic hematoma could develop into: - complete absorption and fibrotization - posttraumatic pseudocyst

Subcutaneous emphysema can be associated with: - tracheal injuries - pneumothorax - great vessels injury - lung contusion

Subcutaneous emphysema can be associated with - tracheal injuries - pneumothorax

Subdural hematoma: - is bleeding between dura mater and arachnoid - is bleeding between arachnoid and cortical surface - source of bleeding are often bridging vessel - is never manifested with seizures

Subdural hematoma: - is bleeding between dura mater and arachnoid - source of bleeding are often bridging vessel

Subdural hematoma: - is less common than an epidural hematoma - is more common than epidural hematoma - is often associated with a contusion - is not associated with other brain injuries

Subdural hematoma: - is more common than epidural hematoma - is often associated with a contusion

Successful recalcification therapy is reflected on radiographs by: - densification of growth areas in children - increase of BMD in adults - decrease of T-score - decrease of bone density

Successful recalcification therapy is reflected on radiographs by: - densification of growth areas in children - increase of BMD in adults only things making sense

Suitable anaesthetic for induction to general anaesthesia in children si: - nitrous oxide - sevoflurane - desflurane - ketamin

Suitable anaesthetic for induction to general anaesthesia in children si: - sevoflurane - ketamin

Suitable combination for acute postoperative pain therapy is: - paracetamol + ibuprofen - paracetamol + tramadol - morphine + tramadol - ibuprofen + diclofenac

Suitable combination for acute postoperative pain therapy is: - paracetamol + ibuprofen - paracetamol + tramadol

Superficial flexor: - controls the last phalanx of the finger - bends the middle phalanx of the finger - inserts itself on the basis of the middle phalanx - controls the movement only at the proximal joint

Superficial flexor: - bends the middle phalanx of the finger+ - inserts itself on the basis of the middle phalanx+ middle middle

Superior mediastinum: - projects behind the manubrium sterni - contains remnants of thymus and large veins and arteries - exceeds over the 1st rib into the pleural cupula - on the right side contains the pulmonary ligament

Superior mediastinum: - projects behind the manubrium sterni - contains remnants of thymus and large veins and arteries

Supinatory canal (Canalis supinatorius): - runs between portions of the m. supinator - contains the n. radialis and its branches - contains the a. brachialis and its branches - runs between portions of the m. flexor digitorum prof.

Supinatory canal (Canalis supinatorius): - runs between portions of the m. supinator - contains the n. radialis and its branches

Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children: - in case of associated injury of peripheral nerves the operative revision is indicated in all events - associated injury of peripheral nerves is almost in all cases the axonotmesis - associated injury of peripheral nerve is treated nonoperatively almost in all cases - concomitant peripheral nerve injury is characterized by disruption of the nerve

Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children: - associated injury of peripheral nerves is almost in all cases the axonotmesis+ (Axonotmesis is a disruption of nerve cell axon, ) - associated injury of peripheral nerve is treated nonoperatively almost in all cases+

Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children: - axial deformity of the elbow can arise as a sequel of the injury (cubitus varus) - it isn´t a serious injury; the sequels aren´t expected - it put patients in danger of compartment syndrome - open reduction has better results, that the closed one

Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children: - axial deformity of the elbow can arise as a sequel of the injury (cubitus varus)+ - it put patients in danger of compartment syndrome+

Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children: - there is a risk of associated injury of peripheral (nn. radialis, ulnaris and medianus) - there is a risk of progress of compartment syndrome - it is a trivial fracture in children - treatment is based only on a plaster cast

Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children: - there is a risk of associated injury of peripheral (nn. radialis, ulnaris and medianus)+ - there is a risk of progress of compartment syndrome+

Supracondylar fracture of humerus: - it is rare in childhood - it belongs to the most frequent fractures in childhood - in childhood it is treated nonoperatively on principle - displaced fractures in childhood are treated mostly operatively

Supracondylar fracture of humerus: - it belongs to the most frequent fractures in childhood+ - displaced fractures in childhood are treated mostly operatively+

Suprapiriform foramen (Foramen suprapiriforme): - is bordered by the m. piriformis caudally - contains the n. gluteus sup. - contains the vasa circumflexa femoris post. - contains the n. suprapiriformis

Suprapiriform foramen (Foramen suprapiriforme): - is bordered by the m. piriformis caudally - contains the n. gluteus sup.

Surgical ICU: - provides critical care for high-risk surgical patients - belongs to specialized ICUs - belongs to multidisciplinary ICUs - should be part of the operation theatre sector

Surgical ICU: - provides critical care for high-risk surgical patients+ - belongs to specialized ICUs+

Surgical management with lumbopelvic stabilization is indicated for: - bilateral injury of sacrum - multisegmental fractures of the spine - patients with lumbarization of S1 - sacral fractures with neurological lesions

Surgical management with lumbopelvic stabilization is indicated for: - bilateral injury of sacrum+ - sacral fractures with neurological lesions+ lumbopelvis Stabilisation - SACRUM SACRUM

Surgical stabilization of the posterior pelvic complex is indicated: - in lumbopelvic instability - for vertically unstable injuries (type C) - for bilateral horizontally unstable B injury - when disruption of the symphysis pubis is greater than 2.5 cm

Surgical stabilization of the posterior pelvic complex is indicated: - for vertically unstable injuries (type C)+ - for bilateral horizontally unstable B injury+

Surgical treatment of fractures is characterized by: - anatomical reduction and gentle surgical technique - stable fixation and early, active mobilization - direct access to the injured bones through muscles - use the maximum amount of osteosynthesis material to achieve stability

Surgical treatment of fractures is characterized by: - anatomical reduction and gentle surgical technique+ - stable fixation and early, active mobilization+

Surgical treatment of osteoarthritis: - reduce the overload of the joint, correct deformity and restore ROM - alleviate pain and improve joint function - nowadays has been replaced by therapeutic drugs - performed only in elderly patients

Surgical treatment of osteoarthritis: - reduce the overload of the joint, correct deformity and restore ROM+ - alleviate pain and improve joint function+

Surgical treatment of scoliosis: - is carried out at the end of bone growth - is indicated for curves over 40 degrees - consists in spinal fusion in corrected position - is indicated when the patient does not tolerate wearing a corset

Surgical treatment of scoliosis: - is indicated for curves over 40 degrees+ - consists in spinal fusion in corrected position+

Suspicion for blunt thoracic aorta trauma is investigated: - clinically - by NMR - by X-ray scan - by CT angiography

Suspicion for blunt thoracic aorta trauma is investigated: - clinically - by CT angiography

Sympathetic activity in trauma stimulates an increase in: - heart rate - blood glucose level - blood oxygen amount - diuresis

Sympathetic activity in trauma stimulates an increase in: - heart rate - blood glucose level

Sympathomimetics given in acute care are applied: - in one initial dose (bolus) followed by maintenance infusion - in one initial dose (bolus) followed by oral application - in the course of the cardiopulmonary resuscitation intra-bronchially - in the course of the cardiopulmonary resuscitation subcutaneously

Sympathomimetics given in acute care are applied: - in one initial dose (bolus) followed by maintenance infusion - in the course of the cardiopulmonary resuscitation intra-bronchially

Sympathomimetics with dominant α adrenergic effect: - are vasoconstrictors - are convenient in shock therapy - are vasodilators - are predominantly bronchodilators

Sympathomimetics with dominant α adrenergic effect: - are vasoconstrictors - are convenient in shock therapy

Sympathomimetics with dominant β1 adrenergic effect: - are vasoconstrictors - does not increase the heart's metabolic demands - have positive inotropic effect - can increase the risks of heart arrhythmia

Sympathomimetics with dominant β1 adrenergic effect: - have positive inotropic effect - can increase the risks of heart arrhythmia

Sympathomimetics with dominant β2 adrenergic effects: - are vasodilators - are vasoconstrictors - have positive inotropic effect - are bronchodilators

Sympathomimetics with dominant β2 adrenergic effects: - are vasodilators - are bronchodilators

Symptomatic splenic pseudocyst manifests itself as: - blunt pain in the left upper quadrant - radiation in the left shoulder - subileous state - ascites

Symptomatic splenic pseudocyst manifests itself as - blunt pain in the left upper quadrant - radiation in the left shoulder

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS): - develops immediately after the traumatic event - development is induced by an inadequate reaction of endothelium - very often develops secondary to septic shock - the patient is not at risk of death

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS): - development is induced by an inadequate reaction of endothelium - very often develops secondary to septic shock SIRS is a serious condition related to systemic inflammation, organ dysfunction, and organ failure. It is a subset of cytokine storm, in which there is abnormal regulation of various cytokines. SIRS is also closely related to sepsis,

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS): - develops in patients with infectious lesions - occurs easily in dehydrated patients - there are increased levels of interleukins in blood - there are decreased levels of interleukins in blood

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS): - occurs easily in dehydrated patients - there are increased levels of interleukins in blood

Systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid therapy: - is used only in very serious mostly autoimmune diseases with direct life threats - is commonly and broadly used in rheumatoid disease treatment - is mainly used in regular 6-8- hour intervals - the dose-regimen based on the endogenous cortisol secretion is mainly used

Systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid therapy: - is used only in very serious mostly autoimmune diseases with direct life threats - the dose-regimen based on the endogenous cortisol secretion is mainly used

Systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid therapy: - is never used in rheumatoid diseases - only the highest doses are always used in this therapy - starts with rather high doses which are gradually reduced - functional failure of adrenal glands can also be caused using the lowest-dose maintenance therapy

Systemic long-lasting glucocorticoid therapy: - starts with rather high doses which are gradually reduced - functional failure of adrenal glands can also be caused using the lowest-dose maintenance therapy

Systemic long-lasting therapy: - dexamethasone should be terminated by transferring to a short-lasting corticoid - prednisone should be terminated by transferring to a short-lasting corticoid - dexamethasone should be terminated by gradual dose reduction - prednisone should be terminated by gradual dose reduction

Systemic long-lasting therapy: - dexamethasone should be terminated by transferring to a short-lasting corticoid - prednisone should be terminated by gradual dose reduction (the long lasting (d+b) should be changed, short lasting - reduction)

TBC - specific inflammation of the bones and joints: - cold abscesses are not gathered together into a musculoskeletal TBC - the most common entry point into the body are the lungs - the most affected part of the musculoskeletal system is spine, followed by knee joint - characteristic laboratory findings are high levels of CRP over 200 mg/l

TBC - specific inflammation of the bones and joints: - the most common entry point into the body are the lungs+ - the most affected part of the musculoskeletal system is spine, followed by knee joint+

Tc-99m HMPAO is: - a radiopharmaceutical which bind brain transporters - a lipophilic radiopharmaceutical crossing intact blood-brain barrier, it is fixed by conversion into a hydrophilic substance in the brain tissue - a radiopharmaceutical used for dopamine postsynaptic D2 receptors imaging - a radiopharmaceutical used for regional brain perfusion imaging

Tc-99m HMPAO is: - a lipophilic radiopharmaceutical crossing intact blood-brain barrier, it is fixed by conversion into a hydrophilic substance in the brain tissue - a radiopharmaceutical used for regional brain perfusion imaging

Technics of bone densitometry are: - DEXA - measurements of Singh´s index - Q CT - HRCT

Technics of bone densitometry are: - DEXA - Q CT

Temporal bone fractures can result in palsy of: - trigeminal nerve - facial nerve - acoustic nerve - oculomotor nerve

Temporal bone fractures can result in palsy of - facial nerve - acoustic nerve

Temporal conus: - uncus gyri hypocampi shifts medially over the tentorium edge - respiration disorders as syndrome - doesn't occur in craniotraumas - homolateral mydriasis occurs in compression of the oculomotor nerve

Temporal conus: - uncus gyri hypocampi shifts medially over the tentorium edge - homolateral mydriasis occurs in compression of the oculomotor nerve

Temporary surgical stabilization of the pelvic ring is performed with: - skeletal traction through the femoral condyles - pelvic binder - pinning - external fixation

Temporary surgical stabilization of the pelvic ring is performed with: - pelvic binder+ - external fixation+ ---fixe med binders

Testicular scintigraphy can be used: - to differentiate tumor and hydrocele - to diagnose epididymitis - to diagnose late stage of testicular torsion - in acute phase of testicular torsion

Testicular scintigraphy can be used: - to diagnose epididymitis - in acute phase of testicular torsion

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - granulomatous inflammation of the walls of large vessels - Hearing disorders - blue sclera - coxa vara

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - Hearing disorders - blue sclera

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - cardiac aneurysm - disorders of smell - blue sclera - dentinogenesis imperfecta

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - blue sclera - dentinogenesis imperfecta

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - thin, poorly formed bones - cardiac aneurysm - pes equinovarus - blue sclera

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - thin, poorly formed bones - blue sclera

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - thin, poorly formed bones - artery aneurysm in the circle of Willis - disorders of smell - dentinogenesis imperfecta

The 7-year-old boy with mild scoliosis often suffers from fractures even after minor trauma. What other findings in this patient we can expect? - thin, poorly formed bones - dentinogenesis imperfecta

The Herbert screw: - have two types of thread - is designed for osteosynthesis of the scaphoid - is a locking screw of the angle stable implant - consists of the screw and the nut

The Herbert screw: - have two types of thread+ - is designed for osteosynthesis of the scaphoid+

The age groups most at risk of burns are the following: - children under two years of age - people between 20-30 years of age - people between 30-40 years of age - seniors over 60 years of age

The age groups most at risk of burns are the following: - children under two years of age+ - seniors over 60 years of age+

The aims of osteotomy are: - to improve alignment of the joint, bring a different area of joint cartilage into function - biological effect - increase blood circulation around the osteotomy, improve healing - improve cosmetics around the affected joint - to remove the effusion in the joint

The aims of osteotomy are: - to improve alignment of the joint, bring a different area of joint cartilage into function+ - biological effect - increase blood circulation around the osteotomy, improve healing+

The aims of premedication (depends on drugs used) are: - anxiolysis - increased secretion of glands of respiratory systém - induce tachycardia - induce basic level of analgesia and sedation

The aims of premedication (depends on drugs used) are: - anxiolysis - induce basic level of analgesia and sedation

The diagnosis of flail- chest injury is made by: - physical examination- inspection of patient in the anterior, posteriori, and both lateral directions - ultrasonography of thorax - multidetector computed tomography - radiographs

The diagnosis of flail- chest injury is made by - physical examination- inspection of patient in the anterior, posteriori, and both lateral directions - multidetector computed tomography

The direct inguinal hernia: - passes the whole inguinal canal - passes the medial inguinal fossa - runs medially to the inferior epigastric vasa - presses in front to it the cord of umbilical artery

The direct inguinal hernia: - passes the medial inguinal fossa - runs medially to the inferior epigastric vasa

The division of the mediastinum: - corresponds to the projection of the pulmonary interlobar fissures - the mediastinum is subdivided into the anterior, middle and posterior, a superior division does not exist - anterior mediastinum contains the parasternal lymphatic nodes - whole thoracic part of the esophagus is found in the posterior mediastinum

The division of the mediastinum: - anterior mediastinum contains the parasternal lymphatic nodes - whole thoracic part of the esophagus is found in the posterior mediastinum

The aortic isthmus is located: - in aortic arch - under left subclavian artery - between arch and descending aorta - under brachiocephalic trunk

The aortic isthmus is located: - under left subclavian artery - between arch and descending aorta

The attachment of the transverse mesocolon: - separates the tributary regions of the coeliac trunk and the mesenteric arteries - separates the innervation regions of the vagus n. and the of sacral parasympathetic nn. - crosses the descending part of the duodenum - separates the tributary regions of the portal vein and the azygos vein

The attachment of the transverse mesocolon: - separates the tributary regions of the coeliac trunk and the mesenteric arteries - crosses the descending part of the duodenum

The autografts that we use most often to cover the affected surfaces are: - dermoepidermal - of a moderate thickness of 0.2 to 0.6 mm with a part of the corium - epithelial - full-thickness skin grafts with a thin layer of subcutaneous fat

The autografts that we use most often to cover the affected surfaces are: - dermoepidermal - of a moderate thickness of 0.2 to 0.6 mm with a part of the corium

The body compensates for a low circulatory volume by: - increasing heart rate - increasing respiratory rate - decreasing blood pressure - peripheral vasoconstriction

