Paramedic volume 4 chapter 6-11 study, Volume 4, Chapter 11, Volume 4, Chapter 10, Volume 4, Chapter 9, Volume 4, Chapter 8, Volume 4, Chapter 7, Volume 4, Chapter 6
Which rib pairs have no anterior attachment
11th and 12th
How many trauma score points are recorded for a GCS score of 11?
3
What is the highest trauma score value that can be applied by the Glasgow coma scale?
4
Anterior cord syndrome
A flexion-extension injury that results in damage to the vertebral artery through either disruption or compression of edema, leading to subsequent ischemia and infarction.
To receive a revised trauma score of a 4 for respiratory rate the patient must be breathing at:
A minimum of 10 breaths per minute
Hypotension occurs in relation to :
A reduction in blood pressure
Your ten-year-old male patient was involved in a bicycle accident that lacerated his right calf and caused significant bleeding; he is showing signs of hypovolemia. When providing intravenous fluid replacement to this patient, fluid boluses should be administered at the rate of: A. 20 mL/kg delivered a maximum of three times. B. 60 mL/kg, C. 20 mL/kg titrated to a systolic BP of 100. D. 20 mL/kg titrated to a systolic BP of 100 and pulse below 125.
A. 20 mL/kg delivered a maximum of three times.
How many trauma score points are recorded for a GCS score of 11? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5
A. 3
As you approach a vehicle involved in a single-car accident involving a tree, you see through the window that the patient has a large amount of blood covering his face. While your partner initiates manual spinal control, you introduce yourself and complete a primary assessment. His airway is open and his breathing seems adequate; you check the radial pulse and find a rate of 100/min and strong. At the same time you note that a severe laceration of his scalp is no longer bleeding, but was responsible for a majority of his overt hemorrhaging. You initiate high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask, quickly dress the scalp, and perform a rather lengthy extrication onto a spine board. After moving him you note that he is no longer speaking to you; his radial pulse is now 124 and thready, his respiratory rate has dropped to 6 and shallow, and his abdomen appears to be slightly distended. What is now the maximum time interval between reassessments of your patient? A. 5 minutes B. Whenever you note any change in the patient's condition C. When you institute any significant intervention D. 15 minutes
A. 5 minutes
Your 12-year-old patient has a significant head injury with a rapid, thready pulse, slowed capillary refill, and a lowered level of consciousness. When providing fluid resuscitation, you should, in rapid succession, administer serial boluses of an isotonic solution, titrated to blood pressure, to maintain a systolic blood pressure of: A. 80 mmHg. B. 75 mmHg. C. 65 mmHg. D. 90 mmHg.
A. 80 mmHg.
What might a victim suffering a concussion and epidural hematoma concurrently present with prior to an increase in intracranial pressure? A. A lucid interval B. Decerebrate posturing C. Cushing's reflex D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
A. A lucid interval
What is the least protected body cavity? A. Abdomen B. Cranium C. Pelvis D. Thoracic
A. Abdomen
Approximately how many motor vehicle deaths can be attributed to thoracic trauma in the United States annually? A. About 8,000 B. About 19, 000 C. About 32,000 D. About 50,000
A. About 8,000
You are caring for a patient who was playing flag football at the park. The patient states that after a particular play, he was tackled and felt sharp pain in his left ankle, after which he was unable to bear weight on it. What tendon may have been injured in this situation? A. Achilles B. Quadriceps C. Lateral malleoli D. Patellar
A. Achilles
What high-altitude disease typically presents with light-headedness, breathlessness, weakness, headache, nausea, and vomiting? A. Acute mountain sickness B. Dysbaria C. High-altitude cerebral edema D. High-altitude pulmonary edema
A. Acute mountain sickness
When treating a victim of heat cramps, what should your next step be after moving him to a cool or shaded environment? A. Administer oral fluids. B. Rapidly cool him with sheets soaked in tepid water. C. Monitor for an arrhythmia. D. Administer high-flow oxygen.
A. Administer oral fluids.
When treating the traumatic asphyxia patient, what should be considered, prior to the release of compression, if the entrapment has lasted more than 20 minutes? A. Administration of 1 mEq/kg of sodium bicarbonate B. Assistance of ventilations with a BVM C. Initiation of two large-bore IVs D. Administration of high-flow oxygen
A. Administration of 1 mEq/kg of sodium bicarbonate
What should be avoided prior to spending time in a cold environment? A. Alcohol B. Exercise C. Carbohydrates D. Cold soda
A. Alcohol
How does the progression of signs and symptoms of pediatric head injury differ from an adult? A. An infant is more prone to direct injury but has a slower progression of increasing ICP. B. The infant is less prone to direct injury and increasing ICP. C. The infant is less prone to direct injury but more prone to increasing ICP. D. An infant is more prone to direct injury and more rapidly progresses through the stages of increasing ICP.
A. An infant is more prone to direct injury but has a slower progression of increasing ICP.
Which syndrome results from bony fragments or pressure compressing arteries that perfuse the ventral aspect of the spinal cord? A. Anterior cord syndrome B. Brown-Sequard syndrome C. Spinal perfusion syndrome D. Central cord syndrome
A. Anterior cord syndrome
When the brain, floating in cerebrospinal fluid inside the cranium, "sloshes" toward the impact and then away from it, again impacting the cranial interior, what is the second injury called? A. Contrecoup injury B. Indirect brain injury C. Ipsilateral brain injury D. Direct brain injury
A. Contrecoup injury
Which "CUPS" criteria patient will not receive additional assessment beyond the primary assessment? A. Critical B. Stable C. Potentially unstable D. Unstable
A. Critical
Which factor can predispose an individual to hypothermia? A. Diabetes B. Short-term cold exposure C. Low humidity D. Middle age
A. Diabetes
What is an advantage of air medical transport? A. Direct flight at 100-140 MPH B. Lower cost of operation than EMS ground vehicles C. Scene arrival prior to EMS ground vehicles D. The ability to perform landings at the scene in all weather
A. Direct flight at 100-140 MPH
What primary medical benefit results from the use of a hyperbaric chamber for dysbarism? A. Elimination of circulating emboli B. Removal of pollutants from a diver's air tank C. Administration of high-flow oxygen D. Elimination of 24-hour wait period for flying
A. Elimination of circulating emboli
Your male patient was attacked by a prostitute he was attempting to have sex with. The assailant managed to cut off a section of the man's penis with a knife she had hidden. Upon your arrival, the male patient is using direct pressure to stop the bleeding, and you see the amputated body part on the floor. The assailant has left the building. What should be the paramedic's first assessment action? A. Ensure the patient has an open airway and adequate breathing. B. Place the amputated part on ice. C. Instruct the patient to release the direct pressure to see if the bleeding has stopped. D. Initiate an IV and administer a narcotic for pain relief.
A. Ensure the patient has an open airway and adequate breathing.
Shifting of expiratory air from an uninjured side of the thorax to the injured side, resulting in reduced tidal volume, is a common result of which injury? A. Flail chest B. Pneumothorax C. Rib fracture D. Mediastinal shift
A. Flail chest
What condition occurs when three or more adjacent ribs fracture in two or more places? A. Flail chest B. Tension pneumothorax C. Pneumothorax D. Compound rib fracture
A. Flail chest
Osteoporosis is a bone disorder that may contribute to the ease with which a bone fractures secondary to trauma in what type of patient? A. Geriatric B. Male C. Multisystem trauma D. Pediatric
A. Geriatric
What type of fracture, typically seen in pediatric bones, results in an incomplete break? A. Greenstick fracture B. Hairline C. Comminuted D. Salter-Harris type II
A. Greenstick fracture
Hyperthermia is usually caused by which mechanism? A. Heat transfer from the external environment B. Excessive heat generation within the body C. Heat transfer through vasodilation D. Use or abuse of some medications
A. Heat transfer from the external environment
You respond to the scene of an explosion to treat a victim with a penetrating injury to the occipital area from shrapnel. For which additional injury should you have a high level of suspicion? A. Hyperflexion of the cervical spine B. Axial stress on the cervical spine C. Hyperextension of the cervical spine D. Distraction of the cervical spine
A. Hyperflexion of the cervical spine
Which anatomical structure is directly responsible for temperature regulation in the human body? A. Hypothalamus B. Circulatory system C. Nervous system D. Negative feedback system
A. Hypothalamus
What impact, if any, does hypothermia have on the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level? A. Hypothermia can disrupt cellular oxygen use to decrease metabolism. B. Oxygen fails to circulate in the hypothermic patient. C. Oxygen does not bond to hemoglobin when the patient is hypothermic. D. Hypothermia does not impact cellular oxygen use.
A. Hypothermia can disrupt cellular oxygen use to decrease metabolism.
As you approach a vehicle involved in a single-car accident involving a tree, you see through the window that the patient has a large amount of blood covering his face. While your partner initiates manual spinal control, you introduce and identify yourself; he responds without difficulty. Since his airway is open and his breathing seems adequate, you check the radial pulse and find a rate of 100/min and strong. At the same time you note that a severe laceration of his scalp is no longer bleeding, but was responsible for a majority of his overt hemorrhaging. What is your next step? A. Initiate high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. B. Establish his level of consciousness. C. Work to control the hemorrhage. D. Place a pulse oximeter.
A. Initiate high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.
What does the term "blood-brain barrier" refer to? A. It refers to CNS capillary walls that are thicker, more complete than, and not as permeable as those found elsewhere in the body. B. It refers to how the meningeal layers are impermeable to blood. C. It references the connective tissue layer below the meninges. D. It refers to the choroid plexus.
A. It refers to CNS capillary walls that are thicker, more complete than, and not as permeable as those found elsewhere in the body.
Which abdominal organ is responsible for detoxifying blood, producing bile, storing glycogen, producing proteins utilized in the clotting process, and assisting in osmotic fluid regulation? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Gall bladder D. Pancreas
A. Liver
What is an unintended consequence of fluid resuscitation in the trauma patient? A. Lowering of the core body temperature B. Reduced oxygen delivery at the cellular level C. Crenation of erythrocytes D. Development of pulmonary edema
A. Lowering of the core body temperature
When the body's compensatory mechanisms can no longer maintain the core temperature due to heat loss, what happens? A. Metabolic rate and cardiac output fall. B. Piloerection occurs. C. Muscle tone increases. D. Shivering begins.
A. Metabolic rate and cardiac output fall.
What injury would be classified as a diffuse brain injury? A. Mild axonal injury B. Decreased intracranial perfusion C. Diffuse cerebral contusion D. Lucid interval
A. Mild axonal injury
Which statement regarding musculoskeletal injuries is true? A. Most patients who suffer multisystem trauma experience significant musculoskeletal injuries. B. Sprains and strains are the least common musculoskeletal injuries paramedics encounter. C. Osteoporosis accounts for only a small number of fractures. D. Orthopedic injuries are rarely encountered by paramedics.
A. Most patients who suffer multisystem trauma experience significant musculoskeletal injuries.
A 68-year-old woman lives in an upper-floor, urban area apartment without air conditioning. In early May, an unseasonable heat wave occurs, with a sudden change in temperature into the mid-90s with high humidity. On the fourth day of the heat wave, the woman's neighbor finds her passed out. In your assessment of this patient, you find she is responsive only to pain and has hot, reddened, dry skin. What steps should your treatment of this patient include? A. Move her to a cool environment, initiate active rapid cooling, give oxygen as required, run IV normal saline wide open initially, and initiate ECG monitoring. B. Move her to a cool environment, initiate active rapid cooling, and run IV normal saline wide open. C. Move her to a cool environment, initiate active rapid cooling, run IV normal saline wide open, and initiate ECG monitoring. D. Initiate active rapid cooling, run IV normal saline wide open initially, and transport.
A. Move her to a cool environment, initiate active rapid cooling, give oxygen as required, run IV normal saline wide open initially, and initiate ECG monitoring.
What are the discrete tissues and muscles of the body that are controlled by specific spinal nerve roots? A. Myotomes B. Dendrites C. Dermatomes D. Areas of innervation
A. Myotomes
Which population is at a higher risk of pelvic, rib, and extremity fractures due to trauma? A. Obese adults B. Middle-aged men C. Female teenagers D. Infants
A. Obese adults
What is "pins-and-needles" sensation called? A. Paresthesia B. Anesthesia C. Paralysis D. Paresis
A. Paresthesia
You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. While en route, dispatch directs you to a secure staging area, set up by law enforcement, half of a block from the incident. On arrival, you see two officers dragging another officer between them to your unit. You exit the unit and quickly pull the cot out of the back, and the officers place the victim sitting up. They quickly explain that he was securing the perimeter when he was shot in the left shoulder by an unknown assailant. Your patient appears alert and well oriented and is complaining of severe left shoulder pain. You note a bullet hole in the front of his body armor, high on the left side. You cut off his vest and as you remove it, a bullet drops out of the vest onto the cot, and you also see an exit wound at the inferior edge of the left scapula with little blood exiting. You apply an occlusive dressing and lay the victim back on the cot. You then notice an entrance wound at the second intercostal space, also hemorrhaging slightly, and place an occlusive dressing there also. Your patient still appears well oriented but is very anxious and excited about what has happened. You quickly auscultate the lungs and find breath sounds equal and clear on both sides with a rate of 34. Your victim's pulse is 120 and easily palpable in his left radial artery, and the pulse ox reads 100 percent. While there appears to be no change in the injury site or respirations, he is now complaining of numbness and tingling in his fingers and toes. You opt to take his blood pressure and find it to be 138/76. As you continue your exam and care, how would you mentally note the patient's complaint of numbness and tingling? A. Patient complains of numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes B. Anesthesia at site of injury and sensation in the fingers and toes C. General anesthesia and sensation in the fingers and toes D. Patient complains of numbness at site of injury and tingling in extremities
A. Patient complains of numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
What is the optimal way of dealing with musculoskeletal injuries? A. Prevention B. Immobilization and pain management C. Splinting D. Rest
A. Prevention
You are dispatched to the local feed mill for a 54-year-old man who was crushed when his wife inadvertently pinned him between the semi-trailer she was backing up and the loading dock. When you arrive you are directed to the loading area where the man is lying on the ground behind an idling semi. Dock workers tell you that his right side was pinned, and they lowered him to the ground after directing his wife to pull forward. As you approach you request that the semi be shut down, and you radio dispatch for an additional unit to assist you with the patient and his overwhelmingly panic-stricken wife. The man is unconscious and the right side of his tee shirt is soaked with blood. He has shallow, labored respirations and gurgling. He is ashen, with cool and clammy skin and a trickle of blood flowing from his mouth. What is your first concern with this patient? A. Protect the airway. B. Control the hemorrhage. C. Administer high-flow oxygen. D. Immobilize the fractures.
