Patho Final Questions
Describe the character of Second-degree burns (select all that apply) 1. Immediate thin-walled blisters 2. Destruction of entire epidermis, dermis and sub-q 3. May heal in 3-4 weeks 4. Scarring depends on genetics.
1,3 and 4 are correct answers that describe superficial-partial and deep-partial thickness injury of Second degree burns. 2 describes a third degree burn which includes deeper injury affecting more tissue.
Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)? a. Ascending b. Descending c. Somatic d. Efferent
A Peripheral nerve pathways can be afferent (ascending) pathways that carry sensory impulses toward the CNS. The remaining options do not carry sensory information to the CNS.
What is the most abundant granulocyte? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils
A Rational: Basophils and Eosinophils are both granulocutes, but they only make up <1% and 2-4% respectively. Lymphocytes are the most abundant agranulocyte not granulocyte. Neutrophils are the most abundant granulocyte at 55%
A healthcare professional is seeing a patient with suspected schizophrenia. For which prenatal occurence should the professional assess? A. Viral infection B. Maternal depression C. Maternal smoking D. Exposure to toxic waste
A Rationale: A leading hypothesis for the cause of schizophrenia suggests that the illness results from neurodevelopmental defects that occur in fetal life. Several early environmental factors have been suggested to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia, including viral infection during pregnancy, prenatal nutritional deficiencies, and preinatal complications, such as birth defects and neonatal hypoxia. No current research supports the theory that any of the other options are prenatal triggers of schizophrenia.
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Which of the following is the most likely age range of the patient? a. 3-10 years. b. 45-55 years. c. 25-35 years. d. Over 60 years.
A "The peak incidence of ALL is at 4 years (range 3-10). It is uncommon after the mid-teen years. The peak incidence of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is 45-55 years. The peak incidence of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) occurs at 60 years. Two-thirds of cases of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) occur after 60 years."
An elderly patient was brought to the ER by her daughter after a fall. During the assessment, the patient is able to tell the nurse her name and the time of day, but tells the nurse that she is at home. The nurse correctly charts: A. The patient is alert and oriented to slef and time. B. The patient is NOT oriented to place. C. The patient is alert and oriented. D. The patient is not alert and oriented.
A RATIONALE: The level of consciousness is vital to know to understand the function/dysfunction of a patient's nervous system. Changes in the level of consciousness can be indicative of serious complications, especially after the patient has had a fall. Assessing the level of consciousness should be done during every initial assessment, and orientation can be assessed by asking the patient to identify themsevles, the time of day, and where they are at. A is the correct answer because it is the correct way to chart the patients level of consciousness based on her responses. B and D are incorrect because the patient was able to tell the nurse who she was and the time. C is incorrect because it is not specific as to what she was alert and oriented to.
Out of the following childhood hematologic disorders, which is an inherited hematologic disorder that cannot form blood clots and causes excessive swelling or pain in the joints? a. Hemophilia b. Hodgkin lymphoma c. Burkitt Lymphoma d. Leukemia
A Rationale: A is the correct answer. Hemophilia also causes excessive bruising and bleeding out of the mouths and gums, excessive bleeding after minor injuries, blood in the urine and stool, and frequent and hard to stop nose bleeds. B Hodgkin lymphoma is a malignant lymphoma that has not been directly linked to inheritance and has different manifestations. C Burkitt lymphoma is a type of inherited hematologic disorder; however the manifestations are different. D Leukemia is a cancer of the body's blood forming tissues, including the bone marrow in the lymphatic system. And it causes fatigue, bruising, fever, joint pain, and recurring infections.
All of the following are true of childhood hemophilia except: A. Treatment involves administration of heparin B. Patient teaching involves teaching parents to minimize their child's risk of bruising or lacerations C. Complications include an aneurysm and/or hemorrhaging of vital organs D. Due to hemophilia being an inherited hematological disorder (involving the X chromosome), males are more likely to have hemophilia
A Rationale: B-D are all correct statements regarding childhood hemophilia. Heparin prevents coagulation from taking place and is used to prevent blood clots from forming in individuals with a high risk of developing blood clots. Heparin administered in a patient with hemophilia would only exacerbate their condition. Proper treatment of hemophilia would include replacing the missing clotting factors VIII and IX.
Which of the following is NOT true of platelets? A. They have a large nucleus B. They control bleeding C. They perform blood coagulation D. They survive 8-10 days in circulation
A Rationale: Platelets do not have a nucleus therefore are not capable of division to replicate. Their main functions are to control bleeding and perform blood coagulation. They only survive 8-10 days in circulation.
Recycling of iron from erythrocytes is made possible by which of the following? A. Transferrin B. Hemosiderin C. Apoferritin D. Erythropoietin
A Transferrin is recycled (transferrin cycle) in the following manner: (1) the transferrin-iron complex binds to a transferring receptor on the erythroblast's plasma membrane; (2) the complex moves into the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis; (3) iron is released (dissociated) from transferrin; and (4) the dissociated transferrin is returned to the bloodstream for reuse. The other options do not present an accurate description of the recycling of erythrocytic iron.
what clotting factors are associated with hemophilia? (select all that apply.) a. VIII b. VI c. III d. IX
A, D "People with hemophilia have low levels of either factor VIII (8) or factor IX (9). The severity of hemophilia that a person has is determined by the amount of factor in the blood."
You receive a patient in the ER who has sustained a cervical spinal cord injury. You know this patient is at risk for neurogenic shock. What hallmark signs and symptoms, if experienced by this patient, would indicate the patient is experiencing neurogenic shock? Select all that apply: A. Blood pressure 69/38 B. Heart rate 170 bpm C. Blood pressure 250/120 D. Heart rate 29 E. Warm and dry extremities F. Cool and clammy extremities G. Temperature 104.9 'F H. Temperature 95 'F
A, D, E, and H. Rationale: Hallmark signs and symptoms of neurogenic shock are: hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia, warm/dry extremities (this is due to the vasodilation and blood pooling and will be found in the extremities).
