Pathology NBDE I, NDBE combined

Since the name under which a dentist conducts his or her practice may be a factor in the selection process of the patient, the use of a trade name or an assumed name that is misleading in any material respect is unethical. Use of the name of a dentist no longer actively associated with the practice may be continued for a period not to exceed: 1 year 2 years 3 years 4 years

1 year ( With permission of a departing dentist, his or her name may be used for more than one year, if, after the one year grace period has expired, prominent notice is provided to the public through such mediums as a sign at the office and a short statement on stationary and business cards that the departing dentist has retired from the practice. )

order of engery use Creatinine phosphate ATP storage gluconeogenesis and/or lipolysis Glycolysis

1. ATP storage 2. Creatinine phosphate 3. Glycolysis 4. gluconeogenesis and/or lipolysis

what are the three essential steps for blood clotting:

1. activation of prothrombin activator 2. prothrombin activator acts enzymatically to catalyze the formation of *thrombin* (Factor IIa) from prothrombin (Factor II) 3. Thrombin (Factor IIa) acts as an enzyme to *convert fibrinogen* (Factor I) into *fibrin* (Factor Ia) fibrin --> enmesh red blood cells and platelets to form the clot itself.

A sequence of DNA reads "A-T-T-G-C-A." How many hydrogen bonds would you expect to see holding this sequence to its complementary strand? 12 14 16 18

14 (2 in each A-T pairing and 3 in each G-C pairing)

What are the normal values for daily glomerular filtrate amount and excretion amount, respectively? 150 - 250 L; 1 - 2 L 150 - 250 L; 12 L 45 - 75 L; 1 - 2 L 45 - 75 L; 12 L

150 - 250 L; 1 - 2 L ( Approximately 99% of the filtrate is returned to the vascular system, while 1% is excreted as urine. )

The brachiocephalic veins unite to form the superior vena cava at what rib level

1st right costal cartilage

Extracellular fluid comprises _______ of the amount of total body water. 25% 33% 50% 66%

33% ( Intracellular fluid (ICF) comprises two-thirds of the body's water Extracellular fluid (ECF) is the remaining one-third of the body's water )

Theoretically, in most human cells, one glucose molecule produces enough usable chemical energy to synthesize: 30-32 ATP molecules 32-34 ATP molecules 36-38 ATP molecules 44-48 ATP molecules

36-38 ATP molecules

The subscapular artery which supplies the subscapularis muscle branches off the: subclavian artery 1st part of axillary artery 2nd part of axillary artery 3rd part of axillary artery

3rd part of axillary artery ( Parts of the axillary artery: First part - the part of the artery medial to pectoralis minor. It has one branch only; superior thoracic artery (supreme thoracic artery) Second part - the part of the artery that lies behind pectoralis minor. It has 2 branches; thoracoacromial artery and lateral thoracic artery Third part - the part of the artery lateral to pectoralis minor. It has 3 branches; subscapular artery, anterior humeral circumflex and posterior humeral circumflex artery )

How many cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebra are there

7 cervical 12 thoracic 5 lumbar ( Mnemonic: For the vertebrae, just remember the times people typically eat meals; 7 am - breakfast - 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 pm - lunch - 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 pm - dinner - 5 lumbar vertebrae. )

Vitamin D is synthesized photochemically in the skin, by the action of ultraviolet radiation on the minor membrane steroid

7-dehydrocholesterol.

healthy patient wears contact lenses develops a small ulceration of the eye. what is the most likely organisms involved

Acanthamoeba

Acellular cementum is found where Cellular cementum is found where

Acellular --> coronal 2/3 Cellular --> apical 1/3

The excitatory transmitters are: Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Dopamine Serotonin Glutamate Glycine GABA Nitric oxide

Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Glutamate Nitric oxide

types of immunity is conferred by transferring lymphoid cells from an actively immunized donor to a naive or immunocompromised host?

Adoptive immunity

__________ thrombus: forms in the heart during the process of dying after prolonged heart failure.

Agonal

The Alar plate forms ________ The Basal plate forms ________

Alar plate --> dorsal horn --> sensory Basal plate --> ventral horn --> motor

marble bones

Albert's bone dz

only adjuvants approved for use in human vaccines are:

Alum and MF59

slightly movable joints Synarthroses Amphiarthroses Diarthroses

Amphiarthroses

is a generic term used to describe various conditions where extracellular deposits of misfolded proteins (amyloids) cause tissue damage and compromise organ function.

Amyloidosis

closely related to urticaria and is characterized by deeper edema of both the dermis and the subcutaneous fat.

Angioedema

he anterior two-thirds of the hard palate is formed by the_______, and the posterior one-third is formed by the

Anterior --> palatine processes of the maxilla Posterior --> horizontal plates of the palatine bones.

What antibodies are specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?

Anti-Sm (anti Smith)

an antibody formed in response to a specific toxin is called

Antitoxin

What is the Arterial supply: Venous drainage: Sympathetic innervation: Parasympathetic innervation: of the Foregut

Arterial supply: celiac trunk Venous drainage: hepatic portal system (via left gastric and splenic veins) Sympathetic innervation: thoracic splanchnic nerve synapsing in celiac plexus Parasympathetic innervation: vagus ( includes esophagus, stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas and proximal part of duodenum (to the point of entry of common bile duct) as well as the spleen )

What is the Arterial supply: Venous drainage: Sympathetic innervation: Parasympathetic innervation: of the Hindgut

Arterial supply: inferior mesenteric artery Venous drainage: hepatic portal system (via inferior mesenteric vein) Sympathetic innervation: inferior mesenteric plexus Parasympathetic innervation: S2-S4 ( includes distal one third of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum. )

What is the Arterial supply: Venous drainage: Sympathetic innervation: Parasympathetic innervation: of the Midgut

Arterial supply: superior mesenteric artery Venous drainage: hepatic portal system (via superior mesenteric vein) Sympathetic innervation: thoracic splanchnic nerve synapsing in superior mesenteric plexus Parasympathetic innervation: vagus ( includes distal part of duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon and two thirds of the transverse colon. )

What is the artery supply to the Ascending colon: Transverse colon: Descending colon: Sigmoid colon

Ascending colon: superior mesenteric artery Transverse colon: superior mesenteric artery Descending colon: inferior mesenteric artery Sigmoid colon: inferior mesenteric artery

occurs when the curvature of the lens is not uniform and is corrected with cylindric lenses. hyperopia myopia Astigmatism Presbyopia

Astigmatism

AA disease that replaces parietal cells in the stomach with goblet --> megalobalstic amemia (B12 def due to no intrisnic factor)

Atrophic gastritis

The water-soluble vitamins include mainly

B-complex vitamins: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin/vitamin H), B9 (folic acid/folacin), and B12 (cobalamin). *and* vitamin C

Humoral immunity is immunity mediated by

B-lymphocyte population

After eating dinner of leftovers that included rewarmed fried rice, a boy develops diarrhea and stomach pain.

Bacillus cereus

women develops arthritis of the knee and hip joints, paralysis of the left facial muscles and the first sign was erythema chronicum migrans.

Borrelia burgdorferi (lyme disease)

most potent toxin known to humans.

Botulinum toxin (BTX)

The main distinguishing feature of the duodenum is the presence of prominent: Brunner's glands rugae Peyer's patches teniae coli plicae circulares

Brunner's glands ( counteract the effects of gastric acids that reach the duodenum. These glands also provide the necessary alkaline environment for the functioning of the exocrine pancreatic secretions. )

complement system all of the pathways lead to ____ activation

C3

Which is more more stable and more potent C5a or C3a

C5a

blue bloater

CB

persistent cough+sputum production

CB

budding yeast and pseudohyphae describes

Candida

Most common cause of oral thrush

Candida albicans

the most common ealry form of oral lesions in HIV infected individuals is casued by

Candidia albicans

neoplasms arising from epithelium or endoderm.

Carcinomas

in and adult, where is the red bone marrow located

Cavities in the cranial bones, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, the ends of long bones (epiphysis) ( yellow bone marrow is found in the diaphysis of long bones )

Patient presents with a painless penile vesicle and inguinal lymphadenopathy (lymphogranuloma venerum)

Chlamydia trachomatis

is associated with the Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome. It is more common in middle-aged and elderly individuals.

Chronic myeloid leukemia

Berry aneurysms are usually found in the region of the

Circle of Willis

Gas gangrene occurs as a result of infection by

Clostridium perfringens

Tetanus or lockjaw is caused by

Clostridium tetani

stages of shock the body will alter its hemodynamic functions to compensate for poor tissue perfusion. The heart rate will increase, the vessels of the body will begin constricting and the body will begin to retain sodium and water. Additionally as the stage progresses the blood glucose levels will begin to rise and the respiratory rate will increase (hyperventilation) in an attempt to blow off the effects of lactic acidosis which occurred in the initial stage when the body switched over from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism.

Compensatory stage

is the accumulation of excessive blood within the blood vessels.

Congestion

hyperaldosteronism is also known as

Conn's disease

A grayish pseudomembrane is found in an infection caused by

Corynebacteria diphtheriae

Metachromatic staining can be used to ID

Corynebacterium

Gram positive rod that is associated with tonsillopharyngeal infections

Corynebacterium diptheriae

What is a encapsulated yeast that is the most common cause of fungal meningitis

Cryptococcus

hyercortisolism is also known as

Cushing syndrome

produces prostaglandins and thromboxanes

Cyclooxygenation

the replication of DNA involves ______ linking DNA molecules together Topoisomerases DNA gyrase DNA ligase Helicases

DNA ligase

Hep B

DNA virus, enveloped

Bone shaft; consists of a cylindrical tube of durable compact bone. Diaphysis Epiphysis Medullary cavity Endosteum Periosteum

Diaphysis

freely movable joints Synarthroses Amphiarthroses Diarthroses

Diarthroses (synovial joints)

The inhibitory transmitters are: Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Dopamine Serotonin Glutamate Glycine GABA Nitric oxide

Dopamine Serotonin GABA Glycine

are partially calcified vertical defects in the enamel resembling cracks or fractures that traverse the entire length of the crown from the surface to the DEJ. They are narrower and longer than enamel tufts. These are an anomaly of crystallization and seem to have no clinical importance. Enamel tufts Enamel spindles Enamel lamellae

Enamel lamellae

Lines medullary cavity; consists of supportive dense regular connective tissue. Diaphysis Epiphysis Medullary cavity Endosteum Periosteum

Endosteum

the specific portion of an antigen to which the antibody binds.

Epitope

An African child develops massive unilateral enlargement of his lower face in the vicinity of the mandible. Biopsy demonstrates sheets of medium sized blast cells with admixed larger macrophages (burkitts lymphoma)

Epstein-Barr virus

Positive heterophile antibody reaction (Monospot test) is used to ID

Epstein-Barr virus

Infectious mononucleosis is a benign, self-limiting disorder caused by:

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Neonatal meningitis with nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) is most commonly caused by

Escherichia coli

is the volume of gas expelled from the lungs during a maximal forced expiration that starts at the end of normal tidal expiration. This is about 1.5 liters. Total lung capacity (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Tidal volume (TV) Functional residual capacity (FRC) Inspiratory reserve (IRV) Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Riboflavin is a precursor of: NAD+ and NADP+ ATP and ADP pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) FMN and FAD

FMN and FAD ( Vitamin B2 )

In females, _________ initiates ovarian follicle development and secretion of estrogens in the ovaries In males, ________ stimulates sperm production in the testes (spermatogenesis)

FSH

Hemophilia A

Factor VIII deficiency

A pulp stone that is composed of concentric layer of calcified material with no tubular structure that is surrounded by all sides by pulpal tissue is called True, free pulp stone False, embedded pulp stone True, attached pulp stone False, free pulp stone

False, free pulp stone ( True pulp stones: are composed predominantly of dentin and have dentinal tubules. They may have an outer layer of predentin and are often located adjacent to odontoblast cells False pulp stones: are composed of concentric layers of calcified material with no tubular structures Free pulp stones: are surrounded on all sides by pulpal tissue and are not attached to the dentinal wall Attached pulp stones: are those, which are attached to the dentinal wall of the pulp chamber Embedded pulp stones: pulp stones that are surrounded by reactionary or secondary dentin )

is the opening to the back of the mouth leading to the pharynx, bounded by the uvula and palatoglossus

Fauces

in experimental immunology the most effective adjuvant ( substances that induce inflammation by antigen-independent mechanisms) is

Freund's complete

Contains the primary motor cortex, and influences personality, judgment, abstract thinking/reasoning, social behavior and language expression Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital

Frontal

is the volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal tidal expiration. This is the balance point between the inward elastic recoil of the lungs and the outward elastic recoil of the chest wall. This is about 3 liters in a healthy 70-kg adult. Total lung capacity (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Tidal volume (TV) Functional residual capacity (FRC) Inspiratory reserve (IRV) Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Functional residual capacity (FRC) ( FRC = ERV + RV )

The oxyntic glands (gastric glands) in the stomach mucosa are composed of three types of cells. Which of the following is NOT a component of oxyntic gland? parietal cell mucous neck cell chief cell G cell

G cell ( Oxyntic glands Mucus neck cells --> secrete mucus Chief cells -->pepsinogen Parietal -->hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor Pyloric glands G cells that secrete gastrin )

_________ is the best overall index of kidney function. CPR TFR APR GFR

GFR

Characterized by the presence of numerous adenomatous polyps along with skin and bone tumors

Gardner's syndrome

________ lipase works at an optimal pH of 4.5 to 6, whereas the _________ lipase works at a neutral pH. Gastric vs pancreatic

Gastric --> 4.5-6 pancreatic --> 7

flu-like symptoms and lymphadenopathy followed by a rash on the entire body

German measles (Rubella)

What part of the lymph node contains the B cells

Germinal centers ( T cells are found mainly in the paracortex )

primary tubercle

Ghon tubercle

Boy has diarrhea that is maloderous, greasy and tend to float. No blood or mucus is present

Giardia lamblia

substance that is filtered into the renal tubules but is then reabsorbed fully Glucose para-aminohippurate (PAH) Inulin

Glucose

_____ is unique in that it is the only amino acid that undergoes rapid oxidative deamination.

Glutamate

which stimulates the release of FSH and LH adrenocorticotropin hormone Somatostatin Gonadotropin-releasing hormone luteinizing hormone

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

Exophthalmos

Grave's

The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in adults is

Graves' disease

White Matter vs. Gray Matter: masses of the cell bodies and dendrites, each covered with synapses

Gray Matter

What is the rate limiting step for colesterol production

HMG -coA

The major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is: thiolase HMG-CoA reductase HMG-CoA synthase HMG-CoA kinase

HMG-CoA reductase ( Cholesterol is synthesized from acetyl-CoA; key intermediates in cholesterol biosynthesis are HMG-CoA, mevalonic acid, isopentenyl pyrophosphate, and squalene. Circulating cholesterol is taken up into liver cells where it inhibits synthesis of additional cholesterol from acetyl-CoA via allosteric inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase. )

Lipschultz body

HSV

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults is

Hashimoto's disease

unwind the helix Topoisomerases DNA gyrase DNA ligase Helicases

Helicases

vomiting of bright red blood, indicating rapid upper GI bleeding

Hematemesis

the most common cause of meningitis in children under the age of two

Hemophilus influenzae

The portal triad is a distinctive arrangement in the liver. It is a component of the hepatic lobule and consists of what structures:

Hepatic artery Portal vein Bile duct

Which disease is associated with the "Dane particle"

Hepatitis B

after birth, a neonate develops sepsis, skin vesicles and conjunctivitis. Over the next few daysthe infants condition deteriorates with seizures, cranial nerve palsies and lethargy. Infant dies within a week of onset of symptoms.

Herpes simplex type II

The secretory products (oxytocin and vasopressin [ADH]) are transported down the axons and stored in the axon terminals, known as

Herring bodies

Epithelial cells of the inner and outer epithelium proliferate from the cervical loop of the enamel organ to form a double layer of cells known as: [refer to AS card 305-I for illustration] dental lamina dental papilla reduced enamel epithelium Hertwig's epithelial root sheath

Hertwig's epithelial root sheath ( The structure responsible for root development is the cervical loop. The *cervical loop* is the most cervical portion of the enamel organ, a bilayer rim that consists of *only inner and outer enamel epithelium* of the enamel organ. The cervical loop begins to grow deeper into the surrounding mesenchyme of the dental sac, elongating and moving away from the newly completed crown area to enclose more of the dental papilla tissue and form *Hertwig's epithelial root sheath* (HERS). )

is highly condensed and transcriptionally inactive form of DNA. Heterochromatin Euchromatin

Heterochromatin

Fungus that is known to produce small ulcerative lesions in the mouth, primarily on the tongue and gingiva

Histoplasma capsulatum

Which of the following is an optical phenomenon that results from a change in the direction of the enamel rods? gnarled enamel incremental line of Retzius Hunter-Schreger bands dead tracts

Hunter-Schreger bands ( Hunter-Schreger bands (HSB) are alternating light-to-dark bands that appear in the enamel using reflected light rather than transmitted light. The bands are an optical appearance produced from a change in the direction and orientation of the adjacent enamel rod groups. )

Senses muscle length Ia primary spindle Ib Golgi tendon II secondary spindle III free nerve ending IV free nerve ending

II secondary spindle

Senses pain Ia primary spindle Ib Golgi tendon II secondary spindle III free nerve ending IV free nerve ending

III free nerve ending

Senses pain and temperature Ia primary spindle Ib Golgi tendon II secondary spindle III free nerve ending IV free nerve ending

IV free nerve ending

stages of shock here the cardiac output is seen to decrease, causing an impairment of the tissue perfusion. This action trips the cell to convert, because of lack of sufficient oxygen, from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. The mechanism of anaerobic metabolism causes a sudden increase in waste products called lactic acid that further injures the cells, which causes further cell death in a cyclical fashion.

Initial stage

is the volume of gas inhaled into the lungs during a maximal forced inspiration starting at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. This is about 2.5 liters. Total lung capacity (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Tidal volume (TV) Functional residual capacity (FRC) Inspiratory reserve (IRV) Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Inspiratory reserve (IRV)

substance that was freely filtered and neither secreted or reabsorbed Glucose para-aminohippurate (PAH) Inulin

Inulin

Used to test glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? Glucose para-aminohippurate (PAH) Inulin

Inulin ( freely filtered and neither secreted or reabsorbed )

patient has AIDs and develops chronic abdominal pain, low grade fever, malabsorption and diarrhea

Isospora belli

erythropoietin is made by what

Kidney (increases RBC)

Goodpasture's syndrome affects

Kidney and Lungs (type II hypersensitivity)

An alcoholic patient is brought in to the emergency department in respiratory distress. A chest x-ray demonstrates lobar consolidation of the right lower lung. Which organism should be highest on the differential diagnosis

Klebsiella pneumoniae

All amino acids found in proteins are of the: D-configuration L-configuration F-configuration C-configuration

L-configuration

At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries and also gives rise to the middle sacral artery? T10 T12 T2 L4 L5

L4 ( the aorta then descends within the thorax on the left side of the vertebral column, passes into the abdominal cavity through the aortic opening of the diaphragm in front of the twelfth thoracic vertebra (T12). The aorta descends behind the peritoneum on the anterior surface of the bodies of the lumbar vertebrae. At the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), the aorta divides into the two common iliac arteries. Just proximal to this terminal bifurcation is the median sacral artery, an unpaired parietal branch. )

consists of glucose and galactose Maltose Lactose Sucrose

Lactose

Patient has severe, potentially fatal pneumonia with prominent systemic symptoms. More common in older and smokers and drinkers.