A. Protect the airway.
What type of barotrauma is most likely to occur if a diver fails to breathe during ascent? A. Pulmonary overpressure injury B. Pneumomediastinum C. Pneumothorax D. Arterial gas embolism
A. Pulmonary overpressure injury
After your assessment, you believe that your patient has chemical peritonitis. Which finding would contribute to this field impression? A. Rapid onset of pain and associated tenderness at the injury location B. Diffuse pain to either of the flank regions of the posterior abdominal wall C. Absence of involuntary guarding in the presence of a known penetration injury D. Gradual onset of pain with heightened sensitivity when you palpate the abdomen
A. Rapid onset of pain and associated tenderness at the injury location
What contributes significantly to hypothermia in the trauma patient? A. Rerouting of available blood to critical organs as the blood volume diminishes B. The body's lowering of core temperature to slow metabolism for self-preservation C. The decrease in cellular metabolism resulting from decreasing pH D. The decrease of heat from cellular metabolism carried on by erythrocytes due to hemorrhage
A. Rerouting of available blood to critical organs as the blood volume diminishes
Pelvic fractures can be life-threatening injuries due to what mechanism? A. Significant blood loss B. Rupture of the urinary bladder with resultant chemical inflammation C. Spinal cord damage to motor nerve roots D. Loss of function to lower extremities
A. Significant blood loss
When treating the victim of multisystem trauma, what should be addressed after gaining control of the airway and ventilation? A. Significant hemorrhage B. Severe fractures C. IV fluid therapy D. Rapid transport to a trauma center
A. Significant hemorrhage
Internal intercostal muscles, along with the diaphragm and what other muscle(s), are the major muscles of inhalation? A. Sternocleidomastoids B. Latissimus dorsi C. Obliques D. Trapezius
A. Sternocleidomastoids
What is temporary hypotension caused by the weight of the gravid uterus, which occurs in the third trimester of pregnancy? A. Supine hypotensive syndrome B. Positional hypotension C. Predelivery hypotension D. Abruptio placentae
A. Supine hypotensive syndrome
You are caring for a pregnant female veterinarian who was kicked in the stomach by a horse she was caring for. The patient is in her final trimester. She presents with marginally normal vital signs, anxiety, and mild dyspnea. Given her present medical condition, what should the paramedic assume regarding fetal circulation? A. The fetus is likely being deprived of blood flow. B. Fetal circulation will not be harmed secondary to this type of mechanism unless the mother's blood pressure drops below 60 mmHg. C. Fetal blood flow is enhanced because this is a normal feedback mechanism with trauma in pregnancy. D. Fetal blood flow is normal because the mother's BP is still normal.
A. The fetus is likely being deprived of blood flow.
For an isolated mid-shaft femur fracture, when should you stop the application of traction? A. The limb is immobilized and patient discomfort ceases. B. The patient reports increasing pain. C. The patient's muscle spasms have increased in strength. D. The limb is extended at half its initial length.
A. The limb is immobilized and patient discomfort
What is the most direct result of alveolar shunting caused by atelectasis in the drowning victim? A. The return of deoxygenated blood to the bloodstream B. The loss of surfactant C. Laryngospasm D. Leakage of plasma protein into the alveoli
A. The return of deoxygenated blood to the bloodstream
Which statement concerning contact sports is most accurate? A. They remain a significant cause of injury. B. Improved conditioning has been the most effective way of reducing injury. C. Improved equipment design has virtually eliminated injury. D. Most sports no longer allow contact.
A. They remain a significant cause of injury.
Your patient, the 52-year-old driver of a vehicle that struck a tree, is complaining of chest pain and severe difficulty breathing. As you approach, you notice that he is cyanotic, has hemoptysis, and is visibly panicked. During your primary assessment, you note that his respirations are 22 and shallow, his radial pulse is 128, and his SpO2 is 83 percent. He has pervasive subcutaneous emphysema. You immediately start him on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. His lung sounds are equal but diminished bilaterally. What initial field diagnosis will you base your treatment plan on? A. Tracheobronchial disruption B. Hemothorax C. Pericardial tamponade D. Tension pneumothorax
A. Tracheobronchial disruption
Which type of pelvic fracture does not involve the pelvic ring and includes avulsion fractures and those of the pubis, sacrum, coccyx, ischium, or iliac wing? A. Type I B. Type III C. Type II D. Type IV
A. Type I
Which patient would receive a GCS score of 3 for verbal response? A. Uses inappropriate words (irritable) B. Confused C. Incomprehensible words D. Oriented
A. Uses inappropriate words (irritable)
What is commotio cordis? A. Ventricular fibrillation induced by a direct chest blow from blunt trauma B. A breakdown of muscle fibers and release of degraded muscle fiber contents into circulation C. Ventricular fibrillation in the presence of heat exhaustion D. Shifting of expiratory air from an uninjured side of the thorax to the injured side, resulting in reduced tidal volume
A. Ventricular fibrillation induced by a direct chest blow from blunt trauma
What has contributed heavily to an increase in thoracic trauma in urban areas? A. Violent crime B. Increased tunnel projects C. Skyscraper construction D. Automobile accidents
A. Violent crime
Which activity is an example of the EMS system taking an active role in public accident prevention? A. Voluntary home inspection B. Assisting in DUI checkpoints C. Defensive driving for medical personnel D. Enforcing workplace safety standards
A. Voluntary home inspection
You are caring for a patient who fell down some steps while leaving church on Sunday morning. Assessment reveals an open fracture to the right tibia with minor bleeding that is easily controlled. The patient has no other injuries from the fall and is presenting as stable. Care for the injured limb would begin with: A. aligning the limb. B. assessing circulation, sensation, and motor function. C. immobilizing the limb with gentle traction. D. immobilizing the limb with board splints.
A. aligning the limb.
Joints that allow some very limited movement are: A. amphiarthroses. B. metaphyses. C. synarthroses. D. sesamoids.
A. amphiarthroses.
The aorta is fixed at three positions within the thorax: the annulus, where it leaves the heart; at the ligamentum arteriosum near the bifurcation of the pulmonary artery; and at the: A. aortic hiatus. B. diaphragmatic outlet. C. inferior passage. D. umbilical ligament.
A. aortic hiatus.
The bones of the upper and lower extremities, including the shoulder girdles and pelvis, make up the: A. appendicular skeleton. B. locomotive skeleton. C. articulating skeleton. D. cartilaginous skeleton.
A. appendicular skeleton.
The maintenance of a continuum of patient care is reliant upon: A. appropriate interactions between EMS system members. B. the paramedic controlling all aspects of the scene, including extrication. C. consultation of the ED physician upon arrival at the scene. D. being adequately trained for all the types of rescue you may encounter.
A. appropriate interactions between EMS system members.
A patient history is gathered: A. at the conclusion of a rapid or focused trauma assessment. B. following a focused trauma assessment only. C. during scene size-up. D. during reassessment.
A. at the conclusion of a rapid or focused trauma assessment.
The portion of the skull that protects the brain is called the: A. cranium. B. aponeurotica. C. foramen magnum. D. fused boney plates.
A. cranium.
Complete the rapid or focused trauma assessment by: A. determining the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score. B. completing a detailed physical examination of the patient. C. collecting a baseline set of vital signs. D. making a preliminary transport decision.
A. determining the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score.
It is incumbent on all members of the prehospital care portion of the EMS system to: A. ensure that our patients receive the best care and chance for survival. B. leave transport decisions to medical direction. C. eliminate any procedure if doing so will shorten scene times. D. provide a minimum of prehospital care to promote rapid transport.
A. ensure that our patients receive the best care and chance for survival.
An athlete who twisted his leg completing a long jump now displays signs of potentially severe muscle, tendon, and ligament soft tissue injury to his left thigh. The patient complains of significant pain at the knee and hip, and there is inflammation and swelling at these joints. You suspect at least a Grade II sprain of the knee and the hip. The athlete's coach is advising him to walk it off, which your patient seems to be trying to convince himself is the right thing to do. He seems to be about to get up to comply with what his coach wants. You should first: A. ensure the patient places no additional stress on the injured leg. B. monitor distal neurovascular function. C. apply local cooling to suppress edema and pain. D. immobilize the adjacent joints.
A. ensure the patient places no additional stress on the injured leg.
Completing the rapid trauma assessment for a patient with a musculoskeletal injury does not involve: A. evaluating the patient's mental status and ABCs. B. obtaining a Glasgow Coma Scale value. C. obtaining a baseline set of vital signs. D. gathering a patient history.
A. evaluating the patient's mental status and ABCs.
The increased intracranial pressure associated with HACE is attributable to: A. increased fluid in the brain from being at a high altitude that one is not acclimated for. B. swelling of brain gray matter from increased air pressure. C. high-altitude changes causing an increase in cardiac output, which raises hydrostatic pressure and causes edema. D. blood migrating across the blooddashbrain barrier.
A. increased fluid in the brain from being at a high altitude that one is not acclimated for.
Musculoskeletal injuries do not include injuries to the: A. internal organs. B. muscles. C. bones. D. cartilage.
A. internal organs.
An injury to the lower chest that lacerates the diaphragm is unlikely to also injure the: A. kidneys. B. gallbladder. C. stomach. D. spleen.
A. kidneys.
Your patient has a nontraumatic fracture of the left wrist. To splint this fracture, you first: A. place a roll of bandaging in the patient's hand to maintain position of function. B. secure the extremity to a padded board. C. assess sensation in the patient's wrist. D. inflate the air splint.
A. place a roll of bandaging in the patient's hand to maintain position of function.
A significant reduction in mortality rate associated with trauma can be realized by instituting a comprehensive program addressing: A. prevention. B. continuing care provider education. C. documentation. D. run reviews.
A. prevention.
Patients presenting with isolated musculoskeletal injuries and who are stable should be: A. provided a focused trauma assessment. B. provided a rapid trauma assessment. C. transported to a Level I trauma center. D. immobilized with air splints as opposed to board splints.
A. provided a focused trauma assessment.
You are examining a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision and has been extracted from the vehicle and immobilized. In palpating the first quadrant of the patient's abdomen, you notice a pain response as you release the pressure of your hand. This is: A. rebound tenderness. B. an indication of breathing difficulty. C. an indication of hemorrhage. D. guarding.
A. rebound tenderness.
In trauma, the incidence of musculoskeletal injury is second only to that of: A. soft tissue injuries. B. chest trauma. C. burns. D. abdominal trauma
A. soft tissue injuries.
Expert information regarding diving emergencies can be provided by: A. the Divers Alert Network. B. Medical Command. C. the diver. D. the ED.
A. the Divers Alert Network.
What are triaxial joints? A. Ball-and-socket joints that permit full motion in a cone of about 180 degrees and allow a limb to rotate B. Joints of the thumbs C. Ellipsoidal joints D. Gliding joints that provide movement in two directions
A. Ball-and-socket joints that permit full motion in a cone of about 180 degrees and allow a limb to rotate
Ascending from a dive too rapidly can create gas bubbles in the blood and tissues; these gas bubbles can then grow in size as the pressure is reduced, in accordance with: A. Boyle's law. B. Dalton's law. C. the gas ascent law. D. Henry's law.
A. Boyle's law.
What law accounts for the fact that at different depths below sea level, the pressure of air will change? A. Dalton's B. Henry's C. Boyle's D. Gravity
A. Dalton's
What findings would merit the highest priority for transport when assessing a patient with a potential heat-related emergency? A. Hot, dry skin and altered mental status B. Cool skin and nausea C. Warm, moist skin and muscle cramps D. Profuse perspiration and flushed skin
A. Hot, dry skin and altered mental status
What is the least protected body cavity
Abdomen
Abdominal pain with external vaginal hemorrhage in the in the near term trauma victim is primarily indicative of:
Abruptio placentae
What is the temperature at which all molecular motion has stopped?
Absolute zero
What has been the greatest source of advancement in treatment of thoracic trauma
Advances in treatment made during military conflicts
Bones of the upper and lower extremities including the shoulder giridles and pelvis make up the
Appendicular skeleton
Osteoporotic fractures :
Are much more common in women than men.
You are treating the victim of an automobile accident who is presenting with no open wounds, but a slightly distended abdomen. He was initially alert and well oriented, had a pulse of 100; respirations of 22 and a blood pressure of 88/70. During reassessment you note that he is still alert and well oriented but his vital signs are now a pulse of 110; respirations of 30 and a blood pressure of 84/70. What would the change in his Revised Trauma Score be? A. 10 B. -1 C. +1 D. no change
B. -1
Which rib pair(s) have no anterior attachment? A. 9th and 10th ribs B. 11th and 12th ribs C. 10th and11thrib D. 1st and 2nd ribs
B. 11th and 12th ribs
What is the highest trauma score value that can be applied by the Glasgow Coma Scale? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5
B. 4
At what age does the body begin to lose its ability to maintain bone structure? A. 65 B. 40 C. 18-20 D. 50
B. 40
The mortality rate for cold-related disorders significantly increases for victims with a core body temperature below: A. 80 degrees. B. 86 degrees. C. 89 degrees. D. 82 degrees.
B. 86 degrees.
Prolonged crush injuries can result in rhabdomyolysis; what is this process? A. Systemic shifting of circulation to an acidotic environment B. A breakdown of muscle fibers and release of degraded muscle fiber contents into circulation C. The release of byproducts of anaerobic metabolism D. Increased respiration in response to metabolic acidosis
B. A breakdown of muscle fibers and release of degraded muscle fiber contents into circulation
What accurately reflects the pathophysiology of anterior cord syndrome? A. Caused by a penetrating injury that hemitransects the cord; damage to one side results in sensory and motor loss to the ipsilateral side of the body B. A flexiondashextension injury that results in damage to the vertebral artery through either disruption or compression by edema, leading to subsequent ischemia and infarction C. A temporary insult to the spinal cord affecting the body below the level of injury; the affected area becomes flaccid and without feeling, and the patient is unable to move the extremities or other musculature D. Results from hyperextension of the cervical spine resulting in motor weakness of the upper extremities
B. A flexiondashextension injury that results in damage to the vertebral artery through either disruption or compression by edema, leading to subsequent ischemia and infarction
Which finding is most critical to the paramedic regarding a genital injury to a female from assault? A. Preserving physical evidence B. A foreign object inserted into the vaginal canal C. Determining where the assailant is D. Psychological trauma
B. A foreign object inserted into the vaginal canal
Which patient is most likely to sustain a pathological fracture? A. A teenager with Osgood-Schlatter disease B. A geriatric patient receiving radiation therapy for cancer C. A pediatric patient with a history of Salter-Harris fractures D. An adult patient taking calcium supplements
B. A geriatric patient receiving radiation therapy for cancer
What is the term for placental detachment from the uterine wall that can occur from blunt abdominal trauma in the pregnant female? A. Guarding B. Abruptio placentae C. Erector spinae D. Supine hypotensive syndrome
B. Abruptio placentae
You are dispatched to the scene of a winter drowning in which a 10-year-old male patient was found by his parents floating in a hole in the ice on their farm pond. On arrival, you find the victim pulseless and apneic with CPR being performed by neighbors. You continue CPR, maintain the airway by intubation, administer 100 percent oxygen, and attach an ECG monitor, which shows ventricular fibrillation. What should your next action should be? A. Continue CPR and rapidly rewarm the patient to a core temperature of 86 degrees with application of external heat sources. B. Administer defibrillation. C. Continue CPR, remove wet clothing, and cover to conserve body heat. D. Continue CPR and initiate an IV of D5W TKO.