The body compensates for a low circulatory volume by: - increasing heart rate - peripheral vasoconstriction

The borders of the lungs: - dorsally correspond to those of the parietal pleura - the left interlobar fissure runs approximately along the 4th rib - the right horizontal interlobar fissure runs along the 4th rib - the left inferior pulmonary lobe completely fills the costo-diaphragmatic depression

The borders of the lungs: - dorsally correspond to those of the parietal pleura - the right horizontal interlobar fissure runs along the 4th rib "the *right* is the right"

The burn extent expressed in the total body surface area (TBSA) is determined: - by estimation - by a decimal rule - according to the Lund-Browder charts - according to the palmar hand surface

The burn extent expressed in the total body surface area (TBSA) is determined: - according to the Lund-Browder charts+ - according to the palmar hand surface+

The chest wall serves in important functions: - protects the vital intrathoracic and upper abdominal organs from externally applied forces - play an integral role in respiration - play an integral role in circulation - play an integral role in digestion

The chest wall serves in important functions: - protects the vital intrathoracic and upper abdominal organs from externally applied forces - play an integral role in respiration

The clear indication for replantation is: - amputation at the wrist - amputation of the 2nd digit - amputation of the scalp - amputation of the 4th finger

The clear indication for replantation is: - amputation at the wrist+ - amputation of the scalp+

The clinical signs of inflammation are from ancient Rome (Celsus): - rubor - redness, one of the cardinal signs of inflammation - tumor - swelling, linked to increased blood volume and subsequent extravasation of fluid into surrounding tissues - abscess - cavity formed by the inflammatory process, usually filled with pyogenic fluid - gangrene - necrosis, modified by secondary changes

The clinical signs of inflammation are from ancient Rome (Celsus): - rubor - redness, one of the cardinal signs of inflammation+ - tumor - swelling, linked to increased blood volume and subsequent extravasation of fluid into surrounding tissues+

The conservative treatment of osteoarthritis sustain from: - treatment with chondroprotectives, analgesics, compound analgesics, NSAIDs - intra-articular application of corticosteroids, viscosupplementation - antibiotics, inhibitors of tumor necrosis factor alpha (anti-TNF-alpha) - series of methotrexate, sulfasalazine, hydrochloroquine

The depressed cranial vault fractures should be surgically treated: - in the case of repeated epileptic seizures - in the case of suspected dura and/or brain injury - in the case of significant bone fragments depression toward the cortex - in the case of an open fracture

The depressed cranial vault fractures should be surgically treated: - in the case of suspected dura and/or brain injury - in the case of significant bone fragments depression toward the cortex ...MED EN GANG HJERNEN ER SKADA

The diagnosis of cerebrospinal fluid leak is best confirmed: - by proof of glucose in trapped fluid - by proof of chloride in trapped fluid - by proof of beta2-transferrin in trapped fluid - by proof of proteins in trapped fluid

The diagnosis of cerebrospinal fluid leak is best confirmed: - by proof of glucose in trapped fluid - by proof of beta2-transferrin in trapped fluid

Trauma decreases: - diuresis - heart rate - brain perfusion - kidney perfusion

Trauma decreases: - diuresis - kidney perfusion

The essence of treatment with the skeletal traction consists in: - achieving gradual reduction of fracture by continuous traction - long-term traction serves also to retention of reduced fracture (up to bone union) - traction improves blood circulation in the limb fracture - long-term bed rest

The essence of treatment with the skeletal traction consists in: - achieving gradual reduction of fracture by continuous traction+ - long-term traction serves also to retention of reduced fracture (up to bone union)+

The extent and depth of the affected areas are: - inversely proportional to the intensity and duration of exposure to a thermal noxa - the determining factors for patient triage and their transport to a burn centre - directly proportional to the intensity, but inversely proportional to the duration of exposure to a thermal noxa - directly proportional to the length of exposure to and the intensity of a thermal noxa

The extent and depth of the affected areas are: - the determining factors for patient triage and their transport to a burn centre+ - directly proportional to the length of exposure to and the intensity of a thermal noxa+

The first stage of osteoarthritis is characterized by: - usually being clinically asymptomatic - X-ray with a discrete subchondral sclerosis, joint space is normal - only small osteophytes on X-ray film - patient has start-up pain

The first stage of osteoarthritis is characterized by: - usually being clinically asymptomatic+ - X-ray with a discrete subchondral sclerosis, joint space is normal+ osteophytes is later i think

The following is not considered as the primary traumatic brain injury: - intracranial hemorrhage - traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage - brain concussion - laceration of the brain

The following is not considered as the primary traumatic brain injury: - intracranial hemorrhage - traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage

The fractures of the cranial vault could be diagnosed: - by MRI - by X-ray - by CT-scan - by ultrasound

The fractures of the cranial vault could be diagnosed: - by X-ray - by CT-scan

The general metabolic changes caused by an injury are: - hypocapnia - hyperglycemia - respiratory acidosis - hypernatremia

The general metabolic changes caused by an injury are: - hypocapnia - hyperglycaemia s a state of reduced carbon dioxide in the blood (breathe in bag to increase CO2 -> hyperventilate due to stress)

The group of distributive shocks includes: - hypovolemic shock - cardiogenic shock - neurogenic shock - septic shock

The group of distributive shocks includes: - neurogenic shock - septic shock

The head trauma that completely destroys the pituitary stalk would most likely result in: - hypocortisolemia - hypoprolactinemia - diabetes insipidus - diabetes mellitus

The head trauma that completely destroys the pituitary stalk would most likely result in: - hypocortisolemia - diabetes insipidus

The highest hospitalization lethality of external causes of injuries is (2 causes): - falls - traffic accidents - drowning - electric current injuries

The highest hospitalization lethality of external causes of injuries is (2 causes): - falls - drowning

The highest hospitalization lethality of injuries is (2 diagnoses): - intracranial injury - crash injury, traumatic amputation - femur fracture - multiple fractures

The highest hospitalization lethality of injuries is (2 diagnoses): - femur fracture - multiple fractures

The humerus: - is a long bone - does not develop on a cartilaginous model - growth in length occurs at the epiphyses - there are no nutritional holes

The humerus: - is a long bone+ - growth in length occurs at the epiphyses+

The hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with: - decreased cardiac output and increased systemic vascular resistance - increased cardiac output and decreased systemic vascular resistance - warm, moist skin - vasodilation

The hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with: - increased cardiac output and decreased systemic vascular resistance - vasodilation septic shock (release of bacterial toxins)

The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements is associated with lesions of the: - parietal cortex - motor cortex - cerebellum - reticular formation

The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements is associated with lesions of the: - motor cortex - cerebellum

The indication for orotracheal intubation is: - intoxication with impaired consciousness, including the prevention of aspiration - air transport - suspicion of inhalation injury including circular neck burns - TBSA > 20%

The indication for orotracheal intubation is: - intoxication with impaired consciousness, including the prevention of aspiration - suspicion of inhalation injury including circular neck burns

The level of consciousness can be described as: - isolated disorder - diffuse disorder - qualitative disorder - quantitative disorder

The level of consciousness can be described as: - qualitative disorder - quantitative disorder

The liver anatomically consists of the: - 2 segments - 5 segments - right and left hepatic lobe - 8 segments

The liver anatomically consists of the: - right and left hepatic lobe - 8 segments

The lowest total number of killed children in traffic accidents in Czech Republic is (choose 2 age groups): - 0 years - 1-4 years - 5-9 years - 10-14 years

The lowest total number of killed children in traffic accidents in Czech Republic is (choose 2 age groups): - 0 years - 5-9 years

The main (primary) curve of scoliosis is: - located in the thoracic spine - longer than the secondary curve - appears as the first - more structural and is heavier than other

The main (primary) curve of scoliosis is: - appears as the first+ - more structural and is heavier than other+

The main clinical symptoms of compartment syndrome are: - severe pain in the affected area, out of proportion with the injury and no response to analgesics (opioids) - increased pressure in the leg (greater than 30-40 mm Hg) - peripheral edema (fingers), color changes and limited mobility, then whole limb edema - no palpable pulsating arteries, impaired motor function

The main clinical symptoms of compartment syndrome are: - severe pain in the affected area, out of proportion with the injury and no response to analgesics (opioids)+ - increased pressure in the leg (greater than 30-40 mm Hg)+

The main imaging methods of pelvic injuries include: - ultrasound - X-ray - CT - MRI

The main imaging methods of pelvic injuries include: - X-ray+ - CT+

The main indication for labeled leukocytes scintigraphy is: - acute fracture of long bones - inflammatory complications of joint prostheses - differential diagnosis of traumatic and degenerative changes - osteomyelitis of peripheral bones

The main indication for labeled leukocytes scintigraphy is: - inflammatory complications of joint prostheses - osteomyelitis of peripheral bones leukocytes -> inflammation

The main parts of the pelvic ring are: - anterior segment - middle segment - lateral segment - posterior segment

The main parts of the pelvic ring are: - anterior segment+ - posterior segment+

The maximal period of ischemia for an amputated part: - is directly given and its limit is 6 hours - depends on suitable cooling of amputated part - varies according to the tissue involved in the amputated part - depends mainly on the suitable cooling during the transport of the patient

The maximal period of ischemia for an amputated part: - depends on suitable cooling of amputated part+ - varies according to the tissue involved in the amputated part+

The mortise projection in the diagnosis of ankle injuries: - is a standard part of the ankle X-ray examination - is the AP projection in 20° of ankle external rotation - use only as an additional screening - is the AP projection in 20° of ankle internal rotation

The mortise projection in the diagnosis of ankle injuries: - is a standard part of the ankle X-ray examination+ - is the AP projection in 20° of ankle internal rotation+

The most common causes of injury of the diaphragm are: - part of a polytrauma - caused by car crashes - caused by blunt and penetrating injuries in a 1:1 ratio - caused by falls from heights

The most common causes of injury of the diaphragm are: - part of a polytrauma - caused by car crashes

The most common complication of treatment of fractures of the distal radius is: - malunion - Sudeck syndrome - osteomyelitis - compartment syndrome

The most common complication of treatment of fractures of the distal radius is: - malunion+ - Sudeck syndrome+

The most common injured part of the diaphragm is localised: - right - left - right and left - centrally, at the back

The most common injured part of the diaphragm is localised: - left - centrally, at the back

The most common injury of the wrist is a: - lunate fracture - hamate fracture - scaphoid fracture - fracture of the distal radius

The most common injury of the wrist is a: - scaphoid fracture+ - fracture of the distal radius+

The most common types of scoliosis are: - idiopathic scoliosis - congenital scoliosis - secondary scoliosis - degenerative scoliosis

The most common types of scoliosis are: - idiopathic scoliosis+ - degenerative scoliosis+

The most frequent causes of hospitalizations of persons for injuries in Czech Republic are (choose 2 diagnoses): - intracranial injuries - fracture of crus, ankle - fracture of femur - luxation, sprain of joints, ligaments

The most frequent causes of hospitalizations of persons for injuries in Czech Republic are (choose 2 diagnoses): - intracranial injuries - fracture of femur

The most frequent causes of injury death in the World and Europe are: - suicides - falls - drowning - traffic accidents

The most frequent causes of injury death in the World and Europe are: - suicides - traffic accidents

The most frequent injuries of newborns are: - falls - electric current injuries - poisonings - scalds

The most frequent injuries of newborns are: - falls - scalds

The most frequent secondary surgeries after replantation are: - flexor tendon tenolysis - correction osteotomy - secondary procedures on flexor tendons - extensor tendon transposition

The most frequent secondary surgeries after replantation are: - flexor tendon tenolysis+ - secondary procedures on flexor tendons+ ...viktig med flexors visstnok

The most important vital signs to monitor after traumatic brain or head injury are: - changes of the systemic blood pressure - changes of the diuresis - changes in the neurological status - changes in the consciousness level

The most important vital signs to monitor after traumatic brain or head injury are: - changes in the neurological status - changes in the consciousness level

The most reliable assessment of intensity of postoperative pain is: - measurements by pain scales - sweating of a patient - patients verbal report - hypertension

The most reliable assessment of intensity of postoperative pain is: - measurements by pain scales - patients verbal report

The most victims of traffic accidents in CR in children are among (2 categories): - passengers in car - cyclists - pedestrians - passengers in other vehicles

The most victims of traffic accidents in CR in children are among (2 categories): - passengers in car - pedestrians

The most victims of traffic accidents in Czech Republic are (2 categories): - car drivers - motorcyclists - pedestrians - car passengers

The most victims of traffic accidents in Czech Republic are (2 categories): - car drivers - pedestrians

The nutrition of tendon is maintained by: - tiny vessels within the tendon - synovial fluid and peritenonium - vessels at the point of insertion to the bone and in the area of transition to the muscle belly - is without nutrition

The nutrition of tendon is maintained by: - synovial fluid and peritenonium+ - vessels at the point of insertion to the bone and in the area of transition to the muscle belly+

The patient is after car crash admitted to hospital. On addmition is responsive to verbal stimulation, oriented. Saturation 80% (pulse oximetry), systemic arterial pressure 80/60 Torr. What diagnostic inverventions are necessary as a first steps. Choose please: - whole body CT - CT of abdomen due to hypotension to exclude intraabdominal injury - acid base + blood gases analysis - NMR brain and cervical spine ia enough

The patient that is suffering from hypoglycemic shock will be presented by: - pale, cold and moist skin - miosis - irregular and weak breathing - mydriasis

The patient that is suffering from hypoglycemic shock will be presented by: - pale, cold and moist skin - mydriasis

The period of ischemia of amputated part: - is the period of time between the time of injury and admission to the replantation centre - is the period of time between the first medical treatment and the restoration of perfusion - is the period of time between the time of injury and the restoration of perfusion - is the period of time between the time of injury and release of vascular clamps on performed anastomosis

The period of ischemia of amputated part: - is the period of time between the time of injury and the restoration of perfusion+ - is the period of time between the time of injury and release of vascular clamps on performed anastomosis+

The phenomenon of hypocalcemic tetany is most likely attributable to which of the following: - a change in function of the voltage dependent Ca2+ channels - a change in function of the voltage dependent Na+ channels - a decrease in permeability of axon terminals to Ca2+ ions - hyperventilation

The phenomenon of hypocalcemic tetany is most likely attributable to which of the following: - a change in function of the voltage dependent Na+ channels - hyperventilation (non Ca2+)

The potential to remodel the acquired deformities in the growing skeleton depends on: - patient´s age - patient´s gender - distance between the fracture line and the growth plate - patient´s height and weight

The potential to remodel the acquired deformities in the growing skeleton depends on: - patient´s age+ - distance between the fracture line and the growth plate+

The principle is the treatment of penetrating injuries: - introduction of a drainage - closure of the dura mater - total antibiotic prophylaxis - to treat injuries secondary

The principle is the treatment of penetrating injuries: - closure of the dura mater - to treat injuries secondary

The recommended temperature and maximum extent of cooled surface are: - 0°C and 20% TBSA - 8°C and 20% TBSA in adults - 5°C and 30% TBSA - 8°C and 5% TBSA in pediatric patients

The recommended temperature and maximum extent of cooled surface are: - 8°C and 20% TBSA in adults+ - 8°C and 5% TBSA in pediatric patients+

The recovery of nerve conduction following the suture is: - immediate - long term - depends on the intergrowth of axons - in sensitive fibres quick, in motoric slow

The recovery of nerve conduction following the suture is: - long term+ - depends on the intergrowth of axons+

The rectus sheath: - does not have the same arrangement along the whole length of the muscle - is attached to the muscle by the tendinous intersections - is not covered below the umbilicus by the transverse fascia - continues onto the thigh as the medial part of fascia lata

The rectus sheath: - does not have the same arrangement along the whole length of the muscle - is attached to the muscle by the tendinous intersections

The relative indication for replantation associated with the upper limb is: - amputation in the proximal phalanx - amputation of the 2nd digit - amputation at the wrist - amputation at distal part of humerus

The relative indication for replantation associated with the upper limb is: - amputation of the 2nd digit+ - amputation at distal part of humerus+ wrist CLEAR indication

The rotator cuff: - m. supraspinatus is a part of rotator cuff - m. deltoideus is a part of rotator cuff - is important for stabilization and function of the shoulder joint - is not situated in the region of the shoulder joint

The rotator cuff: - m. supraspinatus is a part of rotator cuff+ - is important for stabilization and function of the shoulder joint+

The scoring systém for major trauma is: - AIS - ISS - SOFA score - Hunt-Hess score

The scoring systém for major trauma is: - AIS (Abbreviated Injury Scale) - ISS (injury Severity score)

The severity and prognosis of thermal injury are: - determined by the extent and mechanism of the injury, patient age, and the depth and location of affected areas - not determined by patient age and comorbidity - determined according to the Bull index - not determined by the location of affected areas

The severity and prognosis of thermal injury are: - determined by the extent and mechanism of the injury, patient age, and the depth and location of affected areas+ - determined according to the Bull index+

The severity of burns is evaluated by: - the depth of burns only - the area of the damaged skin surface - also the depth of burns - body fluid loss

The severity of burns is evaluated by: - the area of the damaged skin surface - also the depth of burns

The shift of vertebra by over 100% on the lateral projection is called: - spondylolysis - spondylosis - spondyloptosis - spondylolisthesis grade V.

