Pediatric Exam #2
A health care provider prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), PO, 0.5 mg, twice a day, for a child with schizophrenia. The medication label states: "Haloperidol (Haldol) oral concentrate, 1 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to one decimal place.
0.5 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Volume = ml per dose Available 0.5 mg ----------- x 1 ml = 0.5 ml 1 mg
A health care provider prescribes leuprolide (Lupron), 3.75 mg, IM, monthly, for a patient with endometriosis. The medication label states: "Leuprolide (Lupron) 5 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer the monthly dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer the dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using two decimal places.
0.75 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Volume = ml per dose Available 75 mg ----------- x 1 ml = 0.75 ml 5 mg
A health care provider prescribes methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin), PO, 20 mg, twice a day, for a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The medication label states: "Methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin), 10 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tab(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Quantity = Tablets per dose Available 20 mg ----------- x 1 = 2 tabs 10 mg
A health care provider prescribes danazol (Danocrine), PO, 200 mg, once a day, for an adolescent with endometriosis. The medication label states: "Danazol (Danocrine), 100 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tab(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Quantity = Tablets per dose Available 200 mg ----------- x 1 = 2 tabs 100 mg
A health care provider prescribes methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin), PO, 8 mg, twice a day, for an adolescent with bulimia nervosa. The medication label states: "Methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin), 4 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tab(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Quantity = Tablets per dose Available 8 mg ----------- x 1 = 2 tabs 4 mg
A health care provider prescribes risperidone (Risperdal), PO, 2 mg, twice a day, for a child with schizophrenia. The medication label states: "Risperidone (Risperdal) oral concentrate, 1 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Volume = ml per dose Available 2 mg ----------- x 1 ml = 2 ml 1 mg
A health care provider prescribes midazolam (Versed) syrup 0.5 mg/kg per mouth (PO) 30 minutes before a burn wound dressing change on a child. The medication label states: "Versed 2 mg/1 ml." The child weighs 8 kg. The nurse prepares to administer the dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer the dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Multiply 0.5 mg x 8 kg to get the dose = 4 mg Desired ----------- x Volume = ml per dose Available 4 mg ----------- x 1 ml = 2 ml 2 mg
A health care provider prescribes diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 1 mg/kg PO every 4 to 6 hours as needed for pruritus to a child with a mild cutaneous anaphylactic reaction. The child weighs 5 kg. The medication label states: "Diphenhydramine 12.5 mg/5 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Multiply 1 mg x 5 kg to get the dose = 5 mg Desired ----------- x Volume = ml per dose Available 5 mg ----------- x 5 mL = 2 mL 12.5 mg
A health care provider prescribes sertraline (Zoloft) PO, 50 mg, daily, for a child with depression. The medication label states: "Sertraline (Zoloft) oral concentrate, 20 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to one decimal place.
2.5 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Volume = ml per dose Available 50 mg ----------- x 1 ml = 2.5 ml 20 mg
The health care provider has prescribed ondansetron (Zofran) 0.1 mg/kg as needed for nausea for a child admitted for vomiting. The child weighs 55 lb. Calculate the correct dose of Zofran in milligrams. Record your answer using one decimal place.
2.5 The correct calculation is: 55 lb/2.2 kg = 25 kg Dose of Zofran is 0.1 mg/kg 0.1 mg x 25 = 2.5 mg
A health care provider prescribes clonidine hydrochloride (Kapvay), PO, 0.3 mg, daily for a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The medication label states: "Clonidine hydrochloride (Kapvay), 0.1 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tablet(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
3 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Multiply 1 mg x 10 kg to get the dose = 10 mg Desired ----------- x Quantity = Tablets per dose Available 0.3 mg ----------- x 1 tab = 3 tabs 0.1 mg
The health care provider has prescribed clarithromycin (Biaxin) 20 mg/kg/day divided bid for a child with peptic ulcer disease. The child weighs 77 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0900 dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer in a whole number.
350 The correct calculation is: 77 lb/2.2 kg = 35 kg Dose of Biaxin is 20 mg/kg/day divided bid 20 mg x 35 = 700 mg 700 mg/2 = 350 mg for one dose
The health care provider has prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) 30 mg/kg a day divided q 6 hours for a child with peptic ulcer disease. The child weighs 110 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the 1200 dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in mg. Record your answer in a whole number.
375 The correct calculation is: 110 lb/2.2 kg = 50 kg Dose of Flagyl: 30 mg/kg a day 30 mg x50 = 1500 mg a day 1500 mg/4 = 375 mg for one dose.
A health care provider prescribes dopamine (Intropin), 5 mcg/kg/min in a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion for a child in shock. The child weighs 25 kg. The medication is available as dopamine 400 mg in 250 ml. The nurse prepares to calculate the rate. How many milliliters per hour will the nurse set the IV infusion pump to deliver 5 mcg/kg/min? Fill in the blank. Round to one decimal place.
4.7 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. 5 x kg x 60 _________________ = Pump rate ml/hr Drug concentration The patient weighs 10 kg, and the drug is available as 400 mg in 250 ml. Calculate the drug concentration. 400 x 1000 ___________ = 1600 mcg/ml 250 Then calculate the infusion rate. 5 x 25 x 60 _____________________ = 4.6875 ml/hr = rounded to 4.7 ml/hr 1600
A health care provider prescribes nitroprusside (Nipride), 1 mcg/kg/min in a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion for a child in shock. The child weighs 20 kg. The medication is available as nitroprusside 50 mg in 250 ml. The nurse prepares to calculate the rate. How many milliliters per hour will the nurse set the IV infusion pump to deliver 1 mcg/kg/min? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.
6 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. 1 x kg x 60 _________________ = Pump rate ml/hr Drug concentration The patient weighs 20 kg and the drug is available as 50 mg in 250 ml. Calculate the drug concentration. 50 x 1000 ___________ = 200 mcg/ml 250 Then calculate the infusion rate. 1 x 20 x 60 _____________________ = 6 ml/hr 200
The health care provider has prescribed famotidine (Pepcid) 1 mg/kg/day divided bid for a child with gastroesophageal reflux disease. The child weighs 33 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0900 dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer using one decimal place.
7.5 The correct calculation is: 33 lb/2.2 kg = 15 kg Dose of Pepcid is 1 mg/kg/day divided bid 1 mg x 15 = 15 mg 15 mg/2 = 7.5 mg
Diagnosis of hepatitis B is confirmed by the detection of various hepatitis virus antigens, and the antibodies that are produced in response to the infection. Match the antibody or antigen to its definition. Indicates ongoing infection or carrier state a. HBsAg b. Anti-HBs c. HBcAg d. HBeAg
A
Many cutaneous lesions are associated with local symptoms. Match the symptom with its definition. Itching a. Pruritus b. Anesthesia c. Hyperesthesia d. Hypesthesia e. Paresthesia
A
Match the acute wound to its definition. Removal of the superficial layers of skin by rubbing or scraping a. Abrasion b. Avulsion c. Laceration d. Incision e. Puncture
A
Match the classification of urinary tract infections of inflammations to its definition. Persistence of bacteriuria despite antibiotic treatment a. Persistent urinary tract infection b. Cystitis c. Urethritis d. Pyelonephritis e. Urosepsis
A
Match the following terms related to food sensitivities to the accurate descriptions. An adverse health effect arising from a specific immune response that occurs reproducibly on exposure to a given food a. Food allergy b. Food allergen c. Food intolerance d. Sensitization e. Atopy
A
Match the type of skin graft to its definition. Skin that is obtained from genetically different members of the same species who are free of disease a. Allografts b. Xenografts c. Autografts d. Isografts
A
Match the type of vegetarianism to its description. Exclude meat from their diet but consume dairy products and rarely fish a. Lacto-ovo vegetarians b. Lactovegetarians c. Pure vegetarians (vegans) d. Macrobiotics e. Semi-vegetarians
A
The nurse is providing guidance strategies to a group of parents with toddlers at a community outreach program. Which statement by a parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should expect my 24-month-old child to express some signs of readiness for toilet training." b. "I should be firm and structured when disciplining my 18-month-old child." c. "I should expect my 12-month-old child to start to develop a fear of darkness and to need a security blanket." d. "I should expect my 36-month-old child to understand time and proximity of events."
A A 24-month-old toddler starts to show readiness for toilet training; it is important for the parent to be aware of this and be ready to start the process. At 18 months of age, a child needs consistent but gentle discipline because the child cannot yet understand firmness and structure with discipline. Development of fears and need for security items usually occurs at the end of the 18- to 24-month stage. A 36-month-old child does not yet understand time and proximity of events, so the parent needs to understand that the toddler cannot "hurry up or we will be late."
Deficiency of which vitamin or mineral results in an inadequate inflammatory response? a. A b. B1 c. C d. Zinc
A A deficiency of vitamin A results in an inadequate inflammatory response. Deficiencies of vitamins B1 and C result in decreased collagen formation. A deficiency of zinc leads to impaired epithelialization.
The nurse is admitting a child with frostbite. What health care prescription should the nurse question and verify? a. Massage the injured tissue. b. Apply a loose dressing after rewarming. c. Avoid any application of dry heat to the area. d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for discomfort.
A A frostbite victim should not have injured tissue rubbed. It is contraindicated because it can cause damage by rupture of crystallized cells. After rewarming, a loose dressing is applied to the affected skin, and analgesia is administered if indicated. Dry heat is not applied.
The nurse is caring for a breastfed full-term infant who was born after an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. The infant's blood glucose level is 36 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement? a. Bring the infant to the mother and initiate breastfeeding. b. Place a nasogastric tube and administer 5% dextrose water. c. Start a peripheral intravenous line and administer 10% dextrose. d. Monitor the infant in the nursery and obtain a blood glucose level in 4 hours.
A A full-term infant born after an uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery who is borderline hypoglycemic, as indicated by a blood glucose level of 36 mg/dL, and who is clinically asymptomatic should probably reestablish normoglycemia with early institution of breast or bottle feeding. The newborn does not require a nasogastric tube and 5% dextrose water or a peripheral intravenous line with 10% dextrose because the blood glucose level is only borderline. The infant does need to be monitored, but breastfeeding should be started and the blood glucose level checked in 1 to 2 hours.
A 9-year-old child has just been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). In preparing for discharge, the nurse should include what in the home care instructions to the parents? a. Following a high-fiber diet b. Using stimulant laxatives c. Using ice packs on the abdomen when pain occurs d. Sitting on the toilet for 30 minutes after each meal
A A high-fiber diet with possible addition of bulk laxatives is beneficial for children with RAP. Bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium are recommended. Stimulant laxatives may produce painful cramping for the child. Warm packs, such as a heating pad, may help ease the discomfort. Bowel training is recommended to assist the child in establishing regular bowel habits. Thirty minutes is too long for the child to sit on the toilet. The time should be limited to 15 minutes.
A lumbar puncture (LP) is being done on an infant with suspected meningitis. The nurse expects which results for the cerebrospinal fluid that can confirm the diagnosis of meningitis? a. increased WBCs; decreased glucose b. increased RBCs; normal WBCs c. increased glucose; normal RBCs d. Normal RBCs; normal glucose
A A lumbar puncture is the definitive diagnostic test. The fluid pressure is measured and samples are obtained for culture, Gram stain, blood cell count, and determination of glucose and protein content. The findings are usually diagnostic. The patient generally has an elevated white blood cell count, often predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes. The glucose level is reduced, generally in proportion to the duration and severity of the infection.
A young child with leukemia has anorexia and severe stomatitis. What approach should the nurse suggest that the parents try? a. Relax any eating pressures. b. Firmly insist that the child eat normally. c. Serve foods that are either hot or cold. d. Provide only liquids because chewing is painful.
A A multifaceted approach is necessary for children with severe stomatitis and anorexia. First, the parents should relax eating pressures. The nurse should suggest that the parents try soft, bland foods; normal saline or bicarbonate mouthwashes; and local anesthetics. Insisting that the child eat normally is not suggested. For some children, not eating may be a way to maintain some control. This can set the child and caregiver in opposition to each other. Hot and cold foods can be painful on ulcerated mucosal membranes. Substitution of high-calorie foods that the child likes and can eat should be used.
What type of seizure may be difficult to detect? a. Absence b. Generalized c. Simple partial d. Complex partial
A Absence seizures may go unrecognized because little change occurs in the child's behavior during the seizure. Generalized, simple partial, and complex partial all have clinical manifestations that are observable.
After chemotherapy is begun for a child with acute leukemia, prophylaxis to prevent acute tumor lysis syndrome includes which therapeutic intervention? a. Hydration b. Oxygenation c. Corticosteroids d. Pain management
A Acute tumor lysis syndrome results from the release of intracellular metabolites during the initial treatment of leukemia. Hyperuricemia, hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalemia can result. Hydration is used to reduce the metabolic consequences of the tumor lysis. Oxygenation is not helpful in preventing acute tumor lysis syndrome. Allopurinol, not corticosteroids, is indicated for pharmacologic management. Pain management may be indicated for supportive therapy of the child, but it does not prevent acute tumor lysis syndrome.
What is appropriate mouth care for a toddler with mucosal ulceration related to chemotherapy? a. Mouthwashes with plain saline b. Lemon glycerin swabs for cleansing c. Mouthwashes with hydrogen peroxide d. Swish and swallow with viscous lidocaine
A Administering mouth care is particularly difficult in infants and toddlers. A satisfactory method of cleaning the gums is to wrap a piece of gauze around a finger; soak it in saline or plain water; and swab the gums, palate, and inner cheek surfaces with the finger. Mouth rinses are best accomplished with plain water or saline because the child cannot gargle or spit out excess fluid. Avoid agents such as lemon glycerin swabs and hydrogen peroxide because of the drying effects on the mucosa. Lidocaine should be avoided in young children.
A 17-year-old patient is returning to the surgical unit after Luque instrumentation for scoliosis repair. In addition to the usual postoperative care, what additional intervention will be needed? a. Position changes are made by log rolling. b. Assistance is needed to use the bathroom. c. The head of the bed is elevated to minimize spinal headache. d. Passive range of motion is instituted to prevent neurologic injury.
A After scoliosis repair using a Luque procedure, the adolescent is turned by log rolling to prevent damage to the fusion and instrumentation. The patient is kept flat in bed for the first 12 hours and is not ambulatory until the second or third postoperative day. A urinary catheter is placed. The head of the bed is not elevated until the second postoperative day. Range of motion exercises are begun on the second postoperative day.
The nurse is collecting a stool sample from an infant with lactose intolerance. Which fecal pH should the nurse expect as the result? a. 5.5 b. 7.0 c. 7.5 d. 8
A An acidic pH (5-5.5) indicates malabsorption, which occurs with lactose intolerance. The normal pH of the stool is 7.0 to 7.5. A finding of 8 would be alkaline.
A toddler, age 16 months, falls down a few stairs. He gets up and "scolds" the stairs as if they caused him to fall. What is this an example of? a. Animism b. Ritualism c. Irreversibility d. Delayed cognitive development
A Animism is the attribution of lifelike qualities to inanimate objects. By scolding the stairs, the toddler is attributing human characteristics to them. Ritualism is the need to maintain sameness and reliability. It provides a sense of comfort to toddlers. Irreversibility is the inability to reverse or undo actions initiated physically. The toddler is acting in an age-appropriate manner.
A 13-year-old boy comes to the school nurse complaining of sudden and severe scrotal pain. He denies any trauma to the scrotum. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Refer him for immediate medical evaluation. b. Administer analgesics and recommend scrotal support. c. Apply an ice bag and observe for increasing pain. d. Reassure the adolescent that occasional pain is common with the changes of puberty.
A Any adolescent boy with redness, swelling, or pain in the scrotum is referred for immediate evaluation. These are signs of testicular torsion, which is a medical emergency. If the possibility of testicular torsion is eliminated, appropriate interventions include administering analgesics and recommending scrotal support. applying an ice bag and observing for increasing pain. and reassuring the adolescent that occasional pain is common with the changes of puberty.
An infant has been diagnosed with an allergy to milk. In teaching the parent how to meet the infant's nutritional needs, the nurse states that a. Most children will grow out of the allergy. b. All dairy products must be eliminated from the child's diet. c. It is important to have the entire family follow the special diet. d. Antihistamines can be used so the child can have milk products.
A Approximately 80% of children with cow's milk allergy develop tolerance by the fifth birthday. The child can have eggs. Any food that has milk as a component or filler is eliminated. These foods include processed meats, salad dressings, soups, and milk chocolate. Having the entire family follow the special diet would provide support for the child, but the nutritional needs of other family members must be addressed. Antihistamines are not used for food allergies.
A 12-year-old child with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit. She tells you that yesterday her legs were weak and that this morning she was unable to walk. After the nurse determines the current level of paralysis, which should the next priority assessment be? a. Swallowing ability b. Parental involvement c. Level of consciousness d. Antecedent viral infections
A Assessment of swallowing is essential. Both pharyngeal involvement and respiratory function are usually involved at the same time. The child may require ventilatory support. The inability to swallow also contributes to aspiration pneumonia. Parental involvement is important after the physiologic assessment is complete. The child is answering questions and describing the onset of the illness, which demonstrates she is alert and oriented. Information regarding antecedent viral infections can be obtained after the child is assessed and stabilized.
The parents of a 2-year-old child tell the nurse they are concerned because the toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. What should the nurse recommend? a. Ignore the baby talk. b. Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now." c. Explain to the toddler that baby talk is for babies. d. Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.
A Baby talk is a sign of regression in the toddler. Often toddlers attempt to cope with a stressful situation by reverting to patterns of behavior that were successful in earlier stages of development. It should be ignored while the parents praise the child for developmentally appropriate behaviors. Regression is children's way of expressing stress. The parents should not introduce new expectations and allow the child to master the developmental tasks without criticism.
The nurse is teaching a parent with a 2-month-old infant who has been diagnosed with colic about ways to relieve colic. Which statement by the parent indicates the need for additional teaching? a. "I should let my infant cry for at least 30 minutes before I respond." b. "I will swaddle my infant tightly with a soft blanket." c. "I should massage my infant's abdomen whenever possible." d. "I will place my infant in an upright seat after feeding."
A Because the infant has been diagnosed with colic, the parent should respond to the infant immediately or any type of interventions to relieve colic may not be effective. Also, the infant may develop a mistrust of the world if his or her needs are not met. The parent should swaddle the baby tightly with a soft blanket, massage the baby's abdomen, and place the infant in an upright seat after a feeding to help relieve colic.
A 10-year-old child, without a history of previous seizures, experiences a tonic-clonic seizure at school that lasts more than 5 minutes. Breathing is not impaired. Some postictal confusion occurs. What is the most appropriate initial action by the school nurse? a. Stay with child and have someone else call emergency medical services (EMS). b. Notify the parent and regular practitioner. c. Notify the parent that the child should go home. d. Stay with the child, offering calm reassurance.
A Because this is the child's first seizure and it lasted more than 5 minutes, EMS should be called to transport the child, and evaluation should be performed as soon as possible. The nurse should stay with the recovering child while someone else notifies EMS.
The management of a child who has just been stung by a bee or wasp should include applying what? a. Cool compresses b. Antibiotic cream c. Warm compresses d. Corticosteroid cream
A Bee or wasp stings are initially treated by carefully removing the stinger, cleansing with soap and water, applying cool compresses, and using common household agents such as lemon juice or a paste made with aspirin and baking soda. Antibiotic cream is unnecessary unless a secondary infection occurs. Warm compresses are avoided. Corticosteroid cream is not part of the initial therapy. If a severe reaction occurs, systemic corticosteroids may be indicated.
What condition can result from the bone demineralization associated with immobility? a. Osteoporosis b. Pooling of blood c. Urinary retention d. Susceptibility to infection
A Bone demineralization leads to a negative calcium balance, osteoporosis, pathologic fractures, extraosseous bone formation, and renal calculi. Pooling of blood is a result of the cardiovascular effects of immobilization. Urinary retention is secondary to the effect of immobilization on the urinary tract. Susceptibility to infection can result from the effects of immobilization on the respiratory and renal systems.
What information should the nurse include when teaching an adolescent with Crohn disease (CD)? a. How to cope with stress and adjust to chronic illness b. Preparation for surgical treatment and cure of CD c. Nutritional guidance and prevention of constipation d. Prevention of spread of illness to others and principles of high-fiber diet
A CD is a chronic illness with a variable course and many potential complications. Guidance about living with chronic illness is essential for adolescents. Stress management techniques can help with exacerbations and possible limitations caused by the illness. At this time, there is no cure for CD. Surgical intervention may be indicated for complications that cannot be controlled by medical and nutritional therapy. Nutritional guidance is an essential part of management. Constipation is not usually an issue with CD. CD is not infectious, so transmission is not a concern. A low-fiber diet is indicated.
A child has been diagnosed with a Wilms tumor. What should preoperative nursing care include? a. Careful bathing and handling b. Monitoring of behavioral status c. Maintenance of strict isolation d. Administration of packed red blood cells
A Careful bathing and handling are important in preventing trauma to the Wilms tumor site.
What is an effective strategy to reduce the stress of burn dressing procedures? a. Involve the child and give choices as feasible. b. Explain to the child why analgesics cannot be used. c. Reassure the child that dressing changes are not painful. d. Encourage the child to master stress with controlled passivity.
A Children who have an understanding of the procedure and some perceived control demonstrate less maladaptive behavior. They respond well to participating in decisions and should be given as many choices as possible. Analgesia and sedation can and should be used. The dressing change procedure is very painful and stressful. Misinformation should not be given to the child. Encouraging the child to master stress with controlled passivity is not a positive coping strategy.
The parent of an infant with colic tells the nurse, "All this baby does is scream at me; it is a constant worry." What is the nurse's best action? a. Encourage the parent to verbalize feelings. b. Encourage the parent not to worry so much. c. Assess the parent for other signs of inadequate parenting. d. Reassure the parent that colic rarely lasts past age 9 months.
A Colic is multifactorial, and no single treatment is effective for all infants. The parent is verbalizing concern and worry. The nurse should allow the parent to put these feelings into words. An empathetic, gentle, and reassuring attitude, in addition to suggestions about remedies, will help alleviate the parent's anxiety. The nurse should reassure the parent that he or she is not doing anything wrong. The infant with colic is experiencing spasmodic pain that is manifested by loud crying, in some cases up to 3 hours each day. Telling the parent that it will eventually go away does not help him or her through the current situation.
A young child's parents call the nurse after their child is bitten by a raccoon in the woods. The nurse's recommendation should be based on what knowledge? a. Antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated immediately. b. The child should be hospitalized for close observation. c. No treatment is necessary if thorough wound cleaning is done. d. Antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated as soon as clinical manifestations appear.
A Current therapy for a rabid animal bite consists of a thorough cleansing of the wound and passive immunization with human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) as soon as possible. Hospitalization is not necessary. The wound cleansing, passive immunization, and immunoglobulin administration can be done as an outpatient. The child needs to receive both HRIG and rabies vaccine.
What name is given to inflammation of the bladder? a. Cystitis b. Urethritis c. Urosepsis d. Bacteriuria
A Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder. Urethritis is an inflammation of the urethra. Urosepsis is a febrile urinary tract infection with systemic signs of bacterial infection. Bacteriuria is the presence of bacteria in the urine.
The neonatal intensive care nurse is planning care for an infant in an incubator. Which interventions should the nurse plan to assure therapeutic visual stimulation for the neonate? a. Use an incubator cover. b. Keep lights bright in the unit. c. Place a cloth over the infant's face. d. Leave a visual stimulus at the head of the infant's bed.
A Decrease ambient light levels by using an incubator cover and by dimming lights, not keeping them bright. Avoid placing a cloth over the face because it will cause tactile irritation. Avoid leaving visual stimuli in the beds of infants who cannot escape from it.
What is an important nursing intervention for a full-term infant receiving phototherapy? a. Observing for signs of dehydration b. Using sunscreen to protect the infant's skin c. Keeping the infant diapered to collect frequent stools d. Informing the mother why breastfeeding must be discontinued
A Dehydration is a potential risk of phototherapy. The nurse monitors hydration status to be alert for the need for more frequent feedings and supplemental fluid administration. Lotions are not used; they may contribute to a "frying" effect. The infant should be placed nude under the lights and should be repositioned frequently to expose all body surfaces to the lights. Breastfeeding is encouraged. Intermittent phototherapy may be as effective as continuous therapy. The advantage to the mother and father of being able to hold their infant outweighs the concerns related to clearance.
An important distinction in understanding substance abuse is that drug misuse, abuse, and addiction are considered what? a. Voluntary behaviors based on psychosocial needs b. Problems that occur in conjunction with addiction c. Involuntary physiologic responses to the pharmacologic characteristics of drugs d. Legal use of substances for purposes other than medicinal.
A Drug misuse, abuse, and addiction are considered voluntary behaviors. Cultural norms define what is abuse and misuse. Addiction is a psychologic dependence on a substance with or without physical dependence. Physical dependence is an involuntary response to the pharmacologic characteristics of the drug such as an opiate or alcohol. Legality is not always a factor in substance abuse. Legal substances such as alcohol and tobacco can also be misused or abused and can cause addiction.
The parents of a child born with ambiguous genitalia tell the nurse that family and friends are asking what caused the baby to be this way. Tests are being done to assist in gender assignment. What should the nurse's intervention include? a. Explain the disorder so they can explain it to others. b. Help parents understand that this is a minor problem. c. Suggest that parents avoid family and friends until the gender is assigned. d. Encourage parents not to worry while the tests are being done.
A Explaining the disorder to parents so they can explain it to others is the most therapeutic approach while the parents await the gender assignment of their child. Ambiguous genitalia is a serious issue for the family. Careful testing and evaluation are necessary to aid in gender assignment to avoid lifelong problems for the child. Suggesting that parents avoid family and friends until the gender is assigned is impractical and would isolate the family from their support system while awaiting test results. The parents will be concerned. Telling them not to worry without giving them specific alternative actions would not be effective.
Nurses should be alert for increased fluid requirements in which circumstance? a. Fever b. Mechanical ventilation c. Congestive heart failure d. Increased intracranial pressure
A Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface area relative to fluid volume. The mechanically ventilated child has decreased fluid requirements. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid overload in children. Increased intracranial pressure does not lead to increased fluid requirements in children.
What method is the most commonly used in completed suicides? a. Firearms b. Drug overdose c. Self-inflicted laceration d. Carbon monoxide poisoning
A Firearms are the most commonly used instruments in completed suicides among both males and females. For completed suicides in adolescent boys, firearms are followed by hanging and overdose. For adolescent girls, overdose and strangulation are the next most common means of completed suicide. The most common method of suicide attempt is overdose or ingestion of potentially toxic substances such as drugs. The second most common method of suicide attempt is self-inflicted laceration. Carbon monoxide poisoning is not one of the more frequent forms of suicide completion.
The nurse is preparing a school-age child for computed tomography (CT) scan to assess cerebral function. The nurse should include what statement in preparing the child? a. "The scan will not hurt." b. "Pain medication will be given." c. "You will be able to move once the equipment is in place." d. "Unfortunately no one can remain in the room with you during the test."
A For CT scans, the child must be immobilized. It is important to emphasize to the child that at no time is the procedure painful. Pain medication is not required; however, sedation is sometimes necessary. The child will not be allowed to move and will be immobilized. Someone is able to remain with the child during the procedure.
A child has been admitted with status epilepticus. An emergency medication has been ordered. What medication should the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Lorazepam (Ativan) b. Phenytoin (Dilantin) c. Topiramate (Topamax) d. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
A For in-hospital management of status epilepticus, intravenous diazepam or lorazepam (Ativan) is the first-line drug of choice. Lorazepam is the preferred agent because of its rapid onset (2-5 minutes) and long half-life (12-24 hours) with few side effects.
The nurse is selecting a site to begin an intravenous infusion on a 2-year-old child. The superficial veins on his hand and arm are not readily visible. What intervention should increase the visibility of these veins? a. Gently tap over the site. b. Apply a cold compress to the site. c. Raise the extremity above the level of the body. d. Use a rubber band as a tourniquet for 5 minutes.
A Gently tapping the site can sometimes cause the veins to be more visible. This is done before the skin is prepared. Warm compresses (not cold) may be useful. The extremity is held in a dependent position. A tourniquet may be helpful, but if too tight, it could cause the vein to burst when punctured. Five minutes is too long.
What are the most common clinical manifestations of brain tumors in children? a. Headaches and vomiting b. Blurred vision and ataxia c. Hydrocephalus and clumsy gait d. Fever and poor fine motor control
A Headaches, especially on awakening, and vomiting that is not related to feeding are the most common clinical manifestations of brain tumors in children. Diplopia (double vision), not blurred vision, can be a presenting sign of brainstem glioma. Ataxia is a clinical manifestation of brain tumors, but headaches and vomiting are the most common. Hydrocephalus can be a presenting sign in infants when the sutures have not closed. Children at this age are usually not walking steadily. Poor fine motor coordination may be a presenting sign of astrocytoma, but headaches and vomiting are the most common presenting signs of brain tumors.
An adolescent is scheduled for a leg amputation in 2 days for treatment of osteosarcoma. What approach should the nurse implement? a. Answer questions with straightforward honesty. b. Avoid discussing the seriousness of the condition. c. Explain that although the amputation is difficult, it will cure the cancer. d. Help the adolescent accept the amputation as better than a long course of chemotherapy.
A Honesty is essential to gain the child's cooperation and trust. The diagnosis of cancer should not be disguised with falsehoods. The adolescent should be prepared for the surgery so there is time for reflection about the diagnosis and subsequent treatment. This allows questions to be answered. To accept the need for radical surgery, the child must be aware of the lack of alternatives for treatment. Amputation is necessary, but it will not guarantee a cure. Chemotherapy is an integral part of the therapy with surgery. The child should be informed of the need for chemotherapy and its side effects before surgery.
An 18-month-old child is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious in the family pool. What does the nurse identify as the primary problem in drowning incidents? a. Hypoxia b. Aspiration c. Hypothermia d. Electrolyte imbalance
A Hypoxia is the primary problem because it results in global cell damage, with different cells tolerating variable lengths of anoxia. Neurons sustain irreversible damage after 4 to 6 minutes of submersion. Severe neurologic damage occurs from hypoxia in 3 to 6 minutes. Aspiration of fluid does occur, resulting in pulmonary edema, atelectasis, airway spasm, and pneumonitis, which complicate the anoxia. Hypothermia occurs rapidly, except in hot tubs. Electrolyte imbalances do result, but they are not a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
Surgery is performed on a child to correct cryptorchidism. The parents understand the reason for the surgery if they tell the nurse this was done to do what? a. "Prevent damage to the undescended testicle." b. "Prevent urinary tract infections." c. "Prevent prostate cancer." d. "Prevent an inguinal hernia."
A If the testes do not descend spontaneously, orchiopexy is performed before the child's second birthday, preferably between 1 and 2 years of age. Surgical repair is done to (1) prevent damage to the undescended testicle by exposure to the higher degree of body heat in the undescended location, thus maintaining future fertility; (2) decrease the incidence of malignancy formation, which is higher in undescended testicles; (3) avoid trauma and torsion; (4) close the processus vaginalis; and (5) prevent the cosmetic and psychologic disability of an empty scrotum. Parents understand the teaching if they respond the surgery is done to prevent damage.
What intervention is contraindicated in a suspected case of appendicitis? a. Enemas b. Palpating the abdomen c. Administration of antibiotics d. Administration of antipyretics for fever
A In any instance in which severe abdominal pain is observed and appendicitis is suspected, the nurse must be aware of the danger of administering laxatives or enemas. Such measures stimulate bowel motility and increase the risk of perforation. The abdomen is palpated after other assessments are made. Antibiotics should be administered, and antipyretics are not contraindicated.
What does the nursing care for infants with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) include? a. Nutritional guidance b. An intensive stimulation program c. Facilitation of improvement in cardiovascular status d. An individualized program based on maternal alcohol consumption
A Infants with FAS have characteristic poor feeding behaviors that persist throughout childhood. The nurse assists in devising strategies to improve nutrition. The infant is protected from overstimulation. FAS does not include cardiovascular problems. The effects of FAS do not depend on the quantity of maternal alcohol consumption.
What is the leading cause of death during the toddler period? a. Injuries b. Infectious diseases c. Childhood diseases d. Congenital disorders
A Injuries are the most common cause of death in children ages 1 through 4 years. It is the highest rate of death from injuries of any childhood age group except adolescence. Congenital disorders are the second leading cause of death in this age group. Infectious and childhood diseases are less common causes of death in this age group.
An injury to which part of the brain will cause a coma? a. Brainstem b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Occipital lobe
A Injury to the brainstem results in stupor and coma. Signs of damage to the cerebrum are specific to the involved area. Individuals with frontal lobe injury may have impaired memory, personality changes, or altered intellectual functioning. Individuals with damage to the cerebellum have difficulties with coordination of muscle movements, including ataxia and nystagmus. Impaired vision and functional blindness result from injury to the occipital lobe.
