Pedi test 2

Which is the acceptable mg/dL level, or below this level, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol level for a child from a family with heart disease? _____ Record your answer as a whole number.

ANS: 110 The low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) contain low concentrations of triglycerides, high levels of cholesterol, and moderate levels of protein. LDL is the major carrier of cholesterol to the cells. Cells use cholesterol for synthesis of membranes and steroid production. Elevated circulating LDL is a strong risk factor in cardiovascular disease. For children from families with a history of heart disease, the LDL should be <110.

A young child diagnosed with leukemia is experiencing anorexia and severe stomatitis. The nurse should suggest that the parents try which intervention? a. Relax any eating pressures b. Firmly insist that child eat normally c. Begin gavage feedings to supplement diet d. Serve foods that are either hot or cold

ANS: A A multifaceted approach is necessary for children with severe stomatitis and anorexia. First, the parents should relax eating pressures. The nurse should suggest that the parents try soft, bland foods; normal saline or bicarbonate mouthwashes; and local anesthetics. The stomatitis is a temporary condition. The child can resume good food habits as soon as the condition resolves.

Abdominal thrusts are recommended for airway obstruction in children older than: a. 1 year. b. 4 years. c. 8 years. d. 12 years.

ANS: A Abdominal thrusts are recommended for airway obstruction in children older than 1 year. In children younger than 1 year, back blows and chest thrusts are administered.

Which type of seizure may be difficult to detect? a. Absence b. Generalized c. Simple partial d. Complex partial

ANS: A Absence seizures may go unrecognized because little change occurs in the child's behavior during the seizure except for a period of unconsciousness lasting less than 10 seconds. Generalized, simple partial, and complex partial seizures all have clinical manifestations that are observable.

When caring for the child diagnosed with Reye's syndrome, what is the priority nursing intervention? a. Monitor intake and output b. Prevent skin breakdown c. Observe for petechiae d. Do range-of-motion (ROM) exercises

ANS: A Accurate and frequent monitoring of intake and output is essential for adjusting fluid volumes to prevent both dehydration and cerebral edema. Preventing skin breakdown, observing for petechiae, and doing ROM exercises are important interventions in the care of a critically ill or comatose child. Careful monitoring of intake and output is a priority.

An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic is diagnosed with acute otitis media (AOM). Oral amoxicillin is prescribed. Which statement made by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the instructions? a. "I should administer all the prescribed medication." b. "I should continue medication until the symptoms subside." c. "I will immediately stop giving medication if I notice a change in hearing." d. "I will stop giving medication if fever is still present in 24 hours."

ANS: A Antibiotics should be given for their full course to prevent recurrence of infection with resistant bacteria. Symptoms may subside before the full course is given. Hearing loss is a complication of AOM. Antibiotics should continue to be given. Medication may take 24 to 48 hours to make symptoms subside. It should be continued.

A mother shares with the clinic nurse that she has been giving her 4 year old the antidiarrheal drug loperamide. What conclusion should the nurse arrive at based on knowledge of this classification of drugs? a. Not indicated b. Indicated because it slows intestinal motility c. Indicated because it decreases diarrhea d. Indicated because it decreases fluid and electrolyte losses

ANS: A Antimotility medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea. These medications have adverse effects and toxicity, such as worsening of the diarrhea because of slowing of motility and ileus, or a decrease in diarrhea with continuing fluid losses and dehydration. Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended in infants and small children.

What is the nurse's first action when planning to teach the parents of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Assess the parents' anxiety level and readiness to learn b. Gather literature for the parents c. Secure a quiet place for teaching d. Discuss the plan with the nursing team

ANS: A Any effort to organize the right environment, plan, or literature is of no use if the parents are not ready to learn or have high anxiety. Decreasing their level of anxiety is often needed before new information can be processed. A baseline assessment of prior knowledge should be taken into consideration before developing any teaching plan. Locating a quiet place for meeting with parents is appropriate; however, an assessment should be done before any teaching is done. Discussing a teaching plan with the nursing team is appropriate after an assessment of the parents' knowledge and readiness.

In which condition are all the formed elements of the blood simultaneously depressed? a. Aplastic anemia b. Sickle cell anemia c. Thalassemia major d. Iron deficiency anemia

ANS: A Aplastic anemia refers to a bone marrow-failure condition in which the formed elements of the blood are simultaneously depressed. Sickle cell anemia is a hemoglobinopathy in which normal adult hemoglobin is partly or completely replaced by abnormal sickle hemoglobin. Thalassemia major is a group of blood disorders characterized by deficiency in the production rate of specific hemoglobin globin chains. Iron deficiency anemia results in a decreased amount of circulating red cells.

Which complication should the nurse asses for when caring for a child post cardiac catheterization? a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Hypostatic pneumonia c. Congestive heart failure d. Rapidly increasing blood pressure

ANS: A Because a catheter is introduced into the heart, a risk exists of catheter-induced arrhythmias occurring during the procedure. These are usually transient. Hypostatic pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and rapidly increasing blood pressure are not risks usually associated with cardiac catheterization.

A school-age child has had an upper respiratory tract infection for several days and then began having a persistent dry, hacking cough that was worse at night. The cough has become productive in the past 24 hours. This assessment is most suggestive of what respiratory airway disorder? a. Bronchitis b. Bronchiolitis c. Viral-induced asthma d. Acute spasmodic laryngitis

ANS: A Bronchitis is characterized by these symptoms and occurs in children older than 6 years. Bronchiolitis is rare in children older than 2 years. Asthma is a chronic inflammation of the airways that may be exacerbated by a virus. Acute spasmodic laryngitis occurs in children between 3 months and 3 years.

A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) receives aerosolized bronchodilator medication. When should this medication be administered? a. Before chest physiotherapy (CPT) b. After CPT c. Before receiving 100% oxygen d. After receiving 100% oxygen

ANS: A Bronchodilators should be given before CPT to open bronchi and make expectoration easier. Aerosolized bronchodilator medications are not helpful when used after CPT. Oxygen administration is necessary only in acute episodes with caution because of chronic carbon dioxide retention.

Which clinical manifestations would suggest hydrocephalus in a neonate? a. Bulging fontanel and dilated scalp veins b. Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry c. Constant low-pitched cry and restlessness d. Depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure

ANS: A Bulging fontanel, dilated scalp veins, and separated sutures are clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus in neonates. Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry, constant low-pitched cry and restlessness, and depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure are not clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus, but all should be referred for evaluation.

Which statement expresses accurately the genetic implications of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. If it is present in a child, both parents are carriers of this defective gene. b. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. c. It is a genetic defect found primarily in non-Caucasian population groups. d. There is a 50% chance that siblings of an affected child also will be affected.

ANS: A CF is an autosomal recessive gene inherited from both parents and is found primarily in Caucasian populations. An autosomal recessive inheritance pattern means that there is a 25% chance that a sibling will be infected but a 50% chance a sibling will be a carrier.

Which drug is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor? a. Captopril b. Furosemide c. Spironolactone d. Chlorothiazide

ANS: A Capoten is an ACE inhibitor. Lasix is a loop diuretic. Aldactone blocks the action of aldosterone. Diuril works on the distal tubules.

Which statement best explains why iron deficiency anemia is common during toddlerhood? a. Milk is a poor source of iron. b. Iron cannot be stored during fetal development. c. Fetal iron stores are depleted by age 1 month. d. Dietary iron cannot be started until age 12 months.

ANS: A Children between the ages of 12 and 36 months are at risk for anemia because cow's milk is a major component of their diet, and it is a poor source of iron. Iron is stored during fetal development, but the amount stored depends on maternal iron stores. Fetal iron stores are usually depleted by age 5 to 6 months. Dietary iron can be introduced by breastfeeding, iron-fortified formula, and cereals during the first 12 months of life.

In providing nourishment for a child with cystic fibrosis (CF), what diet consideration should be stressed to both the child and caregivers? a. Diet should be high in carbohydrates and protein. b. Diet should be high in easily digested carbohydrates and fats. c. Most fruits and vegetables are not well tolerated. d. Fats and proteins must be greatly curtailed.

ANS: A Children with CF require a well-balanced, high-protein, high-calorie diet because of impaired intestinal absorption. Enzyme supplementation helps digest foods; other modifications are not necessary. A well-balanced diet containing fruits and vegetables is important. Fats and proteins are a necessary part of a well-balanced diet.

A child has a chronic, nonproductive cough and diffuse wheezing during the expiratory phase of respiration. This suggests which respiratory condition? a. Asthma b. Pneumonia c. Bronchiolitis d. Foreign body in the trachea

ANS: A Children with asthma usually have these chronic symptoms. Pneumonia appears with an acute onset and fever and general malaise. Bronchiolitis is an acute condition caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Foreign body in the trachea will manifest with acute respiratory distress or failure and maybe stridor.

What intervention is a component of the therapeutic management of nephrosis? a. Corticosteroids b. Antihypertensive agents c. Long-term diuretics d. Increased fluids to promote diuresis

ANS: A Corticosteroids are the first line of therapy for nephrosis. Response is usually seen within 7 to 21 days. Antihypertensive agents and long-term diuretic therapy are usually not necessary. A diet that has fluid and salt restrictions may be indicated.

What should the nurse recommend to prevent urinary tract infections in young girls? a. Wearing cotton underpants b. Limiting bathing as much as possible c. Increasing fluids; decreasing salt intake d. Cleansing the perineum with water after voiding

ANS: A Cotton underpants are preferable to nylon underpants. No evidence exists that limiting bathing, increasing fluids, decreasing salt intake, or cleansing the perineum with water decreases urinary tract infections in young girls.

What beneficial effect is achieved by administering digoxin? a. Decreases edema b. Decreases cardiac output c. Increases heart size d. Increases venous pressure

ANS: A Digoxin has a rapid onset and is useful in increasing cardiac output, decreasing venous pressure, and as a result decreasing edema. Heart size is decreased by digoxin.

A nurse is charting that a hospitalized child has labored breathing. Which medical term describes labored breathing? a. Dyspnea b. Tachypnea c. Hypopnea d. Orthopnea

ANS: A Dyspnea is labored breathing. Tachypnea is rapid breathing. Hypopnea is breathing that is too shallow. Orthopnea is difficulty breathing except in upright position.

An infant's parents ask the nurse about preventing otitis media (OM). What intervention should the nurse recommend? a. Avoid tobacco smoke b. Use nasal decongestant c. Avoid children with OM d. Bottle-feed or breastfeed in supine position

ANS: A Eliminating tobacco smoke from the child's environment is essential for preventing OM and other common childhood illnesses. Nasal decongestants are not useful in preventing OM. Children with uncomplicated OM are not contagious unless they show other upper respiratory infection symptoms. Children should be fed in an upright position to prevent OM.

Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for an infant with the nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume related to congestive heart failure? a. Weigh the infant every day on the same scale at the same time. b. Notify the physician when weight gain exceeds more than 20 g/day. c. Put the infant in a car seat to minimize movement. d. Administer digoxin as ordered by the physician.

ANS: A Excess fluid volume may not be overtly visible. Weight changes may indicate fluid retention. Weighing the infant on the same scale at the same time each day ensures consistency. An excessive weight gain for an infant is an increase of more than 50 g/day. With fluid volume excess, skin will be edematous. The infant's position should be changed frequently to prevent undesirable pooling of fluid in certain areas. Digoxin is used in the treatment of congestive heart failure to improve cardiac function. Diuretics will help the body get rid of excess fluid.

Nurses must be alert for increased fluid requirements when a child presents with which possible concern? a. Fever b. Mechanical ventilation c. Congestive heart failure d. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

ANS: A Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface area relative to fluid volume. Respiratory rate influences insensible fluid loss and should be monitored in the mechanically ventilated child. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid overload in children. ICP does not lead to increased fluid requirements in children.

Which drug would be used to treat a child who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) resulting from cerebral edema? a. Mannitol b. Epinephrine hydrochloride c. Atropine sulfate d. Sodium bicarbonate

ANS: A For increased ICP, mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, administered intravenously, is the drug used most frequently for rapid reduction. Epinephrine, atropine sulfate, and sodium bicarbonate are not used to decrease ICP.

An adolescent with osteosarcoma is scheduled for a leg amputation in 2 days. The nurse's approach should include which action? a. Answering questions with straightforward honesty b. Avoiding discussing the seriousness of the condition c. Explaining that, although the amputation is difficult, it will cure the cancer d. Assisting the adolescent in accepting the amputation as better than a long course of chemotherapy

ANS: A Honesty is essential to gain the child's cooperation and trust. The diagnosis of cancer should not be disguised with falsehoods. The adolescent should be prepared for the surgery so he or she has time to reflect on the diagnosis and subsequent treatment. This allows questions to be answered. To accept the need for radical surgery, the child must be aware of the lack of alternatives for treatment. Amputation is necessary, but it will not guarantee a cure. Chemotherapy is an integral part of the therapy with surgery. The child should be informed of the need for chemotherapy and its side effects before surgery. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application OBJ: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance

The nurse is administering an IV chemotherapeutic agent to a child diagnosed with leukemia. The child suddenly begins to wheeze and have severe urticaria. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Stop drug infusion immediately. b. Recheck rate of drug infusion. c. Observe child closely for next 10 minutes. d. Explain to child that this is an expected side effect.

ANS: A If an allergic reaction is suspected, the drug should be immediately discontinued. Any drug in the line should be withdrawn, and a normal saline infusion begun to keep the line open. Rechecking the rate of drug infusion, observing the child closely for next 10 minutes, and explaining to the child that this is an expected side effect can all be done after the drug infusion is stopped and the child is evaluated.

What is the priority nursing intervention for a child hospitalized with hemarthrosis resulting from hemophilia? a. Immobilization and elevation of the affected joint b. Administration of acetaminophen for pain relief c. Assessment of the child's response to hospitalization d. Assessment of the impact of hospitalization on the family system

ANS: A Immobilization and elevation of the joint will prevent further injury until bleeding is resolved. Although acetaminophen may help with pain associated with the treatment of hemarthrosis, it is not the priority nursing intervention. Assessment of a child's response to hospitalization is relevant to all hospitalized children; however, in this situation, psychosocial concerns are secondary to physiologic concerns. A priority nursing concern for this child is the management of hemarthrosis. Assessing the impact of hospitalization on the family system is relevant to all hospitalized children; however, it is not the priority in this situation.

A nurse is conducting an in-service on asthma. Which statement is the most descriptive of bronchial asthma? a. There is heightened airway reactivity. b. There is decreased resistance in the airway. c. The single cause of asthma is an allergic hypersensitivity. d. It is inherited.

ANS: A In bronchial asthma, spasm of the smooth muscle of the bronchi and bronchioles causes constriction, producing impaired respiratory function. In bronchial asthma, there is increased resistance in the airway. There are multiple causes of asthma, including allergens, irritants, exercise, cold air, infections, medications, medical conditions, and endocrine factors. Atopy or development of an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated response is inherited but is not the only cause of asthma.

What is the most common mode of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in the pediatric population? a. Perinatal transmission b. Sexual abuse c. Blood transfusions d. Poor hand washing

ANS: A Infected women can transmit the virus to their infants across the placenta during pregnancy, at delivery, and through breastfeeding. Cases of HIV infection from sexual abuse have been reported; however, perinatal transmission accounts for most pediatric HIV infections. In the past some children became infected with HIV through blood transfusions; however, improved laboratory screening has significantly reduced the probability of contracting HIV from blood products. Poor hand washing is not an etiology of HIV infection.

The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child diagnosed with nephrosis. The purpose of this is to detect an early sign of what undesirable outcome? a. Infection b. Hypertension c. Encephalopathy d. Edema

ANS: A Infection is a constant source of danger to edematous children and those receiving corticosteroid therapy. An increased temperature could be an indication of an infection, but it is not an indication of hypertension or edema. Encephalopathy is not a complication usually associated with nephrosis. The child will most likely have neurologic signs and symptoms.

A young child is brought to the emergency department with severe dehydration secondary to acute diarrhea and vomiting. Therapeutic management of this child will begin with which intervention? a. Intravenous fluids b. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) c. Clear liquids, 1 to 2 ounces at a time d. Administration of antidiarrheal medication

ANS: A Intravenous fluids are initiated in children with severe dehydration. ORS is acceptable therapy if the dehydration is not severe. Diarrhea is not managed by using clear liquids by mouth. These fluids have a high carbohydrate content, low electrolyte content, and high osmolality. Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea.

What is the earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia? a. Jaundice b. Vomiting c. Hepatomegaly d. Absence of stooling

ANS: A Jaundice is the earliest and most striking manifestation of biliary atresia. It is first observed in the sclera and may be present at birth, but is usually not apparent until ages 2 to 3 weeks. Vomiting is not associated with biliary atresia. Hepatomegaly and abdominal distention are common but occur later. Stools are large and lighter in color than expected because of the lack of bile.

Which statement appropriately describes a neuroblastoma? a. It is considered to be a "silent" tumor. b. Early diagnosis is usually possible because of the obvious clinical manifestations. c. It is the most common brain tumor in young children. d. It is the most common benign tumor in young children.