The shift of vertebra by over 100% on the lateral projection is called: - spondyloptosis+ - spondylolisthesis grade V.+

The specific radiographic projections of pelvis are: - Letournel-Judet projections - open book projection - anteroposterior projection - inlet and outlet projections

The specific radiographic projections of pelvis are: - anteroposterior projection+ - inlet and outlet projections+

The sympathetic nervous system is stimulated during trauma by: - pain - hyperglycemia - hypovolemia - hyponatremia

The sympathetic nervous system is stimulated during trauma by: - pain - hypovolemia

The transport of the burned patient to a specialized burn centre is: - not required in the case of electric injury - indicated in the case of all thermal injuries - regulated by the Journal of Trauma Care issued by the Ministry of Health in 2008 - indicated when affected areas include the face, genitalia, hands, and soles

The transport of the burned patient to a specialized burn centre is: - regulated by the Journal of Trauma Care issued by the Ministry of Health in 2008+ - indicated when affected areas include the face, genitalia, hands, and soles+

The true osteoarthritic changes on x-ray include: - subchondral sclerosis, joint space narrowing, joint incongruity - irregular trabecular spongiosa, subchondral cysts, osteophytes on the borders of the articular surface - abnormal alignment of the joint axis, swelling of the soft tissue around the joint - spotted osteoporosis (of multiple small brightening)

The typical metabolic process during trauma is: - anabolism - catabolism - negative nitrogen balance - positive nitrogen balance

The typical metabolic process during trauma is: - catabolism - negative nitrogen balance

The use of suxamethonium (Succinylcholin) for rapid sequence induction in patients with probably full stomach: - is indicated - is contraindicated - can be replaced by pancuronium - the most important criterion for choice of muscle relaxant type is the speed on onset of effect

The use of suxamethonium (Succinylcholin) for rapid sequence induction in patients with probably full stomach: - is indicated - the most important criterion for choice of muscle relaxant type is the speed on onset of effect

Therapy of decelerating aortic trauma is: - always surgery - mainly surgery - mainly endovascular therapy - surgery in indicated cases

Therapy of decelerating aortic trauma is: - mainly endovascular therapy - surgery in indicated cases

Therapy of diaphragm rupture is: - even in case of asymptomatic ruptures - operation - to 2.5 cm conservative approach - suture, reconstructive procedures (mesh, muscle flap) - based on the clinical condition conservative or surgical

Therapy of diaphragm rupture is: - even in case of asymptomatic ruptures - operation - suture, reconstructive procedures (mesh, muscle flap)

Therapy of the calcaneal fractures: - is always conservative - the current method of choice in young patients under 60 years of age is open reduction and plate osteosynthesis - it is not burdened with development of complications - in open fractures, fractures with strong comminution and in elderly patients we often perform closed reduction and pinning by Kirschner wires

Therapy of the calcaneal fractures: - the current method of choice in young patients under 60 years of age is open reduction and plate osteosynthesis+ - in open fractures, fractures with strong comminution and in elderly patients we often perform closed reduction and pinning by Kirschner wires+

Thiopental: - inhibits respiratory center, can cause bronchospams - increases blood pressure - increase intracranial pressure - has a short-lasting effect (lasting for about 10 min when given IV)

Thiopental: - inhibits respiratory center, can cause bronchospams - has a short-lasting effect (lasting for about 10 min when given IV)

Thoracal aorta trauma is most frequently caused by: - pneumothorax - thoracal vertebra fracture - fall from height - pneumomediastinum

Thoracal aorta trauma is most frequently caused by: - thoracal vertebra fracture - fall from height

Thoracal aorta trauma surgery uses: - right side thoracotomy - sternotomy - left side thoracotomy - laparotomy

Thoracal aorta trauma surgery uses: - sternotomy - left side thoracotomy

Thoracic trauma is investigated by: - echocardiography - clinically and using X-ray of the thorax - body pletysmography - computed tomography

Thoracic trauma is investigated by: - clinically and using X-ray of the thorax - computed tomography

Through the growth plate is allowed to insert: - smooth implant (Kirschner wire) only - no more than two screws - compression plate - insertion of any implants is avoided, if it is possible

Through the growth plate is allowed to insert: - smooth implant (Kirschner wire) only+ - insertion of any implants is avoided, if it is possible+

To decrease risk of aspiration during induction to general anaesthesia in patients with increased risk is used: - Sellick´s manoeuvre - crush induction - inhalational induction - antiTrendelenburg´s position (30 degrees head up)

To decrease risk of aspiration during induction to general anaesthesia in patients with increased risk is used - Sellick´s manoeuvre - crush induction

To the dominant indicative criteria of replantation belong: - medical history of the patient - general status of the patient after an injury - appearance of the amputated part and the stump - injury mechanism

To the dominant indicative criteria of replantation belong: - general status of the patient after an injury+ - appearance of the amputated part and the stump+

To the essential procedures for diagnosis of the lung contusion belongs: - X ray examination - CT scan - videothoracoscopy - USG examination

To the essential procedures for diagnosis of the lung contusion belongs: - X ray examination+ - CT scan+ -

To the essential treatment methods for the lung contusion belongs: - surgery (thoracotomy) - bronchoscopy with blood suction - videothoracoscopy - artificial pulmonary ventilation

To the essential treatment methods for the lung contusion belongs: - bronchoscopy with blood suction+ - artificial pulmonary ventilation+

To the instability of the spine occurs: - during the ageing process - mostly after injury - in degenerative, tumor and inflammatory processes - in violation of either compression or tension column of spine

To the instability of the spine occurs: - mostly after injury+ - in degenerative, tumor and inflammatory processes+

To the most common craniocerebral injuries in children include: - skull fracture - epidural bleeding - subdural bleeding - cerebral concussion

To the most common craniocerebral injuries in children include: - skull fracture+ - cerebral concussion+

To verify an occult fracture we can use: - repeated radiograph - CT - MRI - contrast examination

To verify an occult fracture we can use: - CT - MRI Occult fractures are those that are not visible on imaging

Total bone mass is increasing by: - stimulation of osteoblastic activity - stimulation of osteoclastic activity - inhibition of osteoblastic activity - inhibition of osteoclastic activity

Total bone mass is increasing by: - stimulation of osteoblastic activity - inhibition of osteoclastic activity

Total endoprosthesis (arthroplasty) can have: - one component - two components - three components - more components

Total endoprosthesis (arthroplasty) can have: - two components - three components

Transposition of the ulnar nerve: - is a part of posterior approach to the distal humerus - is an imposition of the ulnar nerve before medial epicondyle of humerus - is suitable in humeral shaft fractures - is resection of radial nerve and its connection with ulnar nerve

Transposition of the ulnar nerve: - is a part of posterior approach to the distal humerus+ - is an imposition of the ulnar nerve before medial epicondyle of humerus+

Trauma activates: - acute local inflammation - parasympathetic stimulation - stress response - diuresis

Trauma activates: - acute local inflammation - stress response

Trauma increases activity of which of the following: - ACTH, cortisol, insulin - sympathetic autonomic system, epinephrine, ACTH, cortisol, T3 - sympathetic autonomic system, epinephrine, ACTH, cortisol - sympathetic autonomic system, ADH, renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Trauma increases activity of which of the following: - sympathetic autonomic system, epinephrine, ACTH, cortisol - sympathetic autonomic system, ADH, renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Trauma of biliary tree is mostly caused by: - iatrogenic way during ERCP - penetrating abdominal trauma - iatrogenic way during operation - blunt abdominal trauma

Trauma of biliary tree is mostly caused by: - iatrogenic way during ERCP - iatrogenic way during operation

Trauma of biliary tree is mostly causes by: - blunt abdominal trauma - penetrating abdominal trauma - iatrogenic lesion during cholecystectomy - iatrogenic lesion during ERCP

Trauma of biliary tree is mostly causes by: - iatrogenic lesion during cholecystectomy - iatrogenic lesion during ERCP

Trauma of retroperitoneal organs is diagnosed by: - urgent laparotomy only - immediate CT, but not always with final outcome - native X- ray of the abdomen - repeated monitoring of the patients state

Trauma of retroperitoneal organs is diagnosed by: - immediate CT, but not always with final outcome - repeated monitoring of the patients state

Trauma of the hollow abdominal organs most frequent manifests by: - hematemesis - peritonitis - dyspnea - hemoperitoneum

Trauma of the hollow abdominal organs most frequent manifests by: - peritonitis - hemoperitoneum hematemesis = vomiiting of blood

Trauma of the trachea manifests as: - brain edema - mediastinal and subcutaneous emphysema - acute cardiac failure - dyspnea and hemoptysis

Trauma of the trachea manifests as: - mediastinal and subcutaneous emphysema - dyspnea and hemoptysis

Traumatic brain edema: - does not occur in traumas - accompanies brain injuries - perifocal hypodensity on CT scans - subarachnoid spaces enlargement on CT scans

Traumatic brain edema: - accompanies brain injuries - perifocal hypodensity on CT scans

Traumatic disruption of the spinal cord in the Th segment results in: - numbness in the legs - loss of consciousness - malfunction of the bladder - dizziness

Traumatic disruption of the spinal cord in the Th segment results in: - numbness in the legs - malfunction of the bladder

Traumatic disruption of the spinal cord would present below the lesion with the following: - immediate loss of muscle tone and reflexes - immediate loss of consciousness - loss of function of alpha-motoneurons after 1-2 months - increased activation of gamma-motoneurons after 1-2 months

Traumatic disruption of the spinal cord would present below the lesion with the following: - immediate loss of muscle tone and reflexes - increased activation of gamma-motoneurons after 1-2 months

Traumatic hemothorax manifests as: - subcutaneous emphysema every time - pneumohemothorax every time - covered pleural cavity - weakened respiration

Traumatic hemothorax manifests as: - covered pleural cavity - weakened respiration

Traumatic hernia of the abdominal wall: - does not exist - is very common - can imitate a hematoma - ultrasound is a part of the diagnostic algorithm

Traumatic hernia of the abdominal wall - can imitate a hematoma - ultrasound is a part of the diagnostic algorithm

Traumatic laceration of the lungs is connected with: - pneumothorax, hemothorax - severe respiratory failure - spleen rupture - abdominal compartment syndrome

Traumatic laceration of the lungs is connected with: - pneumothorax, hemothorax - severe respiratory failure

Traumatic rupture of the spleen can be combined with: - fractures of lower ribs of left side - perforation of duodenum - fracture of upper ribs of left side - contusion or rupture of the pancreatic tail

Traumatic rupture of the spleen can be combined with: - fractures of lower ribs of left side - contusion or rupture of the pancreatic tail

Treatment after osteosynthesis of acetabular fractures: - early verticalization with minimalization the weight on the affected extremity - after plating fixation is possible full weighting on the affected extremity - early verticalization is prevention of thromboembolic disease - six weeks in bed is always required

Treatment after osteosynthesis of acetabular fractures: - early verticalization with minimalization the weight on the affected extremity+ - early verticalization is prevention of thromboembolic disease+ vertical - stående

Treatment of a hand after suture of flexor tendons involves: - fixation with plaster of Cramer splint - fixation in plaster for the period at least of 6 weeks - does not include fixation to enable the movement of fingers - exercise with passive and active physiotherapy

Treatment of a hand after suture of flexor tendons involves: - fixation with plaster of Cramer splint+ - exercise with passive and active physiotherapy+

Treatment of compartment syndrome is based on: - reduction of tissue pressure before irreversible ischemic changes (up to 6 hours) - removing causes of compartment syndrome: removal of plaster, the timely implementation of fasciotomy - pharmacotherapy (anti-edematous therapy, enzyme therapy, vasodilators, analgesics) - positioning of limbs in a raised position above the level of the heart to control the soft tissue

Treatment of compartment syndrome is based on: - reduction of tissue pressure before irreversible ischemic changes (up to 6 hours)+ - removing causes of compartment syndrome: removal of plaster, the timely implementation of fasciotomy+

Treatment of fractures of the ankle joint: - we strive for conservative treatment of reduction and fixation in plaster fixation in reduction position - in the case of conservative treatment, control X-rays during treatment are not performed - for unstable fractures, especially type B and C, and injuries of syndesmosis we treat by open reduction and osteosynthesis - the method of choice is nailing via calcaneus

Treatment of fractures of the ankle joint: - we strive for conservative treatment of reduction and fixation in plaster fixation in reduction position+ - for unstable fractures, especially type B and C, and injuries of syndesmosis we treat by open reduction and osteosynthesis+

Vascular hand supply is maintained by: - arteria radialis - arteria ulnaris - arteria mediana - arteria palmaris

Vascular hand supply is maintained by: - arteria radialis+ - arteria ulnaris+

Treatment of infection after internal fixation of fracture consists in: - radical surgical revision (debridement), conversion to external fixation - lavage and targeted systemic administration of antibiotics - oral antibiotics, local wound care - ensuring position in plaster, analgesics and antibiotics

Treatment of infection after internal fixation of fracture consists in: - radical surgical revision (debridement), conversion to external fixation+ - lavage and targeted systemic administration of antibiotics+

Treatment of the Children´s fractures: - is predominantly nonoperative - is predominantly operative - it is necessary to obtain a full stable osteosynthesis - in case of osteosynthesis, the minimally invasive access is preferred

Treatment of the Children´s fractures: - is predominantly nonoperative+ - in case of osteosynthesis, the minimally invasive access is preferred+

Treatment of traumatic brain swelling involve: - corticoids - manitol - hypertonic solution of natrium chloride - coloid solutions

Treatment of traumatic brain swelling involve: - manitol - hypertonic solution of natrium chloride Mannitol has a variety of uses. It is used to prevent and treat the low output of urine associated with kidney failure. It is also used to reduce elevated pressure in the brain (cerebral oedema) and in the eyes.