A 7-year-old child with acute diarrhea has been rehydrated with oral rehydration solution (ORS). The nurse should recommend that the child's diet be advanced to what kind of diet? a. Regular diet b. Clear liquids c. High carbohydrate diet d. BRAT (bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast or tea) diet
A It is appropriate to advance to a regular diet after ORS has been used to rehydrate the child. Clear liquids are not appropriate for hydration or afterward. A high carbohydrate diet may contribute to loose stools because of the low electrolyte content and high osmolality. The BRAT diet has little nutritional value and is high in carbohydrates.
Which factors will decrease iron absorption and should not be given at the same time as an iron supplement? a. Milk b. Fruit juice c. Multivitamin d. Meat, fish, poultry
A Many foods interfere with iron absorption and should be avoided when iron is consumed. These foods include phosphates found in milk, phytates found in cereals, and oxalates found in many vegetables. Vitamin C-containing juices enhance the absorption of iron. Multivitamins may contain iron; no contraindication exists to taking the two together. Meat, fish, and poultry do not affect absorption.
What statement best describes Hirschsprung disease? a. The colon has an aganglionic segment. b. It results in frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gas. c. The neonate passes excessive amounts of meconium. d. It results in excessive peristaltic movements within the gastrointestinal tract.
A Mechanical obstruction in the colon results from a lack of innervation. In most cases, the aganglionic segment includes the rectum and some portion of the distal colon. There is decreased evacuation of the large intestine secondary to the aganglionic segment. Liquid stool may ooze around the blockage. The obstruction does not affect meconium production. The infant may not be able to pass the meconium stool. There is decreased movement in the colon.
What condition is often associated with severe diarrhea? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
A Metabolic acidosis results from the increased absorption of short-chain fatty acids produced in the colon. There is an increase in lactic acid from tissue hypoxia secondary to hypovolemia. Bicarbonate is lost through the stool. Ketosis results from fat metabolism when glycogen stores are depleted. Metabolic alkalosis and respiratory alkalosis do not occur from severe diarrhea.
The nurse is doing a neurologic assessment on a 2-month-old infant after a car accident. Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes are present. How should the nurse interpret these findings? a. Neurologic health b. Severe brain damage c. Decorticate posturing d. Decerebrate posturing
A Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes are three reflexes that are present in a healthy 2-month-old infant and are expected in this age group.
Parents tell the nurse that their toddler eats little at mealtime, only sits at the table with the family briefly, and wants snacks "all the time." What should the nurse recommend? a. Give her nutritious snacks. b. Offer rewards for eating at mealtimes. c. Avoid snacks so she is hungry at mealtimes. d. Explain to her in a firm manner what is expected of her.
A Most toddlers exhibit a physiologic anorexia in response to the decreased nutritional requirements associated with the slower growth rate. Parents should assist the child in developing healthy eating habits. Toddlers are often unable to sit through a meal. Frequent nutritious snacks are a good way to ensure proper nutrition. To help with developing healthy eating habits, food should be not be used as positive or negative reinforcement for behavior. The child may develop habits of overeating or eat non-nutritious foods in response. A toddler is not able to understand explanations of what is expected of her and comply with the expectations.
An infant with short bowel syndrome will be on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for an extended period of time. What should the nurse monitor the infant for ? a. Central venous catheter infection, electrolyte losses, and hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia, catheter migration, and weight gain c. Venous thrombosis, hyperlipidemia, and constipation d. Catheter damage, red currant jelly stools, and hypoglycemia
A Numerous complications are associated with short bowel syndrome and long-term TPN. Infectious, metabolic, and technical complications can occur. Sepsis can occur after improper care of the catheter. The gastrointestinal tract can also be a source of microbial seeding of the catheter. The nurse should monitor for catheter infection, electrolyte losses, and hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia, weight gain, constipation, or red currant jelly stools are not characteristics of short bowel syndrome with extended TPN.
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who has an acute head injury, has a pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of 9, and is unconscious. What intervention should the nurse include in the child's care plan? a. Elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees with the head maintained in midline. b. Maintain an active, stimulating environment. c. Perform chest percussion and suctioning every 1 to 2 hours. d. Perform active range of motion and nontherapeutic touch every 8 hours.
A Nursing activities for children with head trauma and increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include elevating the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees and maintaining the head in a midline position. The nurse should try to maintain a quiet, nonstimulating environment for a child with increased ICP. Chest percussion and suctioning should be performed judiciously because they can elevate ICP. Range of motion should be passive and nontherapeutic touch should be avoided because both of these activities can increase ICP.
A child is being admitted to the hospital with acute gastroenteritis. The health care provider prescribes an antiemetic. What antiemetic does the nurse anticipate being prescribed? a. Ondansetron (Zofran) b. Promethazine (Phenergan) c. Metoclopramide (Reglan) d. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)
A Ondansetron reduces the duration of vomiting in children with acute gastroenteritis. This would be the expected prescribed antiemetic. Adverse effects with earlier generation antiemetics (e.g., promethazine and metoclopramide) include somnolence, nervousness, irritability, and dystonic reactions and should not be routinely administered to children. For children who are prone to motion sickness, it is often helpful to administer an appropriate dose of dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) before a trip, but it would not be ordered as an antiemetic.
What may a clinical manifestations of failure to thrive (FTT) in a 13-month-old include? a. Irregularity in activities of daily living b. Preferring solid food to milk or formula c. Weight that is at or below the 10th percentile d. Appropriate achievement of developmental landmarks
A One of the clinical manifestations of children with FTT is irregularity or low rhythmicity in activities of daily living. Children with FTT often refuse to switch from liquids to solid foods. Weight below the fifth percentile is indicative of FTT. Developmental delays, including social, motor, adaptive, and language, exist.
What are possible premature infant complications from oxygen therapy and mechanical ventilation? a. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia and retinopathy of prematurity b. Anemia and necrotizing enterocolitis c. Cerebral palsy and persistent patent ductus arteriosus d. Congestive heart failure and cerebral edema
A Oxygen therapy, although lifesaving, is not without hazards. The positive pressure created by mechanical ventilation creates an increase in the number of ruptured alveoli and subsequent pneumothorax and bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Oxygen therapy puts the infant at risk for retinopathy of prematurity. Anemia, necrotizing enterocolitis, cerebral palsy, persistent patent ductus, congestive heart failure, and cerebral edema are not primarily caused by oxygen therapy and mechanical ventilation.
The clinic nurse is assessing infant reflexes. What assessment indicates a persistence of primitive reflexes? a. Tonic neck reflex at 8 months of age b. Palmar grasp at 4 months of age c. Plantar grasp at 9 months of age d. Rooting reflex at 3 months of age
A Persistence of primitive reflexes is one of the earliest clues to CP (e.g., obligatory tonic neck reflex at any age or nonobligatory persistence beyond 6 months of age and the persistence or even hyperactivity of the Moro, plantar, and palmar grasp reflexes). The palmar grasp disappears by 6 months, the plantar grasp disappears by 12 months, and the rooting reflex disappears at 4 months, so these are normal findings.
What is the purpose in using cimetidine (Tagamet) for gastroesophageal reflux? a. The medication reduces gastric acid secretion. b. The medication neutralizes the acid in the stomach. c. The medication increases the rate of gastric emptying time. d. The medication coats the lining of the stomach and esophagus.
A Pharmacologic therapy may be used to treat infants and children with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Both H2-receptor antagonists (cimetidine [Tagamet], ranitidine [Zantac], or famotidine [Pepcid]) and proton pump inhibitors (esomeprazole [Nexium], lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], pantoprazole [Protonix], and rabeprazole [Aciphex]) reduce gastric hydrochloric acid secretion.
Which intervention may decrease the incidence of physiologic jaundice in a healthy full-term infant? a. Institute early and frequent feedings. b. Bathe newborn when the axillary temperature is 36.3° C (97.5° F). c. Place the newborn's crib near a window for exposure to sunlight. d. Suggest that the mother initiate breastfeeding when the danger of jaundice has passed.
A Physiologic jaundice is caused by the immature hepatic function of the newborn's liver coupled with the increased load from red blood cell hemolysis. The excess bilirubin from the destroyed red blood cells cannot be excreted from the body. Feeding stimulates peristalsis and produces more rapid passage of meconium. Bathing does not affect physiologic jaundice. Placing the newborn's crib near a window for exposure to sunlight is not a treatment of physiologic jaundice. Colostrum is a natural cathartic that facilitates meconium excavation.
The nurse is teaching the family of an infant with cerebral palsy how to administer a diazepam (Valium) pill by gastrostomy tube. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. The pill should be crushed and mixed with a small amount of water. b. The pill should be crushed and mixed with the infant's formula. c. After administering the medication, flush the tube with air. d. Before administering the medication, check the placement of the tube.
A Pills may be crushed and mixed with small amounts of water but not other liquids, such as formula or elixir medications, because these may act together to form a sludge that can interfere with gastrostomy tube function. When crushed pills or tablets are administered, flush the feeding tube with more water after instilling the dissolved pill in water. The tube should not be flushed with air, and placement does not need to be checked because it is directly into the stomach.
The nurse is caring for a preterm neonate who requires mechanical ventilation for treatment of respiratory distress syndrome. Because of the mechanical ventilation, the nurse should recognize an increased risk of what? a. Pneumothorax b. Transient tachypnea c. Meconium aspiration d. Retractions and nasal flaring
A Positive pressure introduced by mechanical apparatus has created an increase in the incidence of ruptured alveoli and subsequent pneumothorax and bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Tachypnea may be an indication of a pneumothorax, but it should not be transient. Meconium aspiration is not associated with mechanical ventilation. Retractions and nasal flaring are indications of the use of accessory muscles when the infant cannot obtain sufficient oxygen. The use of mechanical ventilation bypasses the infant's need to use these muscles.
What is a priority goal in the postpartum care of an adolescent mother? a. Prevention of subsequent pregnancies b. Ensuring that the father of the baby cares for the child c. Returning the mother to a prepregnancy lifestyle d. Facilitating formula feeding to minimize interruptions
A Postpartum care of the adolescent is directed at preventing subsequent pregnancies and enhancing life outcomes for the teen parents and child. Health care programs should provide comprehensive contraceptive services at the same time the child is seen for appointments. Ensuring the father of the baby cares for the child is not part of the postpartum care of the mother. The adolescent mother cannot return to a prepregnancy lifestyle. She now has an infant to care for. Breastfeeding is recommended for the infant. The nurse and mother should explore the best nutrition for both the mother's needs and those of the infant.
The parents of a newborn ask the nurse what caused the baby's facial nerve paralysis. The nurse's response is based on remembering that this is caused by what? a. Birth injury b. Genetic defect c. Spinal cord injury d. Inborn error of metabolism
A Pressure on the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) during delivery may result in injury to the nerve. Genetic defects, spinal cord injuries, and inborn errors of metabolism did not cause the facial nerve paralysis. The paralysis usually disappears in a few days but may take as long as several months.
An adolescent whose leg was crushed when she fell off a horse is admitted to the emergency department. She has completed the tetanus immunization series, receiving the last tetanus toxoid booster 8 years ago. What care is necessary for therapeutic management of this adolescent to prevent tetanus? a. Tetanus toxoid booster is needed because of the type of injury. b. Human tetanus immunoglobulin is indicated for immediate prophylaxis. c. Concurrent administration of both tetanus immunoglobulin and tetanus antitoxin is needed. d. No additional tetanus prophylaxis is indicated. The tetanus toxoid booster is protective for 10 years.
A Protective levels of antibody are maintained for at least 10 years. Children with serious "tetanus-prone" wounds, including contaminated, crush, puncture, or burn wounds, should receive a tetanus toxoid booster prophylactically as soon as possible. This adolescent has circulating antibodies. The immunoglobulin is not indicated.
The nurse knows that during deep sleep the neonate should not be disturbed if possible. Characteristics of deep sleep include what? a. Regular breathing b. Occasional smiling c. Rapid eye movements d. Apneic pauses of less than 20 seconds
A Regular breathing is characteristic of deep sleep. During active sleep, irregular breathing may be present. Occasional smiling, rapid eye movements, and apneic pauses of less than 20 seconds are characteristic of active sleep.
A child with acute gastrointestinal bleeding is admitted to the hospital. The nurse observes which sign or symptom as an early manifestation of shock? a. Restlessness b. Rapid capillary refill c. Increased temperature d. Increased blood pressure
A Restlessness is an indication of impending shock in a child. Capillary refill is slowed in shock. The child will feel cool. The blood pressure initially remains within the normal range and then declines.
At a well-child check-up, the nurse notes that an infant with a previous diagnosis of failure to thrive (FTT) is now steadily gaining weight. The nurse should recommend that fruit juice intake be limited to no more than how much? a. 4 oz/day b. 6 oz/day c. 8 oz/day d. 12 oz/day
A Restrict juice intake in children with FTT until adequate weight gain has been achieved with appropriate milk sources; thereafter, give no more than 4 oz/day of juice.
One pediatric oncologic emergency is acute tumor lysis syndrome. Symptoms that this may be occurring include what? a. Muscle cramps and tetany b. Respiratory distress and cyanosis c. Thrombocytopenia and sepsis d. Upper extremity edema and neck vein distension
A Risk factors for development of tumor lysis syndrome include a high white blood cell count at diagnosis, large tumor burden, sensitivity to chemotherapy, and high proliferative rate. In addition to the described metabolic abnormalities, children may develop a spectrum of clinical symptoms, including flank pain, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, muscle cramps, pruritus, tetany, and seizures. Respiratory distress and cyanosis occur with hyperleukocytosis. Thrombocytopenia and sepsis occur with disseminated intravascular coagulation. Upper extremity edema and neck vein distention occur with superior vena cava syndrome.
The nurse is planning care for a hospitalized toddler. What is the rationale for planning to continue the toddler's rituals while hospitalized? a. To provide security b. To prevent regression c. To prevent dependency d. To decrease negativism
A Ritualism, the need to maintain sameness and reliability, provides a sense of security and comfort. It will not prevent regression or dependency or decrease negativism.
Ongoing fluid losses can overwhelm the child's ability to compensate, resulting in shock. What early clinical sign precedes shock? a. Tachycardia b. Slow respirations c. Warm, flushed skin d. Decreased blood pressure
A Shock is preceded by tachycardia and signs of poor tissue perfusion and decreased pulse oximetry values. Respirations are increased as the child attempts to compensate. As a result of the poor peripheral circulation, the child has skin that is cool and mottled with decreased capillary refilling after blanching. In children, lowered blood pressure is a late sign and may accompany the onset of cardiovascular collapse.
A parent of a hospitalized child on chemotherapy asks the nurse if a sibling of the hospitalized child should receive the varicella vaccination. The nurse should give which response? a. The sibling can get a varicella vaccination. b. The sibling should not get a varicella vaccination. c. The sibling should wait until the child is finished with chemotherapy. d. The sibling should get varicella-zoster immune globulin if exposed to chickenpox.
A Siblings and other family members can receive the live measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine and the varicella vaccine without risk to the child who is immunosuppressed.
A child is upset because, when the cast is removed from her leg, the skin surface is caked with desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions. What technique should the nurse suggest to remove this material? a. Soak in a bathtub. b. Vigorously scrub the leg. c. Carefully pick material off the leg. d. Apply powder to absorb the material.
A Simply soaking in the bathtub is usually sufficient for removal of the desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions. Several days may be required to eliminate the accumulation completely. The parents and child should be advised not to scrub the leg vigorously or forcibly remove this material because it may cause excoriation and bleeding. Oil or lotion, but not powder, may provide comfort for the child.
A young girl has just injured her ankle at school. In addition to notifying the child's parents, what is the most appropriate, immediate action by the school nurse? a. Apply ice. b. Observe for edema and discoloration. c. Encourage child to assume a position of comfort. d. Obtain parental permission for administration of acetaminophen or aspirin.
A Soft tissue injuries should be iced immediately. In addition to ice, the extremity should be rested, be elevated, and have compression applied. The nurse observes for the edema while placing a cold pack. The applying of ice can reduce the severity of the injury. Maintaining the ankle at a position elevated above the heart is important. The nurse helps the child be comfortable with this requirement. The nurse obtains parental permission for administration of acetaminophen or aspirin after ice and rest are assured.
A student athlete was injured during a basketball game. The nurse observes significant swelling. The player states he thought he "heard a pop," that the pain is "pretty bad," and that the ankle feels "as if it is coming apart." Based on this description, the nurse suspects what injury? a. Sprain b. Fracture c. Dislocation d. Stress fracture
A Sprains account for approximately 75% of all ankle injuries in children. A sprain results when the trauma is so severe that a ligament is either stretched or partially or completely torn by the force created as a joint is twisted or wrenched. Joint laxity is the most valid indicator of the severity of a sprain. A fracture involves the cross-section of the bone. Dislocations occur when the force of stress on the ligaments disrupts the normal positioning of the bone ends. Stress fractures result from repeated muscular contraction and are seen most often in sports involving repetitive weight bearing such as running, gymnastics, and basketball.
As part of the diagnostic evaluation of a child with cancer, biopsies are important for staging. What statement explains what staging means? a. Extent of the disease at the time of diagnosis b. Rate normal cells are being replaced by cancer cells c. Biologic characteristics of the tumor or lymph nodes d. Abnormal, unrestricted growth of cancer cells producing organ damage
A Staging is a description of the extent of the disease at the time of diagnosis. Staging criteria exist for most tumors. The stage usually relates directly to the prognosis; the higher the stage, the poorer the prognosis. The rate that normal cells are being replaced by cancer cells is not a definition of staging. Classification of the tumor refers to the biologic characteristics of the tumor or lymph nodes. Abnormal, unrestricted growth of cancer cells producing organ damage describes how cancer cells grow and can cause damage to an organ.
The nurse is caring for a neonate with respiratory distress syndrome. The infant has an endotracheal tube. What should nursing considerations related to suctioning include? a. Suctioning should not be carried out routinely. b. The infant should be in the Trendelenburg position for suctioning. c. Routine suctioning, usually every 15 minutes, is necessary. d. Frequent suctioning is necessary to maintain the patency of the bronchi.
A Suctioning is not an innocuous procedure and can cause bronchospasm, bradycardia, hypoxia, and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). It should never be carried out routinely. The Trendelenburg position should be avoided because it can contribute to increased ICP and reduced lung capacity from gravity pushing the organs against the diaphragm.
What test is used to screen for carbohydrate malabsorption? a. Stool pH b. Urine ketones c. C urea breath test d. ELISA stool assay
A The anticipated pH of a stool specimen is 7.0. A stool pH of less than 5.0 is indicative of carbohydrate malabsorption. The bacterial fermentation of carbohydrates in the colon produces short-chain fatty acids, which lower the stool pH. Urine ketones detect the presence of ketones in the urine, which indicates the use of alternative sources of energy to glucose. The C urea breath test measures the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled. It is used to determine the presence of Helicobacter pylori. ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) detects the presence of antigens and antibodies. It is not useful for disorders of metabolism.
The nurse should expect to care for which age of child if the admitting diagnosis is retinoblastoma? a. Infant or toddler b. Preschool- or school-age child c. School-age or adolescent child d. Adolescent
A The average age of the child at the time of diagnosis is 2 years, and bilateral and hereditary disease is diagnosed earlier than unilateral and nonhereditary disease.
The nurse is discussing with a parent group the importance of fluoride for healthy teeth. What should the nurse recommend? a. Determine whether the water supply is fluoridated. b. Use fluoridated mouth rinses in children older than 1 year. c. Give fluoride supplements to infants beginning at age 2 months. d. Brush teeth with fluoridated toothpaste unless the fluoride content of water supply is adequate.
A The decision about fluoride supplementation cannot be made until it is known whether the water supply contains fluoride and the amount. It is difficult to teach toddlers to spit out mouthwash. Swallowing fluoridated mouthwashes can contribute to fluorosis. Fluoride supplementation is not recommended until after age 6 months and then only if the water is not fluoridated. Fluoridated toothpaste is still indicated if the fluoride content of the water supply is adequate, but very small amounts are used.
In teaching parents how to minimize or prevent bleeding episodes when the child is myelosuppressed, the nurse includes what information? a. Meticulous mouth care is essential to avoid mucositis. b. Rectal temperatures are necessary to monitor for infection. c. Intramuscular injections are preferred to intravenous ones. d. Platelet transfusions are given to maintain a count greater than 50,000/mm3.
A The decrease in blood platelets secondary to the myelosuppression of chemotherapy can cause an increase in bleeding. The child and family are taught how to perform good oral hygiene to minimize gingival bleeding and mucositis. Rectal temperatures are avoided to minimize the risk of ulceration. Hygiene is also emphasized. Intramuscular injections are avoided because of the risk of bleeding into the muscle and of infection. Platelet transfusions are usually not given unless there is active bleeding or the platelet count is less than 10,000/mm3. The use of platelets when not necessary can contribute to antibody formation and increased destruction of platelets when transfused.
Which statement is true concerning the nutritional needs of preterm infants? a. The secretion of lactase is low. b. Carbohydrates and fats are better tolerated than protein. c. The demand for nutrients is less than in full-term infants. d. Breast milk lacks the proper concentration of nutrients.
A The enzyme lactase is not readily available in an infant's body until after 34 weeks of gestation. Formulas containing lactose are not well tolerated. Carbohydrates and fats are less well tolerated than protein. Preterm infants require significantly higher intake of calories and other nutrients than full-term infants. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends 105 to 130 kcal/kg/day. Breast milk from the infant's mother is considered the ideal enteral nutrition for the infant. Several commercial formulas are designed for preterm infants.
What laboratory finding should the nurse expect in a child with an excess of water? a. Decreased hematocrit b. High serum osmolality c. High urine specific gravity d. Increased blood urea nitrogen
A The excess water in the circulatory system results in hemodilution. The laboratory results show a falsely decreased hematocrit. Laboratory analysis of blood that is hemodiluted reveals decreased serum osmolality and blood urea nitrogen. The urine specific gravity is variable relative to the child's ability to correct the fluid imbalance.
What urine test result is considered abnormal? a. pH 4.0 b. WBC 1 or 2 cells/ml c. Protein level absent d. Specific gravity 1.020
A The expected pH ranges from 4.8 to 7.8. A pH of 4.0 can be indicative of urinary tract infection or metabolic alkalosis or acidosis. Less than 1 or 2 white blood cells per milliliter is the expected range. The absence of protein is expected. The presence of protein can be indicative of glomerular disease. A specific gravity of 1.020 is within the anticipated range of 1.001 to 1.030. Specific gravity reflects level of hydration in addition to renal disorders and hormonal control such as antidiuretic hormone.
A 2-year-old child has a chronic history of constipation and is brought to the clinic for evaluation. What should the therapeutic plan initially include? a. Bowel cleansing b. Dietary modification c. Structured toilet training d. Behavior modification
A The first step in the treatment of chronic constipation is to empty the bowel and allow the distended rectum to return to normal size. Dietary modification is an important part of the treatment. Increased fiber and fluids should be gradually added to the child's diet. A 2-year-old child is too young for structured toilet training. For an older child, a regular schedule for toileting should be established. Behavior modification is part of the overall treatment plan. The child practices releasing the anal sphincter and recognizing cues for defecation.
What is a major goal for the therapeutic management of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)? a. Control pain and preserve joint function. b. Minimize use of joint and achieve cure. c. Prevent skin breakdown and relieve symptoms. d. Reduce joint discomfort and regain proper alignment.
A The goals of therapy are to control pain, preserve joint range of motion and function, minimize the effects of inflammation, and promote normal growth and development. There is no cure for JIA at this time. Skin breakdown is not an issue for most children with JIA. Symptom relief and reduction in discomfort are important. When the joints are damaged, it is often irreversible.
What is the most immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries? a. Shock b. Anemia c. Local infection d. Systemic sepsis
A The immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries is airway compromise and profound shock. Anemia is not of immediate concern. During the healing phase, local infection or sepsis is the primary complication.
The parent of 16-month-old child asks, "What is the best way to keep my child from getting into our medicines at home?" What should the nurse advise? a. "All medicines should be locked securely away." b. "The medicines should be placed in high cabinets." c. "Your child just needs to be taught not to touch medicines." d. "Medicines should not be kept in the homes of small children."
A The major reason for poisoning in the home is improper storage. Toddlers can climb, unlatch cabinets, and obtain access to high-security places. For medications, only a locked cabinet is safe. Toddlers can climb using furniture. High places are not a deterrent to an exploring toddler. Toddlers are not able to generalize that all the different forms of medications in the home may be dangerous. Keeping medicines out of the homes of small children is not feasible because many parents require medications for chronic or acute illnesses. Parents must be taught safe storage for their home and when they visit other homes.
What is the most common cause of iatrogenic anemia in preterm infants? a. Frequent blood sampling b. Respiratory distress syndrome c. Meconium aspiration syndrome d. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
A The most common cause of anemia in preterm infants is frequent blood-sample withdrawal and inadequate erythropoiesis in acutely ill infants. Microsamples should be used for blood tests, and the amount of blood drawn should be monitored. Respiratory distress syndrome, meconium aspiration syndrome, and persistent pulmonary hypertension are not causes of anemia. They may require frequent blood sampling, which contributes to the problem of decreased erythropoiesis and anemia.
If an intramuscular (IM) injection is administered to a child who has Reye syndrome, the nurse should monitor for what? a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Poor absorption d. Itching at the injection site
A The nurse should watch for bleeding from the site. Because of related liver dysfunction with Reye syndrome, laboratory studies, such as prolonged bleeding time, should be monitored to determine impaired coagulation.
The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what? a. 2 to 3 years b. 4 to 5 years c. 6 to 7 years d. 8 to 9 years
A The peak age at onset for minimal change nephrotic syndrome is 2 to 3 years of age.
The nurse is caring for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele. Surgery to repair the defect is scheduled the next day. What is the most appropriate way to position and feed this neonate? a. Prone with the head turned to the side b. On the side c. Supine in an infant carrier d. Supine, with defect supported with rolled blankets
A The prone position with the head turned to the side for feeding is the optimum position for the infant. It protects the spinal sac and allows the infant to be fed without trauma. The side-lying position is avoided preoperatively. It can place tension on the sac and affect hip dysplasia if present. The infant should not be placed in a supine position.
What flush solution is recommended for intravenous catheters larger than 24 gauge? a. Saline b. Heparin c. Alteplase d. Heparin and saline combination
A The recommended solution for flushing venous access devices is saline. The turbulent flow flush with saline is effective for catheters larger than 24 gauge. The use of heparin does not increase the longevity of the venous access device. In 24-gauge catheters, heparin may offer an advantage. Alteplase is used for treating catheter-related occlusions in children. The heparin and saline combination does not offer any advantage over saline or heparin individually.
The nurse is planning care for a school-age child with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should be included? a. Keep environmental stimuli to a minimum. b. Have the child move her head from side to side at least every 2 hours. c. Avoid giving pain medications that could dull sensorium. d. Measure head circumference to assess developing complications.
A The room is kept as quiet as possible and environmental stimuli are kept to a minimum. Most children with meningitis are sensitive to noise, bright lights, and other external stimuli. The nuchal rigidity associated with meningitis would make moving the head from side to side a painful intervention. If pain is present, the child should be treated appropriately. Failure to treat can cause increased intracranial pressure. In this age group, the head circumference does not change. Signs of increased intracranial pressure would need to be assessed.
What diagnostic test allows visualization of renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes? a. Renal ultrasonography b. Computed tomography c. Intravenous pyelography d. Voiding cystourethrography
A The transmission of ultrasonic waves through the renal parenchyma allows visualization of the renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes. Computed tomography uses external radiation, and sometimes contrast media are used. Intravenous pyelography uses contrast medium and external radiation for radiography. Contrast medium is injected into the bladder through the urethral opening. External radiation for radiography is used before, during, and after voiding in voiding cystourethrography.
A child develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) as a complication to meningitis. What action should be verified before implementing? a. Forcing fluids b. Daily weights with strict input and output (I and O) c. Strict monitoring of urine volume and specific gravity d. Close observation for signs of increasing cerebral edema
A The treatment of SIADH consists of fluid restriction until serum electrolytes and osmolality return to normal levels. SIADH often occurs in children who have meningitis. Monitoring weights, keeping I and O and specific gravity of urine, and observing for signs of increasing cerebral edema are all part of the nursing care for a child with SIADH.
The nurse is teaching parents about avoiding accidental burns with their toddler. What water heater setting should the nurse recommend to the parents? a. 120° F b. 130° F c. 140° F d. 150° F
A The water heater should be set to limit household water temperatures to less than 49° C (120° F). At this temperature, it takes 10 minutes for exposure to the water to cause a full-thickness burn. Conversely, water temperatures of 54° C (130° F), the usual setting of most water heaters, expose household members to the risk of full-thickness burns within 30 seconds.
The nurse is caring for a 3-week-old boy born at 29 weeks of gestation. While taking vital signs and changing his diaper after stooling, the nurse observes his color is pink but slightly mottled, his arms and legs are limp and extended, he has the hiccups, his respirations are deep and rapid, and his heart rate is regular and rapid. The nurse should recognize these behaviors as signs of what? a. Stress b. Subtle seizures c. Preterm behaviors d. Onset of respiratory distress
A These are signs of stress or fatigue in a newborn. Neonatal seizures usually have some type of repetitive movement, from twitching to rhythmic jerking movements. The behavior of a preterm infant may be inactive and listless. Respiratory distress is exhibited by retractions and nasal flaring.
A preterm infant who is being fed commercial formula by gavage has had an increase in gastric residuals, abdominal distention, and apneic episodes. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Notify the practitioner. b. Reduce the amount fed by gavage. c. Feed human milk by gavage. d. Feed only a glucose solution until the infant stabilizes.
A These are signs that may indicate early necrotizing enterocolitis. The practitioner is notified for further evaluation. Enteral feedings are usually stopped until the cause of increased residuals is identified.
The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. The nurse's response should be based on remembering what? a. This is acceptable to encourage head control and turning over. b. This is acceptable to encourage fine motor development. c. This is unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). d. This is unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental milestones.
A These parents are implementing the guidelines to reduce the risk of SIDS. Infants should sleep on their backs to reduce the risk of SIDS and then be placed on their abdomens when awake to enhance achievement of milestones such as head control. These position changes encourage gross motor, not fine motor, development.
A pregnant 15-year-old adolescent tells the nurse that she did not use any form of contraception because she was afraid her parents would find out. The nurse should recognize what? a. This is a frequent reason given by adolescents. b. This suggests a poor parent-child relationship. c. This is not a good reason to not get contraception. d. This indicates that the adolescent is unaware of her legal rights.
A This is one of the most common reasons given by teenagers for not using contraception. Although it is optimum for the parents to be involved in the health care of adolescents, some adolescents require confidential care. Privacy is important as they develop their personal identity and establish relationships. The adolescent may be concerned about parental judgment. The adolescent should discuss with the health care provider contraception that meets her needs; some of the longer acting birth control methods may be preferable. The adolescent did not tell the nurse that she was unaware that she could legally obtain contraceptive materials; she was concerned about her parents.
The nurse is teaching the parents of a 1-month-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip about preventing skin breakdown under the Pavlik harness. What statement by the parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should gently massage the skin under the straps once a day to stimulate circulation." b. "I will apply a lotion for sensitive skin under the straps after my baby has been given a bath to prevent skin irritation." c. "I should remove the harness several times a day to prevent contractures." d. "I will place the diaper over the harness, preferably using a superabsorbent disposable diaper that is relatively thin."
A To prevent skin breakdown with an infant who has developmental dysplasia of the hip and is in a Pavlik harness, the parent should gently massage the skin under the straps once a day to stimulate circulation. The parent should not apply lotions or powder because this could irritate the skin. The parent should not remove the harness, except during a bath, and should place the diaper under the straps.
Parents of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held. What is the nurse's best interpretation of this behavior? a. This is normal behavior for his age. b. This is unusual behavior for his age. c. He is not effectively coping with stress. d. He is showing he needs more attention.
A Toddlers use distinct behaviors in the quest for autonomy. They express their will with continued negativity and use of the word "no." Children at this age also have rapid mood swings. The nurse should reassure the parents that their child is engaged in expected behavior for an 18-month-old.
A child with cancer being treated with chemotherapy is receiving a platelet transfusion. The nurse understands that the transfused platelets should survive the body for how many days? a. 1 to 3 days b. 4 to 6 days c. 7 to 9 days d. 10 to 12 days
A Transfused platelets generally survive in the body for 1 to 3 days. The peak effect is reached in about 1 hour and decreased by half in 24 hours.
What is an infant with severe jaundice at risk for developing? a. Encephalopathy b. Bullous impetigo c. Respiratory distress d. Blood incompatibility
A Unconjugated bilirubin, which can cross the blood-brain barrier, is highly toxic to neurons. An infant with severe jaundice is at risk for developing kernicterus or bilirubin encephalopathy. Bullous impetigo is a highly infectious bacterial infection of the skin. It has no relation to severe jaundice. A blood incompatibility may be the causative factor for the severe jaundice.
What measure is important in managing hypercalcemia in a child who is immobilized? a. Provide adequate hydration. b. Change position frequently. c. Encourage a diet high in calcium. d. Provide a diet high in calories for healing.
A Vigorous hydration is indicated to prevent problems with hypercalcemia. Suggested intake for an adolescent is 3000 to 4000 ml/day of fluids. Diuretics are used to promote the removal of calcium. Changing position is important for skin and respiratory concerns. Calcium in the diet is restricted when possible. A high-protein diet served as frequent snacks with favored foods is recommended. A high-calorie diet without adequate protein will not promote healing.