Legionella pneumophila

malignant neoplasms of smooth muscle.

Leiomyosarcomas

The most commonly encountered neck space infection is:

Ludwig's angina

What is the least common sexually transmitted disease

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

What bacteria is the most closely related to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

M. bovis

consists of two glucose molecules joined together Maltose Lactose Sucrose

Maltose

patient has maculopapualr rash from the ears down and multiple small white spots on the buccal mucosa

Measles (rubeola)

Centrally positioned space within diaphysis; contains fatty yellow bone marrow. Diaphysis Epiphysis Medullary cavity Endosteum Periosteum

Medullary cavity

Light touch Meissner Merkel Ruffini Pacinian

Meissner (FA I)

Pressure/texture Meissner Merkel Ruffini Pacinian

Merkel (SA I)

Calcium deposits may occur in normal tissues whenever there is hypercalcemia. It may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the gastric mucosa, kidneys, lungs, systemic arteries, and pulmonary veins.

Metastatic calcification

____ is the constriction of the pupil of the eye. It can be caused by a normal response to an increase in light, certain drugs, or pathological conditions. Miosis Mydriasis

Miosis

arise from two germ layers

Mixed neoplasms

In the anterior pituitary, what are the Acidophils and Basophils

Mnemonic - GPA B-FLAT = GH, Prolactin from Acidophils. Basophils: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH.

Patient has chronic sinusitis that has not responded to antibiotic. What is the most likely cause

Mucor and Rhizopus

Bence-Jones protein (urine)

Multiple myeloma

Russel bodies, Mott cells

Multiple myeloma (mott cells=plasma cells containing multiple Russell bodies)

Young patient presents with bilateral swelling of the parotid gland, accompanied by swelling of one testicle

Mumps

___________ thrombus: forms as a result of damage to the ventricular endocardium (usually left ventricle, following myocardial infarct). A major complication of a mural thrombus is a cerebral embolism. It complicates myocardial infarction, atrial fibrillation, and atherosclerosis of the aorta.

Mural

What bacteria can infect people who drink unpasteurized milk.

Mycobacterium bovis

The marker microorganism for intermediate surface disinfection is:

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

CD56 is found in B cells T cells Natrual killer cells

Natrual killer cells

Kidney-bean shaped diplococci

Neisseria

gram negative bacteria responsible for purulent penile discharge

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Norepinephrine stimulates mainly ________ receptors Epinephrine stimulates α-receptors vs β-receptors.

Norepinephrine --> α-receptors. Epinephrine --> both

What at virus caused diarrhea and usually associated with consumption of shellfish

Norwalk agent

muscle spindles: Detect fast, dynamic changes in muscle length and tension Nuclear bag fibers Nuclear chain fibers

Nuclear bag fibers (group Ia afferents)

muscle spindles: Detect static changes in muscle length and tension Nuclear bag fibers Nuclear chain fiber

Nuclear chain fiber (slower group II afferents as well as the group Ia afferents)

antifungals that are used as "swish and swallow" to treat oral candida infections.

Nystatin

Maltose, lactose, and sucrose consist of monosaccharides joined by an bond. N-glycosidic O-glycosidic D-glycosidic

O-glycosidic

Functions mainly to interpret visual stimuli Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital

Occipital

Which of the following is multinucleated Osteoblasts Osteoclasts osteocytes

Osteoclasts ( Osteoclasts are multinucleated, polymorphic cells that lie in close contact with the bone surface. Osteoclasts release potent lysosomal enzymes and acids that break down and remove exhausted bone tissue. This breakdown of extracellular matrix is called resorption. )

benign bone tumor.

Osteoma

Albers-Schonberg disease is another name for

Osteopetrosis

elevated alkaline phospate is an indicator of

Osteosarcoma

Vibration Meissner Merkel Ruffini Pacinian

Pacinian (FA II)

Which cells, located in the crypts of Lieberkühn, secrete an antibacterial enzyme that maintains the gastrointestinal barrier? Paneth cells enteroendocrine cells Sertoli cells absorptive cells

Paneth cells ( Paneth cells are specialized secretory epithelial cells located at the bases of intestinal crypts (crypts of Lieberkühn). They are most commonly found in the ileum. Their function is still not fully understood, but it is known that they secrete lysozyme, which has anti-bacterial properties and helps maintain the gastrointestinal barrier. )

Interprets and integrates sensation of pain, temperature and touch. particularly in regards to size, shape, distance and texture. important for awareness of body shape Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital

Parietal

Lewy bodies

Parkinson's disease

What does each produce Parotid --> Sublingual --> Submandibular -->

Parotid --> Serious Sublingual --> Mucous Submandibular --> Mixed, major producer

What are the Parotid, sublingual and submandibular glands derived from

Parotid --> ectoderm Sublingual and Submandibular --> endoderm

Patient with sickle cell anemia states that she has been feeling very tired. Patient is very pale except for her red cheeks and a complete blood work shows severe anemia. Bone marrow shows no erythroid precursor cells.

Parvovirus

gram negative rod that in in the normal flora of the oral cavity of dogs and cats. It often causes local abscess following introduciton under the skin by an animal bite. Most cases occurs in children who are injured while playing with a pet

Pasteurella Multocida

8 year old girl is bitten in the leg by a cat. She presents the next day with a fiver and bone pain localized in the right calf. X-ray reveals a lytic lesion of the right tibia. What is the most likely pathogen

Pasteurella multocida

Covers the surface of bone; consists of dense regular connective tissue; site for ligament- and tendon-muscle attachment and responsible for diametric bone growth. Diaphysis Epiphysis Medullary cavity Endosteum Periosteum

Periosteum

Characterized by hamartomatous polyps (non-neoplastic) of the colon and small intestine (especially in the jejunum) and by melanin pigmentation in the mouth and on the lips, hands, and genitalia

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome:

is the inflammation of a vein.

Phlebitis

This pathogen causes pneumonia exclusively in immunocompromised individuals

Pneumocytis carinii (P. jiroveci)

is the inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby objects, resulting from the loss of elasticity of the lens with advancing age. this is corrected with bifocals. hyperopia myopia Astigmatism Presbyopia

Presbyopia

painless ulcer known as a chancre which appears 3-6 weeks later at the site of local contact. The lips are the most common site for chancres to appear in ___________ oral syphilis.

Primary

notochord is made from

Primative streak

stages of shock Failure to bring the body back to equilibrium. During this stage the cells are functioning on anaerobic metabolism which is causing a buildup of lactic acid. Anaerobic metabolism does not produce enough energy to sustain cellular life and cells begin to die.

Progressive stage

________ --> milk production _________--> milk ejection

Prolactin --> milk production Oxytocin --> milk ejection

A burn patient has developed a severe pneumonia caused by a gram negative nonfermenting rod. The organism produces a blue green pigment on the growth media and has a grape like-fruity odor.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What organism opportunistically infects its host and utilizes Exotoxin A?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

patient with a history of diabetes presents with a left ear pain and grainage of pus from the ear canal with main over the left mastoid bone (malignant otitis externa)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Hodgkin's dz

Reed-Sternberg cells

stages of shock Organ failure

Refractory stage

most common cause of lung infections (bronchiolitis, tracheobronchitis and pneumonia) in children under 1 year old is

Respiratory syncytial virus alch

What are the 3 main functions of the lymphatic system

Returns tissue fluid to the bloodstream Transports absorbed fats form the GI tract and into circulatory system via thoracic duct Provides immunological defenses against disease-causing agents

What are the true ribs, false ribs and floating ribs

Rib pairs number 1 through 7 are called true ribs rib pairs number 8 through 10 are false ribs rib pairs number 11 and 12 are floating ribs.

How many lobes does the right and left lung have

Right: 3 Left: 2

what is the major cause of diarrhea in infants and children wnder the age of 2.

Rotavirus

what is the only other virus besides Influenza A virus that has the ability to undergo a dramatic genetic alteration

Rotavirus

The appearance of forchheimer spots is associated with

Rubella

Women with an erythematous rash the begins on her face, then spreads downward over her trunk. She has a fever, headache and bilateral pain of her neck.

Rubella (togavirus)

Constant touch/pressure Meissner Merkel Ruffini Pacinian

Ruffini (SA II)

the ______ node is referred to as the "pacemaker" of the heart.

SA

Loose stool, fever, abdominal cramping, headache and myalgia (muscle pain). No blood in stool. Patients with decreased gastric acidity, sickle cell disease or defects in immunity and children under 4 have worse symptoms. Associated with animal reservoirs including poultry, turtles, cattle, pigs and sheep.

Salmonella

neoplasms that arise from transformed cells of mesenchymal origin

Sarcomas

Defective virus that requires helper virus to infect the host cell

Satellite virus

(highly infectious stage): it occurs 6 weeks after non-treatment of primary syphilis. A maculopapular rash and condyloma lata (gray, flattened, wart-like lesions) appear on the skin and mucosal surfaces in ________ syphilis

Secondary

is released from platelets upon damage to the blood vessel walls. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and increases vascular peripheral resistance nitric oxide Serotonin tryptophan

Serotonin ( it is synthesized from tryptophan has the opposite effect as nitric oxide )

Which cell lines the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and secretes hormones, androgen binding proteins (ABPs) and other proteins that facilitate spermatogenesis? interstitial cells of Leydig principal cells Sertoli cells clara cells

Sertoli cells ( Interstitial cells of Leydig are located in the loose vascular connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules and are responsible for secreting testosterone. )

Which of the following epithelia lines the small and large intestine, the gallbladder, the stomach, and the Uterine epithelium simple squamous epithelium Simple columnar epithelium simple cuboidal transitional epithelium

Simple columnar epithelium ( elongated cells; functions in protection, secretion and absorption: )

arise from one germ layer

Simple neoplasms

chronic inflammation (caused by white blood cell infiltration) of the salivary glands and lacrimal glands. This usually progresses to fibrosis and atrophy of these glands.

Sjögren's syndrome

what inhibits the secretion of growth hormone adrenocorticotropin hormone Somatostatin Gonadotropin-releasing hormone luteinizing hormone

Somatostatin

What organism is associated with shunt or catheter infections and meningitis infections

Streptococcus

Most common cause of community -acquired pneumonia

Streptococcus pneumoniae

What bacteria is positive to quelling reaction and optochin sensitive

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Subacute endocarditis (SBE) is most commonly caused by what organism?

Streptococcus salivaris/mutans/mitis/sanguis

Which of the following bacteria are first to colonize the oral cavity of newborn infants?

Streptococcus salivarius

consists of glucose and fructose Maltose Lactose Sucrose

Sucrose

What are the 5 functions of the PDL:

Support: provides attachment of the tooth to the alveolar bone Formative: contains cells responsible for formation of the periodontium Nutritive: contains a vascular network providing nutrients to its cells Sensory: contains afferent nerve fibers responsible for pain, pressure, and proprioception Remodeling: contains cells responsible for remodeling of the periodontium

immovable joints Synarthroses Amphiarthroses Diarthroses

Synarthroses (Sutures or gomphosis (teeth))

Joint types: These joints are freely movable joints with a synovial cavity present in between the bones that are joined. suture gomphosis syndesmosis synchondroses symphyses Synovial

Synovial

CD3 is found in B cells T cells Natrual killer cells

T cells

Patients suffering from DiGeorge syndrome have profound deficiency of

T cells ( they have a profound immunodeficiency due to a lack of T cells. No other immune cell populations are affected )

Cellular immunity is immunity mediated by

T-lymphocytes

the aorta then descends within the thorax on the left side of the vertebral column, passes into the abdominal cavity through the aortic opening of the diaphragm in front of the ________ vertebra T10 T12 T2 L4 L5

T12 ( The diaphragm has 3 main hiatuses - the hiatus of the inferior vena cava (IVC), the esophageal hiatus, and the aortic hiatus. The IVC passes through the diaphragm at the level of T8 (I "ate"), the esophagus passes at the level of T10 ("10 Eggs"), and the aorta passes through at the level of T12. )

T3 vs T4 which has the longer half life which is more bioactive which is made in a larger amount

T4 has a longer half life T3 is more bioactive more T4 is made ( T4 is deiodinated and then T3 typically binds to the TH receptor. )

Isoniazid is used to treat what?

TB

What bacteria contains a waxy envelope

TB

Controls hearing, language, comprehension, storage and recall of memories Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital

Temporal

strong, flexible bands of fibrous connective tissue that attach muscles to the fibrous membrane that covers bones (periosteum) Ligaments Tendons

Tendons

made of recognizable mature or immature cells or tissues belonging to more than one germ cell layer (and most often contain all three).

Teratomas

occurs in 30% of infected persons many years after non-treatment of secondary syphilis. The gumma (focal nodular mass) typifies this stage. Most commonly occurs on the palate and tongue. Neurologic symptoms are also evident at this stage.

Tertiary

What is unique about the TMJ when compared to other articular cartilage

The temporomandibular joint contains *fibrocartilage*, not hyaline cartilage.

is the breaking up of a blood clot. Streptokinase is most commonly used to dissolve blood clots.

Thrombolysis

is the volume of air entering or leaving the nose or mouth per breath. During normal, quiet breathing (eupnea), the this of a 70-kg adult is about 500 ml per breath. Note: The normal rate of respiration is about 12 times per minute. Total lung capacity (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Tidal volume (TV) Functional residual capacity (FRC) Inspiratory reserve (IRV) Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Tidal volume (TV)

Each dentinal tubule contains the cytoplasmic cell process, called ___________ of an odontoblast.

Tomes' fiber

are responsible for unwinding supercoiled DNA to allow DNA polymerase access to replicate the genetic code. Topoisomerases DNA gyrase DNA ligase Helicases

Topoisomerases

is the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiratory effort. Determined by the strength of contraction of the inspiratory muscles in opposition to the inward elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall. This is about 6 liters in a healthy 70-kg adult. Total lung capacity (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Tidal volume (TV) Functional residual capacity (FRC) Inspiratory reserve (IRV) Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Total lung capacity (TLC)

_____________ epithelium is found lining the urinary bladder,

Transitional epithelium ( the cells of this tissue are specialized to change shape in response to pressure. When the bladder is empty, these cells are more or less cuboidal in shape, but as the bladder fills the cells become compressed and flattened. )

Tetany

Trousseau's sign, Chvostek's sign

T/F at birth all bone marrow is red

True (yellow bone marrow does not appear until *age 7*)

A pulp stone that is composed predominantly of dentin and have dentinal tubules that is surrounded by reactionary or secondary dentin True, free pulp stone False, attached pulp stone True, embedded pulp stone False, free pulp stone

True, embedded pulp stone ( True pulp stones: are composed predominantly of dentin and have dentinal tubules. They may have an outer layer of predentin and are often located adjacent to odontoblast cells False pulp stones: are composed of concentric layers of calcified material with no tubular structures Free pulp stones: are surrounded on all sides by pulpal tissue and are not attached to the dentinal wall Attached pulp stones: are those, which are attached to the dentinal wall of the pulp chamber Embedded pulp stones: pulp stones that are surrounded by reactionary or secondary dentin )

What is the substrate for glycogen synthesis? UDP-glucose TDP-glucose ADP-glucose CTP-glucose GTP-glucose

UDP-glucose

The only protease of the extrinsic pathway is factor ______, which is formed from the inactive factor ____ by ____ on factor ____.

VIIa formed from the inactive factor VII by thrombin on factor X.

In the Costal groove of the ribs, what is the order or vessels, superiority to inferior

Vein, Artery, Nerve "VAN"

What is the function of the white pulp and red pulp of the spleen

White pulp --> location of T cells an production of Antibodies Red pulp --> filters the blood and removes old and defective blood cells

Turner Syndrome

XO

Klinefelter syndrome

XXY

usually produce a chronic enteritis in children. These patients have diarrhea, failure to thrive, hypoalbumineia and hypokalemia. Other finding include right lower quadrant abdominal pain, tenderness, nausea and vomiting. The infection mimics appendicitis or crohns disease

Yersinia enterocolitica

Recurrent peptic ulcers or peptic ulcers in aberrant sites such as the jejunum is suggestive of:

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Sickle cell anemia

abnormal Hb

SCID

absence of B and T cells

Botulinum toxin (BTX) is a neurotoxin that inactivates proteins that regulate the release of which neurotransmitters

acetylcholine

The binding of glucagon to its receptor: deactivates adenylate cyclase activates adenylate cyclase causes the breakdown of cyclic AMP to ATP causes the production of ATP from cAMP deactivates protein kinase

activates adenylate cyclase

Primary hyperparathyroidism

adenoma

A 10-year-old boy presents with a sore throat, headache, cough, low grade fever, patchy exudate and keratoconjunctivitis.

adenovirus

All of the following are neural crest cells derivatives EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? melanocytes dorsal root ganglia adrenal medulla autonomic ganglia adrenal cortex Schwann cells sensory ganglia of cranial nerves

adrenal cortex

Which of the following is classified as a "stress hormone"? and *what does it stimulate the excretion of* growth hormone (GH) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) --> *cortisol*

Which of the following is the enzyme that produces two distinct carbon-based molecules? hexokinase phosphoglucose isomerase phosphofructokinase aldolase triose phosphate isomerase glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase phosphoglycerate kinase phosphoglyceromutase enolase pyruvate kinase

aldolase

Glucagon is secreted by the _________ of the pancreas

alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans

Patient presents with lobar pneumonia

alpha-hemolytic streptococcus pneumoniae

complement system it is triggered by the presence of infection but does not involve antibody

alternative pathway

Lungs: ACE is made by

alveolar capillaries

Which of the following are the main constituents of starch? Select all that apply. amylose insulin cellulose amylopectin

amylose amylopectin (starch is main source of storage in plants)

What artery of the heart is most often involved in coronary occlusions and is often the one that is bypassed in bypass cardiac surgery.

anterior interventricular artery

All of the following are anatomic structures of the auricle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? tragus helix antrum concha

antrum ( The auricle consists of cartilaginous antihelix, crux of the helix, lobule, tragus, and concha. )

What organs are retroperitoneal

aorta, inferior vena cava, kidneys, adrenal glands, pancreas, ureters, most of the duodenum, and the ascending and descending parts of the colon. ( Retroperitoneal space: the area behind (posterior to) the peritoneum )

The secretions accumulate in one part of the cell, called the apical region. This part breaks off from the rest of the cell along with some cytoplasm, releasing its products into the duct merocrine apocrine holocrine

apocrine ( mammary glands )

Nitroc oxide made from

arginine

What amino acids are mainly found in histones

arginine, lysine

The greatest blood pressure drop occurs across the

arterioles

Which of the following is the major regulator of blood flow? veins arteries capillaries arterioles venules

arterioles ( regulate the flow of blood into capillaries. Blood flow is regulated to meet tissue metabolic needs. )

ferruginous bodies

asbestosis

two nitrogen atoms in urea comes from ammonia via carbamoyl phosphate; and the other from: valine glycine aspartate isoleucine

aspartate

While the cause and cure remain unknown, research has established a link between Reye's syndrome and the use of:

aspirin

The main function of cementum is to: maintain the width of the PDL supply nutrition to the pulp stimulate formation of dentin attach Sharpey's fibers

attach Sharpey's fibers

Vaccines containing ________ are more effective because they elicit all the innate and adaptive immune responses that the live virus would.

attenuated live virus

meningitis is most often caused by a:

bacterial infection

Which of the following structures plays a role by associating with the corticospinal system to control complex patterns of motor activity? hypothalamus hippocampus basal ganglia thalamus cerebellum

basal ganglia ( The function of the basal ganglia is to control complex patterns of motor activity. )