What kind of shock is related to a state of inadequate perfusion to heart and end organ (systemic tissue perfusion)? A. Cardiogenic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Anaphylactic
A. Cardiogenic Rationale: Hypovolemic shock is caused by insuficient intravascular fluid volume. Neurogenic shock is caused by alterations in vascular smooth
When looking at a CBC, dehydration can ______ your hemoglobin and hematocrit (or H+H). A. Increase B. Decrease C. Maintain D. None of the above, no impact
A. Increase Rationale: Hydration status directly impacts your hemoglobin and hematocrit. Dehydration can increase your H+H because it is more concentrated due to less fluid. In fluid overload you can dilute your H+H which will show a decrease when looking at hemoglobin and hematocrit values. These are considered "false" increase or decreased due to resolution when hydration status returns to normal.
What does the brainstem consist of? Select all that apply. a. Midbrain b. Medulla c. Pon d. Cerebellum
ABC Rationale: The midbrain, medulla and the pons all make up the brainstem. The cerebellum is part of the hindbrain.
What is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system? a. Stimulation of peristalsis b. Increased blood sugar levels c. Reduction in heart rate d. Pupillary constriction
B In general, sympathetic stimulation promotes responses that are concerned with the protection of the individual, which include increased blood sugar levels, temperature, and blood pressure. The responses noted in the remaining options are not a result of sympathetic stimulation.
Cardiogenic shock is caused by extensive myocardial damage and appears to be aggravated by systemic inflammatory response and Results from dysfunction of the heart's pumping action, leads to reduced cardiac output, stroke volume, and BP. Which of the following is a compensatory adaptive response to cardiogenic shock? A. Throat swelling, itchy rash, and low blood pressure B. Vasoconstriction which increases myocardial demand C. The liver and spleen add blood volume by disgorging stored red blood cells and plasma D. Sympathetic stimulation is interrupted, and vasodilation occurs.
B Rationale: A is referring to anaphylactic shock and hypotension is common to most types of shock. B is the correct answer. C refers to hypovolemic shock and disgorging stored red blood cells would be due to loss of blood, but cardiogenic shock refers to the ability of pumping adequate blood. D refers to neurogenic shock.
During recovery from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), a female client is given nothing by mouth, to help prevent aspiration. To determine when the client is ready for a liquid diet, the nurse assesses the client's swallowing ability once each shift. This assessment evaluates: A. cranial nerves III and V. B. cranial nerves IX and X. C. cranial nerves I and II D. cranial nerves VI and VIII.
B Rationale: Swallowing is a motor function of cranial nerves IX and X. Cranial nerves I, II, and VIII don't possess motor functions. The motor functions of cranial nerve III include extraocular eye movement, eyelid elevation, and pupil constriction. The motor function of cranial nerve V is chewing. Cranial nerve VI controls lateral eye movement.
Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia? A. Dopamine B. Gamma-aminobutyric acid C. Acetylcholine D. Serotonin
B Rationale: In the dorsal prefrontal cortex of schizophrenic brains, glutamic acid decarboxylase, the major enzyme in gamma-aminobutyric acid GABA biosynthesis, is diminished, which likely impairs synaptic performance and cognitive and behavioral functions associated with this brain region. Dopamine levels may be elevated in schizophrenia: however a current view questions whether dopamine is altered in this way. Acetylecholine is a neurotransmitter working at neuromuscular connections. Serotonin levels are diminished in depression.
Mesengial cells are located in the A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Brain D. Spinal cord
B Rationale: Mesengial cells are located in the kidneys, not liver or brain or spinal cord
Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? A. Iron B. Erythropoietin C. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) D. Folate
B Rationale: One of the most significant advances in the study of hematopoietic growth factors has been the development of erythropoietin for individuals with chronic renal failure. The other options are not associated with the treatment of chronic anemia.
What is the normal hematocrit in a healthy adult? A. 15-20% B. 37-54% C. 60-72% D. 100%
B Rationale: The normal hematocrit is 37-54%. Hematocrit can be increased due to smoking or being on oral contraceptive medication. Increased hematocrit runs a risk for a heart attack or a stroke.
A patient who is receiving chemotherapy is admitted to the hospital with acute dehydration caused by nausea and vomiting. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to best prevent the development of shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. Administer all medications through the patient's indwelling central line. B. Place the patient in a private room. C. Restrict the patient to foods that have been well-cooked or processed. D. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feeding.
B Rationale: The patient who has received chemotherapy is immune compromised, and placing the patient in a private room will decrease the exposure to other patients and reduce infection/sepsis risk. Administration of medications through the central line increases the risk for infection and sepsis. There is no indication that the patient is neutropenic, and restricting the patient to cooked and processed foods is likely to decrease oral intake further and cause further malnutrition, a risk factor for sepsis and shock. Insertion of an NG tube is invasive and will not decrease the patient's nausea and vomiting.
Which of the following brathing patterns describes post hyperventilation apnea? a. alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea b. lower brainstem centers regulate breathing pattern c. prolonged inspiratory and expiratory phases; injury to pons or upper medulla d. irregular respirations with prolonged periods of apnea; associated with damage to the medulla
B Alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea are Cheyne-Strokes respirations which we have discussed in a previous section. Prolonged inspiratory and expiratory phases; injury to pons or upper medulla are apneustic respiratons. Irregular respirations with prolonged perios of apnea; associated with damage to the medulla are ataxic respirations.
The absence of parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia? A. Iron deficiency B. Pernicious anemia C.Folic acid deficiency anemia D. Aplastic anemia
B Dietary vitamin B12 is a large molecule that requires a protein secreted by parietal cells into the stomach (intrinsic factor [IF]) to transport across the ileum. Defects in IF production lead to decreased B12 absorption and pernicious anemia. The other options are not the result of this process.
A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in individuals with depression? a. Norepinephrine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine
B Postmortem and/or brain imaging studies of individuals with depression reveal a widespread decrease in serotonin 5-HT1A-receptor subtype binding in frontal, temporal, and limbic cortex, as well as serotonin-transporter binding in cerebral cortex and hippocampus. A decrease in receptor binding is not observed in the other neurotransmitters.
