Patho Readiness Quizzes ?s
Apoptosis is
A. An inflammatory response B. A normal process of the cell cycle to remove old or defective cells C. Caused by hypoxia D. Caused by cell necrosis
Based on the case and the information you have what other diseases is this patient most at risk for? Select all that apply.
A. Anemia B. Brain cancer C. Myocardial ischemia D. Thrombocytopenia purpura E. COPD F. Endocarditis G. Aspiration PNA H. Lung cancer
Which of the following will result when there is an imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply and demand?
A. Aneurysm B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Hypertensive crisis D. Myocardial ischemia
Substance use disorders are the result of which of the following. Select all that apply
A. Anxiety B. Environment factors C. Nursing school D. Genetic disposition
Laboratory values for a patient reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What condition do you suspect?
A. Diverticulosis B. Pancreatitis C. Appendicitis D. Grey Turner Disease
Which of the following best describes the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one minute?
A. Ejection fraction (EF) B. Stroke volume (SV) C. Cardiac output (CO) D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia? Select all that apply.
A. Excessive urination B. Excessive energy and excitability C. Excessive thirst D. Anorexia E. Blurred vision
Based on the neurological case study, there were a lot of factors that indicated this patient was having a stroke. Which of the following is the best indicator that the patient had a stroke compared to a different vascular disease?
A. Found unconscious B. HTN C. Family history of an MI D. Slurred speech
"Cachexia" is a manifestation of many persons with cancer. The term cachexia is best described by which one of the following?
A. GI tract ulcerations B. Weight loss and wasting of body fat and muscle tissue C. Fatigue and sleep deprivation D. Loss of appetite
Which of the following are most likely reasons for psychiatric disorders? Select all that apply
A. Genetics B. Positive nutritional intake C. Chronic stress D. Brain injury E. Geographical location, the living in southern hemispheres F. Positive parental support
The nurse provides education to a patient at risk for complications following hip surgery. The nurse warns the patient to report chest pain, dyspnea and increased heart rate. What is the pulmonary disorder associated with these symptoms and this post op condition?
A. Pulmonary embolism B. Acute Rhinitis C. Community acquired PNA D. DVT
Kidney failure may cause a reduced vitamin ___________________synthesis, resulting in reduced __________________ absorption.
D Calcium
Patients who experience a/n ________________ are caused by narrowing or blockage of a cerebral artery. Patients who experience a/n ____________________ are caused by a ruptured cerebral artery.
1. Ischemic stroke 2. Hemorrhagic stroke
The most common type of stroke in the United States is ______________ and a/n ___________________ has the greatest morbidity and mortality in the United States.
1. Ischemic stroke 2. Hemorrhagic stroke
Pancreatic Cancer unfortunately has a low 5 year survival rate due to what factors? (Select all that apply)
A. A pancreatic tumor can't be surgically resected even if there is no metastasis B. Many patients are asymptomatic until cancer has metastasized C. Needle aspiration cytology of the pancreas may miss the larger, more aggressive tumor D. There is a lack of good screening methods
Which of the following laboratory tests are used to evaluate liver function. Select all that apply.
A. ALT B. AST C. Albumin D. Lipase E. Ammonia F. Calcium Levels
A localized area of inflammation containing a purulent exudate that may be surrounded by a neutrophil layer is called an
A. Abscess B. Tunnel C. Ulceration D. Scab
Place the following steps in the acute inflammatory process in order of occurrence: 1. Leukocytes migrate toward the site of the injury by chemotaxis 2. Outflow of fluid and proteins from the vascular space, accumulating in the tissue spaces. 3. Leukocytes respond with phagocytosis. 4. Vasodilation and increased capillary permeability of the arterioles and venules.
4, 2, 1, 3
Gigantism results when there is an excess of growth hormone in children. An excess of growth hormone in adults results in which one of the following disorders?
A. Acromegaly B. Goiter C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hashimoto's
The recognizable trait associated with a particular genotype are called:
A. Allotype B. Isotype C. Mendelian type D. Phenotype
Which of the following statements are true of Adaptive Immunity? Select all that apply
A. Also called "acquired immunity B. Also called "natural immunity" C. Epithelial cells are one of the main components of adaptive immunity D. The T and B lymphocytes are components of adaptive immunity
If the end diastolic volume in the case above is 100 and the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) was 30%, what was the stroke volume?