Trimecaine: - is an antiarrhythmic - combination with bupivacaine speeds and prolongs its effect - combination with suxamethonium shortens and lowers its effect - cannot be used for epidural anaesthesia

Trimecaine: - is an antiarrhythmic - combination with bupivacaine speeds and prolongs its effect

Trochlea humeri: - carries the articular surface for olecranon ulnae - form part of condyle of the humerus - there is not covered with cartilage - cannot be seen on the X-ray of the elbow

Trochlea humeri: - carries the articular surface for olecranon ulnae+ - form part of condyle of the humerus+

Tuberculum majus humeri: - is situated medially to the small tubercle - musculus supraspinatus has its insertion here - m. teres minor and m. infraspinatus has not their insertion here - forms lateral part of humeral head

Tuberculum majus humeri: - musculus supraspinatus has its insertion here+ - forms lateral part of humeral head+

Vasodilatation during inflammation is induced by: - nitric oxide - heparin - interleukin 1 (IL-1) - decreased partial pressure of oxygen at the site of inflammation

Vasodilatation during inflammation is induced by: - nitric oxide - decreased partial pressure of oxygen at the site of inflammation

Ventilating pneumothorax is: - life threatening - caused by a tension pneumothorax - not treated with thoracic drainage - indicated for conservative therapy

Ventilating pneumothorax is: - life threatening - caused by a tension pneumothorax

Twenty-eight-years old woman patient, after previous diarrhea, knee pain for three days puncture was done by physician. After that fever 38 Celsius, increasing knee pain. CRP 200 mg / l. Microbial test culture was negative. What are the possibilities for a differential diagnosis? - pyogenic (septic) arthritis - reactive arthritis - Reiter's syndrome - acute lesions of LCA - anterior ligament cruciatum - TBC arthritis

Two most frequent sites of arterial trauma are: - head and neck - thorax - upper extremities - lower extremities

Two most frequent sites of arterial trauma are - upper extremities - lower extremities

Two most frequent traumas of the thoracic aorta are: - ascending aorta - aortic arch - aortic isthmus - descending aorta

Two most frequent traumas of the thoracic aorta are: - aortic isthmus - descending aorta most distal

Typical advantages of the conservative method of treatment are: - possibility of adequate therapy if contraindication of surgery for medical reasons - non-interference in internal environment of the body - occurrence of fewer complications - less painful treatment for the patient

Typical advantages of the conservative method of treatment are: - possibility of adequate therapy if contraindication of surgery for medical reasons+ - non-interference in internal environment of the body+

Typical childhood fractures are: - pertrochanteric - subperiostal - epiphyseolysis - Monteggia

Typical childhood fractures are - subperiostal - epiphyseolysis

Typical disadvantages of the conservative method of treatment are: - tendency toward frequent displacement of some fractures - discomfort of patients due plaster or other fixation - cannot be used for active patients middle-aged - higher incidence of long lasting effects after fractures

Typical disadvantages of the conservative method of treatment are: - tendency toward frequent displacement of some fractures+ - discomfort of patients due plaster or other fixation+

Typical example of Sudeck syndrome (Complex regional pain syndrome) is: - disability of upper limb after insignificant soft tissue trauma - fracture in the forearm after the removal of "tight" plaster - after common ankle fracture, treatment with walking cast - after treatment of fracture of the femoral neck with skeletal traction

Typical example of Sudeck syndrome (Complex regional pain syndrome) is: - disability of upper limb after insignificant soft tissue trauma+ - fracture in the forearm after the removal of "tight" plaster+

Typical features of total hip replacements are: - replace the cup and the head, prosthesis are modular - can be cemented and cementless - are reserved for elderly patients, due to low survival rate - cannot be implanted in cases of secondary osteoarthritis

Typical features of total hip replacements are: - replace the cup and the head, prosthesis are modular+ - can be cemented and cementless+

Typical meniscus lesions include: - duck-beak tear - bucket-handle tear - parrot-beak tear - swan's wing tear

Typical meniscus lesions include: - bucket-handle tear+ - parrot-beak tear+

Typical osteoporotic fractures are: - pertrochanteric fracture of the femur - burst fracture of the tibia - fracture of the distal radius - scaphoid fracture

Typical osteoporotic fractures are - pertrochanteric fracture of the femur - fracture of the distal radius

Typical signs and symptoms of spinal epidural hematoma are: - persistent motoric blockade - shivering - meningism - back pain

Typical signs and symptoms of spinal epidural hematoma are: - persistent motoric blockade - back pain

Typical trauma of the thoracic aorta and its branches is: - deceleration - complete interruption - acute aortic closure - penetrating stub or shotgun wounds

Typical trauma of the thoracic aorta and its branches is: - deceleration (reduction in speed) - penetrating stub or shotgun wounds

Ulnar canal (Canalis ulnaris): - contains the n. ulnaris - is bordered by the lig. pisohamatum dorsally - is bordered by the m. palmaris brevis palmary - contains the a. ulnaris

Ulnar canal (Canalis ulnaris): - contains the n. ulnaris - contains the a. ulnaris

Ultrasound examination in neurotraumatology can be used: - for examination of brain vessels when their traumatic dissection is suspected - for intracranial hematomas examination - is not used in neurotraumatology - in children with great fontanella may be used for detection of intracranial hemorrhage

Ultrasound examination in neurotraumatology can be used: - for examination of brain vessels when their traumatic dissection is suspected - in children with great fontanella may be used for detection of intracranial hemorrhage

Unacceptable value of postoperative pain on the scale 0-10 is: - 2 - 4 - 6 - 8

Unacceptable value of postoperative pain on the scale 0-10 is: - 6 - 8

Uncal herniation: - develops when swollen parietal lobe compresses the temporal lobe - develops with increased pressure towards the medial part of the temporal lobe - part of the temporal lobe herniates in the tentorial incisure - cerebellar tonsils are impressing proximally over tentorium against temporal lobe

Uncal herniation: - develops with increased pressure towards the medial part of the temporal lobe - part of the temporal lobe herniates in the tentorial incisure

Unstable pelvic ring injuries acutely threaten the patient: - with neurological lesions - with infection - with injury to visceral organs - of hemodynamic instability

Unstable pelvic ring injuries acutely threaten the patient: - with injury to visceral organs+ - of hemodynamic instability+

Unsuitable anaesthestic for inhalational induction to general anaesthesia in children because of irritation is: - nitrous oxide - isoflurane - sevoflurane - desflurane

Unsuitable anaesthestic for inhalational induction to general anaesthesia in children because of irritation is - isoflurane - desflurane

Varus position of femoral component in hip endoprosthesis leads to: - broken prosthesis - loosening of femoral component - perforation of the tip of component - aseptic necrosis

Varus position of femoral component in hip endoprosthesis leads to: - loosening of femoral component - perforation of the tip of component vaRus - rett ut

We are right to be worried of infection during an amputation injury: - in amputations caused in the environment where is contact with soil and dung - in amputations caused in the environment where is contact with meat and fish - in amputation caused by circular saw on woodworking - in amputation caused by cropping books in printing factory

We are right to be worried of infection during an amputation injury: - in amputations caused in the environment where is contact with soil and dung+ - in amputations caused in the environment where is contact with meat and fish+

We can exclude bone fracture if: - there is increased accumulation in the site of injury - bone scan performed a week after injury is negative - decreased accumulation in the site of injury - bone scan is not useful to diagnose bone fracture

We can exclude bone fracture if: - bone scan performed a week after injury is negative - decreased accumulation in the site of injury

We can use following radiopharmaceuticals for inflammation imaging: - labeled leukocytes - labeled thrombocytes - Ga-67 citrate or F-18 FDG - labeled erythrocytes

We can use following radiopharmaceuticals for inflammation imaging: - labeled leukocytes - Ga-67 citrate or F-18 FDG ...the non reds

We can use radionuclide methods for the detection of injury of following organs: - bones and brain - muscles, ligaments, menisci - internal organs - liver, spleen, kidneys - hollow organs - intestine

We can use radionuclide methods for the detection of injury of following organs: - bones and brain - internal organs - liver, spleen, kidneys

Wearing of cycle helmet: - can prevent head injury up to 85% - significantly increase the visibility of the cyclist - can prevent brain injury up to 88% - decreases the risk of cervical spine injury to about 50%

Wearing of cycle helmet: - can prevent head injury up to 85% - can prevent brain injury up to 88%

What answer does NOT describe sign of acute contusion of the abdominal wall: - subcutaneous hematoma - local palpable pain - peritoneal irritation - phlegmon

What answer does NOT describe sign of acute contusion of the abdominal wall: - peritoneal irritation - phlegmon

What are the basic rules for replantation?: - the possibility to perform an anastomosis and restore perfusion in amputated part - the repair of structures which are necessary to be performed before the creation of anastomosis - we should always perform osteosynthesis - primarily we should do the suture of flexor tendons

What are the basic rules for replantation?: - the possibility to perform an anastomosis and restore perfusion in amputated part+ - the repair of structures which are necessary to be performed before the creation of anastomosis+ (Greys anatomy)

What are the findings of a trauma patient's blood test? - increase in blood glucose level - greater increase in urea than in creatinine levels - greater increase in creatinine than in urea levels - increase in blood sodium level

What are the findings of a trauma patient's blood test? - increase in blood glucose level - greater increase in urea than in creatinine levels

What are the main indications for a bone scan? - fractures of specific locations - suspicion of muscle rupture - stress fractures, avulsion and contusion - joint luxation

What are the main indications for a bone scan? - fractures of specific locations - stress fractures, avulsion and contusion

What can be seen on imaging methods in bone contusion? - x-ray negative, MRI bleeding into the bone marrow - x-ray positive after several days - three-phase bone scan positive in all three phases - MRI detect disruption of trabecular bone

What can be seen on imaging methods in bone contusion? - x-ray negative, MRI bleeding into the bone marrow - three-phase bone scan positive in all three phases

What is detected physiologically in cisternography: - brain ventricles within 1 hour - basal cisterns within 1 to 2 hours - interhemispherical space after 24 hours - liquor space above the hemispheres within 24 hours

What is detected physiologically in cisternography: - basal cisterns within 1 to 2 hours - liquor space above the hemispheres within 24 hours

What is patient preparation for a bone scan: - nothing per os - good hydration - no meal and beverages 6 hours before examination - frequent voiding after radiopharmaceutical injection

What is patient preparation for a bone scan: - good hydration - frequent voiding after radiopharmaceutical injection

What is the correct sequence for the elevation of hormones' levels after a traumatic event? - adrenaline (epinephrine), cortisol - ACTH, cortisol - ACTH, POMC - cortisol, adrenaline (epinephrine)

What is the correct sequence for the elevation of hormones' levels after a traumatic event? - adrenaline (epinephrine), cortisol - ACTH, cortisol

What is the difference between a growing skeleton and adult skeleton? - the growing skeleton is constituted mainly by cartilaginous tissue - the growing skeleton isn´t visible on X-ray - the growing skeleton has the potential to grow - the growing skeleton has the potential to remodel the acquired deformities

What is the difference between a growing skeleton and adult skeleton? - the growing skeleton has the potential to grow+ - the growing skeleton has the potential to remodel the acquired deformities+

What is the difference between growing and adult skeleton: - the growing skeleton is more elastic, than the adult one - fractures of the growing skeleton is healed predominantly by an endosteal callus formation - the articular ends of the growing bones are predominantly cartilaginous - the growing skeleton is more resistant to trauma

What is the difference between growing and adult skeleton: - the growing skeleton is more elastic, than the adult one+ - the articular ends of the growing bones are predominantly cartilaginous+

What is the main stimulus for activation of the secondary injury process after trauma? - ischemia - release of proteolytic enzymes from the damaged tissue - vasodilatation - increase temperature

What is the main stimulus for activation of the secondary injury process after trauma? - ischemia - release of proteolytic enzymes from the damaged tissue (secondary injury response -> the inflammatory response)

What is the most common microorganism, which is responsible for postoperative infections? - Staphylococcus aureus - Actinomycetes - Staphylococcus coagulase negative - Chlamydia trachomatis

What is the most common microorganism, which is responsible for postoperative infections? - Staphylococcus aureus+ - Staphylococcus coagulase negative+

What is the most eligible intervention (therapy) for patient suffering from lung contusion with saturation decrease on level of 60% (spont. ventilation, ambient air): - agresive volume therapy to reach the goal of venous return increase - ventilation mode with optimalization of distanding pressure to resolve the problem of lung recruitment - intubation and artefitial ventilation - frequent suctioning of secretiong from airways and intravenous administration of steroids

What is the most eligible intervention (therapy) for patient suffering from lung contusion with saturation decrease on level of 60% (spont. ventilation, ambient air): - ventilation mode with optimalization of distanding pressure to resolve the problem of lung recruitment - intubation and artefitial ventilation

What is the most important examination in hemodynamically unstable patient with abdominal trauma? - physical - diagnostic peritoneal lavage - abdominal ultrasonography - laparoscopy

What is the most important examination in hemodynamically unstable patient with abdominal trauma? - physical - abdominal ultrasonography

What is the pattern of avascular necrosis on a bone scan? - bone scan is negative - defect of accumulation is present at early stage - diffusely increased accumulation is present 1 to 3 weeks later - all three phases are positive at early stage

What is the pattern of avascular necrosis on a bone scan? - defect of accumulation is present at early stage - diffusely increased accumulation is present 1 to 3 weeks later

What is the pattern of plantar fasciitis on scintigraphy? - normal finding - increased blood-pool - increased bone metabolic activity in the back lower part of calcaneus - all three phases are positive in the anterior part of foot

What is the pattern of plantar fasciitis on scintigraphy? - increased blood-pool - increased bone metabolic activity in the back lower part of calcaneus

What is typical of late stage of testicular torsion on scintigraphy? - defect with a rim of increased accumulation (donut shape) in the involved testis - markedly increased diffuse accumulation in the involved testis - defect of (reduced) accumulation detected 30 minutes post injection - increased accumulation in the surroundings of testis which does not accumulate radiopharmaceutical

What is typical of late stage of testicular torsion on scintigraphy? - defect with a rim of increased accumulation (donut shape) in the involved testis - increased accumulation in the surroundings of testis which does not accumulate radiopharmaceutical

What population of patients is predisposed to loss of consciousness? - AIDS patients - patients with DM II - elderly patients - patients with cardiac insufficiency

What population of patients is predisposed to loss of consciousness? - patients with DM II - patients with cardiac insufficiency

What signs would you expect in a patient that is suffering from neurogenic shock? - movement disturbances - high heart rate - low blood pressure - loss of proprioception

What signs would you expect in a patient that is suffering from neurogenic shock? - high heart rate - low blood pressure (can be atypical presentation -> therefor nerves seems "fine")

What structure of knee is injured when posterolateral instability of the knee is present? - anterior cruciate ligament - posterior cruciate ligament - medial collateral ligament - lateral collateral ligament

What structure of knee is injured when posterolateral instability of the knee is present? - posterior cruciate ligament+ - lateral collateral ligament+

When anterior cruciate ligament injury in the clinical examination we use: - Thomson test - Lachman test - anterior drawer test - posterior drawer test

When anterior cruciate ligament injury in the clinical examination we use: - Lachman test+ - anterior drawer test+

When dislocated hip we let make: - AP view of affected hip - CT of affected hip - MRI of affected hip - x-ray of pelvis

When dislocated hip we let make: - AP view of affected hip+ - x-ray of pelvis+

When does imaging in static renal scintigraphy begin? - simultaneously with injection of radiopharmaceutical - 2 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 3 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 24 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical

When does imaging in static renal scintigraphy begin? - 2 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical - 3 hours after injection of radiopharmaceutical

When osteotomy is performed: - we cut the bone to change the axis of the limb or joint - most often performed osteotomy in varus knee is valgus OT - we remove surgically the damaged part of the joint - corticectomy of a bone with chisel to improve blood circulation

When osteotomy is performed: - we cut the bone to change the axis of the limb or joint - most often performed osteotomy in varus knee is valgus OT

When the posterior superior dislocation of the hip position of the hip joint is in: - flexion - extension - external rotation - internal rotation

When the posterior superior dislocation of the hip position of the hip joint is in: - flexion+ - internal rotation+ f + p e + i

When treating injured arteries on the hand: - we always ligate to prevent an extensive bleeding - we suture in case of worsened perfusion of periphery - we suture only thicker vessels - we do not suture while persisting perfusion

When treating injured arteries on the hand: - we suture in case of worsened perfusion of periphery+ - we do not suture while persisting perfusion+

Where is radiopharmaceutical injected for radionuclide cisternography: - intravenously - into the liquor space - subcutaneously - suboccipitally

Where is radiopharmaceutical injected for radionuclide cisternography: - into the liquor space - suboccipitally ...the ones you never heard about

Which are SPECIFIC antidotes used in poisoning (intoxication) treatment: - naloxone - magnesium sulphate (10% solution) or sorbitol (40% solution) - alcohol (ethanol) - Carbo medicinalis

Which are SPECIFIC antidotes used in poisoning (intoxication) treatment: - naloxone - alcohol (ethanol)

Which are advised during conservative treatment in severe brain injuries: - intracranial pressure monitoring - elevated head positioning by 30-45 degrees - repeated lumbar punctures - fluid intake restriction

Which are advised during conservative treatment in severe brain injuries: - intracranial pressure monitoring - elevated head positioning by 30-45 degrees

Which are relatively frequent adverse effects of halothane belongs: - malignant hyperthermia - heart rate disturbances (especially tachycardia) - depression of respiratory centre - hypertension

Which are relatively frequent adverse effects of halothane belongs: - heart rate disturbances (especially tachycardia) - depression of respiratory centre halothane - little used nowadays. Has too many side effects.