ANS: A Neuroblastoma is a silent tumor with few symptoms. In more than 70% of cases, diagnosis is made after metastasis occurs, with the first signs caused by involvement in the nonprimary site. In only 30% of cases is diagnosis made before metastasis. Neuroblastomas are the most common malignant extracranial solid tumors in children. The majority of tumors develop in the adrenal glands or the retroperitoneal sympathetic chain. They are not benign; they metastasize.

What term is used to describe the painful, tender, pea-sized nodules that may appear on the pads of the fingers or toes in cases of bacterial endocarditis? a. Osler's nodes b. Janeway lesions c. Subcutaneous nodules d. Aschoff's nodules

ANS: A Osler's nodes are red, painful, intradermal nodes found on pads of the phalanges in bacterial endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless hemorrhagic areas on palms and soles in bacterial endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules are nontender swellings located over bony prominences, commonly found in rheumatic fever. Aschoff's nodules are small nodules composed of cells and leukocytes found in the interstitial tissues of the heart in rheumatic myocarditis.

A nurse is conducting a staff in-service on childhood cancers. Which is the primary site of osteosarcoma? a. Femur b. Humerus c. Pelvis d. Tibia

ANS: A Osteosarcoma is the most frequently encountered malignant bone cancer in children. The peak incidence is between ages 10 and 25 years. More than half occur in the femur. After the femur, most of the remaining sites are the humerus, tibia, pelvis, jaw, and phalanges

What is the most appropriate nursing action when a child with a probable intussusception has a normal, brown stool? a. Notify the practitioner b. Measure abdominal girth c. Auscultate for bowel sounds d. Take vital signs, including blood pressure

ANS: A Passage of a normal brown stool indicates that the intussusception has reduced itself. This is immediately reported to the practitioner, who may choose to alter the diagnostic/therapeutic plan of care.

What is a major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever? a. Polyarthritis b. Osler's nodes c. Janeway spots d. Splinter hemorrhages of distal third of nails

ANS: A Polyarthritis is swollen, hot, red, and painful joints. The affected joints will change every 1 to 2 days. Primarily the large joints are affected. Osler's nodes, Janeway spots, and splinter hemorrhages are characteristic of infective endocarditis.

A child with pulmonary atresia exhibits cyanosis with feeding. On reviewing this child's laboratory values, the nurse is not surprised to notice which abnormality? a. Polycythemia b. Infection c. Dehydration d. Anemia

ANS: A Polycythemia is a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia. The body attempts to improve tissue oxygenation by producing additional red blood cells and thereby increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Infection is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis. Although dehydration can occur in cyanotic heart disease, it is not a compensatory mechanism for chronic hypoxia. It is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis. Anemia may develop as a result of increased blood viscosity. Anemia is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis.

What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for the parents of a child with vesicoureteral reflux? a. The importance of taking prophylactic antibiotics b. Suggestions for how to maintain fluid restrictions c. The use of bubble baths as an incentive to increase bath time d. The need for the child to hold urine for 6 to 8 hours

ANS: A Prophylactic antibiotics are used to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in a child with vesicoureteral reflux, although this treatment plan has become controversial. Fluids are not restricted when a child has vesicoureteral reflux. In fact, fluid intake should be increased as a measure to prevent UTIs. Bubble baths should be avoided to prevent urethral irritation and possible UTI. To prevent UTIs, the child should be taught to void frequently and never resist the urge to urinate.

What is the priority nursing intervention when a child is unconscious after a fall? a. Establish an adequate airway b. Perform neurologic assessment c. Monitor intercranial pressure d. Determine whether a neck injury is present

ANS: A Respiratory effectiveness is the primary concern in the care of the unconscious child. Establishing an adequate airway is always the first priority. A neurologic assessment and determination of neck injury are performed after breathing and circulation are stabilized. Intracranial, not intercranial, pressure is monitored if indicated after airway, breathing, and circulation are maintained.

An adolescent boy is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. His respirations are deep, periodic, and gasping. There are extreme fluctuations in blood pressure. Pupils are dilated and fixed. What type of head injury should the nurse suspect? a. Brainstem b. Skull fracture c. Subdural hemorrhage d. Epidural hemorrhage

ANS: A Signs of brainstem injury include deep, rapid, periodic or intermittent, and gasping respirations. Wide fluctuations or noticeable slowing of the pulse, widening pulse pressure, or extreme fluctuations in blood pressure are consistent with a brainstem injury. Skull fracture and subdural and epidural hemorrhages are not consistent with these signs.

The nurse is conducting an assessment on a school-age child with urosepsis. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect? a. Fever with a positive blood culture b. Proteinuria and edema c. Oliguria and hypertension d. Anemia and thrombocytopenia

ANS: A Symptoms of urosepsis include a febrile urinary tract infection coexisting with systemic signs of bacterial illness; blood culture reveals the presence of a urinary pathogen. Proteinuria and edema are symptoms of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria and hypertension are symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis. Anemia and thrombocytopenia are symptoms of hemolytic uremic syndrome.

Which structural defects constitute tetralogy of Fallot? a. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy b. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy c. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy d. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

ANS: A Tetralogy of Fallot has these four characteristics: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. There is pulmonic stenosis but not aortic stenosis in tetralogy of Fallot. Right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, is present in tetralogy of Fallot. There is a ventricular septal defect, not an atrial septal defect, and overriding aorta, not aortic hypertrophy, is present.

What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child diagnosed with moderate anemia? a. Activity intolerance related to generalized weakness b. Decreased cardiac output related to abnormal hemoglobin c. Risk for injury related to depressed sensorium d. Risk for Injury related to dehydration and abnormal hemoglobin

ANS: A The basic pathology in anemia is the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The nurse must assess the child's activity level (response to the physiologic state). The nursing diagnosis would reflect the activity intolerance. In generalized anemia no abnormal hemoglobin may be present. Only at a level of very severe anemia does cardiac output become altered. No decreased sensorium exists until profound anemia occurs. Dehydration and abnormal hemoglobin are not usually part of anemia.

Parents of a 3-year-old child diagnosed with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion. The nurse's reply should be based on what knowledge? a. The child needs opportunities to play with peers. b. The child needs to understand that peers' activities are too strenuous. c. Parents can meet all the child's needs. d. Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.

ANS: A The child needs opportunities for social development. Children usually limit their activities if allowed to set their own pace and regulate their activities. The child will limit activities as necessary. Parents must be encouraged to seek appropriate social activities for the child, especially before kindergarten. The child needs to have activities that foster independence

What food choice by the parent of a 2-year-old child with celiac disease indicates a need for further teaching? a. Oatmeal b. Rice cake c. Corn muffin d. Meat patty

ANS: A The child with celiac disease is unable to fully digest gluten, the protein found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Oatmeal contains gluten and is not an appropriate food selection. Rice is an appropriate choice because it does not contain gluten. Corn is digestible because it does not contain gluten. Meats do not contain gluten and can be included in the diet of a child with celiac disease.

A toddler, who fell out of a second-story window, had brief loss of consciousness and vomited 4 times. Since admission, the child has been alert and oriented. The mother asks why a computed tomography (CT) scan is required when the child "seems fine." The nurse should base the response on the need to monitor for what possible complication? a. A brain injury b. Coma c. Seizures d. Skull fracture

ANS: A The child's history of the fall, brief loss of consciousness, and vomiting 4 times necessitate evaluation of a potential brain injury. The severity of a head injury may not be apparent on clinical examination but will be detectable on a CT scan. All the remaining options are a result of varying degrees of brain injury.

What condition is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process that may involve any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from mouth to anus? a. Crohn's disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Meckel's diverticulum d. Irritable bowel syndrome

ANS: A The chronic inflammatory process of Crohn's disease involves any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus but most often affects the terminal ileum. Ulcerative colitis, Meckel's diverticulum, and irritable bowel syndrome do not affect the entire GI tract.

What are the earliest recognizable clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. Meconium ileus b. History of poor intestinal absorption c. Foul-smelling, frothy, greasy stools d. Recurrent pneumonia and lung infections

ANS: A The earliest clinical manifestation of CF is a meconium ileus, which is found in about 10% of children with CF. Clinical manifestations include abdominal distention, vomiting, failure to pass stools, and rapid development of dehydration. History of malabsorption is a later sign that manifests as failure to thrive. Foul-smelling stools and recurrent

The nurse is admitting a child with rheumatic fever. Which therapeutic management should the nurse expect to implement? a. Administering penicillin b. Avoiding salicylates (aspirin) c. Imposing strict bed rest for 4 to 6 weeks d. Administering corticosteroids if chorea develops

ANS: A The goal of medical management is the eradication of the hemolytic streptococci. Penicillin is the drug of choice. Salicylates can be used to control the inflammatory process, especially in the joints, and reduce the fever and discomfort. Bed rest is recommended for the acute febrile stage, but it does not need to be strict. The chorea is transient and will resolve without treatment.

In which situation is there the greatest risk that a newborn infant will have a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Trisomy 21 detected on amniocentesis b. Family history of myocardial infarction c. Father has type 1 diabetes mellitus d. Older sibling born with Turner's syndrome

ANS: A The incidence of congenital heart disease is approximately 50% in children with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). A family history of congenital heart disease, not acquired heart disease, increases the risk of giving birth to a child with CHD. Infants born to mothers who are insulin dependent have an increased risk of CHD. Infants identified as having certain genetic defects, such as Turner's syndrome, have a higher incidence of CHD.

The nurse is taking care of an adolescent with osteosarcoma. The parents ask the nurse about treatment. The nurse should make which accurate response about treatment for osteosarcoma? a. Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy. b. Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary. c. Intensive irradiation is the primary treatment. d. Bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of long-term survival.

ANS: A The optimal therapy for osteosarcoma is a combination of surgery and chemotherapy. Intensive irradiation and bone marrow transplantation are usually not part of the therapeutic management.

The nurse is caring for an infant diagnosed with congestive heart disease (CHD). The nurse should plan which intervention to decrease cardiac demands? a. Organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted sleep b. Allow the infant to sleep through feedings during the night c. Wait for the infant to cry to show definite signs of hunger d. Discourage parents from rocking the infant

ANS: A The infant requires rest and conservation of energy for feeding. Every effort is made to organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted periods of sleep. Whenever possible, parents are encouraged to stay with their infant to provide the holding, rocking, and cuddling that help children sleep more soundly. To minimize disturbing the infant, changing bed linens and complete bathing are done only when necessary. Feeding is planned to accommodate the infant's sleep and wake patterns. The child is fed at the first sign of hunger, such as when sucking on fists, rather than waiting until he or she cries for a bottle because the stress of crying exhausts the limited energy supply. Because infants with CHD tire easily and may sleep through feedings, smaller feedings every 3 hours may be helpful.

The nurse is admitting a child with a Wilms' tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor? a. Abdominal swelling b. Weight gain c. Hypotension d. Increased urinary output

ANS: A The initial assessment finding with a Wilms' (kidney) tumor is abdominal swelling. Weight loss, not weight gain, may be a finding. Hypertension occasionally occurs with a Wilms' tumor. Urinary output is not increased, but hematuria may be noted.

An important nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to facilitate which intervention? a. Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education. b. Help the child and family understand that diet restrictions are usually only temporary. c. Teach proper hand washing and Standard Precautions to prevent disease transmission. d. Suggest ways to cope more effectively with stress to minimize symptoms.

ANS: A The main consideration is helping the child adhere to dietary management. Considerable time is spent in explaining to the child and parents the disease process, the specific role of gluten in aggravating the condition, and those foods that must be restricted. Referral to a nutritionist would help in this process. The most severe symptoms usually occur in early childhood and adult life. Dietary avoidance of gluten should be lifelong. Celiac disease is not transmissible or stress related.

The nurse is talking to a parent of an infant with heart failure about feeding the infant. Which statement about feeding the child is correct? a. "You may need to increase the caloric density of your infant's formula." b. "You should feed your baby every 2 hours." c. "You may need to increase the amount of formula your infant eats with each feeding." d. "You should place a nasal oxygen cannula on your infant during and after each feeding."

ANS: A The metabolic rate of infants with heart failure is greater because of poor cardiac function and increased heart and respiratory rates. Their caloric needs are greater than those of the average infants, yet their ability to take in the calories is diminished by their fatigue. Infants with heart failure should be fed every 3 hours; a 2-hour schedule does not allow for enough rest, and a 4-hour schedule is too long. Fluids must be carefully monitored because of the heart failure. Infants do not require supplemental oxygen with feedings.

Which test is never performed on a child who is awake? a. Oculovestibular response b. Doll's head maneuver c. Funduscopic examination for papilledema d. Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions

ANS: A The oculovestibular response (caloric test) involves the instillation of ice water into the ear of a comatose child. The caloric test is painful and is never performed on a child who is awake or one who has a ruptured tympanic membrane. Doll's head maneuver, funduscopic examination, and assessment of pyramidal tract lesions can be performed on children who are awake.

The best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis is: a. liver transplantation. b. treatment with corticosteroids. c. treatment with immune globulin. d. provision of nutritional support.

ANS: A The only successful treatment for end-stage liver disease and liver failure may be liver transplantation, which has improved the prognosis for many children with cirrhosis. Liver transplantation has revolutionized the approach to cirrhosis. Liver failure and cirrhosis are indications for transplantation. Liver transplantation reflects the failure of other medical and surgical measures, such as treatment with corticosteroids or immune globulin and nutritional support, to prevent or treat cirrhosis.

What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care for a young child diagnosed with pneumonia? a. Monitor for abdominal pain b. Encourage the child to lie on the unaffected side c. Administer analgesics d. Place the child in the Trendelenburg position

ANS: A The pain of pneumonia may be referred to the abdomen in young children. Lying on the affected side may promote comfort by splinting the chest and reducing pleural rubbing. Analgesics are not indicated. Children should be placed in a semierect position or position of comfort.

Bismuth subsalicylate may be prescribed for a child with a peptic ulcer to effect what result? a. Eradicate Helicobacter pylori b. Coat gastric mucosa c. Treat epigastric pain d. Reduce gastric acid production

ANS: A This combination of drug therapy is effective in the treatment and eradication of H. pylori. It does not bring about any of the results.

Which information should the nurse give to a child who is to have magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain? a. "Your head will be kept from moving during the procedure." b. "You will have to drink a special fluid before the test." c. "You will have to lie flat after the test is finished." d. "You will have electrodes placed on your head with glue."

ANS: A To reduce fear and enhance cooperation during the MRI, the child should be made aware that the head will be restricted to obtain accurate information. Drinking fluids is usually done for neurologic procedures. A child should lie flat after a lumbar puncture, not after an MRI. Electrodes are attached to the head for an electroencephalogram.

When a child diagnosed with chronic renal failure, the progressive deterioration produces a variety of clinical and biochemical disturbances that eventually are manifested in the clinical syndrome known as what? a. Uremia b. Oliguria c. Proteinuria d. Pyelonephritis

ANS: A Uremia is the retention of nitrogenous products, producing toxic symptoms. Oliguria is diminished urine output. Proteinuria is the presence of protein, usually albumin, in the urine. Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis.

Instructions for decongestant nose drops should include what recommendation? a. Avoiding use for more than 3 days. b. Keeping drops to use again for nasal congestion. c. Administering drops until nasal congestion subsides. d. Administering drops after feedings and at bedtime.

ANS: A Vasoconstrictive nose drops should not be used for more than 3 days to avoid rebound congestion. Drops should be discarded after one illness because they may become contaminated with bacteria. Vasoconstrictive nose drops can have a rebound effect after 3 days of use. Drops administered before feedings are more helpful.

Which nursing intervention is appropriate when caring for a child who has experienced a seizure? a. Describe and record the seizure activity observed. b. Restrain the child when seizure occurs to prevent bodily harm. c. Place a tongue blade between the teeth if they become clenched. d. Suction the child during a seizure to prevent aspiration.

ANS: A When a child is having a seizure, the priority nursing care is observation of the child and seizure. The nurse then describes and records the seizure activity. The child should not be restrained, and nothing should be placed in his or her mouth. This may cause injury. To prevent aspiration, if possible, the child should be placed on his or her side, facilitating drainage.

The nurse, caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, should include what intervention into the plan of care? a. Elevating the head to facilitate secrete drainage. b. Elevating the head for feedings only. c. Feeding glucose water only. d. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic.

ANS: A When a newborn is suspected of having tracheoesophageal fistula, the most desirable position is supine with the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees to maintain an airway and facilitate drainage of secretions. It is imperative that any source of aspiration be removed at once; oral feedings are withheld. Feeding of fluids should not be given to infants suspected of having tracheoesophageal fistulas. The oral pharynx should be kept clear of secretion by oral suctioning. This is to avoid the cyanosis that is usually the result of laryngospasm caused by overflow of saliva into the larynx.

Which information should the nurse teach families about reducing exposure to pollens and dust? (Select all that apply.) a. Replace wall-to-wall carpeting with wood and tile floors b. Use an air conditioner c. Put dust-proof covers on pillows and mattresses d. Keep humidity in the house above 60% e. Keep pets outside

ANS: A, B, C Carpets retain dust. To reduce exposure to dust, carpeting should be replaced with wood, tile, slate, or vinyl. These floors can be cleaned easily. For anyone with pollen allergies, it is best to keep the windows closed and to run the air conditioner. Covering mattresses and pillows with dust-proof covers will reduce exposure to dust. A humidity level above 60% promotes dust mites. It is recommended that household humidity be kept between 40% and 50% to reduce dust mites inside the house. Keeping pets outside will help to decrease exposure to dander, but will not affect exposure to pollen and dust.