A. 130 mL B. 30mL C. 70mL D. 100mL
Which of the following best describes neutropenia?
A. A WBC count of 4,000/uL B. A eosinophil count of 15% C. A WBC count of 11,000/uL D. A neutrophil count of less than 500/uL
A brain aneurysm is best described as which of the following?
A. A bleed within the parenchymal of the brain B. Decreased blood flow to the brain caused by atherosclerotic plaque C. A bulge caused by weakness in the muscular wall of an arterial vessel D. An alerted state of consciousness caused by increased blood flow from a clot
Which of the following are true statements regarding Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (DM)? Select all that apply
A. A complication of Type 1 DM is HHS B. The majority of the cases of diabetes in the US are classified as Type 1 DM C. A complication of type 1 DM is retinopathy and neuropathy D. The majority of Type I DM cases are due to destruction of pancreatic beta cells and an absolute lack of insulin E. Most cases of Type 1 DM are immune related and have specific auto-antibodies F. The majority of cases of Type 1 DM are due to impaired insulin receptors
A keloid is best defined as which of the following?
A. A large blister B. A flat area of altered pigmentation C. An elevated scar that is irregular D. A hardening and thickening of skin
Which of the following best describes what causes a seizure?
A. Altered flow of CSF B. Disruption or excessive neuronal activity C. Turning your head quickly D. Focal disruption of blood supply to brain tissue
A patient presents to the provider with reports of intermittent chest pain. The provider obtains labs and performs a coronary angiogram; a diagnosis of atherosclerosis is made. Which of the following best describes this disorder?
A. Arterial wall hardening B. Formation of fatty lesions in the lining of arterial vessel walls C. Abnormal hypertrophy of endothelial cells D. Arterial wall thinning and bulging
Which of the following places a patient at greatest risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. Aspiration of gastric contents B. Excessive alcohol consumption C. Years of tobacco smoking D. IgE mediated response to allergens
Specific to this case, identify the heart failure related pathogenesis and complications the patient has experienced. Select all that apply.
A. Back up of blood from heart into venous circulation B. Decreased perfusion of the kidneys C. Thrombocytopenia D. Back up of blood and increased pressure to the lungs E. Decreased RBCs
A patient has Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF)) due to Right ventricular dysfunction. What pathophysiology may the nurse expect to be occurring in this patient?
A. Blood volume accumulate in left ventricle, left atrium and pulmonary vascular beds B. Increased pressure and accumulation of blood in R atrium and increased blood volume in systemic venous circulation C. Volume of blood backs up into the Right coronary artery D. BNP levels will be reduced
To screen for and potentially diagnose prostate cancer, which one of the following tumor markers are most useful?
A. CA-125 B. CA 15-3 C. PSA D. BRCA1
Certain types of human papillomaviruses are associated with the development of _________cancer.
A. Cervical B. Vaginal C. Uterine D. Breast
Which of the following best describes stable angina?
A. Chest pain that occurs during sleep after midnight in the early morning hours B. Chest pain that occurs upon exertion and is relieved with rest or medication C. Chest pain that occur with spasmodic coughing and is associated with pulmonary disease D. Chest pain that occurs at rest and is not relieved with rest or medication
Which of the following provides the diagnostic criteria for Chronic Bronchitis?
A. Chronic hyperactive airway and bronchoconstriction over 2 years B. Abnormal pulmonary function tests at least once on the last 6 months C. Chronic productive cough for 3 consecutive months in 2 consecutive years D. Airway obstruction with prolonged expiratory phase and air trapping
Which type of fracture would the nurse most worry about a patient developing osteomyelitis?
A. Complete fracture B. Incomplete fracture C. Open fracture D. Closed fracture
Which diagnostic tools can differentiate between an ischemic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke?
A. Computed tomography (CT) B. CBC C. Ultrasound D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
A patient is diagnosed with Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA). While providing patient education, the nurse correctly identifies what potential complications that can occur from sleep apnea? Select all that apply.
A. Cor pulmonale B. Pulmonary HTN C. Hospital acquired PNA D. Anemia E. Hyperkalemia
Which of the following are related to psychiatric disorders. Select all that apply
A. Cortisol B. Troponin C. Renin D. Dopamine E. Serotonin
Cerebrovascular accidents (CVA) or strokes are the most common type of neurological diseases. The pathological cause of a stroke can be classified broadly into two categories. What are the two categories. Select two responses.