What is the most critical index of the nervous system function or dysfunction? A. A bad headache B. Level of Consciousness C. A heart rate of 106 D. A roommate with the same symptoms
B RATIONALE: Level of Consciousness is the correct answer because it is interconnected with both arousal and awareness. Which are the most expressive aspects of proper brain function that enables a person to be aware of their self and environment.
Which of the following is true regarding delirium and dementia? A. Delirium is a progressive failure of many cerebral functions. B. The onset of dementia is usually gradual. C. Dementia is common after surgery. D. The onset of dementia is usually abrupt.
B RATIONALE: A is the correct answer because the onset of demetia is usually gradual. Dementia is the progressive failure of cerebral functions which usually produce nerve cell degeneration and brain atrophy. Clinical manifestations of dementia include impaired intellectual function, memory, and language, and alterations in behavior. Delirium, on the other hand, is a state of acute brain dysfunction caused by an overactive ANS, with an abrupt onset. Delirium is common in critical care units, after surgery, or while withdrawling from CNS depressants. Options A, C, and D are all incorrect information.
The nurse devises a teaching plan for the patient with aplastic anemia. Which of the following is the most important concept to teach for health maintenance? A. Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables each day. B. Avoid exposure to others with acute infection. C. Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress and anxiety. D. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day.
B Rationale: Clients with aplastic anemia are severely immunocompromised and at risk for infection and possible death related to bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia. Strict aseptic technique and reverse isolation are important measures to prevent infection. Although diet, reduced stress, and rest are valued in supporting health, the potentially fatal consequence of an acute infection places it as a priority for teaching the client about health maintenance.
A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest of her life. What is the nurse's best response? A. " The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient acid." B. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor." C. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin because of kidney dysfunction." D. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin because of rapid red blood cell production."
B Rationale: Most clients with pernicious anemia have deficient production of intrinsic factor in the stomach. Intrinsic factor attaches to the vitamin in the stomach and forms a complex that allows the vitamin to be absorbed in the small intestine.
The nurse is administering fluids intravenously as prescribed to a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burn injuries of the back and legs. In evaluating the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, the nurse understands that which assessment would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy? A) vital signs B) urine output C) mental status D) peripheral pulses
B Rationale: Successful or adequate fluid resuscitation in the client is signaled by stable vital signs, adequate urine output, palpable peripheral pulses, and clear sensorium. However, the most reliable indicator for determining adequacy of fluid resuscitation, especially in a client with burns, is the urine output. For an adult, the hourly urine volume should be 30 to 50 mL.
Which organ carries 300 mL of blood and serves as the site of fetal hematopoiesis? a. Heart b. Spleen c. Kidneys d. Liver
B The Spleen is the known to be the site of fetal hematopoiesis and serves as a reservoir of blood in case of shock which is a compensatory mechanism in hypovolemic shock.
A nurse working on a burn unit is assessing a patient who arrived quickly after a burn with pain and blisters filled with fluid. This burn is considered a: A. First-degree burn B. Second-degree burn C. Third-degree burn D. Fourth-degree burn
B The nurse identifies this burn as a second-degree burn because the patient has just arrived after being burned and has blisters with fluid and pain. If the patient reported that the burn happened over 24 hours ago there may be blisters present for a first-degree burn. Third-degree and fourth-degree burns would not be presenting as blisters.
A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with a spinal cord injury. The patient is experiencing severe hypotension and bradycardia. The patient is diagnosed with neurogenic shock. Why is hypotension occurring in this patient with neurogenic shock? a. The patient has an increased systemic vascular resistance. This increases preload and decreases afterload, which will cause severe hypotension. b. The patient's autonomic nervous system has lost the ability to regulate the diameter of the blood vessels and vasodilation is occurring. c. The patient's parasympathetic nervous system is being unopposed by the sympathetic nervous system, which leads to severe hypotension. d. The increase in capillary permeability has depleted the fluid volume in the intravascular system, which has led to severe hypotension.
B The sympathetic nervous system is unable to stimulate the nerves that regulate the diameter of the blood vessels (loss of vasomotor tone). As a result, the blood vessels relax and causes widespread and massive vasodilation. Systemic vascular resistance will decrease drastically, and hypotension will occur.
Which of the following components of cellular metabolism occurs as a result of shock? a. Impaired CO2 delivery b. Impaired glucose delivery c. Aerobic metabolism d. Metabolic alkalosis
B When cellular metabolism is impaired as a result of shock, oxygen and glucose delivery is impaired. The cells will then shift from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism, leading to a buildup of lactic acid (lactic acidosis). Gluconeogenesis will occur, depleting the availability of protein, which is essential to maintain cellular structure, function, repair and replication. As a compensatory mechanism, the patient may go into metabolic acidosis, where cardiac and skeletal muscles will use lactic acid as the fuel source, which is only available for a limited time.
When comparing acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) and acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) you know that acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is characterized by: a. Arises from the myeloid cell line b. Arises from the lymphoid cell line c. Most common in adults d. No cure
B Arises from the lymphoid cell line Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) arises from the lymphoid cell line and normally produces B and T lymphocytes. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) arises from the myeloid cell line. ALL is most common in children whereas AML is the most common adult form. ALL has a 91% survival rate whereas chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) has no cure.
What are the characteristics of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL). Select all the apply A. Most Common in Adults B. Rapid progression C. High survival rate D. Primary cell is monoclonal B E. Associated with the Philadelphia Chromosome
B, C, E Rationale: ALL is a common childhood cancer that is known to have a rapid progression. This leukemia has a 91% survival rate and is associated with the Philadelphia Chromosome. AML, CLL, and CML are mostly seen in adults. The primary monoclonal B cell is associated with CLL.