What are the primary clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Oliguria b. Hematuria c. Proteinuria d. Hypertension e. Bacteriuria

ANS: A, B, C, D The principal feature of acute glomerulonephritis include oliguria, edema, hypertension and circulatory congestion, hematuria, and proteinuria. Bacteriuria is not a principal feature of acute glomerulonephritis.

A nurse should expect which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory results on a child diagnosed with bacterial meningitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count b. Decreased protein c. Decreased glucose d. Cloudy in color e. Increase in red blood cells (RBCs)

ANS: A, C, D The CSF laboratory results for bacterial meningitis include elevated WBC counts, cloudy or milky in color, and decreased glucose. The protein is elevated and there should be no RBCs present. RBCs are present when the tap was traumatic.

Which interventions should a nurse implement when caring for a child with hepatitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide a well-balanced, low-fat diet. b. Schedule playtime in the playroom with other children. c. Teach parents not to administer any over-the-counter medications. d. Arrange for home schooling because the child will not be able to return to school. e. Instruct parents on the importance of good hand washing.

ANS: A, C, E The child with hepatitis should be placed on a well-balanced, low-fat diet. Parents should be taught to not give over-the-counter medications because of impaired liver function. Hand hygiene is the most important preventive measure for the spread of hepatitis. The child will be in contact isolation in the hospital, so playtime with other hospitalized children is not scheduled. The child will be on contact isolation for a minimum of 1 week after the onset of jaundice. After that period, the child will be allowed to return to school.

The treatment of brain tumors in children consists of which therapies? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgery b. Bone marrow transplantation c. Chemotherapy d. Stem cell transplantation e. Radiation f. Myelography

ANS: A, C, E Treatment for brain tumors in children may consist of surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy alone or in combination. Bone marrow and stem cell transplantation therapies are used for leukemia, lymphoma, and other solid tumors where myeloablative therapies are used. Myelography is a radiographic examination after an intrathecal injection of contrast medium. It is not a treatment.

The nurse is caring for an infant with a suspected urinary tract infection. Which clinical manifestations would be observed? (Select all that apply.) a. Vomiting b. Jaundice c. Failure to gain weight d. Swelling of the face e. Back pain f. Persistent diaper rash

ANS: A, C, F Vomiting, failure to gain weight, and persistent diaper rash are clinical manifestations observed in an infant with a urinary tract infection. Jaundice, swelling of the face, and back pain would not be observed in an infant with a urinary tract infection.

A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis and oliguria. Which dietary menu items should be allowed for this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Apples b. Bananas c. Cheese d. Carrot sticks e. Strawberries

ANS: A, D, E Moderate sodium restriction and even fluid restriction may be instituted for children with acute glomerulonephritis. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium and sodium are generally restricted during the period of oliguria. Apples, carrot sticks, and strawberries would be items low in sodium and allowed. Bananas are high in potassium and cheese is high in sodium. Those items would be restricted.

An infant diagnosed with hydrocephalus is hospitalized for surgical placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which interventions should be included in the child's postoperative care? (Select all that apply.) a. Observe closely for signs of infection b. Pump the shunt reservoir to maintain patency c. Administer sedation to decrease irritability d. Maintain Trendelenburg position to decrease pressure on the shunt e. Maintain an accurate record of intake and output f. Monitor for abdominal distention

ANS: A, E, F Infection is a major complication of ventriculoperitoneal shunts. Observation for signs of infection is a priority nursing intervention. Intake and output should be measured carefully. Abdominal distention could be a sign of peritonitis or a postoperative ileus. Pumping the shunt reservoir, administering sedation, and maintaining Trendelenburg position are not interventions associated with this condition.

Chelation therapy is begun on a child with b-thalassemia major with what expected result? a. Treatment of the disease. b. Elimination of excess iron. c. Decreasing the risk of hypoxia. d. Managing nausea and vomiting.

ANS: B A complication of the frequent blood transfusions in thalassemia is iron overload. Chelation therapy with deferoxamine (an iron-chelating agent) is given with oral supplements of vitamin C to increase iron excretion. Chelation therapy treats the side effects of disease management. Decreasing the risk of hypoxia and managing nausea and vomiting are not the purposes of chelation therapy.

A school-age child has sustained a head injury and multiple fractures after being thrown from a horse. The child's level of consciousness is variable. The parents tell the nurse that they think their child is in pain because of periodic crying and restlessness. What is the most appropriate nursing action in response to the parent's concern? a. Discuss with parents the child's previous experiences with pain. b. Discuss with practitioner what analgesia can be safely administered. c. Explain that analgesia is contraindicated with a head injury. d. Explain that analgesia is unnecessary when child is not fully awake and alert.

ANS: B A key nursing role is to provide sedation and analgesia for the child. Consultation with the appropriate practitioner is necessary to avoid conflict between the necessity to monitor the child's neurologic status and to promote comfort and relieve anxiety. Gathering information about the child's previous experiences with pain should be obtained as part of the assessment, but because of the severity of injury, analgesia should be provided as soon as possible. Analgesia can be used safely in individuals who have sustained head injuries and can decrease anxiety and resultant increased intracranial pressure.

Which statement best describes a subdural hematoma? a. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull. b. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum. c. Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly. d. The hematoma commonly occurs in the parietotemporal region.

ANS: B A subdural hematoma is bleeding that occurs between the dura and the cerebrum as a result of a rupture of cortical veins that bridge the subdural space. An epidural hemorrhage occurs between the dura and the skull, is usually arterial with rapid brain concussion, and occurs most often in the parietotemporal region.

What is a common cause of acute diarrhea? a. Hirschsprung's disease b. Antibiotic therapy c. Hypothyroidism d. Meconium ileus

ANS: B Acute diarrhea is a sudden increase in frequency and change in consistency of stools and may be associated with antibiotic therapy. Hirschsprung's disease, hypothyroidism, and meconium ileus are usually manifested with constipation rather than diarrhea.

A youngster will receive a bone marrow transplant (BMT) made possible because an older siblings is a histocompatible donor. Which is this type of BMT called? a. Syngeneic b. Allogeneic c. Monoclonal d. Autologous

ANS: B Allogeneic transplants are from another individual. Because he and his sibling are histocompatible, the BMT can be done. Syngeneic marrow is from an identical twin. There is no such thing as a monoclonal BMT. Autologous refers to the individual's own marrow.

A young child with human immunodeficiency virus is receiving several antiretroviral drugs. What is the expected outcome of these drug therapies? a. Cure the disease b. Delay disease progression c. Prevent spread of disease d. Treat Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

ANS: B Although not a cure, these antiviral drugs can suppress viral replication, preventing further deterioration of the immune system, and delay disease progression. At this time cure is not possible. These drugs do not prevent the spread of the disease. Pneumocystis jiroveci prophylaxis is accomplished with antibiotics.

The nurse is caring for a child with carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning associated with smoke inhalation. What intervention is essential in this child's care? a. Monitor pulse oximetry b. Monitor arterial blood gases (ABGs) c. Administer oxygen if respiratory distress develops d. Administer oxygen if child's lips become bright, cherry red

ANS: B Arterial blood gases (ABGs) and COHb levels are the best way to monitor CO poisoning. PaO2 monitored with pulse oximetry may be normal in the case of CO poisoning. Oxygen at 100% should be given as quickly as possible, not only if respiratory distress or other symptoms develop.

What is one of the most frequent causes of hypovolemic shock in children? a. Myocardial infarction b. Blood loss c. Anaphylaxis d. Congenital heart disease

ANS: B Blood loss and extracellular fluid loss are two of the most frequent causes of hypovolemic shock in children. Myocardial infarction is rare in a child; if it occurred, the resulting shock would be cardiogenic, not hypovolemic. Anaphylaxis results in distributive shock from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Congenital heart disease tends to contribute to hypervolemia, not hypovolemia.

Which statement best describes why children have fewer respiratory tract infections as they grow older? a. The amount of lymphoid tissue decreases. b. Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity. c. Viral organisms are less prevalent in the population. d. Secondary infections rarely occur after viral illnesses.

ANS: B Children have increased immunity after exposure to a virus. The amount of lymphoid tissue increases as children grow older. Viral organisms are not less prevalent, but older children have the ability to resist invading organisms. Secondary infections after viral illnesses include Mycoplasma pneumoniae and groups A and B streptococcal infections.

As part of the treatment for congestive heart failure, the child takes the diuretic furosemide. As part of teaching home care, the nurse encourages the family to give the child foods such as bananas, oranges, and leafy vegetables. These foods are recommended because they are high in what electrolyte? a. Chlorides b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Zinc

ANS: B Diuretics that work on the proximal and distal renal tubules contribute to increased losses of potassium. The child's diet should be supplemented with potassium.

The nurse is preparing an adolescent for discharge after a cardiac catheterization. Which statement by the adolescent would indicate a need for further teaching? a. "I should avoid tub baths but may shower." b. "I have to stay on strict bed rest for 3 days." c. "I should remove the pressure dressing the day after the procedure." d. "I may attend school but should avoid exercise for several days."

ANS: B Encourage rest and quiet activities for the first 3 days and avoid strenuous exercise. The child does not need to be on strict bed rest for 3 days. Showers are recommended; children should avoid a tub bath. The pressure dressing is removed the day after the catheterization and replaced by an adhesive bandage to keep the area clean.

Which type of croup is always considered a medical emergency? a. Laryngitis b. Epiglottitis c. Spasmodic croup d. Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)

ANS: B Epiglottitis is always a medical emergency needing antibiotics and airway support for treatment. Laryngitis is a common viral illness in older children and adolescents with hoarseness and upper respiratory infection symptoms. Spasmodic croup is treated with humidity. LTB may progress to a medical emergency in some children.

The nurse is preparing a school-age child for a computed tomography (CT) scan to assess cerebral function. When preparing the child for the scan, which statement should the nurse include? a. "Pain medication will be given." b. "The scan will not hurt." c. "You will be able to move once the equipment is in place." d. "Unfortunately no one can remain in the room with you during the test."

ANS: B For CT scans, the child will not be allowed to move and must be immobilized. It is important to emphasize to the child that at no time is the procedure painful. Pain medication is not required; however, sedation is sometimes necessary. Someone is able to remain with the child during the procedure.

A 4-month-old infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is thriving without other complications. What should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux? a. Place in Trendelenburg position after eating. b. Thicken formula with rice cereal. c. Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings. d. Give larger, less frequent feedings.

ANS: B Giving small frequent feedings of formula combined with 1 teaspoon to 1 tablespoon of rice cereal per ounce of formula has been recommended. Milk thickening agents have been shown to decrease the number of episodes of vomiting and increase the caloric density of the formula. This may benefit infants who are underweight as a result of GERD. Placing the child in Trendelenburg position would increase the reflux. Continuous nasogastric feedings are reserved for infants with severe reflux and failure to thrive. Smaller, more frequent feedings are recommended in reflux.

What is the initial goal for the treatment of secondary hypertension? a. Weight control and diet b. Treating the underlying disease c. Administration of digoxin d. Administration of b-adrenergic receptor blockers

ANS: B Identification of the underlying disease should be the first step in treating secondary hypertension. Weight control and diet are nonpharmacologic treatments for primary hypertension. Digoxin is indicated in the treatment of congestive heart failure. b-Adrenergic receptor blockers are indicated in the treatment of primary hypertension.

The nurse is assessing a child with acute epiglottitis. Examining the child's throat by using a tongue depressor might precipitate which symptom or condition? a. Inspiratory stridor b. Complete obstruction c. Sore throat d. Respiratory tract infection

ANS: B If a child has acute epiglottitis, examination of the throat may cause complete obstruction and should be performed only when immediate intubation can take place. Stridor is aggravated when a child with epiglottitis is supine. Sore throat and pain on swallowing are early signs of epiglottitis. Epiglottitis is caused by Haemophilus influenzae in the respiratory tract.

The nurse is caring for a child with persistent hypoxia secondary to a cardiac defect. The nurse recognizes that a risk of cerebrovascular accidents (strokes) exists. An important objective to decrease this risk is to achieve what result? a. Minimize seizures b. Prevent dehydration c. Promote cardiac output d. Reduce energy expenditure

ANS: B In children with persistent hypoxia, polycythemia develops. Dehydration must be prevented in hypoxemic children because it potentiates the risk of strokes. Minimizing seizures, promoting cardiac output, and reducing energy expenditure will not reduce the risk of cerebrovascular accidents.

Which clinical changes occur as a result of septic shock? a. Hypothermia b. Increased cardiac output c. Vasoconstriction d. Angioneurotic edema

ANS: B Increased cardiac output, which results in warm, flushed skin, is one of the manifestations of septic shock. Fever and chills are characteristic of septic shock. Vasodilation is more common in septic shock. Angioneurotic edema occurs as a manifestation in anaphylactic shock.

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) associated with sepsis. What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Force fluids b. Monitor pulse oximetry c. Institute seizure precautions d. Encourage a high-protein diet

ANS: B Monitoring cardiopulmonary status is an important evaluation tool in the care of the child with ARDS. Maintenance of vascular volume and hydration is important and should be done parenterally. Seizures are not a side effect of ARDS. Adequate nutrition is necessary, but a high-protein diet is not helpful.

Which is often administered to prevent or control hemorrhage in a child diagnosed with cancer? a. Nitrosoureas b. Platelets c. Whole blood d. Corticosteroids

ANS: B Most bleeding episodes can be prevented or controlled with the administration of platelet concentrate or platelet-rich plasma. Nitrosoureas, whole blood, and corticosteroids would not prevent or control hemorrhage.

When taking the history of a child hospitalized with Reye's syndrome, the nurse should not be surprised that a week ago the child had recovered from infectious illness? a. Measles b. Varicella c. Meningitis d. Hepatitis

ANS: B Most cases of Reye's syndrome follow a common viral illness such as varicella or influenza. Measles, meningitis, and hepatitis are not associated with Reye's syndrome.

A school-age child with chronic renal failure is admitted to the hospital with a serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Which prescribed medication should the nurse plan to administer? a. Spironolactone b. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate c. Lactulose d. Calcium carbonate

ANS: B Normal serum potassium levels in a school-age child are 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is administered to reduce serum potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and should not be used if the serum potassium is elevated. Lactulose is administered to reduce ammonia levels in patients with liver disease. Calcium carbonate may be prescribed as a calcium supplement, but it will not reduce serum potassium levels.

Calcium carbonate is given with meals to a child with chronic renal disease. The purpose of this is to achieve which desired result? a. Prevent vomiting b. Bind phosphorus c. Stimulate appetite d. Increase absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

ANS: B Oral calcium carbonate preparations combine with phosphorus to decrease gastrointestinal absorption and the serum levels of phosphate; serum calcium levels are increased by the calcium carbonate, and vitamin D administration is necessary to increase calcium absorption. Calcium carbonate does not prevent vomiting, stimulate appetite, or increase the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

The narrowing of preputial opening of foreskin is referred to as what? a. Chordee b. Phimosis c. Epispadias d. Hypospadias

ANS: B Phimosis is the narrowing or stenosis of the preputial opening of the foreskin. Chordee is the ventral curvature of the penis. Epispadias is the meatal opening on the dorsal surface of the penis. Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located anywhere along the ventral surface of the penis.

Which statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children? a. It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years. b. It is preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children. c. Children can receive kidneys only from other children. d. The decision for transplantation is difficult since a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.

ANS: B Renal transplantation offers the opportunity for a relatively normal lifestyle versus dependence on dialysis and is the preferred means of renal replacement therapy in end-stage renal disease. It can be done in children as young as age 6 months. Both children and adults can serve as donors for renal transplant purposes.

The diet of a child with nephrosis usually includes requirement? a. High protein b. Salt restriction c. Low fat d. High carbohydrate

ANS: B Salt is usually restricted (but not eliminated) during the edema phase. The child has very little appetite during the acute phase. Favorite foods are provided (with the exception of high-salt ones) in an attempt to provide nutritionally complete meals.

What term is used to identify the condition in which the normal adult hemoglobin is partly or completely replaced by abnormal hemoglobin? a. Aplastic anemia b. Sickle cell anemia c. Thalassemia major d. Iron deficiency anemia

ANS: B Sickle cell anemia is one of a group of diseases collectively called hemoglobinopathies, in which normal adult hemoglobin is replaced by abnormal hemoglobin. Aplastic anemia is a lack of cellular elements being produced. Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders in which there is deficiency of one of the factors necessary for coagulation. Iron deficiency anemia affects size and depth of color of hemoglobin and does not involve abnormal hemoglobin.

What distinguishing manifestation of spasmodic croup should parents be taught to identify? a. Wheezing is heard audibly b. It has a harsh, barky cough c. It is bacterial in nature d. The child has a high fever

ANS: B Spasmodic croup is viral in origin, is usually preceded by several days of symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection, and often begins at night. It is marked by a harsh, metallic, barky cough; sore throat; inspiratory stridor; and hoarseness. Wheezing is not a distinguishing manifestation of croup. It can accompany conditions such as asthma or bronchiolitis. A high fever is not usually present.