A. Cryptogenic stroke B. TIA C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Large artery stroke E. Intracerebral hemorrhage F. Subarachnoid hemorrhage G. Ischemic stroke H. Cardioembolic stroke
Which complication can occur if a female has gonorrhea?
A. Cystocele B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) C. Endometriosis D. Latent gonorrhea
Which of the following phrases accurately describes why atrial fibrillation can predispose a patient for a stroke?
A. D/t tangled arteries in the atria clots form and travel to the cerebral artery B. D/t poor atrial contractions, clot formation occurs in the heart and travels to the cerebral arteries C. D/t trauma to the heart is minimal electrical activity causing clot formation D. D/t poor circulation around the Cricle of Willis clots are formed
Which of the following is the body's response to stress? Select all that apply
A. Decreased BP B. Increased HR C. Decreased gastric motility D. Increased water retention E. Bronchoconstriction
Which of the following are signs of Cushing's Triad? Select all that apply
A. Decreased HR B. Increased HR C. Chest pain D. Abnormal respirations E. Hypotension F. Pale skin G. Hypertension
An increase in serum creatinine levels may also indicate which of the following?
A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Increased GFR C. Hypophosphatemia D. Reduced GFR E. Hypocalcemia
Which of the following best defines anemia?
A. Decreased oxygenation of RBCs B. Decreased amount of Hemoglobin C. Decreased number of RBCs D. Decreased number of RBCs and/or hemoglobin
Which of the following can cause pre-renal failure?
A. Decreased perfusion B. Streptococcal infection C. Ureter obstruction D. Nephrotoxic medications
Which of the following places the patient at risk for atelectasis? Select all that apply.
A. Deep breathing B. Sedation C. Immobility D. Surgery E. Ambulation F. Shallow breathing
What are the common potential conditions that may lead to heart failure (of any type)? Select all that apply.
A. Diabetes B. Chronic venous insufficiency C. Coronary artery disease D. Osteoarthritis E. Pulmonary hypertension F. Potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L and magnesium of 2.2 mEq/L G. Obstructive sleep apnea H. Hypertension
Cell injury occurs when cells are exposed to a severe stress that no longer allows them to maintain homeostasis. What are mechanisms of cell injury? Select all that apply.
A. Disruption of intracellular calcium homeostasis resulting in increased calcium in the cell B. Hypoxia C. Disruption of intracellular calcium homeostasis resulting in decreased calcium in the cell D. Free radical formation E. Increase in mitochondrial number
Guideline directed medical therapy (GDMT) was started for the patient in the case after his initial ECHO in 2015. As shown, the follow-up 2016 ECHO showed a LVEF of 45%. What was the patient's LVEF based heart failure classification at that point (after 2016 ECHO, based on current guidelines)?
A. HF with improved ejection fraction (HFimpEF) B. HF with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) C. HF with mildly reduced ejection fraction (HFmEF) D. HF with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)
Which of the following could be disorders within the esophagus? Select all that apply
A. Hepatic encephalopathy B. GERD C. Zollinger Ellison Syndrome D. Varices E. Celiac disease
A nurse is assessing a patient who was admitted for emergency treatment for a severe peptic ulcer. Which concern is the nurse likely to have for the patient?
A. Hiatal hernia B. Pyloric stenosis C. Acute GI bleed D. Gastroenterocolitis
Large intestinal bowel obstruction can occur due to which of the following? Select all that apply.
A. Hiatal hernias B. Colon cancer C. NSAID use D. Volvulus E. Diverticula
_______wears down joint cartilage.
A. Hip fracture B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteoporosis D. Osteoarthritis
Which of the following are types of solid tumors? Select all that apply
A. Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Acute myelogenous leukemia D. Multiple myeloma E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Clinical manifestations that would be seen in adrenal insufficiency, such as Addison's Disease, include which of the following? Select all that apply
A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin B. Hyponatremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperglycemia
Which of the following relate to a change in the size of the same cell type? Select all that apply.
A. Hyperplasia B. Metaplasia C. Hypertrophy D. Dysplasia E. Atrophy
Which of the following best describes the cellular adaptation seen in chronic cigarette smokers?