During anaphylactic shock the mast cells and basophils release large amounts of histamine. What effects does histamine have on the body during anaphylactic shock? Select all that apply: A. Decreases capillary permeability B. Vasodilation of vessels C. Decreases heart rate D. Shifts intravascular fluid to interstitial space E. Constricts the airways F. Stimulates contraction of GI smooth muscles G. Inhibits the production of gastric secretions H. Itching
B, D, E, F, and H. Rationale: Histamine increases capillary permeability (not decreases) by shifting the intravascular fluid to the interstitial space - this causes swelling and lowers blood pressure; Vasodilates vessels - this lower blood pressure and causes red skin, increases heart rate (not decreases); Constricts the airway - this causes difficulty breathing and wheezes; Stimulates contraction of GI smooth muscles and stimulates (not inhibits) the production of gastric secretions - this leads to vomiting, nausea, and pain; and there is also itching.
What causes cardiogenic shock? a. infection b. heart failure c. hypersenstivity d. alterations in the smooth muscle tone
B, heart failure Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart failure, there is a decreased contractility and pumping in the heart. Infection causes septic shock, hypersenstivity causes anaphylactic shock and alterations in smooth muscle tone causes neurogenic or vasogenic shock.
What is the most critical clinical index of nervous system function or dysfunction? A. Breathing Patterns B. Level of Conciousness C. Pupillary Responses D. Motor Responses
B. When performing an evaluation on a patient the most critical clinical index of nervious function is level of consciousness. When performing a neuro evaluation LOC, breathing patterns, pupillary response, size & reactivity oculomotor responses, and motor responses all consist of the evaluation but LOC is the most critical.
Granulocytes also called Mast Cells are considered to be the central cells of inflammation. What substrates are granulocytes rich in? A. Globulins B. Histamine and Heparin C. Fibrin and fibrinogen D. Albumin
B. Histamine and Heparin Rationale: Granulocytes activates and degenerates affected cells from the initiation of the inflammatory response. They increase permeability of blood vessels and smooth muscle contraction. Histamine and Heparin are the substances that play out these functions.
What are the clinical manifestations of Cardiogenic Shock? (Select all that apply) A. Hypertenstion B. Hypotension C. Tachycardia D. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension & C. Tachycardia Rationale: The main manifestations of Cardiogenic Shock are Tachycardia and Hypotension caused by inadequate perfusion to heart and end organ.
What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion? A. Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone. B. Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level, despite the administration of exogenous corticosteroids. C. Individuals with depression show that persistently elevated plasma cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression. D. Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.
C Persistent elevations in cortisol may also induce immunosuppression that compromises the body's immune systems to contain inflammation and infectious diseases. Increasing evidence suggests that inflammation is another risk factor that triggers the onset of depression.
A male client is color blind. The nurse understands that this client has a problem with: A. aqueous humor B. lens C. cones D. rods
C Rationale: Cones provide daylight color vision, and their stimulation is interpreted as color. If one or more types of cones are absent or defective, color blindness occurs. Rods are sensitive to low levels of illumination but can't discriminate color. The lens is responsible for focusing images. Aqueous humor is a clear watery fluid and isn't involved with color perception.
The human nervous system is capable of a wide range of functions. What is the basic unit of the nervous system? A. Glial cell B. Meninges C. Neuron D. Cerebrospinal fluid
C Rationale: Neurons are cells that perform most of the information processing, memory, and communication functions of the nervous system. Neurons are organized into circuits, also called neural pathways. These pathways are combined into structures that make up the nervous system. Glial cells surround the neurons and provide nutrients and structural support for them. The meninges are membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. The cerebral spinal fluid surrounds the brain and spinal cord.
Which neurotransmitter is released when a patient's parasympathetic motor neurons are stimulated? a. Epinephrine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Substance P
C Rationale: Parasympathetic motor neurons release acetylcholine. Adrenergic motor neurons release epinephrine. Serotonin is associated with the brain. Substance P is a neurotransmitter in pain transmission pathways. Blocking the release of substance P by morphine reduces pain.
Which lymphoid organ serves as a vital blood reservoir incase blood pressure drops suddenly? A. Thymus B. Liver C. Spleen D. Kidneys
C Rationale: The spleen stores approximately 300ml of blood incase of a sudden blood pressure drop. If this were to occur, the spleen would release the stored blood into the vascular space increasing the overall pressure.
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which of these should the healthcare provider administer to the patient first? A. Antibiotics to treat the underlying condition B. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation C. IV fluids to increase intravascular volume D. Vasopressors to increased blood pressure
C Rationale:Circulation & perfusion are addressed first so IV fluids will be started immediately. After blood cultures are obtained, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be administered without delay. Vasopressors are administered if the patient is not responding to the fluid challenge. Corticosteroids may be considered to address the inflammatory-induced vasodilation and capillary leakage
The release of catecholamine by the adrenal glands provides which compensatory mechanism in hypovolemic shock? a. Interstitial fluid move out of the vascular compartment. b. Systemic vascular resistance is decreased. c. Heart rate is increased d. Water excretion is increased.
C rationale: the HR will increase in shock due to the effects of circulating catecholamines. Fluid moving out of the vascular compartment is deleterious, leading to a relative hypovolemia. Systemic vascular resistance is increased to improve blood pressure. Water excretion is not increased as a result of catecholamine release.
Which of the following is not considered a sign of cardiogenic shock? A. Tachycardia B. Jugular vein distention C. Hypertension D. Tachypnea
C A patient in cardiogenic shock would exhibit hypotension. The rest of the options are all classic hallmarks.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) increases what kind of cells in the body? a) skin b) red blood cells c) white blood cells d) nerve cells
C CML is a type of cancer that affects the spongy tissue of the bone marrow. This causes an increased number of white blood cells in the blood. These WBC are usually abnormal which then they cannot fight infection
An adult client was burned in an explosion. The burn initially affected the client's entire face (anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there was circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client's clothes caught on fire, and the client ran, causing subsequent burn injuries to the posterior surface of the head and the upper half of the posterior torso. Using the rule of nines, what would be the extend of the burn injury? A) 18% B) 24% C) 36% D) 48%
C Rationale: According to the rule of nines, with the initial burn, the anterior half of the head equals 4.5%, the upper half of the anterior torso equals 9%, and the lower half of both arms equals 9%. The subsequent burn included the posterior half of the head, equaling 4.5%, and the upper half of the posterior torso, equaling 9%. This totals 36%.