B. Administer defibrillation.
You suspect increased intracranial pressure in a patient with penetrating chest trauma. Which of the following is appropriate treatment? A. Withhold fluid resuscitation measures unless the systolic blood pressure rises. B. Administer fluid resuscitation to maintain a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. C. Administer fluid resuscitation to maintain a systolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg. D. Withhold fluid resuscitation measures until the systolic blood pressure falls to 75 mmHg.
B. Administer fluid resuscitation to maintain a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg.
You are dispatched to the scene of an automobile accident along with two other units. As you approach the scene, you see a compact car under the trailer of a semi-truck that turned in front of the car. The fire department has secured the area and is opening the driver's door of the car with jaws as you pull up. After the door is opened, you find a male victim, in the driver's seat, lying over the center console. You hear gurgling respirations that sound shallow at a rate of 20, and he is apparently unresponsive, but you are unable to see his head from the driver's door. You are successful at ascertaining a pedal pulse with a rate of 70 and strong. A rescue worker informs you that they are unable to access the passenger side until the trailer is lifted off, as the wheels are in the way. As you are unable to take control of the cervical spine or administer any other type of care, you slide the victim out, feet first, supine along his long axis onto a long spine board and move him to the stretcher. You first inspect his head, noticing that there are no landmarks inferior to the supraorbital margin. His respirations are now shallow, at a rate of 10; he has a radial pulse of 60 and bounding; and the pulse ox is 93 percent. As you begin clearing blood and flesh from the oropharynx, your partner tells you that he sees no other significant injuries. From the facial injury and others signs, what will your initial care center on? A. Hemorrhage control B. Airway maintenance C. Fracture immobilization D. Increasing ICP
B. Airway maintenance
What medication would be least appropriate for premedicating a patient with an anterior ankle dislocation prior to attempting relocation to reduce the joint? A. Fentanyl B. Asprin C. Diazepam D. Morphine
B. Asprin
You are dispatched to the city pool for a shallow water diving accident. On arrival you are directed poolside at the shallow end where you find an unconscious male teenager, approximately 16 years old, who has been removed from the water by the lifeguard. The top of his head has been bandaged, and he is currently unresponsive. While your partner takes over manual traction, the lifeguard tells you that he saw him dive in head first and float to the surface. He rotated him onto his back in the water and slid him out onto the concrete axially with the assistance of another lifeguard. The teenager is flushed, has a palpable radial pulse of 58, and displays diaphragmatic respirations with a rate of 10. His lungs are clear. Which choice would be included in your next step? A. Place a cervical collar. B. Assist respirations with a BVM and supplemental oxygen. C. Check the laceration for hemorrhage control. D. Establish a set of baseline vitals.
B. Assist respirations with a BVM and supplemental oxygen.
What is the white matter of the spinal cord composed of? A. Dendrites B. Axons C. Nerve roots D. Neural cell bodies
B. Axons
What type of blunt thoracic trauma results from a chemical reaction that creates a pressure wave? A. Paper-bag injury B. Blast injury C. Deceleration injury D. Impact injury
B. Blast injury
Which definition most accurately depicts the pathophysiology of a cerebral contusion? A. Blunt trauma to local brain tissue causing hemorrhage within the meninges, specifically beneath the dura mater and within the subarachnoid space B. Blunt trauma to local brain tissue that produces capillary bleeding into the brain's substance C. Blunt trauma to local brain tissue causing hemorrhage and decreased intracranial perfusion D. Significant mechanical disruption of many axons in both cerebral hemispheres with extension into the brainstem
B. Blunt trauma to local brain tissue that produces capillary bleeding into the brain's substance
Damage to what hollow organ can result in hemorrhage and content spillage into the retroperitoneal, peritoneal, or pelvic spaces? A. Pancreas B. Colon C. Spleen D. Kidneys
B. Colon
You have a patient with a closed fracture of the femur. During assessment, you note that the area is very distended with taught skin circumferentially in the area of the injury. The patient states that he has no feeling distal to the injury site, and the distal pulse is absent. In addition to the fractured femur, what other type of condition may exist? A. Fascia hypertonicity B. Compartment syndrome C. Interstitial hypertension D. Neural delamination
B. Compartment syndrome
What form of cold-related disorder exhibits signs and symptoms of hypothermia with a normal core temperature? A. Moderate hypothermia B. Compensated hypothermia C. Convection heat loss D. Mild hypothermia
B. Compensated hypothermia
When faced with a decrease in the core temperature, what mechanism does the body use in response to this? A. Basal metabolic rate B. Countercurrent heat exchange C. Vasodilation to carry excess heat toward the skin D. Sweating
B. Countercurrent heat exchange
Which statement is accurate regarding the rapid administration of crystalloid solutions in the trauma patient? A. Fluid administration should be discontinued in patients displaying symptoms of increasing ICP (Cushing's triad). B. Crystalloid solutions should be warmed as close to body temperature as possible prior to administration. C. Administration of crystalloid solutions should be titrated to a systolic BP of 100. D. Fluid administration should be discontinued in the face of narrowing pulse pressure.
B. Crystalloid solutions should be warmed as close to body temperature as possible prior to administration.
You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. While en route, dispatch directs you to a secure staging area, set up by law enforcement, half of a block from the incident. On arrival you see two officers dragging another officer between them to your unit. You exit the unit and quickly pull the cot out of the back, and the officers place the victim sitting up. They quickly explain that he was securing the perimeter when he was shot in the left shoulder by an unknown assailant. Your patient appears alert and well oriented and is complaining of severe left shoulder pain. You note a bullet hole in the front of his body armor, high on the left side. You cut off his vest, and as you remove it, a bullet drops out of the vest onto the cot, and you also see an exit wound at the inferior edge of the left scapula with little blood exiting. You apply an occlusive dressing and lay the victim back on the cot. You then notice an entrance wound at the second intercostal space, also hemorrhaging slightly, just lateral of the midclavicular line. As you continue to assess and care for this patient, what would be a sign of shock? A. Strong tachycardia B. Decreased level of consciousness or orientation C. A dull sound on percussing the chest D. An absent radial pulse
B. Decreased level of consciousness or orientation
What is a sign of deterioration during reassessment? A. Increasing level of consciousness B. Decreasing pulse strength C. Decreasing capillary refill time D. Increasing respiratory volume
B. Decreasing pulse strength
What is the nonprofit diver consultation service sponsored by Duke University Medical Center? A. Diver Flight B. Divers Alert Network C. Hyperbaric Air Medical Transport D. Hyperbaric Location Service
B. Divers Alert Network
During which phase of the trauma assessment format should you form your general impression? A. From dispatch information B. During all the phases leading up to and including patient contact C. During the primary assessment D. During scene size-up
B. During all the phases leading up to and including patient contact
What has had a major effect on reducing mortality and morbidity from head injuries? A. Dietary and nutritional programs B. Educational programs promoting safe practices C. Gun registration programs D. Exercise and health promotion programs
B. Educational programs promoting safe practices
Bile performs what function? A. Regulates blood glucose levels B. Emulsifies fats C. Activates the immune system D. Regulates osmosis
B. Emulsifies fats
What should be performed in anticipation of freeing a patient who has been trapped for 40 minutes and is suffering from traumatic asphyxia? He is already receiving high-flow oxygen and respiratory assistance with a BVM. A. Establish a large-bore IV and prepare the PASG for application. B. Establish two large-bore IVs, consider 1 mEq/kg of sodium bicarbonate, and prepare for immediate expedited transport. C. Establish two large-bore IVs, consider 1 mg/kg of sodium bicarbonate, and prepare for immediate expedited transport. D. Establish a large-bore IV and prepare spinal immobilization equipment and splinting materials.
B. Establish two large-bore IVs, consider 1 mEq/kg of sodium bicarbonate, and prepare for immediate expedited transport.
You are dispatched to an unknown medical emergency near the city park. You arrive to find police on the scene and are directed to an opening in the sidewalk where a manhole cover had been removed. You note that there is blood spatter on the edge of the manhole, and at the bottom of the ladder you see a young female in jogging clothes with her back against the wall and head slumped forward, unconscious. You also hear sonorous respirations and see a visible open femur fracture that is freely hemorrhaging, and blood dripping from her face or head. What is your first concern? A. Repositioning her airway B. Establishing the safety of her location so you can initiate care C. Controlling the bleeding D. Administering high-flow oxygen
B. Establishing the safety of her location so you can initiate care
Your patient has sustained a deep laceration to the anterior abdominal wall secondary to an industrial accident. When you remove his clothing during your assessment, you note that portions of the bowel are now protruding through the abdominal wall. What type of injury is this known as? A. Ectopia cordis B. Evisceration C. Abdominodesiccation D. Abdominal effusion
B. Evisceration
Which structure fixes the heart in the mediastinum and prevents kinking of the great vessels? A. Serous pericardium B. Fibrous pericardium C. Visceral pleura D. Parietal pleura
B. Fibrous pericardium
Which accessory organ receives bile and stores it until it is needed during digestion of fatty food? A. Stomach B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Small intestine
B. Gallbladder
Which disorder results from loss of the body's hypothalamic temperature regulation system? A. Heat exhaustion B. Heatstroke C. Profound hypothermia D. Pyrexia
B. Heatstroke
In patients with rib fractures, what benefit does grunting, or partial expiration against a closed glottis, provide? A. Helps "splint" the rib in place B. Helps limit atelectasis C. Provides no benefit D. Clears mucus from the upper airway
B. Helps limit atelectasis
What intervention should be provided for a suspected rupture of a tendon attached near the knee so as to limit the amount of damage to the tendon? A. Ice pack or cold pack B. Immobilization C. Low-flow oxygen D. Pain medications
B. Immobilization
Which statement is true regarding intracranial hemorrhage in an adult? A. Intracranial hemorrhage does not expose brain tissue to contact with blood because of the blooddashbrain barrier. B. Intracranial hemorrhage does not contribute significantly to hypovolemia. C. Intracranial hemorrhage decreases intracranial pressure in an adult. D. Intracranial hemorrhage does not irritate brain tissue it may contact.
B. Intracranial hemorrhage does not contribute significantly to hypovolemia.
A victim of penetrating trauma to the neck can also become the victim of an air embolism due to which mechanism? A. Laceration of the carotid artery B. Laceration of the internal jugular vein C. Perforation of the trachea D. Laceration of the external jugular vein
B. Laceration of the internal jugular vein
What population is most at risk for head or spinal column injury? A. Males aged 45dash55 B. Males aged 15dash24 C. Females aged 20dash30 D. Males aged 25dash35
B. Males aged 15dash24
Developing workplace safety standards is the responsibility of: A. OSHA B. NIOSH C. CDC D. NTSB
B. NIOSH
Enforcement of the workplace safety standards put forth by NIOSH is the responsibility of: A. NTSB B. OSHA C. NIOSH D. CDC
B. OSHA
What bone cells dissolve bone structures when they are not carrying pressures of articulation and support? A. Haversian canals B. Osteoclasts C. Perforating canals D. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
For a Caucasian patient, how would you classify a very light pink or white appearance to the skin? A. Cyanotic B. Pale C. Ashen D. Normal
B. Pale
What patient demographic is most likely to suffer a greenstick fracture? A. Geriatric B. Pediatric C. Male D. Female
B. Pediatric
What accurately reflects the pathophysiology of Brown-Séquard syndrome? A. Hyperextension of the cervical spine, resulting in motor weakness of the upper extremities B. Penetrating injury that hemitransects the cord, resulting in sensory and motor loss to the ipsilateral side of the body C. A flexiondashextension injury that results in damage to the vertebral artery, with damage to the cord from vascular disruption and subsequent ischemia and infarction D. Compression of nerve roots at the lower end of the spinal cord, interrupting sensation and motor control
B. Penetrating injury that hemitransects the cord, resulting in sensory and motor loss to the ipsilateral side of the body
You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting; while en route, dispatch directs you to a secure staging area, set up by law enforcement, half of a block from the incident. On arrival, you see two officers dragging another officer between them to your unit. You exit the unit and quickly pull the cot out of the back, and the officers place the victim sitting up. They quickly explain that he was securing the perimeter when he was shot in the left shoulder by an unknown assailant. Your patient appears alert and well oriented and is complaining of severe left shoulder pain. You note a bullet hole in the front of his body armor, high on the left side. You cut off his vest, and as you remove it, a bullet drops out of the vest onto the cot, and you also see an exit wound at the inferior edge of the left scapula. What does your next action include? A. Securing the round for the officers B. Placement of an occlusive dressing on the exit wound C. Inspecting the posterior wound D. Administering high-flow oxygen
B. Placement of an occlusive dressing on the exit wound
You are dispatched to the scene of a residential fall. On your arrival you find that your patient, a 46-year-old male, has fallen approximately 30 feet from a lift basket where he was removing limbs from a tree. According to witnesses your patient landed on his side, on the chainsaw he was operating. Your partner immediately takes control of the c-spine. Your rapid trauma assessment reveals a conscious, well-oriented patient with a palpable radial pulse of 128, lying supine next to the saw. He is visibly short of breath and winces as he inhales. As you remove his shirt you observe an area of paradoxical movement near the right mid-axillary line appearing to involve ribs 4 through 8. The pulse oximeter indicates 90%. You start your patient on high-flow oxygen and auscultate his lung fields, noting that his breath sounds are equal bilaterally. You splint his flail section with a bulky dressing and get a blood pressure of 92/72, and his SpO2 reading is now 96%. He tells you that he is having less trouble breathing. What would your next consideration include? A. Initiate IV and administer normal saline bolus; supplement respiration with BVM; provide spinal immobilization; transport. B. Provide rapid spinal immobilization and rapid transport; place IV; provide further respiratory support, if/when required, en route. C. Supplement respiration with BVM; provide spinal immobilization; transport. D. Initiate IV and consider further respiratory support; provide spinal immobilization.