Which term is used when a patient remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation? a. Coma b. Stupor c. Obtundation d. Persistent vegetative state

ANS: B Stupor exists when the child remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation. Coma is the state in which no motor or verbal response occurs to noxious (painful) stimuli. Obtundation describes a level of consciousness in which the child can be aroused with stimulation. Persistent vegetative state describes the permanent loss of function of the cerebral cortex.

A nurse is teaching nursing students the physiology of congenital heart defects. Which defect results in decreased pulmonary blood flow? a. Atrial septal defect b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Ventricular septal defect d. Patent ductus arteriosus

ANS: B Tetralogy of Fallot results in decreased blood flow to the lungs. The pulmonic stenosis increases the pressure in the right ventricle, causing the blood to go from right to left across the interventricular septal defect. Atrial and ventricular septal defects and patent ductus arteriosus result in increased pulmonary blood flow.

The Glasgow Coma Scale consists of an assessment of what functions? a. Pupil reactivity and motor response. b. Eye opening and verbal and motor responses. c. Level of consciousness and verbal response. d. Intracranial pressure (ICP) and level of consciousness.

ANS: B The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye opening and verbal and motor responses. Pupil reactivity is not a part of the Glasgow Coma Scale but is included in the pediatric coma scale. Level of consciousness and ICP are not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale.

What should the nurse consider when preparing a school-age child and the family for heart surgery? a. Not showing unfamiliar equipment b. Letting child hear the sounds of an electrocardiograph monitor c. Avoiding mentioning postoperative discomfort and interventions d. Explaining that an endotracheal tube will not be needed if the surgery goes well

ANS: B The child and family should be exposed to the sights and sounds of the intensive care unit. All positive, nonfrightening aspects of the environment are emphasized. The child should be shown unfamiliar equipment, and its use should be demonstrated on a doll. Carefully prepare the child for the postoperative experience, including intravenous lines, incision, and endotracheal tube.

A 5 year old is being prepared for surgery to remove a brain tumor. Nursing actions should be based on which statement? a. Removal of tumor will stop the various symptoms. b. Usually the postoperative dressing covers the entire scalp. c. He is not old enough to be concerned about his head being shaved. d. He is not old enough to Comprehension the significance of the brain.

ANS: B The child should be told what he will look and feel like after surgery. This includes the size of the dressing. The nurse can demonstrate on a doll the expected size and shape of the dressing. Some of the symptoms may be alleviated by the removal of the tumor, but postsurgical headaches and cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia may be aggravated. Children should be prepared for the loss of their hair, and it should be removed in a sensitive, positive manner if the child is awake. Children at this age have poorly defined body boundaries and little knowledge of internal organs. Intrusive experiences are frightening, especially those that disrupt the integrity of the skin.

Which immunization should be given with caution to children infected with human immunodeficiency virus? a. Influenza b. Varicella c. Pneumococcus d. Inactivated poliovirus

ANS: B The children should be carefully evaluated before giving live viral vaccines such as varicella, measles, mumps, and rubella. The child must be immunocompetent and not have contact with other severely immunocompromised individuals. Influenza, pneumococcus, and inactivated poliovirus are not live vaccines.

The nurse assessing a premature newborn infant auscultates a continuous machinery-like murmur. This finding is associated with which congenital heart defect? a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. Ventricular septal defect d. Coarctation of the aorta

ANS: B The classic murmur associated with patent ductus arteriosus is a machinery-like one that can be heard throughout both systole and diastole. A systolic ejection murmur that may be accompanied by a palpable thrill is a manifestation of pulmonary stenosis. The characteristic murmur associated with ventricular septal defect is a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur. A systolic murmur that is accompanied by an ejection click may be heard on auscultation when coarctation of the aorta is present.

The nurse encourages the mother of a toddler with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) to stay at the bedside as much as possible. What is the nurse's primary rationale for this action? a. Mothers of hospitalized toddlers often experience guilt. b. The mother's presence will reduce anxiety and ease the child's respiratory efforts. c. Separation from the mother is a major developmental threat at this age. d. The mother can provide constant observations of the child's respiratory efforts.

ANS: B The family's presence will decrease the child's distress. The mother may experience guilt, but this is not the best answer. Although separation from the mother is a developmental threat for toddlers, the main reason to keep parents at the child's bedside is to ease anxiety and therefore respiratory effort. The child should have constant cardiorespiratory monitoring and noninvasive oxygen saturation monitoring, but the parent should not play this role in the hospital.

An 8-month-old infant becomes hypercyanotic while blood is being drawn. What should be the nurse's first action? a. Assess for neurologic defects b. Place the child in the knee-chest position c. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation d. Prepare the family for imminent death

ANS: B The first action is to place the infant in the knee-chest position. Blow-by oxygen may be indicated. Neurologic defects are unlikely. The child should be assessed for airway, breathing, and circulation. Often calming the child and administering oxygen and morphine can alleviate the hypercyanotic spell; cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not necessary, and death is unlikely.

Which description of a stool is characteristic of intussusception? a. Ribbon-like stools b. Hard stools positive for guaiac c. "Currant jelly" stools d. Loose, foul-smelling stools

ANS: C With intussusception, passage of bloody mucus-coated stools occurs. Pressure on the bowel from obstruction leads to passage of "currant jelly" stools. Ribbon-like stools are characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease. Stools will not be hard. Loose, foul-smelling stools may indicate infectious gastroenteritis.

The nurse is conducting teaching for an adolescent being discharged to home after a renal transplantation. The adolescent needs further teaching if which statement is made? a. "I will report any fever to my primary health care provider." b. "I am glad I only have to take the immunosuppressant medication for 2 weeks." c. "I will observe my incision for any redness or swelling." d. "I won't miss doing kidney dialysis every week."

ANS: B The immunosuppressant medications are taken indefinitely after a renal transplantation, so they should not be discontinued after 2 weeks. Reporting a fever and observing an incision for redness and swelling are accurate statements. The adolescent is correct in indicating dialysis will not need to be done after the transplantation.

A boy with leukemia screams whenever he needs to be turned or moved. Which is the most probable cause of this pain? a. Edema b. Bone involvement c. Petechial hemorrhages d. Changes within the muscles

ANS: B The invasion of the bone marrow with leukemic cells gradually causes weakening of the bone and a tendency toward fractures. As leukemic cells invade the periosteum, increasing pressure causes severe pain. Edema, petechial hemorrhages, and changes within the muscles would not cause severe pain.

The nurse has received report on four children. Which child should the nurse assess first? a. A school-age child in a coma with stable vital signs. b. A preschool child with a head injury and decreasing level of consciousness. c. An adolescent admitted after a motor vehicle accident who is oriented to person and place. d. A toddler in a persistent vegetative state with a low-grade fever.

ANS: B The nurse should assess the child with a head injury and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) first. Assessment of LOC remains the earliest indicator of improvement or deterioration in neurologic status. The next child the nurse should assess is a toddler in a persistent vegetative state with a low-grade fever. The school-age child in a coma with stable vital signs and the adolescent admitted to the hospital who is oriented to his or her surroundings would be of least worry to the nurse.

What is the primary nursing intervention necessary to prevent bacterial endocarditis? a. Institute measures to prevent dental procedures. b. Counsel parents of high risk children about prophylactic antibiotics. c. Observe children for complications such as embolism and heart failure. d. Encourage restricted mobility in susceptible children.

ANS: B The objective of nursing care is to counsel the parents of high risk children about both the need for prophylactic antibiotics for dental procedures and the necessity of maintaining excellent oral health. The child's dentist should be aware of the child's cardiac condition. Dental procedures should be done to maintain a high level of oral health. Prophylactic antibiotics are necessary. Observing for complications and encouraging restricted mobility in susceptible children should be done, but maintaining good oral health and using prophylactic antibiotics are most important.

An objective of care for the child with nephrosis is what desired outcome? a. Reduced blood pressure b. Reduced excretion of urinary protein c. Increased excretion of urinary protein d. Increased ability of tissues to retain fluid

ANS: B The objectives of therapy for the child with nephrosis include reduction of the excretion of urinary protein, reduction of fluid retention, prevention of infection, and minimizing of complications associated with therapy. Blood pressure is usually not elevated in nephrosis. Increased excretion of urinary protein and increased ability of tissues to retain fluid are part of the disease process and must be reversed.

The parents of a child hospitalized with sickle cell anemia tell the nurse that they are concerned about narcotic analgesics causing addiction. The nurse should provide what explanation in response to the parent's concern? a. Narcotics are often ordered but not usually needed. b. Narcotics rarely cause addiction when they are medically indicated. c. Narcotics are given as a last resort because of the threat of addiction. d. Narcotics are used only if other measures such as ice packs are ineffective.

ANS: B The pain of sickle cell anemia is best treated by a multidisciplinary approach. Mild-to-moderate pain can be controlled by ibuprofen and acetaminophen. When narcotics are indicated, they are titrated to effect and given around the clock. Patient-controlled analgesia reinforces the patient's role and responsibility in managing the pain and provides flexibility in dealing with pain. Few if any patients who receive opioids for severe pain become behaviorally addicted to the drug. Narcotics are often used because of the severe nature of the pain of vaso-occlusive crisis. Ice is contraindicated because of its vasoconstrictive effects.

What is the leading cause of death after heart transplantation? a. Infection b. Rejection c. Cardiomyopathy d. Congestive heart failure

ANS: B The posttransplantation course is complex. The leading cause of death after cardiac transplantation is rejection. Infection is a continued risk secondary to the immunosuppression necessary to prevent rejection. Cardiomyopathy is one of the indications for cardiac transplant. Congestive heart failure is not a leading cause of death.

The nurse is caring for a neonate with suspected meningitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse prepare to assess if meningitis is confirmed? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache b. Photophobia c. Bulging anterior fontanel d. Weak cry e. Poor muscle tone

ANS: C, D, E Assessment findings in a neonate with meningitis include bulging anterior fontanel, weak cry, and poor muscle tone. Headache and photophobia are signs seen in an older child.

Which factor predisposes a child to urinary tract infections? a. Increased fluid intake b. Short urethra in young girls c. Prostatic secretions in males d. Frequent emptying of the bladder

ANS: B The short urethra in females provides a ready pathway for invasions of organisms. Increased fluid intake and frequent bladder emptying offer protective measures against urinary tract infections. Prostatic secretions have antibacterial properties that inhibit bacteria.

The nurse, closely monitoring a child who is unconscious after a fall, notices that the child suddenly has a fixed and dilated pupil. The nurse should interpret this as the indication of what occurrence? a. Eye trauma b. Neurosurgical emergency c. Severe brainstem damage d. Indication of brain death

ANS: B The sudden appearance of a fixed and dilated pupil(s) is a neurosurgical emergency. The nurse should immediately report this finding. Although a dilated pupil may be associated with eye trauma, this child has experienced a neurologic insult. Pinpoint pupils or fixed, bilateral pupils for more than 5 minutes are indicative of brainstem damage. The unilateral fixed and dilated pupil is suggestive of damage on the same side of the brain. One fixed and dilated pupil is not suggestive of brain death.

An infant is brought to the emergency department with poor skin turgor, sunken fontanel, lethargy, and tachycardia. This is suggestive of which condition? a. Overhydration b. Dehydration c. Sodium excess d. Calcium excess

ANS: B These clinical manifestations indicate dehydration. Symptoms of overhydration are edema and weight gain. Regardless of extracellular sodium levels, total body sodium is usually depleted in dehydration. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are a result of neuromuscular irritability and manifest as jitteriness, tetany, tremors, and muscle twitching.

b-Adrenergic agonists and methylxanthines are often prescribed for a child with an asthma attack for what resulting action? a. Liquefaction of secretions b. Dilation of the bronchioles c. Reduction of inflammation of the lungs d. Reduction of existing infection

ANS: B These medications work to dilate the bronchioles in acute exacerbations. These medications do not liquefy secretions or reduce infection. Corticosteroids and mast cell stabilizers reduce inflammation in the lungs.

A child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is prescribed recombinant human deoxyribonuclease (rhDNase). What information should be included in the medication education provided the child and family? a. May cause mucus to thicken b. May cause minor voice alterations c. Is given subcutaneously d. Is not indicated for children younger than 12 years

ANS: B Two of the only adverse effects of rhDNase are voice alterations and laryngitis. rhDNase decreases viscosity of mucus, is given in an aerosolized form, and is safe for children younger than 12 years of age.

Which vaccine is now recommended for the immunization of all newborns? a. Hepatitis A vaccine b. Hepatitis B vaccine c. Hepatitis C vaccine d. Hepatitis A, B, and C vaccines

ANS: B Universal vaccination for hepatitis B is now recommended for all newborns. A vaccine is available for hepatitis A, but it is not yet universally recommended. No vaccine is currently available for hepatitis C. Only hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for newborns.

One of the clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure is uremic frost. Which best describes this term? a. Deposits of urea crystals in urine b. Deposits of urea crystals on skin c. Overexcretion of blood urea nitrogen d. Inability of body to tolerate cold temperatures

ANS: B Uremic frost is the deposition of urea crystals on the skin, not in the urine. The kidneys are unable to excrete blood urea nitrogen, leading to elevated levels. There is no relation between cold temperatures and uremic frost.

A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse would expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show: a. bacteriuria and hematuria. b. hematuria and proteinuria. c. bacteriuria and increased specific gravity. d. proteinuria and decreased specific gravity.

ANS: B Urinalysis during the acute phase characteristically shows hematuria and proteinuria. Bacteriuria and changes in specific gravity are not usually present during the acute phase.

What is the common vector reservoir for agents causing viral encephalitis in the United States? a. Tarantula spiders b. Mosquitoes c. Carnivorous wild animals d. Domestic and wild animals

ANS: B Viral encephalitis, not attributable to a childhood viral disease, is usually transmitted by mosquitoes and ticks. The vector reservoir for most agents pathogenic for humans and detected in the United States are mosquitoes and ticks; therefore, most cases of encephalitis appear during the hot summer months. Tarantulas, carnivorous wild animals, and domestic animals are not reservoirs for the agents that cause viral encephalitis.

What is a common sign of digoxin toxicity? a. Seizures b. Vomiting c. Bradypnea d. Tachycardia

ANS: B Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Seizures are not associated with digoxin toxicity. The child will have a slower heart rate, not respiratory rate.

The nurse, caring for an infant whose cleft lip was repaired, should include which interventions into the infant's postoperative plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Postural drainage b. Petroleum jelly to the suture line c. Elbow restraints d. Supine and side-lying positions e. Mouth irrigations

ANS: B, C Apply petroleum jelly to the operative site for several days after surgery. Elbows are restrained to prevent the child from accessing the operative site for up to 7 to 10 days. The child should be positioned on back or side or in an infant seat. Postural drainage is not indicated. This would increase the pressure on the operative site when the child is placed in different positions. Mouth irrigations would not be indicated.

A school-age child is admitted in vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. The child's care should include which intervention? (Select all that apply.) a. Correction of acidosis b. Adequate hydration c. Pain management d. Administration of heparin e. Replacement of factor VIII

ANS: B, C The management of crises includes adequate hydration, minimizing energy expenditures, pain management, electrolyte replacement, and blood component therapy if indicated. The acidosis will be corrected as the crisis is treated. Heparin and factor VIII are not indicated in the treatment of vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis.

The nurse is planning care for a school-age child admitted to the hospital with hemophilia. Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement for this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Fingersticks for blood work instead of venipunctures b. Avoidance of intramuscular (IM) injections c. Acetaminophen for mild pain control d. Soft toothbrush for dental hygiene e. Administration of packed red blood cells

ANS: B, C, D Nurses should take special precautions when caring for a child with hemophilia to prevent the use of procedures that may cause bleeding, such as IM injections. The subcutaneous route is substituted for IM injections whenever possible. Venipunctures for blood samples are usually preferred for these children. There is usually less bleeding after the venipuncture than after finger or heel punctures. Neither aspirin nor any aspirin-containing compound should be used. Acetaminophen is a suitable aspirin substitute, especially for controlling mild pain. A soft toothbrush is recommended for dental hygiene to prevent bleeding from the gums. Packed red blood cells are not administered. The primary therapy for hemophilia is replacement of the missing clotting factor. The products available are factor VIII concentrates.

The nurse is caring for a child with aplastic anemia. Which nursing diagnoses are appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Acute Pain related to vaso-occlusion b. Risk for Infection related to inadequate secondary defenses or immunosuppression c. Ineffective Protection related to thrombocytopenia d. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to anemia e. Ineffective Protection related to abnormal clotting

ANS: B, C, D These are appropriate nursing diagnosis for the nurse planning care for a child with aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is a condition in which the bone marrow ceases production of the cells it normally manufactures, resulting in pancytopenia. The child will have varying degrees of the disease depending on how low the values are for absolute neutrophil count (affecting the body's response to infection), platelet count (putting the child at risk for bleeding), and absolute reticulocyte count (causing the child to have anemia). Acute Pain related to vaso-occlusion is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for sickle cell anemia for the child in vaso-occlusive crisis, but it is not applicable to a child with aplastic anemia. Ineffective Protection related to abnormal clotting is an appropriate diagnosis for a child with hemophilia.