A child is receiving vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse should monitor for which side effect of this medication? a. Diarrhea b. Photosensitivity c. Constipation d. Ototoxicity
A Vincristine, and to a lesser extent vinblastine, can cause various neurotoxic effects. One of the more common neurotoxic effects is severe constipation caused from decreased bowel innervation.
A 4-month-old with significant head lag meets the criteria for floppy infant syndrome. A diagnosis of progressive infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffmann disease) is made. What should be included in the nursing care for this child? a. Infant stimulation program b. Stretching exercises to decrease contractures c. Limited physical contact to minimize seizures d. Encouraging parents to have additional children
A Werdnig-Hoffmann disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1) is the most common paralytic form of floppy infant syndrome (congenital hypotonia). An infant stimulation program is essential. Frequent position changes, including changes in environment, provide the child with more physical contacts. Verbal, tactile, and auditory stimulation are also included. Contractures do not occur because of muscular atrophy. Sensation is normal in children with this disorder. Frequent touch is necessary as part of the stimulation. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Parents should be referred for genetic counseling.
What is important to incorporate in the plan of care for a child who is experiencing a seizure? a. Describe and record the seizure activity observed. b. Suction the child during a seizure to prevent aspiration. c. Place a tongue blade between the teeth if they become clenched. d. Restrain the child when seizures occur to prevent bodily harm.
A When a child is having a seizure, the priority nursing care is observation of the child and seizure. The nurse then describes and records the seizure activity. The child is not suctioned during the seizure. If possible, the child should be placed on the side, facilitating drainage to prevent aspiration.
During a well-child visit, the nurse practitioner provides guidance about promoting healthy eating in a child who is overweight. What does the nurse advise? a. Slow down eating meals. b. Avoid between-meal snacks. c. Include low-fat foods in meals. d. Use foods that child likes as special treats.
A When a child slows down the eating process, it is easier to recognize signs of fullness. If food is consumed rapidly, this feedback is lost. Regular meals and snacks are encouraged to prevent the child from becoming too hungry and overeating. Low-fat foods are usually higher in calories than the regular versions. Nutritional labels should be checked and foods high in sugar and calories avoided. Food should not be used as a special treat or reward; this encourages the child to use food as comfort measures in response to boredom and stress.
The nurse suspects a newborn has a fractured clavicle. What are signs of a fractured clavicle? (Select all that apply.) a. An asymmetric Moro reflex b. Limited use of the affected arm c. Crying when the arm is moved d. Muscles of the hand are paralyzed e. The arm hangs limp alongside the body
A, B, C A newborn with a fractured clavicle may have no signs, but the nurse should suspect a fracture if an infant has limited use of the affected arm, malpositioning of the arm, an asymmetric Moro reflex, or focal swelling or tenderness or cries when the arm is moved. Paralyzed hand muscles and an arm that hangs limp alongside the body are signs of Erb palsy.
The nurse is teaching the family with a child with cerebral palsy (CP) strategies to prevent constipation. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase fluid intake. b. Increase fiber in the diet. c. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed. d. Increase the amount of dairy products in the diet. e. Allow the child to decide when to try to have a bowel movement.
A, B, C A variety of factors, including decreased mobility, decreased fluid intake, a fear of toileting, poor positioning on the toilet, and lack of fiber intake may be responsible for constipation for a child with CP. Stool softeners, laxatives, and a bowel management program may be required to prevent chronic constipation. The child should be placed on the toilet or encouraged to have a bowel movement at the same time each day. Dairy products can cause constipation.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 10-year-old child with appendicitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Vomiting c. Tachycardia d. Flushed face e. Hyperactive bowel sounds
A, B, C Clinical manifestations of appendicitis include fever, vomiting, and tachycardia. Pallor is seen, not a flushed face, and the bowel sounds are hypoactive or absent, not hyperactive.
The nurse is monitoring an infant's temperature to avoid cold stress. The nurse understands that cold stress in the infant can cause which complications? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypoxia b. Hypoglycemia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis e. Increased shivering response
A, B, C Cold stress poses hazards to the neonate through hypoxia, metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia. Cold stress does not cause respiratory alkalosis. The infant lacks a shivering response, so it is not a complication of cold stress.
The nurse has administered a dose of epinephrine to a 12-month-old infant. For which adverse reactions of epinephrine should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea b. Tremors c. Irritability d. Bradycardia e. Hypotension
A, B, C Epinephrine increases activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Adverse effects include nausea, tremors, and irritability. Tachycardia would occur, not bradycardia, and hypertension, not hypotension, would occur.
The nurse is teaching an adolescent female with primary dysmenorrhea foods that are natural diuretics. What foods should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Peaches b. Asparagus c. Watermelon d. Wheat bread e. Dairy products
A, B, C Natural diuretics such as asparagus, cranberry juice, peaches, parsley, or watermelon may help reduce edema and related discomforts of primary dysmenorrhea. Wheat bread and dairy products are not natural diuretics.
The nurse is admitting a drug-exposed newborn to the neonatal intensive care unit. The nurse should assess the newborn for which signs of withdrawal? (Select all that apply.) a. Tremors b. Nasal stuffiness c. Loose, watery stools d. Hypoactive Moro reflex e. Decrease in respiratory rate
A, B, C Signs of withdrawal in a drug-exposed newborn include increased tone; increased respiratory rate; disturbed sleep; fever; excessive sucking; and loose, watery stools. Other signs observed included projectile vomiting, mottling, crying, nasal stuffiness, hyperactive Moro reflex, and tremors.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old with an epidural hemorrhage. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache b. Vomiting c. Irritability d. Cephalhematoma e. Pallor with anemia
A, B, C The classic clinical picture of an epidural hemorrhage is a lucid interval (momentary unconsciousness) followed by a normal period for several hours, and then lethargy or coma due to blood accumulation in the epidural space and compression of the brain. The child may be seen with varying degrees of impaired consciousness depending on the severity of the traumatic injury. Common symptoms in a child with no neurologic deficit are irritability, headache, and vomiting. In infants younger than 1 year of age, the most common symptoms are irritability, pallor with anemia, and cephalhematoma.
In what condition should the nurse be alert for altered fluid requirements in children? (Select all that apply.) a. Oliguric renal failure b. Increased intracranial pressure c. Mechanical ventilation d. Compensated hypotension e. Tetralogy of Fallot f. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
A, B, C The nurse should recognize that conditions such as oliguric renal failure, increased intracranial pressure, and mechanical ventilation can cause an increase or a decrease in fluid requirements. Conditions such as hypotension, tetralogy of Fallot, and diabetes mellitus (type 1) do not cause an alteration in fluid requirements.
The nurse is preparing to administer danazol (Danocrine) to a patient with endometriosis. What are the side effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Insomnia b. Hot flashes c. Amenorrhea d. Increased libido e. Vaginal secretions
A, B, C The side effects of danazol are amenorrhea, hot flashes, vaginal dryness, insomnia, and decreased libido.
What strategies should the nurse implement to increase nutritional intake for the child receiving chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow the child any food tolerated. b. Fortify foods with nutritious supplements. c. Allow the child to be involved in food selection. d. Encourage the parents to place pressure on the importance of eating. e. Encourage the child to eat favorite foods during infusion of chemotherapy medications.
A, B, C To increase nutritional intake for the child receiving chemotherapy, the nurse should allow the child any food tolerated, fortify foods with nutritious supplements, and allow the child to be involved in food selection. The parents should be encouraged to reduce pressure placed on eating. Some children develop aversions to certain foods if they are eaten during chemotherapy. It is best to refrain from offering the child's favorite foods while the child is receiving chemotherapy.
The nurse is preparing a presentation on compensated, decompensated, and irreversible shock in children. What clinical manifestations related to decompensated shock should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Tachypnea b. Oliguria c. Confusion d. Pale extremities e. Hypotension f. Thready pulse
A, B, C, D As shock progresses, perfusion in the microcirculation becomes marginal despite compensatory adjustments, and the signs are more obvious. Signs include tachypnea, oliguria, confusion, and pale extremities, as well as decreased skin turgor and poor capillary filling. Hypotension and a thready pulse are clinical manifestations of irreversible shock.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 2-year-old child with spina bifida occulta. What clinical manifestations of spina bifida occulta should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Dark tufts of hair b. Skin depression or dimple c. Port-wine angiomatous nevi d. Soft, subcutaneous lipomas e. Bladder and sphincter paralysis
A, B, C, D Clinical manifestations of spina bifida occulta include dark tufts of hair; skin depression or dimple; port-wine angiomatous nevi; and soft, subcutaneous lipomas. Bladder and sphincter paralysis are present with spina bifida cystica but not occulta.
The nurse is caring for a child with neurofibromatosis. What local manifestations does the nurse expect to assess in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Pigmented nevi b. Axillary freckling c. Café-au-lait spots d. Slowly growing cutaneous neurofibromas e. Wheals that spread irregularly and fade within a few hours
A, B, C, D Local manifestations of neurofibromatosis include pigmented nevi, axillary freckling, café-au-lait spots, and slowly growing cutaneous neurofibromas. Wheals that spread irregularly and fade within a few hours are characteristic of urticaria.
What are some of the associated disabilities seen with cerebral palsy? (Select all that apply.) a. Visual impairment b. Hearing impairment c. Speech difficulties d. Intellectual impairment e. Associated heart defects
A, B, C, D Some of the disabilities associated with CP are visual impairment, hearing impairment, behavioral problems, communication and speech difficulties, seizures, and intellectual impairment. Additional sensory deficits such as hypersensitivity, hyposensitivity, and balance difficulties may occur in children with CP.
The nurse is preparing a staff education program about growth and development of an 18-month-old toddler. Which characteristics should the nurse include in the staff education program? (Select all that apply.) a. Eats well with a spoon and cup b. Runs clumsily and can walk up stairs c. Points to common objects d. Builds a tower of three or four blocks e. Has a vocabulary of 300 words f. Dresses self in simple clothes
A, B, C, D Tasks accomplished by an 18-month-old toddler include eating well with a spoon and cup, running clumsily, walking up stairs, pointing to common objects such as shoes, and building a tower with three or four blocks. An 18-month-old toddler has a vocabulary of only 10 words, not 300. Toddlers cannot dress themselves in simple clothing until 24 months of age.
The school nurse is teaching a group of adolescents about avoiding contaminated water during a mission trip. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Ice b. Meats c. Raw vegetables d. Unpeeled fruits e. Carbonated beverages
A, B, C, D The best measure during travel to areas where water may be contaminated is to allow children to drink only bottled water and carbonated beverages (from the container through a straw supplied from home). Children should also avoid tap water, ice, unpasteurized dairy products, raw vegetables, unpeeled fruits, meats, and seafood.
The nurse is conducting preoperative teaching to parents and their child about an external fixation device. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Pin care b. Crutch walking c. Modifications in activity d. Observing pin sites for infection e. Full weight bearing will be allowed after 24 hours
A, B, C, D The device is attached surgically by securing a series of external full or half rings to the bone with wires. Children and parents should be instructed in pin care, including observation for infection and loosening of pins. Partial weight bearing is allowed, and the child needs to learn to walk with crutches. Alterations in activity include modifications at school and in physical education. Full weight bearing is not allowed until the distraction is completed and bone consolidation has occurred.
The nurse is preparing to admit a neonate with bacterial meningitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Jaundice b. Cyanosis c. Poor tone d. Nuchal rigidity e. Poor sucking ability
A, B, C, E Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis in a neonate include jaundice, cyanosis, poor tone, and poor sucking ability. The neck is usually supple in neonates with meningitis, and there is no nuchal rigidity.
The nurse is preparing to admit an adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Chills c. Headache d. Poor tone e. Drowsiness
A, B, C, E Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis in an adolescent include, fever, chills, headache, and drowsiness. Hyperactivity is present, not poor tone.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-month-old infant with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this infant? (Select all that apply.) a. High-pitched cry b. Poor feeding c. Setting-sun sign d. Sunken fontanel e. Distended scalp veins f. Decreased head circumference
A, B, C, E Clinical manifestations of increased ICP in an infant include a high-pitched cry, poor feeding, setting-sun sign, and distended scalp veins. The infant would have a tense, bulging fontanel and an increased head circumference.
A child on chemotherapy has developed rectal ulcers. What interventions should the nurse teach to the child and parents to relieve the discomfort of rectal ulcers? (Select all that apply.) a. Warm sitz baths b. Use of stool softeners c. Record bowel movements d. Use of an opioid for discomfort e. Occlusive ointment applied to the area
A, B, C, E If rectal ulcers develop, meticulous toilet hygiene, warm sitz baths after each bowel movement, and an occlusive ointment applied to the ulcerated area promote healing; the use of stool softeners is necessary to prevent further discomfort. Parents should record bowel movements because the child may voluntarily avoid defecation to prevent discomfort. Opioids would cause increased constipation.
An infant with an isolated cleft lip is being bottle fed. Which actions should the nurse plan to implement to assist with the feeding? (Select all that apply.) a. Use an NUK nipple. b. Use cheek support. c. Enlarge the nipple opening. d. Position the infant upright. e. Thicken the formula with rice cereal.
A, B, D A bottle-fed infant with an isolated cleft lip should be fed with cheek support (squeezing the cheeks together to decrease the width of the cleft), which may help the infant achieve an adequate anterior lip seal during feeding. Systems that have a wider base, such as an NUK (orthodontic) nipple or a Playtex nurser, allow the infant with a cleft lip to feed more successfully. The infant should be positioned upright with the head supported. This position helps gravity to direct the flow of liquid so that it is swallowed rather than entering into the nasal cavity. Enlarging the nipple opening would allow too much milk too fast for an infant with a cleft palate. Thickening the formula with rice cereal is done for infants with gastroesophageal reflux, not cleft lip.
Which interventions should the nurse implement for a newborn with a subgaleal hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.) a. Monitor bilirubin levels. b. Monitor hematocrit levels. c. Prepare the newborn for skull radiography. d. Monitor the newborn's level of consciousness. e. Place a warm compress on the affected area.
A, B, D An increase in serum bilirubin levels may occur as a result of the degrading red blood cells within the hematoma. Monitoring the newborn for changes in level of consciousness and a decrease in the hematocrit are keys to early recognition and management. Computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging, not skull radiography, is useful in confirming the diagnosis. A warm compress would be contraindicated because it may dilate blood vessels and increase bleeding.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child with hepatitis A. What clinical features of hepatitis A should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. The onset is rapid. b. Fever occurs early. c. There is usually a pruritic rash. d. Nausea and vomiting are common. e. The mode of transmission is primarily by the parenteral route.
A, B, D Clinical features of hepatitis A include a rapid onset, fever occurring early, and nausea and vomiting. A rash is rare, and the mode of transmission is by the fecal-oral route, rarely by the parenteral route.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with Crohn disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Pain is common. b. Weight loss is severe. c. Rectal bleeding is common. d. Diarrhea is moderate to severe. e. Anal and perianal lesions are rare.
A, B, D Clinical manifestations of Crohn disease include pain, severe weight loss, and moderate to severe diarrhea. Rectal bleeding is rare, but anal and perianal lesions are common.
The nurse is teaching a school-age child about factors that can delay wound healing. What factors should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Deficient vitamin C b. Deficient vitamin D c. Increased circulation d. Dry wound environment e. Increase in white blood cells
A, B, D Factors that delay wound healing are a dry wound environment (allows epithelial cells to dry), deficient vitamin C (inhibits formation of collagen fibers), and deficient vitamin D (regulates growth and differentiation of cell types). Decreased, not increased, circulation delays healing. An increase in the white blood cell count may occur but does not delay healing.
The clinic nurse is assessing an adolescent on a topical antibacterial agent. The nurse should assess for which side effects that can be seen with topical antibacterial agents? (Select all that apply.) a. Burning b. Dryness c. Dry eyes d. Erythema e. Nasal irritation
A, B, D Side effects of topical antibacterial medications include erythema, dryness, and burning; using the medications every other day will decrease the adverse effects. Dry eyes and nasal irritation are seen with use of isotretinoin, 13-cis-retinoic acid (Accutane).
The school nurse is assessing a child's severely scraped knee for infection. What are signs of a wound infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Odor b. Edema c. Dry scab d. Purulent exudate e. Decreased temperature
A, B, D Signs of wound infection are odor, edema, and purulent exudate. Increased, not decreased, temperature indicates infection. A dry scab over the wound is part of the healing process.
The nurse is preparing to admit an adolescent with encephalitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Malaise b. Apathy c. Lethargy d. Hypoactivity e. Hypothermia
A, B, D The clinical manifestations of encephalitis include malaise, apathy, and lethargy. There is hyperactivity, not hypoactivity, and hyperthermia, not hypothermia.
What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the infancy period (1-24 months)? (Select all that apply.) a. Pallor b. Poor feeding c. Hypothermia d. Excessive thirst e. Frequent urination
A, B, D, E Signs and symptoms of a urinary tract disorder in the infancy period are pallor, poor feeding, excessive thirst, and frequent urination. Hyperthermia is seen, not hypothermia.
The nurse is teaching an adolescent female about the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). What symptoms should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Headaches b. Fluid retention c. Increased energy d. Emotional changes e. Premenstrual cravings
A, B, D, E Symptoms of PMS include fluid retention (abdominal bloating, pelvic fullness, edema of the lower extremities, breast tenderness, and weight gain), behavioral or emotional changes (depression, crying spells, irritability, panic attacks, and impaired ability to concentrate), premenstrual cravings (sweets, salt, increased appetite, and food binges), headache, and backache. Fatigue rather than increased energy occurs.
The nurse is assisting with application of a synthetic cast on a child with a fractured humerus. What are the advantages of a synthetic cast over a plaster of Paris cast? (Select all that apply.) a. Less bulky b. Drying time is faster c. Molds readily to body part d. Permits regular clothing to be worn e. Can be cleaned with small amount of soap and water
A, B, D, E The advantages of synthetic casts over plaster of Paris casts are that they are less bulky, dry faster, permit regular clothes to be worn, and can be cleaned. Plaster of Paris casts mold readily to a body part, but synthetic casts do not mold easily to body parts.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old child with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Flatulence b. Constipation c. No urge to defecate d. Absence of abdominal pain e. Feeling of incomplete evacuation of the bowel
A, B, E Children with IBS often have alternating diarrhea and constipation, flatulence, bloating or a feeling of abdominal distention, lower abdominal pain, a feeling of urgency when needing to defecate, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation of the bowel.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with ataxic cerebral palsy. What clinical manifestations of ataxic cerebral palsy should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Wide-based gait b. Rapid, repetitive movements performed poorly c. Slow, twisting movements of the trunk or extremities d. Hypertonicity with poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion e. Disintegration of movements of the upper extremities when the child reaches for objects
A, B, E Clinical manifestations of ataxic cerebral palsy include a wide-based gait; rapid, repetitive movements performed poorly; and disintegration of movements of the upper extremities when the child reaches for objects. Slow, twisting movements of the trunk are seen with dyskinetic cerebral palsy, and hypertonicity with poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion are seen with spastic cerebral palsy.
The nurse is preparing to administer some iron drops to a toddler. Which factor can increase iron absorption? (Select all that apply.) a. Vitamin A b. Acidity (low pH) c. Phosphates (milk) d. Malabsorptive disorders e. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
A, B, E Factors that increase iron absorption are vitamin A, acidity (low pH), and ascorbic acid (vitamin C). Phosphates (milk) and malabsorptive disorders decrease absorption of iron.
The nurse is caring for a child with a urinary tract infection who is on intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). What interventions should the nurse plan for this child with regard to this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Encourage fluids. b. Monitor urinary output. c. Monitor sodium serum levels. d. Monitor potassium serum levels. e. Monitor serum peak and trough levels.
A, B, E Garamycin can cause renal toxicity and ototoxicity. Fluids should be encouraged and urinary output and serum peak and trough levels monitored. It is not necessary to monitor potassium sodium levels for patients taking this medication.
The nurse is caring for a neonate on positive-pressure ventilation. The nurse monitors for which complications of positive-pressure ventilation? (Select all that apply.) a. Pneumothorax b. Pneumomediastinum c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Meconium aspiration syndrome e. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
A, B, E Positive-pressure introduced by mechanical apparatus increases complications such as pulmonary interstitial emphysema, pneumothorax, and pneumomediastinum. Respiratory distress syndrome and meconium aspiration syndrome are not complications of positive-pressure ventilation.
The nursery nurse is aware that which are risk factors for hyperbilirubinemia? (Select all that apply.) a. An infant born prematurely b. An infant born to a mother with diabetes c. An infant born to a white mother d. An infant fed exclusively with formula e. An infant born with a metabolic disease
A, B, E Prematurity increases the risk of hyperbilirubinemia. An infant born to a mother with diabetes is also at risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Infants with metabolic disorders such as galactosemia or hypothyroidism may also develop hyperbilirubinemia. Neonates of East Asian ethnicity (China, Taiwan, Macao, Hong Kong, Japan, and Korea) are at higher risk for high mean serum bilirubin levels than neonates of any different ethnic origin. Exclusive breastfeeding is another risk factor for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, not feeding exclusively with formula.
What preventive measures should the nurse teach parents of toddlers to prevent early childhood caries? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid using a bottle as a pacifier. b. Eliminate bedtime bottles completely. c. Place juice in a bottle for the child to drink. d. Wean from the bottle by 18 months of age. e. Avoid coating pacifiers in a sweet substance.
A, B, E Prevention of dental caries involves eliminating the bedtime bottle completely, feeding the last bottle before bedtime, substituting a bottle of water for milk or juice, not using the bottle as a pacifier, and never coating pacifiers in sweet substances. Juice in bottles, especially commercially available ready-to-use bottles, is discouraged; these beverages are especially damaging because the sugar is more readily converted to acid. Juice should always be offered in a cup to avoid prolonging the bottle-feeding habit. Toddlers should be encouraged to drink from a cup at the first birthday and weaned from a bottle by 14 months of age, not 18 months.
The nurse is caring for a child with a urinary tract infection who is on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What side effects of this medication should the nurse teach to the parents and the child? (Select all that apply.) a. Rash b. Urticaria c. Pneumonitis d. Renal toxicity e. Photosensitivity
A, B, E Side effects of Bactrim are rash, urticaria, and photosensitivity. Pneumonitis and renal toxicity are not side effects of Bactrim.
The nurse is preparing to administer a topical application of 1 ml of nystatin (Mycostatin) to an infant with oral thrush. Which actions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer after a feeding. b. Use a sponge applicator to swab the oral mucosa and tongue. c. Administer after warming the medication under running warm water. d. If white patches are no longer present, hold the medication. e. Deposit the remainder of the dose in the mouth with a syringe so the infant swallows a small amount.
A, B, E To administer a topical application of nystatin for oral thrush, the medication should be distributed over the surface of the oral mucosa and tongue with an applicator or syringe. The remainder of the dose is deposited in the mouth to be swallowed by the infant to treat any gastrointestinal lesions. The nystatin should be administered after feedings. The medication should not be warmed before administration, and the medication should continue to be administered until discontinued by the health care provider.
The nurse is teaching a new nurse about types of physical injuries that can occur at birth. Which soft tissue injuries should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Petechiae b. Retinal hemorrhage c. Facial paralysis d. Cephalhematoma e. Subdural hematoma f. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
A, B, F Soft tissue injuries that can occur at birth include petechiae, retinal hemorrhage, and subconjunctival hemorrhage. Facial paralysis and cephalhematoma are head injuries that occur at birth, and a subdural hematoma is considered a neurologic injury related to the birthing process.
In teaching a 16-year-old adolescent who was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), what statements should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "You should use a moisturizer with a sun protection factor (SPF) of 30." b. "You should avoid pregnancy because this can cause a flare-up." c. "You should not receive any immunizations in the future." d. "You may need to be on a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet." e. "You should expect to lose weight while taking steroids." f. "You may need to modify your daily recreational activities."
A, B, F Teaching for an adolescent with SLE should foster adaptation and self-advocacy and include using a moisturizer with an SPF of 30, avoiding pregnancy because it can produce a flare-up, and modifying recreational activities but continuing with daily exercise as an essential part of the treatment plan. The adolescent should continue to receive immunizations as scheduled, should expect to gain weight while on steroid therapy, and would not have a specialized diet.
The nurse is planning care for an infant with eczema. Which interventions should the nurse include in the care plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid giving the infant a bubble bath. b. Avoid the use of a humidifier in the infant's room. c. Avoid overdressing the infant. d. Avoid the use of topical steroids on the infant's skin. e. Avoid wet compresses on the infant's most affected areas.
A, C Guidelines for care of an infant with eczema include avoiding a bubble bath and harsh soaps and avoiding overdressing the infant to prevent perspiration, which can cause a flare-up. The care plan should include using a humidifier in the infant's room, topical steroids, and wet compresses on the most affected areas.
The nurse is teaching parents of a child with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) disease foods that can exacerbate acid reflux. What foods should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Citrus b. Bananas c. Spicy foods d. Peppermint e. Whole wheat bread
A, C, D Avoidance of certain foods that exacerbate acid reflux (e.g., caffeine, citrus, tomatoes, alcohol, peppermint, spicy or fried foods) can improve mild GER symptoms. Bananas and whole wheat bread will not exacerbate acid reflux.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child with a lower motor neuron syndrome. What clinical manifestations of a lower motor neuron syndrome should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Loss of hair b. Babinski reflex present c. Skin and tissue changes d. Marked atrophy of atonic muscle e. Hyperreflexia with tendon reflexes exaggerated
A, C, D Clinical manifestations of a lower motor neuron syndrome include loss of hair, skin and tissue changes, and marked atrophy of atonic muscle. Babinski reflex present and hyperreflexia with tendon reflexes exaggerated are manifestations of an upper motor neuron syndrome.
The nurse is teaching parents of a toddler how to handle temper tantrums. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide realistic expectations. b. Avoid using rewards for good behavior. c. Ensure consistency among all caregivers in expectations. d. During tantrums, ignore the behavior and continue to be present. e. Use time-outs for managing temper tantrums, starting at 12 months.
A, C, D The best approach toward tapering temper tantrums requires consistency and developmentally appropriate expectations and rewards. Ensuring consistency among all caregivers in expectations, prioritizing what rules are important, and developing consequences that are reasonable for the child's level of development help manage the behavior. During tantrums, ignore the behavior, provided the behavior is not injurious to the child, such as violently banging the head on the floor. Continue to be present to provide a feeling of control and security to the child after the tantrum has subsided. Starting at 18 months, time-outs work well for managing temper tantrums, but not at 12 months.
The nurse is teaching an adolescent about the use of tretinoin (Retin-A). What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Begin with a pea-sized dot of medication. b. Apply additional medication to the throat. c. Use sunscreen daily and avoid the sun when possible. d. Divide the medication into the three main areas of the face. e. Apply the medication immediately after washing the face.
A, C, D Tretinoin is available as a cream, gel, or liquid. This drug can be extremely irritating to the skin and requires careful patient education for optimal usage. The patient should be instructed to begin with a pea-sized dot of medication, which is divided into the three main areas of the face and then gently rubbed into each area. The avoidance of the sun and the daily use of sunscreen must be emphasized because sun exposure can result in severe sunburn. The medication should not be applied for at least 20 to 30 minutes after washing to decrease the burning sensation. The medication should not be applied to the throat.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 10-year-old child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. Calf muscle hypertrophy b. Late onset, usually between 6 and 8 years of age c. Progressive muscular weakness, wasting, and contractures d. Loss of independent ambulation by 9 to 12 years of age e. Slowly progressive, generalized weakness during adolescence
A, C, D, E Clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy include calf muscle hypertrophy; progressive muscular weakness; wasting and contractures; loss of independent ambulation by 9 to 12 years of age; and slowly progressive, generalized weakness during adolescence. The onset is early, not late, usually between 3 and 5 years of age.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-month-old child with gastroesophageal reflux disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Spitting up b. Bilious vomiting c. Failure to thrive d. Excessive crying e. Respiratory problems
A, C, D, E Clinical manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease include spitting up, failure to thrive, excessive crying, and respiratory problems. Hematemesis, not bilious vomiting, is a manifestation.
The nurse should teach the family that which residual disabilities can occur for a child being treated for a brain tumor? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Anorexia c. Dysphagia d. Sensory deficits e. Crania nerve palsies
A, C, D, E Even with children who are long-term survivors after treatment for a brain tumor, residual disabilities, such as short stature, cranial nerve palsies, sensory defects, motor abnormalities (especially ataxia), intellectual deficits, dysphagia, dysgraphia, and behavioral problems, may occur. Anorexia is not a residual disability.
The school nurse is teaching a group of adolescent females which measures to take to prevent genital tract infections. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Use condoms. b. Douche once a week. c. Avoid tight-fitting clothing. d. Limit exposure to bubble baths. e. Avoid colored and scented toilet tissue.
A, C, D, E Measure to take to prevent genital tract infections include using condoms, avoiding tight-fitting clothing, limiting exposure to bubble baths, and avoiding colored and scented toilet tissue. Douching should be avoided.
The nurse is caring for a child with meningitis. What acute complications of meningitis should the nurse continuously assess the child for? (Select all that apply.) a. Seizures b. Cerebral palsy c. Cerebral edema d. Hydrocephalus e. Cognitive impairments
A, C, E Acute complications of meningitis include syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), subdural effusions, seizures, cerebral edema and herniation, and hydrocephalus. Long-term complications include cerebral palsy, cognitive impairments, learning disorder, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and seizures.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old child with celiac disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Steatorrhea b. Polycythemia c. Malnutrition d. Melena stools e. Foul-smelling stools
A, C, E Clinical manifestations of celiac disease include impaired fat absorption (steatorrhea and foul-smelling stools) and impaired nutrient absorption (malnutrition). Anemia, not polycythemia, is a manifestation, and melena stools do not occur.
What conditions are physical complications of obesity? (Select all that apply.) a. Type 2 diabetes mellitus b. QT interval prolongation c. Fatty liver disease d. Gastrointestinal dysfunction e. Abnormal growth acceleration f. Dental erosion
A, C, E Physical complications of obesity include type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is reaching epidemic proportions in children and adolescents; fatty liver disease not related to alcohol consumption; and abnormal growth acceleration in which overweight children tend to be taller and mature earlier than children who are not overweight. Prolonged QT intervals, gastrointestinal dysfunction, and dental erosion are physical complications observed in children or adolescents who have eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa or bulimia.
What are signs and symptoms of a possible kidney transplant rejection in a child? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Hypotension c. Diminished urinary output d. Decreased serum creatinine e. Swelling and tenderness of graft area
A, C, E The child with a kidney transplant who exhibits any of the following should be evaluated immediately for possible rejection: fever, diminished urinary output, and swelling and tenderness of graft area. Hypertension, not hypotension, and increased, not decreased, serum creatinine are signs of rejection.
The nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse at an ambulatory pediatric hematology and oncology clinic. What cardinal signs of cancer in children should the nurse make the new nurse aware of? (Select all that apply.) a. Sudden tendency to bruise easily b. Transitory, generalized pain c. Frequent headaches d. Excessive, rapid weight gain e. Gradual, steady fever f. Unexplained loss of energy
A, C, F The cardinal signs of cancer in children include a sudden tendency to bruise easily; frequent headaches, often with vomiting; and an unexplained loss of energy. Other cardinal signs include persistent, localized pain; excessive, rapid weight loss; and a prolonged, unexplained fever.
The home care nurse is visiting a 6-month-old infant with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). The nurse assesses the child for which signs of overhydration? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L c. Urine specific gravity of 1.008 d. Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
A, D Nurses must be alert to signs of overhydration in an infant with BPD such as changes in weight, electrolytes, output measurements, and urine specific gravity and signs of edema. Six-month-old infants gain around 4 to 5 oz a week. One pound in 1 week would indicate fluid retention. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L and urine specific gravity of 1.008 are normal values and indicate adequate fluid balance.
The nurse is caring for a neonate with an intraventricular hemorrhage. What interventions should the nurse avoid to prevent any increase in intracranial pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Keeping the head of the bed flat b. Keeping the environment quiet c. Handling the neonate minimally d. Suctioning the endotracheal tube frequently e. Maintaining the neonate's head in a midline position
A, D Some nursing procedures increase intracranial pressure (ICP). For example, blood pressure increases significantly during endotracheal suctioning in preterm infants, and head positioning produces measurable changes in ICP. ICP is highest when infants are in the dependent (flat) position and decreases when the head is in a midline position and elevated 30 degrees. Keeping the environment quiet, handling the neonate minimally, and maintaining the neonate's head in a midline position are measures to keep the ICP down.
The nurse is teaching parents of a school-age child how to cleanse small wounds. What should the nurse advise the parents to avoid using to cleanse a wound? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Normal saline c. Tepid water d. Povidone-iodine e. Hydrogen peroxide
A, D, E Caution caregivers to avoid cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, alcohol, and hydrogen peroxide because these products disrupt wound healing. Normal saline and tepid water are safe to use when cleansing wounds.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 10-year-old child with absence seizures. What clinical features of absence seizures should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. There is no aura. b. There is a postictal state. c. They usually last longer than 30 seconds. d. There is a brief loss of consciousness. e. There is an occasional clonic movement.