B. Provide rapid spinal immobilization and rapid transport; place IV; provide further respiratory support, if/when required, en route.
What is the elevation of the body temperature above the normal temperature for that person, usually because of pathogens? A. Heat stroke B. Pyrexia C. Heat exhaustion D. Pyrogenic
B. Pyrexia
What is the typical cause of dysbarism when diving? A. Holding your breath B. Rapid ascent C. Uncontrolled descent D. Excessive CO2 in the tank mix
B. Rapid ascent
Questioning a patient about respirophasic pain, or pain with breathing effort, would happen during what part of assessment? A. Scene size-up B. Rapid trauma assessment C. Primary assessment D. Reassessment
B. Rapid trauma assessment
The pathophysiology of high-altitude illness revolves around which condition(s)? A. Acclimatization B. Reduced air pressure and oxygen availability C. Diet and rest D. Exertion
B. Reduced air pressure and oxygen availability
Which item is considered to be a key element of the information shared between health care providers on the PCR? A. Patient next of kin B. Results of assessment C. Others administering care D. Time of dispatch
B. Results of assessment
A child fell backward off a trampoline yesterday, striking her head. She now has a severe headache and dizziness. In addition to cervical spine injuries that may be present, what other finding(s) may indicate a skull fracture? A. Respiratory rate > 24/min B. Retroauricular ecchymosis C. Sonorous breathing D. Brisk pupillary response
B. Retroauricular ecchymosis
What is the first opportunity to begin the assessment process? A. Scene size-up B. Review of dispatch information C. Interviewing bystanders D. Approaching the patient
B. Review of dispatch information
You are caring for a patient with a closed fracture of the left femur after falling out of the bed of a moving pickup. If this is the only isolated injury, which immobilization device cannot be used? A. Reel Splint B. SAM splint C. Hare splint D. Sager traction splint
B. SAM splint
What has contributed to the increase in thoracic trauma in urban areas? A. Easy access to "Saturday night specials" B. Semiautomatic hand guns C. A lack of prehospital care in urban areas D. A reduction in paramedic skills
B. Semiautomatic hand guns
In an injury to the abdominal wall, visible ecchymosis and swelling typically takes how long to develop? A. Several moments B. Several hours C. Several days D. Several minutes
B. Several hours
Which term is defined as a significant mechanical disruption of axons in both cerebral hemispheres with extension into the brainstem? A. A focal axonal injury B. Severe diffuse axonal injury C. Subdural hematoma D. Axonal concussion
B. Severe diffuse axonal injury
Which form of thoracic trauma provides the highest risk of aortic dissection? A. Severe whiplash from forward momentum B. Severe lateral blunt force trauma C. Severe blunt force trauma to the back D. Severe blunt force trauma to the sternum
B. Severe lateral blunt force trauma
What is the fibrous connective tissue sheet directly beneath the skin and covering the most superior surface of the head? A. Sphenoid membrane B. The galea aponeurotica C. Dorsum sellae D. Sella turcica
B. The galea aponeurotica
What is not a reason that the atlas/axis joint is the site of the majority of fatal spine injuries? A. The atlas and axis are more easily crushed due to axial loading. B. The spinal cord roots exit the spinal column at this point. C. The atlas and axis are exceptionally delicate. D. The atlas and axis are exceptionally mobile and susceptible to fracture or dislocation.
B. The spinal cord roots exit the spinal column at this point.
How does the pathophysiology differ between salt water and freshwater drowning? A. Metabolic acidosis is significantly greater in saltwater. B. There are no pathophysiological differences between saltwater and freshwater drowning. C. Hemodilution is greater with freshwater. D. Electrolyte shifts are present with saltwater.
B. There are no pathophysiological differences between saltwater and freshwater drowning.
How many compartments is the abdominal cavity divided into? A. Four B. Three C. Two D. One
B. Three
How many layers of connective tissue are there between the cranium and the brain? A. Four B. Three C. Two D. None
B. Three
Decorticate posturing as a response to painful stimuli is indicative of: A. Medulla disruption. B. Upper brainstem disruption. C. Hypothalamus involvement. D. Depression of the reticular activating system.
B. Upper brainstem disruption.
Which environmental factor would predispose a person to heat or cold disorders? A. Acclimatization B. Wind C. Health D. Age
B. Wind
Where is fat stored in a bone? A. The periosteum B. Yellow bone marrow C. Cartilage D. Red bone marrow
B. Yellow bone marrow
Lower salt concentrations in perspiration and increased fluid reserves are benefits of: A. homeostasis. B. acclimatization. C. exposure. D. exercise.
B. acclimatization.
High-energy penetrating wounds create a wound track much larger than the projectile size due to a phenomenon known as: A. compression. B. cavitation. C. deceleration. D. crepitus.
B. cavitation.
During scene size-up for a patient with an apparent gunshot wound to the chest, after responding law enforcement has ensured the scene is safe for you to enter, you should: A. attach the ECG electrodes and monitor for arrhythmias. B. determine the probable projectile pathway. C. palpate the thorax carefully looking for signs of injury. D. observe the general color of the patient.
B. determine the probable projectile pathway.
Decreasing P, QRS, and T amplitude with every other cardiac cycle seen in the 12-lead ECG of a person with a significant MOI for chest trauma and resulting pericardial tamponade may be: A. multifocal atrial dysrhythmia. B. electrical alternans. C. second-degree heart block. D. beta-adrenergic overstimulation.
B. electrical alternans.
When providing emergency care to the pregnant victim, you should place special emphasis on: A. the size of the uterus. B. ensuring an adequate airway, ventilation, and circulation. C. the prenatal history. D. the secondary exam.
B. ensuring an adequate airway, ventilation, and circulation.
You are managing a patient with an anterior knee dislocation with neurovascular compromise following a bicycle wreck. You should first: A. grasp the calf muscle just above the ankle. B. have another care provider immobilize the femur firmly in position. C. pull the limb toward alignment with the femur. D. apply firm and progressive traction along the axis of the tibia.
B. have another care provider immobilize the femur firmly in position.
The process of maintaining constant suitable conditions within the body is called: A. adjustment. B. homeostasis. C. accommodation. D. adaptation.
B. homeostasis.
When a person's core body temperature drops below 95°F, they are considered to be: A. hyperthermic. B. hypothermic. C. hypothalamic. D. thermically hypogenic.
B. hypothermic.
Operation of a helicopter at the scene of an emergency: A. always benefits the care of the patient. B. increases the overall risk to rescue personnel. C. decreases the overall risk to rescue personnel. D. increases the overall availability of helicopters for other emergencies.
B. increases the overall risk to rescue personnel.
Bulging fontanelles in the infant patient who has suffered a traumatic event may be indicative of: A. cranial deformation. B. increasing intracranial pressure. C. volume displacement syndrome. D. Down syndrome.
B. increasing intracranial pressure.
Once bubbles of nitrogen have formed in various tissues: A. they dissolve into the bloodstream. B. it is difficult for the body to remove them. C. they are quickly eliminated with normal respiration. D. they are metabolized along with oxygen.
B. it is difficult for the body to remove them.
A fracture that runs across the bone at an angle is a(n): A. comminuted fracture. B. oblique fracture. C. fatigue fracture. D. transverse fracture.
B. oblique fracture.
You have responded to the scene of a middle-aged female who was struck in the abdomen by a bat during a domestic dispute. After being signaled to approach the scene, you perform your initial assessment and begin your secondary assessment; while assessing the abdomen you should: A. check all quadrants except the injured quadrant for rebound tenderness. B. palpate a quadrant at a time, saving the injured quadrant for last. C. palpate the injured quadrant first. D. check the injured quadrant for rebound tenderness.
B. palpate a quadrant at a time, saving the injured quadrant for last.
You are caring for a male patient who was involved in an industrial fall in which he landed in a straddle position on a steel beam. The patient has severe pain, disfigurement, and swelling to the genitalia. Patient care should include all of the following except: A. psychological reassurance. B. position of comfort for transport. C. stabilizing any avulsed tissue. D. applying ice packs to control the swelling.
B. position of comfort for transport.
Dressing appropriately, eating at regular intervals, and getting plenty of rest are all preventative measures for: A. improving overall health. B. preventing cold-related injury. C. assisting recovery from hypothermia. D. preventing overexertion.
B. preventing cold-related injury.
The pancreas is responsible for: A. detoxification of blood. B. production of glucagon and insulin. C. storage of bile. D. production of bile.
B. production of glucagon and insulin.
One example of the use of public education to reduce morbidity and mortality related to abdominal trauma is: A. the use of tourniquets. B. proper use of seat belts. C. training paramedics in accurate determination of the amount of blood loss into the abdominal cavity. D. actively recruiting abdominal surgeons.
B. proper use of seat belts.
Musculoskeletal injuries to the upper extremities: A. more often constitute threats to life and limb than lower extremity injuries. B. rarely threaten life to the same degree that lower extremity injuries often do. C. are generally associated with a greater magnitude of force than lower extremity injuries. D. typically involve greater secondary blood loss than lower extremity injuries.
B. rarely threaten life to the same degree that lower extremity injuries often do.
Assessment of a trauma victim whenever you note a change in condition or you perform a significant intervention is called: A. focused trauma assessment. B. reassessment. C. CUPS assessment. D. secondary assessment.
B. reassessment.
Sources of musculoskeletal injuries do not include: A. acts of violence. B. smoking. C. falls. D. sports.
B. smoking.
EMS systems can actively participate in trauma prevention by following the example of: A. hospitals. B. the fire service. C. the military. D. law enforcement.
B. the fire service.
When performing CPR on the near-term pregnant victim, it is important to remember that: A. additional respirations should be performed. B. the heart is further superior and to the lateral left. C. the compression depth should be shallower. D. the compression rate should be increased.
B. the heart is further superior and to the lateral left.
The three methods the body utilizes to create heat are all types of: A. insulation. B. thermogenesis. C. conservation. D. volatile reactions.
B. thermogenesis.
You are treating a late-term, pregnant trauma victim who requires spinal immobilization. When transporting, the backboard should be: A. placed flat on the stretcher. B. tilted 15 degrees. C. turned on its right side. D. avoided; use a cervical board instead.
B. tilted 15 degrees.
During controlled ascent, with decreasing pressure, dissolved gases come out of the blood and tissues slowly, escaping gradually through respiration, according to: A. the law of inertia. B. Boyle's law. C. Dalton's law. D. Henry's law.
B. Boyle's law.
Major diving emergencies while at the bottom of the dive often involve nitrogen narcosis, a state of stupor, commonly called "raptures of the deep." This is due to the effect of nitrogen on cerebral function. What gas law explains the occurrence of nitrogen narcosis? A. Dalton's law B. Henry's law C. Ideal gas law D. Boyle's law
B. Henry's law
The initial symptoms of what high-altitude illness include dry cough, mild shortness of breath on exertion, and slight crackles in the lungs? A. High-altitude cerebral edema B. High-altitude pulmonary edema C. Acute mountain sickness D. Dysbaria
B. High-altitude pulmonary edema
A 34-year-old male patient received a small-caliber gunshot wound to the right anterior chest at the third intercostal on the midclavicular line. He is conscious and well oriented and complaining of pain at the wound site and difficulty breathing. His respirations are 22 and seem shallow, his radial pulse is 110, and his SpO2 is 92. He has reduced breath sounds on his right side, but percussion of the chest seems equal on both sides. What would your initial treatment include? A. Application of a sterile occlusive dressing and monitored vitals B. High-flow oxygen and application of a one-way valve dressing C. High-flow oxygen and assisted ventilation D. Application of a sterile occlusive dressing and rapid transport
B. High-flow oxygen and application of a one-way valve dressing
Which of the following is not an effect produced by pericardial tamponade? A. Distended jugular veins B. Strong, bounding pulse C. Diminished pulse strength D. Decreased pulse pressure
B. Strong, bounding pulse
What are triaxial joints?
Ball and socket joints that permit full motion in cone of about 180 degrees and allow a limb to rotate
What is the definition of hematochezia
Blood in stool
During controlled ascent, with decreasing pressure, dissolved gases come out of the blood and tissues slowly escaping gradually through respiration, according to:
Boyle's law
What is not a common sign or symptom of blunt cardiac trauma?
Bradycardia
You are caring for a patient with penetrating abdominal trauma secondary to an industrial explosion. The patient has an altered mental status and is found to be hypotensive, tachycardic, and tachypneic. During your fluid administration, what minimum systolic blood pressure do you wish to maintain? A. 70 mmHg B. 60 mmHg C. 80 mmHg D. 90 mmHg
C. 80 mmHg
What is the preferred technique to secure a fractured humerus? A. An unpadded rigid splint B. An air splint C. A sling and swathe D. A vacuum splint
C. A sling and swathe
You are assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. You note that the abdomen is slightly distended, rigid to the touch, with an ecchymotic area surrounding the umbilicus. What does this finding imply? A. Penetrating trauma somewhere in the flank area B. Evisceration through laceration of the abdominal wall C. An abdominal injury that is likely several hours old D. Very recently sustained blunt abdominal trauma
C. An abdominal injury that is likely several hours old
What is the purpose of a focused trauma assessment? A. Evaluation of traumatic injury in the face of near-term pregnancy B. Establishment of a CUPS rating C. Assessment of a specific isolated injury D. Location of serious traumatic injuries
C. Assessment of a specific isolated injury
What is the effect of even a small amount of water entering the lungs during a drowning? A. Mammalian diving reflex B. Hypocarbia C. Atelectasis D. Laryngospasm
C. Atelectasis
Which individual would you most likely assess and treat for heatstroke? A. A 50-year-old woman out walking her dog on an evening with a temperature of 75 degrees and 16 percent humidity B. A 30-year-old man playing tennis in an air-conditioned indoor court C. A high-school football player in the first few days of practice with temperatures in the 90s and high humidity D. A 68-year-old man who lives in a small house without air conditioning with a summer temperature between 80 and 85 degrees Fahrenheit
C. A high-school football player in the first few days of practice with temperatures in the 90s and high humidity
Your squad is dispatched to a local department store for a fall. When you arrive you are met by a panicked store manager and led to one of the aisles where a construction worker in his mid-20s has fallen approximately 20 feet through the roof and is lying on the floor after landing on a set of shelves. As you approach you note that the worker is unconscious and breathing at a rate of 10/min. He has a pulse rate of 72 and thready. You immediately start him on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and perform a rapid trauma assessment, which reveals that he has no response to pain, apparent abdominal distention, open bilateral tibia and fibula fractures, and a closed femur fracture on his left side. His blood pressure is 80/68. What care should be performed prior to transport? A. Rapid sequence intubation B. Full physical exam C. Bleeding control and full immobilization on a long spine board D. Initiation oftwo large-bore IVs of a crystalloid solution
C. Bleeding control and full immobilization on a long spine board
What is not a type of soft splint? A. Pillow splint B. Air splint C. Cardboard splint D. Pelvic sling
C. Cardboard splint
Your EMS system permits care providers to treat patients with minor injuries and then release them to see their personal physician. After treating a patient for heat cramps, she seems to have recovered and she reports that the slight dizziness that she had been experiencing is gone. You determine that you can release this patient according to your system's local protocols. What do you need to do? A. Contact medical direction. B. Reassess the patient's vital signs one last time. C. Carefully explain to this patient what heat emergency signs to watch out for and ensure she understands. D. Have the patient sign a refusal of care form.