Which of the following is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet? pellagra megaloblastic anemia pernicious anemia beri-beri

beri-beri ( Thiamine, also called vitamin B1, )

Vite B1 deficiency

beri-beri (B1=thiamine)

insulin is secreted by the _______ cells of the pancreas

beta cells in the islets of Langerhans

A woman in Ethiopia, who has a human papillomavirus infection, starts to grow warts on her larynx and respiratory tract. In order to allow her to breathe, an emergency airway maybe established by opening into the trachea: through the thyrohyoid membrane between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage between thyroid cartilages above the level of thyroid cartilage

between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage ( Important: The space entered is called the cricothyroid space. )

Required for the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA, an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis biotin riboflavin pantothenic acid folic acid

biotin (B7) ( it is involved in all the ATP-dependent *carboxylases* )

hypovolemic shock

blood loss

Osteogenesis imperfecta

blue sclera, brittle bones

The first half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the luteal phase. The second half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the follicular phase. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are false ( the first half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the follicular phase of the ovary. The second half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the luteal phase )

All of the major anterior pituitary hormones, EXCEPT for growth hormone exert their principal effects by stimulating target glands such as the thyroid gland, adrenal cortex, ovaries, testicles and mammary glands. Growth hormone, in contrast to other hormones, does not function through a target gland but exerts its effects directly on all or almost all tissues of the body. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

Carbonic acid/bicarbonate is the most important physiological buffer system in the body. Proteins also participate in pH buffering, mainly through their histidine side chains. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

Choline is required for synthesis and release of acetylcholine. Choline is also a precursor for synthesis of the phospholipids phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) and sphingomyelin. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

what are the branches off the aortic arch

brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery

The bone directly lining the socket (inner aspect of the alveolar bone) specifically is referred to as: bundle bone cancellous bone osteoid trabecular bone

bundle bone

neurofibromatosis

cafe-au-lait spots, skin tags, fibrous tumors

decreases blood calcium levels

calcitonin

patient develops explosive watery diarrhea with blood, fecal leikocytes and mucus approximately 3 days after eating chicken that was not cooked properly. Comma-shaped organisms were found in the fecal smear.

camplybacter jejuni

Cherry red color of skin is a major sign of

carbon monoxide poisoning

The carbonic acid formation by the conversion of CO2 and H2O during aqueous humor production is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes? carbonic anhydrase carbamylase carbonic deoxygenase zinc carboxypeptidase

carbonic anhydrase

Which of the following areas of the pulp is also known as the "zone of Weil?" fibroblastic layer odontoblastic layer cell-rich zone cell-free zone

cell-free zone ( Anatomy of the pulp: Coronal pulp: located in the pulp chamber and forms pulp horns Radicular pulp: located in the pulp canals (root portion of tooth) Apical foramen: communicates with the PDL )

A 17-year-old man falls down and chips the incisal edge of his maxillary central incisor, reducing the length of the crown. The dentist informs him that the tooth may erupt a little to compensate for the loss. Which of the following structures will be deposited in the apex of the tooth when the tooth continues to erupt? cementum bundle bone dentin pulp enamel periodontal ligament

cementum

A disciplinary penalty that may be imposed on a dentist found guilty of unethical conduct that consists of a disciplinary sentence written to express severe criticism or disapproval for a particular type of conduct or act is considered a: suspension probation censure revocation of license

censure ( Censure: a disciplinary sentence written to express severe criticism or disapproval for a particular type of conduct or act Suspension: a loss of membership privileges for a certain period with automatic reinstatement Probation: a specified period without the loss of rights in lieu of a suspended disciplinary penalty. A dentist on probation may be required to practice under the supervision of a dentist or other individual approved by the dental board Revocation of license: absolute severance from the profession )

primarily mediated by the vagus nerve, and it happens even before food enters the stomach. accounts for 30% of gastric production gastric phase cephalic phase intestinal phase

cephalic phase

This hormone strongly contracts the gallbladder, expelling bile into the small intestine where the bile in turn plays important roles in emulsifying fatty substances, allowing them to be digested and absorbed. It also slows the emptying of food from the stomach to give adequate time for digestion of the fats in the upper intestinal tract. cholecystokinin gastric inhibitory peptide gastrin secretin

cholecystokinin ( secreted by the "I" cells in the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum mainly in response to digestive products of fat, fatty acids and monoglycerides )

The presence of amino acids (from protein digestion) in the small intestine (specifically the duodenum) stimulates the release of endopeptidase alanine aminotransferase enteropeptidase cholecystokinin pancreatic lipase

cholecystokinin (CCK) ( causes the release of the pancreatic zymogens )

All preganglionic neurons are ________in both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems. dopaminergic serotonergic cholinergic adrenergic

cholinergic

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) can be found functioning in cartilage, bone, heart valves and cell membranes? heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

chondroitin sulfate (most abundant)

Which of the following structures prevent the AV valves from everting (or being blown out) back into the atria during ventricular contraction? crista terminalis and papillary muscles chordae tendineae and papillary muscles pectinate muscles and papillary muscles chordae tendineae and pectinate muscles

chordae tendineae and papillary muscles ( pectinate muscles are in the atrium )

What cells secrete epinephrine (80%) and norepinephrine (20%) into the circulation.

chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla.

emphysema

cigarrete smoking

The left atrium and left ventricle receive their major arterial supply from which artery? anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery circumflex branch of the left coronary artery marginal branch of the right coronary artery posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery

circumflex branch of the left coronary artery

complement system it is activated by antibody bound to antigen, and involves complement components C1, C4, and C2 in the generation of the classical C3 and C5 convertases

classical pathway

Patau syndrome

cleft lip/palate: trisomy 13

Which of the following is involved in both fatty acid catabolism and synthesis? carnitine coenzyme A malonyl-CoA alcohol dehydrogenase

coenzyme A

Which complex contains cytochromes b and c1 and an Fe-S center? complex I complex II complex III complex IV

complex III

At the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), hinge movements occur between the: condyle and articular eminence articular disc and articular eminence condyle and articular disc articular disc and articular cavity condyle and articular cavity

condyle and articular disc ( The lower part of the joint, between the condyle and the articular disc, is the hinge component of the joint. When the joint moves, this hinge component of the joint moves first, to initiate mandibular opening. The upper part of the joint, between the articular disc and the mandibular fossa and articular eminence of the temporal bone, creates the gliding component. )

Secondary syphilis

condylomata lata, maculopapular rash

The afferent lymphatic vessels enter on the __________ surface of the node (concave vs convex)

convex

Which of the following is a part of active cytochrome oxidase? It is also important in the maturation of collagen and elastin as it is a cofactor for the enzyme lysyl oxidase zinc vitamin C copper vitamin K magnesium

copper

Which of the following is the metabolic pathway in which there is a shuttling of glucose and lactate between muscle and liver during physical exercise? hydrologic cycle cori cycle carbon cycle glucose cycle

cori cycle

patient presents with a maculopapular rash on her hands, feet and painful ulcers distributed anteriorly on her lips, palate, tongue and buccal mucosa.

coxsackievirus

All of the following are sources of acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? creatinine pyruvate glucose citrate

creatinine ( Acetyl-CoA → Malonyl-CoA → Malonyl-ACP → Acetyl-ACP → Acetoacetyl-ACP → Butyryl-ACP → Fatty acid Glucose is first degraded to pyruvate by glycolysis in the cytoplasm. Pyruvate is then transported into the mitochondria, where pyruvate dehydrogenase oxidatively decarboxylates pyruvate, forming acetyl-CoA and other products. Acetyl-CoA can then serve as a substrate for citrate synthesis. Citrate is transported out of the mitochondria to the cytoplasm (where fatty acid synthesis occurs) via the citrate-malate-pyruvate shuttle. Finally, citrate splits to generate cytoplasmic acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis. )

bronchiectasis

cystic fibrosis

Which of the following components of the electron transport chain accepts only electrons? FMN (flavin mononucleotide) coenzyme Q (ubiquinone) cytochrome b oxygen

cytochrome b ( receive electrons from the reduced form of coenzyme Q.

Albinism and vitiligo

dec'd melanin pigmentation

All of the following are manifestations of allergy-induced histamine release EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? vasodilation (particularly small blood vessels) bronchoconstriction increased capillary permeability secretion of HCl decreased nasal fluid discharge

decreased nasal fluid discharge

Pseudoparathyroidism

defective end-organ responsiveness to PTH

What is hyponatremia?

deficiency of sodium in the blood

Which type of connective tissue is most commonly observed in ligaments and tendons? loose connective tissue dense irregular connective tissue dense regular connective tissue elastic connective tissue

dense regular connective tissue ( Dense regular connective tissue: has a regular arrangement of tightly packed, strong, parallel collagen fibers with few fibroblast cells. This tissue includes tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses and cornea. Dense irregular connective tissue: has tightly packed, strong collagen fibers arranged in an inconsistent or irregular pattern. This tissue is found in the dermis, submucosa of GI tract, organ capsules, deep fascia, periosteum and perichondrium. )

An irritating or painful response to cold, hot or pressure stimuli is usually caused by sensitivity of which oral tissue? dentin cementum pulp enamel

dentin

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) can be found functioning in skin, blood vessels and valves of the heart. heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

dermatan sulfate

__________ are polysaccharides of glucose produced extracellularly by bacteria and yeast sucrose pellicle fructans dextrans

dextrans ( made from sucrose side product of this is fructose --> stored as levans)

In which of the following locations would one most likely find yellow bone marrow in an adult? diaphysis of femur epiphysis of humerus ribs cranial bones vertebrae

diaphysis of femur ( Yellow marrow is found in the hollow center of the diaphysis (the long shaft of the bone) known as the medullary cavity. )

When the arterioles are acted on by nitric oxide or adenosine, they will: constrict dilate stay the same

dilate

Which of the following veins are found within the marrow spaces of the skull? cerebral venules diploic veins emissary veins brachiocephalic veins

diploic veins ( he emissary veins, which are valveless, connect the dural venous sinuses with the veins of the scalp. )

Maltose, Lactose, Sucrose are classified as: monosaccharides disaccharides oligosaccharides polysaccharides

disaccharides

Examination of a patient with an ulcerative carcinoma of the posterior third of the tongue revealed bleeding from the lesion and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). The bleeding was seen to be arterial; which of the following arteries was involved? deep lingual artery dorsal lingual artery tonsillar artery sublingual artery

dorsal lingual artery ( The dorsal lingual arteries provide blood supply to the root of the tongue and a branch to the palatine tonsil. The deep lingual arteries supply the body of the tongue. The sublingual arteries provide blood supply to the floor of the mouth, including the sublingual glands. )

osteoporosis

drop in estrogen at time of menopause/drop in testosterone in men

Brunner's glands are located at which of the following sites? ileum duodenum jejunum stomach

duodenum ( Brunner's glands secrete alkaline mucus in large amounts. The function of the mucus here is to protect the duodenal wall from digestion by the acidic gastric juice pouring from the stomach. )

Iron, the most important mineral in the formation of hemoglobin, is absorbed mainly in the _______ and is only absorbed as _______. ascending colon, Fe3+ sigmoid colon, Fe2+ duodenum, Fe2+ jejunum, Fe2+

duodenum, Fe2+

Calcium deposits that are encountered in area of necrosis, whether they are coagulative, caseous, or liquefactive type, and in foci of enzymatic necrosis of fat. It commonly develops in aging or damaged heart valves, atheromas of advanced atherosclerosis and tuberculosis lesions.

dystrophic calcification

Cooper's ligaments are fibrous bands attached to musculature and function to support: each testis each ovary each body of the epididymis each breast

each breast

The pituitary gland is composed of two distinct tissue types. These tissue types have their embryonic origin in what layer(s)? ectoderm mesoderm endoderm ectoderm and mesoderm ectoderm and endoderm all of the above

ectoderm ( The adenohypophysis (glandular portion) arises from the oral ectoderm, and the neurohypophysis (nervous portion) originates from the neuroectoderm. )

an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitium, located beneath the skin and in the cavities of the body,

edema

Acute pancreatitis

elevation of both lipase (++) and amylase

is a blood clot that moves through the bloodstream until it lodges in a narrowed vessel and blocks circulation. Most emboli are thromboemboli.

embolus

pink puffer

emphysema

When sperm cells are formed, they migrate in an immature state to the long, narrow structure attached to the back of each testicle called the: vas deferens prostate rete testis seminal vesicles epididymis

epididymis ( The vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts )

As the root formation advances, HERS starts disintegrating into epithelial cell clusters leaving behind the remnants known as

epithelial cell rests of Malassez

The characteristic "target" lesion consisting of a red macule or papule with a pale, vesicular, or eroded center is associated with that disease

erythema multiforme

Which of the following best describes an "uncompetitive inhibitor"? essentially a noncompetitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached essentially a competitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached a noncompetitive inhibitor that can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration an irreversible inhibitor (the two are synonyms)

essentially a noncompetitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached

Which of the following processes is not involved in the formation of urine? filtration reabsorption excretion secretion

excretion ( The formation of urine has three processes: filtration, reabsorption and tubular secretion. in addition, the tubules also remove substances from the blood. This process, called tubular secretion, supplements the initial glomerular filtration )

alpha motor neurons innervate

extrafusal muscle fibers

Myxedema

extreme hypothyroidism

Diabetes insipidus

extreme thirst (polydipsia), polyuria

Which clotting pathway is activated after vascular injury extrinsic pathway intrinsic pathway

extrinsic pathway (involving factor VII)

All of the following are side effects associated with excess fluoride intake EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION? bone fracture extrinsic tooth stain mottled enamel gastrointestinal tract damage

extrinsic tooth stain ( Fluoride helps strengthen the enamel by hardening and stabilizing the enamel matrix, which is calcium phosphate-based. Dental fluorosis: Excess fluoride intake can lead to enamel defects known as dental fluorosis or *mottled enamel*, which are *intrinsic stains* (not extrinsic stains). )

In response to an injury, capillary permeability increases resulting in the formation of:

exudate

The innervation to the parotid gland and its sheath comes from all of the following nerves EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? auriculotemporal nerve great auricular nerve facial nerve glossopharyngeal nerve

facial nerve

severe hemolytic dz

fetus=Rh+ and mother=Rh-

______ thrombus: formed by repeated deposits of fibrin from the circulating blood. It usually does not completely occlude the vessel

fibrin

Intervertebral discs are made up of: elastic cartilage periosteum fibrocartilage hyaline cartilage

fibrocartilage ( Fibrocartilage - has a large number of collagen fibers embedded in a small amount of matrix. Fibrocartilage is found in the discs within joints (e.g., the TMJ, intervertebral discs, sternoclavicular joint, and knee joint) and on the articular surfaces of the clavicle and mandible. Fibrocartilage is formed mainly by collagen type I. Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surfaces of nearly all synovial joints )

The _______ branchial arch is so rudimentary that they are absent in humans or are included with the fourth branchial arches.

fifth

The apex of the heart is located at the level of the: third left intercostal space fourth left intercostal space fifth left intercostal space sixth left intercostal space

fifth left intercostal space

a sharp, narrow, cleft-like opening between the parts of a bone that allows for the passage of blood vessels and nerves fovea meatus fossa fissure

fissure ( Example: superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid )

Which of the following plays a key role in one-carbon metabolism, and is essential for the biosynthesis of the purines and the pyrimidine, thymine? biotin riboflavin pantothenic acid folic acid

folic acid ( Folic acid (pteroyl-L-glutamic acid) derivatives are collectively referred to as folates or vitamin B9 )

Stimulates growth of graffian follicles and estrogen secretion in the ovaries Promotes sperm maturation in testis thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

follicle stimulating hormone

The thyroid gland is first identifiable during the fourth week of gestation, beginning as an endodermal invagination of the tongue at the site of: tuberculum impar copula terminal sulcus foramen cecum stomodeum

foramen cecum ( the initial site of thyroid gland lies between the copula and the tuberculum impar which is called (foramen cecum), then it descends through thyroglossal duct to its permanent location below the thyroid cartilage in the neck. )

Through which of the following foramina does the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supplies the meninges pass? foramen magnum jugular foramen foramen rotundum foramen ovale foramen spinosum foramen lacerum

foramen spinosum ( middle meningeal artery -->foramen spinosum )

a shallow depression. This may or may not be an articulating surface fovea meatus fossa fissure

fossa ( Example (of articulating surface): glenoid fossa of the scapula or mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. Example (non-articulating surface): subscapular fossa. )

a small, very shallow depression fovea meatus fossa fissure

fovea ( Example: fovea capitis on the head of the femur accepts a ligament from the hip socket or acetabulum. )

he only type of nerve ending found in the pulp is the

free nerve ending, which is a specific receptor for pain. ( located in the plexus of Raschkow. )

The pitch of a sound is related mainly to which of the following characteristics of a sound wave? amplitude of the sound wave frequency of the sound wave superimposed wave secondary waves length of the sound wave

frequency of the sound wave

Its effect is therefore to slow emptying of gastric contents into the duodenum when the upper small intestine is already overloaded with food products and moderately increase insulin secretion in response to a meal. cholecystokinin gastric inhibitory peptide gastrin secretin

gastric inhibitory peptide ( secreted by the mucosa of the upper small intestine, mainly in response to fatty acids and amino acids )

Zona Fasciculata makes

glucocorticoids (Cortisol)

In a cotton-candy-eating competition, you consume 14 moderately sized and overpriced bags of threaded sugar. This causes your portal vein to drop tremendous loads of glucose to your hepatocytes soon after. Which of the following enzymes functions only when this happens? pyruvate kinase glucokinase phosphofructokinase hexokinase

glucokinase ( Glucokinase is the liver isoenzyme of hexokinase. Like hexokinase, glucokinase catalyzes the ATP-dependent phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) and ADP. This is the first step of glycolysis. The enzyme will act on a variety of 6-carbon sugars, producing moieties phosphorylated at position six. )

The major cariogenic property of S. mutans appears to be its ability to produce the enzyme

glucosyltransferase

Which compound is converted to ammonia mainly in the kidney? glutamine amino acids amines purines and pyrimidines triglycerides

glutamine

The cranial nerves that supply motor innervations to the muscles that move the eyeball all enter the orbit through a foramen that is between the: lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal bone lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid bone greater and lesser wings of sphenoid bone lesser wing of sphenoid, frontal and ethmoid bones

greater and lesser wings of sphenoid bone ( the superior orbital fissure contains: superior and inferior divisions of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) trochlear nerve (CN IV) lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) abducens nerve (CN VI) superior and inferior divisions of the *ophthalmic vein* sympathetic fibers from the *cavernous plexus* )

Which artery supplies the posterior hard palate (canine back) greater palatine artery descending palatine artery nasopalatine artery lesser palatine artery middle superior alveolar artery posterior superior alveolar artery

greater palatine artery ( In the *pterygopalatine fossa*, the maxillary artery gives rise to the *descending palatine artery*, which travels to the palate through the *pterygopalatine canal*, which then terminates in both the *greater palatine artery and lesser palatine artery* by way of the greater and lesser palatine foramina to supply the hard and soft palates, respectively. )

what is the most common cause of impetigo

group A streptococci (S. pyrogenes)

Stimulates protein synthesis and overall growth thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

growth hormone

Tertiary syphilis

gumma

The junctional epithelium (or epithelial attachment) attaches the gingival tissues to the tooth using _________. The apical extent of the junctional epithelium is usually the cementoenamel junction.