A, D, E Clinical features of absence seizures include no auras, a brief loss of consciousness, and an occasional clonic movement. There is no postictal state, and the seizures rarely last longer than 30 seconds.
The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old child with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Arthralgia b. Weight gain c. Polycythemia d. Abdominal pain e. Glomerulonephritis
A, D, E Clinical manifestations of SLE include arthralgia, abdominal pain, and glomerulonephritis. Weight loss, not gain, and anemia, not polycythemia, are manifestations of SLE.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 2-month-old child with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight loss b. Bilious vomiting c. Abdominal pain d. Projectile vomiting e. The infant is hungry after vomiting
A, D, E Clinical manifestations of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis include weight loss, projectile vomiting, and hunger after vomiting. The vomitus is nonbilious, and there is no evidence of pain or discomfort, just chronic hunger.
The nurse is teaching an adolescent with premenstrual syndrome (PMS) dietary measures to relieve the symptoms of PMS. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Limit salt in the diet. b. Limit legumes in the diet. c. Include red meat in the diet. d. Include whole grains in the diet. e. Limit consumption of refined sugar.
A, D, E Dietary treatment for PMS includes limiting consumption of refined sugar, salt, red meat, alcohol, and caffeinated beverages. Women can be encouraged to include whole grains, legumes, seeds, nuts, vegetables, fruits, and vegetable oils in their diet.
The nurse is teaching an adolescent girl strategies to relieve dysmenorrhea. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Effleurage b. Diet high in fat c. Limiting exercise d. Use of a heating pad e. Massaging the lower back
A, D, E Dysmenorrhea can be relieved by heat (heating pad or hot bath), which minimizes cramping by increasing vasodilation and muscle relaxation and minimizing uterine ischemia. Also, massaging the lower back can reduce pain by relaxing paravertebral muscles and increasing the pelvic blood supply. Soft, rhythmic rubbing of the abdomen (effleurage) is useful because it provides a distraction and an alternative focal point. A low-fat, not a high-fat, diet can help with dysmenorrhea, and exercise should not be limited because exercise can be beneficial.
The nurse is teaching parents about foods that are hyperallergenic. Which foods should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Peanuts b. Bananas c. Potatoes d. Egg noodles e. Tomato juice
A, D, E Hyperallergenic foods include peanuts, egg noodles, and tomato juice. Bananas and potatoes are not hyperallergenic.
The school nurse recognizes that the adverse effects of performance-enhancing substances can include what? (Select all that apply.) a. Depression b. Dehydration c. Hypotension d. Aggressiveness e. Changes in libido
A, D, E Mood changes have been observed as adverse effects of using performance-enhancing substances, including aggressiveness, changes in libido, depression, anxiety, and psychosis. Fluid retention, not dehydration, and hypertension, not hypotension, are adverse effects of performance-enhancing substances.
The nurse is caring for a child with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What interventions should the nurse plan for this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid jarring the bed. b. Keep the room brightly lit. c. Keep the bed in a flat position. d. Administer prescribed stool softeners. e. Administer a prescribed antiemetic for nausea.
A, D, E Other measures to relieve discomfort for a child with ICP include providing a quiet, dimly lit environment; limiting visitors; preventing any sudden, jarring movement, such as banging into the bed; and preventing an increase in ICP. The latter is most effectively achieved by proper positioning and prevention of straining, such as during coughing, vomiting, or defecating. An antiemetic should be administered to prevent vomiting, and stool softeners should be prescribed to prevent straining with bowel movements. The head of the bed should be elevated 15 to 30 degrees.
The nurse is teaching parents about potential causes of colic in infancy. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Overeating b. Understimulation c. Frequent burping d. Parental smoking e. Swallowing excessive air
A, D, E Potential causes of colic include too rapid feeding, overeating, swallowing excessive air, improper feeding technique (especially in positioning and burping), emotional stress or tension between the parent and child, parental smoking, and overstimulation.
What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the childhood period (2 to 14 years)? (Select all that apply.) a. Fatigue b. Dehydration c. Hypotension d. Growth failure e. Blood in the urine
A, D, E Signs and symptoms of a urinary tract disorder in the childhood period are fatigue, growth failure, and blood in the urine. Edema is noted, not dehydration, and hypertension is present, not hypotension.
A parent tells the nurse, "My toddler tries to undo the car seat harness and climb out of the seat." What strategies should the nurse recommend to the parent to encourage the child to stay in the seat? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow your child to hold a favorite toy. b. Allow your child out of the seat occasionally. c. Avoid using rewards to encourage cooperative behavior. d. When child tries to unbuckle the seat harness, firmly say, "No." e. It may be necessary to stop the car to reinforce the expected behavior.
A, D, E Strategies to encourage a child to stay in a car seat include allowing the child to hold favorite toy, firmly saying "No" if the child begins to undo the harness, and stopping the car to reinforce the expected behavior. Rewards, such as stars or stickers, can be used to encourage cooperative behavior. The child should stay in the car seat at all times, even for short trips.
The nurse is caring for a child immobilized because of Russel traction. What interventions should the nurse implement to prevent renal calculi? (Select all that apply.) a. Monitor output. b. Encourage the patient to drink apple juice. c. Encourage milk intake. d. Ensure adequate fluids. e. Encourage the patient to drink cranberry juice.
A, D, E To prevent renal calculi in a child who is immobilized, a nurse should monitor output; ensure adequate fluids; and encourage cranberry juice, which acidifies urine. Apple juice and milk alkalize the urine, so they should not be encouraged.
After a treatment plan for acne has been initiated, which time period should the nurse explain to an adolescent before improvement will be seen? a. 2 to 4 weeks b. 4 to 6 weeks c. 6 to 8 weeks d. 8 to 10 weeks
After a treatment plan for acne has been initiated, which time period should the nurse explain to an adolescent before improvement will be seen? a. 2 to 4 weeks b. 4 to 6 weeks c. 6 to 8 weeks d. 8 to 10 weeks
Diagnosis of hepatitis B is confirmed by the detection of various hepatitis virus antigens, and the antibodies that are produced in response to the infection. Match the antibody or antigen to its definition. Indicates resolving or past infection a. HBsAg b. Anti-HBs c. HBcAg d. HBeAg
B
Many cutaneous lesions are associated with local symptoms. Match the symptom with its definition. Absence of sensation a. Pruritus b. Anesthesia c. Hyperesthesia d. Hypesthesia e. Paresthesia
B
Match the acute wound to its definition. Forcible pulling out or extraction of tissue a. Abrasion b. Avulsion c. Laceration d. Incision e. Puncture
B
Match the classification of urinary tract infections of inflammations to its definition. Inflammation of the bladder a. Persistent urinary tract infection b. Cystitis c. Urethritis d. Pyelonephritis e. Urosepsis
B
Match the cranial syndrome or sequence with its facial features. Craniosynostosis resulting in a prominent forehead a. Crouzon syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Pierre Robin sequence
B
Match the following terms related to food sensitivities to the accurate descriptions. Specific components of food or ingredients in food that are recognized by allergen-specific immune cells eliciting an immune reaction a. Food allergy b. Food allergen c. Food intolerance d. Sensitization e. Atopy
B
Match the level of consciousness to its description. Confusion regarding time and place a. Confusion b. Disorientation c. Obtundation d. Stupor e. Coma
B
Match the type of fracture to its definition. Slanting but straight between a horizontal and a perpendicular direction a. Transverse b. Oblique c. Spiral d. Comminuted
B
Match the type of skin graft to its definition. Skin that is obtained from members of a different species, primarily pigskin a. Allografts b. Xenografts c. Autografts d. Isografts
B
Match the type of vegetarianism to its description. Exclude meat and eggs but drink milk a. Lacto-ovo vegetarians b. Lactovegetarians c. Pure vegetarians (vegans) d. Macrobiotics e. Semi-vegetarians
B
The nurse is explaining the purpose of using a vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) device to assist in the healing of a wound. What should the nurse explain as the purpose of using a VAC device? a. The device will decrease capillary flow. b. The device applies gentle continuous suction. c. The device will allow the wound to remain open. d. The device will prevent the formation of granulation tissue.
B A VAC device uses a technique that involves placing a foam dressing into the wound, covering it with an occlusive dressing, and applying gentle continuous suction. The negative pressure of the suction is applied from the foam dressing to the wound surfaces. The mechanical force removes excess fluids from the wound, stimulates formation of granulation tissue, restores capillary flow, and fosters closure of the wound.
The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). The parent states, "My child has a low platelet count, and we are being discharged this afternoon. What do I need to do at home?" What statement is most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "You should give your child aspirin instead of acetaminophen for fever or pain." b. "Your child should avoid contact sports or activities that could cause bleeding." c. "You should feed your child a bland, soft, moist diet for the next week." d. "Your child should avoid large groups of people for the next week."
B A child with a low platelet count needs to avoid activities that could cause bleeding such as playing contact sports, climbing trees, using playground equipment, or bike riding. The child should be given acetaminophen, not aspirin, for fever or pain; the child does not need to be on a soft, bland diet or avoid large groups of people because of the low platelet count.
What is an important nursing responsibility when dealing with a family experiencing the loss of an infant from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? a. Discourage the parents from making a last visit with the infant. b. Make a follow-up home visit to the parents as soon as possible after the child's death. c. Explain how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented. d. Interview the parents in depth concerning the circumstances surrounding the child's death.
B A competent, qualified professional should visit the family at home as soon as possible ater the death. Printed information about SIDS should be provided to the family. Parents should be allowed and encouraged to make a last visit with their child. SIDS cannot always be prevented or predicted, but parents can take steps to reduce the risk (e.g., supine sleeping, removing blankets and pillows from the crib, and not smoking). Discussions about the cause only increase parental guilt. The parents should be asked only factual questions to determine the cause of death.
A goal for children with spina bifida is to reduce the chance of allergy development. What is a priority nursing intervention? a. Recommend allergy testing. b. Provide a latex-free environment. c. Use only powder-free latex gloves. d. Limit use of latex products as much as possible.
B A latex-free environment is the goal. This includes eliminating the use of latex gloves and other medical devices containing latex. Allergy testing would provide information about whether the allergy has developed. It will not reduce the chances of developing the allergy. Although powder-free latex gloves are less allergenic, latex should not be used. Limiting the use of latex products is one component of providing a latex-free environment, but latex products should not be used.
Which finding on a newborn assessment should the nurse recognize as suggestive of a clavicle fracture? a. Positive scarf sign b. Asymmetric Moro reflex c. Swelling of fingers on affected side d. Paralysis of affected extremity and muscles
B A newborn with a broken clavicle may have no signs. The Moro reflex, which results in sudden extension and abduction of the extremities followed by flexion and adduction of the extremities, will most likely be asymmetric. The scarf sign that is used to determine gestational age should not be performed if a broken clavicle is suspected. Swelling of the fingers on the affected side and paralysis of the affected extremity and muscles are not signs of a fractured clavicle.
A child with osteosarcoma is experiencing phantom limb pain after an amputation. What prescribed medication is effective for short-term phantom pain relief? a. Phenytoin (Dilantin) b. Gabapentin (Neurontin) c. Valproic Acid (Depakote) d. Phenobarbital (Phenobarbital)
B A recent Cochrane review reported that various medications have been used for phantom limb pain but complete pain relief has been unsuccessful. Morphine, gabapentin, and ketamine are effective for short-term pain relief.
What measure of fluid balance status is most useful in a child with acute glomerulonephritis? a. Proteinuria b. Daily weight c. Specific gravity d. Intake and output
B A record of daily weight is the most useful means to assess fluid balance and should be kept for children treated at home or in the hospital. Proteinuria does not provide information about fluid balance. Specific gravity does not accurately reflect fluid balance in acute glomerulonephritis. If fluid is being retained, the excess fluid will not be included. Also proteinuria and hematuria affect specific gravity. Intake and output can be useful but are not considered as accurate as daily weights. In children who are not toilet trained, measuring output is more difficult.
A 15-year-old girl tells the school nurse that she has not started to menstruate yet. Onset of secondary sexual characteristics was about 2 1/2 years ago. The nurse should take which action? a. Explain that this is not unusual. b. Refer the adolescent for an evaluation. c. Make an assumption that the adolescent is pregnant. d. Suggest that the adolescent stop exercising until menarche occurs.
B A referral is indicated. Menarche should follow the onset of secondary sexual development within 2 1/2 years. A careful examination is done to reveal any physical abnormalities, signs of androgen excess, and congenital defects of the genital tract. The lack of the onset of menstruation at this age is a potential indication of a physical problem. Assuming that the adolescent is pregnant is inappropriate. The nurse does not have any indication that the adolescent is sexually active. The amount of exercise should be assessed before suggesting that the adolescent stop exercising until menarche occurs.
What statement is true concerning adolescent suicide? a. A sense of hopelessness and despair is a normal part of adolescence. b. Gay and lesbian adolescents are at a particularly high risk for suicide. c. Problem-solving skills are of limited value to the suicidal adolescent. d. Previous suicide attempts are not an indication for completed suicides.
B A significant number of teenage suicides occur among homosexual youths. Gay and lesbian adolescents who live in families or communities that do not accept homosexuality are likely to experience low self-esteem, self-loathing, depression, and hopelessness. Most adolescents do not experience this stage of life as a time of despair. Depressive symptoms, acting-out behaviors, and talk of suicide need to be taken seriously. At-risk teenagers include those who are depressed, have poor problem-solving skills, or use drugs and alcohol. A history of a previous suicide attempt is a serious indicator for possible suicide completion in the future.
What statement best describes a subdural hematoma? a. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull. b. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum. c. Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly. d. The hematoma commonly occurs in the parietotemporal region.
B A subdural hematoma is bleeding that occurs between the dura and the cerebrum as a result of a rupture of cortical veins that bridge the subdural space. An epidural hemorrhage occurs between the dura and the skull, is usually arterial with rapid brain concussion, and occurs most often in the parietotemporal region.
A 6-year-old boy with very fair skin will be joining his family during a beach vacation. What should the nurse recommend? a. Keep him off the beach during the daytime hours. b. Use sunscreen with an SPF of at least 15 and reapply it every 2 to 3 hours. c. Apply a topical sunscreen product with an SPF of 30 in the morning. d. Dress him in long pants and long-sleeved shirt and keep him under a beach umbrella.
B A sunscreen with an SPF (sun protection factor) of at least 15 is recommended. The sunscreen should be reapplied every 2 to 3 hours and after the child is in the water or sweating excessively. During a beach vacation, avoiding the beach during daytime hours is impractical. The highest risk of sun exposure is from 10 AM to 3 PM. Sunlight exposure should be limited during this time. An SPF of 30 is good, but reapplying it is necessary every 2 to 3 hours and when the child gets wet. Long pants and a shirt are impractical. The beach umbrella can be used with the sunscreen to limit exposure to the sun.
The nurse stops to assist an adolescent who has experienced severe trauma when hit by a motorcycle. The emergency medical system (EMS) has been activated. The first person who provided assistance applied a tourniquet to the child's leg because of arterial bleeding. What should the nurse do related to the tourniquet? a. Loosen the tourniquet. b. Leave the tourniquet in place. c. Remove the tourniquet and apply direct pressure if bleeding is still present. d. Remove the tourniquet every 5 minutes, leaving it off for 30 seconds each time.
B A tourniquet is applied only as a last resort, and then it is left in place and not loosened until definitive treatment is available. After the tourniquet is applied, skin and tissue necrosis occur below the site. Loosening or removing the tourniquet allows toxins from the tissue necrosis to be released into the circulation. This can induce systemic, deadly tourniquet shock.
The nurse determines that a child's intravenous infusion has infiltrated. The infused solution is a vesicant. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Stop the infusion and apply ice. b. End the infusion and notify the practitioner. c. Slow the infusion rate and notify the practitioner. d. Discontinue the infusion and apply warm compresses.
B A vesicant causes cellular damage when even minute amounts escape into the tissue. The intravenous infusion is immediately stopped, the extremity is elevated, the practitioner is notified, and the treatment protocol is initiated. The applying of heat or ice depends on the fluid that has extravasated. The catheter is left in place until it is no longer needed.
The middle school nurse is speaking to parents about prevention of injuries as a goal of the physical education program. How should the goal be achieved? a. Use of protective equipment at the family's discretion b. Education of adults to recognize signs that indicate a risk for injury c. Sports medicine program to help student athletes work through overuse injuries d. Arrangements for multiple sports to use same athletic fields to accommodate more children\
B Adults close to sports activities need to be aware of the early warning signs of fatigue, dehydration, and risk for injury. School policy should require mandatory use of protective equipment. Proper sports medicine therapy does not support "working through" overuse injuries. Too many students involved in different activities create distractions, which contribute to the child losing focus. This is a contributing factor to injury.
What pathologic process is believed to be responsible for the development of postinfectious glomerulonephritis? a. Infarction of renal vessels b. Immune complex formation and glomerular deposition c. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli d. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation
B After a streptococcal infection, antibodies are formed, and immune-complex reaction occurs. The immune complexes are trapped in the glomerular capillary loop. Infarction of renal vessels occurs in renal involvement in sickle cell disease. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli is not a mechanism for postinfectious glomerulonephritis. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation is the pathology of renal involvement with bacterial endocarditis.
Essential postoperative nursing management of a child after removal of a brain tumor includes which nursing care? a. Turning and positioning every 2 hours b. Measuring all fluid intake and output c. Changing the dressing when it becomes soiled d. Using maximum lighting to ensure accurate observations
B After brain surgery, cerebral edema is a risk. Careful monitoring is essential. All fluids, including intravenous antibiotics, are included in the intake. Turning and positioning depend on the surgical procedure. When large tumors are removed, the child is usually not positioned on the operative side. The dressing is not changed. It is reinforced with gauze after the amount of drainage is marked and estimated. A quiet, dimly lit environment is optimum to decrease stimulation and relieve discomfort such as headaches.
An infant is born with one lower limb deficiency. When is the optimum time for the child to be fitted with a functional prosthetic device? a. As soon as possible after birth b. When the infant is developmentally ready to stand up c. At about ages 12 to 15 months, when most children are walking d. At about 4 years, when the healthy limb is not growing so rapidly
B An infant should be fitted with a functional prosthetic leg when the infant is developmentally ready to pull to a standing position. When the infant begins limb exploration, a soft prosthesis can be used. The child should begin using the prosthesis as part of his or her normal development. This will match the infant's motor readiness.
The nurse is caring for a family whose infant was just born with anencephaly. What is the most important nursing intervention? a. Implement measures to facilitate the attachment process. b. Help the family cope with the birth of an infant with a fatal defect. c. Prepare the family for extensive surgical procedures that will be needed. d. Provide emotional support so the family can adjust to the birth of an infant with problems.
B Anencephaly is the most serious neural tube defect. The infants have an intact brainstem and, if born alive, may be able to maintain vital functions for a few hours to several weeks. The family requires emotional support and counseling to cope with the birth of an infant with a fatal defect. The parents should be encouraged to hold their infant and provide comfort measures. This facilitates the grieving process because the infant has a limited life expectancy. Infants with anencephaly do not have cerebral hemispheres. There is no surgical correction available for this defect. Emotional support is needed as the family adjusts to the birth of a child who has a fatal defect.
A toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with presumptive bacterial meningitis. The initial orders include isolation, intravenous access, cultures, and antimicrobial agents. The nurse knows that antibiotic therapy will begin when? a. After the diagnosis is confirmed b. When the medication is received from the pharmacy c. After the child's fluid and electrolyte balance is stabilized d. As soon as the practitioner is notified of the culture results
B Antimicrobial therapy is begun as soon as a presumptive diagnosis is made. The choice of drug is based on the most likely infective agent. Drug choice may be adjusted when the culture results are obtained. Waiting for culture results to begin therapy increases the risk of neurologic damage. Although fluid and electrolyte balance is important, there is no indication that this child is unstable. Antibiotic therapy would be a priority intervention.
What is the most frequent cause of hypovolemic shock in children? a. Sepsis b. Blood loss c. Anaphylaxis d. Heart failure
B Blood loss is the most frequent cause of hypovolemic shock in children. Sepsis causes septic shock, which is overwhelming sepsis and circulating bacterial toxins. Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Heart failure contributes to hypervolemia, not hypovolemia.
What statement is most descriptive of Meckel diverticulum? a. It is acquired during childhood. b. Intestinal bleeding may be mild or profuse. c. It occurs more frequently in females than in males. d. Medical interventions are usually sufficient to treat the problem.
B Bloody stools are often a presenting sign of Meckel diverticulum. It is associated with mild to profuse intestinal bleeding. Meckel diverticulum is the most common congenital malformation of the gastrointestinal tract and is present in 1% to 4% of the general population. It is more common in males than in females. The standard therapy is surgical removal of the diverticulum.
What clinical manifestations suggest hydrocephalus in an infant? a. Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry b. Bulging fontanel and dilated scalp veins c. Constant low-pitched cry and restlessness d. Depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure
B Bulging fontanels, dilated scalp veins, and separated sutures are clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus in neonates. A closed fontanel, high-pitched cry, constant low-pitched cry, restlessness, a depressed fontanel, and decreased blood pressure are not clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus, but all should be referred for evaluation.
A toddler's mother calls the nurse because she thinks her son has swallowed a button type of battery. He has no signs of respiratory distress. The nurse's response should be based on which premise? a. An emergency laparotomy is very likely. b. The location needs to be confirmed by radiographic examination. c. Surgery will be necessary if the battery has not passed in the stool in 48 hours. d. Careful observation is essential because an ingested battery cannot be accurately detected.
B Button batteries can cause severe damage if lodged in the esophagus. If both poles of the battery come in contact with the wall of the esophagus, acid burns, necrosis, and perforation can occur. If the battery is in the stomach, it will most likely be passed without incident. Surgery is not indicated. The battery is metallic and is readily seen on radiologic examination.
The nurse is preparing a staff education in-service session for a group of new graduate nurses who will be working in a long-term care facility for children; many of the children have cerebral palsy (CP). What statement should the nurse include in the training? a. Children with dyskinetic CP have a wide-based gait and repetitive movements. b. Children with spastic pyramidal CP have a positive Babinski sign and ankle clonus. c. Children with hemiplegia CP have mouth muscles and one lower limb affected. d. Children with ataxic CP have involvement of pharyngeal and oral muscles with dysarthria.
B CP has a variety of clinical classifications. Spastic pyramidal CP includes manifestations such as a positive Babinski sign and ankle clonus; ataxic CP has a wide-based gait and repetitive movements; hemiplegia CP is characterized by motor dysfunction on one side of the body with upper extremity more affected than lower limbs; and dyskinetic CP involves the pharyngeal and oral muscles, causing drooling and dysarthria.
Which one of the following strategies might be recommended for an infant with failure to thrive (FTT) to increase caloric intake? a. Vary the schedule for routine activities on a daily basis. b. Be persistent through 10 to 15 minutes of food refusal. c. Avoid solids until after the bottle is well accepted. d. Use developmental stimulation by a specialist during feedings.
B Calm perseverance through 10 to 15 minutes of food refusal will eventually diminish negative behavior. Children with FTT need a structured routine to help establish rhythmicity in their activities of daily living. Many children with FTT are fed exclusively from a bottle. Solids should be fed first. Stimulation is reduced during mealtimes to maintain the focus on eating.
A child, age 10 years, has a neuroblastoma and is in the hospital for additional chemotherapy treatments. What laboratory values are most likely this child's? a. White blood cell count, 17,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 15 g/dl b. White blood cell count, 3,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 11.5 g/dl c. Platelets, 450,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 12 g/dl d. White blood cell count, 10,000/mm3; platelets, 175,000/mm3
B Chemotherapy is the mainstay of therapy for extensive local or disseminated neuroblastoma. The drugs of choice are vincristine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, etoposide, ifosfamide, and carboplatin. These cause immunosuppression, so the laboratory values will indicate a low white blood cell count and hemoglobin.
Parents are switching their toddler, who has met the weight requirement, from a rear-facing car seat to a forward-facing seat. The nurse should recommend the parents place the seat where in the car? a. In the front passenger seat b. In the middle of the rear seat c. In the rear seat behind the driver d. In the rear seat behind the passenger
B Children 0 to 3 years of age riding properly restrained in the middle of the backseat have a 43% lower risk of injury than children riding in the outboard (window) seat during a crash.
The nurse is conducting discharge teaching with the parent of a 7-year-old child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS). What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "My child needs to stay home from school for at least 1 more month." b. "I should not add additional salt to any of my child's meals." c. "My child will not be able to participate in contact sports while receiving corticosteroid therapy." d. "I should measure my child's urine after each void and report the 24-hour amount to the health care provider."
B Children with MCNS can be treated at home after the initial phase with appropriate discharge instructions, including a salt restriction of no additional salt to the child's meals. The child may return to school but should avoid exposure to infected playmates. Participation in contact sports is not affected by corticosteroid therapy. The parent does not need to measure the child's urine on a daily basis but may be instructed to test for albumin.
A child is on phenytoin (Dilantin). What should the nurse encourage? a. Fluid restriction b. Good dental hygiene c. A decrease in vitamin D intake d. Taking the medication with milk
B Chronic treatment with phenytoin may cause gum hypertrophy. Children taking phenobarbital or phenytoin should receive adequate vitamin D and folic acid because deficiencies of both have been associated with these drugs. The medication should not be taken with milk, and fluids should be encouraged, not restricted.
The nurse should suspect a child has cerebral palsy (CP) if the parent says what? a. "My 6-month-old baby is rolling from back to prone now." b. "My 4-month-old doesn't lift his head when on his tummy." c. "My 8-month-old can sit without support." d. "My 10-month-old is not walking."
B Delayed gross motor development is a universal manifestation of CP. The child shows a delay in all motor accomplishments, and the discrepancy between motor ability and expected achievement tends to increase with successive developmental milestones as growth advances. The infant who does not lift his head when on the tummy is showing a gross motor delay, as that is seen at 0 to 3 months. The other statements are within normal growth and development expectations.
A child has just returned from surgery for repair of a fractured femur. The child has a long-leg cast on. The toes on the leg with the cast are edematous, but they have color, sensitivity, and movement. What action should the nurse take? a. Call the health care provider to report the edema. b. Elevate the foot and leg on pillows. c. Apply a warm moist pack to the foot. d. Encourage movement of toes.
B During the first few hours after a cast is applied, the chief concern is that the extremity may continue to swell to the extent that the cast becomes a tourniquet, shutting off circulation and producing neurovascular complications (compartment syndrome). One measure to reduce the likelihood of this problem is to elevate the body part and thereby increase venous return. The health care provider does not need to be notified because edema is expected and warm moist packs will not decrease the edema. The child should move the toes, but that will not help reduce the edema.
A mother is upset because her newborn has erythema toxicum neonatorum. The nurse should reassure her that this is what? a. Easily treated b. Benign and transient c. Usually not contagious d. Usually not disfiguring
B Erythema toxicum neonatorum, or newborn rash, is a benign, self-limiting eruption of unknown cause that usually appears within the first 2 days of life. The rash usually lasts about 5 to 7 days. No treatment is indicated. Erythema toxicum neonatorum is not contagious. Successive crops of lesions heal without pigmentation.
A bottle-fed infant has been diagnosed with cow's milk allergy. Which formula should the nurse expect to be prescribed for the infant? a. Similac b. Pregestimil c. Enfamil with iron d. Gerber Good Start
B For infants with cow's milk allergy, the formula will be changed to a casein hydrolysate milk formula (Pregestimil, Nutramigen, or Alimentum) in which the protein has been broken down into its amino acids through enzymatic hydrolysis. Similac, Enfamil with iron, and Gerber Good Start are cow's milk-based formulas.
What consideration is important for the nurse when changing dressings and applying topical medication to a child's abdomen and leg burns? a. Apply topical medication with clean hands. b. Wash hands and forearms before and after dressing change. c. If dressings have adhered to the wound, soak in hot water before removal. d. Apply dressing so that movement is limited during the healing process.
B Frequent hand and forearm washing is the single most important element of the infection-control program. Topical medications should be applied with a tongue blade or gloved hand. Dressings that have adhered to the wound can be removed with tepid water or normal saline. Dressings are applied with sufficient tension to remain in place but not so tightly as to impair circulation or limit motion.
Parents are concerned that their 6-year-old son continues to occasionally wet the bed. What does the nurse explain? a. This is likely because of increased stress at home. b. Enuresis usually ceases between 6 and 8 years of age. c. Drug therapy will be prescribed to treat the enuresis. d. Testing will be necessary to determine what type of kidney problem exists.
B Further data must be gathered before the diagnosis of enuresis is made. Enuresis is the inappropriate voiding of urine at least twice a week. This child does meet the age criterion, but the parents need to be questioned about and keep a diary on the frequency of events. If the bedwetting is infrequent, parents can be encouraged that the child may grow out of this behavior. Drug therapy will not be prescribed until a more complete evaluation is done. Additional assessment information must be gathered, but at this time, there is no indication of renal disease.
What should preoperative care of a newborn with an anorectal malformation include? a. Frequent suctioning b. Gastrointestinal decompression c. Feedings with sterile water only d. Supine position with head elevated
B Gastrointestinal decompression is an essential part of nursing care for a newborn with an anorectal malformation. This helps alleviate intraabdominal pressure until surgical intervention. Suctioning is not necessary for an infant with this type of anomaly. Feedings are not indicated until it is determined that the gastrointestinal tract is intact. Supine position with head elevated is indicated for infants with a tracheoesophageal fistula, not anorectal malformations.
The nurse is discussing home care with a mother whose 6-year-old child has hepatitis A. What information should the nurse include? a. Advise bed rest until 1 week after the icteric phase. b. Teach infection control measures to family members. c. Inform the mother that the child cannot return to school until 3 weeks after onset of jaundice. d. Reassure the mother that hepatitis A cannot be transmitted to other family members.
B Hand washing is the single most effective measure in preventing and controlling hepatitis. Hepatitis A can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route. Family members must be taught preventive measures. Rest and quiet activities are essential and adjusted to the child's condition, but bed rest is not necessary. The child is not infectious 1 week after the onset of jaundice and may return to school as activity level allows.
What finding is characteristic of fractures in children? a. Fractures rarely occur at the growth plate site because it absorbs shock well. b. Rapidity of healing is inversely related to the child's age. c. Pliable bones of growing children are less porous than those of adults. d. The periosteum of a child's bone is thinner, is weaker, and has less osteogenic potential compared to that of an adult.
B Healing is more rapid in children. The younger the child, the more rapid the healing process. Nonunion of bone fragments is uncommon except in severe injuries. The epiphyseal plate is the weakest point of long bones and a frequent site of injury during trauma. Children's bones are more pliable and porous than those of adults. This allows them to bend, buckle, and break. The greater porosity increases the flexibility of the bone and dissipates and absorbs a significant amount of the force on impact. The adult periosteum is thinner, is weaker, and has less osteogenic potential than that of a child.
Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second baby, a son. Which factor is important in understanding how this could develop? a. The first child was a girl. b. The first child was Rh positive. c. Both parents have type O blood. d. She was not immunized against hemolysis.
B Hemolytic disease of the newborn results from an abnormally rapid rate of red blood cell (RBC) destruction. The major causes of this are maternal-fetal Rh and ABO incompatibility. If an Rh-negative mother has previously been exposed to Rh-positive blood through pregnancy or blood transfusion, antibodies to this blood group antigen may develop so that she is isoimmunized. With further exposure to Rh-positive blood, the maternal antibodies agglutinate with the RBCs of the fetus that has the antigen and destroy the cells. Hemolytic disease caused by ABO incompatibilities can be present with the first pregnancy. The gender of the first child is not a concern. Blood type is the important consideration. If both parents have type O blood, ABO incompatibility should not be a possibility.
What type of dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit? a. Isotonic dehydration b. Hypotonic dehydration c. Hypertonic dehydration d. Hyperosmotic dehydration
B Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. Isotonic dehydration occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in balanced proportion. Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. This is the most dangerous type of dehydration. It is caused by feeding children fluids with high amounts of solute. Hyperosmotic dehydration is another term for hypertonic dehydration.
Immobilization causes what effect on metabolism? a. Hypocalcemia b. Decreased metabolic rate c. Positive nitrogen balance d. Increased levels of stress hormones
B Immobilization causes a decreased metabolic rate with slowing of all systems and a decreased food intake. Immobilization leads to hypercalcemia and a negative nitrogen balance secondary to muscle atrophy. Decreased production of stress hormones occurs with decreased physical and emotional coping capacity.
When should the nurse expect jaundice to be present in a full-term infant with hemolytic disease? a. At birth b. Within 24 hours after birth c. 25 to 48 hours after birth d. 49 to 72 hours after birth
B In hemolytic disease of the infant, jaundice is usually evident within the first 24 hours of life. Infants with hemolytic disease are usually not jaundiced at birth, although some degree of hepatosplenomegaly, pallor, and hypovolemic shock may occur when the most severe form, hydrops fetalis, is present. Twenty-five to 72 hours after birth is too late for hemolytic disease of the infant. Jaundice at these ages is most likely caused by physiologic or early-onset breastfeeding jaundice.