Which are typical adrenaline (epinephrine) characteristics? - pronounced immediate vasoconstriction - positive inotropic and vasodilation effects (it is an ino-vasodilator) - β1,2 sympathomimetic effects - positive inotropic and vasoconstriction effects (it is an ino-vasoconstrictor)

Which are typical adrenaline (epinephrine) characteristics? - positive inotropic and vasodilation effects (it is an ino-vasodilator) - β1,2 sympathomimetic effects

Which are typical dobutamine characteristics: - dominant α adrenergic effect (it is a vasoconstrictor) - dominant β1 adrenergic effect (inotropic effect) - dobutamine is conveniently used in acute heart failure treatment in combination with dopamine (which improves renal perfusion) - dobutamine is conveniently used in shock therapy in combination with dopamine (which potentiates vasoconstriction)

Which are typical dobutamine characteristics: - dominant β1 adrenergic effect (inotropic effect) - dobutamine is conveniently used in acute heart failure treatment in combination with dopamine (which improves renal perfusion)

Which are typical levosimendan characteristics: - inotropic effect due to the increased sensitivity of tropin T to calcium - dominant α adrenergic effect (it is a vasoconstrictor) - high risk of serious arrhythmias by increased calcium sarcoplasm concentrations in cardiomyocytes - levosimendan is conveniently used in acute heart failure treatment as alteration to β sympathomimetics in chronic beta-blockers treatment

Which are typical levosimendan characteristics: - inotropic effect due to the increased sensitivity of tropin T to calcium - levosimendan is conveniently used in acute heart failure treatment as alteration to β sympathomimetics in chronic beta-blockers treatment

Which are typical noradrenalin (norepinephrine) characteristics? - vasodilation effect - positive inotropic and vasoconstriction effects (it is an ino-vasoconstrictor) - β1,2 sympathomimetic effects without the α adrenergic effects - β1 sympathomimetic with medium α sympathomimetic effect

Which are typical noradrenalin (norepinephrine) characteristics? - positive inotropic and vasoconstriction effects (it is an ino-vasoconstrictor) - β1 sympathomimetic with medium α sympathomimetic effect

Which are used for treatment of osteoporosis: - stroncium ranelate - bisphosphonates - chondro-protective drugs - corticoids

Which are used for treatment of osteoporosis: - stroncium ranelate - bisphosphonates

Which associated injuries are common to pancreatic trauma? - liver injury - large bowel injury - duodenum and proximal small bowel injury - kidney injury

Which associated injuries are common to pancreatic trauma - liver injury - duodenum and proximal small bowel injury

Which can be used to prevent rapidly evolving tolerance and to reduce kidney failure: - continuous uninterrupted low-doses application of glucocorticoids - so-called "diurnal" glucocorticoid application - with daily doses applied during morning or at latest midday - "intermittent" type of application - where the drug is applied for 3-4 subsequent days followed by 2-3 days pause - "diurnal" glucocorticoid application - with daily dose applied during afternoon and evening

Which can be used to prevent rapidly evolving tolerance and to reduce kidney failure: - so-called "diurnal" glucocorticoid application - with daily doses applied during morning or at latest midday - "intermittent" type of application - where the drug is applied for 3-4 subsequent days followed by 2-3 days pause

Which change/s in the development of *osteoarthritis* has/have significant pathogenetic importance in the *initial* phase? - acute inflammation of a synovial membrane - proliferation of synovial membrane - change in the composition of cartilage proteoglycans - reduction of chondrocyte populations in articular cartilage

Which change/s in the development of *osteoarthritis* has/have significant pathogenetic importance in the *initial* phase - change in the composition of cartilage *proteoglycans* - *reduction* of chondrocyte populations in articular cartilage

Which concomitant injuries are associated with sternal fractures? - cardiac contusion - spleen rupture - rib fractures - lung contusion

Which concomitant injuries are associated with sternal fractures? - cardiac contusion - rib fractures

Which corticoid(s) has long-lasting effects (with T1/2 = at least 36-72 hours): - methylprednisolone - dexamethasone - hydrocortisone - betamethasone

Which corticoid(s) has long-lasting effects (with T1/2 = at least 36-72 hours): - dexamethasone - betamethasone

Which effect(s) of atropine makes it useful as a general anaesthesia premedication: - atropine causes bronchodilatation - atropine reduces heart rate - atropine reduces gastrointestinal secretions - atropine causes peripheral vasoconstriction

Which effect(s) of atropine makes it useful as a general anaesthesia premedication: - atropine causes bronchodilatation - atropine reduces gastrointestinal secretions

Which fractures are indicated for osteosynthesis primarily? - all displaced fractures - displaced intraarticular fractures - displaced compound fractures - displaced physeal injuries

Which fractures are indicated for osteosynthesis primarily? - displaced intraarticular fractures+ - displaced compound fractures+ Osteosynthesis is the reduction and internal fixation of a bone fracture with implantable devices that are usually made of metal fractures

Which fractures are typical for a growing skeleton? - fractures of the articular surface - diaphyseal long bone fractures - greenstick fractures - physeal injuries

Which fractures are typical for a growing skeleton? - greenstick fractures+ - physeal injuries+

Which fractures can acceptable remodel the acquired deformities? - fractures displaced „ad latus" - fractures displaced „ad axim" - fractures displaced „ad peripheriam" - displaced intraairticular fractures

Which fractures can acceptable remodel the acquired deformities? - fractures displaced „ad latus"+ - fractures displaced „ad aim"+ ...de korteste setningene er acceptable.

X-ray sign of aseptic loosening of endoprosthesis is: - soft rim - hard rim - migration of prosthesis - osteoporosis

X-ray sign of aseptic loosening of endoprosthesis is: - soft rim - migration of prosthesis

Which glucocorticoid sequence has the drugs in order from least effective to most effective: - dexamethasone - hydrocortisone - methylprednisolone - hydrocortisone - methylprednisolone - dexamethasone - methylprednisolone - prednisolone - dexamethasone - hydrocortisone - prednisolone - dexamethasone

Which glucocorticoid sequence has the drugs in order from least effective to most effective: - hydrocortisone - methylprednisolone - dexamethasone - hydrocortisone - prednisolone - dexamethasone (lavest i alfabetet B + D, lengre varighet) 1. Hydrocortisone 2. Prednisone 3. Prednisolone 4. Methylprednisolone 5. Triamcinolone 6. Betamethasone 7. Dexamethasone

Which is/are important for diagnosis of pancreatic injury: - serum hyperamylasemia - free intraperitoneal air on abdomen radiograph - result of contrast abdominal CT scan - hyperbilirubinemia

Which is/are important for diagnosis of pancreatic injury - serum hyperamylasemia - result of contrast abdominal CT scan

Which is/are true of the diagnosis of osteosarcoma: - the most common cause of poor outcome of treatment of osteosarcoma is the late diagnosis of disease - X-ray is often periostosis seen as a Codman´s triangle - for tumor scintigraphy is reflected as a loss of activity of bone metabolism - early tumor metastasizes to the liver, so it is appropriate to capture the first sonographic examination of the abdomen

Which is/are true of the diagnosis of osteosarcoma: - the most common cause of poor outcome of treatment of osteosarcoma is the late diagnosis of disease+ - X-ray is often periostosis seen as a Codman´s triangle+

Which is/are true of the ligament damage & repair: - the use of electrotherapy in repair phase encourages fibroblast activity - the use of electrotherapy in repair phase is not recommended - fibroblast cells proliferate and begin to lay down Type 3 collagen tissue, between 3-21 days after the injury - in the repair phase, activity involving the injured part is recommended

Which is/are true of the ligament damage & repair: - the use of electrotherapy in repair phase encourages fibroblast activity - fibroblast cells proliferate and begin to lay down Type 3 collagen tissue, between 3-21 days after the injury

Which is/are true of the motor learning: - first stage of the motor learning names is the autonomous phase - in the cognitive phase of the motor learning the learner cannot determine appropriate strategies to adequately reflect the desired goal - in the associative phase of the motor learning the learner has determined the most effective way to do the task and starts to make subtle adjustments in performance - motor skills in the associative phase are fluent, efficient and aesthetically pleasing

Which is/are true of the motor learning: - in the associative phase of the motor learning the learner has determined the most effective way to do the task and starts to make subtle adjustments in performance - motor skills in the associative phase are fluent, efficient and aesthetically pleasing

Which is/are true of the motor learning: - in the cognitive phase of motor learning, good strategies retained and inefficient strategies are discarded - in the cognitive phase of motor learning, performance is greatly improved over long periods of time - in the associative Phase: the learner has determined the most effective way to do the task and starts to make subtle adjustments in performance - the autonomous Phase takes approximately several days to reach

Which is/are true of the motor learning: - in the cognitive phase of motor learning, good strategies retained and inefficient strategies are discarded - in the associative Phase: the learner has determined the most effective way to do the task and starts to make subtle adjustments in performance

Which is/are true of the motor skill - development: - 12 months - can sit straight - 12 months - takes first steps - 24 months - can jump - 24 months - can cut with scissors; runs on toes

Which is/are true of the motor skill - development: - 12 months - takes first steps - 24 months - can jump

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - during the learning process of a motor skill, feedback is a positive response that tells the learner how well the task was completed - during the learning process of a motor skill, feedback is a negative response that tells the learner how well the task was completed - during the learning process of a motor skill, feedback is a positive or negative response that tells the learner how well the task was completed - inherent feedback is the sensory information that tells the learner how well the task was completed

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - during the learning process of a motor skill, feedback is a positive or negative response that tells the learner how well the task was completed - inherent feedback is the sensory information that tells the learner how well the task was completed

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - fatiguing muscles place increasing demands on the central mechanisms driving motor behaviour - fatiguing muscles place decreasing demands on the central mechanisms driving motor behaviour - cognitive performance of task is affected by motor fatigue - cognitive performance of task is not affected by motor fatigue

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - fatiguing muscles place increasing demands on the central mechanisms driving motor behaviour - cognitive performance of task is affected by motor fatigue

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - performing a motor task for long periods of time induces motor fatigue - motor fatigue is generally defined as an increase in a person's ability to exert force - in submaximal contractions associated with muscle fatigue, the central nervous system is already not able to elicit a constant force - in submaximal contractions associated with muscle fatigue, the central nervous system may still elicit a constant force

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - performing a motor task for long periods of time induces motor fatigue - in submaximal contractions associated with muscle fatigue, the central nervous system may still elicit a constant force

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - for optimal performance of motor skill any moderate stress or arousal is needed - for optimal performance of motor skill moderate stress or arousal is needed - fatigue impacts an individual in: perceptual changes, slowing of performance, irregularity of timing, and disorganization of performance - loss of vigilance has not got effect on motor skills

Which is/are true of the motor skills: - for optimal performance of motor skill moderate stress or arousal is needed - fatigue impacts an individual in: perceptual changes, slowing of performance, irregularity of timing, and disorganization of performance

Which method can be used to detect cerebrospinal fluid leak: - measurement of pledgets soaked with the secretion - brain perfusion scintigraphy with SPECT imaging - radionuclide cisternography - bone scan of the scull

Which method can be used to detect cerebrospinal fluid leak: - measurement of pledgets soaked with the secretion - radionuclide cisternography

Which of the following NSAIDs is/are COX-2 selective? - celecoxib - ibuprofen - etoricoxib - aspirin

Which of the following NSAIDs is/are COX-2 selective? - celecoxib - etoricoxib

Which of the following acid base disturbances do you expect in septic shock? - metabolic acidosis - metabolic alkalosis - mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis - respiratory acidosis

Which of the following acid base disturbances do you expect in septic shock? - metabolic acidosis - mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

Which of the following are not considered to be the most frequent complications of retroperitoneal trauma : - paralytic ileus - abscess - hepatic failure - urinary stones

Which of the following are *not* considered to be the most frequent complications of retroperitoneal trauma : - hepatic failure - urinary stones

Which of the following can be used for detection of CSF leaks? - CT angiography - scintigraphy /isotope test/ - CT cisternography - ultrasound

Which of the following can be used for detection of CSF leaks? - scintigraphy /isotope test/ - CT cisternography (CSF rhinorrhea or CSF otorrhea (CSF leaks))

Which of the following changes are typical of a patient who has lost 10% of their intravascular blood volume? - shock - orthostatic hypotension - cold sweaty skin - increase in heart rate

Which of the following changes are typical of a patient who has lost 10% of their intravascular blood volume? - orthostatic hypotension - increase in heart rate

Which of the following changes in the development of osteoarthritis has significant pathogenetic importance if seen early in the disease? - chronic inflammation of the cartilage - proliferation of synovial cells - change in the composition of cartilage proteoglycans - numerical atrophy of chondrocyte populations in articular cartilage

Which of the following changes in the development of osteoarthritis has significant pathogenetic importance if seen early in the disease? - change in the composition of cartilage proteoglycans - numerical atrophy of chondrocyte populations in articular cartilage

Which of the following conditions are associated with multiple bone involvement? - fibrous dysplasia - osteoid osteoma - osteoblastoma - enchondroma

Which of the following conditions are associated with multiple bone involvement? - fibrous dysplasia - enchondroma

Which of the following conditions contribute to acute heat loss? - septic shock - alcohol intoxication - malnutrition - uremia

Which of the following conditions contribute to acute heat loss? - septic shock - alcohol intoxication (acute conditions)

Which of the following diseases are associated with the failure of excitation-contraction-relaxation cycle? - Duchenne's muscular dystrophy - myotonia - malignant hyperthermia - multiple sclerosis

Which of the following diseases are associated with the failure of excitation-contraction-relaxation cycle? - myotonia - malignant hyperthermia

Which of the following diseases is/are characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation? - osteoporosis - osteomalacia - gouty arthritis - articular deposition of uric acid salts

Which of the following diseases is/are characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation - gouty arthritis - articular deposition of uric acid salts

Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase? - aspirin - tramadol - ibuprofen - warfarin

Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase? - aspirin - ibuprofen

Which of the following drugs or toxins will result in skeletal muscle paralysis? - curare - atropine - botulinum toxin - nicotine

Which of the following drugs or toxins will result in skeletal muscle paralysis? - curare - botulinum toxin

Which of the following is/are NOT typical of rheumatoid arthritis? - deposits of uric acid in the joint cavity - presence of IgG autoantibodies called rheumatoid factor - nonspecific growth of granulation tissue - pannus in joint space - antinuclear antibodies in serum (ANCA)

Which of the following is/are NOT typical of rheumatoid arthritis? - deposits of uric acid in the joint cavity - antinuclear antibodies in serum (ANCA)

Which of the following is/are short-lasting corticoids: - prednisone - methylprednisolone - dexamethasone - betamethasone

Which of the following is/are short-lasting corticoids: - prednisone - methylprednisolone (lavest i alfabetet B + D, lengre varighet) 1. Hydrocortisone 2. Prednisone 3. Prednisolone 4. Methylprednisolone 5. Triamcinolone 6. Betamethasone 7. Dexamethasone

Which of the following is/are suitable for replantation in upper limbs: - local infiltration anaesthesia - contact anaesthesia - general anaesthesia - blockage of peripheral nerves

Which of the following is/are suitable for replantation in upper limbs: - general anaesthesia+ - blockage of peripheral nerves+

Which of the following mechanisms participate in heat stroke development? - blockage of blood flow to the brain - failure of mechanisms of temperature regulation - heat induced swelling of brain tissue - extreme constriction of all blood vessels

Which of the following mechanisms participate in heat stroke development? - failure of mechanisms of temperature regulation - heat induced swelling of brain tissue

Which of the following statements concerning the lesion of a primary motor cortex are true? - the lesion leads to loss of movement pattern generation - the lesion leads to loss of fine motor control - the lesion leads to loss of spatial relations and the body image detection - the lesion leads to loss of muscle tone modulation via projections to the pontine and medullary reticular formation

Which of the following statements concerning the lesion of a primary motor cortex are true? - the lesion leads to loss of fine motor control - the lesion leads to loss of muscle tone modulation via projections to the pontine and medullary reticular formation

Which of the following symptoms would most likely be seen as a result of damage to the vagus nerve? - weak, raspy voice - a weak palate deviation - impaired secretion of salivatory glands - impaired secretion of lacrimal gland

Which of the following symptoms would most likely be seen as a result of damage to the vagus nerve? - weak, raspy voice - a weak palate deviation (vagus nerve is motor to the palate elevators )

Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see in a patient who has had a long lasting lesion of the left hypoglossal nerve? - when asked to stick the tongue straight out, the tongue deviates to the patient's right - the tongue is atrophied on the left - there is increased tone on the left side of the tongue - there is increased tone on the right side of the tongue

Which of the following will be present in a patient with spinal shock syndrome? - movement impairment - high heart rate - low blood pressure - loss of proprioception

Which of the following will be present in a patient with spinal shock syndrome? - movement impairment - loss of proprioception

Which parts of the growing skeleton are least resistant to trauma? - diaphysis - metaphysis - growth plate - periarticular ligaments

Which parts of the growing skeleton are least resistant to trauma? - metaphysis+ - growth plate+

Which parts of the knee are injured in "unhappy triad"? - lateral meniscus - medial meniscus - posterior cruciate ligament - medial collateral ligament

Which parts of the knee are injured in "unhappy triad"? - medial meniscus+ - medial collateral ligament+

Which population of patients is predisposed to hypovolemic shock? - elderly patients - patients in pubescence - middle aged persons - infants

Which population of patients is predisposed to hypovolemic shock? - elderly patients - infants ...oldest and youngest

Which radiopharmaceutical is used for renal cortical imaging (renal parenchyma): - Tc-99m dimerkaptosuccinic acid - Tc-99m HDP - Tc-99m HMPAO - Tc-99m DMSA

Which radiopharmaceutical is used for renal cortical imaging (renal parenchyma): - Tc-99m dimerkaptosuccinic acid - Tc-99m DMSA

Which radiopharmaceutical is used for testicular scintigraphy? - Tc-99m pertechnetate - Tc-99m MAG3 - Tc-99m sodium pertechnetate - Tc-99m DTPA

Which radiopharmaceutical is used for testicular scintigraphy? - Tc-99m pertechnetate - Tc-99m sodium pertechnetate

Which radiopharmaceuticals can be used for dynamic kidney scintigraphy? - I-123 iophlupan - Tc-99m MAG3 - Tc-99m pertechnetate - Tc-99m DTPA

Which radiopharmaceuticals can be used for dynamic kidney scintigraphy? - Tc-99m MAG3 - Tc-99m DTPA

Which statement is/are true of a fracture of the left 10th rib: - it mostly injures a kidney - it mostly injures the spleen - the colon isn´t injured - the right liver lobe is usually injured

Which statement is/are true of a fracture of the left 10th rib: - it mostly injures the spleen - the colon isn´t injured

Which symptoms are present in a flail chest injury? - dyspnea and cyanosis - hypertension - paradoxical motion of segments of the chest wall - retrosternal pain

Which symptoms are present in a flail chest injury? - dyspnea and cyanosis - paradoxical motion of segments of the chest wall

Which therapy is effective for prevention of posthypoxic brain injury (non-traumatic): - corticosteroids - mild hypothermia - hypotension induced by vasodilatators - hypothermia till 34 deg core temperature

Which therapy is effective for prevention of posthypoxic brain injury (non-traumatic) - mild hypothermia - hypothermia till 34 deg core temperature

William Haddon (UK) - engineer working in traffic safety: - defined strategy of injury prevention in 7 parts - divided the time when injury occurs into 3 phases - defined strategy of injury prevention in 10 parts - divided the time when injury occurs into 4 phases

William Haddon (UK) - engineer working in traffic safety: - divided the time when injury occurs into 3 phases - defined strategy of injury prevention in 10 parts

With a penetrating wound in right mesogastrium, we suspect the following injured organs: - kidney, head of the pancreas, spleen - small intestine, ascending colon, kidney - stomach, gallbladder, descending colon - head of the pancreas, kidney, duodenum

With a penetrating wound in right mesogastrium, we suspect the following injured organs: - small intestine, ascending colon, kidney - head of the pancreas, kidney, duodenum

Wounds penetrating the chest could result in: - a tracheal lesion - a urinary bladder lesion - ureter dissection - a pneumothorax

Wounds penetrating the chest could result in: - a tracheal lesion - a pneumothorax

X-ray after osteosynthesis is made mostly: - postoperatively and 2nd, 6th, 12th week and after 3, 6 and 12 month - two standard projection - mostly irregularly - X-ray in operating room after osteosynthesis is sufficient

X-ray after osteosynthesis is made mostly: - postoperatively and 2nd, 6th, 12th week and after 3, 6 and 12 month+ - two standard projection+

X-ray examination of posterior wall of the acetabulum: - patient lies on the unaffected side of the body - CT examination is indicated - dislocation of femoral head in fracture of posterior wall can be seen only on CT - X-ray of pelvis is necessary to make

X-ray examination of posterior wall of the acetabulum: - CT examination is indicated+ - X-ray of pelvis is necessary to make+

X-ray examination of the acetabular fractures: - Letournel's projection complement classical AP view - affected side is displaced from the ground by obturator oblique view - Letournel's projection includes „inlet and outlet view" - AP projectionis performed in 90 degrees flection in hip joint

X-ray examination of the acetabular fractures: - Letournel's projection complement classical AP view+ - affected side is displaced from the ground by obturator oblique view+

X-ray investigation most often use: - plain radiographs, preferably in two planes - CT and MRI - arthrography with contrast medium - scintigraphy

X-ray investigation most often use: - plain radiographs, preferably in two planes+ - CT and MRI+

Which of the following statements is/are true of achondroplasia? - it is a synonym for fetal chondrodystrophia - long term survival is seen in homozygotes with mutations of FGFR3 gene - long term survival is seen in heterozygotes with mutations of FGFR3 gene - is caused by erroneous endesmal ossification

achondroplasia - it is a synonym for fetal chondrodystrophia - long term survival is seen in heterozygotes with mutations of FGFR3 gene

Which is/are true of the age of patients with musculoskeletal tumors: - chondrosarcoma is typical tumor of children and adolescents - up to 10 years is a frequent occurrence of Ewing's sarcoma of long bones - between 10-20 years of age is a frequent incidence of osteosarcoma - primary bone tumors are frequent in elderly

age of patients with musculoskeletal tumors: - up to 10 years is a frequent occurrence of Ewing's sarcoma of long bones+ - between 10-20 years of age is a frequent incidence of osteosarcoma+

Which of the following is/are true of ankylosing spondylitis? - it is an ankylosing disease - it is an osteoarthritis localized on vertebrae - it is a form of rickets - it is a seronegative arthropathy

ankylosing spondylitis? - it is an ankylosing disease - it is a seronegative arthropathy

Which is/are true of a biopsy of bone tumors: - when a clear diagnosis of malignant tumor biopsies usually do not perform - biopsy is the last link in the diagnostic procedure used for rapid diagnosis - a biopsy using a standard surgical approaches - access is chosen along the longitudinal axis of the limb at the point where it is closest to the surface extra-osteal component, calmly through the muscles try not to contaminate the blood vessels and nerves

biopsy of bone tumors: - biopsy is the last link in the diagnostic procedure used for rapid diagnosis+ - access is chosen along the longitudinal axis of the limb at the point where it is closest to the surface extra-osteal component, calmly through the muscles try not to contaminate the blood vessels and nerves+

Which is/are true of bone metastases: - only tumors occurring in adulthood metastasize to bone - prostate cancer and some types of breast cancer form osteolytic metastases in bone, most metastases of other organs have osteoplastic character - pathological fracture can sometimes be the first sign of cancer - solitary metastasis in an unknown source always treat cancer radically, because we cannot exclude a primary bone tumor

bone metastases: - pathological fracture can sometimes be the first sign of cancer+ - solitary metastasis in an unknown source always treat cancer radically, because we cannot exclude a primary bone tumor+

Which of the following diseases is/are more common in *older males*? - fibrous dysplasia - Rickets - Paget's disease - bone metastases

more common in *older males* - Paget's disease - bone metastases

Which of the following are central muscle-relaxant drugs: - tetrazepam and tizanidine - tolperisone and bromazepam - tinidazole and tolperisone - thiocolchicoside and tolperisone

central muscle-relaxant drugs: - tetrazepam and tizanidine - thiocolchicoside and tolperisone

Choose the correct statements about central myorelaxants: - most commonly used during general anaesthesia - are suitable for long-term treatment of back pain - are suitable for short-term treatment - are suitable for treatment of muscle spasms

central myorelaxants: - are suitable for short-term treatment - are suitable for treatment of muscle spasms general anaesthesia (peripheral m. relaxants)

Which is/are true of chondroma: - tumor mainly occurs in long bones, in the bones of the hand are rare - is characterized by formation of mature cartilage - occurs in three forms - chondroma inside the bones (enchondroma), chondroma on the surface of bone and calcifying and ossifying chondroma - enchondromas of short bones are potentially malignant, enchondromas of long bones and trunk are markedly benign, mostly not turn malignant

chondroma: - is characterized by formation of mature cartilage+ - occurs in three forms - chondroma inside the bones (enchondroma), chondroma on the surface of bone and calcifying and ossifying chondroma+

Which is/are true of chondrosarcoma: - is a highly malignant tumor of children and adolescents - occurs most often in the pelvis, where it remains clinically silent for a long time - on angiography is highly vascularized - prognosis is relatively poor for the often subtle symptoms, it metastasizes relatively late into the lungs

chondrosarcoma 40-60 y: - occurs most often in the pelvis, where it remains clinically silent for a long time+ - prognosis is relatively poor for the often subtle symptoms, it metastasizes relatively late into the lungs+

Which is/are true of the clinical symptoms of patients with musculoskeletal tumors: - general symptoms usually occur at the beginning of disease - extra-osteal ingredient without pathologic fracture is almost definite sign of malignancy - a pathological fracture occurs only in malignant tumors - to limit limb function or joint occurs, especially in malignant tumors and tumors near the joint

clinical symptoms of patients with musculoskeletal tumors: - extra-osteal ingredient without pathologic fracture is almost definite sign of malignancy+ - to limit limb function or joint occurs, especially in malignant tumors and tumors near the joint+

Which of the following is/are clinically significant late complication/s of osteoarthritis? - thickening of subchondral bone - joint effusions - loss of cartilage - atrophy of synovial membrane

clinically significant late complication/s of osteoarthritis - thickening of subchondral bone - loss of cartilage

Which is/are true of the conception of rehabilitation: - it was recently recommended that clinical practice in MS, including rehabilitation, should be based on the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), a globally-agreed-upon framework of the World Health Organization - impairment means a problem experienced by an individual in involvement in life situations - a difficulty encountered by an individual in executing a task or action is described as activity limitation - a difficulty encountered by an individual in executing a task or action is described as disability

conception of rehabilitation - it was recently recommended that clinical practice in MS, including rehabilitation, should be based on the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), a globally-agreed-upon framework of the World Health Organization - a difficulty encountered by an individual in executing a task or action is described as activity limitation

Choose the correct statements about dantrolene: - it is a central myorelaxant - it is a peripheral myorelaxant - it increases the intracytoplasmic concentration of calcium - it is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia

dantrolene - it is a central myorelaxant - it is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia

In decompensated shock: - lactic acidosis is present - vegetative nervous system ensures maintenance of blood pressure - vegetative nervous system ensures maintenance of cardiac output - arteriolar vasoconstriction results in decreased perfusion of the kidneys

decompensated shock - lactic acidosis is present - arteriolar vasoconstriction results in decreased perfusion of the kidneys

In decompensated shock: - blood pressure decreases due to vasoconstriction - blood pressure decreases due to vessel paralysis - tissue edema develops due to increased intracapillary pressure - hypoxemia may develop

decompensated shock - blood pressure decreases due to vessel paralysis - tissue edema develops due to increased intracapillary pressure

Which is/are true of the diagnosis of bone tumors: - alkaline phosphatase and its isoenzymes are usually normal - for plasmacytoma is often positive Bence Jones protein and the typical finding of immunoelectrophoresis of proteins - scintigraphy provides information about the localization process and serves to exclude silent bearings in other skeletal - angiography is nowadays practically omitted because it was replaced by MRI

diagnosis of bone tumors: - for plasmacytoma is often positive Bence Jones protein and the typical finding of immunoelectrophoresis of proteins+ - scintigraphy provides information about the localization process and serves to exclude silent bearings in other skeletal+ Plasmacytoma refers to a malignant plasma cell tumor growing within soft tissue or within the axial skeleton. urine analysis for Bence Jones protein. maybe isoenzymes are wrong

Diazepam acts as: - a central myorelaxant - a peripheral myorelaxant - a spasmolytic agent - an anticonvulsant drug

diazepam - a central myorelaxant - an anticonvulsant drug

Which of the following diseases are more likely to present in males? - Paget's disease - rheumatoid arthritis - gout - osteoporosis

more likely to present in males? - Paget's disease - gout

Which is/are true of the division and classification of bone tumors: - according to surgical stage tumors can be divided into benign (G0), low-grade malignancy (G1) and a high degree of malignancy (G2) - classic osteosarcoma among tumors with low-grade malignancy - denoted as intra compartmental tumors growing only in the bone - the boundary between compartments (bone and surrounding soft tissues) is a superficial layer of hard cortical bone

division and classification of bone tumors: - according to surgical stage tumors can be divided into benign (G0), low-grade malignancy (G1) and a high degree of malignancy (G2)+ - denoted as intra compartmental tumors growing only in the bone+

In the early stages of shock, blood is shunted toward the: - brain - skin - muscle - heart

early stages of shock, blood is shunted toward the: - brain - heart

Which of the following is/are true of enthesitis? - it is associated with Bechterew disease - calcifications do not occur - it is associated with rickets - it is associated with ankylosing spondylitis

enthesitis (Enthesitis is inflammation of the entheses, the sites where tendons or ligaments insert into the bone) - it is associated with Bechterew disease - it is associated with ankylosing spondylitis

Which of the following diseases is/are characterized by excessive bone remodeling? - osteomalacia - Paget's disease - hyperparathyroidism - osteoporosis

excessive bone remodeling - Paget's disease - hyperparathyroidism

Which condition is/are characterized by exophytic protrusions affecting bones of the skull? - fibrous dysplasia - osteoma - Gardner's syndrome - Enchondroma

exophytic protrusions affecting bones of the skull - osteoma - Gardner's syndrome remember: osteoma + gardner -> FACE

Which of the following factors are involved in the formation and development of osteoporosis? - serum parathyroid hormone - long-term confinement to bed - postmenopause - aldosteronism

following factors are involved in the formation and development of osteoporosis - long-term confinement to bed - postmenopause

Forced diuresis: - means that a certain amount of the patients whole blood is removed and replaced with another volume of whole blood - represents a convenient and safe detoxification method especially in cardiac patients or in changed ion or acid-base balance - is used to speed up elimination of toxic substance in an intoxicated patient - is achieved by increased hydration (oral or intravenous) and oral or IV diuretic administration

forced diuresis - is used to speed up elimination of toxic substance in an intoxicated patient - is achieved by increased hydration (oral or intravenous) and oral or IV diuretic administration

Which of the following is/are characteristic for gouty arthritis? - deposited calcium salts into joints - acute inflammation of joints - crystals cause arthritis by the toxic effect on chondrocytes - birefringent crystals are found in joint fluid

gouty arthritis? - acute inflammation of joints - birefringent crystals are found in joint fluid

Which is/are true of the healing process of fractures: - the replacement of the hyaline cartilage and woven bone with lamellar bone is known as endochondral ossification - the lamellar bone begins forming soon after the collagen matrix of either tissue becomes mineralized - the osteoblasts does not form new lamellar bone upon the recently exposed surface of the mineralized matrix - new lamellar bone is not in the form of trabecular bone

healing process of fractures: - the replacement of the hyaline cartilage and woven bone with lamellar bone is known as endochondral ossification - the lamellar bone begins forming soon after the collagen matrix of either tissue becomes mineralized

Which is/are true of the healing process of fractures: - days after fracture, the cells of the periosteum replicate and transform - the periosteal cells proximal to the fracture gap develop into osteoblasts which form woven bone - the periosteal cells distal to (further from) the fracture gap develop into chondroblasts which form hyaline cartilage - hyaline cartilage and woven bone unite with their counterparts from other parts of the fracture. These processes culminate in a new mass of heterogeneous tissue which is known as the fracture casus

healing process of fractures: - days after fracture, the cells of the periosteum replicate and transform - hyaline cartilage and woven bone unite with their counterparts from other parts of the fracture. These processes culminate in a new mass of heterogeneous tissue which is known as the fracture casus