hemidesmosomes

The most common form of hemoglobin in the adult human being is: hemoglobin H hemoglobin S hemoglobin M hemoglobin A hemoglobin C

hemoglobin A

genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to make blood clots, a process needed to stop bleeding

hemophilia

The general term for reactions that prevent or minimize loss of blood from the vessels if they are injured or ruptured is: erythropoiesis syneresis homeostasis hemostasis

hemostasis ( vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and coagulation )

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) can be found functioning in basement membranes and components of cell surfaces? heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

heparan sulfate

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) can be found functioning in intracellular granules of mass cells lining the arteries of the lungs, skin ans liver. heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

heparin

viral organism was isoalted from a painful blister on the lip of a teenage girl. Agent was found double stranded linear DNA. Patient had similar sore approximately 2 months ago fallowing a trip to the beach. (recurrent)

herpes simplex type I (cold sores)

Tay-Sachs dz

hexosaminidase deficiency

Which of the following structures functions in the consolidation of memories and in learning hypothalamus hippocampus basal ganglia thalamus cerebellum

hippocampus

Accumulate their secretions in each cell's cytoplasm and release the while cell into the duct/ This destroys the cell, which is replaced by cell growth merocrine apocrine holocrine

holocrine

Most Articular cartilage have a thin layer of ___________ that covers the smooth articular bone surfaces.

hyaline cartilage ( This layer contains no blood vessels or nerves. this is a synovial joint )

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) is not sulfated nor covalently attached to a protein heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

hyaluronate

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) can be found functioning in synovial fluid? heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

hyaluronate (shock absorbing)

Patients with vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) form a collagen with insufficient: isoleucine hydroxylysine valine hydroxyproline

hydroxyproline ( patients with vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) form a collagen with insufficient hydroxyproline that denatures spontaneously at room temperature. )

occurs when light entering the eye focuses behind the retina and have trouble seeing up close but may also have difficulty seeing far away as well. To treat this, convex lenses are used. hyperopia myopia Astigmatism Presbyopia

hyperopia

most frequently employed diagnostic laboratory technique for the microscopic detection of antigens in tissue secretions or in cell suspensions?

immunofluorescence

Which of the following is NOT an etiology of cobalamin deficiency? lack of intrinsic factors gastric resection inadequate sunlight strict vegan diet celiac disease

inadequate sunlight ( cobalamin = vit b12

acromegaly

inc'd GH in adults

gigantism

inc'd GH in kids before epiphyseal plate closure

Addison's dz

inc'd melanin pigementation

Which of the following will not shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right? increased carbon dioxide concentration increased blood temperature increase in pH increased 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (BPG)

increase in pH ( factors that stimulate O2 release from oxyhemoglobin = right shift think of the conditions of muscles when working Lower pH --> lactic acid produciton Increased arterial Pco2 --> from muscles Increased temperature --> from energy from muscles Increased 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (BPG) --> just need to know that )

The hepatic veins that drain the liver empty into the: hepatic sinusoids azygous vein inferior vena cava inferior vena cava and azygous veins portal vein

inferior vena cava ( All the blood supplied to the liver from the hepatic arteries and the portal vein eventually drains via the hepatic veins to the inferior vena cava. )

complications include Reye's Syndrome

influenza

Oral contraceptives work by: inhibiting follicle formation by eliminating the LH surge inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the LH surge inhibiting follicle formation by eliminating the FSH surge inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the FSH surge

inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the LH surge ( Ovulation occurs as a result of the estrogen-induced LH surge. )

Which of the following is the embryonic precursor of ameloblasts? dental sac inner enamel epithelium stellate reticulum outer enamel epithelium

inner enamel epithelium ( Outer enamel epithelium (OEE) that is formed of a single layer of small cuboidal cells. OEE acts as a protective barrier and defines the shape of the future enamel organ Inner enamel epithelium (IEE) that is formed of a single layer of tall columnar cells. The cells of this innermost layer of the enamel organ will differentiate into the enamel-forming cells, ameloblasts. )

Which are located in the loose vascular connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules and are responsible for secreting testosterone. interstitial cells of Leydig principal cells Sertoli cells clara cells

interstitial cells of Leydig ( Sertoli cells lines the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and secretes hormones, androgen binding proteins (ABPs) and other proteins that facilitate spermatogenesis? )

This phase is mediated by the protein digestion products. gastric phase cephalic phase intestinal phase

intestinal phase

gamma motor neurons innervate

intrafusal muscle fibers (muscle spindle)

What is the difference in structure between intratubular (Peritubular) dentin and intertubular dentin

intratubular (Peritubular) --> Highly mineralized and contians little collagen Intertubular --> Dense collagen matrix

Nuclear pyknosis

irreversible cell injury

The isoelectric point (pI): is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges on a molecule equal each other is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges in a solution equal each other can be determined using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is the pKa of a solution at which it is neither basic nor acidic

is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges on a molecule equal each other ( the isoelectric point (also called the isoelectric pH) is the pH at which a solute has no net electric charge and thus does not move in an electric field. It is designated pI for that solute. )

All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? it is constant throughout the molecule it consists of deoxyriboses linked by "phosphodiester bridges" or "phosphodiester bonds" it is hydrophobic it is highly polar

it is hydrophobic ( it is hydrophilic. )

All of the following are characteristic of the pentose phosphate pathway EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? it produces CO2 it is controlled by inhibition of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH it requires ATP for phosphorylation it produces ribose 5-phosphate it involves the breakage and formation of C-C bonds

it requires ATP for phosphorylation

Which of the following glycosaminoglycans (GAG) can be found functioning in cornea bone cartilage aggregated with chondronitin sulfates heparin keratan sulfate hyaluronate dermatan sulfate chondroitin sulfate heparan sulfate

keratan sulfate

Acetoacetate, Acetone, an Beta-hydroxybutyrate are the precursors of

ketone bodies

In the normal person, about 90% of all erythropoietin is formed in the_______; the remainder is formed mainly in the _______ . kidneys, liver liver, kidneys bone marrow, kidneys kidneys, bone marrow

kidneys, liver ( The principal stimulus for red blood cell production in low oxygen states is a circulating hormone called erythropoietin )

The vagina of women of childbearing age tends to be colonized by

lactobacillus

Most precisely, osteocytes are located in which of the following spaces? canaliculi lacunae lamellae trabeculae

lacunae ( Between the rings of matrix, the bone cells (osteocytes) are located in spaces called lacunae )

complement system is activated by the binding of a mannose-binding lectin present in blood plasma to mannose-containing peptidoglycans on bacterial surfaces

lectin pathway

pulmonary edema

left side heart failure

begning fibroid tumors of smooth muscle

leiomyomas

Which of the following structures of the eye functions to "fine-tune" vision, and it is able to change shape to allow focus on near objects lens retina cornea iris

lens

Which artery supplies the anterior soft palate greater palatine artery descending palatine artery nasopalatine artery lesser palatine artery middle superior alveolar artery posterior superior alveolar artery

lesser palatine artery ( In the *pterygopalatine fossa*, the maxillary artery gives rise to the *descending palatine artery*, which travels to the palate through the *pterygopalatine canal*, which then terminates in both the *greater palatine artery and lesser palatine artery* by way of the greater and lesser palatine foramina to supply the hard and soft palates, respectively. )

What amino acids are purely ketogenic

leucine and lysine (PITTT --> glucogenic and ketogenic Phenylalanine Isoleucine Threonine Tryptophan Tyrosine)

Civatte bodies

lichen planus

Which of the following arteries is found between the hyoglossus and genioglossus muscles? inferior alveolar artery posterior superior alveolar artery lingual artery infraorbital artery facial artery

lingual artery

Levels of these are elevated in acute pancreatitis and their main use is the differential diagnosis in patients who present with severe abdominal pain of sudden onset. Plasma cholinesterase Alanine transaminase (ALT) aspartate transaminase (AST) γ-Glutamyl transferase (GGT) Acid phosphatase (ACP) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) Creatine kinase lipase amylase

lipase amylase

A major target of GH is the ______, where it causes the it to form several small proteins called somatomedins that have the potent effect of increasing all aspects of bone growth.

liver

complement proteins are synthesized mainly by the

liver

What tissues/organs directly respond to insulin

liver adipose tissue muscle brain

Glycogen is most abundantly found (stored) in the (select all that apply) liver Brian skeletal muscles smooth muscles

liver skeletal muscles

Sinusoids (discontinuous capillaries) are found in

liver, bone marrow, spleen

Stimulates ovulation, formation of corpus luteum and synthesis of estrogen and progesterone in the ovaries Stimulates synthesis and secretion of testosterone in testis thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

luteinizing hormone

What is the driving force for the movement of lymph

lymphatic system depends on the *contractions of skeletal muscles*, the presence of *valves* in lymphatic vessels (similar to those in veins), breathing, and simple *gravity* to move fluid throughout the body."

The common component to all lymphatic tissues is the presence of

lymphocytes.

what mineral help the function of PTH

magnesium

All of the following bones are formed completely by intramembranous ossification EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? clavicles mandible maxilla frontal bone

mandible ( the condyles are formed by endochondral ossification Intramembranous ossification mainly occurs during formation of the flat bones of the skull; the bone is formed from mesenchyme tissue. Endochondral ossification occurs in long bones, such as limbs; the bone is formed from cartilage. )

All of the following nerves are embedded in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinuses EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? trochlear nerve (CN IV) ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) oculomotor nerve (CN III) maxillary nerve (CN V2) mandibular nerve (CN V3)

mandibular nerve (CN V3)

nematodes

marked eosinophilia

accumulation of microorganisms, desquamated epithelial cells, leukocytes, mixture of salivary proteins and lipids, and occasional food debris is called

materia alba

Stimulates melanin synthesis thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

melanocyte-stimulating hormone

The gland cells produce their secretions and release them into the duct, causing no damage to the duct. merocrine apocrine holocrine

merocrine ( salivary glands )

What type of cell in the dental papilla adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium differentiates into odontoblasts? stellate reticular cell mesenchymal cell ameloblast follicular cell

mesenchymal cell ( also called mesoblastic cells )

Which type of RNA is the least abundant in the cell? messenger RNA transfer RNA ribosomal RNA

messenger RNA ( Ribosomal RNA is the most abundant followed by transfer RNA. )

Shock, progressive stage

metabolic acidosis

Which of the following persists as the definitive (permanent) kidney? pronephos metanephros mesonephros none of the above

metanephros ( The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The pronephros is the most immature form of kidney, while the metanephros is most developed. The metanephros persists as the definitive adult kidney. )

Which penicillin is prescribed primarily in the treatment of severe penicillinase-producing staphylococcal infections?

methicillin

Edward's syndrome

micrognathia, pinched face: trisomy 18

Which of the following branches of the internal carotid artery is most frequently implicated in a stroke? [refer to card 38-I for illustration] ophthalmic artery anterior choroidal artery middle cerebral artery anterior cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery

The hypophyseal fossa which houses the pituitary gland is located within which of the following cranial fossae? anterior cranial fossa middle cranial fossa posterior cranial fossa

middle cranial fossa

The _________ artery is typically the third branch of the first part (retromandibular part) of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery.

middle meningeal

During a boxing match, a boxer got a blow on the lateral side of the skull, and immediately he fell unconscious for several seconds. He was asymptomatic for the first 24 hours; then, he developed symptoms of elevated intracranial pressure (headache, nausea and vomiting). Which of the following arteries is most likely involved? inferior alveolar artery middle meningeal artery infraorbital artery deep temporal artery middle cerebral artery

middle meningeal artery ( The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma. In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal, which runs within the dura mater surrounding the brain, makes a deep indentation in the calvarium. )

Zona Glomerulosa makes

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

Glucose, fructose, and galactose are classified as: monosaccharides disaccharides oligosaccharides polysaccharides

monosaccharides

lung abscess

most common cause is ASPIRATION of ANAEROBIC BACTERIA

All of the following statements concerning reflexes are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? the Achilles tendon reflex is a deep tendon reflex a polysynaptic reflex arc involves one or more interneurons the knee jerk reflex is an example of a stretch reflex most reflex arcs have four basic elements

most reflex arcs have four basic elements ( Reflex arcs consist of the following five basic elements: 1. sensory receptors 2. sensory neurons (afferent) 3. interneurons (one or more intercalated neurons) 4. motor neurons (efferent) 5. effector organs (muscle or gland) )

The esophagus receives motor fibers from the and sympathetic innervation from

motor -->recurrent laryngeal branches of the vagus nerve sympathetic --> esophageal plexus of nerves

Behcet's dz

mouth sores (chronic), skin blisters

What is the most common demyelinating disorder?

multiple sclerosis

painful swelling of the parotid glands

mumps

A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with anaplastic thyroid cancer and underwent aggressive surgery to remove most of the thyroid. Unfortunately, the surgeon also excised the parathyroid glands. Which of the following could result from the excision of the parathyroid glands? strengthening of muscles weakening of bones muscle convulsions decalcification of bones

muscle convulsions (tetany) ( A deficiency of PTH can lead to tetany, muscle weakness due to a lack of available calcium in the blood. )

_______ are stretch receptors within the body of a muscle that primarily detect changes in the length of the muscle.

muscle spindle

autoimmune disorders are caused by the production of antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor which results in the inhibition of neuromuscular transmission and eventual paralysis?

myasthenia gravis

where are the myelinated and unmyelinated fibers in the tooth

myelinated --> dentinal tubules (sensory/afferent) unmyelinated --> blood vessels (sympathetic)

what is the benefit of myelinated neurons compared to unmyelinated ones

myelinated nerves: conduct faster consume less energy

Tissue damage during inflammation is mostly caused by

neutrophils

Which of the following leukocytes are active in phagocytosis? Select all that apply. neutrophils basophils macrophages lymphocytes

neutrophils macrophages ( basophils --> inflammatory reactions )

acute inflammation vs. chronic

neutrophils vs. macrophages (epithelioid cells, giant cells)

clinical manifestation of a deficiency of vitamin A?

night blindness

Which of the following is contained in a nucleotide? Select all that apply. nitrogen base phosphate ribose/deoxyribose sugar serine nitrate

nitrogen base phosphate ribose/deoxyribose sugar ( nucleoside does not contain the phosphate )

Primary syphilis

non painful chancre

Which of the following does not undergo cell division Osteoblasts Osteoclasts osteocytes

osteocytes ( Osteoblasts get embedded in the matrix and develop into osteocytes that maintain the bone tissue. Osteocytes do not undergo cell division. )

Rickets occurs only in children; its typical adult counterpart is called:

osteomalacia

osteoarthritis

osteophyte formation

Which of the following is NOT an etiology of conductive hearing loss? otitis media ototoxic drugs otosclerosis impacted cerumen

ototoxic drugs ( Conductive hearing loss is due to *defective transmission of sound* to the inner ear because of abnormalities in the external or middle ear. ototoxic drugs --> poor neural transmission by the eighth cranial nerve (*Sensorineural hearing loss*) )

Sugars that contain aldehyde groups that are _______ to carboxylic acids are classified as ________ sugars. oxidized, non-reducing oxidized, reducing reduced, non-reducing reducing, oxidizing

oxidized, reducing

Stimulates milk ejection and uterine contraction thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

oxytocin

The second branchial pouch gives rise to the: eustachian tube palatine tonsil middle ear cavity superior parathyroid gland inferior parathyroid gland

palatine tonsil

Somatostatin acts by both endocrine and paracrine pathways to affect its target cells. A majority of the circulating somatostatin appears to come from the ______ and ______. gallbladder, large intestine pancreas, gastrointestinal tract stomach, adrenal medulla bladder, small intestine

pancreas, gastrointestinal tract

substance that is filtered and secreted, so the entire amount of substance was released in the first pass Glucose para-aminohippurate (PAH) Inulin

para-aminohippurate (PAH)

lung cancer

persistent cough

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine in the adrenal medulla? cyclooxygenase phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase adenylyl cyclase phospholipase C

phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase ( adrenal medulla expresses an enzyme, phenylethanolamine-Nmethyltransferase (PNMT), which catalyzes the conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine, whereas this PNMT enzyme is not found in the sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic neurons. )

In _________________, tyrosine cannot be synthesized in adequate amounts and is required in the diet.

phenylketonuria

CML

philly chromosome

The activity level of which enzyme controls the rate of glycolysis? aldolase phosphoglucose isomerase phosphofructokinase triose phosphate isomerase

phosphofructokinase ( rate limiting step: fructose-6-phosphate --> fructose-1,6-bisphosphate +ADP enzyme: phosphofructokinase )

The hypophyseal fossa is located in a depression in the body of the sphenoid bone; it houses which of the following structures? hypothalamus pituitary cerebellum hippocampus corpus callosum

pituitary (

Hospital tests on a patient identify a tumor in the hypophysis that is excessively secreting growth hormone. Given that the patient is a 4-year-old male, what is the expected outcome if no treatment is performed? pituitary gigantism acromegaly pituitary dwarfism achondroplasia

pituitary gigantism ( tumor prior to adolescence, excessive GH delays ossification of epiphyseal cartilage (non-fusion of epiphyses) Acromegaly - tumor after adolescence, excess GH secreted after epiphyseal cartilages have been replaced by bone (fusion of epiphyses) )

Retroviruses contain what type of genetic material

possess positive sense RNA molecules

Stimulation of the _________ by a reduction in core temperature will produce shivering.

posterior hypothalamus

Which slope of the TMJ eminence is lined by fibrous connective tissue.

posterior slope

What is the largest and most complex DNA virus?

poxvirus

SCC

prickle cells, keratin pearls

Stimulates milk production and breast development thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

prolactin

Aspirin, indomethacin, ibuprofen and phenylbutazone, which are NSAIDs, inhibit the biosynthesis of _______________ by interfering with the enzyme cyclooxygenase, the enzyme that initiates the formation of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid.

prostaglandins

The antigens most responsible for an immediate Type I reaction to natural rubber latex are:

proteins

The ground substance of the extracellular matrix is made up of: type II collagen type III collagen proteoglycan molecules fibrillin

proteoglycan molecules (proteoglycan are made of a core protein + glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) )

All of the following are true of oxidative deamination reactions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? provide α-ketoacids for energy provide ammonia for urea synthesis occur mainly in the liver and kidney provide a detoxification mechanism

provide a detoxification mechanism ( Deamination is also an oxidative reaction that occurs under aerobic conditions in all tissues but especially the liver and kidneys. During oxidative deamination, an amino acid is converted into the corresponding keto acid (for energy) by the removal of the amine group as ammonia and being replaced by a ketone group. The ammonia eventually goes into the urea cycle. )

Reabsorption of glomerular filtrate would be most affected if modifications were made to the permeability of which section of the nephron? descending loop of Henle distal convoluted tubule proximal convoluted tubule ascending loop of Henle

proximal convoluted tubule ( Approximately 2/3 of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule. This includes almost 100% of the filtered glucose and amino acids. )

what organism causes pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients.

pseudomonas aeurginosa

what organism is responsible for otitis externa

pseudomonas aeurginosa

Negri bodies

rabies

______ thrombus: formed rapidly by the coagulation of stagnating blood, composed of red blood cells rather than platelets.

red

When enamel maturation is completed, the ameloblast layer and the adjacent papillary layer regress and together constitute the: cervical loop epithelial root sheath reduced enamel epithelium junctional epithelium

reduced enamel epithelium

What is the main functions of albumin

regulated the colloid *osmotic pressure* of the plasma. if the pressure falls to low, edema can occur