A 6-month-old infant with Hirschsprung disease is scheduled for a temporary colostomy. What should postoperative teaching to the parents include? a. Dilating the stoma b. Assessing bowel function c. Limitation of physical activities d. Measures to prevent prolapse of the rectum
B In the postoperative period, the nurse involves the parents in the care of the child with a temporary colostomy, allowing them to help with feedings and observe for signs of wound infection or irregular passage of stool (constipation or true incontinence). Some children will require daily anal dilatations in the postoperative period to avoid anastomotic strictures but not stoma dilatations. Physical activities should be encouraged. There is not a risk of prolapse of the rectum in Hirschsprung disease, just strictures.
An adolescent with irritable bowel syndrome comes to see the school nurse. What information should the nurse share with the adolescent? a. A low-fiber diet is required. b. Stress management may be helpful. c. Milk products are a contributing factor. d. Pantoprazole (a proton pump inhibitor) is effective in treatment.
B Irritable bowel syndrome is believed to involve motor, autonomic, and psychologic factors. Stress management, environmental modification, and psychosocial intervention may reduce stress and gastrointestinal symptoms. A high-fiber diet with psyllium supplement is often beneficial. Milk products can exacerbate bowel problems caused by lactose intolerance. Antispasmodic drugs, antidiarrheal drugs, and simethicone are beneficial for some individuals. Proton pump inhibitors have no effect.
A mother has just given birth to a newborn with a cleft lip. Sensing that something is wrong, she starts to cry and asks the nurse, "What is wrong with my baby?" What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Encourage the mother to express her feelings. b. Explain in simple language that the baby has a cleft lip. c. Provide emotional support until the practitioner can talk to the mother. d. Tell the mother a pediatrician will talk to her as soon as the baby is examined.
B It is best to explain in simple terms the nature of the defect and to reinforce and help clarify information given by the practitioner before the newborn is shown to the parents. Parents may not be ready to talk about their feelings during the first few days after birth. The nurse should provide information about the child's condition while waiting for the practitioner to speak with the family after the examination. The mother needs simple explanations of her child's condition during this period of waiting.
An infant requires surgery for repair of a cleft lip. An important priority of the preoperative nursing care is which? a. Initiating discharge teaching b. Performing baseline physical and behavioral assessment c. Observing for allergic reactions to preoperative antibiotics d. Determining whether this defect exists in other family members
B It is essential to assess the infant before surgery to obtain a baseline. Postoperative changes can be identified and a determination can be made regarding pain or change in status. The parents are not ready for discharge teaching. Their focus is on the congenital defect and surgery. Although a remote possibility, allergic reactions rarely occur on the first dose. Determining whether this defect exists in other family members is an important part of the history but is not a priority before surgery.
Parents phone the nurse and say that their child just knocked out a permanent tooth. What should the nurse's instructions to the parents include? a. Place the tooth in dry container for transport. b. Hold the tooth by the crown and not by the root area. c. Transport the child and tooth to a dentist within 18 hours. d. Take the child to hospital emergency department if his or her mouth is bleeding.
B It is important to avoid touching the root area of the tooth. The tooth should be held by the crown area; rinsed in milk, saline, or running water; and reimplanted as soon as possible. The tooth is kept moist during transport to maintain viability. Cold milk is the most desirable medium for transport. The child needs to be seen by a dentist as soon as possible. Tooth evulsion causes a large amount of bleeding. The child will need to be seen by a dentist because of the loss of a tooth, not the bleeding.
A 2-year-old child starts to have a tonic-clonic seizure. The child's jaws are clamped. What is the most important nursing action at this time? a. Place a padded tongue blade between the child's jaws. b. Stay with the child and observe his respiratory status. c. Prepare the suction equipment. d. Restrain the child to prevent injury.
B It is impossible to halt a seizure once it has begun, and no attempt should be made to do so. The nurse must remain calm, stay with the child, and prevent the child from sustaining any harm during the seizure. The nurse should not move or forcefully restrain the child during a tonic-clonic seizure and should not place a solid object between the teeth. Suctioning may be needed but not until the seizure has ended.
A child, age 3 years, has cerebral palsy (CP) and is hospitalized for orthopedic surgery. His mother says he has difficulty swallowing and cannot hold a utensil to feed himself. He is slightly underweight for his height. What is the most appropriate nursing action related to feeding this child? a. Bottle or tube feed him a specialized formula until he gains sufficient weight. b. Stabilize his jaw with caregiver's hand (either from a front or side position) to facilitate swallowing. c. Place him in a well-supported, semireclining position. d. Place him in a sitting position with his neck hyperextended to make use of gravity flow.
B Jaw control is compromised in many children with CP. More normal control is achieved if the feeder stabilizes the oral mechanisms from the front or side of the face. Bottle or tube feeding will not improve feeding without jaw support. The semireclining position and hyperextended neck position increase the chances of aspiration.
The nurse is caring for a newborn who was born at 35 weeks of gestation and is considered a late preterm infant. What intervention should be included in the infant's care plan? a. Feed the infant dextrose water as the first feeding after 12 hours. b. Promote skin-to-skin care in the immediate postpartum period. c. Avoid administration of the hepatitis B vaccine until after discharge. d. Delay the newborn screening and hearing test until the infant is at 40 weeks' corrected age.
B Late preterm infants can usually tolerate skin-to-skin care in the immediate postpartum period, which enhances the bonding process with the parents. A late preterm infant should be given an early feeding of human milk or formula; dextrose water is not required for the first feeding. The hepatitis B vaccine and all newborn screening, including the hearing test, should be done before discharge, with no limitation on corrected age.
An infant with short bowel syndrome is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The practitioner has added continuous enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. The nurse recognizes this as important for which reason? a. Wean the infant from TPN the next day b. Stimulate adaptation of the small intestine c. Give additional nutrients that cannot be included in the TPN d. Provide parents with hope that the child is close to discharge
B Long-term survival without TPN depends on the small intestine's ability to increase its absorptive capacity. Continuous enteral feedings facilitate the adaptation. TPN is indicated until the child is able to receive all nutrition via the enteral route. Before this is accomplished, the small intestine must adapt and increase in cell number and cell mass per villus column. TPN is formulated to meet the infant's nutritional needs. Continuous enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube is a positive sign, but the infant's ability to tolerate increasing amounts of enteral nutrition is only one factor that determines readiness for discharge.
Melena, the passage of black, tarry stools, suggests bleeding from which source? a. The perianal or rectal area b. The upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract c. The lower GI tract d. Hemorrhoids or anal fissures
B Melena is denatured blood from the upper GI tract or bleeding from the right colon. Blood from the perianal or rectal area, hemorrhoids, or lower GI tract would be bright red.
Gingivitis is a common problem in children with cerebral palsy (CP). What preventive measure should be included in the plan of care? a. High-carbohydrate diet b. Meticulous dental hygiene c. Minimum use of fluoride d. Avoidance of medications that contribute to gingivitis
B Meticulous oral hygiene is essential. Many children with CP have congenital enamel defects, high-carbohydrate diets, poor nutritional intake, and difficulty closing their mouths. These, coupled with the child's spasticity or clonic movements, make oral hygiene difficult. Children with CP have high carbohydrate intake and retention, which contribute to dental caries. Use of fluoride should be encouraged through fluoridated water or supplements and toothpaste. Certain medications such as phenytoin do contribute to gingival hyperplasia. If that is the drug of choice, then meticulous oral hygiene must be used.
What amount of fluid loss occurs with moderate dehydration? a. <50 ml/kg b. 50 to 90 ml/kg c. <5% total body weight d. >15% total body weight
B Moderate dehydration is defined as a fluid loss of between 50 and 90 ml/kg. Mild dehydration is defined as a fluid loss of less than 50 ml/kg. Weight loss up to 5% is considered mild dehydration. Weight loss over 15% is severe dehydration.
The nurse is collecting a 24-hour urine sample on a child with suspected diagnosis of neuroblastoma. What finding in the urine is expected with neuroblastomas? a. Ketones b. Catecholamines c. Red blood cells d. Excessive white blood cells
B Neuroblastomas, particularly those arising on the adrenal glands or from a sympathetic chain, excrete the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. Urinary excretion of catecholamines is detected in approximately 95% of children with adrenal or sympathetic tumors.
A toddler has a deep laceration contaminated with dirt and sand. Before closing the wound, the nurse should irrigate with what solution? a. Alcohol b. Normal saline c. Povidone-iodine d. Hydrogen peroxide
B Normal saline is the only acceptable fluid for irrigation listed. The nurse should cleanse the wound with a forced stream of normal saline or water. Alcohol is not used for wound irrigation. Povidone-iodine is contraindicated for cleansing fresh, open wounds. Hydrogen peroxide can cause formation of subcutaneous gas when applied under pressure.
The clinic nurse is evaluating a patient with a vaginal infection. The nurse knows that the normal vaginal pH is in which range? a. 3.0 to 4.0 b. 4.0 to 5.0 c. 5.0 to 6.0 d. 6.0 to 7.0
B Normal vaginal secretions are acidic, with a pH range of 4.0 to 5.0.
What statement is true concerning osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)? a. It is easily treated. b. It is an inherited disorder. c. Braces and exercises are of no therapeutic value. d. Later onset disease usually runs a more difficult course.
B OI is a heterogeneous, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by fractures and bone deformity. Treatment is primarily supportive. Several investigational therapies are being evaluated. The primary goal of therapy is rehabilitation. Lightweight braces and splints help support limbs, prevent fractures, and aid in ambulation. The disease is present at birth. Prognosis is affected by the type of OI.
The nurse is caring for a child receiving chemotherapy for leukemia. The child's granulocyte count is 600/mm3 and platelet count is 45,000/mm3. What oral care should the nurse recommend for this child? a. Rinsing mouth with water b. Daily toothbrushing and flossing c. Lemon glycerin swabs for cleansing d. Wiping teeth with moistened gauze or Toothettes
B Oral care is essential for children receiving chemotherapy to prevent infections and other complications. When the child's granulocyte count is above 500/mm3 and platelet count is above 40,000/mm3, daily brushing and flossing are recommended. Rinsing the mouth with water is not effective for oral hygiene. Lemon glycerin swabs are avoided because they have a drying effect on the mucous membranes, and the lemon may irritate eroded tissue and decay the child's teeth. Wiping teeth with moistened gauze or Toothettes is recommended when the child's granulocyte count is below 500/mm3 and platelet count is below 40,000/mm3.
What is the rationale for orthopedic surgery for a child with cerebral palsy? a. To cure spasticity b. To improve function c. For cosmetic purposes d. To prevent the need of physical therapy
B Orthopedic surgery is used primarily to improve function rather than for cosmetic purposes and is followed by physical therapy. It will not cure spasticity.
The parents of a child with spastic cerebral palsy (CP) state that their child seems to have significant pain. In addition to systemic pharmacologic management, the nurse includes which teaching? a. Patterning b. Positions to reduce spasticity c. Stretching exercises after meals d. Topical analgesics for muscle spasms
B Parents and children are taught positions to assume while sitting and recumbent that reduce spasticity. The American Academy of Pediatrics has stated that patterning should not be used for neurologically disabled children. Patterning attempts to alter abnormal tone and posture and elicit desired movements through positional manipulation or other means of modifying or augmenting sensory output. Stretching should be done after appropriate analgesic medication has been given and is effective. Topical analgesia is not effective for the muscle spasms of spastic CP.
Fentanyl and midazolam (Versed) are given before débridement of a child's burn wounds. What is the purpose of using these medications? a. Facilitate healing b. Provide pain relief c. Minimize risk of infection d. Decrease amount of débridement needed
B Partial-thickness burns require débridement of devitalized tissue to promote healing. The procedure is painful and requires analgesia and sedation before the procedure. Fentanyl and midazolam provide excellent intravenous sedation and analgesia to control procedural pain in children with burns.
What procedure is most appropriate for assessment of an abdominal circumference related to a bowel obstruction? a. Measuring the abdomen after feedings b. Marking the point of measurement with a pen c. Measuring the circumference at the symphysis pubis d. Using a new tape measure with each assessment to ensure accuracy
B Pen marks on either side of the tape measure allow the nurse to measure the same spot on the child's abdomen at each assessment. The child most likely will be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) if a bowel obstruction is present. If the child is being fed, the assessment should be done before feedings. The symphysis pubis is too low. Usually the largest part of the abdomen is at the umbilicus. Leaving the tape measure in place reduces the trauma to the child.
What is the narrowing of preputial opening of foreskin called? a. Chordee b. Phimosis c. Epispadias d. Hypospadias
B Phimosis is the narrowing or stenosis of the preputial opening of the foreskin. Chordee is the ventral curvature of the penis. Epispadias is the meatal opening on the dorsal surface of the penis. Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located anywhere along the ventral surface of the penis.
After the introduction of the Back to Sleep campaign in 1992, an increased incidence has been noted of which pediatric issues? a. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) b. Plagiocephaly c. Failure to thrive d. Apnea of infancy
B Plagiocephaly is a misshapen head caused by the prolonged pressure on one side of the skull. If that side becomes misshapen, facial asymmetry may result. SIDS has decreased by more than 40% with the introduction of the Back to Sleep campaign. Apnea of infancy and failure to thrive are unrelated to the Back to Sleep campaign.
What is a high-fiber food that the nurse should recommend for a child with chronic constipation? a. White rice b. Popcorn c. Fruit juice d. Ripe bananas
B Popcorn is a high-fiber food. Refined rice is not a significant source of fiber. Unrefined brown rice is a fiber source. Fruit juices are not a significant source of fiber. Raw fruits, especially those with skins and seeds, other than ripe bananas, have high fiber.
An adolescent girl is brought to the hospital emergency department by her parents after being raped. The girl is calm and controlled throughout the interview and examination. The nurse should recognize this behavior is what? a. A sign that a rape has not actually occurred b. One of a variety of behaviors normally seen in rape victims c. Indicative of a higher than usual level of maturity in the adolescent d. Suggestive that the adolescent had severe emotional problems before the rape occurred
B Rape victims display a wide range of behaviors. A controlled manner may be an attempt to maintain composure while hiding the inner turmoil. Because the observed behavior is within the range of expected behavior, there are no data to indicate that a rape has not actually occurred, that the adolescent is unusually mature, or that she had severe emotional problems before the rape occurred.
One of the major differences in clinical presentation between Crohn disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC) is that UC is more likely to cause which clinical manifestation? a. Pain b. Rectal bleeding c. Perianal lesions d. Growth retardation
B Rectal bleeding is more common in UC than CD. Pain, perianal lesions, and growth retardation are common manifestations of CD.
A mother planned to breastfeed her infant before giving birth at 33 weeks of gestation. The infant is stable and receiving oxygen. What is the most appropriate nursing action related to this? a. Assist the mother in expressing breast milk. b. Assess the infant's readiness to breastfeed. c. Explain to the mother that the infant is too small to receive breast milk. d. Reassure the mother that infant formula is a good alternative to breastfeeding.
B Research confirms that human milk is the best source of nutrition for term and preterm infants. Preterm infants should be breastfed as soon as they have adequate sucking and swallowing reflexes and no other complications such as respiratory complications or concurrent illnesses. If the infant has adequate sucking and swallowing, the infant should breastfeed for some of the feedings. The mother can express milk to be used in her absence.
What childhood cancer may demonstrate patterns of inheritance that suggest a familial basis? a. Leukemia b. Retinoblastoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Osteogenic sarcoma
B Retinoblastoma is an example of a pediatric cancer that demonstrates inheritance. The absence of the retinoblastoma gene allows for abnormal cell growth and the development of retinoblastoma. Chromosome abnormalities are present in many malignancies. They do not indicate a familial pattern of inheritance. The Philadelphia chromosome is observed in almost all individuals with chronic myelogenous leukemia. There is no evidence of a familial pattern of inheritance for rhabdomyosarcoma or osteogenic sarcoma cancers.
The nurse is caring for an 18-month-old child with rotavirus. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? a. Severe abdominal cramping and bloody diarrhea b. Mild fever and vomiting followed by onset of watery stools c. Colicky abdominal pain and vomiting d. High fever, diarrhea, and lethargy
B Rotavirus is one of the most common pathogens that cause gastroenteritis in children younger than the age of 2 years. Clinical manifestations include mild to moderate fever and vomiting followed by the onset of watery stools. The fever and vomiting usually abate in 1 or 2 days, but the diarrhea persists for 5 to 7 days. Severe abdominal cramping and bloody diarrhea are seen with Escherichia coli infection; colicky abdominal pain and vomiting are seen with salmonella infection; and high fever, diarrhea, and lethargy are seen with infection by Salmonella typhi.
An adolescent girl tells the nurse that she is very suicidal. The nurse asks her if she has a specific plan. How should asking about a specific plan be viewed? a. Not a critical part of the assessment b. An appropriate part of the assessment c. Suggesting that adolescent needs a plan d. Encouraging adolescent to devise a plan
B Routine health assessments of adolescents should include questions that assess the presence of suicidal ideation or intent. Questions such as "Have you ever developed a plan to hurt yourself or kill yourself?" should be part of that assessment. Adolescents who express suicidal feelings and have a specific plan are at particular risk and require further assessment and constant monitoring. The information about having a plan is an essential part of the assessment and greatly affects the treatment plan.
An adolescent comes to the school nurse after experiencing shin splints during a track meet. What reassurance should the nurse offer? a. Shin splints are expected in runners. b. Ice, rest, and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) usually relieve pain. c. It is generally best to run around and "work the pain out." d. Moist heat and acetaminophen are indicated for this type of injury.
B Shin splints result when the ligaments tear away from the tibial shaft and cause pain. Actions that have an antiinflammatory effect are indicated for shin splints. Ice, rest, and NSAIDs are the usual treatment. Shin splints are rarely serious, but they are not expected, and preventive measures are taken. Rest is important to heal the shin splints. Continuing to place stress on the tibia can lead to further damage.
Hydrotherapy is required to treat a child with extensive partial-thickness burn wounds. What is the purpose of hydrotherapy? a. Provide pain relief b. Débride the wounds c. Destroy bacteria on the skin d. Increase peripheral blood flow
B Soaking in a tub or showering once or twice a day acts to loosen and remove sloughing tissue, exudate, and topical medications. The hydrotherapy cleanses the wound and the entire body and helps maintain range of motion. Appropriate pain medications are necessary. Dressing changes are extremely painful. The total bacterial count of the skin is reduced by the hydrotherapy, but this is not the primary goal. There may be an increase in peripheral blood flow, but the primary purpose is for wound débridement.
What is the most significant factor in distinguishing those who commit suicide from those who make suicidal attempts or threats? a. Level of stress b. Social isolation c. Degree of depression d. Desire to punish others
B Social isolation is a significant factor in distinguishing adolescents who will kill themselves from those who will not. It is also more characteristic of those who complete suicide versus those who make attempts or threats. Although the level of stress, the degree of depression, and the desire to punish others are contributing factors in suicide, they are not the most significant factor in distinguishing those who complete suicide from those who attempt suicide.
What type of cerebral palsy (CP) is the most common type? a. Ataxic b. Spastic c. Dyskinetic d. Mixed type
B Spastic CP is the most common clinical type. Early manifestations are usually generalized hypotonia, or decreased tone that lasts for a few weeks or may extend for months or as long as 1 year. It is replaced by increased stretch reflexes, increased muscle tone, and weakness. Ataxic, dyskinetic, and mixed type are less common forms of CP.
A child with a hip spica cast is being prepared for discharge. Recognizing that caring for a child at home is complex, the nurse should include what instructions for the parents' discharge teaching? a. Turn every 8 hours. b. Specially designed car restraints are necessary. c. Diapers should be avoided to reduce soiling of the cast. d. Use an abduction bar between the legs to aid in turning.
B Standard seat belts and car seats may not be readily adapted for use by children in some casts. Specially designed car seats and restraints meet safety requirements. The child must have position changes much more frequently than every 8 hours. During feeding and play activities, the child should be moved for both physiologic and psychosocial benefit. Diapers and other strategies are necessary to maintain cleanliness. The abduction bar is never used as an aid for turning. Putting pressure on the bar may damage the integrity of the cast.
What term is used when a patient remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation? a. Coma b. Stupor c. Obtundation d. Persistent vegetative state
B Stupor exists when the child remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation. Coma is the state in which no motor or verbal response occurs to noxious (painful) stimuli. Obtundation describes a level of consciousness in which the child is arousable with stimulation. Persistent vegetative state describes the permanent loss of function of the cerebral cortex.
The nurse is teaching the parent of a 4-year-old child with a cast on the arm about care at home. What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should have the affected limb hang in a dependent position." b. "I will use an ice pack to relieve the itching." c. "I should avoid keeping the injured arm elevated." d. "I will expect the fingers to be swollen for the next 3 days."
B Teaching the parent to use an ice pack to relieve the itching is an important aspect when planning discharge for a child with a cast. The affected limb should not be allowed to hang in a dependent position for more than 30 minutes. The affected arm should be kept elevated as much as possible. If there is swelling or redness of the fingers, the parent should notify the health care provider.
What is a major physical risk for young adolescents during pregnancy? a. Osteoporosis frequently develops. b. Fetopelvic disproportion is a common problem. c. Delivery is usually precipitous in this age group. d. Pregnancy will adversely affect the adolescent's development.
B Teenagers younger than 15 years of age have increased obstetric risks. Fetopelvic disproportion is one of the most common complications. Osteoporosis occurs later in life and is not related to adolescent pregnancy. Prolonged, not precipitous, labor is common in this age group. Teenage mothers are socially, educationally, psychologically, and economically disadvantaged. Support is necessary because the tasks of motherhood are superimposed on adolescent development tasks.
In about 1 week, a stable preterm infant will be discharged. The nurse should teach the parents to place the infant in which position for sleep? a. Prone b. Supine c. Position of comfort d. Abdomen with head elevated
B The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that healthy infants be placed to sleep in a nonprone position. The prone position is associated with sudden infant death syndrome but can be used for supervised play.
A 4-year-old child is placed in Buck extension traction for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. He is crying with pain as the nurse assesses the skin of his right foot and sees that it is pale with an absence of pulse. What should the nurse do first? a. Reposition the child and notify the practitioner. b. Notify the practitioner of the changes noted. c. Give the child medication to relieve the pain. d. Chart the observations and check the extremity again in 15 minutes.
B The absence of a pulse and change in color of the foot must be reported immediately for evaluation by the practitioner. This is an emergency condition. Pain medication should be given after the practitioner is notified. The findings should be documented with ongoing assessment.
A 3-year-old child has a femoral shaft fracture. The nurse recognizes that the approximate healing time for this child is how long? a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 8 weeks
B The approximate healing times for a femoral shaft fracture are as follows: neonatal period, 2 to 3 weeks; early childhood, 4 weeks; later childhood, 6 to 8 weeks; and adolescence, 8 to 12 weeks.
A 5-year-old child is being prepared for surgery to remove a brain tumor. Preparation for surgery should be based on which information? a. Removal of the tumor will stop the various signs and symptoms. b. Usually the postoperative dressing covers the entire scalp. c. He is not old enough to be concerned about his head being shaved. d. He is not old enough to understand the significance of the brain.
B The child should be told what he will look and feel like after surgery. This includes the anticipated size of the dressing. The nurse can demonstrate on a doll the expected size and shape of the dressing. Some of the symptoms may be alleviated by removal of the tumor, but postsurgical headaches and cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia may be aggravated. Children should be prepared for the loss of their hair, and it should be removed in a sensitive, positive manner if the child is awake. Children at this age have poorly defined body boundaries and little knowledge of internal organs. Intrusive experiences are frightening, especially those that disrupt the integrity of the skin.
Nutritional management of the child with Crohn disease includes a diet that has which component? a. High fiber b. Increased protein c. Reduced calories d. Herbal supplements
B The child with Crohn disease often has growth failure. Nutritional support is planned to reduce ongoing losses and provide adequate energy and protein for healing. Fiber is mechanically hard to digest. Foods containing seeds may contribute to obstruction. A high-calorie diet is necessary to minimize growth failure. Herbal supplements should not be used unless discussed with the practitioner. Vitamin supplementation with folic acid, iron, and multivitamins is recommended.
A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung disease is hospitalized for surgery. A temporary colostomy will be necessary. How should the nurse prepare this child? a. It is unnecessary because of child's age. b. It is essential because it will be an adjustment. c. Preparation is not needed because the colostomy is temporary. d. Preparation is important because the child needs to deal with negative body image.
B The child's age dictates the type and extent of psychologic preparation. When a colostomy is performed, it is necessary to prepare the child who is at least preschool age by telling him or her about the procedure and what to expect in concrete terms, with the use of visual aids. The preschooler is not yet concerned with body image.
The nurse knows that parents need further teaching with regard to the treatment of congenital clubfoot when they state what? a. "We'll keep the cast dry." b. "We're happy this is the only cast our baby will need." c. "We'll watch for any swelling of the foot while the cast is on." d. "We're getting a special car seat to accommodate the cast."
B The common approach to clubfoot management and treatment is the Ponseti method. Serial casting is begun shortly after birth. Weekly gentle manipulation and stretching of the foot along with placement of serial long-leg casts allow for gradual repositioning of the foot. The extremity or extremities are casted until maximum correction is achieved, usually within 6 to 10 weeks. If parents state that this is the only cast the infant will need, they need further teaching.
A parent brings a 12-month-old infant into the emergency department and tells the nurse that the infant is allergic to peanuts and was accidentally given a cookie with peanuts in it. The infant is dyspneic, wheezing, and cyanotic. The health care provider has prescribed a dose of epinephrine to be administered. The infant weighs 24 lb. How many milligrams of epinephrine should be administered? a. 0.11 to 0.33 mg b. 0.011 to 0.3 mg c. 1.1 to 3.3 mg d. 11 to 33 mg
B The correct dose of epinephrine to use in the emergency management of an anaphylactic reaction is 0.001 mg/kg up to a maximum of 0.3 mg, giving a range of 0.011 to 0.3 mg using a weight of 11 kg (24 lb).
When taking the history of a child hospitalized with Reye syndrome, the nurse should not be surprised if a week ago the child had recovered from what? a. Measles b. Influenza c. Meningitis d. Hepatitis
B The etiology of Reye syndrome is not well understood, but most cases follow a common viral illness, typically influenza or varicella.
A child has had contact with some poison ivy. The school nurse understands that the full-blown reaction should be evident after how many days? a. 1 day b. 2 days c. 3 days d. 4 days
B The full-blown reaction to poison ivy is evident after about 2 days, with linear patches or streaks of erythemic, raised, fluid-filled vesicles; swelling; and persistent itching at the site of contact.
The nurse is discussing the management of atopic dermatitis (eczema) with a parent. What should be included? a. Dress infant warmly to prevent chilling. b. Keep the infant's fingernails and toenails cut short and clean. c. Give bubble baths instead of washing lesions with soap. d. Launder clothes in mild detergent; use fabric softener in the rinse.
B The infant's nails should be kept short and clean and have no sharp edges. Gloves or cotton socks can be placed over the child's hands and pinned to the shirt sleeves. Heat and humidity increase perspiration, which can exacerbate the eczema. The child should be dressed properly for the climate. Synthetic material (not wool) should be used for the child's clothing during cold months. Baths are given as prescribed with tepid water, and emollients such as Aquaphor, Cetaphil, and Eucerin are applied within 3 minutes. Soap (except as indicated), bubble bath oils, and powders are avoided. Fabric softener should be avoided because of the irritant effects of some of its components.
A 7-year-old child has just had a cast applied for a fractured arm with the wrist and elbow immobilized. What information should be included in the home care instructions? a. No restrictions of activity are indicated. b. Elevate casted arm when both upright and resting. c. The shoulder should be kept as immobile as possible to avoid pain. d. Swelling of the fingers is to be expected. Notify a health professional if it persists more than 48 hours.
B The injured extremity should be kept elevated while resting and in a sling when upright. This will increase venous return. The child should not engage in strenuous activity for the first few days. Rest with elevation of the extremity is encouraged. Joints above and below the cast on the affected extremity should be moved. Swelling of the fingers may indicate neurovascular damage and should be reported immediately. Permanent damage can occur within 6 to 8 hours.
A school-age child has been bitten on the leg by a large snake that may be poisonous. During transport to an emergency facility, what should the care include? a. Apply ice to the snakebite. b. Immobilize the leg with a splint. c. Place a loose tourniquet distal to the bite. d. Apply warm compresses to the snakebite.
B The leg should be immobilized. Ice decreases blood flow to the area, which allows the venom to work more destruction and decreases the effect of antivenin on the natural immune mechanisms. A loose tourniquet is placed proximal, not distal, to the area of the bite to delay the flow of lymph. This can delay movement of the venom into the peripheral circulation. The tourniquet should be applied so that a pulse can be felt distal to the bite. Warmth increases circulation to the area and helps the toxin into the peripheral circulation.
Identification and treatment of cryptorchid testes should be done by age 2 years. What is an important consideration? a. Medical therapy is not effective after this age. b. Treatment is necessary to maintain the ability to be fertile when older. c. The younger child can tolerate the extensive surgery needed. d. Sexual reassignment may be necessary if treatment is not successful.
B The longer the testis is exposed to higher body heat, the greater the likelihood of damage. To preserve fertility, surgery should be done at an early age. Surgical intervention is the treatment of choice. Simple orchiopexy is usually performed as an outpatient procedure. The surgical procedure restores the testes to the scrotum. This helps the boy to have both testes in the scrotum by school age. Sexual reassignment is not indicated when the testes are not descended.
What should nursing care of an infant with oral candidiasis (thrush) include? a. Avoid use of a pacifier. b. Continue medication for the prescribed number of days. c. Remove the characteristic white patches with a soft cloth. d. Apply medication to the oral mucosa, being careful that none is ingested.
B The medication must be continued for the prescribed number of days. To prevent relapse, therapy should continue for at least 2 days after the lesions disappear. Pacifiers can be used. The pacifier should be replaced with a new one or boiled for 20 minutes once daily. One of the characteristics of thrush is that the white patches cannot be removed. The medication is applied to the oral mucosa and then swallowed to treat Candida albicans infection in the gastrointestinal tract.
A school-age child with leukemia experienced severe nausea and vomiting when receiving chemotherapy for the first time. What is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent or minimize these reactions with subsequent treatments? a. Administer the chemotherapy between meals. b. Give an antiemetic before chemotherapy begins. c. Have the child bring favorite foods for snacks. d. Keep the child NPO (nothing by mouth) until nausea and vomiting subside.
B The most beneficial regimen to minimize nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy is to administer a 5-hydroxytryptamine-3 receptor antagonist (e.g., ondansetron) before the chemotherapy is begun. The goal is to prevent anticipatory signs and symptoms. The child will experience nausea with chemotherapy whether or not food is present in the stomach. Because some children develop aversions to foods eaten during chemotherapy, refraining from offering favorite foods is advised. Keeping the child NPO until nausea and vomiting subside will help with this episode, but the child will have discomfort and be at risk for dehydration.
The nurse is evaluating the laboratory results of a stool sample. What is a normal finding? a. The laboratory reports a stool pH of 5.0. b. The laboratory reports a negative guaiac. c. The laboratory reports low levels of enzymes. d. The laboratory reports reducing substances present.
B The normal stool finding is a negative guaiac. Stool pH should be 7.0 to 7.5. A stool pH <5.0 is suggestive of carbohydrate malabsorption; colonic bacterial fermentation produces short-chain fatty acids, which lower stool pH. There should be no enzymes or reducing substances present in a normal stool sample.
When caring for a child with an intravenous (IV) infusion, what is an appropriate nursing action? a. Change the insertion site every 24 hours. b. Check the insertion site frequently for signs of infiltration. c. Use a macrodropper to facilitate reaching the prescribed flow rate. d. Avoid restraining the child to prevent undue emotional stress.
B The nursing responsibility for IV therapy is to calculate the amount to be infused in a given length of time; set the infusion rate; and monitor the apparatus frequently, at least every 1 to 2 hours, to make certain that the desired rate is maintained, the integrity of the system remains intact, the site remains intact (free of redness, edema, infiltration, or irritation), and the infusion does not stop. Insertion sites do not need to be changed every 24 hours unless a problem is found with the site. This exposes the child to significant trauma. A minidropper (60 drops/ml) is the recommended IV tubing in pediatric patients. Intravenous sites should be protected. This may require soft restraints on the child.
What test is never performed on a child who is awake? a. Doll's head maneuver b. Oculovestibular response c. Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions d. Funduscopic examination for papilledema
B The oculovestibular response (caloric test) involves the instillation of ice water into the ear of a comatose child. The caloric test is painful and is never performed on an awake child or one who has a ruptured tympanic membrane. The doll's head maneuver, assessment of pyramidal tract lesions, and funduscopic examination for papilledema are not considered painful and can be performed on awake children.
What therapeutic intervention provides the best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis? a. Nutritional support b. Liver transplantation c. Blood component therapy d. Treatment with corticosteroids
B The only successful treatment for end-stage liver disease and liver failure may be liver transplantation, which has improved the prognosis for many children with cirrhosis. Liver transplantation reflects the failure of other medical and surgical measures to prevent or treat cirrhosis. Nutritional support is necessary for the child with cirrhosis, but it does not stop the progression of the disease. Blood components are indicated when the liver can no longer produce clotting factors. It is supportive therapy, not curative. Corticosteroids are not used in end-stage liver disease.