A school-age child has been admitted to the hospital diagnosed with minimal-change nephrotic syndrome. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight loss b. Generalized edema c. Proteinuria > 2+ d. Fatigue e. Irritability

ANS: B, C, D, E The disease is suspected on the basis of clinical manifestations that include generalized edema, steadily gaining weight; appearing edematous; and then becoming anorexic, irritable, and less active. The hallmark of this syndrome is proteinuria (higher than 2+ on urine dipstick).

Which statements regarding hepatitis B are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Hepatitis B cannot exist in a carrier state. b. Hepatitis B can be prevented by hepatitis B virus vaccine. c. Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding mother. d. The onset of hepatitis B is insidious. e. Immunity to hepatitis B occurs after one attack.

ANS: B, C, D, E The vaccine elicits the formation of an antibody to the hepatitis B surface antigen, which is protective against hepatitis B. Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding mother, especially if the mother's nipples are cracked. The onset of hepatitis B is insidious. Immunity develops after one exposure to hepatitis B. Hepatitis B can exist in a carrier state.

Constipation has recently become a problem for a school-age child who is being treated for seasonal allergies. The nurse should focus the assessment on what possibly related factor? a. Diet b. Allergies c. Antihistamines d. Emotional factors

ANS: C Constipation may be associated with drugs such as antihistamines, antacids, diuretics, opioids, antiepileptics, and iron. Because this is the only known recent change in her habits, the addition of antihistamines is most likely the etiology of the diarrhea, rather than diet, allergies, or emotional factors. With a change in bowel habits, the presence and role of any recently prescribed medications should be assessed.

A clinic nurse is conducting a staff in-service for other clinic nurses about signs and symptoms of a rhabdomyosarcoma tumor. Which should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Bone fractures b. Abdominal mass c. Sore throat and ear pain d. Headache e. Ecchymosis of conjunctiva

ANS: B, C, E The initial signs and symptoms of rhabdomyosarcoma tumors are related to the site of the tumor and compression of adjacent organs. Some tumor locations, such as the orbit, manifest early in the course of the illness. Other tumors, such as those of the retroperitoneal area, only produce symptoms when they are relatively large and compress adjacent organs. Unfortunately, many of the signs and symptoms attributable to rhabdomyosarcoma are vague and frequently suggest a common childhood illness, such as "earache" or "runny nose." An abdominal mass, sore throat and ear pain, and ecchymosis of conjunctiva are signs of a rhabdomyosarcoma tumor. Bone fractures would be seen in osteosarcoma, and a headache is a sign of a brain tumor.

Which should the nurse teach about prevention of sickle cell crises to parents of a preschool child with sickle cell disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Limit fluids at bedtime. b. Notify the health care provider if a fever of 38.5° C (101.3° F) or greater occurs. c. Give penicillin as prescribed. d. Use ice packs to decrease the discomfort of vaso-occlusive pain in the legs. e. Notify the health care provider if your child begins to develop symptoms of cold.

ANS: B, C, E The most important issues to teach the family of a child with sickle cell anemia are to (1) seek early intervention for problems, such as a fever of 38.5° C (101.3° F) or greater; (2) give penicillin as ordered; (3) recognize signs and symptoms of splenic sequestration, as well as respiratory problems that can lead to hypoxia; and (4) treat the child normally. The nurse emphasizes the importance of adequate hydration to prevent sickling and to delay the adhesion-stasis-thrombosis-ischemia cycle. It is not sufficient to advise parents to "force fluids" or "encourage drinking." They need specific instructions on how many daily glasses or bottles of fluid are required. Many foods are also a source of fluid, particularly soups, flavored ice pops, ice cream, sherbet, gelatin, and puddings. Increased fluids combined with impaired kidney function result in the problem of enuresis. Parents who are unaware of this fact frequently use the usual measures to discourage bed-wetting, such as limiting fluids at night. Enuresis is treated as a complication of the disease, such as joint pain or some other symptom, to alleviate parental pressure on the child. Ice should not be used during a vaso-occlusive pain crisis because it vasoconstricts and impairs circulation even more.

A mother who intended to breastfeed has given birth to an infant with a cleft palate. Which nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Giving medication to suppress lactation. b. Encouraging and helping mother to breastfeed. c. Teaching mother to feed breast milk by gavage. d. Recommending use of a breast pump to maintain lactation until infant can suck.

ANS: B, D The mother who wishes to breastfeed may need encouragement and support because the defect does present some logistical issues. The nipple must be positioned and stabilized well back in the infant's oral cavity so that the tongue action facilitates milk expression. The suction required to stimulate milk, absent initially, may be useful before nursing to stimulate the let-down reflex. Because breastfeeding is an option, if the mother wishes to breastfeed, medications should not be given to suppress lactation. Because breastfeeding can usually be accomplished, gavage feedings are not indicated.

Which expected appearance will the nurse explain to parents of an infant returning from surgery after an enucleation was performed to treat retinoblastoma? (Select all that apply.) a. A lot of drainage will come from the affected socket. b. The face may be edematous or ecchymotic. c. The eyelids will be sutured shut for the first week. d. There will be an eye pad dressing taped over the surgical site. e. The implanted sphere is covered with conjunctiva and resembles the lining of the mouth.

ANS: B, D, E After enucleation surgery, the parents are prepared for the child's facial appearance. An eye patch is in place, and the child's face may be edematous or ecchymotic. Parents often fear seeing the surgical site because they imagine a cavity in the skull. A surgically implanted sphere maintains the shape of the eyeball, and the implant is covered with conjunctiva. When the eyelids are open, the exposed area resembles the mucosal lining of the mouth. The dressing, consisting of an eye pad taped over the surgical site, is changed daily. The wound itself is clean and has little or no drainage. So expecting a lot of drainage is not accurate to tell parents. The eyelids are not sutured shut after enucleation surgery.

Parents of a school-age child with hemophilia ask the nurse, "Which sports are recommended for children with hemophilia?" Which sports should the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.) a. Soccer b. Swimming c. Basketball d. Golf e. Bowling

ANS: B, D, E Because almost all persons with hemophilia are boys, the physical limitations in regard to active sports may be a difficult adjustment, and activity restrictions must be tempered with sensitivity to the child's emotional and physical needs. Use of protective equipment, such as padding and helmets, is particularly important, and noncontact sports, especially swimming, walking, jogging, tennis, golf, fishing, and bowling, are encouraged. Contact sports such as soccer and basketball are not recommended.

The nurse is preparing to care for an infant returning from pyloromyotomy surgery. Which prescribed orders should the nurse anticipate implementing? (Select all that apply.) a. Nothing by mouth for 24 hours b. Administration of analgesics for pain c. Ice bag to the incisional area d. Intravenous (IV) fluids continued until tolerating fluids by mouth e. Clear liquids as the first feeding

ANS: B, D, E Feedings are usually instituted soon after a pyloromyotomy surgery, beginning with clear liquids and advancing to formula or breast milk as tolerated. IV fluids are administered until the infant is taking and retaining adequate amounts by mouth. Appropriate analgesics should be given round the clock because pain is continuous. Ice should not be applied to the incisional area as it vasoconstricts and would reduce circulation to the incisional area and impair healing.

The nurse is monitoring an infant for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which are late signs of increased ICP in an infant? (Select all that apply.) a. Tachycardia b. Alteration in pupil size and reactivity c. Increased motor response d. Extension or flexion posturing e. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

ANS: B, D, E Late signs of ICP in an infant or child include bradycardia, alteration in pupil size and reactivity, decreased motor response, extension or flexion posturing, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

Which neurologic diagnostic test gives a visualized horizontal and vertical cross section of the brain at any axis? a. Nuclear brain scan b. Echoencephalography c. Computed tomography (CT) scan d. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

ANS: C A CT scan provides visualization of the horizontal and vertical cross sections of the brain at any axis. A nuclear brain scan uses a radioisotope that accumulates where the blood-brain barrier is defective. Echoencephalography identifies shifts in midline structures of the brain as a result of intracranial lesions. MRI permits visualization of morphologic features of target structures and tissue discrimination that is unavailable with any other techniques.

Which statement is most descriptive of a concussion? a. Petechial hemorrhages cause amnesia. b. Visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue occur. c. It is a transient, reversible neuronal dysfunction. d. A slight lesion develops remote from the site of trauma.

ANS: C A concussion is a transient, reversible neuronal dysfunction with instantaneous loss of awareness and responsiveness resulting from trauma to the head. Petechial hemorrhages along the superficial aspects of the brain along the point of impact are a type of contusion but are not necessarily associated with amnesia. A contusion is visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue. Contrecoup is a lesion that develops remote from the site of trauma as a result of an acceleration/deceleration injury.

A child has been seizure-free for 2 years. A father asks the nurse how much longer the child will need to take the antiseizure medications. The nurse includes which intervention in the response? a. Medications can be discontinued at this time. b. The child will need to take the drugs for 5 years after the last seizure. c. A stepwise approach will be used to reduce the dosage gradually. d. Seizure disorders are a lifelong problem. Medications cannot be discontinued.

ANS: C A predesigned protocol is used to wean a child gradually off antiseizure medications, usually when the child is seizure-free for 2 years and has a normal electroencephalogram. Medications must be gradually reduced to minimize the recurrence of seizures. Seizure medications can be safely discontinued. The risk of recurrence is greatest within the first year.

Which condition is caused by a virus that primarily infects a specific subset of T lymphocytes, the CD4+ T-cells? a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) c. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) d. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

ANS: C AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus, which primarily attacks the CD4+ T-cells. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, ITP, and severe combined immunodeficiency disease are not viral illnesses.

When it is generally recommended that a child being treated for acute streptococcal pharyngitis may return to school? a. When the sore throat is better b. If no complications develop c. After taking antibiotics for 24 hours d. After taking antibiotics for 3 days

ANS: C After children have taken antibiotics for 24 hours, even if the sore throat persists, they are no longer contagious to other children. Complications may take days to weeks to develop.

When a 10 year old has been hit by a car while riding his bicycle in front of the school, the school nurse immediately assesses airway, breathing, and circulation. What should be the next nursing action? a. Place on side b. Take blood pressure c. Stabilize neck and spine d. Check scalp and back for bleeding

ANS: C After determining that the child is breathing and has adequate circulation, the next action is to stabilize the neck and spine to prevent any additional trauma. The child's position should not be changed until the neck and spine are stabilized. Blood pressure is a later assessment. Less urgent, but an important assessment, is inspection of the scalp for bleeding.

A child is brought to the emergency department experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting. While an airway is being established, what medication should the nurse prepare for immediate administration? a. Diphenhydramine b. Dopamine c. Epinephrine d. Calcium chloride

ANS: C After the first priority of establishing an airway, epinephrine is the drug of choice. Diphenhydramine is not a strong enough antihistamine for this severe a reaction. Dopamine and calcium chloride are not appropriate drugs for this type of reaction.

A 3-year-old child is hospitalized after a near-drowning accident. The child's mother complains to the nurse, "This seems unnecessary when he is perfectly fine." What is the nurse's best reply? a. "He still needs a little extra oxygen." b. "I'm sure he is fine, but the doctor wants to make sure." c. "The reason for this is that complications could still occur." d. "It is important to observe for possible central nervous system problems."

ANS: C All children who have a near-drowning experience should be admitted to the hospital for observation. Although many children do not appear to have suffered adverse effects from the event, complications such as respiratory compromise and cerebral edema may occur up to 24 hours after the incident. Aspiration pneumonia is a frequent complication that occurs about 48 to 72 hours after the episode. Stating that, "He still needs a little extra oxygen" does not respond directly to the mother's concern. Why is her child still receiving oxygen? The nurse should clarify that different complications can occur up to 24 hours later and that observations are necessary. The nurse should not provide statements that provide unfounded information, like "I'm sure he is fine."

What is used to treat moderate-to-severe inflammatory bowel disease? a. Antacids b. Antibiotics c. Corticosteroids d. Antidiarrheal medications

ANS: C Corticosteroids such as prednisone and prednisolone are used in short bursts to suppress the inflammatory response in inflammatory bowel disease. Antacids and antidiarrheals are not drugs of choice to treat the inflammatory process of inflammatory bowel disease. Antibiotics may be used as adjunctive therapy to treat complications.

A preschool child is scheduled for an echocardiogram. Parents ask the nurse whether they can hold the child during the procedure. The nurse should answer with which response? a. "You will be able to hold your child during the procedure." b. "Your child can be active during the procedure, but can't sit in your lap." c. "Your child must lie quietly; sometimes a mild sedative is administered before the procedure." d. "The procedure is invasive so your child will be restrained during the echocardiogram."

ANS: C Although an echocardiogram is noninvasive, painless, and associated with no known side effects, it can be stressful for children. The child must lie quietly in the standard echocardiographic positions; crying, nursing, being held, or sitting up often leads to diagnostic errors or omissions. Therefore, infants and young children may need a mild sedative; older children benefit from psychologic preparation for the test. The distraction of a video or movie is often helpful.

The nurse is teaching parents of a child with chronic renal failure (CRF) about the use of recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) subcutaneous injections. Which statement indicates the parents have understood the teaching? a. "These injections will help with the hypertension." b. "We're glad the injections only need to be given once a month." c. "The red blood cell count should begin to improve with these injections." d. "Urine output should begin to improve with these injections."

ANS: C Anemia in children with CRF is related to decreased production of erythropoietin. Recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) is being offered to these children as thrice-weekly or weekly subcutaneous injections and is replacing the need for frequent blood transfusions. The parents understand the teaching if they say that the red blood cell count will begin to improve with these injections.

Which defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow? a. Pulmonic stenosis b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial septal defect d. Transposition of the great arteries

ANS: C Atrial septal defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow. Blood flows from the left atrium (higher pressure) into the right atrium (lower pressure) and then to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Pulmonic stenosis is an obstruction to blood flowing from the ventricles. Tricuspid atresia results in decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great arteries results in mixed blood flow.

The nurse is planning activity for a 4-year-old child with anemia. Which activity should the nurse plan for this child? a. Game of "hide and seek" in the children's outdoor play area b. Participation in dance activities in the playroom c. Puppet play in the child's room d. A walk down to the hospital lobby

ANS: C Because the basic pathologic process in anemia is a decrease in oxygen-carrying capacity, an important nursing responsibility is to assess the child's energy level and minimize excess demands. The child's level of tolerance for activities of daily living and play is assessed, and adjustments are made to allow as much self-care as possible without undue exertion. Puppet play in the child's room would not be overly tiring. Hide and seek, dancing, and walking to the lobby would not conserve the anemic child's energy.

Which statement is most descriptive of Meckel's diverticulum? a. It is more common in females than in males. b. It is acquired during childhood. c. Intestinal bleeding may be mild or profuse. d. Medical interventions are usually sufficient to treat the problem.

ANS: C Blood stools are often a presenting sign of Meckel's diverticulum. It is associated with mild-to-profuse intestinal bleeding. It is twice as common in males as in females, and complications are more frequent in males. Meckel's diverticulum is the most common congenital malformation of the gastrointestinal tract and is present in 2% of the general population. The standard therapy is surgical removal of the diverticulum.

What major complication is noted in a child with chronic renal failure? a. Hypokalemia b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Water and sodium retention d. Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen

ANS: C Chronic renal failure leads to water and sodium retention, which contributes to edema and vascular congestion. Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and retention of blood urea nitrogen are complications of chronic renal failure.

Which type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain? a. Focal b. Partial c. Generalized d. Acquired

ANS: C Clinical observations of generalized seizures indicate that the initial involvement is from both hemispheres. Focal seizures may arise from any area of the cerebral cortex, but the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes are most commonly affected. Partial seizures are caused by abnormal electrical discharges from epileptogenic foci limited to a circumscribed region of the cerebral cortex. A seizure disorder that is acquired is a result of a brain injury from a variety of factors; it does not specify the type of seizure.

Clinical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants are: (Select all that apply.) a. Low-pitched cry b. Sunken fontanel c. Drowsiness d. Irritability e. Distended scalp veins f. Increased blood pressure

ANS: C, D, E Drowsiness, irritability, and distended scalp veins are signs of increased ICP in infants. Low-pitched cry, sunken fontanel, and increased blood pressure are not clinical manifestations associated with ICP in infants.

A young child's parents call the nurse after their child was bitten by a raccoon in the woods. The nurse's recommendation should be based on knowing that: a. the child should be hospitalized for close observation. b. no treatment is necessary if thorough wound cleaning is done. c. antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated. d. antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated if clinical manifestations appear.

ANS: C Current therapy for a rabid animal bite consists of a thorough cleansing of the wound and passive immunization with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) as soon as possible. Hospitalization is not necessary. The wound cleansing, passive immunization, and immune globulin administration can be done as an outpatient. The child needs to receive both HRIG and rabies vaccine.