An infant born at 26 weeks, showed the following signs a few hours after birth: blue skin color, nasal flaring, irregular breathing, shortness of breath, and grunting sounds while breathing. Chest radiographs and blood test were performed. What is the most likely diagnosis? asthma respiratory distress syndrome chronic bronchitis emphysema

respiratory distress syndrome ( Respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants is a breathing disorder that is caused due to the deficiency of surfactant. )

in ________________ Diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of the heart, causing pericarditis, myocarditis, or endocarditis (pancarditis).

rheumatic fever

Nucleoli is the major site for _______ production

ribosomal RNA

When foreign objects are aspirated into the trachea, they usually pass into the _______ primary bronchus because it is larger, straighter, and shorter than the other side

right

The SA node is in the wall of the

right atrium

peripheral edema

right sided heart failure

Tetanus

risus sardonicus, opisthotonus

The subclavian vein is located anterior to the : scalenus anterior muscle scalenus middle muscle scalenus posterior muscle none of the above

scalenus anterior muscle ( The subclavian vein crosses the first rib anterior to the scalenus anterior muscle. )

As the acidic stomach contents pass into the small intestine, this stimulates the pancreas to release a flood of bicarbonate base which neutralizes the acid. cholecystokinin gastric inhibitory peptide gastrin secretin

secretin ( secreted by the "S" cells in the mucosa of the duodenum )

Which of the following blood equations is correct? serum = plasma - fibrinogen plasma = serum - fibrinogen serum = hematocrit + plasma hematocrit = fibrinogen - plasma

serum = plasma - fibrinogen ( Serum is the clear, thin, and sticky fluid portion of the blood obtained after removal of the fibrin clot and blood cells. Serum differs from the plasma in that serum lacks fibrin and other coagulation products. Plasma is blood minus the formed elements )

Paget's dz

serum alkaline phosphatase

atlanto-axial joint allows for what type of movement

side to side head (i.e. "no" movement) (this is the joint between the articulation of the atlas with axis )

Which of the following epithelia lines the collecting ducts, proximal, and distal tubules of the kidney simple squamous epithelium stratified columnar epithelium simple cuboidal transitional epithelium

simple cuboidal ( single layer of cube-shaped cells; carries on secretion and absorption: )

Which of the following epithelial tissues is most often specialized for diffusion and filtration? simple columnar epithelium stratified cuboidal epithelium simple squamous epithelium pseudostratified epithelium

simple squamous epithelium

Which of the following epithelia lines the endothelium of the aorta and the mesothelium of the peritoneal cavity? simple squamous epithelium stratified columnar epithelium stratified cuboidal transitional epithelium

simple squamous epithelium ( single layer of thin, flat cells; functions in gas exchange; lines blood vessels and various membranes: Endothelium lining the cardiovascular system (e.g., the aorta) Epithelium lining the alveoli in lungs Mesothelium lining body cavities and coats organs of these cavities )

The dental lamina, a thickening of the oral epithelium that produces the swellings of the enamel organs, is first seen histologically around the: second week in utero sixth week in utero tenth week in utero fourth month in utero

sixth week in utero ( Remember: Each tooth is the product of two tissues that interact during tooth development, the oral *epithelium* and the underlying *ectomesenchyme*. )

The primary action of local anesthetics in producing a conduction block is to decrease the permeability of the ion channels to: calcium ions chloride ions potassium ions sodium ions

sodium ions ( The mechanism whereby sodium ions gain entry to the axoplasm of the nerve, thereby initiating an action potential, is altered by local anesthetics. The nerve membrane remains in a polarized state because ionic movements responsible for the action potential fail to develop. Nerve block produced by local anesthetics is called a nondepolarizing nerve block. )

All of the paranasal sinuses drain into one of the three meatuses (superior, middle, and inferior) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? maxillary sinus frontal sinus ethmoidal sinus sphenoidal sinus

sphenoidal sinus ( which drains into sphenoethmoidal recess )

The communication between the pterygopalatine fossa and the nasal cavity is the

sphenopalatine foramen

A membrane phospholipid that does NOT contain glycerol is: lecithin sphingomyelin cerebroside cardiolipin

sphingomyelin

The ________ is the largest single mass of lymphoid tissue in the body.

spleen

Tetracyclines are the drugs of first choice in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT

staphylococcal infections

Infectious Endocarditis (IE) is most commonly caused by

staphylococcus aureus

What is the primary cause of acute endocarditis in intravenous drug users

staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following epithelia lines the Epidermis of the skin and the esophagus Stratified squamous epithelium stratified columnar epithelium simple cuboidal transitional epithelium

stratified columnar epithelium ( composed of many layers of cells; protects underlying cells from environmental fluctuations: )

Which of the following cell layers of the epidermis contains Melanocytes, which produce melanin, stratum corneum stratum lucidum stratum granulosum stratum spinosum stratum basale

stratum basale ( Mnemonic: Bad Sprinters Get Leg Cramps. This is an acronym for the layers of the skin from the innermost to the outermost layer. )

Gram positive alpha hemolytic diplococci

streptococcus pneumonia

lacent-shaped gram positive cocci in pairs describes

streptococcus pneumoniae

Precursor to heme in RBC

succinyl-CoA

The distal portion of the duodenum receives arterial supply from the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery which branches from the: celiac trunk gastroduodenal artery superior mesenteric artery inferior mesenteric artery

superior mesenteric artery ( duodenum proximal to the entry of the bile duct receives its arterial supply from the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, branches from the common hepatic artery which comes off the celiac trunk. The distal portion of the duodenum receives its arterial supply from the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, which branches from the superior mesenteric artery. The arterial supply of the jejunum and ileum is from branches of the superior mesenteric artery. )

ADH is formed primarily in the ____________ and oxytocin is formed primarily in the ______________ nuclei of the _______________. paraventricular, supraoptic nuclei, hypothalamus supraoptic nuclei, paraventricular, posterior pituitary supraoptic nuclei, paraventricular, hypothalamus paraventricular, supraoptic nuclei, anterior pituitary

supraoptic nuclei, paraventricular, hypothalamus

characteristic "butterfly" rash over the cheeks and bridge of the nose

systemic lupus erythematosus

erythema multiform

target, iris, bull's eye shape

The smooth muscle coat of the large intestine consists of three bands called Brunner's glands rugae Peyer's patches teniae coli plicae circulares

teniae coli ( note: rugae are a series of ridges produced by folding of the wall of an organ.Most commonly rugae refers to the gastric rugae of the internal surface of the stomach. )

Which of the following veins join within the parotid gland to form the retromandibular vein? the facial and maxillary veins the facial and superficial temporal veins the maxillary and superficial temporal veins the facial and mandibular veins

the maxillary and superficial temporal veins

Which of the following are the same in RNA and DNA molecules? the purines the pyrimidines both the purines and pyrimidines neither the purines and pyrimidines

the purines ( "pure as gold (AG)" "CUT down the pyramids" )

25 hydrophilic amino acids are commonly found in

the triple helix of collagen

The_____________ receives lymph from three out of the four quadrants of the body; both lower quadrants and the upper left quadrant. The __________ receives lymph only from the upper right quadrant.

thoracic duct (junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins) right lymphatic duct ( junction of the right internal jugular vein with the right subclavian vein )

A bacterial toxin that has been weakened until it is no longer toxic but is strong enough to induce the formation of antibodies and immunity to the specific disease caused by the toxin is called a

toxoid

NAD+ and NADP+ can also be synthesized from dietary Arginine tryptophan Glycine Methionine

tryptophan ( tryptophan-->Vitamin B3 (niacin)-->NAD+ and NADP+ )

During the 4th week of embryonic development, the tongue appears in the form of two lateral lingual swellings and one medial swelling, the so-called: foramen cecum sulcus terminalis tuberculum impar epiglottic swelling

tuberculum impar ( The lateral lingual tongue swellings overgrow the tuberculum impar and merge with each other, forming the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The posterior third of the tongue originates from the second, third and fourth pharyngeal arches )

Your needle passed through the artery layers in which order? tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima tunica media, tunica intima, tunica adventitia tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia tunica adventitia, tunica intima, tunica media

tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima ( tunica adventitia: outer layer. provides support that resist collapse or injury. Thinnest layer tunica media: smooth muscle layer. autonomic nerve innervation. Thickest layer tunica intima: smooth endothelial lining )

The portal vein carries _______ as much blood as the hepatic artery half the same twice

twice ( portal vein carries more blood than the arteries )

normal fetal globin portion of Hb consists of

two alpha and two gamma chains

adult hemoglobin consists of

two alpha chains and two beta chains

The primary functional unit of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is the: [refer to AS card 212-I, 212 A-I for illustration] one-neuron motor pathway two-neuron motor pathway three-neuron motor pathway four-neuron motor pathway

two-neuron motor pathway ( the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is the two-neuron motor pathway, which consists of a preganglionic neuron, whose cell body is located in the CNS, and a postganglionic neuron, whose cell body is located in one of the autonomic ganglia. )

phenylketonuria --> deficient in

tyrosine

Cystitis is a term that refers to urinary bladder inflammation. It is most commonly caused by a urinary tract infection. It affects females more than males. This is mainly due to the difference in length of the: ureter urethra theca interna fallopian tube renal pelvis

urethra ( The urethra is a tube that conveys urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body. The urethra being shorter in the female (about 4 cm long) than it is in the male (about 20 cm long) subjects the female to more frequent bladder infections. )

acute gouty arthritis

uric acid deposits

what is the function of heparin

used to reduce clotting tendency of patients heparin prevents the activation of clotting factors by binding with an inhibitor of the coagulation process. The inhibitor is antithrombin III

Which herpesvirus is there a vaccine for

varicella-zooster

Stimulates water reabsorption at renal collecting ducts thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

vasopressin

what are the hormones of the posterior pituitary

vasopressin and oxytocin

which has higher compliance artery vs vein

vein ( can expand and contract more )

Coronary arteries receive the majority of their blood flow during

ventricular relaxation, or diastole,

Which principle in the code expresses the concept that professionals have a duty to be honest and trustworthy in their dealings with people? autonomy justice beneficence veracity nonmaleficence

veracity ( Veracity - truthfulness Justice - fairness Autonomy - self-governance Beneficence - do good Nonmaleficence - do no harm )

Encephalitis is most often caused by a:

viral infection

Pernicious anemia is caused by the malabsorption of: vitamin A vitamin B12 vitamin C vitamin E

vitamin B12 (cobalamin) ( B12 requires intrinsic factor )

Which vitamin plays a key role in amino acid metabolism? vitamin A vitamin B6 vitamin K vitamin B12

vitamin B6 ( itamin B6 is a generic name for the dietary precursors of the active coenzyme form, pyridoxal phosphate (PLP). Vitamin B6 is further involved in the nucleic acids RNA as well as DNA )

Which of the following is a cofactor required for the hydroxylation of lysine and proline in collagen synthesis. riboflavin vitamin E vitamin C folacin

vitamin C (aka ascirbic acid)

A patient of yours with a PhD in nutrition tries to trip you up by saying that he supplements every morning with tocopherol. What is he talking about? riboflavin vitamin E vitamin C folate

vitamin E (is an antioxidant)

osteomalacia

vite D deficiency

neurologic dysfxn

vite E deficiency

located around the circumvallate papilla of the tongue. Their main function is to rinse the food away from the papilla after the food has been tasted by the taste buds. submandibular gland parotid gland sublingual gland von Ebner glands

von Ebner glands ( These glands are purely serous )

_______ thrombus: a thrombus composed chiefly of blood platelets.

white

multiple sclerosis is a ______ matter disease that is best appreciated in sections of the brain and spinal cord

white

This supports a healthy immune system, is needed for wound healing, helps maintain your sense of taste and smell and is needed for DNA synthesis. It also supports normal growth and development during pregnancy, childhood, and adolescence. phosphorus cobalt copper zinc

zinc

Promotes gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, proteolysis and immuniosupression. Has an anti-inflammatory effect zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex

zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex ( cortisol )

Stimulates kidneys tubules to conserve sodium, which in turn, triggers the release of ADH and the resulting conservation of water by the kidney zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex

zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex ( aldosterone )

support sexual function zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex

zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex ( adrenal androgens )

these receptors are located in the heart - increase cardiac output α1 α2 β1 β2

β1

Increased melanin pigmentation is seen in:

Addison's disease

Butterfly rash

SLE

Neimann-Pick disease

Sphingomyelinase deficiency (genetic)

Addison's disease is a drop is what hormone

cortisol

The nasal cavities are formed from which embryonic structure? stomodeum frontonasal process intermaxillary segment nasal pits

nasal pits

The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

parathyroid adenoma.

The main distinguishing feature of the jejunum is the presence of prominent: Brunner's glands rugae Peyer's patches teniae coli plicae circulares

plicae circulares

Ewing's sarcoma

small blue cells

Dentin is considered a living tissue because of odontoblastic cell processes known as: triacetate fiber Tomes' fiber tag fiber Korff's fiber

Tomes' fiber ( These odontoblastic processes (Tomes' fibers) occupy the dentinal tubules. There is one per odontoblast. It is because of these odontoblastic cell processes that dentin is considered a living tissue, with the capability to react to different stimuli and produce secondary, sclerotic, and/or reparative dentin. )

When contracted by the mother during pregnancy, which of the following can cause her child to develop widely spaced, peg shaped incisors (Hutchinson's teeth)

Treponema Pallidum (Syphilis)

Sexually active man presents with a severe mucocutaneous rash on most of his body, including his palms and soles. Rash is painless, silvery ulceration of mucous membranes with surrounding erythema. Iritis and arthritis are also seen.

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

What is the difference between a tubercle and Tuberosity

Tubercle: a small, rounded process. Example: Greater and lesser tubercles of humerus. Tuberosity: a large, rounded, roughened process. Example: Ischial tuberosity of the ischium.

________ (amino acid) is the precursor to the neurotransmitter dopamine. Melanin, the skin and hair pigment, is also derived from this amino acid.

Tyrosine

a common disorder of the skin characterized by localized mast cell degranulation and resultant dermal microvascular hyperpermeability. This gives rise to pruritic edematous plaques called wheals.

Urticaria (hives)

Transport endogenous triacylglycerols from the liver to various tissues (primarily muscle and adipose tissue). HDL LDL VLDL chylomicrons

VLDL

is the volume of air expelled from the lungs during a maximal forced expiration starting after a maximal forced inspiration. It is about 4.5 liters. Total lung capacity (TLC) Vital capacity (VC) Tidal volume (TV) Functional residual capacity (FRC) Inspiratory reserve (IRV) Expiratory reserve (ERV)

Vital capacity (VC) ( VC = TV + IRV + ERV )

Which vitamin serves as a component of NAD+ and NADP+, which serves as a co-enzyme in oxidation reduction reactions

Vitamin B3 (niacin)

White Matter vs. Gray Matter: bundles of axons each coated with a sheath of myelin

White Matter

what organism would most likely cause an outbreak of enteritis (inflammation of the intestine) in a day care center

Yersinia enterocolitica

All of the following statements concerning fatty acid synthesis are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? fatty acid synthesis involves two carbon additions primarily from acetyl-CoA the important step in fatty acid synthesis is the first one in which acetyl-CoA, ATP and bicarbonate form malonyl-CoA fatty acid synthesis is not a simple reversal of β-oxidation used for the catabolism of fatty acids fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)

fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm) ( This is false; fatty acid synthesis takes place in the cytosol while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the mitochondria. )

Which of the following cells are abundant in the cell-rich zone of the pulp? odontoblasts fibroblasts mast cells mesenchymal pulp stem cells

fibroblasts ( 1. The odontoblastic zone: It outlines the pulpal wall and mainly consists of cell bodies of odontoblasts that form secondary or tertiary dentin at the periphery of the pulpal wall. 2. Cell-free zone of Weil: It is not completely free of cells but consists of fewer cells with nerve and capillary plexus. 3. Cell-rich zone: It is high in cell density and vascular supply. In addition to fibroblasts, the cell-rich zone contains other cell populations, such as undifferentiated mesenchymal (progenitor) cells, and various types of leukocytes. 4. Pulp core: It is located in the center of the pulp chamber. Like the cell-rich zone, the pulp core also has many cells and extensive blood supply. )

accounts for production of approximately 60% of the total HCl secretion in response to a meal. gastric phase cephalic phase intestinal phase

gastric phase

The primary actions of _______ are (1) stimulation of gastric acid secretion and (2) stimulation of growth of the gastric mucosa. cholecystokinin gastric inhibitory peptide gastrin secretin

gastrin ( ecreted by "G" cells of the antrum of the *stomach* )

A somatotropic adenoma with hypersecretion of growth hormone that develops before epiphyseal closure results in:

gigantism

Your patient's medical history says that she has von Gierke's disease. She is missing the enzyme ___________, which converts ___________. glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate to glucose glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate pyruvate carboxylase, pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate pyruvate carboxylase, pyruvate to 2-phosphoglycerate

glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate to glucose ( glucose-6-phosphate is in glycolysis glucose-6-phosphat*ase* is in glyconeogenesis )

Every third amino acid in collagen is

glycine

In the case of type I collagen, it has a very unusual amino acid sequence, with _________ in every third position.

glycine

Tetanospasmin is a neurotoxin that inactivates proteins that regulate the release of which neurotransmitters

glycine and GABA

Elastin has an aberrant amino acid composition, with high proportions of: valine, phenylalanine and lysine tryptophan, histidine and methionine glycine, alanine and proline threonine, cysteine and glutamate

glycine, alanine and proline

Joint types: Fibrous joints between a tooth and its socket suture gomphosis syndesmosis synchondroses symphyses Synovial

gomphosis

The joint between a tooth and its bony socket in the mandible and maxilla is called ____________. It is an example of a ________ joint. gomphosis, fibrous tibiofibular joint, fibrous gomphosis, synovial tibiofibular joint, cartilaginous

gomphosis, fibrous

first line of defense against microbial contamination is

hand washing

A small molecule, not antigenic by itself, that can react with antibodies is called a(an):

hapten

Which of the following vessels does NOT supply blood to the liver? hepatic veins hepatic portal vein common hepatic artery celiac trunk

hepatic veins ( hepatic portal vein carries the products of digestion to the liver for processing. This blood eventually drains via the hepatic veins into the inferior vena cava, which transports the blood to the heart the common hepatic artery, which in turn branches from the celiac trunk, supplies the liver with oxygenated blood. )

Elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels are a indicator of

hepatocellular (liver) cancer

"painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans, and psychic moans." is associated with

hyperparathyroidism

Osteoporosis, central giant cell granulomas, and metastatic calcifications are all manifestations of

hyperparathyroidism

Which of the following structures controls many homeostatic processes, which are often associated with the autonomic nervous system. hypothalamus hippocampus basal ganglia thalamus cerebellum

hypothalamus

Cortisol (hydrocortisone) has a direct inhibitory effect on which structures? Select all that apply. adrenal cortex hypothalamus anterior pituitary gland posterior pituitary gland

hypothalamus anterior pituitary gland ( negative feedback )

GnRH is produced by the: pituitary gland adrenal gland hypothalamus thyroid gland

hypothalamus ( The hypothalamus produces GnRH, which stimulates pituitary gonadotropes to secrete LH and FSH. )

Hashimoto dz

hypothyroidism by rxn of immune system against thyroid gland

The most common type of shock is:

hypovolemic

The preferred site for vitamin B12 absorption is in the duodenum jejunum ileum

ileum ( The ileum is almost devoid of plicae circulares; however, large accumulations of lymphatic tissue, both nodular and dense, are found in the lamina propria. These can often be seen macroscopically as large white patches and are commonly known as Peyer's patches occupied by M-cells. The ileum is the preferred site for vitamin B12 absorption. Vitamin B12 is also known as cobalamin. )