What term is used to describe the capacity of some erythrocytes to vary in size, especially in relationship to some anemias? a. Poikilocytosis b. Isocytosis c. Anisocytosis d. Microcytosis
C Rationale: Anisocytosis means assuming various sizes and is a term used to describe erythrocytes in some anemias. Poikilocytosis is used to describe erythrocytes that can assume various shapes. Isocytosis and microcytosis are not terms that are associated with this condition.
Which of the following statements about hematopoiesis is FALSE? a. Red bone marrow is active b. Yellow bone marrow is inactive c. Red bone marrow contains large amounts of fat d. Hematopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow
C Rationale: C is incorrect because yellow bone marrow is fatty, not red. The rest of the answer choices are true.
What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? a. hypotension b. hyperesthesia c. hypoxia d. ischemia
C Rationale: the fundamental physiologic manifestation is reduced oxygen-carrying of the blood, resulting in tissue hypoxia. Hypotension may result when the initial compensatory mechanism, vasoconstriction, fails to provide adequate perfusion to tissues. Ischemia may result if the oxygen deficit in tissues and organs is severe or prolonged. Hyperesthesia is not a finding
Which is NOT a treatment for cardiogenic shock. A. Angioplasty B. Nitrates C. Losartan D.Heart Transplant
C The goal with cardiogenic shock treatment is to restore heart function and balance between oxygen supply and demand in the myocardium. We try to restore blood flow using these following intervetions - angioplasty, inducing mild mhypothermia, drugs [nitrates, diuretics, vasodilators, b adrengeric blockers] intraaortic ballon pump, heart transplant. Losartan is a medication used to reduce blood pressure not to treat cardiogenic shock.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is associated with all choices except? A. It arises from stell cells. B. The Philadeplhia chromosome is present. C. This cancer advances slowly, therefore has a better prognosis. D. People 65 and older have a higher risk for developing this type of leukemia
C This cancer advances rapidly and progressive, where as chronic lymphocytic leuemia (CLL) advances slowly. This cancer has a worse prognosis due to the fact that it grows much faster.
A condition, causing the affected person to be unable to understand or comprehend the language (poor comprehension) with intact repetition (fluent output) is termed as: A. Broca's aphasia B. Global aphasia C. Wernicke's aphasia D. Conduction aphasia
C Wernickes apashia is characterized by impaired language comprehension, this is also known as receptive apashia. Clinical manifestation would be production of words that do make any sense.
A Microcytic/Hypochromic anemia may be caused from iron deficiency, lead poisoning and even thalasemia. It is described as: A. Normal cell size; normal amount of Hgb B. Small cell size; normal amount of Hgb C. Small cell size; Low amount of Hgb D. Large cell size; Normal amount of Hgb
C Microcytic Hypochromic. Remember that "Cytic" refers to cell size, with micro being small, macro being large and normo being normal. "Chromic" refers to the amount of hemoglobin with normo, micro and macro as well.
What is the correct terminology for the cell body in the peripheral nervous system? a. nuclei b. neuron c. ganglia d. microglia
C ganglia Rationale: in the peripheral nervous system, the cell body is called the gangla. in the central nervous system, the cell body is called the nuclei
All of the following are agranulocytes EXCEPT A. Monocytes and macrophages B. Lymphocytes C. Mast Cells D. Natural Killer Cells
C. Rationale: All the other options are agranulocytes while Mast cells are granulocytes
All the following statements are true regarding Infectious Mononucleosis EXCEPT: A. It is an acute viral infection of the B lymphocytes B. It is commonly caused by Epstein-Barr Virus C, Aspirin is the drug of choice in treating children and adolescents D. Classic symptoms include fever, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy of the cervical lymph nodes
C. Aspirin is the drug of choice in treating children and adolescents Rationale: C is the correct answer because Ibuprofen should be used for children and adolescents, not aspirin, because of reported incidence of Reye's Syndrome with children/adolescents using aspirin. All of the other statements are true regarding Infectious Mononucleosis.
It is a type of nerve cell that protects the CNS from infection and become phagocytic in response to inflammation: A. Schwann cells B. Ependymal cells C. Microglia D. Astrocytes
C. Microglia Rationale: C: Microglia help remove bacteria and cell debris from the CNS. A: Schwann cells form myelin sheaths around axons or enclose unmyelinated axons in the peripheral nervous system. B: Ependymal cells line ventricles of the brain circulate cerebrospinal fluid; some form choroid plexuses, which produce CSF. D: Astrocytes serve as the major supporting tissue in the CNS and contribute to the blood-brain barrier.
Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of pernicious anemia? A. Weakness, fatigue B. Paresthesia of the feet and fingers C. Sore gums with rough and patchy white tongue D. Weight loss, abdominal pains
C. Sore tongue that is rough and patchy white Rationale: Oral lichen planus causes white patches to form in your mouth and on your tongue, which may lead to sore gums. Pernicious anemia is characterized by a sore tongue that is smooth and beefy red secondary to atrophic glossitis. All other answers are incorrect as they are clinical manifestations of pernicious anemia (weakness, fatigue, loss of appetite, abdominal pains, weight loss, lemon yellow skin, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, neurologic symptoms from n. demyelination).
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Leukemia. The patient's most recent lab work showed neutropenia. The nurse will provide education on all the following EXCEPT: A. No fresh flowers allowed in the patient's room. B. The patient should not eat fresh fruit. C. The patient can receive their MMR vaccine. D. The patient can have limited visitors
C. The patient can receive their MMR vaccine. Rationale: The correct option is C because an immunocompromised patient should not receive a live vaccine due to the risk for infection. It's also important to note neutropenia increases the risk for opportunistic infection as it reduces the patient's immunity. The nurse would educate the patient on neutropenic precautions to reduce the risk of infection and these precautions include: no fresh flowers, no fresh fruit or vegetables, and limited visitors (that are not or have not been recently ill).