A. Hypertrophy B. Atrophy C. Metaplasia D. Hyperplasia E. Dysplasia
The diagnostic report of a patient shows inflammation of the colon, but not the small intestine. What condition is most likely for this patient based on the diagnostic report?
A. IBS B. Appendicitis C. Small bowel obstruction D. Ulcerative colitis
Which of the following is true regarding hepatitis.
A. If someone has hepatitis screening for pericarditis is helpful B. Hepatitis A, B, & C have a carrier state making transmission easy C. Hepatitis has the presence of a specific bacteria that can be tested D. The mode of transmission can vary
Symptoms of cancer that are unrelated to the tumor site, such as hypercalcemia in the patient with lung cancer, are classified as which one of the following?
A. Immunologic syndrome B. Anemia of cancer C. Paraneoplastic syndrome D. Oncogenic symptoms
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a result of which of the following?
A. Impaired metabolism of elderly B. Respiratory acidosis C. Increased fat metabolism D. Increase of insulin production
Students are meeting for group study. Which of the following statements by a student indicates correct understanding of heart failure overall?
A. In HF patients suffer compression of the heart and is caused by accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac B. HF patients have an immune-mediated response to group A beta hemolytic streptococcus C. HF is a clinical syndrome that only occurs with myocardial ischemia and infarction D. In HF, the heart fails to put out enough blood to meet the needs of organs and tissues
The Frank-Starling mechanism is important in the pathogenesis of heart failure. Which statement best describes this mechanism?
A. In early heart failure, an increase in myocardial stretch increases contractility and increases CO initially B. This mechanism will only be initiated in those with chronic and late stage heart failure C. In early heart failure, this mechanism will decrease cardiac output and provide rest to the myocardium D. This mechanism is always responsible for increased levels of troponin
A student obtains vital signs on a patient who is dehydrated. The nurse suspects that the patient may experience orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following findings would confirm orthostatic hypotension?
A. Increase in diastolic. BP by 10mmHG while the patient is laying down B. Drop in diastolic BP by 20mmHg while the patient is laying down C. Increase in systolic BP 20mmHg while the patient is in a standing position D. Drop in systolic BP to 20mmHg when the patient moves into a standing position from a sitting or lying position
Specific to the patient in this case, what heart failure compensation processes may be occurring just based on known data from the case? Select all that apply
A. Increase in respiratory acidosis B. The RAAS system C. Increase in RBCs D. BNP neurohormonal regulation E. Stimulation from the sympathetic nervous system
A patient has been diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following best describes the effect of HTN on the heart?
A. Increased BP will increase the pressure on the right ventricle directly B. Increase BP will not impact the heart unless the pt also has atherosclerosis or diabetes C. Increased BP increases the workload of the LV D. Increased BP will decrease the pressure on the heart and result in a lower cardiac output
If the patient was found to have increased intracranial pressure what are some clinical manifestations the nurse could anticipate? Select all that apply.
A. Increased WBCs B. Decreased BP C. Change in LOC D. Posturing E. Constipation F. Papilledema
Assuming no other impacting issues, initially, the Frank-Starling mechanism will result in:
A. Increased cardiac output B. Decreased cardiac output C. No change in cardiac output
Your patient is being tested for a leukemia. Which findings would you anticipate in the patient if they have leukemia?
A. Increased number of platelets B. Increased oxygen carrying capacity C. Increased number of RBCs D. Increased number of WBCs
You assess your patient and see purpura, which of the following lab values would correlate to that finding?
A. Increased platelets B. Decrease WBCs C. Decreased platelets D. Decreased RBCs
Which of the following can be seen in someone with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
A. Increased vaginal d/c B. Cachexia C. Reduced androgen levels D. Infertility
A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure and is asked to send BNP lab work. The nurse understands an increased release of BNP will result in which of the following?
A. Increased vasoconstriction and decreased diuresis B. Increased diuresis and decreased sodium and water reabsorption C. Decreased diuresis and increased sodium and water reabsorption D. Decreased diuresis and no affect on vasoconstriction
A student nurse is talking about what is needed for red blood cell synthesis and talks about several components. Which of the following mentioned by the student requires further instruction?
A. Iron B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin K D. Folic acid
Small fractures that are due to repetitive, cumulative trauma are known as _______ fractures.