Which is/are true of the healing process of fractures: - the first change after fracture is the presence of blood cells within the tissues adjacent to the injury site - within a few hours after fracture, the extravascular blood cells form a hematoma - all of the cells within the blood clot survive and replicate - within this same area, the fibroblasts degenerate and die

healing process of fractures: - the first change after fracture is the presence of blood cells within the tissues adjacent to the injury site - within a few hours after fracture, the extravascular blood cells form a hematoma

Which is/are true of the healing process of fractures: - the healing process is mainly determined by the periosteum - the periosteum is one source of precursor cells which develop into chondroblasts and osteoblasts that are essential to the healing of bone - the bone marrow, endosteum, small blood vessels, and fibroblasts are not other sources of precursor cells - the periosteum is not the connective tissue membrane covering the bone

healing process of fractures: - the healing process is mainly determined by the periosteum - the periosteum is one source of precursor cells which develop into chondroblasts and osteoblasts that are essential to the healing of bone

Which is/are true of the healing process of fractures: - the remodelling process substitutes the trabecular bone with compact bone - in the remodelling process, the trabecular bone is first desorbed by osteoclasts - in the remodeling process, the trabecular bone is first desorbed by osteoblasts - the remodelling phase takes 3 to 5 months

healing process of fractures: - the remodelling process substitutes the trabecular bone with compact bone - in the remodelling process, the trabecular bone is first desorbed by osteoclasts

Which of the following is/are the most common locations for osteoblastoma? - phalanx of fingers - a long bone - spine - bones of the skull

most common locations for osteoblastoma - a long bone - spine

Which is/are true of the healing process of fractures: - there are three major phases of fracture healing - there are two major phases of fracture healing - reparative Phase includes granulation tissue formative - reparative Phase includes lamellar bone deposition

healing process of fractures: - there are three major phases of fracture healing - reparative Phase includes lamellar bone deposition

Which of the following diseases can be associated with hearing problems? - osteogenesis imperfecta - achondroplasia - osteoporosis - purulent mastitis

hearing problems? - osteogenesis imperfecta - purulent mastitis

Hemodialysis: - represents one of the most effective modes of toxic substance elimination - means that a certain amount of the patients whole blood is removed and replaced with another volume of whole blood - is well effective in long-lasting barbiturates, methanol, lithium or toadstool intoxications - cannot be used in remarkable acid-basic imbalances (e.g. acidosis)

hemodialysis - represents one of the most effective modes of toxic substance elimination - is well effective in long-lasting barbiturates, methanol, lithium or toadstool intoxications

Which is/are true of the immobilization: - functional electrical stimulation and biofeedback training during immobilization can increase or maintain muscular strength - functional electrical stimulation and biofeedback training during immobilization cannot increase or maintain muscular strength - after trauma to the soft tissue and bone, immobilization in a cast with non-weight-bearing status can lead to changes that are difficult to reverse later - immobilization does not influence cartilage

immobilization: - functional electrical stimulation and biofeedback training during immobilization can increase or maintain muscular strength - after trauma to the soft tissue and bone, immobilization in a cast with non-weight-bearing status can lead to changes that are difficult to reverse later

Which is/are true of the immobilization: - a muscle at complete rest loses 30% its strength each week - nearly half of normal strength is lost within 3 to 5 weeks of immobilization - the antigravity muscles are reported to experience greater loss of strength than other skeletal muscles with inactivity - the phasic muscles are reported to experience greater loss of strength than other skeletal muscles with inactivity

immobilization: - nearly half of normal strength is lost within 3 to 5 weeks of immobilization - the antigravity muscles are reported to experience greater loss of strength than other skeletal muscles with inactivity

Which joints are most frequently affected in *osteoarthritis*? - elbow joint - hip - knee - there is NO topical predilection

joints are most frequently affected in *osteoarthritis* - hip - knee

Ketamine: - is an associative general anaesthetic - is an effective analgesic advantageously used in bone and muscular pain, and in burns - causes respiratory depression, cannot be used in asthma - does not cause respiratory depression, it is a bronchodilator

ketamine - is an effective analgesic advantageously used in bone and muscular pain, and in burns - does not cause respiratory depression, it is a bronchodilator

Lidocaine: - is used in a pressor response to tracheal intubation (IV bolus) - in topical application induces strong, fast, only several minutes lasting local anaesthetic effect - in topical application induces strong, fast, 1-2 hours lasting local anaesthetic effect - can be used as antiarrhythmic in bradycardia

lidocaine - is used in a pressor response to tracheal intubation (IV bolus) - in topical application induces strong, fast, 1-2 hours lasting local anaesthetic effect

Lidocaine is a: - general anaesthetics - local anaesthetics - spasmolytics - antiarrhythmics

lidocaine - local anaesthetics - antiarrhythmics

Which is/are true of the ligament damage & repair: - the remodelling phase can last for up to half of year - the remodelling phase can last for up to a year - risk of re-injury in the remodelling phase can be minimalized by providing additional stability with a strapping, increasing the strength of muscles which also provide support to the joint, and by doing proprioceptive exercises to increase the patient's sense of joint positioning - risk of re-injury in the remodelling phase can be minimalized by rest from activity, ice compression, elevation and the administration of anti-inflammatory medication

ligament damage & repair: - the remodelling phase can last for up to a year - risk of re-injury in the remodelling phase can be minimalized by providing additional stability with a strapping, increasing the strength of muscles which also provide support to the joint, and by doing proprioceptive exercises to increase the patient's sense of joint positioning

Which is/are true of the ligament damage & repair: - rehabilitation starts in acute/inflammatory stage - in inflammatory stage, protection of the injured part from further damage (e.g. the use of crutches) and rest from activity involving the injured part is recommended - in inflammatory stage, cryotherapy is recommended - in inflammatory stage, thermotherapy is recommended

ligament damage & repair: - in inflammatory stage, protection of the injured part from further damage (e.g. the use of crutches) and rest from activity involving the injured part is recommended - in inflammatory stage, cryotherapy is recommended Cryotherapy is the local or general use of low temperatures in medical therapy.

Local anaesthetics: - can be mutually combined within the same drug group - are commonly combined with vasodilators - are used in lower doses, when injected into soft and hyperemic tissues or in higher pH - are used in lower doses, when injected into inflammatory tissue

local anesthetics - can be mutually combined within the same drug group - are used in lower doses, when injected into soft and hyperemic tissues or in higher pH

Local anaesthetics: - cannot be used intra-articularly - some local anaesthetics can be used as antiarrhythmics - some local anaesthetics can be used as cardiotonics - can be favorably used together with epinephrine for infiltrative application (into the tissue)

local anesthetics - some local anaesthetics can be used as antiarrhythmics (lidocaine) - can be favorably used together with epinephrine for infiltrative application (into the tissue) "Epinephrine (adrenaline) vasoconstricts arteries, reducing bleeding and also delays the resorption of lidocaine, almost doubling the duration of anaesthesia. "

Which is/are true of the medical history in patients with musculoskeletal tumors: - medical history usually does not provide any important information - patients usually complain of pain - pain is often promoted to the neighboring joint - pain occurs only during exercise

medical history in patients with musculoskeletal tumors: - patients usually complain of pain+ - pain is often promoted to the neighboring joint+

Which is/are true of the muscles: - changes in muscular tone create a muscle imbalance - muscle imbalance does not lead to movement dysfunction - imbalances and movement dysfunctions may have direct effect on joint surfaces, thus potentially leading to joint degeneration - imbalances and movement dysfunctions do not influence joint surfaces

muscles: - changes in muscular tone create a muscle imbalance - imbalances and movement dysfunctions may have direct effect on joint surfaces, thus potentially leading to joint degeneration

Which is/are true of the muscles: - tibialis Posterior is prone to Weakness or Inhibition - deep neck flexors are prone to Weakness or Inhibition - piriformis is prone to Tightness or Shortness - tibialis Anterior is prone to Tightness or Shortness

muscles: - deep neck flexors are prone to Weakness or Inhibition - piriformis is prone to Tightness or Shortness

Which is/are true of the muscles: - muscle imbalances are not spread throughout the muscular system in a predictable manner - muscle imbalances are spread throughout the muscular system in a predictable manner - "Upper Crossed Syndrome" is known as "cervical crossed syndrome" - "Layer Syndrome" is known as "pelvic crossed syndrome"

muscles: - muscle imbalances are spread throughout the muscular system in a predictable manner - "Upper Crossed Syndrome" is known as "cervical crossed syndrome"

Which is/are true of the muscles: - normalization of afferent information entering the sensorimotor system can be reached by correcting the biomechanics of a peripheral joint (through manual therapy techniques) - in the presence of tight and/or short antagonistic muscles, restoring normal muscle toe and/or length must first be addressed - in the presence of tight and/or short antagonistic muscles, to strengthen a weakened or inhibited muscle must first be addressed - there are not specific techniques to decrease muscle tone (specific to the cause of the hypertonicity)

muscles: - normalization of afferent information entering the sensorimotor system can be reached by correcting the biomechanics of a peripheral joint (through manual therapy techniques) - in the presence of tight and/or short antagonistic muscles, restoring normal muscle tone and/or length must first be addressed

Which is/are true of the muscles: - tensor Fascia Lata is prone to Weakness or Inhibition - peroneus Longus, Brevis are prone to Weakness or Inhibition - quadratus Lumborum is prone to Tightness or Shortness - hamstrings are prone to Tightness or Shortness

muscles: - peroneus Longus, Brevis are prone to Weakness or Inhibition - hamstrings are prone to Tightness or Shortness

Which is/are true of the muscles: - absolute strength of muscles are more important than coordinated firing patterns of muscle - the strongest muscle is not functional if it cannot contract quickly and in coordination with other muscles - isolated muscle strengthening is recommended - muscles are facilitated to contract at the proper time during coordinated movement patterns to provide reflexive joint stabilization

muscles: - the strongest muscle is not functional if it cannot contract quickly and in coordination with other muscles - muscles are facilitated to contract at the proper time during coordinated movement patterns to provide reflexive joint stabilization

Which is/are true of the muscles: - there are three groups of muscles based on their phylogenetic development - the tonic system consists of the "flexors" - the tonic system is phylogenetically younger - the tonic system is involved in repetitive or rhythmic activity

muscles: - the tonic system consists of the "flexors" - the tonic system is involved in repetitive or rhythmic activity

Which is/are true of the muscles: - treatment of muscle imbalance and movement impairment begins with normalizing afferent information entering the sensorimotor system - afferent information entering the sensorimotor system is not possible to influence - normalization of afferent information entering the sensorimotor system includes providing an optimal environment for healing (by reducing effusion and protection of healing tissues) - normalization of afferent information entering the sensorimotor system does not include restoring proper postural alignment (through postural and ergonomic education)

muscles: - treatment of muscle imbalance and movement impairment begins with normalizing afferent information entering the sensorimotor system - normalization of afferent information entering the sensorimotor system includes providing an optimal environment for healing (by reducing effusion and protection of healing tissues)

Which is/are true of the muscles: - the phasic system consists of the "flexors", and emerges shortly after birth - muscles of phasic system work eccentrically against the force of gravity - muscles of phasic system emerge in extensor synergies - the phasic system is involved in repetitive or rhythmic activity

muscles: - muscles of phasic system work eccentrically against the force of gravity - muscles of phasic system emerge in extensor synergies

Which is/are true of myeloma: - is a rare disease of bone, usually occurs in other locations - maximum of occurrence is to 30 years of age - with multiple occurrence of the spine due to pathological fractures may occur up to the loss of height - surgical treatment of the multiple disability mostly limited to the treatment of pathological fractures

myeloma: - with multiple occurrence of the spine due to pathological fractures may occur up to the loss of height+ - surgical treatment of the multiple disability mostly limited to the treatment of pathological fractures+ 65 +

Which of the following statements regarding opioid analgesics is/are correct? - pain relief provided by opioids increases with age - the combination with paracetamol increases their analgesic efficacy - opioid analgesics should never be given to patients with chronic pain - in acute pain, the risk of inducing opioid-dependence is negligible

opioid analgesics - the combination with paracetamol increases their analgesic efficacy - in acute pain, the risk of inducing opioid-dependence is negligible (so small or unimportant)

Which is/are true of the organization of rehabilitation: - the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health is known as ICF - the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health is known as ICFDH - based on the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health, Disability is something that only happens to a minority of humanity - domains of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health classify an individual's functioning and disability in a context of environmental factors

organization of rehabilitation - the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health is known as ICF - domains of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health classify an individual's functioning and disability in a context of environmental factors

Which of the following symptoms is /are seen in osteoarthritis? - sclerosis of bone tissue - formation of osteophytes - bone ankylosis - pannus formation

osteoarthritis? - sclerosis of bone tissue - formation of osteophytes (bone spurs, bone projections) (ankylosis = fusion of bones, panus formation/unspecific granulation tissue is found in rheumatoid arthritis)

Which is/are true of osteoclastoma: - it is usually benign tumor occurring in the epiphyses of long bones - typically occurs in old age - tumor often recurs and often not turn malignant - during surgery we remove tumor and fill cavity by bone cement, if we reach a recurrence approximately 2 years after we fill it by bone grafting

osteoclastoma: - typically occurs in old age+ - during surgery we remove tumor and fill cavity by bone cement, if we reach a recurrence approximately 2 years after we fill it by bone grafting+ isn't it the opposite? - young age 20 + - benign, often not malignant - occurs in epiphysis?

Which is/are true of osteoid osteoma: - is a benign tumor characterized by rest and nocturnal pain - occurs mainly in the flat bones (e.g. pelvis) - X-ray is often apparent brightening of the association bearing sizes up to 1 cm with perifocal osteosclerosis - tumor is an urgent need to remove, as they often turn malignant

osteoid osteoma: - is a benign tumor characterized by rest and nocturnal pain+ - X-ray is often apparent brightening of the association bearing sizes up to 1 cm with perifocal osteosclerosis+

Which of the following is/are associated with osteomalacia? - osteosarcoma - Rickets - chronic renal insufficiency - immobilization of bones

osteomalacia - Rickets - chronic renal insufficiency

Which of the following statements is/are true of osteopetrosis? - it is the synonym for Paget's disease of bone - it is a genetic defect in fibrillin - patients show stenosis of bone marrow with widespread cortical bone - is a disturbance of resorption of immature bone

osteopetrosis - patients show stenosis of bone marrow with widespread cortical bone - is a disturbance of resorption of immature bone

Which is/are true of osteosarcoma: - is a rare malignant bone tumor - most often occurs in first and second decade - most osteosarcomas occur in the shaft of long bones - occurs mainly in the region of the knee (distal femur and proximal tibia)

osteosarcoma: - most often occurs in first and second decade+ - occurs mainly in the region of the knee (distal femur and proximal tibia)+ diaphysis is erwing

Which of the following is/are true of pathological change characterized by quantitative loss of bone tissue with bone thinning? - it is a malignancy that affects younger individuals - it is called osteoporosis - decreases mineralized and non-mineralized tissue components - cartilages are usually dark

pathological change characterized by quantitative loss of bone tissue with bone thinning - it is called osteoporosis - decreases mineralized and non-mineralized tissue components

Choose the correct statements about peripheral muscle-relaxant drugs: - most commonly used during general anaesthesia - suitable for long-term treatment of back pain - suitable for short-term treatment of back pain - effect of some of them is similar to curare

peripheral muscle-relaxant drugs: - most commonly used during general anaesthesia - effect of some of them is similar to curare

Which of the following disease shows the presence of *non-mineralized osteoid formations*? - Rickets - osteomalacia - achondroplasia - osteogenesis imperfecta

presence of *non-mineralized osteoid formations* - Rickets - osteomalacia (achondroplasia: dwarfism, osteogenesis imperfecta - lack of collagen 1)

Which is/are true of the prevention of contractures during immobilization: - do not vary positions of immobile joints regularly - perform active or passive range-of-motion exercises twice daily - do not use resting splints for joints - mobilize as soon as possible after initial stabilization

prevention of contractures during immobilization: - perform active or passive range-of-motion exercises twice daily - mobilize as soon as possible after initial stabilization