Your patient has just finished her 2-hour appointment and is eager to get out of the office. She stands up from the chair very fast, and quickly becomes dizzy and nearly faints. This is termed orthostatic hypotension. The effect on the heart will be: increased heart rate, decreased stroke volume increased heart rate, increased stroke volume decreased heart rate, decreased stroke volume decreased heart rate, increased stroke volume

increased heart rate, increased stroke volume ( If the pressure is too high, a dominance of parasympathetic impulses will reduce the pressure by slowing the heart rate, reducing stroke volume and dilating blood "reservoir" vessels. If the pressure is too low, a dominance of sympathetic impulses will increase the pressure by increasing the heart rate, stroke volume and constricting "reservoir" vessels. )

All of the following age changes in enamel are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? attrition discoloration flattening of grooves and fissures modifications in the surface layer increased permeability

increased permeability ( No doubt exists that enamel becomes less permeable with age. Young enamel behaves as a semipermeable membrane, permitting the slow passage of water and substances of small molecular size through pores between the crystals. With age the pores diminish as the crystals acquire more ions and as the surface increases in size. Linked to these changes is an apparent reduction in the incidence of caries modifications in the surface layer --> a progressive increase in the fluoride content affects the surface layer (and that, incidentally, can be achieved by topical application )

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme: increases Km without affecting Vmax decreases Km without affecting Vmax increases Vmax without affecting Km decreases both Vmax and Km

increases Km without affecting Vmax

These in dentin can be likened to the growth rings or incremental lines of Retzius in enamel. These show the incremental nature of dentin apposition and run at right angle to the dentinal tubules. incremental lines of von Ebner contour lines of Owen striae of Retzius granular layer of Tomes

incremental lines of von Ebner

the space between the medial pterygoid muscle and the ramus of the mandible (pterygomandibular space) contains

inferior alveolar vein, artery, and nerve along with the lingual nerve ( This is the injection site for the inferior alveolar nerve block )

Which of the following receives the opening of the nasolacrimal duct? superior meatus middle meatus: ethmoidal bulla middle meatus: Hiatus of semilunaris sphenoethmoidal recess inferior meatus

inferior meatus ( uperior meatus: lies below and lateral to the superior concha. The superior meatus receives the openings of the posterior ethmoidal sinuses. Middle meatus: lies below and lateral to the middle concha. The middle meatus receives the openings of the frontal, maxillary, anterior, and middle ethmoidal sinuses. The middle ethmoidal sinuses drain onto the ethmoidal bulla (rounded prominence on the lateral wall of the middle meatus). The anterior ethmoidal sinuses drain into the infundibulum (funnel-like structure that empties into a groove called the hiatus semilunaris on the lateral wall of the middle meatus). The frontal sinuses drain into the infundibulum or directly into the middle meatus. The maxillary sinus drains directly into the hiatus semilunaris; its opening (ostium) is located near the top of the sinus. Inferior meatus: lies below and lateral to the inferior conchae. It receives the opening of the nasolacrimal duct. The nasolacrimal duct drains lacrimal fluid from the surface of the eye into the meatus for evaporation during respiration. )

The third branchial pouch gives rise to the: eustachian tube palatine tonsil middle ear cavity superior parathyroid gland inferior parathyroid gland

inferior parathyroid gland

All of the following are direct branches of the subclavian artery EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? internal thoracic artery thyrocervical artery inferior thyroid artery dorsal scapular artery

inferior thyroid artery ( which is a branch of the thyrocervical artery Subclavian artery branches are: Vertebral artery Internal thoracic artery: terminating in the superior epigastric artery and the musculophrenic artery Thyrocervical trunk: Very short. Divides into inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery and transverse cervical artery Costocervical trunk Dorsal scapular artery Mnemonic: These may be remembered by the mnemonic "VIT amin C and D" )

atlanto-occipital allows for what type of movement

a 'yes' movement of the head ( between the superior articular facets of the first cervical vertebra (atlas) and the occipital condyles of the occipital bone )

As an action potential reaches a skeletal muscle cell, what is the order of activation by which the signal is transmitted internally through the muscle cell so that contraction results? acetylcholine, calcium, troponin, tropomyosin, myosin heads calcium, acetylcholine, troponin, tropomyosin, myosin heads acetylcholine, calcium, tropomyosin, troponin, myosin heads calcium, acetylcholine, tropomyosin, troponin, myosin heads

acetylcholine, calcium, troponin, tropomyosin, myosin heads ( when calcium binds with troponin, tropomyosin moves from its blocking position, permitting actin and myosin to interact. )

acetylcholine receptors in autonomic ganglia are: nicotinic muscarinic adrenergic cholinergic alpha beta

ach --> cholinergic receptors cholinergic receptos inlcude: presynaptic nicotinic postsynapitc muscarinic

A somatotropic adenoma with hypersecretion of growth hormone that develops after epiphyseal closure results in:

acromegaly

The portion of the pituitary gland that does NOT arise from the hypothalamus is the: neurohypophysis pars nervosa adenohypophysis infundibulum

adenohypophysis ( The posterior lobe (i.e., neurohypophysis, pars nervosa), the infundibulum and the pituitary stalk all arise from the hypothalamus. The neurohypophysis contains axons from the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus. The anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) is formed from an invagination of the pharyngeal epithelium (Rathke's pouch) - thus, the epithelial nature of its cells. )

The part of a developing salivary gland destined to become responsible for its functioning is called the: nephron follicle adenomere lobule

adenomere ( Lobes are the largest of the subunits and are separated by connective tissue septa. Lobules are subunits of the lobes and are separated by thin extensions of the septa. Adenomeres are secretory subunits of lobules. Adenomeres consist of all the secretory cells that release their products into a single intralobular duct. Acini (or alveoli) are smaller secretory subunits. Each acinus is a spheric collection of secretory cells surrounding the blind-ended termination of a single intercalated duct. )

A death-row inmate who was notorious for aggressive and hyperactive behavior is complaining of abdominal pain. Hospital tests reveal bilateral tumors that are secreting excessive catecholamines. Which of the following glands is involved? anterior pituitary pancreatic islets (Langerhans) adrenal medulla parathyroids adrenal cortex

adrenal medulla ( Stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the release of large quantities of epinephrine and norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex produces: Glucocorticoids (ACTH) Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) Sex steroids )

Stimulates synthesis and secretion of adrenal cortical hormones thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

adrenocorticotropin hormone

All of the following are the most useful enzymes for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? creatine kinase (CK) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) alanine transaminase (ALT) aspartate transaminase (AST)

alanine transaminase (ALT)

Most plasma proteins except ___________ are glycoproteins albumin α1 -Globulins α2 -Globulins β-Globulins γ-Globulins

albumin (polypeptide albumin accounts for the major fraction (around 52-65%) of plasma )

In the code (Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct), under the definition of beneficence ("do good"), the dentist is obliged to: give the highest quality of service of which he or she is capable preserve a healthy dentition unless it compromises the well-being of other teeth participate in legal and public health-related matters all of the above

all of the above

creatine kinase shows damage of Heart (MI) Skeletal muscle brain all of the above

all of the above

Biotin is a prosthetic group of: pyruvate carboxylase acetyl-CoA carboxylase propionyl-CoA carboxylase all of the above

all of the above ( it is involved in all the ATP-dependent carboxylases. aka B7 )

Your patient tells you that he just had a heart bypass operation. He says that they used a vein from his leg and re-routed blood that previously flowed through his left anterior descending coronary artery (often referred to as the widow maker). Which of the following explanations is correct in answering how a vein can adequately replace an artery? although veins have higher compliance normally, when under high pressure, compliance decreases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions although veins have lower compliance normally, when under the high pressure, compliance increases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions although veins have higher resistance normally, when under the high pressure, resistance decreases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions although veins have lower resistance normally, when under high pressure, resistance increases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions

although veins have higher compliance normally, when under high pressure, compliance decreases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions ( at higher pressures and volumes, venous compliance becomes similar to arterial compliance. This makes veins suitable for use as arterial bypass grafts. )

Which of the following components of the respiratory system does NOT have cilia? tertiary bronchioles primary bronchioles alveolar ducts respiratory bronchioles terminal bronchioles

alveolar ducts

Which compound listed below is quantitatively the most important source of ammonia? glutamine amino acids amines purines and pyrimidines triglycerides

amino acids

antibiotics is the drug of choice to be used as a premedication before an invasive dental procedure in a patient with valvular disease to prevent the risk of infective endocarditis?

amoxicillin

The loudness of a sound is related mainly to which of the following characteristics of a sound wave? amplitude of the sound wave frequency of the sound wave superimposed wave secondary waves length of the sound wave

amplitude of the sound wave

Where does the fertilization of an oocyte occur? vagina ovary peritoneum ampulla uterus

ampulla ( There are four parts of the fallopian tube from the ovary to the uterus: The fimbriae Infundibulum Ampulla - where the ovum is fertilized Isthmus )

In eukaryotes, DNA does not exist free; it is complexed with an approximately equal mass of basic proteins called histones. These histones contain a large portion of: cysteine and lysine arginine and lysine lysine and glutamine glutamine and arginine

arginine and lysine ( These proteins are rich in positively charged basic amino These positively charges reduce electrostatic repulsion by attracting negatively-charged phosphate groups of DNA forming a tighter DNA packing. )

Which of the following factors has no direct effect on pulmonary ventilation? arterial PO2 arterial PCO2 arterial [H+] arterial [HCO3-]

arterial [HCO3-] ( HCO3- does not directly affect pulmonary ventilation. HCO3- does have influence, but that is through pH and [H+]. There are no HCO3- sensors. )

Which structures are the site of highest resistance in the cardiovascular system? veins arteries arterioles venules

arterioles ( Arterioles are the primary resistance vessels and determine the distribution of cardiac output act as control valves through which blood is released into the capillaries. Blood flow to tissue is mainly regulated by arteriolar diameter )

Normally, the mean pressure in the aorta is about 100 mmHg. Eventually, the blood will return via the vena cava at a pressure of 4 mmHg. Where did the blood pressure decrease the most as blood traveled through the body? large veins large arteries arterioles venules capillaries

arterioles ( most of the pressure drop in the systemic circulation occurs in the arterioles. in the aorta → 100 mmHg; at the end of the arterioles → 30 mmHg; and in the vena cava → 4 mmHg. )

At the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), gliding movements occur between the: condyle and articular eminence articular disc and articular eminence condyle and articular disc articular disc and articular cavity condyle and articular cavity

articular disc and articular eminence ( The lower part of the joint, between the condyle and the articular disc, is the hinge component of the joint. When the joint moves, this hinge component of the joint moves first, to initiate mandibular opening. The upper part of the joint, between the articular disc and the mandibular fossa and articular eminence of the temporal bone, creates the gliding component. )

Which of the following is the distinctive array of microtubules in the core of cilia and flagella composed of a central pair surrounded by a sheath of nine doublet microtubules (characteristic "9 + 2" pattern)? centriole axoneme tubulin malleolus

axoneme ( An axoneme is the core scaffold of the eukaryotic cilia and flagella, which are projections from the cell made up of microtubules. )

Dietary triglycerides are digested and broken down to free fatty acids and 2-monoacylglycerol by pancreatic lipase which are absorbed with the help of: elastase pepsinogen trypsinogen bile salts

bile salts

A patient of yours lists a selective β-blocker in her medication list. You know that this is for her hypertension. What is the mechanism of this drug? blocks β1-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction blocks β2-cholinergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction blocks β1-cholinergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction blocks β2-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction

blocks β1-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction ( α1: located in sympathetic postsynaptic nerve terminals- increase vascular smooth muscle contraction α2: located in sympathetic presynaptic nerve terminals; beta cell of pancreatic islets- inhibit NE release; inhibit insulin release β1: located in the heart - increase cardiac output β2: located in liver; smooth muscle vasculature, bronchioles and uterus - increase hepatic glucose output; decrease contraction of blood vessels, bronchioles and uterus Norepinephrine stimulates mainly α-receptors. Epinephrine stimulates both a and β-receptors. )

An enterogastrone is a hormone secreted by the intestinal mucosa to inhibit gastric emptying and acid secretion. Both secretin and cholecystokinin are enterogastrones. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

Both hemoglobin in RBCs and myoglobin in the muscles employ heme as a prosthetic group. Myoglobin consists of a single polypeptide with a noncovalently bound heme group while hemoglobin has four polypeptides, each with its own heme. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

Km is the substrate concentration at which the enzyme is half-saturated with its substrate. Km is also the substrate concentration at which the reaction is half maximal. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true ( Km is equivalent to that substrate concentration at which Vo (initial reaction velocity) is one-half Vmax )

The lateral pterygoid plate provides the origin for what muscles

both the lateral and the medial pterygoid muscles ( Medial surface of the lateral plate provides origin for the medial pterygoid muscle, the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate provides origin for the lateral pterygoid muscle.

The diaphragmatic surface of the heart is formed by: right atrium and right ventricle right atrium and both ventricles left ventricle only right ventricle only both ventricles

both ventricles ( Right border: made up of the right atrium Inferior border: made up of right atrium, right ventricle, and left ventricle Left border: made up of the left ventricle )

The entry of which of the following into the presynaptic terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitter? sodium potassium chloride calcium

calcium

Calories: carbs --> fat --> protein -->

carbs --> 4kcal/gram fat --> 9kcal/gram protein --> 4kcal/gram

Pheochromocytoma

cardinal sign=persistent/paroxysmal HTN

The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi is the: carina lingula mediastinum bronchial tree

carina

The carotid _______ contains the baroreceptors The carotid ______ contains the chemoreceptors they are innervated by the _________ nerve

carotid sinus --> baroreceptors carotid body --> chemoreceptors nerve of Hering, which is a branch of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve).

cri-du-chat syndrome

cat-like cry: chromosome 5

Which of the following structures plays a role in correcting the errors in each movement command and imparts motor skills hypothalamus hippocampus basal ganglia thalamus cerebellum

cerebellum

Produces an interstitial pneumonitis accompanied by headache, backache and dry, hacking cough. A pale, muscular rash is also found on the trunk (Horder's spot). Patients at risk include pet shop owners, pigeon handlers and poultry workers

chlamydia pasittaci

What is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)

chlamydia trachomatis

The common precursor of all three aromatic amino acids is: chorismate phosphoenolpyruvate shikimate ribose 5-phosphate

chorismate ( aromatic amino acids (phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan) form by a pathway in which chorismate occupies a key branch point. )

hydronephrosis

chronic urinary tract obstruction

most triglyceride and the least protein content. Transport dietary triacylglycerols from the GI tract to muscle, adipose tissue and liver. HDL LDL VLDL chylomicrons

chylomicrons

Which of the following statements about plasma lipoproteins are correct? Select all that apply. chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues HDL particles are produced from LDL particles in the circulation by the action of lipoprotein lipase HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells in extrahepatic tissues very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles are the precursors of LDL in the circulation

chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles are the precursors of LDL in the circulation

A ________ is a nonprotein substance (organic cofactor) that combines with an __________ (the protein portion of a complex enzyme) to form a ___________ (a complete, catalytically active enzyme system). apoenzyme coenzyme haloenzyme

coenzyme, apoenzyme, haloenzyme

These a number of adjoining parallel imbrication lines that are present in stained dentin. These lines demonstrate a disturbance in body metabolism that affects the odontoblasts by altering their formation efforts. These lines appear together as a series of dark bands. incremental lines of von Ebner contour lines of Owen striae of Retzius granular layer of Tomes

contour lines of Owen

Which of the following structures of the eye does not change but does the majority of the focusing lens retina cornea iris

cornea

The two tubes on the top side of the penis are called the: [refer to card 253-I, 253 A-I for illustration] the erectile tissue spongy tubes corpus cavernosum corpus spongiosum urethra

corpus cavernosum

____ is the first heart enzyme to appear in the blood after a heart attack creatine kinase (CK) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) alanine transaminase (ALT) aspartate transaminase (AST)

creatine kinase (CK) ( followed by AST and LDH. )

Which of the following structures provides attachment to falx cerebri? cribriform plate crista galli lesser wing of sphenoid greater wing of sphenoid corpus callosum

crista galli ( Perpendicular plate: The crista galli is a midline projection from the perpendicular plate that serves as an attachment for the falx cerebri. )

What are the branches off the external carotid artery

*Superior thyroid artery* - supplies thyroid gland, gives off a branch to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and superior laryngeal artery Lingual artery - supplies the tongue *Facial artery* - supplies the face, including lips and the submandibular gland *Ascending pharyngeal artery* - supplies the pharyngeal wall *Occipital artery* - supplies the pharynx and suboccipital triangle *Posterior auricular artery* - supplies back of the scalp *Maxillary artery* - terminal branch of external carotid, it gives off branches to the mandible, and the middle meningeal artery before passing through the pterygomaxillary fissure to enter the pterygopalatine fossa to supply the maxilla *Superficial temporal artery* - terminal branch of external carotid, supplies skin over frontal and temporal regions of scalp

A patient of yours has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. This causes ketosis, or high levels of ketone bodies, in the body tissues and fluid. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of this condition? fruity breath lowered pH of the blood decreased potassium in the urine ketone bodies in the urine

decreased potassium in the urine

A Noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme: increases Km without affecting Vmax decreases Km without affecting Vmax decreases Vmax without affecting Km decreases both Vmax and Km

decreases Vmax without affecting Km

Generally, as the dental pulp ages, the number of cells _______, and the number of collagen fibers _______. decreases, decreases decreases, increases increases, decreases increases, increases

decreases, increases ( As the pulp ages, it becomes more fibrotic, leading to a reduction in the regenerative capacity of the pulp. )

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue drains into: facial nodes occipital nodes submandibular nodes deep cervical nodes submental nodes jugulodigastric nodes

deep cervical nodes ( The deep cervical lymph nodes are responsible for the drainage of most of the circular chain of nodes, and receive *direct efferents* from the salivary and thyroid glands, the *posterior 1/3 of the tongue*, the tonsils, the nose, the pharynx, and the larynx.

what artery supplies the apex of the tongue deep lingual artery dorsal lingual artery tonsillar artery sublingual artery

deep lingual artery ( The dorsal lingual arteries provide blood supply to the root of the tongue and a branch to the palatine tonsil. The deep lingual arteries supply the body of the tongue. The sublingual arteries provide blood supply to the floor of the mouth, including the sublingual glands. )

DiGeorge syndrome

deletion in chromosome 22: CATCH 22

Vitamin A, along with vitamins C and D, is required for the normal production of sound dentin and enamel; however, a deficiency of vitamin __________ will most likely affect the enamel more than the dentin. Whereas, a deficiency in vitamin _________ will affect the dentin more,

A --> enamel more C--> dentin more (due to C's roll in collagen synthesis)

The dentist has diagnosed and recommended specific treatment for a patient of record and remains on the premises while the patient is being treated. This type of dental supervision is known as: general supervision direct supervision indirect supervision personal supervision

direct supervision ( General supervision: The dentist has recommended a dental hygiene procedure for a patient of record but does not have to be physically present while that procedure is being performed. Direct supervision: The dentist has diagnosed a problem and recommended specific treatment by the dental hygienist, remains on the premises while the patient is being treated, and approves the work performed prior to the dismissal of the patient. Personal supervision: The dentist is treating a patient and the hygienist is concurrently performing a supportive procedure that has been recommended by the dentist. )

are tumor markers, used for the diagnosis and follow-up of patients with prostatic cancer. Plasma cholinesterase Alanine transaminase (ALT) aspartate transaminase (AST) γ-Glutamyl transferase (GGT) Acid phosphatase (ACP) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) Creatine kinase lipase amylase

Acid phosphatase (ACP) prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

lesion of small cell carcinoma of the skin (sun damaged skin)

Actinic keratosis

This infection is characteristic of sulfer granules and tangled masses of filaments with "clubs". Usually occur after surgical procedures

Actinomyces

is the form of acute leukemia that is the most responsive to therapy and is most common in children. Associated with exposure to radiation and chemicals.