A. Isolated B. Pathological C. Compound D. Stress E. Comminuted
Identify common clinical manifestations of HFrEF with a Left sided systolic heart dysfunction etiology that has NOT progressed to also include Right sided heart function. Select all that apply.
A. JVD B. Dyspnea C. Bilateral lower extremity edema D. Confusion E. Fatigue
Which of the following clinical manifestations are most likely related to a potential neurological disorder? Select all that apply.
A. L sided weakness B. Difficulty seeing out of your L eye C. Decrease in WBCs D. Word finding difficulty E. Chest pain F. SOB G. Change in LOC H. Lower extremity weakness I. Respiratory acidosis
Ringworm can be found on which of the following? Select all that apply
A. Leg B. Head C. Only on the scalp D. Nails E. Only in the groin
After assessing a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder, a nurse anticipates that they had a stroke in the right cerebral hemisphere. Which finding BEST supports the nurse's hypothesis?
A. Loss of sensation of the R hand B. Difficulty breathing C. R sided weakness D. L sided facial droop
Metabolic syndrome is associated with insulin resistance and diabetes. Which of the following abnormalities are observed in metabolic syndrome? Select all that apply.
A. Low levels of BNP B. Hypertension C. Low levels of HDL D. Low levels of LDL E. High levels of triglycerides F. Obesity
Which organ is responsible for the majority of clotting factors?
A. Lungs B. Bone marrow C. Kidney D. Liver
Chvostek and Trousseau Tests are commonly used to assess for imbalances in which one of the following electrolytes?
A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Potassium
Which of the following best reflects systolic blood pressure?
A. Maximum arterial pressure during contraction of L ventricle B. Minimum arterial pressure from L ventricle relaxation C. Volume of blood measured in central venous system D. Volume of blood ejected during atrial contraction
A patient with a history of a GI bleed complains of dark tarry stools. How will the nurse correctly describe this in the documentation?
A. Melena B. Hemestool C. Hemoglobinuria D. Hematochezia
Which of the follow best defines perfusion?
A. Movement of air through the pulmonary airways B. Ratio of the amount of air reaching the alveoli C. Movement of blood through pulmonary circulation D. Reduced oxygenation with an inability to meet tissue demand
Based on the case study which other neurological issue is the patient most at risk for developing?
A. Myasthenia gravis B. Meningitis C. Delirium D. Multiple sclerosis
Stones located along the urinary tract are known also as what?
A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Urolithiasis C. Hydronephrosis D. Pyelonephritis
COMMON (not including ones that might infrequently occur) Clinical manifestations of breast cancer may include: (Select all that apply)
A. Nipple d/c B. Unilateral breast swelling C. A firm, non-mobile breast lump D. A breast lump that is very tender to palpation D. "Pepe Le Pew" appearing breast skin
Which of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis? Select all that apply
A. Older age B. Male C. Female D. Younger age
What is the best description of the pathophysiology of pulmonary hypertension?
A. Overdistention of alveoli with trapped air B. Elevated pulmonary artery pressure C. Pulmonary hyper-responsiveness and airway inflammation D. Collection of fluid with the pleural cavity
Cardinal signs of inflammation include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A. Pallor (pale in color) B. Pain C. Heat (warm to touch) D. Swelling E. Loss of function
Which of the following words best describes the slowness of movement often seen with Parkinson's disease
A. Pin rolling B. Bradykinesia C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Ataxia D. Degenerative
Based on the case, what are the labs or diagnostics tests that are relevant to the patients heart failure exacerbation. Select all that apply.
A. Platelets B. Echocardiogram C. RBCs D. WBCs E. Kidney labs F. BNP levels
Which of the following terms best describes a genetic disorder that involves multiple genes at different loci?
A. Polygenic B. Chromosomal C. Mutation D. Genotype
A nurse is caring for a patient with aortic stenosis, what will the nurse expect in the diagnostic assessment of this patient?