Which type of fracture describes traumatic separation of cranial sutures? a. Basilar b. Compound c. Diastatic d. Depressed

ANS: C Diastatic skull fractures are traumatic separations of the cranial sutures. A basilar fracture involves the basilar portion of the frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, or occipital bone. A compound fracture has the bone exposed through the skin. A depressed fracture has the bone pushed inward, causing pressure on the brain.

The diet of a child with chronic renal failure is usually characterized as: a. high in protein. b. low in vitamin D. c. low in phosphorus. d. supplemented with vitamins A, E, and K.

ANS: C Dietary phosphorus is controlled to prevent or control the calcium/phosphorus imbalance by the reduction of protein and milk intake. Protein should be limited in chronic renal failure to decrease intake of phosphorus. Vitamin D therapy is administered in chronic renal failure to increase calcium absorption. Supplementation with vitamins A, E, and K is not part of dietary management in chronic renal disease.

A nurse is teaching an adolescent about essential hypertension. The nurse knows that which of the following is correct? a. Primary hypertension should be treated with diuretics as soon as it is detected. b. Congenital heart defects are the most common cause of primary hypertension. c. Primary hypertension may be treated with weight reduction. d. Primary hypertension is not affected by exercise.

ANS: C Essential hypertension in children may be treated with weight reduction and exercise programs. If ineffective, pharmacologic intervention may be needed. Primary hypertension is considered an inherited disorder.

The nurse is teaching the parent about the diet of a child experiencing severe edema associated with acute glomerulonephritis. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "You will need to decrease the number of calories in your child's diet." b. "Your child's diet will need an increased amount of protein." c. "You will need to avoid adding salt to your child's food." d. "Your child's diet will consist of low-fat, low-carbohydrate foods."

ANS: C For most children, a regular diet is allowed, but it should contain no added salt. The child should be offered a regular diet with favorite foods. Severe sodium restrictions are not indicated.

What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis? a. Risk for Injury related to malignant process and treatment. b. Deficient Fluid Volume related to excessive losses. c. Excess Fluid Volume related to decreased plasma filtration. d. Excess Fluid Volume related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces.

ANS: C Glomerulonephritis has a decreased filtration of plasma. The decrease in plasma filtration results in an excessive accumulation of water and sodium that expands plasma and interstitial fluid volumes, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. No malignant process is involved in acute glomerulonephritis. A fluid volume excess is found. The fluid accumulation is secondary to the decreased plasma filtration, not fluid accumulation.

What is the most common clinical manifestation(s) of brain tumors in children? a. Irritability b. Seizures c. Headaches and vomiting d. Fever and poor fine motor control

ANS: C Headaches, especially on awakening, and vomiting that is not related to feeding are the most common clinical manifestation(s) of brain tumors in children. Irritability, seizures, and fever and poor fine motor control are clinical manifestations of brain tumors, but headaches and vomiting are the most common.

The nurse is caring for a child after heart surgery. What intervention should the nurse implement immediately if evidence is found of cardiac tamponade? a. Increase analgesia b. Apply warming blankets c. Immediately report this to the physician d. Encourage the child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply

ANS: C If evidence is noted of cardiac tamponade (blood or fluid in the pericardial space constricting the heart), the physician is notified immediately of this life-threatening complication. Increasing analgesia may be done before the physician drains the fluid, but the physician must be notified. Warming blankets are not indicated at this time. Encouraging the child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply should be deferred until after the evaluation by the physician.

What is an important nursing consideration when suctioning a young child who has had heart surgery? a. Perform suctioning at least every hour. b. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time. c. Administer supplemental oxygen before and after suctioning. d. Expect symptoms of respiratory distress when suctioning.

ANS: C If suctioning is indicated, supplemental oxygen is administered with a manual resuscitation bag before and after the procedure to prevent hypoxia. Suctioning should be done only as indicated, not on a routine basis. The child should be suctioned for no more than 5 seconds at one time. Symptoms of respiratory distress are to be avoided by using the appropriate technique.

Which statement correctly describes b-thalassemia major (Cooley's anemia)? a. All formed elements of the blood are depressed. b. Inadequate numbers of red blood cells are present. c. Increased incidence occurs in families of Mediterranean extraction. d. Increased incidence occurs in persons of West African descent.

ANS: C Individuals who live near the Mediterranean Sea and their descendants have the highest incidence of thalassemia. An overproduction of red cells occurs. Although numerous, the red cells are relatively unstable. Sickle cell disease is common in blacks of West African descent.

Iron dextran is ordered for a young child with severe iron deficiency anemia. What nursing consideration should be considered? a. Administering with meals b. Administering between meals c. Injecting deeply into a large muscle d. Massaging injection site for 5 minutes after administration of drug

ANS: C Iron dextran is a parenteral form of iron. When administered intramuscularly, it must be injected into a large muscle using the Z-track method. Iron dextran is for intramuscular or intravenous administration; it is not taken orally. The site should not be massaged to prevent leakage, potential irritation, and staining of the skin. The administration has no relationship to food since it is not being given orally.

What intervention should be implemented prior to the removal of a child's chest tubes? a. Explain that it is not painful. b. Explain that only a Band-Aid will be needed. c. Administer analgesics before the procedure. d. Educate the patient to expect bright red drainage for several hours after removal.

ANS: C It is appropriate to prepare the child for the removal of chest tubes with analgesics. Short-acting medications can be used that are administered through an existing intravenous line. It is not a pain-free procedure. A sharp, momentary pain is felt, and this should not be misrepresented to the child. A petroleum gauze/airtight dressing is needed. Little or no drainage should be found on removal.

Which is most descriptive of the pathophysiology of leukemia? a. Increased blood viscosity occurs. b. Thrombocytopenia (excessive destruction of platelets) occurs. c. Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) occurs. d. First stage of coagulation process is abnormally stimulated.

ANS: C Leukemia is a group of malignant disorders of the bone marrow and lymphatic system. It is defined as an unrestricted proliferation of immature WBCs in the blood-forming tissues of the body. Increased blood viscosity may occur secondary to the increased number of WBCs. Thrombocytopenia may occur secondary to the overproduction of WBCs in the bone marrow. The coagulation process is unaffected by leukemia.

What is the initial clinical manifestation of generalized seizures? a. Being confused b. Feeling frightened c. Losing consciousness d. Seeing flashing lights

ANS: C Loss of consciousness is a frequent occurrence in generalized seizures and is the initial clinical manifestation. Being confused, feeling frightened, and seeing flashing lights are clinical manifestations of a complex partial seizure.

Which action by the school nurse is important in the prevention of rheumatic fever? a. Encourage routine cholesterol screenings. b. Conduct routine blood pressure screenings. c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures. d. Recommend salicylates instead of acetaminophen for minor discomforts.

ANS: C Nurses have a role in prevention—primarily in screening school-age children for sore throats caused by group A b-hemolytic streptococci. They can achieve this by actively participating in throat culture screening or by referring children with possible streptococcal sore throats for testing. Cholesterol and blood pressure screenings do not facilitate the recognition and treatment of group A b-hemolytic streptococci. Salicylates should be avoided routinely because of the risk of Reye's syndrome after viral illnesses.

Therapeutic management of the child with acute diarrhea and dehydration usually begins with what intervention? a. Clear liquids b. Adsorbents such as kaolin and pectin c. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) d. Antidiarrheal medications such as paregoric

ANS: C ORS is the first treatment for acute diarrhea. Clear liquids are not recommended because they contain too much sugar, which may contribute to diarrhea. Adsorbents are not recommended and neither are antidiarrheal because they do not get rid of pathogens.

Which term is used to describe a child's level of consciousness when the child can be aroused with stimulation? a. Stupor b. Confusion c. Obtundation d. Disorientation

ANS: C Obtundation describes a level of consciousness in which the child can be aroused with stimulation. Stupor is a state in which the child remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation. Confusion is impaired decision making. Disorientation is confusion regarding time and place.

It is appropriate, when caring for an unconscious child, to implement which intervention? a. Change the child's position infrequently to minimize the chance of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). b. Avoid using narcotics or sedatives to provide comfort and pain relief. c. Monitor fluid intake and output carefully to avoid fluid overload and cerebral edema. d. Give tepid sponge baths to reduce fever because antipyretics are contraindicated.

ANS: C Often comatose patients cannot cope with the quantity of fluids that they normally tolerate. Overhydration must be avoided to prevent fatal cerebral edema. The child's position should be changed frequently to avoid complications such as pneumonia and skin breakdown. Narcotics and sedatives should be used as necessary to reduce pain and discomfort, which can increase ICP. Antipyretics are the method of choice for fever reduction.

An 8-year-old child is diagnosed with influenza, probably type A disease. What intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Clear liquid diet for hydration b. Aspirin to control fever c. Oseltamivir to reduce symptoms d. Antibiotics to prevent bacterial infection

ANS: C Oseltamivir may reduce symptoms related to influenza type A if administered within 48 hours of onset of symptoms. It is effective against type A or B. A clear liquid diet is not necessary for influenza, but maintaining hydration is important. Aspirin is not recommended in children because of increased risk of Reye's syndrome. Acetaminophen or ibuprofen is a better choice. Preventive antibiotics are not indicated for influenza unless there is evidence of a secondary bacterial infection.

A nurse is conducting dietary teaching on high-fiber foods for parents of a child with constipation. Which foods should the nurse include as being high in fiber? (Select all that apply.) a. White rice b. Avocados c. Whole grain breads d. Bran pancakes e. Raw carrots

ANS: C, D, E High-fiber foods include whole grain breads, bran pancakes, and raw carrots. Unrefined (brown) rice is high in fiber but white rice is not. Raw fruits, especially those with skins or seeds, other than ripe banana or avocados are high in fiber.

Which term is used to describe a clinical manifestation of the systemic venous congestion that can occur with congestive heart failure? a. Tachypnea b. Tachycardia c. Peripheral edema d. Pale, cool extremities

ANS: C Peripheral edema, especially periorbital edema, is a clinical manifestation of systemic venous congestion. Tachypnea is a manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Tachycardia and pale, cool extremities are clinical manifestations of impaired myocardial function.

What is the term used to identify when the meatal opening is located on the dorsal surface of the penis? a. Chordee b. Phimosis c. Epispadias d. Hypospadias

ANS: C Phimosis is the narrowing or stenosis of the preputial opening of the foreskin. Chordee is the ventral curvature of the penis. Epispadias is the meatal opening on the dorsal surface of the penis. Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located anywhere along the ventral surface of the penis.

Several blood tests are ordered for a preschool child with severe anemia. She is crying and upset because she remembers the venipuncture done at the clinic 2 days ago. The nurse should explain that: a. venipuncture discomfort is very brief. b. only one venipuncture will be needed. c. topical application of local anesthetic can eliminate venipuncture pain. d. most blood tests on children require only a finger puncture because a small amount of blood is needed.

ANS: C Preschool children are very concerned about both pain and the loss of blood. When preparing the child for venipuncture, a topical anesthetic will be used to eliminate any pain. This is a very traumatic experience for preschool children. They are concerned about their bodily integrity. A local anesthetic should be used, and a bandage should be applied to maintain bodily integrity. A promise that only one venipuncture will be needed should not be made in case multiple attempts are required. Both finger punctures and venipunctures are traumatic for children. Both require preparation.

The viral pathogen that frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children is: a. Giardia organisms. b. Shigella organisms. c. Rotavirus. d. Salmonella organisms.

ANS: C Rotavirus is the most frequent viral pathogen that causes diarrhea in young children. Giardia and Salmonella are bacterial pathogens that cause diarrhea. Shigella is a bacterial pathogen that is uncommon in the United States.

When caring for a child with probable appendicitis, the nurse should be alert to recognize what sign of perforation? a. Bradycardia b. Anorexia c. Sudden relief from pain d. Decreased abdominal distention

ANS: C Signs of peritonitis, in addition to fever, include sudden relief from pain after perforation. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of peritonitis. Anorexia is already a clinical manifestation of appendicitis. Abdominal distention usually increases in addition to an increase in pain (usually diffuse and accompanied by rigid guarding of the abdomen).

What is the major focus of the therapeutic management for a child with lactose intolerance? a. Compliance with the medication regimen b. Providing emotional support to family members c. Teaching dietary modifications d. Administration of daily normal saline enemas

ANS: C Simple dietary modifications are effective in the management of lactose intolerance. Symptoms of lactose intolerance are usually relieved after instituting a lactose-free diet. Medications are not typically ordered in the management of lactose intolerance. Providing emotional support to family members is not specific to this medical condition. Diarrhea is a manifestation of lactose intolerance. Enemas are contraindicated for this alteration in bowel elimination.

A parent whose two school-age children diagnosed with exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB) asks the nurse in what sports, if any, they can participate. The nurse should recommend which sport? a. Soccer b. Running c. Swimming d. Basketball

ANS: C Swimming is well tolerated in children with EIB because they are breathing air fully saturated with moisture and because of the type of breathing required in swimming. Exercise-induced bronchospasm is more common in sports that involve endurance, such as soccer, running, and basketball. Prophylaxis with medications may be necessary.

Which intervention for treating croup at home should be taught to parents? a. Have a decongestant available to give the child when an attack occurs. b. Have the child sleep in a dry room. c. Take the child outside if air is cool and moist. d. Give the child an antibiotic at bedtime.

ANS: C Taking the child into the cool, humid, night air may relieve mucosal swelling and improve symptoms. Decongestants are inappropriate for croup, which affects the middle airway level. A dry environment may contribute to symptoms. Croup is caused by a virus. Antibiotic treatment is not indicated.

Which statement most accurately describes the pathologic changes of sickle cell anemia? a. Sickle-shaped cells carry excess oxygen b. Sickle-shaped cells decrease blood viscosity c. Increased red blood cell destruction occurs d. Decreased red blood cell destruction occurs

ANS: C The clinical features of sickle cell anemia are primarily the result of increased red blood cell destruction and obstruction caused by the sickle-shaped red blood cells. Sickled red cells have decreased oxygen-carrying capacity and transform into the sickle shape in conditions of low oxygen tension. When the sickle cells change shape, they increase the viscosity in the area where they are involved in the microcirculation.

What is best described as the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures? a. Pulmonary congestion b. Congenital heart defect c. Heart failure d. Systemic venous congestion

ANS: C The definition of heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures to meet the metabolic demands of the body. Pulmonary congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Congenital heart defect is a malformation of the heart present at birth. Systemic venous congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the systemic vasculature.

It is now recommended that children with asthma who are taking long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently to monitor for what increased risk? a. Cough b. Osteoporosis c. Slowed growth d. Cushing's syndrome

ANS: C The growth of children on long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently to assess for systemic effects of these drugs. Cough is prevented by inhaled steroids. No evidence exists that inhaled steroids cause osteoporosis. Cushing's syndrome is caused by long-term systemic steroids.

As related to inherited disorders, which statement is descriptive of most cases of hemophilia? a. Autosomal dominant disorder causing deficiency in a factor involved in the blood-clotting reaction b. X-linked recessive inherited disorder causing deficiency of platelets and prolonged bleeding c. X-linked recessive inherited disorder in which a blood-clotting factor is deficient d. Y-linked recessive inherited disorder in which the red blood cells become moon shaped

ANS: C The inheritance pattern in 80% of all of the cases of hemophilia is X-linked recessive. The two most common forms of the disorder are factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia A or classic hemophilia), and factor IX deficiency (hemophilia B or Christmas disease). The disorder involves coagulation factors, not platelets. The disorder does not involve red cells or the Y chromosome.

What is the primary purpose of prescribing a histamine receptor antagonist for an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux? a. Prevent reflux b. Prevent hematemesis. c. Reduce gastric acid production. d. Increase gastric acid production.

ANS: C The mechanism of action of histamine receptor antagonists is to reduce the amount of acid present in gastric contents and may prevent esophagitis. None of the remaining options are modes of action of histamine receptor antagonists but rather desired effects of medication therapy.

The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation b. Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds c. Visible peristalsis and weight loss d. Distention of lower abdomen and constipation

ANS: C Visible gastric peristaltic waves that move from left to right across the epigastrium are observed in pyloric stenosis, as is weight loss. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation, and rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds, are usually not present. The upper abdomen is distended, not the lower abdomen.

A school-age child diagnosed with leukemia experienced severe nausea and vomiting when receiving chemotherapy for the first time. Which is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent or minimize these reactions with subsequent treatments? a. Encourage drinking large amounts of favorite fluids. b. Encourage child to take nothing by mouth (remain NPO) until nausea and vomiting subside. c. Administer an antiemetic at least 30 minutes before chemotherapy begins. d. Administer an antiemetic as soon as child has nausea.

ANS: C The most beneficial regimen to minimize nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy is to administer the antiemetic 30 minutes to an hour before the chemotherapy is begun. The goal is to prevent anticipatory symptoms. Drinking fluids will add to the discomfort of the nausea and vomiting. Waiting until nausea and vomiting subside will help with this episode, but the child will have the discomfort and be at risk for dehydration. Administering an antiemetic as soon as the child has nausea does not prevent anticipatory nausea.

The parents of a child diagnosed with aplastic anemia tell the nurse that a bone marrow transplant (BMT) may be necessary. What should the nurse recognize as important when discussing this with the family? a. BMT should be done at time of diagnosis. b. Parents and siblings of child have a 25% chance of being a suitable donor. c. Finding a suitable donor involves matching antigens from the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system. d. If BMT fails, chemotherapy or radiotherapy must be continued.