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

is the most malignant type. It makes up about 90% of acute leukemias diagnosed in adults. It more commonly affects men than women. Incidence increases with age.

Acute myeloid leukemia

a life threatening condition caused by partial or complete failure of adrenocortical function

Addison's disease

weakness, fatigue, depression, hypotension and bronzing of the entire skin are signs of

Addison's disease (hypocortisolism)

benign tumor formed from glandular structures in epithelial tissue

Adenoma

CD19, CD20, CD21 are found in B cells T cells Natrual killer cells

B cells

The Lancefield groupings are based on the antigenic characteristics of a cell wall carbohydrate called the _________ The main pathogenic groups for humans are A, B, C, D, and G, and each group is given a species name.

C substance

is the least malignant type. It is rarely diagnosed in individuals younger than 40 years old. It has a very slow progression.

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

The striae of Retzius often extend from the

DEJ to the outer surface of enamel where they end in shallow furrows known as perikymata.

The enzyme _______ re-forms the supercoiled structure once the replication fork has passed. Topoisomerases DNA gyrase DNA ligase Helicases

DNA gyrase

the most common type of bacterial respiration is

facultative anaerobes

These represent short dentinal tubules near the DEJ. They result from odontoblasts that crossed the basement membrane before it mineralized into the DEJ. These dentinal tubules become trapped during the apposition of enamel matrix, and enamel becomes mineralized around them. They may serve as pain receptors. Enamel tufts Enamel spindles Enamel lamellae

Enamel spindles

are fan-shaped, hypocalcified structures of enamel rods that project from the dentinoenamel junction into the enamel proper. They are found in the inner one-third of enamel and represent areas of less mineralization. They are an anomaly of crystallization and seem to have no clinical importance. Enamel tufts Enamel spindles Enamel lamellae

Enamel tufts

Produces a diarrhea (frequently bloody or heme-positive), right lower quadrant crampy abdominal pain, and fever. Patients frequently have weight-loss and anorexia. There is usually a history of travel outside the United States. Most cases are chronic. Complications include liver abscesses

Entamoeba histolytica

Most common cause of viral meningitis

Enterovirus

The shaft of a long bone is capped on the end by spongy bone that is surrounded by compact bone. This is called the: Diaphysis Epiphysis Medullary cavity Endosteum Periosteum

Epiphysis

66 year old man with an untreated urinary tract infection develops a spiking fever, tachypnea, and severe hypoxemia. If adult respiratory distress syndrome is caused as a result of the urinary tract infection, what would be most likely

Escherichia coli

The most common cause of neonatal meningitis are

Escherichia coli Streptococcus algalactiae (GBS)

is extended and transcriptionally active form of DNA Heterochromatin Euchromatin

Euchromatin

What organism causes acute glomerular nephritis?

Group A beta hemolytic strep (streptococcus pygorgens)

What causes rheumatic fever?

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (S. pyogenes)

The Brunner's glands produce the polypeptide hormone urogastrone (human epidermal growth factor) that inhibits the production of _________ in the stomach

HCl by inhibiting the parietal cells ( Brunner's glands are located in the duodenum )

Transfers cholesterol as an acyl ester derivative from other tissues back to the liver. HDL LDL VLDL chylomicrons

HDL

Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most dense to least dense? HDL- VLDL- chylomicrons- LDL LDL-chylomicrons-HDL-VLDL HDL-LDL-VLDL-chylomicrons VLDL-chylomicrons-LDL-HDL chylomicrons-HDL-LDL-VLDL

HDL-LDL-VLDL-chylomicrons

gram negative bacteria that causes a soft, painful penile chancre. Common in the tropics

Haemophilus cucreyi

patient has extreme respiratory distress, with a temperature of 103.8. He is drooling, has difficulty swallowing and exhibits inspiratory stridor and swelling of the epiglottis (Epiglottitis) . What is the most likely infection

Haemophilus influenzae

the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract. Blood-streaked sputum often occurs in minor upper respiratory infections or in bronchitis.

Hemoptysis

What are the three main causes of neonatal encephalitis

Herpes simplex I Herpes simplex II cytomegalovirus

The organic phase of dentin is about 90% collagen, mainly type _____ with small amounts of types _____. I, II, and IV I, III, and V III, I, and IV IV, I, and III

I, III, and V ( The organic phase of dentin is about 90% collagen (mainly type I with small amounts of types III and V) )

Senses muscle velocity and acceleration Ia primary spindle Ib Golgi tendon II secondary spindle III free nerve ending IV free nerve ending

Ia primary spindle

Senses muslce force Ia primary spindle Ib Golgi tendon II secondary spindle III free nerve ending IV free nerve ending

Ib Golgi tendon

They are the primary plasma carriers of cholesterol for delivery to all tissues but especially to the liver. HDL LDL VLDL chylomicrons

LDL

In females, ______ stimulates secretion of estrogen by ovarian cells to result in ovulation and stimulates formation of the corpus luteum and secretion of progesterone In males, ________ stimulates the interstitial cells of Leydig in the testes to secrete testosterone

LH

What bacteria has a coccobacillary shape and is, more common in older and smokers and drinkers.

Legionella pneumophila

dense, strong, flexible bands of fibrous connective tissue that tie bones to other bones Ligaments Tendons

Ligaments

produces leukotrienes as well as HETEs and diHETEs.

Lipoxygenation

Describe the process of the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Liver secretes angiotensinogen Kidney secretes renin renin turns angiotensinogen --> angiotensin I Lungs secrete ACE which cleaves angiotensin I --> angiotensin II angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex.

The smallest bacteria, which contains no cell wall (only has a plasma membrane) is

Mycoplasma

Patient has patchy infiltrates in the lungs. Most common cause of pneumonia in young adults

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

what type of pneumonia responds well to erythromycin but not to ampicillin

Mycoplasma pneumoniae (aytpical)

_____ is the prolonged abnormal dilation of the pupil of the eye induced by a drug or caused by a disease and causes the eyes to become extra sensitive to light. Miosis Mydriasis

Mydriasis

Spleen enlargement

Myelofibrosis

Neutrophiles kill bacteria via -->

NADPH oxidase

The presence of ______ in the vagina of a 5 year old girl strongly suggests sexual abuse

Neisseria

A gram stain reveling a Gram negative diplococci

Neisseria meningitidis

the abnormal tissue deposition of calcium slats, together with smaller amounts of iron, magnesium, and other mineral salts.

Pathologic calcification

The main distinguishing feature of the ileum is the presence of prominent: Brunner's glands rugae Peyer's patches teniae coli plicae circulares

Peyer's patches ( preferred site for vitamin B12 absorption )

one of the few diagnostically important enzymes whose major place of residence is in the plasma. It is decreased in severe liver diseases, including viral hepatitis and liver cirrhosis. More important is its *use in the diagnosis of organophosphate poisoning*. Responsible for metabolism of ester anesthetics used in dentistry. Plasma cholinesterase Alanine transaminase (ALT) aspartate transaminase (AST) γ-Glutamyl transferase (GGT) Acid phosphatase (ACP) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) Creatine kinase lipase amylase

Plasma cholinesterase

where are the SA and AV nodes located

SA node --> right atrial wall AV node --> interatrial septum

What is the order the conducting system in the heart

SA node -->atrial muscle--> AV node --> Bundle of His --> bundle branches --> Purkinje fibers --> ventricular muscle

Detection of protein A can be used as a specific identification test for:

Staphylococcus aureus

Produces a self-limiting gastroenteritis caused by the production of preformed, heat-stable enterotoxins. The incubation period is 16 hours. The toxins enhance intestinal peristalsis and induce vomiting by a direct effect on the CNS

Staphylococcus aureus

Scaled skin syndrome (SSS) is caused by

Staphylococcus aureus

patient has flu like symptoms. X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in her left lung, which is confirmed to be an abscess. This is a gram positive bacteria.

Staphylococcus aureus

young child has multiple isolated lesions on his face and neck. The lesions are up to 4 cm in diameter with golden crusts, whereas in other sites small blisters and weeping areas are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis

Staphylococcus aureus (Impetigo)

The vagina of prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women is colonized mainly by

Staphylococuss epidermidis

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding vertebral arteries? inside the skull, the two vertebral arteries join up to form the basilar artery they arise from thyrocervical trunk they enter the skull through carotid canal they pass through the transverse foramina of all 7 cervical vertebrae

inside the skull, the two vertebral arteries join up to form the basilar artery ( They branch from the *subclavian arteries* and merge to form the single midline basilar artery in a complex called the vertebrobasilar system, which supplies blood to the posterior part of the circle of Willis and thus significant portions of the brain. The vertebral arteries arise from the subclavian arteries, one on each side of the body, and then enter deep to the transverse process of the level of the 6th cervical vertebrae (C6). They then proceed superiorly, in the transverse foramen of each cervical vertebra until C1. This path is largely parallel to, but distinct from, the route of the carotid artery ascending through the neck. At the C1 level the vertebral arteries travel across the posterior arch of the atlas through the suboccipital triangle before entering the foramen magnum. Inside the skull, the two vertebral arteries join up to form the basilar artery at the base of the medulla oblongata. )

The 'soft spots', also known as fontanelles, in the fetal skull harden later in life through ______________ ossification. endochondral subchondral intramembranous primary

intramembranous ( The fontanelles, commonly known as 'soft spots' in the fetal skull, allow the passage of the fetus through the birth canal. These soft spots harden later in life through intramembranous ossification. The middle part of the collar bone (clavicle), lower jawbone (mandible), most of the facial bones, and flat bones of the skull are also formed through intramembranous ossification. )

Which of the following describes the function of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus? it shunts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery it shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta it shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium it shunts blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

it shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta ( The ligamentum arteriosum is a remnant of the ductus arteriosus )

Which of the following describes the function of the fossa ovalis in the fetus? it shunts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery it shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta it shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium it shunts blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

it shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium ( the foramen ovale becomes permanently closed with fibrous connective tissue and becomes the fossa ovalis in the adult. )

The trachea divides into left and right main bronchi at the level of? the upper part of sternum the mid part of the body of the sternum just above the xiphoid process junction of manubrium and body of sternum

junction of manubrium and body of sternum - (sternal angle) ( The sternum is made of three individual parts. The most superior part is the manubrium. The clavicle (collar bone) connects to the manubrium and the shoulder. Inferior to the manubrium is the body of the sternum. The most inferior portion of the sternum is the xiphoid process. Sternal angle: is formed by the junction of the manubrium and the body of the sternum. It marks the following: approximate level of the 2nd pair of costal cartilages approximately the beginning and end of the aortic arch bifurcation of the trachea into the left and right main bronchi boundary between the superior and inferior portion of the mediastinum )

The ______ the Km the higher the relative affinity. lower or higher

lower

in an adult where is erythrocyte production located yolk Sac marrow of membranous bones, such as the vertebrae, sternum, ribs, and ilia mostly liver, but also spleen and lymph nodes exclusively in the bone marrow of all bones

marrow of membranous bones, such as the vertebrae, sternum, ribs, and ilia

What is the major arterial origin supplying the mandibular anterior teeth? [refer to card 49-I for illustration] mandibular artery facial artery vertebral artery maxillary artery

maxillary artery

The blood supply of the mucosa of the nasal septum is derived mainly from the: facial artery maxillary artery inferior alveolar artery internal carotid artery

maxillary artery ( The sphenopalatine artery, a branch of the maxillary artery, supplies most of the blood of the nasal mucosa. )

Failure of fusion of which of the following will lead to cleft lip? frontonasal process; lateral nasal process maxillary process; medial nasal process lateral nasal process; medial nasal process maxillary process; lateral nasal process

maxillary process; medial nasal process

skin rash with Koplik's spots

measles

Which of the following can be defined as a tube-like passage running through a bone? fovea meatus fossa fissure

meatus

The hamulus is a process of the _______ pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone. It provides origin for the ________ muscle.

medial tensor veli palatini

The primary palate or median palatal process is formed by the merging of the frontonasal process with which other processes? lateral nasal processes medial nasal processes maxillary processes mandibular processes

medial nasal processes ( Primary palate formation: fusion of the two medial nasal processes and the frontonasal process Secondary palate formation: bilateral maxillary processes give rise to two palatal shelves, or lateral palatine processes. These two palatal shelves elongate and move medially toward each other, fusing to form the secondary palate. The secondary palate will give rise to the posterior two-thirds of the hard palate,

Which of the following organelles have double membranes?Select all that apply. mitochondria Golgi apparatus peroxisomes centriole nucleus nucleolus

mitochondria nucleus

A worker in the meat-processing industry comes down with an illness, presenting with symptoms of fever, headache, and sore throat. A few days later, he feels chest pain and has pink, frothy sputum. His physician states that the worker has a viral infection caused by coxsackie B. This patient has inflammation of which layer of the heart? epicardium myocardium endocardium pericardium

myocardium ( Myocarditis: is the inflammation of the muscular layer of the heart (myocardium) )

eye is too long for the refractive power of the lens, and far objects are focused at a point in front of the retina. typically see well up close but have difficulty seeing far away. To treat this, concave lenses are used. hyperopia myopia Astigmatism Presbyopia

myopia

Which artery supplies the anterior hard palate (canine forward) greater palatine artery descending palatine artery nasopalatine artery lesser palatine artery middle superior alveolar artery posterior superior alveolar artery

nasopalatine artery ( The maxillary artery ends by becoming the *sphenopalatine artery*, which supplies the nasal cavity. The sphenopalatine artery gives rise to the posterior lateral nasal branches and septal branches, including a *nasopalatine branch* that accompanies the nasopalatine nerve through the *incisive foramen* on the maxilla. )

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? peripheral nerve fibers can sometimes regenerate if the soma (cell body) is not damaged and some of the neurilemma remains intact the neurilemma forms a regeneration tube through which the growing axon reestablishes its original connection if the nerve originally led to a skeletal muscle, the muscle atrophies in the absence of innervation but regrows when the connection is re-established nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the thickest neurilemma

nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the thickest neurilemma ( The neurilemma (also called a sheath of Schwann, Schwann's membrane or neurolemma) is the thin membrane spirally enwrapping the myelin layers of certain fibers, especially those of the *peripheral nerves*, or the axons of certain unmyelinated nerve fibers. )

Which of the following is contained in a nucleoside? Select all that apply. nitrogen base phosphate ribose/deoxyribose sugar serine nitrate

nitrogen base ribose/deoxyribose sugar ( nucleotide also contains the phosphate )

Which of the following vessels supply blood to the bronchi? [refer to card 29-I, 30-I for illustration] pulmonary arteries pulmonary veins subclavian arteries none of the above

none of the above ( the *bronchial arteries* supply blood to the bronchi )

Which principle in the code expresses the concept that professionals have a duty to protect the patient from harm? beneficence autonomy veracity nonmaleficence justice

nonmaleficence ( Veracity - truthfulness Justice - fairness Autonomy - self-governance Beneficence - do good Nonmaleficence - do no harm )

norepinephrine receptors in autonomic ganglia are: nicotinic muscarinic adrenergic cholinergic alpha beta

norepinephrine --> adrenergic receptors adrenergic receptors include alpha and beta

Which of the following is the site of synthesis of rRNA and is NOT bound by a membrane? endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes Golgi apparatus nucleolus plasma membrane

nucleolus

A patient in the dental clinic states in his medical history that he has heart disease and occasionally takes nitroglycerin for his pain. During treatment, the patient clutches his chest and frantically points to his jacket pocket. The dentist obtains the nitroglycerin bottle from his jacket, removes one tablet, and places it: on the soft palate on the gingiva on the oral vestibule on the floor of the mouth on the buccal tissue any of the above

on the floor of the mouth ( Note: The reason of the ease of diffusion is because the epidermis and lamina propria is thin in the floor of the mouth. In general, the permeability of the oral mucosa is as follows, from most permeable to least: sublingual > buccal mucosa > palatal mucosa. )

A 26-year-old female has been previously diagnosed with McCune-Albright syndrome. There is bony fibrous dysplasia of the anterior cranial base leading to the encasement and narrowing of the optic canal. Although her vision is normal, there is concern that there will be compression of the optic nerve and which of the following other structure(s)? ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) cranial nerves III, IV, and VI ophthalmic artery ophthalmic veins

ophthalmic artery

this vitamin is used as a component of co-enzyme A, which functions in the entry of pyruvate acid into the krebs cycle and in the degradation of fatty acids biotin riboflavin pantothenic acid folic acid

pantothenic acid ( aka B5 )

When we look at our fingers, we can see fingerprints. Which of the following layers of skin are we looking at in order to see the fingerprints? papillary layer of the dermis stratum corneum of the epidermis reticular layer of the dermis stratum lucidum of the epidermis

papillary layer of the dermis ( Papillary layer: thin and less fibrous; has primary and secondary dermal ridges (aka, rete pegs), that extend up toward the epidermal layer. Epidermal ridges are the interdigitations of the epidermis with these dermal ridges. This layer contains the blood vessels that supply the overlying epidermis. The layer contains fibroblasts, mast cells, and macrophages. Reticular layer: thick and fibrous, and is continuous with the hypodermis. Blood vessels from the hypodermis pass through this layer. It contains more reticular fibers and fewer cells than the papillary layer. This layer consists of an interwoven meshwork of dense irregular connective tissue. )

used to estimate renal plasma flow. Glucose para-aminohippurate (PAH) Inulin

para-aminohippurate (PAH) ( filtered and secreted, so the entire amount of substance was released in the first pass )

What part of the lymph node contains the T cells

paracortex ( B cells are found mainly in the Germinal centers)

What is the main difference between parakeratinized and orthokeratinized epithelium? parakeratinized epithelium has keratohyalin granules parakeratinized epithelium has nuclei parakeratinized epithelium has more prominent RER parakeratinized epithelium are rich in mitochondria

parakeratinized epithelium has nuclei ( Nonkeratinized (most common) - selective barrier, acts as a cushion. Orthokeratinized (least common) - associated with masticatory mucosa (i.e., hard palate and the attached gingiva, also the lingual papillae on the dorsal surface of the tongue) Parakeratinized - associated with masticatory mucosa (i.e., attached gingiva, in higher levels than orthokeratinization, and the tongue's dorsal surface)

increases blood calcium levels

parathyroid hormone (PTH) (and VIt D)

All of the following EXCEPT one are true concerning the Americans with Disabilities Act. Which one is the EXCEPTION? it is a comprehensive civil rights law according to the Act, a dentist should not discriminate in treating patients with disabilities dental healthcare providers are obliged to provide auxiliary aids and services as per the Act patients with HIV/AIDS are not protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act

patients with HIV/AIDS are not protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act ( The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was established in 1990 and amended in 2008 by the U.S. Congress to safeguard the rights and to eliminate any discrimination against disabled individuals. )