The nurse is teaching a parent of a 10-year-old child who will be discharged with a venous access device (VAD). What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should have my child wear a protective vest when my child wants to participate in contact sports." b. "I should apply pressure to the entry site to the vein, not the exit site, if the VAD is accidentally removed." c. "I can expect my child to have feelings of general malaise for 1 week after the VAD is inserted." d. "I should give my child a sponge bath for the first 2 weeks after the VAD is inserted; then I can allow my child to take a bath."
B The parents of a child with a VAD should be taught to apply pressure to the entry site to the vein, not the exit site, if the VAD is accidentally removed. The child should not participate in contact sports, even with a protective vest, to prevent the VAD from becoming dislodged. General malaise is a sign of an infection, not an expected finding after insertion of the VAD. The child can shower or take a bath after insertion of the VAD; the child does not need a sponge bath for any length of time.
The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what? a. 2 to 4 years b. 5 to 7 years c. 8 to 10 years d. 11 to 13 years
B The peak age at onset for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is 5 to 7 years of age.
A child with acute glomerulonephritis is in the playroom and experiences blurred vision and a headache. What action should the nurse take? a. Check the urine to see if hematuria has increased. b. Obtain the child's blood pressure and notify the health care provider. c. Obtain serum electrolytes and send urinalysis to the laboratory. d. Reassure the child and encourage bed rest until the headache improves.
B The premonitory signs of encephalopathy are headache, dizziness, abdominal discomfort, and vomiting. If the condition progresses, there may be transient loss of vision or hemiparesis, disorientation, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The health care provider should be notified of these symptoms.
What do nursing responsibilities regarding weight gain for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa include? a. Administer tube feedings until target weight is achieved. b. Restore body weight to within 10% of the adolescent's ideal weight. c. Encourage continuation of strenuous exercise as long as adolescent is not losing weight. d. Facilitate as rapid a weight gain as possible with a high-calorie diet.
B The restoration of body weight to a target weight or endpoint within 10% of ideal body weight is one of the main goals of therapy. Strenuous exercise is avoided as part of the need to modify behaviors. Tube feedings are intrusive and are avoided. They should only be used when other measures have failed. Weight restoration is accomplished slowly. The goal is 1 kg/wk to avoid the risk of metabolic and cardiac problems. Slow weight gain can minimize anxiety and depression.
What signs or symptoms are most commonly associated with the prodromal phase of acute viral hepatitis? a. Bruising and lethargy b. Anorexia and malaise c. Fatigability and jaundice d. Dark urine and pale stools
B The signs and symptoms most common in the prodromal phase are anorexia, malaise, lethargy, and easy fatigability. Bruising would not be an issue unless liver damage has occurred. Jaundice is a late sign and often does not occur in children. Dark urine and pale stools would occur during the onset of jaundice (icteric phase) if it occurs.
The most important nursing intervention when caring for an infant with myelomeningocele in the preoperative stage is which? a. Take vital signs every hour. b. Place the infant on the side to decrease pressure on the spinal sac. c. Watch for signs that might indicate developing hydrocephalus. d. Apply a heat lamp to facilitate drying and toughening of the sac.
B The spinal sac is protected from damage until surgery is performed. Early surgical closure is recommended to prevent local trauma and infection. Monitoring vital signs and watching for signs that might indicate developing hydrocephalus are important interventions, but preventing trauma to the sac is a priority. The sac is kept moist until surgical intervention is done.
What statement is true about gonorrhea? a. It is caused by Treponema pallidum. b. Treatment of all sexual contacts is essential. c. Topical application of medication to the lesions is necessary. d. Therapeutic management includes multidose administration of penicillin.
B The treatment plan should include finding and treating all sexual partners. Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Syphilis is caused by T. pallidum. Systemic therapy is necessary to treat this disease. Primary treatment is with different antibiotics because of N. gonorrhoeae's resistance to penicillin.
The parents of a newborn with an umbilical hernia ask about treatment options. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Surgery is recommended as soon as possible. b. The defect usually resolves spontaneously by 3 to 5 years of age. c. Aggressive treatment is necessary to reduce its high mortality. d. Taping the abdomen to flatten the protrusion is sometimes helpful.
B The umbilical hernia usually resolves by ages 3 to 5 years of age without intervention. Umbilical hernias rarely become problematic. Incarceration, where the hernia is constricted and cannot be reduced manually, is rare. Umbilical hernias are not associated with a high mortality rate. Taping the abdomen flat does not help heal the hernia; it can cause skin irritation.
What is the usual presenting symptom for testicular cancer? a. Solid, painful mass b. Hard, painless mass c. Scrotal swelling and pain d. Epididymis easily palpated
B The usual presenting symptom for testicular cancer is a heavy, hard, painless mass that is either smooth or nodular and palpated on the testes. Pain is not usually associated with a testicular tumor. Scrotal swelling needs to be evaluated. The epididymis is easily palpated in a normal scrotum.
A recommendation to prevent neural tube defects (NTDs) is the supplementation of what? a. Vitamin A throughout pregnancy b. Folic acid for all women of childbearing age c. Folic acid during the first and second trimesters of pregnancy d. Multivitamin preparations as soon as pregnancy is suspected
B The widespread use of folic acid among women of childbearing age has decreased the incidence NTDs. In the United States, the rates of NTDs have declined from 1.3 per 1000 births in 1990 to 0.3 per 1000 after the introduction of mandatory folic acid supplementation in food in 1998. Vitamin A is not related to the prevention of NTDs. Folic acid supplementation is recommended for the preconceptual period, as well as during the pregnancy. The NTD is a failure of neural tube closure during early development, the first 3 to 5 weeks.
The nurse is teaching a class on obesity prevention to parents in the community. What is a contributing factor to childhood obesity? a. Birth weight b. Parental overweight c. Age at the onset of puberty d. Asian ethnic background
B There is a high correlation between parental adiposity and childhood adiposity. Obese children do not have higher birth weights than nonobese children. Early menarche is associated with obesity, but the age of puberty is not a contributing factor. African Americans and Hispanics have disproportionately high percentages of overweight individuals, but Asians do not.
A preterm infant of 33 weeks of gestation is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. Approximately 2 hours after birth, the neonate begins having difficulty breathing, with grunting, tachypnea, and nasal flaring. What should the nurse recognize? a. This is a normal finding. b. Further evaluation is needed. c. Improvement should occur within 24 hours. d. This is not significant unless cyanosis is present.
B These are signs of respiratory distress syndrome and require further evaluation. There is no way to predict the infant's clinical course based on the available data. Cyanosis may be present, but these are significant findings indicative of respiratory distress even without cyanosis.
The nurse notes that a child has lost 3.6 kg (8 lb) after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this weight loss? a. Poor appetite b. Reduction of edema c. Restriction to bed rest d. Increased potassium intake
B This amount of weight loss in this period is a result of the improvement of renal function and mobilization of edema fluid. Poor appetite and bed rest would not result in a weight loss of 8 lb in 4 days. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are avoided until renal function is normalized.
A parent tells the nurse that 80% of children with the same type of leukemia as his son's have a 5-year survival. He believes that because another child on the same protocol as his son has just died, his son now has a better chance of success. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "It is sad for the other family but good news for your child." b. "Each child has an 80% likelihood of 5-year survival." c. "The data suggest that 20% of the children in the clinic will die. There are still many hurdles for your son." d. "You should avoid the grieving family because you will be benefiting from their loss."
B This is a common misconception for parents. The success data are based on numerous factors, including the effectiveness of the protocol and the child's response. These are aggregate data that apply to each child and do not depend on the success or failure in other children. The failure of one child in a protocol does not improve the success rate for other children. Although the son does face more hurdles, these are aggregate data, not specific to the clinic. It may be difficult for this family to be supportive given their concerns about their child. Families usually form support groups in pediatric oncology settings, and support during bereavement is common.
The nurse understands that which guideline should be followed to determine serving sizes for toddlers? a. 1/2 tbsp of solid food per year of age b. 1 tbsp of solid food per year of age c. 2 tbsp of solid food per year of age d. 2 1/2 tbsp of solid food per year of age
B To determine serving sizes for young children, the guideline to follow is 1 tbsp of solid food per year of age. One-half tbsp per year of age would not be adequate. Two or 2 1/2 tbsp per year of age would be excessive.
The nurse is caring for a hospitalized adolescent whose femur was fractured 18 hours ago. The adolescent suddenly develops chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse should suspect what complication? a. Sepsis b. Osteomyelitis c. Pulmonary embolism d. Acute respiratory tract infection
B Traction places stress on the affected bone, joint, and muscles. The nurse must assess for tightness, weakness, or contractures developing in the uninvolved joints and muscles. The adhesive straps should be released or replaced only when absolutely necC Fat emboli are of greatest concern in individuals with fractures of the long bones. Fat droplets from the marrow are transferred to the general circulation, where they are transported to the lung or brain. This type of embolism usually occurs within the second 12 hours after the injury. Sepsis would manifest with fever and lethargy. Osteomyelitis usually is seen with pain at the site of infection and fever. A child with an acute respiratory tract infection would have nasal congestion, not chest pain. essary. Active, passive, or active with resistance exercises should be carried out for the unaffected extremity only. Movement is expected with children. Each time the child moves, the nurse should check to ensure that proper alignment is maintained.
What immunization is recommended for all newborns? a. Hepatitis A vaccine b. Hepatitis B vaccine c. Hepatitis C vaccine d. Hepatitis A, B, and C vaccines
B Universal vaccination for hepatitis B is recommended for all newborns. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for infants starting at 12 months. No vaccine is currently available for hepatitis C.
A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show? a. Bacteriuria and hematuria b. Hematuria and proteinuria c. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity d. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity
B Urinalysis during the acute phase characteristically shows hematuria, proteinuria, and increased specific gravity. Proteinuria generally parallels the hematuria but is not usually the massive proteinuria seen in nephrotic syndrome. Gross discoloration of urine reflects its red blood cell and hemoglobin content. Microscopic examination of the sediment shows many red blood cells, leukocytes, epithelial cells, and granular and red blood cell casts. Bacteria are not seen, and urine culture results are negative.
The nurse is assessing a toddler's visual acuity. Which visual acuity is considered acceptable during the toddler years? a. 20/20 b. 20/40 c. 20/50 d. 20/60
B Visual acuity of 20/40 is considered acceptable during the toddler years.
Which statement is correct about toilet training? a. Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training. b. Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet. c. Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child. d. Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
B Voluntary control of the anal and urethral sphincters is achieved sometime after the child is walking. The child must be able to recognize the urge to let go and to hold on. The child must want to please the parent by holding on rather than pleasing him- or herself by letting go. Bowel training precedes bladder training. Watching older siblings provides role modeling and facilitates imitation for the toddler. The child should be introduced to the potty chair or toilet in a nonthreatening manner.
Which is an important nursing action related to the use of tape or adhesives on premature neonates? a. Avoid using tape and adhesives until skin is more mature. b. Remove adhesives with water, mineral oil, or petrolatum. c. Use scissors carefully to remove tape instead of pulling off the tape. d. Use solvents to remove tape and adhesives instead of pulling on the skin.
B Warm water, mineral oil, or petrolatum can facilitate the removal of adhesive. In a premature neonate, often it is impossible to avoid using adhesives and tape. The smallest amount of adhesive necessary should be used. Scissors should not be used to remove dressings or tape from very small and immature infants because it is easy to snip off tiny extremities or nick loosely attached skin. Solvents should be avoided because they tend to dry and burn the delicate skin.
What is the recommended drink for athletes during practice and competition? a. Sports drinks to replace carbohydrates b. Cold water for gastrointestinal tract rapid absorption c. Carbonated beverages to help with acid-base balance d. Enhanced performance carbohydrate-electrolyte drinks
B Water is recommended for most athletes, who should drink 4 to 8 oz every 15 to 20 minutes. Cold water facilitates rapid gastric emptying and intestinal absorption. Most carbohydrate sports drinks have 6% to 8% carbohydrate, which can cause gastrointestinal upset. Carbonated beverages are discouraged. There is no evidence that these drinks enhance function.
What is an approximate method of estimating output for a child who is not toilet trained? a. Have parents estimate output. b. Weigh diapers after each void. c. Place a urine collection device on the child. d. Have the child sit on a potty chair 30 minutes after eating.
B Weighing diapers will provide an estimate of urinary output. Each 1 g of weight is equivalent to 1 ml of urine. Having parents estimate output would be inaccurate. It is difficult to estimate how much fluid is in a diaper. The urine collection device would irritate the child's skin. It would be difficult for a toddler who is not toilet trained to sit on a potty chair 30 minutes after eating.
The nurse is administering an intravenous chemotherapeutic agent to a child with leukemia. The child suddenly begins to wheeze and have severe urticaria. What nursing action is most appropriate to initiate? a. Recheck the rate of drug infusion. b. Stop the drug infusion immediately. c. Observe the child closely for next 10 minutes. d. Explain to the child that this is an expected side effect.
B When an allergic reaction is suspected, the drug is immediately discontinued. Any drug in the line should be withdrawn, and a normal saline infusion begun to keep the line open. The intravenous infusion is stopped to minimize the amount of drug that infuses. The infusion rate can be confirmed at a later time. Observation of the child for 10 minutes is essential, but it is done after the infusion is stopped. These signs are indicative of an allergic reaction, not an expected response.
What is the nursing action related to the applying of biologic or synthetic skin coverings for a child with partial-thickness burns of both legs? a. Splint the legs to prevent movement. b. Observe wounds for signs of infection. c. Monitor closely for manifestations of shock. d. Examine dressings for indications of bleeding.
B When applied early to a superficial partial-thickness injury, biologic dressings stimulate epithelial growth and faster wound healing. If the dressing covers areas of heavy microbial contamination, infection occurs beneath the dressing. In the case of partial-thickness burns, such infection may convert the wound to a full-thickness injury. Infection is the primary concern when biologic dressings are used.
To avoid a fall from a crib, the nurse recommends to parents that their toddler should sleep in a bed rather than a crib when reaching what height? a. 30 in b. 35 in c. 40 in d. 45 in
B When children reach a height of 89 cm (35 in), they should sleep in a bed rather than a crib.
The mother of an infant tells the nurse that sometimes there is a whitish "glow" in the pupil of his eye. The nurse should suspect which condition? a. Brain tumor b. Retinoblastoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
B When the nurse examines the eye, the light will reflect off of the tumor, giving the eye a whitish appearance. This is called a cat's eye reflex. Brain tumors are not usually visible. Neuroblastoma usually arises from the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. The most common presentation sites are in the abdomen, head, neck, or pelvis. Supraorbital ecchymosis may be present with distant metastasis. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a soft tissue tumor that derives from skeletal muscle undifferentiated cells.
What functional goal should the nurse expect for a child who has a C7 spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.) a. Able to drive automobile with hand controls b. Complete independence within limitations of a wheelchair c. Can roll over in bed, sit up in bed, and eat independently d. Requires some assistance in transfer and lower extremity dressing e. Ambulation with bilateral long braces using four-point or swing-through crutch gait
B, C, D A child with a C7 spinal cord injury can expect to be completely independent within the limitations of a wheelchair, can roll over in bed, sit up in bed, and eat independently, and will require some assistance in transfer and lower extremity dressing. The ability to drive an automobile with hand controls is a functional goal for a T1 to T10 spinal cord injury. Ambulation with bilateral long braces using four-point or swing-through crutch gait is a functional goal for a T10 to L2 injury.
A toddler is in the sensorimotor, tertiary circular reactions stage of cognitive development. What behavior should the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Refers to self by pronoun b. Gestures "up" and "down" c. Able to insert round object into a hole d. Can find hidden objects but only in the first location e. Uses future-oriented words, such as "tomorrow"
B, C, D Children in the sensorimotor, tertiary circular reactions stage of cognitive development show the behaviors of gesturing "up" and "down," have the ability to insert round objects into a hole, and can find hidden objects but only in the first location. The behaviors of referring to oneself by pronoun and using future-oriented words such as "tomorrow" are seen in the preoperational stage of cognitive development.
What findings should the nurse expect to observe in a 7-month-old infant with Werdnig-Hoffman disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Noticeable scoliosis b. Absent deep tendon reflexes c. Abnormal tongue movements d. Failure to thrive e. Prominent pectus excavatum f. Significant leg involvement
B, C, D Clinical manifestations of Werdnig-Hoffman disease in an infant include absent deep tendon reflexes, abnormal tongue movements, and failure to thrive. Scoliosis, prominent pectus excavatum, and significant leg involvement are findings observed in a child with intermediate spinal muscular atrophy.
The nurse is admitting a 9-year-old child with hemolytic uremic syndrome. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Hematuria b. Anorexia c. Hypertension d. Purpura e. Proteinuria f. Periorbital edema
B, C, D Clinical manifestations of hemolytic uremic syndrome include anorexia; hypertension; and purpura, which persists for several days to 2 weeks. Gross hematuria is seen in acute glomerulonephritis. Substantial proteinuria and periorbital edema are common manifestations in nephrotic syndrome.
What clinical manifestations should be observed in a 2-year-old child with hypotonic dehydration? (Select all that apply.) a. Thick, doughy feel to the skin b. Slightly moist mucous membranes c. Absent tears d. Very rapid pulse e. Hyperirritability
B, C, D Clinical manifestations of hypotonic dehydration include slightly moist mucous membranes, absent tears, and a very rapid pulse. A thick, doughy feel to the skin and hyperirritability are signs of hypertonic dehydration.
What are favorable prognostic criteria for acute lymphoblastic leukemia? (Select all that apply.) a. Male gender b. CALLA positive c. Early pre-B cell d. 2 to 10 years of age e. Leukocyte count ?7?50,000/mm3
B, C, D Favorable prognostic criteria for acute lymphoblastic leukemia include CALLA positive, early pre-B cell, and age 2 to 10 years. Leukocyte count less, not greater, than 50,000/mm3 and female, not male, gender are favorable prognostic criteria.
The nurse is caring for a child with erythema multiforme (Stevens-Johnson syndrome). What local manifestations does the nurse expect to assess in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Papular urticaria b. Erythematous papular rash c. Lesions absent in the scalp d. Lesions enlarge by peripheral expansion e. Firm papules that may be capped by vesicles
B, C, D Local manifestations of erythema multiforme include an erythematous popular rash, lesions involving most skin surfaces except the scalp and lesions that enlarge by peripheral expansion. Papular urticaria and firm papules capped by vesicles are characteristics of an insect bite.
A child is hospitalized in acute renal failure and has a serum potassium greater than 7 mEq/L. What temporary measures that will produce a rapid but transient effect to reduce the potassium should the nurse expect to be prescribed? (Select all that apply.) a. Dialysis b. Calcium gluconate c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Glucose 50% and insulin e. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
B, C, D Several measures are available to reduce the serum potassium concentration, and the priority of implementation is usually based on the rapidity with which the measures are effective. Temporary measures that produce a rapid but transient effect are calcium gluconate, sodium bicarbonate, and glucose 50%, and insulin. Definitive but slower-acting measures are then implemented which include administration of a cation exchange resin such as sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), 1 g/kg, administered orally or rectally, and/or dialysis.
A parent asks the nurse, "When will I know my child is ready for toilet training?" The nurse should include what in the response? (Select all that apply.) a. The child should be able to stay dry for 1 hour. b. The child should be able to sit, walk, and squat. c. The child should have regular bowel movements. d. The child should express a willingness to please.
B, C, D Signs of toilet training readiness include physical and psychological readiness. The ability to sit, walk, and squat and having regular bowel movements are physical readiness signs. Expressing a willingness to please is a sign of psychological readiness. The child should be able to stay dry for 2 hours, not 1.
The nurse is teaching parents strategies to manage their child's refusal to go to sleep. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Keep bedtime early. b. Enforce consistent limits. c. Use a reward system with the child. d. Have a consistent before bedtime routine.
B, C, D Strategies to manage a child's refusal to go to sleep include enforcement of consistent limits, using a reward system, and having a consistent before bedtime routine. An evaluation of whether the hour of sleep is too early should be considered because an early bedtime could cause the child to resist sleep if not tired.
Parents of a child who will need hemodialysis ask the nurse, "What are the advantages of a fistula over a graft or external access device for hemodialysis?" What response should the nurse give? (Select all that apply.) a. It is ready to be used immediately. b. There are fewer complications with a fistula. c. There is less restriction of activity with a fistula. d. It produces dilation and thickening of the superficial vessels. e. The fistula does not require a needle insertion at each dialysis.
B, C, D The creation of a subcutaneous (internal) arteriovenous fistula by anastomosing a segment of the radial artery and brachiocephalic vein produces dilation and thickening of the superficial vessels of the forearm to provide easy access for repeated venipuncture. Fewer complications and less restriction of activity are observed with the use of a fistula. Both the graft and the fistula require needle insertion at each dialysis. The fistula cannot be used immediately.
A child has had a short-arm synthetic cast applied. What should the nurse teach to the child and parents about cast care? (Select all that apply.) a. Relieve itching with heat. b. Elevate the arm when resting. c. Observe the fingers for any evidence of discoloration. d. Do not allow the child to put anything inside the cast. e. Examine the skin at the cast edges for any breakdown.
B, C, D, E Cast care involves elevating the arm, observing the fingers for evidence of discoloration, not allowing the child to put anything inside the cast, and examining the skin at the edges of the cast for any breakdown. Ice, not heat, should be applied to relieve itching.
The nurse is caring for an adolescent male with gynecomastia. What groups of drugs can induce gynecomastia in male adolescents? (Select all that apply.) a. Oral antibiotics b. Oral ketoconazoles c. Calcium channel blockers d. Histamine-2 receptor blockers e. Cancer chemotherapeutic agents
B, C, D, E Gynecomastia may be drug induced; calcium channel blockers, cancer chemotherapeutic agents, histamine-2 receptor blockers, and oral ketoconazoles have all been shown to cause the disorder. Oral antibiotics have not been shown to cause gynecomastia.
What guidelines should the nurse follow when handling chemotherapeutic agents? (Select all that apply.) a. Use clean technique. b. Prepare medications in a safety cabinet. c. Wear gloves designed for handling chemotherapy. d. Wear face and eye protection when splashing is possible. e. Discard gloves and protective clothing in a special container.
B, C, D, E Safe handling of chemotherapeutic agents includes preparing medications in a safety cabinet, wearing gloves designed for handling chemotherapy, wearing face and eye protection when splashing is possible, and discarding gloves and protective clothing in a special container. Aseptic, not clean, technique should be used.
What effects of an altered pituitary secretion in a child with meningitis indicates syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypotension b. Serum sodium is decreased c. Urinary output is decreased d. Evidence of overhydration e. Urine specific gravity is increased
B, C, D, E The serum sodium is decreased, urinary output is decreased, evidence of overhydration is present, and urine specific gravity is increased in SIADH. Hypertension, not hypotension, occurs.
The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Erythema over joints b. Soft tissue contractures c. Swelling in multiple joints d. Morning stiffness of the joints e. Loss of motion in the affected joints
B, C, D, E Whether single or multiple joints are involved, stiffness, swelling, and loss of motion develop in the affected joints in JIA. The swelling results from soft tissue edema, joint effusion, and synovial thickening. The affected joints may be warm and tender to the touch, but it is not uncommon for pain not to be reported. The limited motion early in the disease is a result of muscle spasm and joint inflammation; later it is caused by ankylosis or soft tissue contracture. Morning stiffness of the joint(s) is characteristic and present on arising in the morning or after inactivity. Erythema is not typical, and a warm, painful, red joint is always suspect for infection.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with an upper motor neuron syndrome. What clinical manifestations of an upper motor neuron syndrome should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. No flexor spasms b. Babinski reflex present c. No wasting of muscle mass d. Marked atrophy of atonic muscle e. Hyperreflexia with tendon reflexes exaggerated
B, C, E Clinical manifestations of an upper motor neuron syndrome include Babinski reflex present, no wasting of muscle mass, and hyperreflexia with tendon reflexes exaggerated. No flexor spasms and marked atrophy of atonic muscle are manifestations of a lower motor neuron syndrome.
The nurse is caring for a child with psoriasis. What local manifestations does the nurse expect to assess in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Development of wheals b. First lesions appear in the scalp c. Round, thick, dry reddish patches d. Lesions appear in intergluteal folds e. Patches are covered with coarse, silvery scales
B, C, E Local manifestations of psoriasis include lesions that appear in the scalp initially and round, thick dry patches covered with coarse, silvery scales. Development of wheals is seen in urticaria. Lesions in intergluteal folds are characteristic of intertrigo.
A 12-month-old infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to be documented with this infant? (Select all that apply.) a. Fear of strangers b. Minimal smiling c. Avoidance of eye contact d. Meeting developmental milestones e. Wide-eyed gaze and continual scan of the environment
B, C, E Signs and symptoms of FTT include minimal smiling, avoidance of eye contact, and a wide-eyed gaze and continual scan of the environment ("radar gaze"). There is no fear of strangers, and there are developmental delays, including social, motor, adaptive, and language.
The nurse is caring for a child with hypernatremia. The nurse evaluates the child for which signs and symptoms of hypernatremia? (Select all that apply.) a. Apathy b. Lethargy c. Oliguria d. Intense thirst e. Dry, sticky mucos
B, C, E Signs and symptoms of hypernatremia are nausea; oliguria; and dry, sticky mucos. Apathy and lethargy are signs of hyponatremia.
The nurse is caring for a child with celiac disease. The nurse understands that what may precipitate a celiac crisis? (Select all that apply.) a. Exercise b. Infections c. Fluid overload d. Electrolyte depletion e. Emotional disturbance
B, D, E A celiac crisis can be precipitated by infections, electrolyte depletion, and emotional disturbance. Exercise or fluid overload does not precipitate a crisis.
Which birth injuries should the nurse assess for if an infant was born with the use of a vacuum extractor? (Select all that apply.) a. Torticollis b. Brachial palsy c. Fractured clavicle d. Cephalhematoma e. Subgaleal hemorrhage
B, D, E Brachia palsy, cephalhematoma, and subgaleal hemorrhage are birth injuries associated with vacuum-assisted extraction. Fractured clavicles are injuries associated with infants who are large for gestational age or weigh more than 4000 g. Torticollis is a condition that occurs from a brachial plexus injury.
The nurse is caring for a child with retinoblastoma that was treated with an enucleation. What interventions should the nurse plan for care of an eye socket after enucleation? (Select all that apply.) a. Clean the prosthesis. b. Change the eye pad daily. c. Keep the opposite eye covered initially. d. Irrigate the socket daily with a prescribed solution. e. Apply a prescribed antibiotic ointment after irrigation.
B, D, E Care of the socket is minimal and easily accomplished. The wound itself is clean and has little or no drainage. If an antibiotic ointment is prescribed, it is applied in a thin line on the surface of the tissues of the socket. To cleanse the site, an irrigating solution may be ordered and is instilled daily or more frequently if necessary before application of the antibiotic ointment. The dressing consists of an eye pad changed daily. The prosthesis is not placed until the socket has healed. The opposite eye is not covered.
What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child undergoing chronic hemodialysis? (Select all that apply.) a. High protein b. Fluid restriction c. High phosphorus d. Sodium restriction e. Potassium restriction
B, D, E Dietary limitations are necessary in patients undergoing chronic dialysis to avoid biochemical complications. Fluid and sodium are restricted to prevent fluid overload and its associated symptoms of hypertension, cerebral manifestations, and congestive heart failure. Potassium is restricted to prevent complications related to hyperkalemia; phosphorus restriction helps prevent parathyroid hyperactivity and its attendant risk of abnormal calcification in soft tissues. Adequate protein, not high intake, is necessary to maximize growth potential. Fluid limitations are determined by residual urinary output and the need to limit intradialytic weight gain.
The emergency department nurse is admitting a child with a temperature of 35° C (95° F). What physical effects of hypothermia should the nurse expect to observe in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Bradycardia b. Vigorous shivering c. Decreased respiratory rate d. Decreased intestinal motility e. Task performance is impaired
B, D, E Hypothermia has varying physical effects depending on the child's core temperature. At 35° C (95° F), a child would experience vigorous shivering, decreased intestinal motility, and task performance impairment. Bradycardia and decreased respiratory rate are physical effects observed as the body temperature continues to decrease.
The community health nurse is reviewing risk factors for vitamin D deficiency. Which children are at high risk for vitamin D deficiency? (Select all that apply.) a. Children with fair pigmentation b. Children who are overweight or obese c. Children who are exclusively bottle fed d. Children with diets low in sources of vitamin D e. Children of families who use milk products not supplemented with vitamin D
B, D, E Populations at risk for vitamin D deficiency include overweight or obese children, children with diets low in sources of vitamin D, and children of families who use milk products not supplemented with vitamin D. Children with dark, not fair, pigmentation and children who are exclusively breast fed, not bottle fed, are also at risk.
What are risk factors of testicular cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Hispanic b. Infertility c. Alcohol use d. Tobacco use e. Family history
B, D, E Risk factors of testicular cancer include infertility, tobacco use, and a family history. White, not Hispanic, ethnicity is a high risk, and alcohol use is not a risk.
The nurse is caring for a child with hypokalemia. The nurse evaluates the child for which signs and symptoms of hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.) a. Twitching b. Hypotension c. Hyperreflexia d. Muscle weakness e. Cardiac arrhythmias
B, D, E Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia are hypotension, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrhythmias. Twitching and hyperreflexia are signs of hyperkalemia.
The neonatal intensive care nurse is caring for a neonate born at 36 weeks of gestation in an incubator. Which actions should the nurse plan to assure adequate skin care for the neonate? (Select all that apply.) a. Changing any adhesives every 12 hours b. Removing adhesives or skin barriers slowly c. Using an adhesive remover when removing tape d. Applying emollient as needed for dry, flaking skin e. Using cleanser or soaps no more than two or three times a week
B, D, E Skin care for the neonate involves removing adhesive or skin barriers slowly, supporting the skin underneath with one hand and gently peeling away from the skin with the other hand. Emollient should be applied as needed for dry, flaking skin, and cleansers or soaps should be used no more than two or three times a week because they can dry the skin. Adhesive remover, solvents, and bonding agents should be avoided. Adhesives should not be removed for at least 24 hours after application, not 12.
What cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis should the nurse expect with viral meningitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Color is turbid. b. Protein count is normal. c. Glucose is decreased. d. Gram stain findings are negative. e. White blood cell (WBC) count is slightly elevated.
B, D, E The CSF analysis in viral meningitis shows a normal or slightly elevated protein count, negative Gram stain, and a slightly elevated WBC. The color is clear or slightly cloudy, and the glucose level is normal.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old with spina bifida cystica that was below the second lumbar vertebra. What clinical manifestations of spina bifida cystica below the second lumbar vertebra should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. No motor impairment b. Lack of bowel control c. Soft, subcutaneous lipomas d. Flaccid, partial paralysis of lower extremities e. Overflow incontinence with constant dribbling of urine
B, D, E The clinical manifestations of spina bifida cystica below the second lumbar vertebra include lack of bowel control, flaccid, partial paralysis of lower extremities, and overflow incontinence with constant dribbling of urine. No motor impairment occurs with spina bifida cystica that was below the third lumbar vertebra, and soft, subcutaneous lipomas occur with spina bifida occulta.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 3-year-old child with intussusception. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Absent bowel sounds b. Passage of red, currant jelly-like stools c. Anorexia d. Tender, distended abdomen e. Hematemesis f. Sudden acute abdominal pain
B, D, F Intussusception occurs when a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes into a more distal segment, pulling the mesentery with it and leading to obstruction. Clinical manifestations of intussusception include the passage of red, currant jelly-like stools; a tender, distended abdomen; and sudden acute abdominal pain. Absent bowel sounds, anorexia, and hematemesis are clinical manifestations observed in other types of gastrointestinal dysfunction.
The nurse is teaching a parent of a 6-month-old infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) before discharge. What instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevate the head of the bed in the crib to a 90-degree angle while the infant is sleeping. b. Hold the infant in the prone position after a feeding. c. Discontinue breastfeeding so that a formula and rice cereal mixture can be used. d. The infant will require the Nissen fundoplication after 1 year of age. e. Prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) should be given 30 minutes before feedings.
B, E Discharge instructions for an infant with GER should include the prone position (up on the shoulder or across the lap) after a feeding. Use of the prone position while the infant is sleeping is still controversial. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the supine position to decrease the risk of sudden infant death syndrome even in infants with GER. Prescribed cimetidine or another proton pump inhibitor should be given 30 minutes before the morning and evening feeding so that peak plasma concentrations occur with mealtime. The head of the bed in the crib does not need to be elevated. The mother may continue to breastfeed or express breast milk to add rice cereal if recommended by the health care provider; thickening breast milk or formula with cereal is not recommended by all practitioners. The Nissen fundoplication is only done on infants with GER in severe cases with complications.