A. Poor left ventricle filling and left ventricle atrophy B. Poor left ventricle outflow and left ventricular hypertrophy C. Increase in right arterial size D. Increase left ventricle outflow and increased cardiac output
Who is at increased risk for a urinary tract infection? Select all that apply
A. Pregnant women B. Male C. Elderly D. Females
Based on the neurological case study, which of the following are the most likely risk factors that predisposed the patient for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Select all that apply
A. Prior history of TIAs B. Kidney stones C. Hyperlipidemia D. Previous UTI E. AFIB for 10 years F. Hernia repair G. Poorly controlled DM H. BPH I. Recent admission for the flu J. Poorly controlled HTN
Which of the following are common signs of kidney dysfunction? Select all that apply
A. Proteinuria B. Rash C. Hematuria D. Decreased GFR E. Chest pain F. SOB
A patient who has been smoking for 30 years, approximately a pack a day, has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. One potential diagnosis might be COPD. To help evaluate for this and other pulmonary conditions, which of the following test(s) may be appropriate. Select all that apply
A. Pulse oximetry B. Chest CT C. Magnesium level D. Chest Xray E. Sodium level F. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
Based on the case and most recent ECHO (1/1/2023), identify the current high level heart failure classification and the underlying type of heart failure(s) for this patient.
A. R sided diastolic HF only B. L sided systolic HF only C. HFrEF with L sided systolic HF and R heart failure D. HFpEF with L sided systolic heart failure and R heart failure
Which of the following data would the nurse prioritize and gather first based on the current case?
A. Review blood work like BMP and CBC B. Complete neurological assessment C. Complete MSK assessment D. Assess for skin breakdown
Which of the following are common non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension (HTN)? Select all that apply
A. Smoking B. Genetics C. Diet D. Age E. Obesity F. Gender G. Hyperlipidemia
Which type of skin cancer is rapid and affects the melanocytes?
A. Striated cell B. Melanoma C. Squamous cell D. Basal cell
A nurse is admitting a patient with pericarditis. The nurse understands that this disorder often presents with a triad of symptoms. How does this triad of symptoms present in the patient?
A. Tachycardia, JVD, and muffled heart sounds B. Epigastric distress, substernal chest pain, and SOB C. Chest pain, pericardial rub, and diffuse ECG changes D. Fever, chills, and splinter hemorrhages
Which of the following is a common complication of fractures?
A. Tendinopathy B. DVT C. Physiologic contracture D. Sprain
Which of the following are true statements regarding Sodium? Select all that apply.
A. The main function of sodium is to regulate the ECF volume. B. The normal serum sodium level is 135-145 mEq/L. C. Sodium is a cation. D. Sodium is an anion. E. The body gets most of it's sodium through outdoor sun exposure.
The patient is ordered for an echocardiogram and they keep asking, "why do I need to get this test?" Which of the following is the best rationale for the nurse to provide?
A. This test can determine if you have structural heart abnormalities B. This test will review the electrical activity within your heart C. This will determine if you had hemorrhagic stroke D. This is the best test to determine you have atrial fibrillation E. This test will determine issues within your lungs
Which of the following describes the physiological impact of increased carbon dioxide to the cerebral vessels.
A. This will cause vasoconstriction B. This will cause vasodilation C. This will decrease cerebral blood flow D. This has little impact on cerebral vessels
Why is the blood pressure elevated for this patient?
A. To prevent further clot formation B. To increase cardiac output C. It is only due to poorly controlled BP by the patient D. As a compensatory measure to help perfuse the brain
Fluid accumulation in the lungs is part of the primary pathogenesis of which of the following diseases?
A. Tonsilitis B. Pneumonia C. Influenza D. Pharyngitis
Which of the following are common clinical manifestations of testicular cancer? Select all that apply
A. Unilateral scrotal swelling B. Painful lymph node C. Fever D. Hard painless testicular mass
An example of a supraventricular arrhythmia is:
A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Sinus rhythm
__________ renal failure is caused by conditions that produce a sudden shutdown in renal function.
A. Viral B. Acute C. Autoimmune D. Chronic
The suffix "itis" added to the end of the name of a body organ, such as "bronchitis", refers to which one of the following?
A. Viral infection B. Hypertrophy C. Atrophy D. Inflammation
A patient is experiencing periodic shortness of breath; His ECG shows his "PR" interval gradual increases from heartbeat to heartbeat until there is a "skipped beat". The nurse recognizes this is probably:
A. Wenckebach heart block B. Second degree, type 2 heart block C. Third degree heart block D. First degree heart block
What patient populations are generally at higher risk for heart failure? Select all that apply.