ANS: C The most successful BMTs come from suitable HLA-matched donors. The timing of a BMT depends on the disease process involved. It usually follows intensive high-dose chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. Usually parents only share approximately 50% of the genetic material with their children. A one-in-four chance exists that two siblings will have two identical haplotypes and will be identically matched at the HLA loci. Discussing the continuation of chemotherapy or radiotherapy is not appropriate when planning the BMT. That decision will be made later.

The nurse is admitting a school-age child in acute renal failure with reduced glomerular filtration rate. Which urine test is the most useful clinical indication of glomerular filtration rate? a. pH b. Osmolality c. Creatinine clearance d. Protein level

ANS: C The most useful clinical indication of glomerular filtration is the clearance of creatinine. It is a substance that is freely filtered by the glomerulus and secreted by the renal tubule cells. The pH and osmolality are not estimates of glomerular filtration. Although protein in the urine demonstrates abnormal glomerular permeability, it is not a measure of filtration rate.

When teaching the mother of a 9-month-old infant about administering liquid iron preparations, the nurse should include that information? a. They should be given with meals. b. They should be stopped immediately if nausea and vomiting occur. c. Adequate dosage will turn the stools a tarry green color. d. Preparation should be allowed to mix with saliva and bathe the teeth before swallowing.

ANS: C The nurse should prepare the mother for the anticipated change in the child's stools. If the iron dose is adequate, the stools will become a tarry green color. The lack of the color change may indicate insufficient iron. The iron should be given in two divided doses between meals, when the presence of free hydrochloric acid is greatest. Iron is absorbed best in an acidic environment. Vomiting and diarrhea may occur with iron administration. If these occur, the iron should be given with meals, and the dosage reduced and gradually increased as the child develops tolerance. Liquid preparations of iron stain the teeth. They should be administered through a straw, and the mouth rinsed after administration.

A 5 year old sustained a concussion when falling out of a tree. In preparation for discharge, the nurse is discussing home care with the mother. Which statement made by the mother indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should expect my child to have a few episodes of vomiting." b. "If I notice sleep disturbances, I should contact the physician immediately." c. "I should expect my child to have some difficulty concentrating for a while." d. "If I notice diplopia, I will have my child rest for 1 hour."

ANS: C The parents are advised of probably posttraumatic symptoms that may be expected, including difficulty concentrating, and memory impairment. If the child has episodes of vomiting, sleep disturbances, or diplopia, they should be immediately reported for evaluation.

The nurse is caring for a 10-month-old infant diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis. Which interventions should be included in the child's care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer antibiotics b. Administer cough syrup c. Encourage infant to drink 8 ounces of formula every 4 hours d. Institute cluster care to encourage adequate rest e. Place on noninvasive oxygen monitoring

ANS: C, D, E Hydration is important in children with RSV bronchiolitis to loosen secretions and prevent shock. Clustering of care promotes periods of rest. The use of noninvasive oxygen monitoring is recommended.

A nurse is conducting discharge teaching to parents about the care of their infant after cardiac surgery. The nurse instructs the parents to notify the physician if what conditions occur? (Select all that apply.) a. Respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute at rest b. Appetite slowly increasing c. Temperature above 37.7° C (100° F) d. New, frequent coughing e. Turning blue or bluer than normal

ANS: C, D, E The parents should be instructed to notify the physician after their infant's cardiac surgery for a temperature above 37.7° C (100° F); new, frequent coughing; and any episodes of the infant turning blue or bluer than normal. A respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute at rest for an infant is within normal expectations, and it is expected that the appetite will increase slowly.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching about signs and symptoms of heart failure to parents of an infant with a repaired tetralogy of Fallot. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Warm flushed extremities b. Weight loss c. Decreased urinary output d. Sweating (inappropriate) e. Anorexia

ANS: C, D, E The signs and symptoms of heart failure include decreased urinary output, sweating, and poor feeding. Other signs include pale, cool extremities, not warm and flushed, and weight gain, not weight loss.

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and decompensated develops? (Select all that apply.) a. Thirst and diminished urinary output b. Irritability and apprehension c. Cool extremities and decreased skin turgor d. Confusion and somnolence e. Normal blood pressure and narrowing pulse pressure f. Tachypnea and poor capillary refill time

ANS: C, D, F Cool extremities, decreased skin turgor, confusion, somnolence, tachypnea, and poor capillary refill time are beginning signs of decompensated shock.

Nursing interventions for the child after a cardiac catheterization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow ambulation as tolerated. b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours. c. Assess the affected extremity for temperature and color. d. Check pulses above the catheterization site for equality and symmetry. e. Remove pressure dressing after 4 hours. f. Maintain a patent peripheral intravenous catheter until discharge.

ANS: C, F The extremity that was used for access for the cardiac catheterization must be checked for temperature and color. Coolness and blanching may indicate arterial occlusion. The child should have a patent peripheral intravenous line to ensure adequate hydration. Allowing ambulation, monitoring vital signs every 2 hours, checking pulses, and removing the pressure dressing after 4 hours are interventions that do not apply to a child after a cardiac catheterization.

Which type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ? a. Hiatal hernia b. Incarcerated hernia c. Omphalocele d. Strangulated hernia

ANS: D A strangulated hernia is one in which the blood supply to the herniated organ is impaired. A hiatal hernia is the intrusion of an abdominal structure, usually the stomach, through the esophageal hiatus. An incarcerated hernia is a hernia that cannot be reduced easily. Omphalocele is the protrusion of intraabdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord. The sac is covered with peritoneum and not skin.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is suspected in a toddler. Which test is essential in establishing this diagnosis? a. Bronchoscopy b. Serum calcium c. Urine creatinine d. Sweat chloride test

ANS: D A sweat chloride test result greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF. Although bronchoscopy is helpful for identifying bacterial infection in children with CF, it is not diagnostic. Serum calcium is normal in children with CF. Urine creatinine is not diagnostic of CF.

Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect when a child diagnosed with sickle cell anemia experiences an acute vaso-occlusive crisis? a. Circulatory collapse b. Cardiomegaly, systolic murmurs c. Hepatomegaly, intrahepatic cholestasis d. Painful swelling of hands and feet, painful joints

ANS: D A vaso-occlusive crisis is characterized by severe pain in the area of involvement. If in the extremities, painful swelling of the hands and feet is seen; if in the abdomen, severe pain resembles that of acute surgical abdomen; and if in the head, stroke and visual disturbances occur. Circulatory collapse results from sequestration crises. Cardiomegaly, systolic murmurs, hepatomegaly, and intrahepatic cholestasis result from chronic vaso-occlusive phenomena.

The nurse is preparing a child for possible alopecia from chemotherapy. Which intervention should be included? a. Explain to child that hair usually regrows in 1 year. b. Advise child to expose head to sunlight to minimize alopecia. c. Explain to child that wearing a hat or scarf is preferable to wearing a wig. d. Explain to child that when hair regrows, it may have a slightly different color or texture.

ANS: D Alopecia is a side effect of certain chemotherapeutic agents. When the hair regrows, it may be a different color or texture. The hair usually grows back within 3 to 6 months after cessation of treatment. The head should be protected from sunlight to avoid

What action may be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reye's syndrome? a. Immunization against the disease b. Medical attention for all head injuries c. Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis d. Avoidance of aspirin and ibuprofen for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza

ANS: D Although the etiology of Reye's syndrome is obscure, most cases follow a common viral illness, either varicella or influenza. A potential association exists between aspirin therapy and the development of Reye's syndrome; thus use of aspirin is avoided. No immunization currently exists for Reye's syndrome. Reye's syndrome is not correlated with head injuries or bacterial meningitis.

A mother asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis is improving. The nurse's best response should be to identify which occurrence? a. Blood pressure will stabilize. b. Child will have more energy. c. Urine will be free of protein. d. Urinary output will increase.

ANS: D An increase in urinary output may signal resolution of the acute glomerulonephritis. If blood pressure is elevated, stabilization usually occurs with the improvement in renal function. The child having more energy and the urine being free of protein are related to the improvement in urinary output.

What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy? a. Neurogenic shock b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Anaphylactic shock

ANS: D Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Neurogenic shock results from loss of neuronal control, such as the interruption of neuronal transmission that occurs from a spinal cord injury. Cardiogenic shock is decreased cardiac output. Hypovolemic shock is a reduction in the size of the vascular compartment, decreasing blood pressure, and low central venous pressure.

What is the primary result of anemia? a. Increased blood viscosity. b. Depressed hematopoietic system. c. Presence of abnormal hemoglobin. d. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.

ANS: D Anemia is a condition in which the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin concentration is reduced below the normal values for age. This results in a decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Increased blood viscosity is usually a function of too many cells or of dehydration, not of anemia. A depressed hematopoietic system or abnormal hemoglobin can contribute to anemia, but the definition depends on the deceased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

Which is a common clinical manifestation of Hodgkin disease? a. Petechiae b. Bone and joint pain c. Painful, enlarged lymph nodes d. Enlarged, firm, nontender lymph nodes

ANS: D Asymptomatic, enlarged, cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is the most common presentation of Hodgkin disease. Petechiae are usually associated with leukemia. Bone and joint pain are not likely in Hodgkin disease. The enlarged nodes are rarely painful.

What intervention should the nurse share with parents on how to prevent iron deficiency anemia in a healthy, term, breastfed infant? a. Iron (ferrous sulfate) drops after age 1 month b. Iron-fortified commercial formula can be used by ages 4 to 6 months c. Iron-fortified solid foods are introduced at 3 months d. Iron-fortified infant cereal can be introduced at approximately 6 months of age

ANS: D Breast milk supplies inadequate iron for growth and development after age 5 months. Supplementation is necessary at this time. Iron supplementation or the introduction of solid foods in a breastfed baby is not indicated. Introducing iron-fortified infant cereal at 2 months should be done only if the mother is choosing to discontinue breastfeeding.

What is a common, serious complication of rheumatic fever? a. Seizures b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Cardiac valve damage

ANS: D Cardiac valve damage is the most significant complication of rheumatic fever. Seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and pulmonary hypertension are not common complications of rheumatic fever.

Which clinical manifestation would be seen in a child with chronic renal failure? a. Hypotension b. Massive hematuria c. Hypokalemia d. Unpleasant "uremic" breath odor

ANS: D Children with chronic renal failure have a characteristic breath odor resulting from the retention of waste products. Hypertension may be a complication of chronic renal failure. With chronic renal failure, little or no urine output occurs. Hyperkalemia is a concern in chronic renal failure.

What should the nurse stress in a teaching plan for the mother of an 11-year-old diagnosed with ulcerative colitis? a. Preventing the spread of illness to others b. Nutritional guidance and preventing constipation c. Teaching daily use of enemas d. Coping with stress and avoiding triggers

ANS: D Coping with the stress of chronic illness and the clinical manifestations associated with ulcerative colitis (diarrhea, pain) are important teaching foci. Avoidance of triggers can help minimize the impact of the disease and its effect on the child. Ulcerative colitis is not infectious. Although nutritional guidance is a priority teaching focus, diarrhea is a problem with ulcerative colitis, not constipation. Daily enemas are not part of the therapeutic plan of care.

Which intervention is appropriate when examining a male infant for cryptorchidism? a. Cooling the examiner's hands b. Taking a rectal temperature c. Eliciting the cremasteric reflex d. Warming the room

ANS: D Cryptorchidism is the failure of one or both testes to descend normally through inguinal canal. For the infant's comfort, the infant should be examined in a warm room with the examiner's hands warmed. Testes can retract into the inguinal canal if the infant is upset or cold. Examining the infant with cold hands is uncomfortable for the infant and likely to cause the infant's testes to retract into the inguinal canal. It may also cause the infant to be uncooperative during the examination. A rectal temperature yields no information about cryptorchidism. Testes can retract into the inguinal canal if the cremasteric reflex is elicited. This can lead to an incorrect diagnosis.

The parents of a young child with congestive heart failure tell the nurse that they are "nervous" about giving digoxin. The nurse's response should be based on knowing what information? a. It is a safe, frequently used drug. b. It is difficult to either overmedicate or undermedicate with digoxin. c. Parents lack the expertise necessary to administer digoxin. d. Parents must learn specific, important guidelines for administration of digoxin.

ANS: D Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range. The margin of safety between therapeutic, toxic, and lethal doses is very small. Specific guidelines are available for parents to learn how to administer the drug safely and monitor for side effects. Digoxin is a frequently used drug, but it has a narrow therapeutic range. Very small amounts of the liquid are given to infants, which makes it easy to overmedicate or undermedicate. Parents may lack the necessary expertise to administer the drug at first, but with discharge preparation they should be prepared to administer the drug safely.

Pancreatic enzymes are administered to the child with cystic fibrosis. What information should be included in patient education concerning the administration of these enzymes? a. Do not administer pancreatic enzymes if the child is receiving antibiotics. b. Decrease dose of pancreatic enzymes if the child is having frequent, bulky stools. c. Administer pancreatic enzymes between meals if at all possible. d. Pancreatic enzymes can be swallowed whole or sprinkled on a small amount of food taken at the beginning of a meal.

ANS: D Enzymes may be administered in a small amount of cereal or fruit or swallowed whole at the beginning of a meal, not between meals. Pancreatic enzymes are not contraindicated with antibiotics. The dose of enzymes should be increased if the child is having frequent, bulky stools.

Which vitamin supplements are necessary for children with cystic fibrosis? a. Vitamin C and calcium b. Vitamins B6 and B12 c. Magnesium d. Vitamins A, D, E, and K

ANS: D Fat-soluble vitamins are poorly absorbed because of deficient pancreatic enzymes in children with cystic fibrosis; therefore, supplements are necessary. Vitamin C and calcium are not fat soluble. Vitamins B6 and B12 are not fat-soluble vitamins. Magnesium is a mineral, not a vitamin.

The mother of a 1-month-old infant tells the nurse that she worries that her baby will get meningitis like her oldest son did when he was an infant. On what information should the nurse's response be based upon? a. Meningitis rarely occurs during infancy. b. Often a genetic predisposition to meningitis is found. c. Vaccination to prevent all types of meningitis is now available. d. Vaccination to prevent Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis has decreased the frequency of this disease in children.

ANS: D H. influenzae type B meningitis has virtually been eradicated in areas of the world where the vaccine is administered routinely. Bacterial meningitis remains a serious illness in children. It is significant because of the residual damage caused by undiagnosed and untreated or inadequately treated cases. The leading causes of neonatal meningitis are the group B streptococci and Escherichia coli organisms. Meningitis is an extension of a variety of bacterial infections. No genetic predisposition exists. Vaccinations are not available for all of the potential causative organisms.

When discussing hyperlipidemia with a group of adolescents, the nurse should explain that high levels of what substance are thought to protect against cardiovascular disease? a. Cholesterol b. Triglycerides c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) d. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

ANS: D HDLs contain very low concentrations of triglycerides, relatively little cholesterol, and high levels of proteins. It is thought that HDLs protect against cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol, triglycerides, and LDLs do not protect against cardiovascular disease.

Careful hand washing before and after contact can prevent the spread of which condition in day care and school settings? a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Ulcerative colitis c. Hepatic cirrhosis d. Hepatitis A

ANS: D Hepatitis A is spread person to person, by the fecal-oral route, and through contaminated food or water. Good hand washing is critical in preventing its spread. The virus can survive on contaminated objects for weeks. Irritable bowel syndrome is the result of increased intestinal motility and is not contagious. Ulcerative colitis and cirrhosis are not infectious.

When caring for the child with Kawasaki disease, the nurse should understand that principle of care? a. The child's fever is usually responsive to antibiotics within 48 hours. b. The principal area of involvement is the joints. c. Aspirin is contraindicated. d. Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and aspirin.

ANS: D High-dose intravenous gamma globulin and aspirin therapy are indicated to reduce the incidence of coronary artery abnormalities when given within the first 10 days of the illness. The fever of Kawasaki disease is unresponsive to antibiotics and antipyretics. Involvement of mucous membranes and conjunctiva, changes in the extremities, and cardiac involvement are seen.

The nurse, caring for a child with acute renal failure, should recognize event as a sign of hyperkalemia? a. Dyspnea b. Seizure c. Oliguria d. Cardiac arrhythmia

ANS: D Hyperkalemia is the most common threat to the life of the child. Signs of hyperkalemia include electrocardiographic anomalies such as prolonged QRS complex, depressed ST segments, peaked T waves, bradycardia, or heart block. Dyspnea, seizure, and oliguria are not manifestations of hyperkalemia.

Which type of dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss? a. Isotonic dehydration b. Isosmotic dehydration c. Hypotonic dehydration d. Hypertonic dehydration

ANS: D Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. This is the most dangerous type of dehydration. It is caused by feeding children fluids with high amounts of solute. Isotonic dehydration occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in balanced proportion. Isosmotic dehydration is another term for isotonic dehydration. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic.

The nurse understands that hypospadias refers to what urinary anomaly? a. Absence of a urethral opening. b. Penis shorter than usual for age. c. Urethral opening along dorsal surface of penis. d. Urethral opening along ventral surface of penis.