C. Carefully explain to this patient what heat emergency signs to watch out for and ensure she understands.
Which condition results from hyperextension of the cervical spine, such as may occur from a forward fall and facial impact? A. Anterior cord syndrome B. Cauda equina syndrome C. Central cord syndrome D. Brown-Sequard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
What type of bone injury is said to occur when the bone itself becomes fractured, but there is no penetration of sharp bone ends through the overlying skin? A. Spiral fracture B. Greenstick fracture C. Closed fracture D. Open fracture
C. Closed fracture
Your patient has an abdominal wound that resulted in an evisceration of bowel. How should this be managed? A. Cover the exposed bowel with an occlusive dressing. B. Gently tuck the bowel back into the abdominal cavity without rinsing it with saline. C. Cover the exposed bowel with a saline-soaked trauma pad. D. Wash off the bowel with saline and tuck it gently back into the abdominal cavity.
C. Cover the exposed bowel with a saline-soaked trauma pad.
During primary assessment, which of the following signs indicates hypoxia? A. Distended jugular veins B. Dyspnea C. Cyanosis D. Limited chest movement
C. Cyanosis
What does not result in thermolysis of body-generated heat? A. Radiation B. Respiration C. Digestion D. Evaporation
C. Digestion
What type of orthopedic injury may have occurred when a joint is injured in such a way that it becomes fixed in an abnormal position, is resistive to motion, is extremely painful, and will likely have noticeable deformity? A. Impacted fracture B. Transverse fracture C. Dislocation D. Comminuted injury
C. Dislocation
You are planning to assist your neighbor with installing a roof on his house on a sunny summer day. The weather is supposed to be hot with a high of 88 degrees and humidity of 85 percent. What measure will help you avoid a heat-related injury? A. Attempt to finish work for the day prior to mid-afternoon. B. Take frequent breaks. C. Drink fluids. D. Acclimatize slowly.
C. Drink fluids.
Which demographic of trauma victim appears to benefit least from air medical services? A. Young adults B. Infants C. Elderly D. Adolescents
C. Elderly
How do superficial scalp wounds provide a risk of infection that can involve the brain? A. The confluence of sinuses drains into the lymphatic system. B. Dural sinuses drain into frontal sinuses. C. Emissary veins from the dural sinuses drain into superficial venous circulation. D. Arteries supplying the meninges also supply the scalp.
C. Emissary veins from the dural sinuses drain into superficial venous circulation
You are working as a paramedic diver assisting a search and rescue team in locating a private aircraft that crash landed and rapidly sank in a local lake. You are searching in approximately 80 feet of water when you notice that your dive partner is beginning to act erratically, rapidly changing direction and swimming down into the bottom and stirring up silt. You suspect your partner is suffering from nitrogen narcosis. What should you do? A. Encourage your partner to rapidly ascend to the water surface and then check for and treat pneumothorax. B. Encourage your partner to rapidly ascend to the surface, administer high-flow oxygen, expedite transport, initiate an IV en route, and administer naloxone for nitrogen narcosis. C. Encourage your partner to ascend to the surface, assuring that he stages his ascent. D. Return to the surface to declare a diver emergency, and then descend back to your partner and pull him to the surface.
C. Encourage your partner to ascend to the surface, assuring that he stages his ascent.
You are treating a patient who received a knife wound to the left anterior chest. You have initiated high-flow oxygen and a large-bore IV. His vital signs are pulse 90, respirations 14, and blood pressure 110/74, and his lungs are clear bilaterally. After moving him to your stretcher, you notice that he is developing jugular vein distention that diminishes upon exhalation; a check of his radial pulse reveals that it has risen to 126, and you are barely able to detect it. His lungs are still clear bilaterally, but his heart sounds distant. What is your transport plan for this patient? A. Smooth, easy transport to the nearest trauma center B. Expedited transport to the nearest trauma center C. Expedited transport to the nearest ED D. Smooth, easy transport to the nearest ED
C. Expedited transport to the nearest ED
What is responsible for the low survival rate for victims of commotio cordis? A. Systemic electrolyte imbalance B. The low percentage of trained people at sporting events C. Failure to initially recognize the condition D. Resistant V-tach
C. Failure to initially recognize the condition
Which condition is a primary predisposing factor for environmental injuries? A. Balanced diet B. Stress C. Fatigue D. Exertion
C. Fatigue
Which type of head injury carries a 75 percent or higher mortality rate and is second in lethality after head injuries from auto crashes? A. Contrecoup injuries B. Whiplash C. Gunshot wounds D. Deceleration injuries
C. Gunshot wounds
What are the tubes of a bone through which blood vessels travel called? A. Arterioles B. Osteoclasts C. Haversian canals D. Osteocytes
C. Haversian canals
The use of which adjunct has reduced the occurrence of head injury in sports? A. CT scans for concussions B. Injured roster time for concussions C. Helmets D. Seat belts
C. Helmets
What effect does hypothyroidism have on cold-related disorders? A. Hypothyroidism chronically reduces the body's release of catecholamines that maintain metabolic activity and heat production. B. Hypothyroidism prevents glycogen storage in the liver. C. Hypothyroidism depresses the body's heat-producing mechanisms. D. Hypothyroidism reduces the body's thermal mass.
C. Hypothyroidism depresses the body's heat-producing mechanisms.
What term refers to a reduced volume in the cardiovascular system, caused by hemorrhage or by an excess of fluid loss against inadequate fluid intake, or by losses into third spaces? A. Hypotension B. Hypoperfusion C. Hypovolemia D. Dehydration
C. Hypovolemia
Which cause of abdominal trauma is on the rise? A. Auto accidents due to higher highway speed limits B. Auto accidents due to a decline in the use of seat belts C. Increasing violence in society D. Injury resulting from poor employer safety policies
C. Increasing violence in society
What would blunt trauma to the neck that damages the cartilaginous rings of the trachea and/or the vocal cords not cause? A. Soft tissue swelling B. Epiglottitis C. Injury to the T-12/L-1 transition point D. Collapse of the airway on inspiration
C. Injury to the T-12/L-1 transition point
During a fight with a knife-wielding assailant, your teenage patient was stabbed in the lower left abdominal quadrant, at roughly the 5 o'clock position. Bleeding is minimal, and the patient is conscious and in extreme pain. Given this injury, what structure is most likely injured from the stabbing? A. Small bowel B. Gallbladder C. Large bowel D. Inferior vena cava
C. Large bowel
In a drowning incident, how much water typically enters the lungs? A. About 300 mL B. The lungs fill C. Less than 30 mL D. None
C. Less than 30 mL
In which stage of hypothermia is the ability to shiver usually lost? A. Compensated hypothermia B. Severe hypothermia C. Moderate hypothermia D. Mild hypothermia
C. Moderate hypothermia
What type of bone injury carries with it the greatest likelihood of a secondary infection? A. Compartment syndrome B. Hairline collagen fracture C. Open fracture D. Paresthesia
C. Open fracture
What accelerated degenerative bone disease results from demineralization? A. Osteopenia B. Pathological fractures C. Osteoporosis D. Cramping
C. Osteoporosis
Which unique finding may be noted in compartment syndrome as a result of compression damage to the nerves and vascular supply in the femoral region? A. Presence of a distal pulse B. Hyper-reactivity of the reflexes on the injured limb C. Paresthesia between the medial toes D. No pain with passive extension of the extremity
C. Paresthesia between the medial toes
What should be done with the information you receive from emergency medical responders and EMTs about the patient's condition and the care he received after you finish formulating a patient management plan? A. Avoid receiving the information until after you have formed your own management plan. B. Verify the information. C. Pass the information along to the ED. D. List it in the "Prior Care" section of the PCR.
C. Pass the information along to the ED.
What type of injury is most likely to result in frank hematuria? A. Mesenteric injury B. Thoracic injury C. Pelvic fracture D. Femur fracture
C. Pelvic fracture
What type of trauma is most likely to cause vascular injuries to the abdomen? A. Deceleration B. Compression C. Penetrating D. Shear
C. Penetrating
Open chest wall injuries are almost entirely the result of what mechanism? A. Firearms B. Blunt trauma C. Penetrating trauma D. Low-velocity wounds
C. Penetrating trauma
Which meningeal layer is closest to the brain? A. Cerebro mater B. Dura mater C. Pia mater D. Arachnoid membrane
C. Pia mater
What is the best method by which to reduce the morbidity and mortality associated with abdominal trauma? A. Improved diagnostic imaging B. Mobile surgical intervention units C. Prevention D. Improved passive restraint systems on automobiles
C. Prevention
You are dispatched for a fall at the local mall. When you arrive you are led by security to a location on the sidewalk where a 43-year-old male patient is lying on his back. He is alert and oriented and tells you that he was running to cross in front of a car when he tripped on the curb, striking his head on the sidewalk. He then rolled onto his back and can no longer move his hands, legs, or trunk, although he can still move his arms. You suspect a low cervical or high thoracic spinal injury. At what point in the assessment would you apply spinal stabilization to this patient? A. Scene size-up B. Rapid trauma assessment C. Primary assessment D. Secondary assessment
C. Primary assessment
What contribution have EMS systems made to the reduction in morbidity and mortality associated with abdominal injuries? A. Definitive prehospital treatment of abdominal hemorrhage B. Placement of surgeons in the prehospital system of rural areas C. Reduced injury-to-surgery times D. Reduced "go/no go" standards for air medical transport
C. Reduced injury-to-surgery times
What is the result of an injury that disrupts the bellows effect of the thoracic cavity? A. Hyperventilation syndrome B. Great vessel damage C. Respiratory insufficiency D. Pericardial tamponade
C. Respiratory insufficiency
What is the characteristic sign of a basilar skull fracture involving the auditory canal? A. Le Fort criteria B. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis C. Retroauricular ecchymosis D. Epistaxis
C. Retroauricular ecchymosis
In addition to the traditional management of a patient with spinal injury and abdominal trauma who is immobilized on a backboard, what intervention should be provided for the 8-months-pregnant female with abdominal trauma? A. Initiate a large-bore IV and keep the systolic pressure at greater than 100 mm Hg. B. Place the pregnant female in a semi-supine position to alleviate pressure of the uterus on the vena cava. C. Rotate the board 15 degrees to the left. D. Use low-flow oxygen only to avoid fetal hyperoxia.
C. Rotate the board 15 degrees to the left.
Which part of the inner ear is responsible for equilibrium? A. Cochlea B. Ganglia C. Semicircular canals D. Vestibule
C. Semicircular canals
What bodily activity that results from hypothermia robs the trauma victim of much needed metabolic resources? A. Fight or flight B. Body splinting C. Shivering D. Peripheral vascular dilation
C. Shivering
When palpating a patient, what does a "Rice Krispies" feel to the skin signify? A. Rebound tenderness B. Flaccidity C. Subcutaneous emphysema D. Muscle spasm
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
You are dispatched to an unknown medical emergency near the city park. You arrive to find the fire department and police on the scene and are directed to an opening in the sidewalk where a manhole cover had been removed. You note that there is blood spatter on the edge of the manhole, and at the bottom of the ladder you see a young female in jogging clothes with her back against the wall and head slumped forward, unconscious. You also note sonorous respirations and see a visible open femur fracture that is freely hemorrhaging and blood dripping from her face or head. The fire department has determined that the atmosphere in the manhole is safe, and you enter the space. Your partner repositions the airway while initiating manual spinal alignment. The sonorous respirations cease, but you note that she has audible gurgling and an apparent maxillary fracture; she is bleeding heavily from the mouth and nose. Which choice would be your next step? A. Suction as required and place on high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask. B. Place on high-flow oxygen and control the bleeding at the femur. C. Suction as required, place a mechanical airway, and assist ventilations as needed. D. Place her in a slatted stretcher and extricate her from the manhole.
C. Suction as required, place a mechanical airway, and assist ventilations as needed.
Which of the statements regarding the Glasgow Coma Scale is accurate? A. The GCS is a precise indicator of airway compromise. B. The GCS can be administered uniformly across all ages. C. The GCS is not a "perfect" means to accurately represent a patient's level of consciousness. D. The GCS should be repeated every 15 minutes for traumatized victims.
C. The GCS is not a "perfect" means to accurately represent a patient's level of consciousness.
What is the general term for the loss of heat from warmer substances to cooler substances, regardless of the mechanism of heat loss? A. Transfer B. Chilling C. Thermolysis D. Radiation
C. Thermolysis
Which statement is most accurate when considering spinal precautions as part of your primary assessment? A. No patients are excluded from spinal precautions. B. When in doubt, err on the side on forgoing spinal precautions in favor of more rapid transport. C. They should be immediately employed when an MOI or patient condition warrants it and discontinued if the patient is completely cleared. D. Spinal precautions are generally not employed for elderly or pediatric patients.
C. They should be immediately employed when an MOI or patient condition warrants it and discontinued if the patient is completely cleared.
You are called to the scene of a shooting. After being directed to approach the scene by law enforcement, you are escorted to a 42-year-old male patient complaining of a single gunshot wound to the anterior right upper quadrant of the abdomen without an exit wound. What information would initially assist you in determining the associated internal injuries? A. The brand of the firearm B. The build of the victim C. The height, distance, direction, and angle of the firearm when the shooting occurred D. The size of the assailant
C. The height, distance, direction, and angle of the firearm when the shooting occurred
In comparison with the adult patient, what type of fracture would the pediatric patient be more prone to? A. Pathologic B. Comminuted C. Torus D. Febrile
C. Torus
You are dispatched to a residence for a 32-year-old female complaining of a severe headache and blurry vision in her left eye. When you question her, she tells you that the headache began the previous day and got worse as the day went on, forcing her to leave work early. When she awoke this morning, she noticed the dizziness and vision change in her eye and decided not to drive herself to the doctor. As you perform your exam, you notice that she winces when you touch the left parietal area of her head. When asked, she remembers that she was struck on the left side of the head by an object she believed was thrown by a lawn mower she walked past three days prior as she was walking the dog. She stated that the object didn't hurt very much so she didn't stop and subsequently forgot about it. You decide to expedite transport for this patient. Which mode of transport is best? A. Transport via air medical service B. Transport at high speed using lights and sirens sparingly C. Transport at reduced speed using lights and sirens sparingly D. Transport at high speed with red lights and sirens used throughout
C. Transport at reduced speed using lights and sirens sparingly
Continued advances in what area can do the most to improve prevention of musculoskeletal injury? A. Protective gear for sports B. Workplace safety enforcement C. Vehicle and highway design D. Home safety
C. Vehicle and highway design
To receive a Revised Trauma Score of 4 for respiratory rate the patient must be breathing at: A. greater than 29 breaths per minute. B. a maximum of 10 breaths per minute. C. a minimum of 10 breaths per minute. D. 6 to 9 breaths per minute.