A. Women B. Age > 65 years C. Smokers D. More affluent persons E. EtOH and illicit drug abusers F. Sedentary individuals G. People with a family history of cardiomyopathies H. Vegetarians
Turner syndrome is a/n:
A. X-linked d/o B. Autosomal dominant genetic d/o C. Autosomal recessive d/o D. Chromosomal d/o
It is believed that cancer occurs because of interactions among multiple factors. Which of the following are believed to be risk factors that are linked to cancer? Select all that apply
A. Young age B. Chemical carcinogens such as smoking and alcohol consumption C. History of MI D. Viruses E. Hormonal factors F. Height of the individual . It is known that those with shorter stature are more prone to cancers such as bone cancer G. Hereditary predisposition
A patient with a pH of 7.5 has which one of the following acid base imbalances?
Alkalosis
Usually encapsulated. Does not invade the surrounding tissues. Benign or malignant tumor?
Benign tumor
Usually progresses slowly. May come to a standstill or regress. Benign or malignant tumor?
Benign tumor
Well differentiated. Resembles cells in the tissue of origin. Benign or malignant tumor?
Benign tumor
Pulmonary embolism
Blood clot in the pulmonary arterial circulation
Movement of fluid from capillaries into interstitial tissue d/t pressure exerted against the vessel walls. What is the mechanism of body fluid exchange?
Capillary filtration (hydrostatic pressure)
Cortisol
Causes immunosuppression and hyperglycemia
Pneumothorax
Collection of air in the pleural cavity
Pressure generated by plasma proteins. What is the mechanism of body fluid exchange?
Colloidal osmotic pressure
T/F - Scabies is caused by mites and shingles by a virus?
True
T/F - Single-gene disorders are the result of a mutant allele at one gene locus
True
T/F - The number of chromosomes divides in half during the process of meiosis.
True
T/F - The pH reflects the Hydrogen (H+) ion concentration
True
T/F - Thrombocytopenia predisposes an individual to inappropriate bleeding.
True
Paralytic ileus
Decreased motility
Movement of charged particles from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration. What is the mechanism of body fluid exchange?
Diffusion
STIs such as gonorrhea and syphilis
Direct contact
Fluid within the blood vessel (intravascular) - ECF (extracellular fluid) or ICF? (intracellular fluid)?
ECF
T/F - Multiple sclerosis is caused by various neurotransmitter deficiencies.
False
T/F - Substance use disorders are primarily diagnosed by obtaining dobutamine blood levels
False
T/F - The penumbra is incapable of recovery.
False
T/F- Meningitis is always caused by a bacteria.
False
Steatorrhea
Fatty stool
Serum Calcium level of 12 mg/dL
Hypercalcemia
Serum Potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L
Hyperkalemia
Serum Sodium level of 155 mEq/L
Hypernatremia
Heat intolerance
Hyperthyroidism
Insomnia
Hyperthyroidism
Tachycardia
Hyperthyroidism
Serum Sodium level of 124 mEq/L
Hypoanatremia
Serum Calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL
Hypocalcemia
Serum Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
Hypokalemia
Cold intolerance
Hypothyroidism
Constipation
Hypothyroidism
Lethargy
Hypothyroidism
Weight gain
Hypothyroidism
Cystic fibrosis
Impaired chloride transport
Glucagon
Increases blood glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
Hepatitis A and Cholera
Ingestion
Influenza and COVID19
Inhalation
No e/o lymph node involvement
N0
Increased involvement of lymph nodes
N3
T/F - A decrease in respiratory alveolar ventilation, will result in an accumulation of carbon dioxide. An increase in carbon dioxide (PCO2) will result in "Respiratory Alkalosis".
False
T/F - Another name for an antigen is immunoglobulin.
False
T/F - Damage to the functional structures of the kidney themselves is best defined as prerenal failure.
False
T/F - In a healthy person, increased plasma levels of T3 and T4 will lead to an increase in the release of TRH from the hypothalamus, and ultimately an increase in TSH release from the anterior pituitary gland.
False
GERD
Loss of muscle tone at the LES
Based on the increased serum creatinine (which indicates a reduction in kidney function). ___________ may be causing ______________ of the kidney, resulting in the reduced kidney function.