ANS: D Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located anywhere along the ventral surface of the penis. The urethral opening is present, but not at the glans. Hypospadias does not refer to the size of the penis. When the urethral opening is along the dorsal surface of the penis, it is known as epispadias.

When should the parent of an infant with nasopharyngitis be instructed to notify the health care professional? a. Becomes fussy b. Has a cough c. Has a fever over 99° F d. Shows signs of an earache

ANS: D If an infant with nasopharyngitis has a fever over 101° F, there is early evidence of respiratory complications. Irritability and a slight fever are common in an infant with a viral illness. Cough can be a sign of nasopharyngitis.

The nurse is caring for a school-age girl who has had a cardiac catheterization. The child tells the nurse that her bandage is "too wet." The nurse finds the bandage and bed soaked with blood. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action? a. Notify the physician. b. Apply a new bandage with more pressure. c. Place the child in the Trendelenburg position. d. Apply direct pressure above the catheterization site.

ANS: D If bleeding occurs, direct continuous pressure is applied 2.5 cm (1 inch) above the percutaneous skin site to localize pressure over the vessel puncture. Notifying the physician and applying a new bandage with more pressure can be done after pressure is applied. The nurse can have someone else notify the physician while the pressure is being maintained. The Trendelenburg position would not be helpful; it would increase the drainage from the lower extremities.

What name is given to identify an acquired hemorrhagic disorder that is characterized by excessive destruction of platelets? a. Aplastic anemia b. Thalassemia major c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Immune thrombocytopenia

ANS: D Immune thrombocytopenia is an acquired hemorrhagic disorder characterized by an excessive destruction of platelets, discolorations caused by petechiae beneath the skin, and a normal bone marrow. Aplastic anemia refers to a bone marrow failure condition in which the formed elements of the blood are simultaneously depressed. Thalassemia major is a group of blood disorders characterized by deficiency in the production rate of specific hemoglobin globin chains. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by diffuse fibrin deposition in the microvasculature, consumption of coagulation factors, and endogenous generation of thrombin and plasma.

Seventy-two hours after cardiac surgery, a young child has a temperature of 37.7° C (101° F). The nurse should initially implement which intervention? a. Keep the child warm with blankets b. Apply a hypothermia blanket c. Record the temperature on nurses' notes d. Report findings to physician

ANS: D In the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery, the body temperature may increase to 37.7° C (100° F) as part of the inflammatory response to tissue trauma. If the temperature is higher or an elevated temperature continues after this period, it is most likely a sign of an infection and immediate investigation is indicated. Blankets should be removed from the child to keep the temperature from increasing. A hypothermia blanket is not indicated for this level of temperature. The temperature should be recorded, but the physician must be notified for evaluation.

An infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis experiences excessive vomiting that can result in which condition? a. Hyperchloremia b. Hypernatremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: D Infants with excessive vomiting are prone to metabolic alkalosis from the loss of hydrogen ions. Chloride ions and sodium are lost with vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, is likely.

Which diagnostic finding is present when a child has primary nephrotic syndrome? a. Hyperalbuminemia b. Positive ASO titer c. Leukocytosis d. Proteinuria

ANS: D Large amounts of protein are lost through the urine as a result of an increased permeability of the glomerular basement membrane. Hypoalbuminemia is present because of loss of albumin through the defective glomerulus and the liver's inability to synthesize proteins to balance the loss. ASO titer is negative in a child with primary nephrotic syndrome. Leukocytosis is not a diagnostic finding in primary nephrotic syndrome.

Which information should the nurse stress to workers at a day care center about respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)? a. RSV is transmitted through particles in the air. b. RSV can live on skin or paper for up to a few seconds after contact. c. RSV can survive on nonporous surfaces for about 60 minutes. d. Frequent hand washing can decrease the spread of the virus.

ANS: D Meticulous hand washing can decrease the spread of organisms. RSV infection is not airborne. It is acquired mainly through contact with contaminated surfaces. RSV can live on skin or paper for up to 1 hour and on cribs and other nonporous surfaces for up to 6 hours.

Therapeutic management of most children with Hirschsprung's disease is primarily: a. daily enemas. b. low-fiber diet. c. permanent colostomy. d. surgical removal of affected section of bowel.

ANS: D Most children with Hirschsprung's disease require surgical rather than medical management. Surgery is done to remove the aganglionic portion of the bowel, relieve obstruction, and restore normal bowel motility and function of the internal anal sphincter. Preoperative management may include enemas and low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet until the child is physically ready for surgery. The colostomy that is created in Hirschsprung's disease is usually temporary.

A stool specimen from a child with diarrhea shows the presence of neutrophils and red blood cells. This is most suggestive of which condition? a. Protein intolerance b. Parasitic infection c. Fat malabsorption d. Bacterial gastroenteritis

ANS: D Neutrophils and red blood cells in stool indicate bacterial gastroenteritis. Protein intolerance is suspected in the presence of eosinophils. Parasitic infection is indicated by eosinophils. Fat malabsorption is indicated by foul-smelling, greasy, bulky stools.

A nurse providing care to a child diagnosed with chronic otitis media with effusion (OME) will assess for which sign/symptom? a. Fever as high as 40° C (104° F) b. Severe pain in the ear c. Nausea and vomiting d. A feeling of fullness in the ear

ANS: D OME is characterized by an immobile or orange-discolored tympanic membrane and nonspecific complaints of fullness in the ear. OME does not generally cause severe pain. Fever and severe pain may be signs of AOM. Nausea and vomiting are associated with otitis media.

The nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just started dialysis. The child seems always angry, hostile, or depressed. What should the nurse contribute this behavior to? a. Neurologic manifestations that occur with dialysis b. Physiologic manifestations of renal disease c. Adolescents having few coping mechanisms d. Adolescents often resenting the control and enforced dependence imposed by dialysis

ANS: D Older children and adolescents need control. The necessity of dialysis forces the adolescent into a dependent relationship, which results in these behaviors. Neurologic manifestations that occur with dialysis and physiologic manifestations of renal disease are a function of the age of the child, not neurologic or physiologic manifestations of the dialysis. Adolescents do have coping mechanisms, but they need to have some control over their disease management.

Which clinical manifestation would most suggest acute appendicitis? a. Rebound tenderness b. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding c. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating d. Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney point

ANS: D Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized and usually periumbilical. The pain localizes to the right lower quadrant at McBurney point. Rebound tenderness is not a reliable sign and is extremely painful to the child. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating and bright or dark red rectal bleeding are not signs of acute appendicitis.

Parents have understood teaching about prevention of childhood otitis media if they make which statement? a. "We will only prop the bottle during the daytime feedings." b. "Breastfeeding will be discontinued after 4 months of age." c. "We will place the child flat right after feedings." d. "We will be sure to keep immunizations up to date."

ANS: D Parents have understood the teaching about preventing childhood otitis media if they respond they will keep childhood immunizations up to date. The child should be maintained upright during feedings and after. Otitis media can be prevented by exclusively breastfeeding until at least 6 months of age. Propping bottles is discouraged to avoid pooling of milk while the child is in the supine position.

The nurse is caring for a child with severe head trauma after a car accident. Which is an ominous sign that often precedes death? a. Papilledema b. Delirium c. Doll's head maneuver d. Periodic and irregular breathing

ANS: D Periodic or irregular breathing is an ominous sign of brainstem (especially medullary) dysfunction that often precedes complete apnea. Papilledema is edema and inflammation of the optic nerve. It is commonly a sign of increased intracranial pressure. Delirium is a state of mental confusion and excitement marked by disorientation to time and place. The doll's head maneuver is a test for brainstem or oculomotor nerve dysfunction.

What is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis? a. Treatments are done in hospitals. b. Protein loss is less extensive. c. Dietary limitations are not necessary. d. Parents and older children can perform treatments.

ANS: D Peritoneal dialysis is the preferred form of dialysis for parents, infants, and children who wish to remain independent. Parents and older children can perform the treatments themselves. Treatments can be done at home. Protein loss is not significantly different. The dietary limitations are necessary, but they are not as stringent as those for hemodialysis

José is 4 year old. Preoperative teaching for a 4-year-old child scheduled for a cardiac catheterization should be done with what primary consideration in mind? a. Directed at his parents because he is too young to understand. b. Detailed in regard to the actual procedures so he will know what to expect. c. Done several days before the procedure so that he will be prepared. d. Adapted to his level of development so that he can understand.

ANS: D Preoperative teaching should always be directed at the child's stage of development. The caregivers also benefit from the same explanations. The parents may ask additional questions, which should be answered, but the child needs to receive the information based on developmental level. This age-group does not understand in-depth descriptions. Preschoolers should be prepared close to the time of the cardiac catheterization

When caring for an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature, which appropriate nursing intervention should the nurse implement? a. Give tepid water baths to reduce fever. b. Encourage food intake to maintain caloric needs. c. Have child wear heavy clothing to prevent chilling. d. Give small amounts of favorite fluids frequently to prevent dehydration.

ANS: D Preventing dehydration by small frequent feedings is an important intervention in the febrile child. Tepid water baths may induce shivering, which raises temperature. Food should not be forced; it may result in the child vomiting. The febrile child should be dressed in light, loose clothing.

What is a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy? a. Fever b. Hypertension c. Weight loss d. Increased appetite

ANS: D Side effects of corticosteroid therapy include an increased appetite. Fever is not a side effect of therapy. It may be an indication of infection. Hypertension is not usually associated with initial corticosteroid therapy. Weight gain, not weight loss, is associated with corticosteroid therapy.

What is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis? a. Staphylococcus albus b. Streptococcus hemolyticus c. Staphylococcus albicans d. Streptococcus viridans

ANS: D Staphylococcus viridans is the most common causative agent in bacterial (infective) endocarditis. Staphylococcus albus, Streptococcus hemolyticus, and Staphylococcus albicans are not common causative agents.

The nurse is performing a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) on a school-age child with a head injury. The child opens eyes spontaneously, obeys commands, and is oriented to person, time, and place. Which is the score the nurse should record? a. 8 b. 11 c. 13 d. 15

ANS: D The GCS consists of a three-part assessment: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Numeric values of 1 through 5 are assigned to the levels of response in each category. The sum of these numeric values provides an objective measure of the patient's level of consciousness (LOC). A person with an unaltered LOC would score the highest, 15. The child who opens eyes spontaneously, obeys commands, and is oriented is scored at a 15.

Why do infants and young children quickly have respiratory distress in acute and chronic alterations of the respiratory system? a. They have a widened, shorter airway. b. There is a defect in their sucking ability. c. The gag reflex increases mucus production. d. Mucus and edema obstruct small airways.

ANS: D The airway in infants and young children is narrower, not wider, and respiratory distress can occur quickly because mucus and edema can cause obstruction to their small airways. Sucking is not necessarily related to problems with the airway. The gag reflex is necessary to prevent aspiration. It does not produce mucus.

Which postoperative intervention should be questioned for a child after a cardiac catheterization? a. Continue intravenous (IV) fluids until the infant is tolerating oral fluids. b. Check the dressing for bleeding. c. Assess peripheral circulation on the affected extremity. d. Keep the affected leg flexed and elevated.

ANS: D The child should be positioned with the affected leg straight for 4 to 6 hours after the procedure. IV fluid administration continues until the child is taking and retaining adequate amounts of oral fluids. The insertion site dressing should be observed frequently for bleeding. The nurse should also look under the child to check for pooled blood. Peripheral perfusion is monitored after catheterization. Distal pulses should be palpable, although they may be weaker than in the contralateral extremity.

What is an expected assessment finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta? a. Orthostatic hypotension b. Systolic hypertension in the lower extremities c. Blood pressure higher on the left side of the body d. Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities

ANS: D The classic finding in children with coarctation of the aorta is a disparity in pulses and blood pressures between the upper and lower extremities. Orthostatic hypotension is not present with coarctation of the aorta. Systolic hypertension may be detected in the upper extremities. The left arm may not accurately reflect systolic hypertension because the left subclavian artery can be involved in the coarctation.

Myelosuppression, associated with chemotherapeutic agents or some malignancies such as leukemia can cause bleeding tendencies because of what resulting outcome? a. Decrease in leukocytes b. Increase in lymphocytes c. Vitamin C deficiency d. Decrease in blood platelets

ANS: D The decrease in blood platelets secondary to the myelosuppression of chemotherapy can cause an increase in bleeding. The child and family should be alerted to avoid risk of injury. Decrease in leukocytes, increase in lymphocytes, and vitamin C deficiency would not affect bleeding tendencies.

Surgical closure of the ductus arteriosus would bring about what desired effect? a. Stop the loss of unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. b. Decrease the edema in legs and feet. c. Increase the oxygenation of blood. d. Prevent the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.

ANS: D The ductus arteriosus allows blood to flow from the higher-pressure aorta to the lower-pressure pulmonary artery, causing a right-to-left shunt. If this is surgically closed, no additional oxygenated blood (from the aorta) will return to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. The aorta carries oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. Because of the higher pressure in the aorta, blood is shunted into the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary circulation. Edema in the legs and feet is usually a sign of heart failure. This repair would not directly affect the edema. Increasing the oxygenation of blood would not interfere with the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children? a. Pyelonephritis b. Tubular destruction c. Urinary tract obstruction d. Severe dehydration

ANS: D The most common cause of acute renal failure in children is dehydration or other causes of poor perfusion that may respond to restoration of fluid volume. Pyelonephritis and tubular destruction are not common causes of acute renal failure in children. Obstructive uropathy may cause acute renal failure, but it is not the most common cause.

The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. What is the most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition? a. Posturing b. Vital signs c. Focal neurologic signs d. Level of consciousness

ANS: D The most important nursing observation is assessment of the child's level of consciousness. Alterations in consciousness appear earlier in the progression of head injury than do alterations of vital signs or focal neurologic signs. Neurologic posturing indicates neurologic damage. Vital signs and focal neurologic signs are later signs of progression when compared with level-of-consciousness changes.

An 8-year-old girl is receiving a blood transfusion when the nurse notes that she has developed precordial pain, dyspnea, distended neck veins, slight cyanosis, and a dry cough. These manifestations are most suggestive of what associated adverse reaction? a. Air embolism b. Allergic reaction c. Hemolytic reaction d. Circulatory overload

ANS: D The signs of circulatory overload include distended neck veins, hypertension, crackles, dry cough, cyanosis, and precordial pain. Signs of air embolism are sudden difficulty breathing, sharp pain in the chest, and apprehension. Allergic reactions are manifested by urticaria, pruritus, flushing, asthmatic wheezing, and laryngeal edema. Hemolytic reactions are characterized by chills, shaking, fever, pain at infusion site, nausea, vomiting, tightness in chest, flank pain, red or black urine, and progressive signs of shock and renal failure.

Which immunization should be considered carefully before being given to a child receiving chemotherapy for cancer? a. Tetanus vaccine b. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine c. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) d. Measles, rubella, mumps

ANS: D The vaccine used for measles, mumps, and rubella is a live virus and can result in an overwhelming infection. Tetanus vaccine, inactivated poliovirus vaccine, and diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) are not live virus vaccines.

A preschool child is being admitted to the hospital with dehydration and a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which urinalysis result should the nurse expect with these conditions? a. WBC <1; specific gravity 1.008 b. WBC <2; specific gravity 1.025 c. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.016 d. WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030

ANS: D The white blood cell (WBC) count in a routine urinalysis should be <1 or 2. Over that amount indicates a urinary tract inflammatory process. The urinalysis specific gravity for children with normal fluid intake is 1.016 to 1.022. When the specific gravity is high, dehydration is indicated. A low specific gravity is seen with excessive fluid intake, distal tubular dysfunction, or insufficient antidiuretic hormone secretion.

A child is unconscious after a motor vehicle accident. The watery discharge from the nose tests positive for glucose. The nurse should recognize that this suggests what complication? a. Diabetic coma b. Brainstem injury c. Upper respiratory tract infection d. Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

ANS: D Watery discharge from the nose that is positive for glucose suggests leaking of CSF from a skull fracture and is not associated with diabetes or respiratory tract infection. The fluid is probably CSF from a skull fracture and does not signify whether the brainstem is involved.

A child with secondary enuresis who reports of dysuria or urgency should be evaluated for what condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypocalciuria b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Glomerulonephritis d. Urinary tract infection (UTI) e. Diabetes mellitus

ANS: D, E Complaints of dysuria or urgency from a child with secondary enuresis suggest the possibility of a UTI. If accompanied by excessive thirst and weight loss, these symptoms may indicate the onset of diabetes mellitus. An excessive loss of calcium in the urine (hypercalciuria) can be associated with complaints of painful urination, urgency, frequency, and wetting. Nephrotic syndrome is not usually associated with complaints of dysuria or urgency. Glomerulonephritis is not a likely cause of dysuria or urgency.

Which diagnostic test allows visualization of the renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external beam radiation or radioactive isotopes? a. Renal ultrasound b. Computed tomography c. Intravenous pyelography d. Voiding cystourethrography

Which diagnostic test allows visualization of the renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external beam radiation or radioactive isotopes? a. Renal ultrasound b. Computed tomography c. Intravenous pyelography d. Voiding cystourethrography