Which of these conditions describes a complex syndrome wherein there is simultaneous coagulation and fibrinolysis occurring throughout the body? a. autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. polycythemia vera c. disseminated intravascular coagulation d. anisocytosis
C. disseminated intravascular coagulation Rationale: DIC is a complex syndrome that results from a variety of clinical conditions that release tissue factor, causing an increase in fibrin and thrombin activity in the blood and producing augmented clot formation and accelerated fibrinolysis. Sepsis is often associated with DIC.
The neuron cell is made up of which of the following parts? A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Nucleus D. All of the Above
D Rationale: Neurons have three basic parts: a cell body and two extensions called an axon and a dendrite. Within the cell body is a nucleus, which controls the cell's activities and contains the cell's genetic material. The axon looks like a long tail and transmits messages from the cell. Dendrites look like the branches of a tree and receive messages for the cell.
A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns. Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing? a. Thalamus b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus
D Rationale: The hypothalamus functions to maintain a constant internal environment and instinctive behavioral patterns. The thalamus serves as a relay center for information from the basal ganglia and cerebellum to the appropriate motor area. The medulla controls reflex activities, such as heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting. The cerebellum is responsible for reflexive, involuntary fine-tuning of motor control, for maintaining balance and posture through extensive neural connections.
Which vitamin is responsible for RBC maturaiton in addition to DNA synthesis? A. Vitamin B12 B. Iron C. Vitamin A D. Folate
D Rationale: Vitamin B9 (folate) works within the red bone marrow to mature RBCs. A defficiency in B9 can lead to a failure of RBCs to mature, thus leading to megaloblastic anemia. Folate also plays a vital role in neural tube formation and is important to supplement during pregnancy.
Which of the following would the nurse identify as the initial priority for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia? A. Assisting with coping with chronic illness B. Administering medications via IM injections C. Encouraging adequate intake of iron-rich foods D. Instituting infection control precautions
D "Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) causes leukopenia, resulting in immunosuppression and increasing the risk of infection, a leading cause of death in children with ALL. Therefore, the initial priority nursing intervention would be to institute infection control precautions to decrease the risk of infection. Iron-rich foods help with anemia, but dietary iron is not an initial intervention. The prognosis of ALL usually is good. However, later on, the nurse may need to assist the child and family with coping since death and dying may still be an issue in need of discussion. Injections should be discouraged, owing to increased risk from bleeding due to thrombocytopenia."
What part of the brain is responsible for controlling and regulation of breathing patterns? A. Cerebellum B. The Pituitary Gland C. Frontal Cortex D. The lower brainstem centers of the Medulla Oblongata
D RATIONALE: The part of the brain responsible for this function is the lower part of the Medulla Oblongata. Reason being is because the peripheral nerves innervate the points of the respiratory receptors and lungs that allow the regulation of respirations to be possible. All of the other answers are incorrect.
All of the following is true of childhood cancers except: A. Hogkins lymphoma most commonly affects children 15 years and older B. Non hogkin's lymphoma is an aggressive and fast growing cancer C. Burkitt's Lymphoma involves a very fast growing tumer of the jaw and face and is most commonly found in Africa D. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia is the most common childhood leukemia
D Rationale: A-C are true statements regarding childhood cancer. The most common childhood leukemia is acute lymphocytic leukemia, whereas chronic myelogenous leukemia is seen in people 65 years or older.
In the Peripheral Nervous System how many cranial nerves are there? a. 24 pairs b. 31 pairs c. 18 pairs d. 12 pairs
D Rationale: The PNS consists of 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Twenty-four pairs and 18 pairs are incorrect. The PNS consists of 31 spinal nerves but not cranial nerves.
A patient was involved in an MVA (motor vehicle accident) and was brought to the ER as a trauma. The patient opens eyes to voice, is disoriented, but can follow commands. After evaluation, it has been determined the patients GCS is 13, this is considered what type of injury? a. Severe head injury b. Moderate head injury c. A normal finding d. Mild head injury
D The GCS scale is out of 15; the patient should be able to open their eyes without being prompted (minus 1), the patient should be oriented (minus 1) and alert and the patient does follow commands (no points deducted), the first two are abnormal findings. Based on the scale, the patient has minus two points which brings their total to 13/15 which is a mild head injury. Moderate is 9-12/15 and severe is 3-8/15.
A client went to the emergency department with a possible brain damage as evidenced by loss of coordination of motor movement, and staggering, wide based walking. The nurse knows the client is most likely having a damage in the: A. Medulla Oblongata B. Cerebrum C. Pons D. Cerebellum
D The cerebellum is involved in balance, maintenance of muscle tone, and coordination of fine motor movement. Not to be confused with the cerebrum which controls brain functions such as language, logic and reasoning.
Spinal cord and vertebral injuries can lead to spinal shock, which can be idefinited as which of the follwoing? A. Complete loss of normal activity above the level of injury. B. Paralysis of the lower extremities. C. Numbness and tingling in lower extremities. D. Complete loss of normal activity below the level of injury.
D The loss of normal activity occurs below the level of injury. Every spinal cord injury is unique, so paralysis, numbeness, and tingling may not be indicated for all injuries to this area.
The leading cause of septic shock is: A. Fungi B. Gram negative bacteria C. Atherosclerosis D. Gram positive bacteria
D While fungi, gram negative bacteria, and gram positive bacteria are all causes of septic shock, gram positive bacteria is the leading cause of septic shock because gram negative sepsis is better controlled by medication. Atherosclerosis is not a cause of septic shock.
Pernicious Anemia is a type of Megaloblastic Anemia, in which it is caused by a Vitamin B12 deficiency. Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT associateed with Pernicious Anemia? A. Weakness/Fatigue B. Paresthesia of the feet and fingers C. Sore tongue that is smooth and beefy red D. Increased appetite, and weight gain
D Increased apetite and weight gain are not manifestations of Pernicious Anemia, however weight loss and diminished appetite are associated. Another manifestation is "Lemon Yellow" skin, difficulty walking and abdomonial pains.