Lower cardiac output Reduced perfusion
Insulin
Lowers blood glucose by facilitating transport of cells
No e/o metastasis
M0
Distant metastasis
M1
Infiltrates surrounding tissues. Grows by invasion. Benign or malignant tumor?
Malignant tumor
Metastasizes to other areas of the body through blood and lymph. Benign or malignant tumor?
Malignant tumor
Poorly differentiated. Poorly resembles cells in the tissue of origin. Benign or malignant tumor?
Malignant tumor
Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lesser solute concentration to an area of greater solute concentration. What is the mechanism of body fluid exchange?
Osmosis
Pyloric stenosis
Prevents nutrients from entering the small intestine
A patient is admitted with Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF) due to Left Sided Heart Failure. The student nurse understands that _________________ is a typical complication assessed in this type of patient and can be manifested as ____________________.
Pulmonary edema Crackles upon auscultation
Composed of degraded WBCs, proteins, and tissue debris
Purulent
Cor pulmonale
R sided HF
Thrombocytes
Responsible for coagulation (blood clotting)
WBCs
Responsible for immune response
Diverticula
Sac like protrusion of the colon
Significant leakage of RBCs from the capillaries
Sanguineous (Hemorrhagic)
Which type of wound would take longer to heal, primary or secondary?
Secondary wound
Watery fluid, primarily plasma
Serous
Growth hormone (GH)
Stimulates growth of bone and muscle
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones
Large tumor
T3
Carcinoma in situ
Tis
A person has B- blood. What would happen if they were given a transfusion of B+?
Transfusion reaction
T.F - Stones within the gallbladder can also cause issues with the pancreas or liver.
True
T/F - "Oma" is a "suffix" that is added to a tissue type to name a tumor. For example, "adenoma".
True
T/F - Aldosterone is a hormone secreted by the Adrenal Cortex that works to increase sodium reabsorption. Aldosterone has a key role in maintaining circulatory fluid volume.
True
T/F - As the CD4 T-Cell count decreases, the body becomes susceptible for opportunistic infections.
True
T/F - Blood levels of cholesterol are increased with hypothyroidism.
True
T/F - Both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia can cause serious cardiac arrhythmias.
True
T/F - Cancer cells express specific antigens on their cell surface. These antigens may be useful as "tumor markers" to indicate the presence or recurrence of a cancer
True
T/F - Consequences of chronic kidney disease include fluid and electrolyte imbalances, skeletal disorders, and alterations in cardiovascular function.
True
T/F - Endothelial cells are actively involved in regulating blood flow, vascular resistance and coagulation.
True
T/F - Glomerular disorders often result in protein being present in the urine.
True
T/F - Most sexually transmitted infections (STIs) have clinical manifestations.
True
T/F - Passive immunity is achieved through immunizations?
True
Describe the pathogenesis of right sided versus left sided heart failure.
With left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle is too weak to pump blood to the body. Cardiac output and tissue perfusion is decreased. Blood from the left ventricle backup into the lungs, causing repiratory symptoms. With right-sided heart failure, the right ventricle is too weak to pump enough blood to the lungs. This leads to congestion of the peripheral tissues, causing blood to back-up into the inferior vena cava, causing hepatomegaly, bilateral edema, and JVD.
Antidiuretic hormone
another term for vasopressin released by posterior pituitary
Patient with heart failure after MI
cardiogenic shock
MRI
detailed scan of the brain to identify small infarcts
Glascow coma scale
determines LOC
Patient with a cervical spinal cord injury
distributive: neurogenic shock
Patient with bacteremia and widespread infection
distributive: septic shock
CT scan
first scan completed to r/o hemorrhagic stroke
Cystocele
herniation of the bladder
Patient with gastroenteritis, 4 days vomiting and diarrhea
hypovolemic shock
Vaginitis
inflammation of the vagina
History and physical
number 1 neurological tool
Dysmenorrhea
painful menstruation
Intravenous drug use
penetration of body's surface barrier
Baroreceptors
pressure sensitive receptors responsible for rapid and short term BP regulation
Thyroid hormones T3/T4
regulates body heat
Renin
released by kidneys in response to low arterial pressure or increased SNS activity
Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
released in response to increased ventricular pressure or fluid overload
RBCs
responsible for oxygen transport
Angiotensin II
results in arterial vasoconstriction
ACTH
stimulates synthesis and secretion of adrenal cortical hormones