C. a minimum of 10 breaths per minute.
Hypotension occurs in relation to: A. a decrease in blood volume. B. an increase in blood pressure. C. a reduction in blood pressure. D. an increase in blood volume.
C. a reduction in blood pressure.
Osteoporotic fractures: A. are more common in pediatric patients. B. are more common among patients who are athletes. C. are much more common in women than men. D. are uncommon in the United States.
C. are much more common in women than men.
You are treating a novice diver who is the victim of a pneumothorax, which resulted from him holding his breath during ascent from a 20-foot-deep dive and causing pulmonary overpressure. You have successfully treated the pneumothorax but have a concern because the same type of barotrauma can also additionally result in: A. ruptured eardrum. B. nitrogen narcosis. C. arterial gas embolism. D. decompression sickness.
C. arterial gas embolism.
The patient with an aortic dissection may complain of severe tearing pain that radiates to the: A. neck. B. head. C. back. D. extremities.
C. back.
The exchange of information between patient care providers should: A. include anecdotal information. B. not contain patient information ascertained prior to your arrival. C. be rapid, thorough, and accurate. D. be publicly available.
C. be rapid, thorough, and accurate.
Mortality resulting from a hemothorax is primarily attributable to: A. hypoxemia. B. other associated injuries. C. blood loss. D. tension hemothorax.
C. blood loss.
The portion of the membranous lining that covers the outside of the heart is the: A. lateral cardiohylum. B. pericardium. C. epicardium. D. endocardium.
C. epicardium.
Myocardial aneurysm or rupture occurs almost exclusively in: A. penetrating trauma. B. blunt cardiac injury. C. extreme blunt thoracic trauma. D. blunt force from CPR.
C. extreme blunt thoracic trauma.
The basic goal of splinting is to: A. eliminate pain from injury. B. have the patient test a range of motion for the proximal joint. C. help reduce or eliminate movement of an injured extremity. D. strengthen the injured joint.
C. help reduce or eliminate movement of an injured extremity.
When identifying a patient's level of consciousness, you should at a minimum: A. assign the patient a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. B. establish his degree of orientation. C. identify the patient's level of consciousness using the AVPU mnemonic. D. determine whether the patient is conscious or unconscious.
C. identify the patient's level of consciousness using the AVPU mnemonic.
Morbidity and mortality for various abdominal injuries has been on the decline due to: A. a reduction in occurrences of penetrating trauma. B. development of prehospital definitive care techniques. C. improved surgical and critical care techniques. D. a reduction in the rush to surgical intervention.
C. improved surgical and critical care techniques.
Most motor vehicle accident deaths that are attributable to thoracic trauma result from: A. flail chest. B. tension pneumothorax. C. injury to the heart and great vessels. D. airway obstruction.
C. injury to the heart and great vessels.
The risk of becoming a victim to a heat-related disorder can be most practically reduced by: A. taking salt tablets. B. reducing the outdoor humidity level. C. maintaining an adequate fluid intake. D. avoiding exposure to hot environments.
C. maintaining an adequate fluid intake.
Members of the emergency medical system can most effectively impact morbidity and mortality of trauma victims by: A. updating standing orders. B. reducing scene times. C. participating actively in prevention. D. practicing skills.
C. participating actively in prevention.
To secure the hand in the position of function when splinting a forearm fracture: A. use a sling and swathe. B. splint the hand along with the forearm. C. place a large dressing material wad in the palm. D. wrap the hand tightly in bandages.
C. place a large dressing material wad in the palm.
It is a clear, warm August afternoon when your squad is dispatched to a construction site for a 22-year-old male complaining of numbness and tingling, muscle cramps, and headache after operating a jackhammer all morning. Upon arrival you verify that the site is secure and then are led to the shady side of a concrete block wall where your victim is sitting on the ground with his head in his hands. As you approach and introduce yourself, your patient anxiously tells you that he feels like he's going to pass out. He is diaphoretic and very warm with a thready pulse of 98 and a respiratory rate of 16 and shallow, with a pulse ox of 99 percent on ambient air. He tells you he has no medical history or allergies. As you assist your patient to a supine position, you ask your partner to: A. radio medical direction. B. prepare high-flow oxygen. C. prepare an IV of normal saline. D. get a glass of cold water.
C. prepare an IV of normal saline.
The ability of the paramedic to trend improvement or deterioration in a patient's condition is most reliant upon: A. patient history. B. follow-up findings in the ED. C. reassessment. D. increasing anxiety.
C. reassessment.
A large region of cortical disruption may cause confusion and affect the patient's mental status, such as the patient forgetting the circumstances leading up (before) the incident itself, which is called: A. anterograde amnesia. B. event amnesia. C. retrograde amnesia. D. retroauricular ecchymosis.
C. retrograde amnesia.
During the rapid trauma assessment for a patient with an extremity fracture or muscular injury, you should assess the distal pulses, capillary refill, temperature, muscle tone, and, if the patient is conscious: A. blood loss. B. oxygen saturation. C. sensation and motor function. D. blood pressure.
C. sensation and motor function.
Storing salts needed for metabolism is primarily the job of the: A. liver. B. muscles. C. skeleton. D. kidneys.
C. skeleton.
You are treating a female patient who was attacked and robbed. The patient presents with labored breathing due to a knife that has been impaled into the upper left abdominal quadrant. Treatment of this injury should include: A. removing the knife and placing an occlusive dressing. B. bandaging the protruding portion tight against the abdomen. C. stabilizing the knife in place. D. cutting the protruding part of the knife.
C. stabilizing the knife in place.
Submersion of the face in cold water can trigger: A. laryngospasm. B. hypoxia. C. the mammalian reflex. D. aspiration.
C. the mammalian reflex.
Entanglement in kelp fields causing fatigue or drowning, diving into cold water causing blackouts, and injury from boats in the area are types of injury associated with: A. the bottom. B. ascent. C. the surface. D. descent.
C. the surface.
The great vessels, trachea, and esophagus, as well as the vagus and phrenic nerves, enter the mediastinum through the: A. thyroid opening. B. esophageal passage. C. thoracic inlet. D. mediastinum.
C. thoracic inlet.
What results from penetrating injury that affects one side of the cord? A. Cauda equina syndrome B. Anterior cord syndrome C. Brown-Sequard syndrome D. Central cord syndrome
C. Brown-Sequard syndrome
You are dispatched to the scene of an automobile accident along with two other units. As you approach the scene, you see a compact car under the trailer of a semi-truck that turned in front of the car. The fire department has secured the area and is opening the driver's door of the car with jaws as you pull up. After the door is opened, you find a male victim in the driver's seat, lying over the center console. You hear gurgling respirations that sound shallow at a rate of 20, and he is apparently unresponsive, but you are unable to see his head from the driver's door. You are successful at ascertaining a pedal pulse with a rate of 70 and strong. A rescue worker informs you that they are unable to access the passenger side until the trailer is lifted off, as the wheels are in the way. With the provided information, prioritize your initial concerns in terms of injury. A. Airway compromise, hemorrhage, extrication, severe head injury B. Severe head injury, respiratory distress, extrication C. Extrication, airway compromise, severe head injury, cervical spine, hemorrhage, hypothermia D. Severe head injury, cervical spine injury, respiratory distress, extrication
C. Extrication, airway compromise, severe head injury, cervical spine, hemorrhage, hypothermia
Which illness is caused by an increase in pulmonary pressure and hypertension precipitated by changes in blood flow that occur at high altitudes? A. Acute mountain sickness B. High-altitude cerebral edema C. High-altitude pulmonary edema D. Dysbarism
C. High-altitude pulmonary edema
Which illness is caused by an increase in pulmonary pressure and hypertension precipitated by changes in blood flow that occur at high altitudes? A. High-altitude cerebral edema B. Dysbarism C. High-altitude pulmonary edema D. Acute mountain sickness
C. High-altitude pulmonary edema
Which femur fracture is most likely to be immobilized with a traction splint? A. Proximal femur fracture B. Mid-shaft femur fracture with associated hip injury C. Mid-shaft femur fracture D. Mid-shaft femur fracture with concurrent pelvic injury.
C. Mid-shaft femur fracture
A conscious patient with a severe open fracture in the right thigh and other less severe but still significant musculoskeletal injuries in the lower right leg and foot asks you anxiously if she will be able to walk again. What is your best response? A. Tell the patient you are not allowed to make a prognosis and continue care. B. Smile and say, "You'll be fine," while continuing care. C. Say, "We'll do everything we can to provide you with necessary care," while continuing care. D. Ignore the patient while concentrating on continuing care.
C. Say, "We'll do everything we can to provide you with necessary care," while continuing care.
Trauma-related hypothermia occurs in relation to the: A. external temperature. B. lack of external heat sources. C. fight-or-flight response. D. wind chill.
C. fight-or-flight response.
A dislocation at the sternoclavicular joint should be immobilized with a: A. traction splint. B. rigid splint. C. figure-eight dressing. D. sling and swath.
C. figure-eight dressing.
Retroauricular ecchymosis
Characteristic sign of a basilar skull fracture involving the auditory canal
Which population is at highest risk for high -altitude pulmonary edema?
Children
What type of bone injury is said to occur when the bone itself becomes fractured, but there is no penetration of sharp bone end through overlying skin?
Closed fracture
Central cord syndrome
Condition results from hyperextension of cervical spine, such as may occur from a forward fall and facial impact
In what form of heat loss does the body lose heat to cooler air currents that pass by the body?
Convection
What percentage of victims that suffer an impact to the head require hospitalization? A. 35 percent B. 20 percent C. 50 percent D. 10 percent
D. 10 percent
You are treating the victim of an automobile accident who is presenting with no open wounds, but a slightly distended abdomen. He is alert and well oriented, has a pulse of 100, respirations of 22, and a blood pressure of 88/70. What would his Revised Trauma Score be? A. 12 B. 8 C. 16 D. 11
D. 11
You find significant hypoglycemia is an unresponsive patient with a head injury. You administer: A. 125 mg of glucose and 600 mg of thiamine. B. 50 mg of glucose and 75 mg of thiamine. C. 100 mg of glucose and 500 mg of thiamine. D. 25 mg of glucose and 100 mg of thiamine.
D. 25 mg of glucose and 100 mg of thiamine.
What percentage of motor vehicle deaths are due to thoracic trauma? A. 35 percent B. 52 percent C. 10 percent D. 25 percent
D. 25 percent
What is the most common outcome of blunt head trauma? A. A focal injury B. A cerebrovascular accident C. Impeded intracranial perfusion D. A diffuse injury
D. A diffuse injury
To correct the hypoxia of a drowning patient, what is the first step? A. Examine the patient for airway patency, breathing, and pulse. B. Position the patient on a flat surface parallel to the water. C. Manage the airway using proper suctioning and airway adjuncts. D. A trained rescue swimmer removes the patient from the water.
D. A trained rescue swimmer removes the patient from the water.
What is the temperature at which all molecular motion has stopped? A. Fahrenheit zero B. -250 degrees C C. Entropic zero D. Absolute zero
D. Absolute zero
What task does a hyperbaric chamber perform? A. Return of the diver to his previous dive depth in a bell chamber B. Increase of atmospheric air pressure C. Replacement of a diver's air tanks D. Administration of oxygen at greater than air pressure
D. Administration of oxygen at greater than air pressure
What has been the greatest source of advancement in treatment of thoracic trauma? A. Improved patient care quality assurance B. Shorter response times C. Delivery of definitive care by paramedics D. Advances in treatment made during military conflicts
D. Advances in treatment made during military conflicts
Which drug does not interfere with proper heat-generating mechanisms? A. Alcohol B. Antihistamines C. NSAIDs D. Antibiotics
D. Antibiotics
When clearing the cervical spine, what would a distracting injury include? A. Any injury that appears significant, even if pain is not an issue B. Any injury that would distract the paramedic from clearing the cervical spine C. Injury to other patients, which would distract the paramedic from clearing the cervical spine D. Any injury that produces clinically apparent pain that might distract the patient from the pain of a spine injury
D. Any injury that produces clinically apparent pain that might distract the patient from the pain of a spine injury
You are treating the victim of an auto accident who struck the steering wheel when the air bag failed to deploy. You notice severe bruising of the anterior chest but don't detect any rib fractures or displacement. When you arrived the patient was conscious and well oriented with respirations of 22 and a palpable radial pulse of 96. His SpO2 is 95; you immediately apply high-flow oxygen. After extrication and immobilization, you notice that the patient's breathing is more shallow but his rate remains about the same. His radial pulse is 114, his blood pressure is 96/70, and his SpO2 has dropped to 92 percent. In addition he appears to be developing some abdominal distention and is beginning to complain of dyspnea. You auscultate his lungs and find that they are diminished to absent in the lower lobes. What would your next actions include? A. Initiate two large-bore IVs and administer a 500 cc bolus of normal saline; expedite transport. B. Assist ventilation and apply the PASG; expedite transport. C. Perform rapid sequence intubation and transport. D. Assist ventilation with a BVM at the patient's current rate, initiate two large-bore IVs TKO, and expedite transport.