Diagnosis of hepatitis B is confirmed by the detection of various hepatitis virus antigens, and the antibodies that are produced in response to the infection. Match the antibody or antigen to its definition. Detected only in the liver a. HBsAg b. Anti-HBs c. HBcAg d. HBeAg
C
Many cutaneous lesions are associated with local symptoms. Match the symptom with its definition. Excessive sensitiveness a. Pruritus b. Anesthesia c. Hyperesthesia d. Hypesthesia e. Paresthesia
C
Match the acute wound to its definition. Torn or jagged wound a. Abrasion b. Avulsion c. Laceration d. Incision e. Puncture
C
Match the classification of urinary tract infections of inflammations to its definition. Inflammation of the urethra a. Persistent urinary tract infection b. Cystitis c. Urethritis d. Pyelonephritis e. Urosepsis
C
Match the cranial syndrome or sequence with its facial features. Asymmetric facial deformity, including absent cheekbones a. Crouzon syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Pierre Robin sequence
C
Match the following terms related to food sensitivities to the accurate descriptions. A food elicits a reproducible adverse reaction but does not have an established immunologic mechanism a. Food allergy b. Food allergen c. Food intolerance d. Sensitization e. Atopy
C
Match the level of consciousness to its description. Arousable with stimulation a. Confusion b. Disorientation c. Obtundation d. Stupor e. Coma
C
Match the type of fracture to its definition. Slanting and circular, twisting around the bone shaft a. Transverse b. Oblique c. Spiral d. Comminuted
C
Match the type of skin graft to its definition. Tissue obtained from undamaged areas of the patient's own body a. Allografts b. Xenografts c. Autografts d. Isografts
C
Match the type of vegetarianism to its description. Eliminate all foods of animal origin, including milk and eggs a. Lacto-ovo vegetarians b. Lactovegetarians c. Pure vegetarians (vegans) d. Macrobiotics e. Semi-vegetarians
C
What statement is descriptive of a concussion? a. Petechial hemorrhages cause amnesia. b. Visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue occur. c. It is a transient and reversible neuronal dysfunction. d. It is a slight lesion that develops remote from the site of trauma.
C A concussion is a transient, reversible neuronal dysfunction with instantaneous loss of awareness and responsiveness resulting from trauma to the head. Petechial hemorrhages on the superficial aspects of the brain along the point of impact are a type of contusion but are not necessarily associated with amnesia. A contusion is visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue. Contrecoup is a lesion that develops remote from the site of trauma as a result of an acceleration-deceleration injury.
What explains why a neutral thermal environment is essential for a high-risk neonate? a. The neonate produces heat by increasing activity and shivering. b. Metabolism slows dramatically in the neonate experiencing cold stress. c. It permits the neonate to maintain a normal core temperature with minimum oxygen consumption. d. It permits the neonate to maintain a normal core temperature with increased caloric consumption.
C A high-risk neonate is at greater risk for cold stress than a term infant because of the smaller muscle mass and fewer deposits of brown fat for producing heat, lack of insulating subcutaneous fat, and poor reflex control of skin capillaries. By definition, a neutral thermal environment is one that permits the infant to maintain a normal core temperature with minimum oxygen consumption and caloric expenditure. Smaller muscle mass and poor reflex control of skin capillaries decrease the ability of a high-risk neonate to compensate for an environment that is not thermoneutral. Metabolism increases in an infant experiencing cold stress, creating a compensatory increase in oxygen and caloric consumption. Increased caloric consumption is to be avoided. Neonates need available calories for growth.
A school-age child has sustained a head injury and multiple fractures after being thrown from a horse. The child's level of consciousness is variable. The parents tell the nurse that they think their child is in pain because of periodic crying and restlessness. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Explain that analgesia is contraindicated with a head injury. b. Have the parents describe the child's previous experiences with pain. c. Consult with a practitioner about what analgesia can be safely administered. d. Teach the parents that analgesia is unnecessary when the child is not fully awake and alert.
C A key nursing role is to provide sedation and analgesia for the child. Consultation with the appropriate practitioner is necessary to avoid conflict between the necessity to monitor the child's neurologic status and to promote comfort and relieve anxiety. Analgesia can be safely used in individuals who have sustained head injuries. The child's previous experiences with pain should be obtained as part of the assessment, but because of the severity of the injury, analgesia should be provided as soon as possible. Analgesia can decrease anxiety and resultant increased intracranial pressure.
An adolescent patient has been diagnosed with a vulvovaginal candidiasis (yeast infection). The nurse expects the health care provider to recommend which vaginal cream? a. Premarin b. Estradiol (Estrace) c. Miconazole (Monistat) d. Clindamycin phosphate (Cleocin)
C A number of antifungal preparations are available for the treatment of vulvovaginal candidiasis infections. Many of these medications (e.g., miconazole [Monistat] and clotrimazole [Gyne-Lotrimin]) are available as over-the-counter (OTC) agents. Premarin and Estrace are estrogen vaginal creams and are used to treat vaginal dryness. Cleocin is an antibacterial vaginal cream used to treat bacterial vaginal infections.
What chemotherapeutic agent can cause an anaphylactic reaction? a. Prednisone (Deltasone) b. Vincristine (Oncovin) c. L-Asparaginase (Elspar) d. Methotrexate (Trexall)
C A potentially fatal complication is anaphylaxis, especially from L-asparaginase, bleomycin, cisplatin, and etoposide (VP-16).
A child has been seizure free for 2 years. A father asks the nurse how much longer the child will need to take the antiseizure medications. How should the nurse respond? a. Medications can be discontinued at this time. b. The child will need to take the drugs for 5 years after the last seizure. c. A step-wise approach will be used to reduce the dosage gradually. d. Seizure disorders are a lifelong problem. Medications cannot be discontinued.
C A predesigned protocol is used to wean a child gradually off antiseizure medications, usually when the child is seizure free for 2 years. Medications must be gradually reduced to minimize the recurrence of seizures. The risk of recurrence is greatest within 6 months after discontinuation.
A toddler with spastic cerebral palsy needs to be transported to the radiology department. What transportation method should the nurse use to take the toddler to the radiology department? a. A stretcher b. A wheelchair c. A wagon with pillows d. Carried in the nurse's arms
C A wagon with pillows would support the child with spastic cerebral palsy better than a stretcher or wheelchair. A wagon would give the child a "wheelchair" experience, so the nurse should not carry the child.
What is most descriptive of atopic dermatitis (AD) (eczema) in an infant? a. Easily cured b. Worse in humid climates c. Associated with hereditary allergies d. Related to upper respiratory tract infections
C AD is a type of pruritic eczema that usually begins during infancy and is associated with allergy with a hereditary tendency. Approximately 50% of children with AD develop asthma. AD can be controlled but not cured. Manifestations of the disease are worse when environmental humidity is lower. AD is not associated with respiratory tract infections.
The nurse has determined that an adolescent's body mass index (BMI) is in the 90th percentile. What information should the nurse convey to the adolescent? a. The adolescent is overweight. b. The adolescent has maintained weight within the normal range. c. The adolescent is at risk for becoming overweight. d. Nutritional supplementation should occur at least three times per week
C Adolescents with BMIs between the 85th and 94th percentile for age and gender are at risk for becoming overweight. Adolescents with BMIs greater than the 95th percentile are classified as overweight. Nutritional guidance, not supplementation, is needed.
A 10-year-old boy on a bicycle has been hit by a car in front of a school. The school nurse immediately assesses airway, breathing, and circulation. What should be the next nursing action? a. Place the child on his side. b. Take the child's blood pressure. c. Stabilize the child's neck and spine. d. Check the child's scalp and back for bleeding.
C After determining that the child is breathing and has adequate circulation, the next action is to stabilize the neck and spine to prevent any additional trauma. The child's position should not be changed until the neck and spine are stabilized. Blood pressure is a later assessment. A less urgent but important assessment is inspection of the scalp for bleeding.
The parents of a 2-year-old boy who had a repair of exstrophy of the bladder at birth ask when they can begin toilet training their son. The nurse replies based on what knowledge? a. Most boys in the United States can be toilet trained at age 3 years. b. Training can begin when he has sufficient bladder capacity. c. Additional surgery may be necessary to achieve continence. d. They should begin now because he will require additional time.
C After repair of the bladder exstrophy, the child's bladder is allowed to increase capacity. Several surgical procedures may be necessary to create a urethral sphincter mechanism to aid in urination and ejaculation. With the lack of a urinary sphincter, toilet training is unlikely. The child cannot hold the urine in the bladder. Bladder capacity is one component of continence. A functional sphincter is also needed.
What type of chemotherapeutic agent alters the function of cells by replacing a hydrogen atom of a molecule? a. Plant alkaloids b. Antimetabolites c. Alkylating agents d. Antitumor antibiotics
C Alkylating agents replace a hydrogen atom with an alkyl group. The irreversible combination of alkyl groups with nucleotide chains, particularly deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), causes unbalanced growth of unaffected cell constituents so that the cell eventually dies. Plant alkaloids arrest the cell in metaphase by binding to proteins needed for spindle formation. Antimetabolites resemble essential metabolic elements needed for growth but are different enough to block further DNA synthesis. Antitumor antibiotics are natural substances that interfere with cell division by reacting with DNA in such a way as to prevent further replication of DNA and transcription of ribonucleic acid (RNA).
The nurse is preparing a child for possible alopecia from chemotherapy. What information should the nurse include? a. Wearing hats or scarves is preferable to a wig. b. Expose head to sunlight to stimulate hair regrowth. c. Hair may have a slightly different color or texture when it regrows. d. Regrowth of hair usually begins 12 months after chemotherapy ends.
C Alopecia is a side effect of certain chemotherapeutic agents and cranial irradiation. When the hair regrows, it may be of a different color or texture. Children should choose the head covering they prefer. A wig should be selected similar to the child's own hairstyle and color before the hair loss. The head should be protected from sunlight to avoid sunburn. The hair usually grows back within 3 to 6 months after the cessation of treatment.
A mother tells the clinic nurse that she often puts honey on her infant's pacifier to soothe the infant. What response should the nurse make to the mother? a. "That is a good way to soothe your baby." b. "Honey does not have any soothing effects." c. "There is still a risk for infant botulism from honey." d. "Honey is OK, but it should not be put on the pacifier."
C Although the precise source of Clostridium botulinum spores has not been identified as originating from honey in many cases of infant botulism in the United States, it is still recommended that honey not be given to infants younger than 12 months because the spores have been found in honey.
Urinary tract anomalies are frequently associated with what irregularities in fetal development? a. Myelomeningocele b. Cardiovascular anomalies c. Malformed or low-set ears d. Defects in lower extremities
C Although unexplained, there is a frequent association between malformed or low-set ears and urinary tract anomalies. During the newborn examination, the nurse should have a high suspicion about urinary tract structure and function if ear anomalies are present. Children who have myelomeningocele may have impaired urinary tract function secondary to the neural defect. When other congenital defects are present, there is an increased likelihood of other issues with other body systems. Cardiac and extremity defects do not have a strong association with renal anomalies.
While a mother is feeding her high-risk neonate, the nurse observes the neonate having occasional apnea, pallor, and bradycardia. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Let the neonate rest before breastfeeding again. b. Resume gavage feedings until the neonate is asymptomatic. c. Recognize that this may indicate an underlying illness. d. Use a high-flow, pliable nipple because it requires less energy to use.
C Apnea, pallor, and bradycardia may be signs of an underlying illness. The infant should be evaluated to ensure he or she is not developing problems. The infant can rest while waiting for the evaluation. If the child is becoming ill, the capacity to digest enteral feedings may be compromised. The type of nipple that is being used should not produce the signs being observed.
What statement is true about smoking in college students? a. The rate of smoking cigarettes is declining. b. Smokeless tobacco use is rising dramatically. c. Regular cigar use is becoming more common. d. Students in the health professions do not smoke.
C Approximately 8.5% of college students smoke cigars on a regular basis. Among college students, the rate of cigarette smoking is rising. At last report, 28.5% of this group smoked cigarettes. Use of smokeless tobacco is declining overall. Students in the health professions do smoke.
The school nurse suspects a testicular torsion in a young adolescent student. What action should the nurse take? a. Place a warm moist pack on the scrotal area. b. Instruct the adolescent to lie down and elevate the legs. c. Refer the adolescent for immediate medical evaluation. d. Suggest that the adolescent wear a scrotum-protecting guard.
C Because torsion may result from trauma to the scrotum, school nurses are likely to encounter such injuries and should refer the child or adolescent for medical evaluation immediately. It would not be appropriate to apply warmth, elevate the legs, or tell the adolescent to wear a scrotum-protecting guard because these actions could delay treatment.
The parent of a child hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why blood pressure readings are being taken so often. What knowledge should influence the nurse's reply? a. The antibiotic therapy contributes to labile blood pressure values. b. Hypotension leading to sudden shock can develop at any time. c. Acute hypertension is a concern that requires monitoring. d. Blood pressure fluctuations indicate that the condition has become chronic.
C Blood pressure monitoring is essential to identify acute hypertension, which is treated aggressively. Antibiotic therapy is usually not indicated for glomerulonephritis. Hypertension, not hypotension, is a concern in glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure control is essential to prevent further renal damage. Blood pressure fluctuations do not provide information about the chronicity of the disease.
A preadolescent has been diagnosed with scoliosis. The planned therapy is the use of a thoracolumbosacral orthotic. The preadolescent asks how long she will have to wear the brace. What is the appropriate response by the nurse? a. "For as long as you have been told." b. "Most preadolescents use the brace for 6 months." c. "Until your vertebral column has reached skeletal maturity." d. "It will be necessary to wear the brace for the rest of your life."
C Bracing can halt or slow the progress of most curvatures. They must be used continuously until the child reaches skeletal maturity. Telling the child "for as long as you have been told" does not answer the child's question and does not promote involvement in care. Six months is unrealistic because skeletal maturity is not reached until adolescence. When skeletal growth is complete, bracing is no longer effective.
When should the nurse expect breastfeeding-associated jaundice to first appear in a normal infant? a. 2 to 12 hours b. 12 to 24 hours c. 2 to 4 days d. After the fifth day
C Breastfeeding-associated jaundice is caused by decreased milk intake related to decreased caloric and fluid intake by the infant before the mother's milk is well established. Fasting is associated with decreased hepatic clearance of bilirubin. Zero to 24 hours is too soon; jaundice within the first 24 hours is associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn. After the fifth day is too late. Jaundice associated with breastfeeding begins earlier because of decreased breast milk intake.
The nurse is examining an infant, age 10 months, who was brought to the clinic for persistent diaper rash. The nurse finds perianal inflammation with satellite lesions. What is the most likely cause? a. Impetigo b. Urine and feces c. Candida albicans infection d. Infrequent diapering
C C. albicans infection produces perianal inflammation and a maculopapular rash with satellite lesions that may cross the inguinal folds. Impetigo is a bacterial infection that spreads peripherally in sharply marginated, irregular outlines. Eruptions involving the skin in contact with the diaper but sparing the folds are likely to be caused by chemical irritation, especially urine and feces, and may be related to infrequent diapering.
The nurse is caring for a preterm infant who is receiving caffeine citrate for treatment of apnea of prematurity. What signs should indicate caffeine toxicity? a. Bradycardia and hypotension b. Oliguria and sleepiness c. Vomiting and irritability d. Constipation and weight loss
C Caffeine citrate is the medication of choice for the treatment of apnea of prematurity because it has fewer side effects, requires once-daily dosing, has slower elimination, and has a wider therapeutic range than other options. Caffeine toxicity can still occur, so the preterm infant needs to be monitored for signs of toxicity, including vomiting and irritability. Bradycardia, hypotension, oliguria, sleepiness, constipation, and weight loss are not symptoms of toxicity.
The nurse is planning care for an infant receiving calcium gluconate for treatment of hypocalcemia. Which route of administration should be used? a. Oral b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Intraosseous
C Calcium gluconate is administered intravenously over 10 to 30 minutes or as a continuous infusion. If it is given more rapidly than this, cardiac dysrhythmias and circulatory collapse may occur. Early feedings are indicated, but when the ionized calcium drops below 3.0 to 4.4 mg/dL, intravenous calcium gluconate is necessary. Intramuscular or intraosseous administration is not recommended.
Which term is defined as a vaguely outlined area of edematous tissue situated over the portion of the scalp that presents in a vertex delivery? a. Hydrocephalus b. Cephalhematoma c. Caput succedaneum d. Subdural hematoma
C Caput succedaneum is defined as a vaguely outlined area of edematous tissue situated over the portion of the scalp that presents in a vertex delivery. The swelling consists of serum or blood (or both) accumulated in the tissues above the bone, and it may extend beyond the bone margin. Hydrocephalus is caused by an imbalance in production and absorption of cerebrospinal fluid. When production exceeds absorption, fluid accumulates within the ventricular system, causing dilation of the ventricles. A cephalhematoma has sharply demarcated boundaries that do not extend beyond the limits of the (bone) suture line. A subdural hematoma is located between the dura and the cerebrum. It should not be visible on the scalp.
A school-age child with celiac disease asks for guidance about snacks that will not exacerbate the disease. What snack should the nurse suggest? a. Pizza b. Pretzels c. Popcorn d. Oatmeal cookies
C Celiac disease symptoms result from ingestion of gluten. Corn and rice do not contain gluten. Popcorn or corn chips will not exacerbate the intestinal symptoms. Pizza and pretzels are usually made from wheat flour that contains gluten. Also, in the early stages of celiac disease, the child may be lactose intolerant. Oatmeal contains gluten.
A pregnant client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of "cephalopelvic disproportion." Which explanation should the nurse give to the client? a. "It means a large for gestational age fetus." b. "It is the narrow opening between the ischial spines." c. "There is an uneven size between the fetus' presenting part and the pelvis." d. "The shape of the pelvis is an android shape and is unfavorable for vaginal delivery."
C Cephalopelvic disproportion means a disproportion (or uneven size) between the fetus' presenting part and the maternal pelvis. It does not mean a large for gestational age fetus or that the pelvis is an android shape. The narrow opening between the ischial spines is called the transverse measurement.
A new parent asks the nurse, "How can diaper rash be prevented?" What should the nurse recommend? a. Wash the infant with soap before applying a thin layer of oil. b. Clean the infant with soap and water every time diaper is changed. c. Wipe stool from the skin using water and a mild cleanser. d. When changing the diaper, wipe the buttocks with oil and powder the creases.
C Change the diaper as soon as it becomes soiled. Gently wipe stool from the skin with water and mild soap. The skin should be thoroughly dried after washing. Applying oil does not create an effective barrier. Over washing the skin should be avoided, especially with perfumed soaps or commercial wipes, which may be irritating. Baby powder should not be used because of the danger of aspiration.
Chemotherapeutic agents are classified according to what feature? a. Side effects b. Effectiveness c. Mechanism of action d. Route of administration
C Chemotherapeutic agents are classified according to mechanism of action. For example, antimetabolites resemble essential metabolic elements needed for growth but are different enough to block further deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Although the side effect profiles may be similar for drugs within a classification, they are not the basis for classification. Most chemotherapeutic regimens contain combinations of drugs. The effectiveness of any one drug is relative to the cancer type, combination therapy, and protocol for administration. The route of administration is determined by the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of each drug.
A school-age child with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration is being given oral rehydration solutions (ORS). The child's mother calls the clinic nurse because he is also occasionally vomiting. The nurse should recommend which intervention? a. Bring the child to the hospital for intravenous fluids. b. Alternate giving ORS and carbonated drinks. c. Continue to give ORS frequently in small amounts. d. Keep child NPO (nothing by mouth) for 8 hours and resume ORS if vomiting has subsided.
C Children who are vomiting should be given ORS at frequent intervals and in small amounts. Intravenous fluids are not indicated for mild dehydration. Carbonated beverages are high in carbohydrates and are not recommended for the treatment of diarrhea and vomiting. The child is not kept NPO because this would cause additional fluid losses.
The parents of an infant with cerebral palsy (CP) ask the nurse if their child will have cognitive impairment. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Affected children have some degree of cognitive impairment. b. Around 20% of affected children have normal intelligence. c. About 45% of affected children have normal intelligence. d. Cognitive impairment is expected if motor and sensory deficits are severe.
C Children with CP have a wide range of intelligence, and 40% to 50% are within normal limits. A large percentage of children with CP do not have mental impairment. Many individuals who have severely limiting physical impairment have the least amount of intellectual compromise.
A child with leukemia is receiving intrathecal chemotherapy to prevent which condition? a. Infection b. Brain tumor c. Central nervous system (CNS) disease d. Drug side effects
C Children with leukemia are at risk for invasion of the CNS with leukemic cells. CNS prophylactic therapy is indicated. Intrathecal chemotherapy does not prevent infection or drug side effects. A brain tumor in a child with leukemia would be a second tumor, and additional appropriate therapy would be indicated.
What major complication is associated with a child with chronic renal failure? a. Hypokalemia b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Water and sodium retention d. Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen
C Chronic renal failure leads to water and sodium retention, which contributes to edema and vascular congestion. Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and retention of blood urea nitrogen are complications of chronic renal failure.
What term refers to seizures that involve both hemispheres of the brain? a. Absence b. Acquired c. Generalized d. Complex partial
C Clinical observations of generalized seizures indicate that the initial involvement is from both hemispheres. Absence seizures have a sudden onset and are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness, a blank stare, and automatisms. Acquired seizure disorder is a result of a brain injury from a variety of factors; it is not a term that labels the type of seizure. Complex partial seizures are the most common seizures. They may begin with an aura and be manifested as repetitive involuntary activities without purpose, carried out in a dreamy state.
Physiologically, the child compensates for fluid volume losses by which mechanism? a. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion b. Hemoconcentration to reduce cardiac workload c. Fluid shift from interstitial space to intravascular space d. Vasodilation of peripheral arterioles to increase perfusion
C Compensatory mechanisms attempt to maintain fluid volume. Initially, interstitial fluid moves into the intravascular compartment to maintain blood volume. Aldosterone is released to promote sodium retention and conserve water in the kidneys. Hemoconcentration results from the fluid volume loss. With less circulating volume, tachycardia results. Vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles occurs to help maintain blood pressure.
The nurse's role in facilitating successful childrearing in unmarried teenage mothers includes what? a. Facilitating marriage between the mother and father of the baby b. Teaching the adolescent the long-term needs of the growing child c. Providing information and feedback about positive parenting skills d. Encouraging the infant's grandmother to take responsibility for care
C Competence in a teenage mother is increased when feedback is provided about positive parenting skills and use of community resources. The nurse can identify and refer the mother to programs such as support groups for adolescent mothers, infant stimulation programs, and parenting programs. Facilitating marriage between the mother and the father of the baby may produce additional stress and detract from their ability to care for the infant. Encouraging the infant's grandmother to take responsibility for care would decrease the mother's ability to develop successful childrearing behaviors. Supportive families can provide assistance to enable the teenage mother to complete school. Many adolescents do not have a future perspective for themselves. The nurse includes information on normal infant development to aid the mother in having reasonable expectations.
A newborn is diagnosed with retinopathy of prematurity. What should the nurse know about this condition? a. Blindness cannot be prevented. b. No treatment is currently available. c. Cryotherapy and laser therapy are effective treatments. d. Long-term administration of oxygen will be necessary.
C Cryotherapy and laser photocoagulation therapy can be used to minimize the vascular proliferation process that causes the retinal damage. Blindness can be prevented with early recognition and treatment. Long-term administration of oxygen is one of the causes. Oxygen should be used judiciously.
The nurse is teaching a child with a cast about cast removal. What should the nurse teach the child about cast removal? a. "The cast cutter will be a quiet machine." b. "You will feel cold as the cast is removed." c. "You will feel a tickly sensation as the cast is removed." d. "The cast cutter cuts through the cast like a circular saw."
C Cutting the cast to remove it or to relieve tightness is frequently a frightening experience for children. They fear the sound of the cast cutter and are terrified that their flesh, as well as the cast, will be cut. Because it works by vibration, a cast cutter cuts only the hard surface of the cast. The oscillating blade vibrates back and forth very rapidly and will not cut when placed lightly on the skin. Children have described it as producing a "tickly" sensation.
What statement best describes Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) muscular dystrophy (DMD)? a. It has an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. b. Onset occurs in later childhood and adolescence. c. It is characterized by presence of Gower sign, a waddling gait, and lordosis. d. Disease stabilizes during adolescence, allowing for life expectancy to approximately age 40 years.
C DMD is characterized by a waddling gait and lordosis. Gower sign is a characteristic way of rising from a squatting or sitting position on the floor. DMD is inherited as an X-linked recessive gene. Genetic counseling is recommended for parents, female siblings, maternal aunts, and their female offspring. Onset occurs usually between ages 3 and 5 years. DMD has a progressive and relentless loss of muscle function until death by respiratory or cardiac failure.
Calculate the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) for the following: WBC count of 5000 mm3; neutrophils (segs) of 10%; and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) of 12%. a. 110/mm3 b. 500/mm3 c. 1100/mm3 d. 5000/mm3
C Determine the total percentage of neutrophils ("polys," or "segs," and "bands"). Multiply white blood cell (WBC) count by percentage of neutrophils. WBC = 1000/mm3, neutrophils = 7%, and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) = 7% Step 1: 10% + 12% = 22% Step 2: 0.22 5000 = 1100/mm3 ANC
What diet is most appropriate for the child with chronic renal failure (CRF)? a. Low in protein b. Low in vitamin D c. Low in phosphorus d. Supplemented with vitamins A, E, and K
C Dietary phosphorus may need to be restricted by limiting protein and milk intake. Substances that bind phosphorus are given with meals to prevent its absorption, which enables a more liberal intake of phosphorus-containing protein. Protein is limited to the recommended daily allowance for the child's age. Further restriction is thought to negatively affect growth and neurodevelopment. Vitamin D therapy is administered in children with CRF to increase calcium absorption. Supplementation of vitamins A, E, and K, beyond normal dietary intake, is not advised in children with CRF. These fat-soluble vitamins can accumulate.
What finding is a clinical manifestation of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in children? a. Low-pitched cry b. Sunken fontanel c. Diplopia, blurred vision d. Increased blood pressure
C Diplopia and blurred vision are signs of increased ICP in children. A high-pitched cry and a tense or bulging fontanel are characteristic of increased ICP. Increased blood pressure, common in adults, is rarely seen in children.
What sign is one of the first to indicate overwhelming sepsis in a child with burn injuries? a. Seizures b. Bradycardia c. Disorientation d. Decreased blood pressure
C Disorientation in the burn patient is one of the first signs of overwhelming sepsis and may indicate inadequate hydration. Seizures, bradycardia, and decreased blood pressure are not initial manifestations of overwhelming sepsis.
The nurse is caring for a child with a decubiti on the buttocks. The nurse notes that the dressing covering the decubiti is loose. What action should the nurse implement? a. Retape the dressing. b. Remove the dressing. c. Change the dressing. d. Reinforce the dressing.
C Dressings should always be changed when they are loose or soiled. They should be changed more frequently in areas where contamination is likely (e.g., sacral area, buttocks, tracheal area). The dressing should not be retaped, removed, or reinforced.
The nurse understands that medications delivered by which route are more likely to cause a drug reaction? a. Oral b. Topical c. Intravenous d. Intramuscular
C Drugs administered by the intravenous route are more likely to cause a reaction than the oral, topical, or intramuscular route.
What nursing intervention is most appropriate when caring for the child with osteomyelitis? a. Encourage frequent ambulation. b. Administer antibiotics with meals. c. Move and turn the child carefully and gently to minimize pain. d. Provide active range of motion exercises for the affected extremity.
C During the acute phase, any movement of the affected limb causes discomfort to the child. Careful positioning with the affected limb supported is necessary. Weight bearing is not permitted until healing is well under way to avoid pathologic fractures. Intravenous antibiotics are used initially. Food is not necessary with parenteral therapy. Active range of motion would be painful for the child.
The nurse is teaching a child experiencing severe edema associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome about his diet. The nurse should discuss what dietary need? a. Consuming a regular diet b. Increasing protein c. Restricting fluids d. Decreasing calories
C During the edematous stage of active nephrosis, the child has restricted fluid and sodium intake. As the edema subsides, the child is placed on a diet with increased salt and fluids. A regular diet is not indicated. There is no evidence that a diet high in protein is beneficial or has an effect on the course of the disease. Calories sufficient for growth and tissue healing are essential. With the child having little appetite and the fluid and salt restrictions, achieving adequate nutrition is difficult.
After the acute stage and during the healing process, what is the primary complication from burn injury? a. Shock b. Asphyxia c. Infection d. Renal shutdown
C During the healing phase, local infection or sepsis is the primary complication. Respiratory problems, primarily airway compromise, and shock are the primary complications during the acute stage of burn injury. Renal shutdown is not a complication of the burn injury but may be a result of the profound shock.
An adolescent with a spinal cord injury is admitted to a rehabilitation center. Her parents describe her as being angry, hostile, and uncooperative. The nurse should recognize that this is suggestive of which psychosocial state? a. Normal phase of adolescent development b. Severe depression that will require long-term counseling c. Normal response to her situation that can be redirected in a healthy way d. Denial response to her situation that makes rehabilitative efforts more difficult
C During the rehabilitation phase, it is desirable for adolescents to begin to express negative feelings toward the situation. The rehabilitation team can redirect the negative energy toward learning a new way of life. The injury has interrupted the normal adolescent process of achieving independence, triggering these negative behaviors. Severe depression can occur, but it indicates that the child is no longer in denial. Long-term therapy is not indicated. Being angry, hostile, and uncooperative are behaviors that are indications that the adolescent understands the severity of the injury and need for rehabilitation.
What is a characteristic of a toddler's language development at age 18 months? a. Vocabulary of 25 words b. Use of holophrases c. Increasing level of understanding d. Approximately one third of speech understandable
C During the second year of life, the understanding and understanding of speech increase to a level far greater than the child's vocabulary. This is also true for bilingual children, who are able to achieve this linguistic milestone in both languages. An 18-month-old child has a vocabulary of approximately 10 words. At this age, the child does not use the one-word sentences that are characteristic of 1-year-old children. The child has a very limited vocabulary of single words that are comprehensible.
Although a 14-month-old girl received a shock from an electrical outlet recently, her parent finds her about to place a paper clip in another outlet. Which is the best interpretation of this behavior? a. Her cognitive development is delayed. b. This is typical behavior because toddlers are not very developed. c. This is typical behavior because of toddlers' inability to transfer remembering to new situations. d. This is not typical behavior because toddlers should know better than to repeat an act that caused pain.
C During the tertiary circular reactions stage, children have only a rudimentary sense of the classification of objects. The appearance of an object denotes its function for these children. The slot of an outlet is for putting things into. This is typical behavior for a toddler, who is only somewhat aware of a causal relation between events. Her cognitive development is appropriate for her age.
A new parent relates to the nurse that the family has many known food allergies. Which is considered a primary strategy for feeding the infant with many family food allergies? a. Using soy formula for feeding b. Maternal avoidance of cow's milk protein c. Exclusive breastfeeding for 4 to 6 months d. Delaying the introduction of highly allergenic foods past 6 months
C Exclusive breastfeeding for 4 to 6 months is now considered a primary strategy for avoiding atopy in families with known food allergies; however, there is no evidence that maternal avoidance (during pregnancy or lactation) of cow's milk protein or other dietary products known to cause food allergy will prevent food allergy in children. Researchers indicate that delaying the introduction of highly allergenic foods past 4 to 6 months of age may not be as protective for food allergy as previously believed. Likewise, studies have shown that soy formula does not prevent allergic disease in infants.
An infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) classified according to the pathophysiology of defective utilization. The nurse understands that the reason for the FTT is most likely related to what? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Hyperthyroidism c. Congenital infection d. Breastfeeding problems
C FTT classified according to the pathophysiology of defective utilization is related to a genetic anomaly, congenital infection of metabolic storage disease. Cystic fibrosis would be related to the pathophysiology of inadequate absorption, hyperthyroidism would be related to the pathophysiology of increased metabolism, and breastfeeding problems are related to inadequate caloric intake.
What is an appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a child in traction? a. Removing adhesive traction straps daily to prevent skin breakdown b. Assessing for tightness, weakness, or contractures in uninvolved joints and muscles c. Providing active range of motion exercises to affected extremity three times a day d. Keeping child prone to maintain good alignment
C Fat emboli are of greatest concern in individuals with fractures of the long bones. Fat droplets from the marrow are transferred to the general circulation, where they are transported to the lung or brain. This type of embolism usually occurs within the second 12 hours after the injury. Sepsis would manifest with fever and lethargy. Osteomyelitis usually is seen with pain at the site of infection and fever. A child with an acute respiratory tract infection would have nasal congestion, not chest pain.
A feeding technique the nurse can teach to parents of a child with cerebral palsy to improve use of the lips and the tongue to facilitate speech is which? a. Feeding pureed foods b. Placing food on the tongue c. Placing food at the side of the tongue d. Placing food directly into the mouth with a spoon
C Feeding techniques such as forcing the child to use the lips and tongue in eating facilitate speech. An example of this technique is placing food at the side of the tongue, first one side and then the other, and making the child use the lips to take food from a spoon rather than placing it directly on the tongue. Feeding pureed foods would not encourage use of the lips and tongue.
The nurse is teaching the family of a child with a long-term central venous access device about signs and symptoms of bacteremia. What finding indicates the presence of bacteremia? a. Hypertension b. Pain at the entry site c. Fever and general malaise d. Redness and swelling at the entry site
C Fever, chills, general malaise, and an ill appearance can be signs of bacteremia and require immediate intervention. Hypotension would be indicative of sepsis and possible impending cardiovascular collapse. Pain, redness, and swelling at the entry site indicate local infection.