Which of the following is a severe niacin-deficiency syndrome. pellagra megaloblastic anemia pernicious anemia beri-beri

pellagra ( Vitamin B3 (niacin, nicotinic acid) deficiency: pellagra The 3 D's of pellagra: Dermatitis Diarrhea Dementia Note vitamin B3 is the 3 D's )

vite B3 deficiency

pellagra (B3=niacin), 3 D's=dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for dissolving blood clots? prothrombin thrombin fibrinogen plasmin

plasmin ( is normally present in the blood in an inactive form called plasminogen plasmin, which will cleave the peptide bond in fibrin, leading to its breakdown and dissolution of clots. )

An X-ray following a penetrating injury to the chest shows air in the space around the lungs. Which of the following is the most likely condition? hemothorax pyothorax pneumothorax pulmothorax

pneumothorax ( pleural cavities filling with: air (pneumothorax), fluid (hydrothorax), blood (hemothorax). )

he trachea is lined with ciliated ___________ epithelium and mucous-secreting goblet cells,

pseudostratified columnar

he pterygopalatine fossa communicate laterally with infratemporal fossa through which of the following? sphenopalatine foramen foramen rotundum foramen lacerum pterygomaxillary fissure inferior orbital fissure

pterygomaxillary fissure

The pulmonary valve is best heard over the The aortic valve is best heard over the The tricuspid valve is best heard over the The mitral valve is best heard over the

pulmonary valve --> second left intercostal space aortic valve --> second right intercostal space tricuspid valve --> right half of the lower end of the body of the sternum mitral valve --> left side on fifth intercostal

Which structure below is NOT a derivative of the dental follicle? [refer to card 95-I, for illustration] pulp cementum periodontal ligament alveolar bone

pulp ( The dental follicle (aka, dental sac) is responsible for the development of the supporting structures of the tooth. This includes the cementum, periodontal ligament (PDL), and the alveolar bone. The pulp is a derivation of the dental papilla. )

Gout is an inherited disorder of __________ metabolism

purine

ecchymosis

purpura (large) and petechiae (small)

The measure of the quality of care provided in a particular setting is called: quality assurance quality evaluation quality assessment quality inspection

quality assurance ( Quality assurance is the measurement of the quality of care and the implementation of any necessary changes to either maintain or improve the quality of care rendered. The differences in these definitions are important: quality assessment is limited to the appraisal of whether or not standards of quality have been met; whereas, quality assurance includes the additional dimension of action to take the necessary corrective steps to improve the situation in the future. )

Which of the following bones articulates with the capitulum of the humerus? radius acromion ulna scapula clavicle

radius ( Elbow joint: radius vs. ulna ends *CRA*zy *TUL*ips - Capitulum = *RA*dius - Trochlea = *UL*na Wrist: radial side vs. ulnar side - Make a fist with your thumb in the air and say "RAD!", your thumb is now pointing to your *RAD*ius )

A newly erupted tooth has a membranous covering. It is derived from which structure? perikymata dental papilla dental follicle reduced enamel epithelium gubernaculum

reduced enamel epithelium ( Also known as Nasmyth's membrane, the secondary enamel cuticle is the thin membrane covering newly erupted teeth. It is a remnant of the reduced enamel epithelium, and is ectodermally derived. It is produced by the ameloblast cell after it produces the enamel rods )

What are the main functions of the spleen

remove old/defective RBC from blood Store blood platelets Store Iron Antibody production

What is the path that urine follows afters its creation in the kidney

renal calyx --> renal pelvis --> ureter --> urinary bladder

glomeruli and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located here. Site of blood filtration renal papilla renal columns renal calyx renal cortex renal pelvis

renal cortex

The ureter connects which of the following parts of the kidney to the urinary bladder? renal papilla renal columns renal calyx renal pelvis

renal pelvis

Which arteries supply the lesser curvature of the stomach? right and left gastric arteries right and left gastroepiploic arteries right gastric, left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries

right and left gastric arteries ( The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the right gastric artery inferiorly, and the left gastric artery superiorly, which also supplies the cardiac region. The greater curvature is supplied by the right gastroepiploic artery inferiorly and the left gastroepiploic artery superiorly. The fundus of the stomach, and also the upper portion of the greater curvature, is supplied by the short gastric artery which arises from splenic artery. )

Which arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach? right and left gastric arteries right and left gastroepiploic arteries right gastric, left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries

right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries ( The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the right gastric artery inferiorly, and the left gastric artery superiorly, which also supplies the cardiac region. The greater curvature is supplied by the right gastroepiploic artery inferiorly and the left gastroepiploic artery superiorly. The fundus of the stomach, and also the upper portion of the greater curvature, is supplied by the short gastric artery which arises from splenic artery. )

NBDE favorite question: The cytoplasm of osteoblasts appears to be basophilic via normal H&E stain due to the presence of large amounts of

rough endoplasmic reticulum

appearance of small, irregular, grayish, white lesions on upper buccal mucosa in a child along with a recent onset of conjunctivitis, cough and corzya is consistent with

rubeola (measles)

Motor unit type slow is type ___ fast is type ___

slow --> type I fast --> type II

Molecules that can easily penetrate a biologic membrane are usually: large and nonpolar small and polar large and polar small and nonpolar

small and nonpolar ( In most membranes, passive diffusion is limited to lipid-soluble molecules. Water soluble molecules require carrier-mediated transport. Membrane carriers are integral membrane proteins that form a gated channel across the lipid bilayer. )

Which of the following cell layers of the epidermis contains keratohyalin granules? stratum corneum stratum lucidum stratum granulosum stratum spinosum stratum basale

stratum granulosum ( Mnemonic: Bad Sprinters Get Leg Cramps. This is an acronym for the layers of the skin from the innermost to the outermost layer. Stratum basale (germinativum) - deepest layer; cuboidal to columnar cells; site of continuous cellular reproduction. Melanocytes, which produce melanin, are located here. The cells of this layer are the least differentiated of all epidermis cell layers. Stratum spinosum - next deepest layer; contains cells called Langerhans cells; contains nerve cells. Stratum granulosum - three to five rows of flat cells; these cells have basophilic keratohyalin granules. Stratum lucidum - only in the thick skin of the palms and soles; consists of clear, flat, dead cells. Stratum corneum - outermost layer of epidermis; 25 to 30 rows of flat, dead cells filled with keratin; continuously shed and replaced. )

When a muscle is _______ , the _______ reflex reacts. This reflex is considered_______ , and the result is _______. contracted/Golgi tendon/monosynaptic/contraction stretched/Golgi tendon/disynaptic/relaxation stretched/stretch/monosynaptic/contraction contracted/stretch/disynaptic/relaxation stretched/stretch/monosynaptic/relaxation

stretched/stretch/monosynaptic/contraction

receive lymph from the tip of the tongue, the floor of the mouth beneath the tip of the tongue, the mandibular incisor teeth and associated gingiva, the center part of the lower lip, and the skin over the chin. facial nodes occipital nodes submandibular nodes deep cervical nodes submental nodes jugulodigastric nodes

submental nodes ( all the other teeth drain into he submandibular nodes )

The Circle of Willis is formed by all of the following arteries EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? anterior communicating artery posterior communicating artery anterior cerebral artery superior cerebellar artery

superior cerebellar artery ( Circle of Willis includes: Terminal part of internal carotid artery (left and right) Anterior cerebral artery (left and right) Posterior cerebral artery (branch of basilar artery) (left and right) Anterior communicating artery Posterior communicating artery )

he internal thoracic artery ends in the sixth intercostal space by dividing into the: anterior and posterior intercostal arteries subclavian and inferior epigastric arteries superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries

superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries

All of the following vessels supply blood to the tonsils EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? [refer to card 37 A-I for illustration] ascending pharyngeal artery tonsillar branch of facial artery superior labial artery dorsal lingual artery

superior labial artery ( Inferior labial - to the lower lip Superior labial - to the upper lip and vestibule of nose Lateral nasal - to the lateral wall of the nose (outer side) Angular - to the medial side of the eye. It is the terminal branch of the facial artery and can anastomose with the dorsal nasal branch of the ophthalmic artery )

The portal vein is about 2 inches long and is formed behind the neck of the pancreas by the union of the: left gastric and the left colic veins appendicular and the inferior mesenteric veins superior mesenteric and the splenic veins right gastric and the right colic veins

superior mesenteric and the splenic veins ( Inferior mesenteric vein is joined by the splenic vein Some gastric veins also join the right branch of the portal vein )

The arterial supply of the jejunum and ileum is from branches of the celiac trunk gastroduodenal artery superior mesenteric artery inferior mesenteric artery

superior mesenteric artery ( duodenum proximal to the entry of the bile duct receives its arterial supply from the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, branches from the common hepatic artery which comes off the celiac trunk. The distal portion of the duodenum receives its arterial supply from the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, which branches from the superior mesenteric artery. The arterial supply of the jejunum and ileum is from branches of the superior mesenteric artery. )

Joint types: Fibrous joints between the skull bones suture gomphosis syndesmosis synchondroses symphyses Synovial

suture

In contrast to hemoglobin and myoglobin where the iron is always in the ferrous state (Fe2+), the heme iron of the cytochromes: is always in the Fe3+ state is always in the Fe4+ state is always in the Fe5+ state switches back and forth between Fe2+ and Fe3+

switches back and forth between Fe2+ and Fe3+ ( Cytochromes are heme containing proteins that, unlike hemoglobin and myoglobin, do not participate in oxygen transport. In the electron transport chain they act as carriers of electrons. )

The sympathetic fibers to the heart arise from __________ The parasympathetic fibers to the heart arise from __________

sympathetic --> segments T2-T4 of the spinal cord parasympathetic --> vagus nerve

Joint types: Cartilaginous joints joined by a plate of fibrocartilage - pubic symphysis, the joint between manubrium and sternum. lack a synovial cavity suture gomphosis syndesmosis synchondroses symphyses Synovial

symphyses

Joint types: Cartilaginous joints joined by hyaline cartilage - epiphyseal growth plates. lack a synovial cavity suture gomphosis syndesmosis synchondroses symphyses Synovial

synchondroses

Joint types: Fibrous joints between the radial and ulnar shafts suture gomphosis syndesmosis synchondroses symphyses Synovial

syndesmosis

When obtaining informed consent, the patient must be informed of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a description of the proposed treatment the costs involved in the proposed treatment the foreseeable risks the benefits and prognosis of the proposed treatment all reasonable alternatives to the proposed treatment the risks, benefits, and prognosis of the alternative treatments

the costs involved in the proposed treatment ( ***Financial information should not be kept on the treatment record. Always use a separate financial form. )

The role of the professional in the practice of dentistry is described in the ADA's Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct (ADA Code). The ADA Code is, in effect, a written expression of the obligations arising from the implied contract between: the dental profession and insurance companies the dental profession and public health board of directors the dental profession and society the dental profession and the local government

the dental profession and society ( The dental profession holds a special position of trust within society. As a consequence, society affords the profession certain privileges that are not available to members of the public. In return, the profession makes a commitment to society that its members will adhere to high ethical standards of conduct. These standards are embodied in the ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct (ADA Code). Members of the ADA voluntarily agree to abide by the ADA Code as a condition of membership in the Association. They recognize that continued public trust in the dental profession is based on the commitment of individual dentists to high ethical standards of conduct. Veracity - truthfulness Justice - fairness Autonomy - self-governance Beneficence - do good Nonmaleficence - do no harm )

A pancreatic cancer patient has a tumor that presses on the ampulla of Vater. This has been causing him GI problems because the tumor obstructs the common bile duct and the main excretory duct of the pancreas which is known as: Wharton's duct the duct of Wirsung Bartholin's duct Wolffian duct Stenson's duct

the duct of Wirsung ( The main pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung) - begins at the tail and joins the common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) before opening into the duodenum. This ampulla discharges bile and pancreatic enzymes into the descending portion (second part) of the duodenum. The accessory pancreatic duct (Santorini's duct) - when present opens separately into the duodenum. )

The thymus, thyroid, parathyroid, submandibular and sublingual glands are derived from

the endoderm

All of the following statements concerning the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? the cycle starts with the 4-carbon compound oxaloacetate, adds 2 carbons from acetyl-CoA, loses 2 carbons as CO2 and regenerates the 4-carbon compound oxaloacetate the pyruvate that enters this cycle is generated by the glycolysis of glucose or protein catabolism this cycle is controlled by regulation of several enzyme activities. The most important of these regulated enzymes are citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol aspartic acid and oxaloacetic acid are interconvertible

the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol

Ribosomes are surrounded by a membrane and form a separate cellular compartment. In bacteria, they are either free-floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the plasma membrane, and in eukaryotes they are either free floating in the cytoplasm or bound to the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is false, the second is true

With respect to gastric emptying, solids empty more rapidly than liquids. The presence of fats in the duodenum increases gastric emptying time. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is false, the second is true ( fat in the duodenum slow gastric emptying, --> increases gastric emptying time )

The determination of the prothrombin time is the most important laboratory test for the evaluation of the vitamin K status. Vitamin K deficiency is most common in the elderly. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is true, the second is false ( Vitamin K deficiency is most common in newborns. This is known as hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. It is the most common nutritional deficiency in newborns. Vitamin K decreases coagulation time (makes it coagulate faster) )

Stretch receptors that are distributed in the smooth muscle of airways are responsible for the Hering-Breuer reflex that is mediated via the vagus nerve. The Hering-Breuer reflex occurs during normal breathing in adults. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second is false the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is true, the second is false ( The Hering-Breuer reflex does not occur during normal adult breathing but is seen in newborns. This reflex is a protective mechanism to control ventilation against overinflation. In humans, it is activated only when the tidal volume increases to more than three times normal )

Red blood cells (RBCs) lack a nucleus and mitochondria, and are specialized in oxygen transport function. RBCs have an average life span of 90 days, and ruptured RBCs are removed from circulation by a process called erythropoiesis. both statements are true both statements are false the first statement is true, the second statement is false the first statement is false, the second statement is true

the first statement is true, the second statement is false ( Red blood cells (RBCs) or erythrocytes are *produced* by a process known as *erythropoiesis*, which occurs in the red bone marrow The average life span of RBCs is about *120* days )

During the fourth week of embryonic development, the first branchial arch divides to form: the two medial nasal processes the mandibular and maxillary processes the two lateral nasal processes the lateral and medial nasal processes

the mandibular and maxillary processes ( After formation of the stomodeum (the primitive mouth) but still within the fourth week, two bulges of tissue appear inferior to the primitive mouth, the two large mandibular processes of the first branchial arch. The mandible forms as a result of the fusion of the these two large mandibular processes )

The factors that influence the rate of gas diffusion across the respiratory membrane include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? the thickness of the membrane the surface area of the membrane the temperature of the system the diffusion coefficient of the gas in the substance of the membrane the partial pressure difference of the gas between the two sides of the membrane

the temperature of the system

In the female, the ureter passes _______ to the ovary

the ureter descends posterior to the ovary in females ( "water under the bridge". )

All of the following statements are true about prostaglandins EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? they have a very short half-life they generally act locally on or near the tissue that produced them they are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex the common precursor of prostaglandins is arachidonic acid (an unsaturated fatty acid) their synthesis can be inhibited by a number of unrelated compounds, including aspirin and cortisol

they are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex ( In general, prostaglandins act in a manner similar to that of hormones, by stimulating target cells into action. However, prostaglandins differ from hormones in that they act locally, near their site of synthesis and they are metabolized very rapidly. )

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the left and right renal arteries? they both arise from the abdominal aorta below the superior mesenteric artery the left renal artery is longer than the right renal artery the right renal artery is somewhat higher than the left renal artery the right renal artery arises below the superior mesenteric artery, while the left one arises below the inferior mesenteric artery

they both arise from the abdominal aorta below the superior mesenteric artery ( Due to the position of the aorta, the inferior vena cava and the kidneys in the body, the right renal artery is normally longer than the left renal artery. The right passes behind the inferior vena cava, the right renal vein, the head of the pancreas, and the descending part of the duodenum. The left is somewhat higher than the right; it lies behind the left renal vein, the body of the pancreas and the splenic vein, and is crossed by the inferior mesenteric vein. As renal arteries pass into the kidneys, they branch into successively smaller arteries: interlobar arteries - arcuate arteries - interlobular arteries - afferent arterioles leading to the nephrons. Venous blood is returned through a series of vessels that generally correspond to the arterial pathways. Urinary bladder is supplied by the vesicular branches of the internal iliac arteries. )

All of the following statements concerning allosteric enzymes are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? they frequently catalyze a committed step early in a metabolic pathway they often have two or more subunits, each with substrate binding sites that exhibit cooperativity allosteric activators cause the enzyme to bind substrate more readily allosteric inhibitors cause the enzyme to bind substrate less readily they follow the Michaelis-Menten kinetics

they follow the Michaelis-Menten kinetics ( Michaelis-Menten kinetics (e.g. Km) involve one substrate and enzyme enzymes usually show a complex relationship between the velocity and substrate concentration. )

Stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone vasopressin oxytocin

thyroid stimulating hormone

What are the hormones of the anterior pituitary?

thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone growth hormone prolactin adrenocorticotropin hormone melanocyte-stimulating hormone

Catecholamines are synthesized from: alanine tyrosine proline arginine

tyrosine ( epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) are catecholamines. They are synthesized from tyrosine. )

Oxygenated blood leaves the placenta and enters the fetus through the: foramen ovale ductus venosus umbilical arteries ductus arteriosum umbilical vein

umbilical vein ( remember, veins go back to the heart )

Oxytocin and vasopressin are synthesized in the hypothalamus and are transported to the pituitary gland for storage by way of: myelinated nerve fibers both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers unmyelinated nerve fibers

unmyelinated nerve fibers ( As opposed to the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis), which presents epithelial characteristics, the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis) consists of about 100,000 unmyelinated axons of secretory nerve cells )

Which of the following structures does NOT form a portion of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity? maxilla palatine bone conchae vomer ethmoid bone

vomer ( The lateral walls are formed primarily by the frontal process of the maxilla, perpendicular plate of the palatine bone, ethmoid bone, the superior, middle and inferior conchae. The medial wall or nasal septum is formed by the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, the vomer bone, and the septal cartilage. )

what is phenylketonuria (PKU)

when you can not metabolize phenylalanine --> used to make tyrosine

The greatest resistance to the movement of the molecules between cells is mainly achieved by which of the following intercellular junctions? desmosomes hemidesmosomes adherens junctions gap junctions zonula occludens

zonula occludens (Tight junctions)

Which of the following bones forms the major part of the lateral wall of the orbit? frontal bone zygomatic bone maxillary bone sphenoid bone

zygomatic bone

All amino acids have a carboxyl group and an amino group, both bound to the same carbon. This carbon is called the: α-carbon β-carbon γ-carbon l-carbon

α-carbon

these receptors are located in sympathetic postsynaptic nerve terminals- increase vascular smooth muscle contraction α1 α2 β1 β2

α1

these receptors are located in sympathetic presynaptic nerve terminals; beta cell of pancreatic islets- inhibit NE release; inhibit insulin release α1 α2 β1 β2

α2

_____________ the orange pigment of carrots and many other vegetables, is the major vitamin A precursor in plants.

β-Carotene (β-Carotene --> Vit A --> Retinal and retinoic acid)

these receptors are located in liver; smooth muscle vasculature, bronchioles and uterus - increase hepatic glucose output; decrease contraction of blood vessels, bronchioles and uterus α1 α2 β1 β2

β2

although present in most tissues, it is most abundant in liver and kidney. It is used as a sensitive indicator of biliary obstruction. Plasma cholinesterase Alanine transaminase (ALT) aspartate transaminase (AST) γ-Glutamyl transferase (GGT) Acid phosphatase (ACP) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) Creatine kinase lipase amylase

γ-Glutamyl transferase (GGT)