This seizure disorder is a disorder that involves a state of alternating contraction & relaxation of muscles. A. Aura B. Prodroma C. Tonic D. Clonic E. Postictal
D (clonic). Aura is aprtial seizure that involves a funny feeling that could be visual or auditory. Prodroma involves the time between initial onset of symptoms and development of rash & fever. Tonic phase is a state of muscle contraction with excessive muscle tone. Postictal is the period immediately following seizure activity.
A male client was involved in a vehicular accident and developed amnesia. He is likely having damage in which of the following? A. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus C. Cerebrum D. Hippocampus
D. Hippocampus Rationale: D: The hippocampus is associated mainly with memory, particularly, long-term memory. A: The hypothalamus controls vital bodily functions such as hunger, thirst, body temperature, and hormone secretion. B: The thalamus influences mood and registers an unlocalized, uncomfortable perception of pain. C: The cerebrum controls brain functions such as language, logic, reasoning, and creativity.
Which antibody plays a major role in anaphylactic shock? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgB d. IgE
E, IgE Rationale: IgE is the major mediator in anaplyactic shock, when you body has an allergy to something it produces IgE antibody against this object or thing. Then these antibodies produce chemicals which are released during the response, this causes the allergic reaction.
The following are are functions of the sympathetic nervous sytem (select all that apply) a) increased diameter of pupils b) Bradycardia c) increased Salivation d) hyperglycemia e) A and D
E. Increased diameter of pupils and hyperglcymia are functionions of the sympathetic nervouse system. The sympathetic nervous system directs the body's rapid involuntary response to dangerous or stressful situation, also known as "fight or flight". The parasympathetic nervous system is basically "rest and digest" and undoes all of the work the sympathetic nervous system after a stressful situation.
What is the difference between efferent nerves and afferent nerves?
Efferent nerves carry impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS), but afferent nerves carry impulses toward the CNS.
What is the difference between Hematopoiesis and Erythropoiesis?
Hematopoiesis is the overall process of blood cell production in the adult bone marrow or in the liver and/or spleen of the fetus. Erythropoiesis is the process of only red blood cell production.
Which form of lymphoma most commonly affects children aged 15 and older?
Hodgkin lymphoma rationale: " People between the ages of 15 and 40 and people older than 55 are more likely to develop Hodgkin lymphoma"
A patient's son has a recent head injury and is in the hospital. "Why did they tell me to be sure his neck is straight and his head does not lean to the side?" she asks.
If his head leans to the side, that could compress a neck vein and increase the pressure in his brain.
What mineral is important in making red blood cells?
Iron Rationale: Red blood cells need iron to make hemoglobin. They use hemoglobin to carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. If there is not enough iron in the diet, the red blood cells will not be able to carry enough oxygen.
Why is the biconcave shape and reversible deformity of erythrocytes helpful/important?
RBCs are biconcave in order to increase surface area which allows oxygen to diffusion at a higher rate. Also, the small flexible shape allows these cells to fit into small spaces such as capillaries.
A patient may have a trigeminal nerve injury. What tests should be used to assess her trigeminal nerve function?
Test face for pain, touch, and temperature, using a safety pin and hot and cold objects; test corneal reflex with a wisp of cotton; test motor function of face by asking her to clench her teeth, open her mouth against resistance, and move her jaw from side to side.
What is the "Buffy Coat" and what is its components?
The buffy coat is the "intermediate area between plasma and cells". It is composed of platelets and White Blood Cells.
Why is inducing mild hypothermia a treatment for cardiogenic schock?
This has been shown to increase contractility while decreasing the oxygen demand and metabolism of the myocardium therefore restoring heart function and balance between oxygen supply and demand in the myocardium.
What the components of the Virchow triad?
Venous stasis, injury to the blood vessel endothelium, and hypercoagulability of the blood. These are all contributing factors to the formation of a thrombus. When the blood is not flowing properly and becomes static it will begin to pool in a particular area of the body. This can occur in an area of injury to the vessel and the platelets can begin to clump together in this spot. As the platelets clump, they begin the formation of a clot. If this clot becomes dislodged it can then move through the circulatory system as an embolus.
The following symptoms are typically caused by which condition; fatigue, anorexia, muscle atrophy, desensitization to sweet/sour tastes, fever, and bleeding? a. Leukemias b. Infectious mononucleosis c. Thromboembolic disease d. Lymphadenopathy
a Rationale: Leukemias typically present with symptoms consistent with the ones listed above. Fatigue is caused by anemia, fever by infection, and bleeding derives from the reduced number of circulating platelets.
Which of the following are risk factors for a herniated disk? (select all that apply) a. Smoking b. Men c. Obesity d. Women
a, b, d Smoking causes the discs to lose fluid and therefore are less pliable and protective. Herniated disks affect men more than women at a 2:1 ratio. Obesity causes the pelvis to tilt forward and the back to arch. This results in wearing away of outer fibers behind the discs.
Monocytes are the precursor for which of the following? (Selects all that apply) a. Macrophages b. Kupffer cells c. Microglial cells d. Dendritic cells
a,b,c,d Rational: Monocytes are the precursor to macrophages and dendritic cells. Macrophages have specific names based on tissue location. Kupffer cells- liver, Microglial cells- brain.
Decerebrate posturing is associated with __________ a. injury in the lower spinal cord b. problems with the midbrain or pons c. high HDL intake d. hyperactive bowel sounds
a. Rationale: Decerebrate posturing is when the upper and lower extremeties create an extensor response. All 4 limbs are rigid and extending, abducting, and hyperpronation of the arms is found where they "curl out like an e shape." As opposed to Decordicate motor response where arms flex in to chest and wrist and fingers abduct to a "c" shape. Decerebrate posturing is a sign of severe damage involving midbrain or upper pons.
A patient has been newly diagnosed with multiple myeloma and expressed concern about their chances of recovery to the nurse. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse? a. "You have a great family support system, you'll be fine." b. "Patients diagnosed with multiple myeloma typically have a poor prognosis, but we will be sure to do our best!" c. "We will develop a treatment plan for you based on your needs using a combination of drug therapy, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and possible transplants. Can you tell me more about your concerns?" d. "I hear what you're saying. Can you tell me more about your concerns?"
c Rationale: While d is a good answer, it does nothing to address the patient's initial concern. Answer c addresses the patient's concerns while providing education about what to expect with treatment. It also ends with an open-ended question to promote further discussion.