D. Assist ventilation with a BVM at the patient's current rate, initiate two large-bore IVs TKO, and expedite transport.
You are dispatched to the scene of a shallow water diving accident. While en route, what would you consider to be the most likely result of this method of injury? A. Excessive rotation of the cervical spine B. Hyperextension of the cervical spine C. Hyperflexion of the cervical spine D. Axial loading of the cervical spine
D. Axial loading of the cervical spine
What is the definition of hematochezia? A. Vomiting blood B. Blood in the urine C. Blood in the abdominal cavity that irritates the peritoneum D. Blood in the stool
D. Blood in the stool
What is not a common sign or symptom of blunt cardiac injury? A. Bruising of the chest wall B. Blunt injury to the chest C. Severe nagging pain D. Bradycardia
D. Bradycardia
How does a hyperbaric chamber treat dysbarism? A. By rationing oxygen administration B. By increasing the ambient air pressure above the maximum ocean depth C. By testing the pressurized air in the diver's tank D. By redissolving nitrogen bubbles that have formed in the blood
D. By redissolving nitrogen bubbles that have formed in the blood
What results from compression of the nerve roots at the lower end of the spinal cord? A. Central cord syndrome B. Brown-Sequard syndrome C. Anterior cord syndrome D. Cauda equina syndrome
D. Cauda equina syndrome
What patient demographic has an elevated predisposition to developing heat disorders? A. Middle-aged adults B. Acclimatized adults C. Young adults D. Children
D. Children
Which population is at the highest risk for high-altitude pulmonary edema? A. Elderly B. Middle-aged women C. Middle-aged men D. Children
D. Children
In what form of heat loss does the body lose heat to cooler air currents that pass by the body? A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Conduction D. Convection
D. Convection
Which assessment type is most rarely used in the prehospital setting? A. Rapid trauma assessment B. Primary assessment C. Focused trauma assessment D. Detailed physical exam
D. Detailed physical exam
You are called to the scene of an automobile accident in which the driver was wearing his shoulder belt improperly and struck his face on the steering wheel. As you approach the vehicle, you see the door has been opened and the driver is unconscious, with his head still against the wheel and blood flowing freely from his nose and mouth. His respirations are 18 and shallow and his pulse is 102 radially. To extricate this patient, how should you proceed? A. Keep the spine in a neutral, in-line position while permitting maximum flexion and extension. B. Pull the patient from the vehicle in one swift movement without stabilization. C. Stabilize the patient's spine, elbows, and ribcage with the patient's nose, navel, and heels kept in line. D. Ensure that any providers assisting you are coordinated and understand what movement is to take place.
D. Ensure that any providers assisting you are coordinated and understand what movement is to take place.
You have a patient who was trapped beneath a truck along the freeway when he was trying to repair the brakes. By the time you arrive, the local fire department has already extricated the patient from underneath the truck, and he is currently immobilized. They advise you that the patient has a crushed pelvis, an open fracture to the left femur, a distended abdomen, and vomitus in the airway. The patient suddenly became unresponsive when the weight of the truck was lifted from him. What should be your first priority of management? A. Position the patient for comfort. B. Initiate an IV for fluid resuscitation. C. Immobilize the fractured femur. D. Establish an open airway.
D. Establish an open airway.
Which injury would you be likely to encounter while treating the driver of a motor vehicle that has been struck from behind? A. Hyperflexion of the cervical vertebrae B. Rotational subluxation C. Lateral compression fracture of a vertebra D. Fracture of the posterior vertebral elements
D. Fracture of the posterior vertebral elements
Which precaution can maximize the ability of heat-generating mechanisms to replenish energy supplies when in cold environments? A. Dress lightly. B. Perform physical labor to promote perspiring. C. Eat less than usual. D. Get plenty of rest.
D. Get plenty of rest.
What trauma injury is the most frequent cause of death? A. Injury to the lungs B. Severed spinal cord C. Abdominal hemorrhage D. Head injury
D. Head injury
Which heat disorder is generally characterized by a body temperature of at least 105degreesF, central nervous system disturbances, and usually the cessation of sweating? A. Hyperthermia B. Heat cramps C. Heat exhaustion D. Heatstroke
D. Heatstroke
What condition, resulting from the presence of air and blood in the thoracic pleural space, is typically seen with penetrating chest trauma? A. Pneumothorax B. Tension pneumothorax C. Compound hemothorax D. Hemopneumothorax
D. Hemopneumothorax
Which term describes low or inadequate distribution of blood to body organs and tissues caused by cardiac, vascular, neurogenic, or volume problems? A. Hypotension B. Hypovolemia C. Hemorrhage D. Hypoperfusion
D. Hypoperfusion
Which term refers to the distribution of blood to the body's organs and tissues? A. Hypertension B. Hypovolemia C. Hypotension D. Hypoperfusion
D. Hypoperfusion
What term refers to a drop in blood pressure caused by a reduction in blood pressure caused by cardiac, vascular, neurogenic, or volume problems to a level that is lower than normal for the patient? A. Dehydration B. Hypovolemia C. Hypoperfusion D. Hypotension
D. Hypotension
A 78-year-old woman fell in her kitchen and broke her hip. She was unable to call for help and lay on the tile floor for 28 hours before being found. She is confused and has cool skin. You notice that she is dressed in a light nightgown and that the thermostat is set on 68 degrees F. What environmental disorder may be complicating this patient's condition? A. Conduction B. Decompensation C. Thermoregulation disorder D. Hypothermia
D. Hypothermia
What effect does hypothermia have on blood clotting? A. Hypothermia reduces the erythrocytes' ability to flow through capillaries, resulting in DIC. B. Hypothermia increases the viscosity of blood, thereby shortening clotting time. C. Hypothermia increases the effectiveness of enzymes that participate in the clotting cascade. D. Hypothermia stimulates the release of a heparin-like anticoagulant.
D. Hypothermia stimulates the release of a heparin-like anticoagulant.
What do the signs and symptoms of Cushing's triad include? A. Decreasing systolic blood pressure, decreasing heart rate, and agonal respirations B. Confusion, amnesia, and nausea C. Increasing diastolic blood pressure and pulse with a decreased level of consciousness D. Increasing systolic blood pressure, slowing pulse, and irregular respirations
D. Increasing systolic blood pressure, slowing pulse, and irregular respirations
You are dispatched to an industrial accident for a 38-year-old male patient who was struck in the head by a steel beam being shuttled on an overhead crane. On arrival, you find the patient in the company first-aid station supine on a cot, secured to a scoop stretcher, cervical collar in place, and a hematoma in the right parietal area. The EMT tells you that the patient walked in and lay down on the cot but now he is less responsive. The vital signs he provides are pulse 70, BP 140/88, and respirations 10 with good volume. You approach the patient and quickly establish that he has a bounding pulse of about 60 and is now only purposefully responsive to pain. What would your initial treatment and transport decisions include? A. Auscultate the patient. B. Palpate the patient. C. Inspect the patient. D. Initiate rapid transport to a trauma center.
D. Initiate rapid transport to a trauma center.
Which statement is true regarding pediatric head trauma? A. Head trauma in the pediatric patient has the same pathophysiologic process as for an adult. B. The adult's skull distorts more easily with trauma and transmits injury forces more directly to the central nervous tissues. C. Adults display signs and symptoms of ICP more slowly than younger pediatric patients. D. Intracranial hemorrhage in the pediatric patient can contribute significantly to hypovolemia.
D. Intracranial hemorrhage in the pediatric patient can contribute significantly to hypovolemia.
What causes the tissue edema resulting from an intracerebral hemorrhage? A. Pressure of hemorrhaging blood B. Osmotic plasma pressure C. Encapsulation of the damaged area by the body D. Irritation of nervous tissue
D. Irritation of nervous tissue
What organ is responsible for regulatory control over the osmotic balance of the body by retaining or releasing water or sodium and other body salts? A. Spleen B. Bladder C. Pancreas D. Kidneys
D. Kidneys
What is an appropriate reason to utilize air medical resources at the scene of an emergency? A. The number of access ramps on a freeway is limited. B. Heavy snow is limiting the use of ground services. C. Adequate utilization is required to financially support the service. D. Local EMS resources are exceeded.
D. Local EMS resources are exceeded.
What is the body's physiologic reaction called should the face suddenly be submerged into cold water? A. Mild hypothermia B. Reflex hypothermia C. Submersion reflex D. Mammalian diving reflex
D. Mammalian diving reflex
What two government agencies have done much to help in prevention of musculoskeletal injury? A. National Transportation Safety Board and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration and Centers for Disease Control C. National Transportation Safety Board and National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health and Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health and Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Growth plate fractures are most damaging to what type of patient? A. Geriatric males B. Adult C. Postmenopausal females D. Pediatric
D. Pediatric
You are treating a patient who received a knife wound to the left anterior chest. You have initiated high-flow oxygen and a large-bore IV. His vital signs are pulse 90, respirations 14, and blood pressure 110/74, and his lungs are clear bilaterally. After moving him to your stretcher you notice that he is developing jugular vein distention that diminishes upon exhalation; a check of his radial pulse reveals that it has risen to 126, and you are barely able to detect it. His lungs are still clear bilaterally, but his heart sounds distant. Which field diagnosis will you base your treatment plan on? A. Tension pneumothorax B. Laceration of the vena cava C. Laceration of the aortic artery D. Pericardial tamponade
D. Pericardial tamponade
What term refers to irritation of the anterior abdominal cavity? A. Mesentery B. Guarding C. Rebound tendersness D. Peritonitis
D. Peritonitis
What is the visible, cartilaginous, outer portion of the ear termed? A. Lobe B. Adit C. Semicircular canals D. Pinna
D. Pinna
You suspect the driver of a car in a motor vehicle collision (MVC) with airbag deployment, despite having no complaint of injury, might still have sustained a spinal injury based on the high-force mechanism of injury. At which point in the assessment would you develop this suspicion? A. Rapid trauma assessment B. Primary assessment C. Secondary assessment D. Scene size-up
D. Scene size-up
Which of the following is a type of pulmonary injury? A. Rib fractures B. Sternal fractures C. Flail chest D. Simple pneumothorax
D. Simple pneumothorax
What are the two main subsystems of the musculoskeletal system? A. Locomotion and protection B. Smooth and striated C. Long and irregular D. Skeleton and muscles
D. Skeleton and muscles
A. Descending aorta B. Gravid uterus C. Urinary bladder D. Spleen
D. Spleen
What is bleeding called that occurs within the meninges, specifically beneath the dura mater and within the subarachnoid space? A. Epidural bleed B. Cerebral contusion C. Contrecoup injury D. Subdural hematoma
D. Subdural hematoma
Which thoracic injury may result in crimping of the vena cava? A. Open pneumothorax B. Blunt trauma C. Simple pneumothorax D. Tension pneumothorax
D. Tension pneumothorax
Why is the basilar skull commonly the site of fractures due to trauma? A. The area is commonly fractured as a result of axial loading. B. The cranial bones are thinnest at this point. C. The area is commonly the site of impact with blunt force instruments (clubs, bats, etc.). D. The area is permeated with openings.
D. The area is permeated with openings.
You are dispatched to an industrial accident for a 38-year-old male patient who was struck in the head by a steel beam being shuttled on an overhead crane. On arrival, you find the patient in the company first-aid station supine on a cot with a scoop stretcher and cervical collar in place, and a hematoma in the right parietal area. The EMT tells you that the patient walked in and lay down on the cot but now he is less responsive. The vital signs he provides are pulse 70, BP 140/88, and respirations 10 with good volume. You approach the patient and quickly establish that he is now only purposefully responsive to pain. When examining this patient's head, other than noting obvious signs of trauma, to where should you direct special attention? A. The underside of the jawline B. Behind the ears C. The back of the head D. The eyes
D. The eyes
During the full body physical exam of a patient in a motor vehicle collision (MVC), you notice a transverse line across the patient's body at the level of a suspected spinal cord injury beneath which the skin is flush and warm and above which the skin is cool and clammy. What is the reason for this? A. Peripheral vasodilation above the level of injury B. Adequate compensation for shock C. Peripheral vascular constriction below the level of injury D. The loss of nervous control below the level of injury
D. The loss of nervous control below the level of injury
What structure helps to support the digestive tract? A. The iliocoly B. The umbilical ligament C. The peritoneum D. The mesentery
D. The mesentery
In blunt trauma, how does injury of the abdominal wall muscles compare to the injury transmitted to the organs within the abdomen? A. Organ damage and muscle damage both result from the same force and so would be similar. B. The muscular lining would be injured worse, but it takes longer to become apparent. C. The muscular lining of the abdomen absorbs the trauma, resulting in less injury to the internal organs. D. The muscular lining of the abdomen is more resistant to injury than many of the internal organs, so most of the injury would be transmitted to the organs within the abdomen.
D. The muscular lining of the abdomen is more resistant to injury than many of the internal organs, so most of the injury would be transmitted to the organs within the abdomen.
Why is accurate assessment of the geriatric trauma victim especially essential to proper treatment? A. The victim may try to mislead the paramedic. B. The victim may exaggerate to receive attention. C. Caregivers typically provide a bad history. D. The problem may be masked or confused by signs and symptoms of preexisting disease.
D. The problem may be masked or confused by signs and symptoms of preexisting disease.
What is the lung's sole fixation point in the thoracic cage? A. The xiphisternal joint B. The ligamentum arteriosum C. The pleural lining D. The pulmonary hilum
D. The pulmonary hilum
Which patient would be the best candidate for the administration of mannitol? A. The severe head injury patient exhibiting signs of herniation and diminished kidney function B. The severe head injury patient exhibiting signs of significant hypoglycemia C. The severe head injury patient exhibiting signs of herniation with a systolic BP over 80 D. The severe head injury patient exhibiting signs of herniation with a systolic BP over 90
D. The severe head injury patient exhibiting signs of herniation with a systolic BP over 90
What is likely the most critical associated injury of serious blunt or penetrating trauma to the face? A. Distortion of the facial landmarks B. The entrance of blood into the digestive tract C. Mandibular dislocation D. The threat to airway patency
D. The threat to airway patency
You are evaluating a 32-year-old female in her third trimester after being called to her residence for a fall. During your exam, she tells you she is having contractions, which you are unable to feel by palpation. The abdomen also feels "soft." What has likely occurred? A. Abruptio placentae B. Placenta previa C. Amniotic sac rupture D. Uterine rupture
D. Uterine rupture
What is the primary underlying pathophysiology behind deaths associated with traumatic asphyxia? A. Hypotension B. Relative hypovolemia C. Hyperoxygenation D. Vascular compression
D. Vascular compression
As a general rule, when would air medical transport benefit a trauma victim? A. In highly congested urban areas B. When the victim is below the age of 55 C. When the weather is clear D. When ground transport time will exceed 45 minutes
D. When ground transport time will exceed 45 minutes
When should any significant findings of the rapid or focused trauma assessment be rechecked? A. Every 15 minutes on the unstable trauma patient B. Every 5 minutes on the stable trauma patient C. When performing vital signs D. Whenever you note any change in the patient's condition
D. Whenever you note any change in the patient's condition
Any victim of musculoskeletal trauma with a significant MOI or signs and symptoms that suggest a more serious injury pattern may exist should be provided with: A. a focused trauma assessment. B. a detailed physical exam. C. reassessment prior to transport. D. a rapid trauma assessment.