Propofol: - is a dissociative intravenous anaesthetic - can be used for conscious sedation (for short-lasting interventions) - causes respiratory depression - is an associative inhalational anaesthetic

propofol - can be used for conscious sedation (for short-lasting interventions) - causes respiratory depression

Which is/are true of radiodiagnostics bone tumors: - clear radiographs have virtually no significance and is replaced by more modern testing - intramedullary dissemination of tumor and its extra-osteal folder appears mainly magnetic resonance - Codman´s triangle we see inside the bones on the MRI and is a response of endosteum to the malignant tumor - for bone tumors is a typical occurrence of periostosis

radiodiagnostics bone tumors: - intramedullary dissemination of tumor and its extra-osteal folder appears mainly magnetic resonance+ - for bone tumors is a typical occurrence of periostosis+

Diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is based on: - clinical symptoms - small joints swelling, deformities, joint effusion, rheumatoid nodules, tendo-vaginitis, vasculitis, skin changes - laboratory: high ESR, anaemia, positive RhF, CRP, ANA (antinuclear antibody) - increased skin temperature of the joints - impossibility of movement in affected joints

rheumatoid arthritis - clinical symptoms - small joints swelling, deformities, joint effusion, rheumatoid nodules, tendo-vaginitis, vasculitis, skin changes - laboratory: high ESR, anaemia, positive RhF, CRP, ANA (antinuclear antibody)

Which of the following statements about secondary injury mechanisms is/are true: - their interruption can decrease tissue damage - are the compensatory mechanisms limiting tissue damage - are similar in all types of tissues - start to develop within a few hours of injury

secondary injury mechanisms - their interruption can decrease tissue damage - are similar in all types of tissues

For the secondary osteoarthritis is typical: - is more common in the weight-bearing joints of the lower limb than upper limb joints - conditions after septic diseases, metabolic diseases (ochronosis, gout), the structural changes (Perthes disease, CVA, DDH, intra-articular fractures) - occurs on the basis of primary (idiopathic) osteoarthritis progression - can be cured conservatively targeted medication (chondroprotection drugs)

secondary osteoarthritis - is more common in the weight-bearing joints of the lower limb than upper limb joints - conditions after septic diseases, metabolic diseases (ochronosis, gout), the structural changes (Perthes disease, CVA, DDH, intra-articular fractures)

Which is/are true of the sensorimotor system: - changes in bones are the first responses to nociception by the sensorimotor system - a reflex loop from the joint capsular mechanoreceptors and the muscles surrounding the joint is responsible for reflexive joint stabilization - a reflex loop from the joint capsular mechanoreceptors and the muscles surrounding the joint is not responsible for reflexive joint stabilization - in chronic instability, deafferentation (the loss of proper afferent information from a joint) is often responsible for poor joint stabilization

sensorimotor system - a reflex loop from the joint capsular mechanoreceptors and the muscles surrounding the joint is responsible for reflexive joint stabilization - in chronic instability, deafferentation (the loss of proper afferent information from a joint) is often responsible for poor joint stabilization

Which is/are true of the sensorimotor system: - in chronic pain is well explained by special diagnostic tests of localized areas (for example, low back radiographs) - the site of pain is often the cause of the pain - chronic pain is centrally-mediated - changes within one part of the sensorimotor system are reflected by compensations or adaptations elsewhere within the system

sensorimotor system - chronic pain is centrally-mediated - changes within one part of the sensorimotor system are reflected by compensations or adaptations elsewhere within the system

Which is/are true of solitary bone cyst following: - is a benign tumor occurring in the first and second decade of life - occurs in the metaphyses of long bones with a maximum in the proximal humerus, femur and tibia - the disease is manifested particularly severe pain by night and responds well to aspirin - we use primarily in the treatment of decompression of cysts, topical administration of corticosteroids, or curettage and bone grafting

solitary bone cyst following: - occurs in the metaphyses of long bones with a maximum in the proximal humerus, femur and tibia+ - we use primarily in the treatment of decompression of cysts, topical administration of corticosteroids, or curettage and bone grafting+

Which of the following is/are true of spondylosis deformans? - it is an ankylosing disease - it is an osteoarthritis localized in vertebrae - it is a form of rickets - it is a degenerative change

spondylosis deformans? - it is an osteoarthritis localized in vertebrae - it is a degenerative change

Choose the correct statements about suxamethonium: - its effect can be abolished by neostigmine - it is a central myorelaxant - it causes induction of action potentials - it has rapid onset and short-term of action

suxamethonium - it causes induction of action potentials - it has rapid onset and short-term of action

Which of the following conditions are associated with systemic manifestations? - osteoarthritis - polyostotic fibrous dysplasia - rheumatoid arthritis - ochronosis

systemic manifestations - polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (also known as "Albright's disease", a form of fibrous dysplasia affecting more than one bone) - rheumatoid arthritis OA can be confined to one area only I think

Which is/are true of the therapy: - due to the myostatic stretch reflex muscle contracts when its tendon is pulled with too much force - due to the inverse stretch reflex muscles relax when lengthened too quickly - due to the myostatic stretch reflex muscle contracts when lengthened too quickly - due to the inverse stretch reflex muscles relax when its tendon is pulled with too much force

therapy: - due to the myostatic stretch reflex muscle contracts when lengthened too quickly - due to the inverse stretch reflex muscles relax when its tendon is pulled with too much force

Which is/are true of the therapy: - in Vojta reflex locomotion, only skeletal and muscle patterns are activated - in Vojta reflex locomotion, swallowing process, bladder and bowel function, and breathing are also activated - in Vojta reflex locomotion, authentic motor reactions is provoked by graded pressure applied on certain body parts which are called "stimulation zones", with the patient placed in these specific positions - positions used in Vojta reflex locomotion are not part of human movement processes

therapy: - in Vojta reflex locomotion, swallowing process, bladder and bowel function, and breathing are also activated - in Vojta reflex locomotion, authentic motor reactions is provoked by graded pressure applied on certain body parts which are called "stimulation zones", with the patient placed in these specific positions

Which is/are true of the therapy: - proprioceptive and exteroceptive stimulation used in Bobath concept is called handling - proprioceptive and exteroceptive stimulation used in Vojta reflex locomotion by stimulating of so called initiation zones in precisely-defined positions - the aim of facilitation approaches is to carry out a specific task - Vojta reflex locomotion is applied only in children

therapy: - proprioceptive and exteroceptive stimulation used in Bobath concept is called handling - proprioceptive and exteroceptive stimulation used in Vojta reflex locomotion by stimulating of so called initiation zones in precisely-defined positions

Which is/are true of the therapy: - proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation represents a task oriented approach - proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation was developed by Herman Kabat, a neurophysiologist, began in 1946 - proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation was developed to look for natural patterns of movement for rehabilitating the muscles of polio patients - proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation was developed by Berta Bobath

therapy: - proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation was developed by Herman Kabat, a neurophysiologist, began in 1946 - proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation was developed to look for natural patterns of movement for rehabilitating the muscles of polio patients

Which is/are true of the therapy: - radiation is when maximal contraction of a muscle recruits the help of additional muscle flexibility - concentric isotonic contraction is when the muscle shortens - eccentric isotonic contraction is when the muscles shortens - isometric contraction is when the muscles shortens

therapy: - radiation is when maximal contraction of a muscle recruits the help of additional muscle flexibility - concentric isotonic contraction is when the muscle shortens

Which is/are true of the therapy: - rhythmic Stabilization encourages stability of the trunk - rhythmic Stabilization does not encourage stability of hip, and shoulder girdle - during Rhythmic Stabilization patients hold a weight-bearing position while the therapist applies manual resistance - during Rhythmic Stabilization patients should not hold a weight-bearing position while the therapist applies manual resistance

therapy: - rhythmic Stabilization encourages stability of the trunk - during Rhythmic Stabilization patients hold a weight-bearing position while the therapist applies manual resistance

Which is/are true of the therapy: - the adaptive changes of the CNS involve unmasking the existing but latent connections - the adaptive changes of the CNS do not involve the experience-dependent increases in the dendritic spines and synaptogenesis - the adaptive changes of the CNS involve modulation of the synaptic efficacy such as Long term potentiation - the adaptive changes of the CNS do not involve modulation of the synaptic efficacy such as term depression

therapy: - the adaptive changes of the CNS involve unmasking the existing but latent connections - the adaptive changes of the CNS involve modulation of the synaptic efficacy such as Long term potentiation

Which is/are true of the therapy: - the cerebellum is connected with the limbic system - the cerebellum is not connected with the limbic system - limbic system can influence the immune system through hypothalamus - limbic system cannot influence the immune system

therapy: - the cerebellum is connected with the limbic system - limbic system can influence the immune system through hypothalamus

Which is/are true of the therapy: - the goal of applying the Bobath concept is to promote motor learning for efficient motor control in various environments - Bobath concept is done through specific patient handling skills to guide patients through initiation and completion of intended tasks - Bobath concept is realized by physiotherapist - Bobath concept is aimed mainly at impairment

therapy: - the goal of applying the Bobath concept is to promote motor learning for efficient motor control in various environments - Bobath concept is done through specific patient handling skills to guide patients through initiation and completion of intended tasks

Which is/are true of the therapy: - motor patterns are genetically determined - motor patterns are not genetically determined - motor patterns are matured in new born baby - motor patterns mature during the course of postural ontogenesis

therapy: - motor patterns are genetically determined - motor patterns mature during the course of postural ontogenesis

Which is/are true of the therapy: - the local twitch response during compression of a trigger point is the same as a muscle spasm - muscle spasm refers to the entire muscle contracting - to treat trigger point, reciprocal inhibition within the musculoskeletal system is recommended - massage is not recommended in treatment of trigger points

therapy: - muscle spasm refers to the entire muscle contracting - to treat trigger point, reciprocal inhibition within the musculoskeletal system is recommended

Which is/are true of the therapy: - post-isometric relaxation is the same as a stretching - post-isometric relaxation is used to relax specific muscles - post-isometric relaxation is used to contract specific muscles - in the first phase of post-isometric relaxation, while inhaling bring the muscle against gravity to a shortened position

therapy: - post-isometric relaxation is used to relax specific muscles - in the first phase of post-isometric relaxation, while inhaling bring the muscle against gravity to a shortened position

Which is/are true of the therapy: - somatosensory afferent stimuli cannot activate deeply encoded motor patterns - repetitive activation of the motor patterns is principle of neuroplasticity - cortical engram is group of neurons - neurons in engram does not fire synchronously during a movement

therapy: - repetitive activation of the motor patterns is principle of neuroplasticity - cortical engram is group of neurons

Which is/are true of the therapy: - the facilitation approach puts the accent on behavioral application of stimuli - the facilitation approach puts the accent on manual application of stimuli - facilitation approach is represented by e.g. Vojta reflex locomotion - facilitation approach is represented by e.g. aerobic training

therapy: - the facilitation approach puts the accent on manual application of stimuli - facilitation approach is represented by e.g. Vojta reflex locomotion

Which is/are true of the therapy: - the task-oriented approach makes use of mainly behavioral requests - patient learns by repeating a given specific task in different environments/under different conditions in the task-oriented approach - the quality of the execution of the task is more important than to carry out a specific task in the task-oriented approach - the task-oriented considers recovery at the impairment level

therapy: - the task-oriented approach makes use of mainly behavioral requests - patient learns by repeating a given specific task in different environments/under different conditions in the task-oriented approach

Which is/are true of the therapy: - trigger points are described as hypo-irritable spots in skeletal muscle - trigger points are associated with palpable nodules in taut bands of muscle fibers - pain in trigger points frequently radiates from trigger points to broader areas, sometimes distant from the trigger point itself - pain in trigger points is localised

therapy: - trigger points are associated with palpable nodules in taut bands of muscle fibers - pain in trigger points frequently radiates from trigger points to broader areas, sometimes distant from the trigger point itself

Thiopental: - is a local anaesthetic - can be used for rectal sedation (especially in children) - can be used also in acute cerebral hypertension by cerebral edema - doesn't cause breath depression, on the contrary it acts as bronchodilators

thiopental - can be used for rectal sedation (especially in children) - can be used also in acute cerebral hypertension by cerebral edema

Choose the correct statements about tizanidine: - it is an agonist of imidazoline receptors - it is an antagonist of imidazoline receptors - it is a central muscle-relaxant drug - it is an agonist alpha-2 receptors

tizanidine - it is a central muscle-relaxant drug - it is an agonist alpha-2 receptors

Choose the correct statements about tolperisone: - it possesses anti-inflammatory effects - it increases the activity of motor neurons in the ventral spinal cord - it is a central muscle-relaxant drug - it blocks voltage-gated calcium ion channels in afferent pathways of the pain pathway

tolperisone - it is a central muscle-relaxant drug - it blocks voltage-gated calcium ion channels in afferent pathways of the pain pathway

Which is/are true of a total knee replacement: - it is an anatomical condylar replacement, modular type - components are usually cemented - usually implanted arthroscopically - indication only in young patients

total knee replacement: - it is an anatomical condylar replacement, modular type+ - components are usually cemented+

Which is/are true of the treatment of bone tumors: - the basis of treatment is surgical treatment - the radiotherapy is use only as palliative treatment or for benign tumors - neoadjuvant chemotherapy is used only to reduce the primary site - adjuvant chemotherapy is used for disposal of micrometastases

treatment of bone tumors: - the basis of treatment is surgical treatment+ - adjuvant chemotherapy is used for disposal of micrometastases+

Which is/are true of the treatment of osteosarcoma: - the treatment is surgical treatment combined with chemotherapy and radiotherapy because the tumor is highly radiosensitive - in addition to surgical treatment is used to remove the tumor and neoadjuvant and adjuvant chemotherapy - the only treatment is amputation of limb - with a good response to chemotherapy can be indicated to limb saving surgery

treatment of osteosarcoma: - in addition to surgical treatment is used to remove the tumor and neoadjuvant and adjuvant chemotherapy+ - with a good response to chemotherapy can be indicated to limb saving surgery+

Which of the following diseases are classified as a type of *seronegative arthritis*? - Reiter's syndrome - psoriatic arthritis - rheumatoid arthritis - Felty's syndrome

type of *seronegative arthritis* - Reiter's syndrome - psoriatic arthritis

Which of the following is/are an uncommon location for osteosarcoma? - long bone metaphyses - vertebral body - epiphyseal plate - periosteum

uncommon location for osteosarcoma - long bone metaphyses - periosteum

Which is/are true of the venous thromboembolism: - organization and resolution of a deep venous thrombosis occurs within 7 to 10 days of immobilization - organization and resolution of a deep venous thrombosis occurs within 3 weeks of immobilization - treating venous thromboembolism involves increasing venous stasis - physiotherapy can treat venous thromboembolism by leg exercises, leg elevation, elastic stockings, early ambulation, and mechanical compression

venous thromboembolism - organization and resolution of a deep venous thrombosis occurs within 7 to 10 days of immobilization - physiotherapy can treat venous thromboembolism by leg exercises, leg elevation, elastic stockings, early ambulation, and mechanical compression

„Polytrauma": - is indicated by level of 16 points of GCS - is indicated by level of 16 points of ISS - in children the surgical treatment is always indicated - is a life-threatening condition

„Polytrauma": - is indicated by level of 16 points of ISS+ - is a life-threatening condition+

„Second-look"operation means: - examination by another surgeon - assumed surgical revision within 48 hours from the first surgery - is indicated in case of expected important change of surgical finding - is indicated in each primary surgical revision for intraabdominal injury

„Second-look"operation means: - assumed surgical revision within 48 hours from the first surgery+ - is indicated in case of expected important change of surgical finding+

See all study sets

OTA

Related study sets

Critical Thinking, Implementing Nursing Care, Nursing Diagnosis, Planning Nursing Care

Art Appreciation Chapter 5

Chapter 12 Search and Rescue

Periodic Table of Elements 1-70

BAD 2213 Chapter 6-10, 16

Ch 3

Sociology Ch: 7

Certification quiz

English Unit 2: Becoming a Nation

Audit ch. 5

CPP - Certified Payroll Professional Exam for 2019 limits

equilibrium chemistry 30

Oceanography Final

ch 12 & 13- ad and promo mix

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

Exam 2- M7- R.E.4540

Chem. 1 Exam Chapter 3

Project management short answer test 1

VEE Accounting and Finance 2

OCE ch 10