When performing an Oculo-Vestibular Reflex test using the Caloric Ice Water Test in a patient's left ear; what would be the desired normal outcome? a. Conjugate eye movement toward the right b. Dysconjugate eye movements c. Conjugate eye movements toward the left c. No responsive eye movement
c. Rationale: When performing a Caloric Ice Water Test the patient's eyes should move toward the stimulus for a normal response, thus, the correct answer is c. All the other responses would be an abnormal response. This test should be monitored carefully because flushing cold water into a person's ear could put them at risk for passing out.
A Nurse educator knows the student needs further education when she gives this as a treatment option for severe burn injury. a. Opiates b. Propranolol and ibuprofen c. Anabolic Human Growth Hormone d. Aloe
d Early burn treatment includes inflammatory and endocrine modulators such as answer 2, pain control-answer 2, growth hormone to help cell turnover- answer 3. In addition early grafting, enteral food, and teaching relaxation techniques are also some options for severe burn injuries.
A patient's level of consciousness baseline has change and you are now noticing alterations in arousal/awareness out of the following which is NOT an alteration? a. Confusion- Loss of the ability to think rapidly and clearly; impaired judgment and decision making b. Lethargy-Limited spontaneous movement or speech; easy arousal with normal speech or touch; may not be oriented to time, place, or person c. Stupor- Condition of deep sleep or unresponsiveness; person may be aroused or caused to open eyes only by vigorous and repeated stimulation; response is often withdrawal or grabbing at stimulus d. Pupillary Response- pupils are round, reactive to light, and equal in size and shape
d Rationale: All the above are alterations in arousal excluding the pupillary response. PERRLA that is listed above is not an abnormal finding. Some other alterations in arousal include: Obtundation- Mild-to-moderate reduction in arousal (awareness) with limited response to the environment; falls asleep unless verbally or tactilely stimulated; answers questions with minimum responses; Disorientation- Beginning loss of consciousness; disorientation to time, followed by disorientation to place and impaired memory; recognition of self is lost last; Coma-No verbal response to the external environment or to any stimuli; noxious stimuli such as deep pain or suctioning yields motor movement; Light coma- Associated with purposeful movement on stimulation; Deep coma- Associated with unresponsiveness or no response to any stimulus.
The two main factors that affect hemophilia are...
factor 8 and factor 9 Rationale: These are clotting factors that help us clot. The reduction of these factors affects the severity of hemophilia that a person has. The lower the amount the more serious health concerns will be present.
List the 4 divisions of the central nervous system.
forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain and spinal cord Rationale: the forebrain houses the diencephalon which consists of the epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus and the subthalamus. the midbrain is the topmost part of the brainstem that connects the brain to the spinal cord. the hindbrain houses the medulla oblongata, pons and the cerebellum. finally, the spinal cord lies within the vertebral canal.
Describe the lymphokinetic motion and pressure gradiant
highest pressure to lowest pressure. Specifically, blood capilaries > interstitial fluid > lymph capillaries > lymph veins > lymph ducts > large circulatory veins.
All of the following are ethnicities that have a genetic predisposition to thalassemia, EXCEPT: a. Syrian b. Libyan c. Italian d. Greek
(b) Libyan Rationale: Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder that is most often found in ethnic Greeks, Italians, and Syrians.
What is not a complication of hemophilia? A. Excessive clotting leading to strokes B. Excessive bleeding after an injury C. Aneurysm in the brain D. Bleeding in the joints leading to chronic joint disease
A Hemophilia is a blood disorder where the blood does not clot properly. People with the disease will bleed significantly after and injury. Excessive non stop bleeding can lead to an aneurysm or hemmorhage in the brain or other vital organs. Due to excessive bleeding, it can accumulate in the joints causing joint disease and pain.
Fetal Hematopoiesis occurs in which structure? A. Gut B. Spleen C. Bone marrow D. Thymus
B Rationale: The spleen is the largest of the secondary lymphoid organs and the site of fetal hematopoiesis.
Which clinical manifestation of septic shock confirms an elevation in immune system response? a. tachycardia b. increased WBC count c. low respiratory rate d. Hypothermia
B rationale: the increased WBC's indicate the immune response. Tachycardia occurs as a compensatory mechanism. The respiratory rate will be increased. Temperature will most likely be increased in most patients.
Which of the following is NOT a type of shock?A. Cardiogenic B. Anaphylactic C. Musculoskeletal D. Vasogenic
C Musculoskeletal is NOT a type of shock. The types of shock are: Cardiogenic, Hypovolemic, Neurogenic/Vasogenic, Anaphylactic, or Septic
Which is not a function of erythropoietin? A. Regulating erythropoiesis B. secreted to where there is tissue hypoxia C. Decreases RBC production D. Release RBC from bone marrow
C Rational: erythropoietin increases RBC production not decreases
Which test could be run to indicate whether a sufficient amount of RBC's are being produced? a. CBC count b. Hematocrit c. Reticulocyte d. Hemoglobin
C A Reticulocyte test indicates whether sufficient RBC production is occurring.
_________ causes septic shock. A. Heart failure B. Hypersensitivity C. Insufficient intravascular fluid D. Infection
D Infection causes septic shock. Heart failure causes Cardiogenic shock, Insufficient intravascular fluid causes hypovolemic shock, alterations in smooth muscle tone causes neurogenic shock/vasogenic shock, and hypersensitivity causes anaphylactic shock.
_______ occurs when irreversible brain damage is so extensive that the brain has no potential for recovery, and can no longer maintain homeostasis. a. ischemia b. oculomoter response c. brain death d. sensory inattentiveness
c. Rationale: Brain death, also known as total brain death, occurrs when irreversible brain damage is so extensive that the brain has no potential for recovery. States provide their own legal criteria to define brain death as irreversible cessation of function of the entire brain, including the brainstem and cerebellum