D. a rapid trauma assessment.
When you suspect a patient has a serious traumatic injury to the body and are inclined to transport him quickly to the trauma center, you should perform: A. a secondary assessment. B. a reassessment. C. a focused trauma assessment. D. a rapid trauma assessment.
D. a rapid trauma assessment.
Abdominal pain with external vaginal hemorrhage in the near-term trauma victim is primarily indicative of: A. fetal trauma. B. uterine rupture. C. rupture of the amniotic sac. D. abruptio placentae.
D. abruptio placentae.
Rigid splints are not constructed from: A. metal. B. plastic. C. wood. D. an airtight fabric bag.
D. an airtight fabric bag.
When an injury occurs directly at the point of impact as the brain moves toward and collides with the interior of the skull, this is called a(n): A. subdural hematoma. B. contrecoup injury. C. epidural hematoma. D. coup injury.
D. coup injury.
Two specific injury mechanisms can cause energy transfer to the pulmonary tissue and result in pulmonary contusions, of which the more common is: A. puncture of the chest wall. B. the pressure wave from a high-velocity bullet. C. the pressure wave from an explosion. D. deceleration.
D. deceleration.
Failure of the bone to support weight can be the result of: A. calcification. B. diaphysis. C. synarthroses. D. devascularization.
D. devascularization.
Wounds like those caused by arrows, knives, and other relatively slow-moving objects primarily cause injury by: A. temporary cavitation. B. limited cavitation. C. laceration. D. direct contact.
D. direct contact.
It is a hot, sunny summer day with an outdoor temperature in the 90s. You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for a female in her 40s. Her husband told the dispatcher that he came home from work to find her in bed. She moves when he arouses her but acts drugged. On your arrival you verify the safety of the scene and are led by the frantic husband into the house toward a bedroom. As you move through the house you note that the temperature indoors is probably in the 60s; the husband tells you that since his wife started her new hypothyroid medication she is always hot and turns down the thermostat when he leaves in the morning. His wife is lying on the bed, on top of the bedspread, wrapped in a towel with her hair still wet from an apparent shower. As you approach the bed you call her name and she mouths a few unintelligible syllables without opening her eyes. You move to check her pulse and note that she is pale and her skin feels cold and firm. She has a radial pulse of 58 and a respiratory rate of 8. You are unable to obtain a blood pressure, and her pupils are dilated. You ask her husband if she has any medical history, and he tells you that she is only being treated for the hypothyroidism. You place the patient on high-flow oxygen and an ECG monitor, where you note that she has atrial fibrillation and J waves. Knowing you are only 10 minutes from the hospital, your preliminary treatment plan will include: A. drying and covering with blankets, elevating the legs, testing blood glucose level, initiating an IV, applying heat guns and lights, and providing rapid transport. B. applying high-flow oxygen, applying warm-water immersion, elevating the legs, testing blood glucose level, and providing rapid transport. C. covering with blankets, elevating the legs, checking for medication bottles, expediting transport, and initiating IV en route. D. drying and covering with blankets, applying oxygen as needed, elevating the ambulance interior temperature, assessing glucose level, providing rapid but gentle transport, and initiating an IV.
D. drying and covering with blankets, applying oxygen as needed, elevating the ambulance interior temperature, assessing glucose level, providing rapid but gentle transport, and initiating an IV.
According to current research regarding prehospital trauma care, patient deaths could be reduced by: A. replacing ambulances with helicopters. B. Transporting patients without performing prehospital care. C. forgoing spinal immobilization for earlier transport. D. identifying and eliminating prehospital skills that do not improve patient outcomes or that increase morbidity and mortality.
D. identifying and eliminating prehospital skills that do not improve patient outcomes or that increase morbidity and mortality.
You determine that your elderly patient likely has an anterior dislocation of the hip with reduced circulation in the affected foot. Your treatment should include: A. sedating the patient and make one attempt to reduce the dislocation. B. making one attempt to reduce the dislocation. C. applying a traction splint and transport. D. immobilizing in the position found and consider rapid transport.
D. immobilizing in the position found and consider rapid transport.
The central space within the thoracic cavity that houses the heart is the: A. thoracic inlet. B. interpulmonary space. C. xyphoid space. D. mediastinum.
D. mediastinum.
Any abdominal jarring, as occurs with percussion or when you quickly release the pressure of deep palpation, can cause a twinge of pain called: A. abdominal flexion. B. reflex pain. C. guarding. D. rebound tenderness.
D. rebound tenderness.
A patient who was lost walking in the woods in January presents with a 95°F core temperature, elevated blood pressure and respirations, fatigue, and intense shivering. The legs of her jeans are wet from the snow, and her boots, which aren't adequate for hiking, also appear to be soaked through. Your treatment for this patient should include: A. removing the patient to a warm environment, removing all of her clothing, placing the patient in a supine position, assessing mental status, and applying passive rewarming with blankets. B. removing the patient to a warm environment, removing the wet clothing, placing the patient in a supine position, assessing mental status, and applying active rewarming with heat packs applied directly to the skin. C. removing the patient to a warm environment, removing the wet clothing, placing the patient in a left lateral recumbent position, assessing mental status, and applying passive rewarming with blankets. D. removing the patient to a warm environment, removing the wet clothing, placing the patient in a supine position, assessing mental status, and applying passive rewarming with blankets.
D. removing the patient to a warm environment, removing the wet clothing, placing the patient in a supine position, assessing mental status, and applying passive rewarming with blankets.
In accordance with Henry's law, as a diver descends deeper into the water: A. significantly more oxygen is dissolved in the blood. B. the volume of oxygen will significantly reduce. C. the volume of nitrogen will significantly reduce. D. significantly more nitrogen is dissolved in the blood.
D. significantly more nitrogen is dissolved in the blood.
An injury that occurs when muscle fibers are overstretched by forces that exceed the fiber's strength is called a: A. fracture. B. sprain. C. dislocation. D. strain.
D. strain.
Protocols and procedures for the use of air medical support are determined by: A. the senior paramedic. B. the ED. C. the fire chief. D. the EMS system.
D. the EMS system.
Fluid overload in the geriatric patient is a risk of treating shock because: A. their spleen is likely removed. B. they have reduced interstitial flexibility. C. their kidneys store additional fluids. D. their system cannot accommodate large fluctuations in fluid reserves.
D. their system cannot accommodate large fluctuations in fluid reserves
In the body, perspiration and vasodilation are both mechanisms of: A. thermogenesis. B. conduction. C. blood pressure control. D. thermolysis.
D. thermolysis.
Comparison of results from each reassessment to baseline findings and those from previous reassessments can identify any deterioration or improvement in the patient's condition; this is called: A. mapping. B. deterioration. C. reassessment. D. trending.
D. trending.
Initial information you receive from emergency medical responders and EMTs about the patient's condition and the care he received should be: A. omitted from your PCR. B. reviewed only after implementing your management plan. C. passed along to the ED without review. D. used in developing your initial patient impression and then formulating a patient management plan.
D. used in developing your initial patient impression and then formulating a patient management plan.
While monitoring the victim of a brain injury during the secondary assessment, you should be especially watchful for: A. narrowing pulse pressure. B. a rising GCS. C. tachycardia. D. Cushing's triad.
D. Cushing's triad.
Which illness in its early stages is easily reversible with descent and administration of oxygen? A. Cerebral overpressure edema B. Acute mountain sickness C. High-altitude pulmonary edema D. High-altitude cerebral edema
D. High-altitude cerebral edema
What treatment should be performed in the prehospital setting for divers who display signs of dysbarism, prior to placement in a hyperbaric chamber? A. Oxygen rationing B. Administration of NitroBindSuperscript ® C. Placement of warm packs on affected joints D. High-flow oxygen therapy
D. High-flow oxygen therapy
At a minimum, what information regarding your patient should be passed on to subsequent patient care providers? A. Your level of certification B. HIPAA compliance information C. Patient personal and insurance information D. MOI, assessment results, and interventions
D. MOI, assessment results, and interventions
Your high-altitude HEMS team is dispatched to the 14,000-foot level of the West Buttress route of Mount McKinley for a climber who fell unconscious could not be awakened. As your team proceeds to the location, you consider that the likely cause is: A. early high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). B. nitrogen narcosis. C. acute mountain sickness (AMS). D. high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE).
D. high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE).
Ascending from a dive too rapidly can create gas bubbles in the blood and tissues;these gas bubbles can then grow in size as the pressure is reduced, in accordance with:
Dalton's law
What does not result in thermolysis of body generated heat?
Digestion
Myotomes
Discrete tissues and muscles of the body that are controlled by specific spinal nerve roots
What has had a major effect on reducing mortality and morbidity from head injuries?
Education programs promoting safe practices
Bike performs what function?
Emulsifies fats
Myocardial aneurysm or rupture occurs almost exclusively in...
Extreme blunt thoracic trauma
Which conduction is a primary predisposing factor for environmental injuries?
Fatigue
Which accessory organ receives bile and stored it until it is needed during digestion of fatty food?
Gallbladder
Hyperthermia is usually caused by which mechanism?
Heat transfer from external environment
Which disorder results from loss of the body's hypothalamic temperature regulation system?
Heatstroke
Which heat disorder is generally characterized by a body temperature of at least 105, central nervous system disturbances,and usually the cessation of sweating?
Heatstroke
The initial symptoms of high-altitude illness include dry cough,mild SOB on exertion, light crackles in lungs?
High-Altitude pulmonary edema
Which illness in its early stages is easily reversible with descent and administration of oxygen
High-altitude cerebral edema
The process of maintaining constant suitable conditions within the body is called
Homeostasis
What findings would merit the highest priority for transport when assessing a patient with a potential heat- related emergency?
Hot, dry skin and AMS
Which term describes low or inadequate distribution of blood to body organs and tissues caused by cardiac, vascular, neurogenic, or volume problems?
Hypoperfusion
Which anatomical structure is directly responsible for temperature regulation in the human body?
Hypothalamus
What effect does hypothyroidism have on cold-related disorders?
Hypothyroidism depresses the body's heat producing mechanisms.
Morbidity and mortality for various abdominal injuries has been on decline due to :
Improved surgical and critical care techniques
Sternocleidomastoid
Internal intercostal muscles, along with diaphragm and what other muscles are the major muscles of inhalation
Musculoskeletal injuries do not include
Internal organs
An injury to the lower chest that lacerated the diaphragm is unlikely to also injure the:
Kidneys
Which organ is responsible for regulatory control over the osmotic balance of the body by retaining or releasing water or sodium and other body salts?
Kidneys
In a drowning incident, how much water typically enters the lungs
Less than 30 ml
At a minimum, what information regarding your patient should be passed on to subsequent patient care providers?
MOI, assessment results, and interventions
The risk of becoming a victim to a heat related disorder can be most practically reduced by:
Maintaining an adequate fluid intake.
What is the body's physiological reaction called should the face suddenly be submerged into cold water?
Mammalian diving reflex
When the body's compensatory mechanisms can no longer maintain the core temperature due to heat loss, what happens?
Metabolic rate and cardiac output fall
In which stage of hypothermia is the ability to shiver usually lost?
Moderate hypothermia
Developing workplace safety standards is the responsibility of
NIOSH
Which population is at a higher risk of pelvic rib and extremity due to trauma?
Obese patients
What bone cells dissolve bone structures when they are not carrying pressures of articulation and support?
Osteoclasts
What is the pins and needles sensation called:
Paresthesia
Growth plate fractures are most damaging to what type of patient?
Pediatric
What type of injury is most likely to result in flank hematuria?
Pelvic fracture
Brown-sequard syndrome
Penetrating injury that hemitransects the cord, resulting in sensory and motor loss to the ipsilateral side of body
What term refers to irritation of the anterior abdominal cavity
Peritonitis
What is the best method by which to reduce the morbidity and mortality associated with abdominal trauma?
Prevention
Musculoskeletal injuries to the upper extremities
Rarely threaten life
Any abdominal jarring, as occurs with percussion or when you quickly release the pressure of deep palpating, can cause a twinge of pain called:
Rebound tenderness
Blood-brain barrier
Refers to the CNS capillary walls that are thicker, more complete than, and not as permeable as those found elsewhere in the body.
A child fell backward off a trampoline yesterday, striking her head. She now has a severe headache and dizziness. In addition to cervical spine injuries that may be present, what other findings may indicate a skull fracture?
Retroauricular ecchymosis
What is the first opportunity to begin the assessment process?
Review of dispatch information
What has contributed to the increase in thoracic trauma in urban areas?
Semiautomatic hand guns
Which form of thoracic trauma provides the highest risk of aortic dissection
Severe lateral blunt force trauma
Axial loading accident
Shallow water diving
In accordance with Henry's law, as a diver descends deeper into the water:
Significantly more nitrogen is dissolved in the blood
What are the two main subsystems of the musculoskeletal system?
Skeleton and muscles
Storing salts needed for metabolism is primarily the job of the :
Skeleton.
What is the preferred techniques secure s fractured humerus ?
Sling and swath
Which solid organ is relatively well protected by the lower ribs, back and flank muscles, spinal column?
Spleen
An injury that occurs when muscle fibers are overstretches by forces that exceed the fibers strength is called:
Strain
Expert information regarding diving emergencies can be provided by
The Divers Alert Network
What structure helps support the digestive tract?
The mesentery
Epicardium
The portion of the membranous lining that covers the outside of the heart
Cranium
The portion of the skull that protects the brain
The three methods the body utilizes to create heat are all types of :
Thermogenesis
What is the general term for the loss of heat from warmer substances,regardless of the mechanism of heat loss?
Thermolysis
SAM splint
Thin sheet of pliable aluminum covered with padding
The great vessels, trachea, and esophagus, as well as the vagus and phrenic nerves , enter the mediastinum through the :
Thoracic inlet
How many compartments is the abdominal cavity decided into?
Three
How many layer of connective tissue are there between the cranium and the brain
Three
In comparison with the adult patients, what type of fracture would the pediatric patient be more prone too?
Torus
Continued advances in what area can do the most to improve prevention of musculoskeletal injury ?
Vehicle and highway designs
Pinna
Visible, cartilaginous, outer portion of the ear
Subdural hematoma
What is the bleeding called that occurs within the meninges, specifically beneath the dura mater and within the subarachnoid space?
Which environmental factor would predispose a person to heat or cold disorders?
Wind
What task does a hyperbaric chamber perform?
administration of oxygen at greater than air pressure
atelectasis
collapsed lung: effect of small amount of water entering the lungs during a downing
compartment syndrome
injury caused when tissues such as blood vessels and nerves are constricted within a space as from swelling or from a tight dressing or cast
Where is fat stored in the bone?
yellow bone marrow