What is the required number of milliliters of fluid needed per day for a 14-kg child? a. 800 b. 1000 c. 1200 d. 1400
C For the first 10 kg of body weight, a child requires 100 ml/kg. For each additional kilogram of body weight, an extra 50 ml is needed. 10 kg 100 ml/kg/day = 1000 ml 4 kg 50 ml/kg/day = 200 ml 1000 ml + 200 ml = 1200 ml/day Eight hundred to 1000 ml is too little; 1400 ml is too much.
What organism is a parasite that causes acute diarrhea? a. Shigella organisms b. Salmonella organisms c. Giardia lamblia d. Escherichia coli
C G. lamblia is a parasite that represents 10% of nondysenteric illness in the United States. Shigella, Salmonella, and E. coli are bacterial pathogens.
The mother of a child with cognitive impairment calls the nurse because her son has been gagging and drooling all morning. The nurse suspects foreign body ingestion. What physiologic occurrence is most likely responsible for the presenting signs? a. Gastrointestinal perforation may have occurred. b. The object may have been aspirated. c. The object may be lodged in the esophagus. d. The object may be embedded in stomach wall.
C Gagging and drooling may be signs of esophageal obstruction. The child is unable to swallow saliva, which contributes to the drooling. Signs of gastrointestinal (GI) perforation include chest or abdominal pain and evidence of bleeding in the GI tract. If the object was aspirated, the child would most likely have coughing, choking, inability to speak, or difficulty breathing. If the object was embedded in the stomach wall, it would not result in symptoms of gagging and drooling.
A girl, age 5 1/2 years, has been sent to the school nurse for urinary incontinence three times in the past 2 days. The nurse should recommend to her parent that the first action is to have the child evaluated for what condition? a. School phobia b. Glomerulonephritis c. Urinary tract infection (UTI) d. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
C Girls between the ages of 2 and 6 years are considered high risk for UTIs. This child is showing signs of a UTI, including incontinence in a toilet-trained child and possible urinary frequency or urgency. A physiologic cause should be ruled out before psychosocial factors are investigated. Glomerulonephritis usually manifests with decreased urinary output and fluid retention. ADHD can contribute to urinary incontinence because the child is distracted, but the first manifestation was incontinence, not distractibility.
Nursing care of the child with myelosuppression from leukemia or chemotherapeutic agents should include which therapeutic intervention? a. Restrict oral fluids. b. Institute strict isolation. c. Use good hand-washing technique. d. Give immunizations appropriate for age.
C Good hand washing minimizes the exposure to infectious organisms and decreases the chance of infection spread. Oral fluids are encouraged if the child is able to drink. If possible, the intravenous route is not used because of the increased risk of infection from parenteral fluid administration. Strict isolation is not indicated. When the child is immunocompromised, the vaccines are not effective. If necessary, the appropriate immunoglobulin is administered.
A 14-year-old boy is of normal weight, and his parents are concerned about bilateral breast enlargement. The nurse's discussion of this should be based on what? a. The presence of too much body fat b. Symptom that a hormonal imbalance is present c. Most likely part of normal pubertal development d. Indication that he is developing precocious puberty
C Gynecomastia is common during midpuberty in about one third of boys. For most, the breast enlargement disappears within 2 years. Although breast enlargement in overweight children can indicate too much body fat, in children of normal body weight, it is a normal occurrence. If the gynecomastia persists beyond 2 years, then a hormonal cause may need to be investigated. Precocious puberty is the early onset of puberty, before age 9 years in boys.
The nurse at a summer camp recognizes the signs of heatstroke in an adolescent girl. Her temperature is 40° C (104° F). She is slightly confused but able to drink water. Nursing care while waiting for transport to the hospital should include what intervention? a. Administer antipyretics. b. Administer salt tablets. c. Apply towels wet with cool water. d. Sponge with solution of rubbing alcohol and water.
C Heatstroke is a failure of normal thermoregulatory mechanisms. The onset is rapid with initial symptoms of headache, weakness, and disorientation. Immediate care is relocation to a cool environment, removal of clothing, and applying of cool water (wet towels or immersion). Antipyretics are not used because they are metabolized by the liver, which is already not functioning. Salt tablets are not indicated and may be harmful by increasing dehydration. Rubbing alcohol is not used.
A hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. What nursing goal is appropriate for this child? a. Stimulate appetite. b. Detect evidence of edema. c. Minimize risk of infection. d. Promote adherence to the antibiotic regimen.
C High-dose steroid therapy has an immunosuppressant effect. These children are particularly vulnerable to upper respiratory tract infections. A priority nursing goal is to minimize the risk of infection by protecting the child from contact with infectious individuals. Appetite is increased with prednisone therapy. The amount of edema should be monitored as part of the disease process, not necessarily related to the administration of prednisone. Antibiotics would not be used as prophylaxis.
A pregnant woman asks about prenatal diagnosis of hydrocephalus. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. It can be diagnosed only after birth. b. It can be diagnosed by chromosome studies. c. It can be diagnosed with fetal ultrasonography. d. It can be diagnosed by measuring the lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio.
C Hydrocephalus can be diagnosed by fetal ultrasonography as early as 14 weeks of gestation. Most incidents of hydrocephalus are not chromosomal in origin. The lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio can be used to determine fetal lung maturity.
Spastic cerebral palsy (CP) is characterized by which clinical manifestations? a. Athetosis, dystonic movements b. Tremors, lack of active movement c. Hypertonicity; poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion d. Wide-based gait; poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements
C Hypertonicity and poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion are part of the classification of spastic CP. Athetosis and dystonic movements are part of the classification of dyskinetic or athetoid CP. Tremors and lack of active movement may indicate other neurologic disorders. A wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements are part of the classification of ataxic CP.
When does idiopathic scoliosis become most noticeable? a. In the newborn period b. When the child starts to walk c. During the preadolescent growth spurt d. During adolescence
C Idiopathic scoliosis is most noticeable during the preadolescent growth spurt. It is seldom apparent before age 10 years.
What is an appropriate action when an infant becomes apneic? a. Shake vigorously. b. Roll the infant's head to the side. c. Gently stimulate the trunk by patting or rubbing. d. Hold the infant by the feet upside down with the head supported.
C If an infant is apneic, the infant's trunk should be gently stimulated by patting or rubbing. If the infant is prone, turn onto the back. Vigorous shaking, rolling of the head, and hanging the child upside down can cause injury and should not be done.
An infant had a gastrostomy tube placed for feedings after a Nissen fundoplication and bolus feedings are initiated. Between feedings while the tube is clamped, the infant becomes irritable, and there is evidence of cramping. What action should the nurse implement? a. Burp the infant. b. Withhold the next feeding. c. Vent the gastrostomy tube. d. Notify the health care provider.
C If bolus feedings are initiated through a gastrostomy after a Nissen fundoplication, the tube may need to remain vented for several days or longer to avoid gastric distention from swallowed air. Edema surrounding the surgical site and a tight gastric wrap may prohibit the infant from expelling air through the esophagus, so burping does not relieve the distention. Some infants benefit from clamping of the tube for increasingly longer intervals until they are able to tolerate continuous clamping between feedings. During this time, if the infant displays increasing irritability and evidence of cramping, some relief may be provided by venting the tube. The next feeding should not be withheld, and calling the health care provider is not necessary.
A child is admitted in acute renal failure (ARF). Therapeutic management to rapidly provoke a flow of urine includes the administration of what medication? a. Propranolol (Inderal) b. Calcium gluconate c. Mannitol (Osmitrol) or furosemide (Lasix) (or both) d. Sodium, chloride, and potassium
C In ARF, if hydration is adequate, mannitol or furosemide (or both) is administered to provoke a flow of urine. If glomerular function is intact, an osmotic diuresis will occur. Propranolol is a beta-blocker; it will not produce a rapid flow of urine in ARF. Calcium gluconate is administered for its protective cardiac effect when hyperkalemia exists. It does not affect diuresis. Electrolyte measurements must be done before administration of sodium, chloride, or potassium. These substances are not given unless there are other large, ongoing losses. In the absence of urine production, potassium levels may be elevated, and additional potassium can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.
The nurse is caring for a child with Meckel diverticulum. What type of stool does the nurse expect to observe? a. Steatorrhea b. Clay colored c. Currant jelly-like d. Loose stools with undigested food
C In Meckel diverticulum the bleeding is usually painless and may be dramatic and occur as bright red or currant jelly-like stools, or it may occur intermittently and appear as tarry stools. The stools are not clay colored, steatorrhea, or loose with undigested food.
After spinal fusion surgery the nurse should check for signs of what? a. Seizure activity b. Increased intracranial pressure c. Impaired color, sensitivity, and movement to the lower extremities d. Impaired pupillary response during neurologic checks
C In addition to the usual postoperative assessments of wound, circulation, and vital signs, the neurologic status of the patient's extremities requires special attention. Prompt recognition of any neurologic impairment is imperative because delayed paralysis may develop that requires surgical intervention.
A newborn has been diagnosed with brachial nerve paralysis. The nurse should assist the breastfeeding mother to use which hold or position during feeding? a. Reclining b. The cradle hold c. The football hold d. The cross-over hold
C In brachial nerve paralysis, the affected arm is gently immobilized on the upper abdomen. Tucking the newborn under the arm (football hold) puts less pressure on the newborn's affected extremity. The other positions place the newborn's body next to the mother's and can cause pressure on the affected arm.
What goal is most important when caring for a child with anorexia nervosa (AN)? a. Limit fluid intake. b. Prevent depression. c. Correct malnutrition. d. Encourage weight gain.
C In children diagnosed with AN or bulimia nervosa, the priority consideration is to correct the malnutrition. Severe malnutrition, electrolyte disturbances, vital sign abnormalities, and psychiatric disorders may be present. Careful monitoring is necessary to avoid complications. Often fluid intake is restricted by individuals with AN. Fluid balance must be restored. Preventing depression is important, but the correction of potentially life-threatening malnutrition takes precedence. After the initial malnutrition is corrected, then a plan is established for nutritional therapy.
What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) who has scrotal edema? a. Place an ice pack on the scrotal area. b. Place the child in an upright sitting position. c. Elevate the scrotum with a rolled washcloth. d. Place a warm moist pack to the scrotal area.
C In children hospitalized with MCNS, elevating edematous parts may be helpful to shift fluid to more comfortable distributions. Areas that are particularly edematous, such as the scrotum, abdomen, and legs, may require support. The scrotum can be elevated with a rolled washcloth. Ice or heat should not be used. Sitting the child in an upright position will not decrease the scrotal edema
The nurse is caring for an infant who had surgical repair of a tracheoesophageal fistula 24 hours ago. Gastrostomy feedings have not been started. What do nursing actions related to the gastrostomy tube include? a. Keep the tube clamped. b. Suction the tube as needed. c. Leave the tube open to gravity drainage. d. Lower the tube to a point below the level of the stomach.
C In the immediate postoperative period, the gastrostomy tube is open to gravity drainage. This usually is continued until the infant is able to tolerate feedings. The tube is unclamped in the postoperative period to allow for the drainage of secretions and air. Gastrostomy tubes are not suctioned on an as-needed basis. They may be connected to low suction to facilitate drainage of secretions. Lowering the tube to a point below the level of the stomach would create too much pressure.
After a tonic-clonic seizure, what symptoms should the nurse expect the child to experience? a. Diarrhea and abdominal discomfort b. Irritability and hunger c. Lethargy and confusion d. Nervousness and excitability
C In the postictal phase, after a tonic-clonic seizure, the child may remain semiconscious and difficult to arouse. The average duration of the postictal phase is usually 30 minutes. The child may remain confused or sleep for several hours. He or she may have mild impairment of fine motor movements. The child may have visual and speech difficulties and may vomit or complain of headache.
The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP). The child, developmentally, is at an infant stage. Appropriate developmental stimulation for this child should be what? a. Playing "pat-a-cake" with the child b. None so the child does not become overstimulated c. Putting a colorful mobile with music on the bed d. Giving the child a coloring book and crayons
C Incorporating play into the therapeutic program for a child with CP often requires great ingenuity and inventiveness from those involved in the child's care. Objects and toys are chosen for the child's developmental stage to provide needed sensory input using a variety of shapes, forms, and textures. Nurses can help parents integrate therapy into play activities in natural ways.
Descriptions of young people with anorexia nervosa (AN) often include which criteria? a. Impulsive b. Extroverted c. Perfectionist d. Low achieving
C Individuals with AN are described as striving for perfection, which may manifest in other compulsive disorders. They are also academically high achievers. Impulsive and extroverted personalities are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa.
What behavior is the nurse most likely to assess in an adolescent with anorexia nervosa (AN)? a. Eats in secrecy b. Uses food as a coping mechanism c. Has a marked preoccupation with food d. Lacks awareness of how eating affects weight loss
C Individuals with AN display great interest in food. They prepare meals for others, talk about food, and hoard food. During meals, food play may occur to appear as if the person is eating. Persons with AN consume a small amount of food, so they have no need to eat in secrecy. Individuals with bulimia nervosa (BN) usually binge privately. Food is not used as a coping mechanism in AN, as is common in BN. Individuals with AN know about the relationship between calorie intake and calorie expenditure. They can regulate intake and then exercise to not gain or to lose weight.
The nurse is teaching infant care to parents with an infant who has been diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI). What should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. "Bisphosphonate therapy is not beneficial for OI." b. "Physical therapy should be avoided as it may cause damage to bones." c. "Lift the infant by the buttocks, not the ankles, when changing diapers." d. "The infant should meet expected gross motor development without assistive devices."
C Infants and children with this disorder require careful handling to prevent fractures. They must be supported when they are being turned, positioned, moved, and held. Even changing a diaper may cause a fracture in severely affected infants. These children should never be held by the ankles when being diapered but should be gently lifted by the buttocks or supported with pillows. Bisphosphonate and physical therapy are beneficial for OI. Lightweight braces will be used when the child starts to ambulate.
Prevention of burn injury is important anticipatory guidance. In the infant and toddler period, which mode is the most common cause of burn? a. Matches b. Electrical cords c. Hot liquids in the kitchen d. Microwave-heated foods
C Infants and toddlers are most commonly injured by hot liquids in the kitchen and bathroom. This often occurs as a result of inadequate supervision of this curious and energetic age group. Matches and lighters are seen as toys by young children and should be kept out of reach. Older toddlers and preschool children are at risk of chewing on electrical cords and placing objects in outlets. Microwave-heated fluids and foods can become superheated, resulting in oral burns.
During a well-child visit, the mother tells the nurse that her 4-month-old infant is constipated, is less active than usual, and has a weak-sounding cry. The nurse suspects botulism and questions the mother about the child's diet. What factor should support this diagnosis? a. Breastfeeding b. Commercial formula c. Infant cereal with honey d. Improperly sterilized bottles
C Ingestion of honey is a risk factor for infant botulism in the United States. Honey should not be given to children younger than the age of 1 year. Botulism is not found with the use of commercial infant cereals. Although there is a slight increase in botulism in breastfed infants when compared with formula-fed infants, there is not sufficient evidence to support formula feeding as prevention. Thoroughly cleaning bottles used for formula feeding is sufficient for botulism prevention. Inadequate sterilization of home-canned foods can contribute to botulism.
What is the purpose of a high-protein diet for a child with major burns? a. Promote growth b. Improve appetite c. Minimize protein breakdown d. Diminish risk of stress-induced hyperglycemia
C Initially after major burns, there is a hypometabolic phase, which lasts for 2 or 3 days. A hypermetabolic phase follows, characterized by increased body temperature, oxygen and glucose consumption, carbon dioxide production, glycogenolysis, proteolysis, and lipolysis. This response continues for up to 9 months. A diet high in protein and calories is necessary. Healing, not growth, is the primary consideration. Many children have poor appetites, and supplementation is necessary. Hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, can occur from the stress of burn injury because the liver glycogen stores are rapidly depleted.
Parents bring a 7-year-old child to the clinic for evaluation of an injured wrist after a bicycle accident. The parents and child are upset, and the child will not allow an examination of the injured arm. What priority nursing intervention should occur at this time? a. Send the child to radiology so radiography can be performed. b. Initiate an intravenous line and administer morphine for the pain. c. Calmly ask the child to point to where the pain is worst and to wiggle fingers. d. Have the parents hold the child so that the nurse can examine the arm thoroughly.
C Initially, assessment is the priority. Because the child is alert but upset, the nurse should work to gain the child's trust. Initial data are gained by observing the child's ability to move the fingers and to point to the pain. Other important observations at this time are pallor and paresthesia. The child needs to be sent for radiography, but initial assessment data need to be obtained. Sending the child for radiography will increase the child's anxiety, making the examination difficult. It is inappropriate to ask parents to restrain their child. These parents are upset about the injury. If restraint is indicated, the nurse should obtain assistance from other personnel.
The nurse suspects fluid overload in an infant receiving intravenous fluids. What clinical manifestation is suggestive of water intoxication? a. Oliguria b. Weight loss c. Irritability and seizures d. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
C Irritability, somnolence, headache, vomiting, diarrhea, and generalized seizures are manifestations of water intoxication. Urinary output is increased as the child attempts to maintain fluid balance. Weight gain is usually associated with water intoxication. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias are not associated with water intoxication.
The nurse is teaching parents guidelines for feeding their 8-month-old infant with failure to thrive (FTT). Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching? a. "We will continue to use the 24-kcal/oz formula." b. "We will be sure to follow the formula preparation instructions." c. "We will be sure to give our infant at least 8 oz of juice every day." d. "We will be sure to feed our infant according to the written schedule."
C Juice intake in infants with FTT should be withheld until adequate weight gain has been achieved with appropriate milk sources; thereafter, no more than 4/oz day of juice should be given. Further teaching is needed if the parents indicate 8 oz of juice is allowed. For infants with FTT, 24-kcal/oz formulas may be provided to increase caloric intake. Because maladaptive feeding practices often contribute to growth failure, parents should follow specific step-by-step directions for formula preparation, as well as a written schedule of feeding times. Statements by the parents indicating they will use a 24-kcal/oz formula, follow directions for formula preparation, and feed their infant on schedule are accurate statements.
What term is used to describe an abnormally increased convex angulation in the curvature of the thoracic spine? a. Scoliosis b. Lordosis c. Kyphosis d. Ankylosis
C Kyphosis is an abnormally increased convex angulation in the curvature of the thoracic spine. Scoliosis is a complex spinal deformity usually involving lateral curvature, spinal rotation causing rib asymmetry, and thoracic hypokyphosis. Lordosis is an accentuation of the cervical or lumbar curvature beyond physiologic limits. Ankylosis is the immobility of a joint.
What description identifies the pathophysiology of leukemia? a. Increased blood viscosity b. Abnormal stimulation of the first stage of coagulation process c. Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) d. Thrombocytopenia from an excessive destruction of platelets
C Leukemia is a group of malignant disorders of the bone marrow and lymphatic system. It is defined as an unrestricted proliferation of immature WBCs in the blood-forming tissues of the body. Increased blood viscosity may result secondary to the increased number of WBCs. The coagulation process is unaffected by leukemia. Thrombocytopenia may occur secondary to the overproduction of WBCs in the bone marrow.
What is the initial clinical manifestation of generalized seizures? a. Confusion b. Feeling frightened c. Loss of consciousness d. Seeing flashing lights
C Loss of consciousness is a frequent occurrence in generalized seizures and is the initial clinical manifestation. Being confused, feeling frightened, and seeing flashing lights are clinical manifestations of a complex partial seizure.
The nurse should know what about Lyme disease? a. Very difficult to prevent b. Easily treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3 c. Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite d. Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease
C Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete spread by ticks. The early characteristic rash is erythema migrans. Tick bites should be avoided by entering tick-infested areas with caution. Light-colored clothing should be worn to identify ticks easily. Long-sleeve shirts and long pants tucked into socks should be worn. Early treatment of the erythema migrans (stage 1) can prevent the development of Lyme disease. Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete, not mycotic spores.
What is marasmus? a. Deficiency of protein with an adequate supply of calories b. Syndrome that results solely from vitamin deficiencies c. Not confined to geographic areas where food supplies are inadequate d. Characterized by thin, wasted extremities and a prominent abdomen resulting from edema (ascites)
C Marasmus is a syndrome of emotional and physical deprivation. It is not confined to geographic areas were food supplies are inadequate. Marasmus is characterized by gradual wasting and atrophy of body tissues, especially of subcutaneous fat. The child appears old, with flabby and wrinkled skin. Marasmus is a deficiency of both protein and calories.
What statement related to clinical trials developed for pediatric cancers is most accurate? a. Are accessible only in major pediatric centers b. Do not require consent for standard therapy c. Provide the best available therapy compared with an expected improvement d. Are standardized to provide the same treatment to all children with the disease
C Most clinical trials have a control group in which the patients receive the best available therapy currently known. The experimental group(s) receives treatment that is thought to be even better. The protocol outlines the therapy plan. Protocols are developed for many pediatric cancers. They can be accessed by pediatric oncologists throughout the United States. Consent is always required in treatment of children, especially for research protocols. The protocol is designed to optimize therapy for children based on disease type and stage.
A child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is started on a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID). What nursing consideration should be included? a. Monitor heart rate. b. Administer NSAIDs between meals. c. Check for abdominal pain and bloody stools. d. Expect inflammation to be gone in 3 or 4 days.
C NSAIDs are the first-line drugs used in JIA. Potential side effects include gastrointestinal (GI), renal, and hepatic side effects. The child is at risk for GI bleeding and elevated blood pressure. The heart rate is not affected by this drug class. NSAIDs should be given with meals to minimize gastrointestinal problems. The antiinflammatory response usually takes 3 weeks before effectiveness can be evaluated.
A mother brings her 6-week-old infant in with complaints of poor feeding, lethargy, fever, irritability, and a vesicular rash. What does the nurse suspect? a. Impetigo b. Candidiasis c. Neonatal herpes d. Congenital syphilis
C Neonatal herpes is one of the most serious viral infections in newborns, with a mortality rate of up to 60% in infants with disseminated disease. Bullous impetigo is an infectious superficial skin condition most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus infection. It is characterized by bullous vesicular lesions on previously untraumatized skin. Candidiasis is characterized by white adherent patches on the tongue, palate, and inner aspects of the cheeks. Congenital syphilis has multisystem manifestations, including hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.
A preterm infant is being fed by gavage. What is an important consideration for this infant? a. Warm the feeding to body temperature before feeding. b. Feed the infant in an isolette to minimize handling. c. Provide a pacifier for nonnutritive sucking during bolus feeding. d. Do not allow the infant to have increased stress by becoming hungry.
C Nonnutritive sucking during feedings will help the infant associate sucking with food. This can minimize feeding resistance and aversion. Warming the feeding to body temperature is not necessary. The food can be at room temperature. If possible, the infant should be held in a feeding position. The infant should be allowed to become hungry so that the food and nonnutritive sucking are associated with satisfying the hunger.
The nurse is preparing to care for a newborn with an omphalocele. The nurse should understand that care of the infant should include what intervention? a. Initiating breast- or bottle-feedings to stabilize the blood glucose level b. Maintaining pain management with an intravenous opioid c. Covering the intact bowel with a nonadherent dressing to prevent injury d. Performing immediate surgery
C Nursing care of an infant with an omphalocele includes covering the intact bowel with a nonadherent dressing to prevent injury or placing a bowel bag or moist dressings and a plastic drape if the abdominal contents are exposed. The infant is not started on any type of feeding but has a nasogastric tube placed for gastric decompression. Pain management is started after surgery, but surgery is not done immediately after birth. The infant is medically stabilized before different surgical options are considered.
What term is used to describe a child's level of consciousness when the child is arousable with stimulation? a. Stupor b. Confusion c. Obtundation d. Disorientation
C Obtundation describes a level of consciousness in which the child is arousable with stimulation. Stupor is a state in which the child remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation. Confusion is impaired decision making. Disorientation is confusion regarding time and place.
An occlusive dressing is applied to a large abrasion. This is advantageous because the dressing will accomplish what? a. Deliver vitamin C to the wound. b. Provide an antiseptic for the wound. c. Maintain a moist environment for healing. d. Promote mechanical friction for healing.
C Occlusive dressings, such as Acuderm, are not adherent to the wound site. They provide a moist wound surface and insulate the wound. The dressing does not have vitamin C or antiseptic capabilities. Acuderm protects against friction.
What nursing intervention is appropriate when caring for an unconscious child? a. Avoid using narcotics or sedatives to provide comfort and pain relief. b. Change the child's position infrequently to minimize the chance of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). c. Monitor fluid intake and output carefully to avoid fluid overload and cerebral edema. d. Give tepid sponge baths to reduce fevers above 38.3° C (101° F) because antipyretics are contraindicated.
C Often comatose patients cannot cope with the quantity of fluids that they normally tolerate. Overhydration must be avoided to prevent fatal cerebral edema. Narcotics and sedatives should be used as necessary to reduce pain and anxiety, which can increase ICP. The child's position should be changed frequently to avoid complications such as pneumonia and skin breakdown. Antipyretics are the method of choice for fever reduction.
What is an essential component in caring for the very low- or extremely low-birth-weight infant? a. Holding the infant to help develop trust b. Using electronic monitoring devices exclusively c. Coordinating care to reduce environmental stress d. Incorporating infant stimulation elements during assessment
C One of the principles of care for high-risk neonates is close observation and assessment with minimum handling. The nurse checks the apical rate against the monitor readings on a regular basis. The infant's care is then clustered, and the infant is disturbed as little as possible. Holding an infant to help develop trust is not part of the assessment. In some areas, parents use "skin-to-skin" care with their infants. Although electronic monitoring devices are used, the nurse must validate the readings with the infant's data. For an ill neonate, excessive stimulation creates stress.
What is true about pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? a. It can be prevented by proper personal hygiene. b. It is easily prevented by compliance with any form of contraception. c. It may have devastating effects on the reproductive tract of affected adolescents. d. It can potentially cause life-threatening and serious defects in the future children of affected adolescents.
C PID is a major concern because of its devastating effects on the reproductive tract. Short-term complications include abscess formation in the fallopian tubes, and long-term complications include ectopic pregnancy, infertility, and dyspareunia. PID is an infection of the upper female genital tract, most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections. Personal hygiene, oral contraceptives, and many other forms of contraception do not prevent transmission of the disease. There is a possibility of ectopic pregnancy but not birth defects in children.
A 4-month-old infant is discharged home after surgery for the repair of a cleft lip. What should instructions to the parents include? a. Provide crib toys for distraction. b. Breast- or bottle-feeding can begin immediately. c. Give pain medication to the infant to minimize crying. d. Leave the infant in the crib at all times to prevent suture strain.
C Pain medication and comfort measures are used to minimize infant crying. Interventions are implemented to minimize stress on the suture line. Although crib toys are important, the child should not be left in the crib for prolonged periods. Feeding begins with alternative feeding devices. Sucking puts stress on the suture line in the immediate postoperative period. The infant should not be left in the crib but should be removed for appropriate holding and stimulation.
The nurse is teaching the parents of a 3-year-old child who has been diagnosed with tonic-clonic seizures. What statement by the parent should indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should attempt to restrain my child during a seizure." b. "My child will need to avoid contact sports until adulthood." c. "I should place a pillow under my child's head during a seizure." d. "My child will need to be taken to the emergency department [ED] after each seizure."
C Parents should try to place a pillow or folded blanket under the child's head for protection. The parent should not try to restrain the child during the seizure. The child does not need to go to the ED with each seizures; the nurse can teach parents certain criteria for when their child would need to be seen. Discussing what will happen in adulthood is not appropriate at this time.
The nurse uses the five Ps to assess ischemia in a child with a fracture. What finding is considered a late and ominous sign? a. Petaling b. Posturing c. Paresthesia d. Positioning
C Paresthesia distal to the injury or cast is an ominous sign that requires immediate notification of the practitioner. Permanent muscle and tissue damage can occur within 6 hours. The other signs of ischemia that need to be reported are pain, pallor, pulselessness, and paralysis. Petaling is a method of placing protective or smooth edges on a cast. Posturing is not a sign of peripheral ischemia. Finding a position of comfort can be difficult with a fracture. It would not be an ominous sign unless pain was increasing or uncontrollable.
What statement is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis compared with hemodialysis? a. Protein loss is less extensive. b. Dietary limitations are not necessary. c. It is easy to learn and safe to perform. d. It is needed less frequently than hemodialysis.
C Peritoneal dialysis is the preferred form of dialysis for parents, infants, and children who wish to remain independent. Parents and older children can perform the treatments themselves. Protein loss is not significantly different. The dietary limitations are necessary, but they are not as stringent as those for hemodialysis. Treatments are needed more frequently but can be done at home.
What is a characteristic of children with depression? a. Increased range of affective response b. Tendency to prefer play instead of schoolwork c. Change in appetite resulting in weight loss or gain d. Preoccupation with need to perform well in school
C Physiologic characteristics of children with depression include changes in appetite resulting in weight loss or gain, nonspecific complaints of not feeling well, alterations in sleeping patterns, insomnia or hypersomnia, and constipation. Children who are depressed have sad facial expressions with absent or diminished range of affective response. These children withdraw from previously enjoyed activities and engage in solitary play or work with a lack of interest in play. They are uninterested in doing homework or achieving in school, resulting in lower grades.
What are quick, jerky, grossly uncoordinated, irregular movements that may disappear on relaxation called? a. Twitching b. Spasticity c. Choreiform movements d. Associated movements
C Quick, jerky, grossly uncoordinated, irregular movements that may disappear on relaxation are called choreiform movements. Twitching is defined as spasmodic movements of short duration. Spasticity is the prolonged and steady contraction of a muscle characterized by clonus (alternating relaxation and contraction of the muscle) and exaggerated reflexes. Associated movements are the voluntary movement of one muscle accompanied by the involuntary movement of another muscle.
When caring for a neonate in a radiant warmer, what should the nurse be alert to? a. Exposure to prolonged cold stress b. Need for Plexiglas shields to protect the infant c. Transepidermal water loss leading to dehydration d. Increased risk of infection from the open environment
C Radiant warmers result in greater evaporative fluid loss than normal, thus predisposing the infant to dehydration. Plastic wrap can help reduce this loss. Daily fluid requirements are increased to compensate. The radiant warmer protects the infant from cold stress. Plexiglas shields are not used in radiant warmers because they block the radiant heat waves. With clean and aseptic technique, there is not a greater risk of infection.
Which statement best describes the characteristics of preterm infants? a. Thermoregulation is well established. b. Extremities remain in attitude of flexion. c. Sucking reflex is absent, weak, or ineffectual. d. The head is proportionately small in relation to the body.
C Reflex activity is only partially developed. Sucking is absent, weak, or ineffectual. Thermoregulation is poorly developed, and a preterm infant needs to be in a neutral thermal environment. A preterm infant may be listless and inactive compared with the overall attitude of flexion and activity of a full-term infant. A preterm infant's head is proportionately larger than the body.
What statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children? a. It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years. b. Children can receive kidneys only from other children. c. It is the preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children. d. The decision for transplantation is difficult because a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.
C Renal transplantation offers the opportunity for a relatively normal life and is the preferred means of renal replacement therapy in end-stage renal disease. It can be done in children as young as age 6 months. Both children and adults can serve as donors for renal transplant purposes. Renal transplantation affords the child a more normal lifestyle than dependence on dialysis.
A neonate is born with mild clubfeet. When the parents ask the nurse how this will be corrected, what should the nurse explain? a. Traction is tried first. b. Surgical intervention is needed. c. Frequent, serial casting is tried first. d. Children outgrow this condition when they learn to walk.
C Serial casting is begun shortly after birth, before discharge from the nursery. Successive casts allow for gradual stretching of skin and tight structures on the medial side of the foot. Manipulation and casting of the leg are repeated frequently (every week) to accommodate the rapid growth of early infancy. Serial casting is the preferred treatment. Surgical intervention is done only if serial casting is not successful. Children do not improve without intervention.
The nurse is teaching the girls' varsity sports teams about the "female athlete triad." What is essential information to include? a. They should take low to moderate calcium to avoid hypercalcemia. b. They have strong bones because of the athletic training. c. Pregnancy can occur in the absence of menstruation. d. A diet high in carbohydrates accommodates increased training.
C Sexually active teenagers, regardless of menstrual status, need to consider contraceptive precautions. Increased calcium (1500 mg) is recommended for amenorrheic athletes. The decreased estrogen in girls with the female athlete triad, coupled with potentially inadequate diet, leads to osteoporosis. Diets high in protein and calories are necessary to avoid potentially long-term consequences of intensive, prolonged exercise programs in pubertal girls.
In teaching the parent of a newly diagnosed 2-year-old child with pyelonephritis related to vesicoureteral reflux (VUR), the nurse should include which information? a. Limit fluids to reduce reflux. b. Give cranberry juice twice a day. c. Have siblings examined for VUR. d. Surgery is indicated to reverse scarring.
C Siblings are at high risk for VUR. The incidence of reflux in siblings is approximately 36%. The other children should be screened for early detection and to potentially reduce scarring. Fluids are not reduced. The efficacy of cranberry juice in reducing infection in children has not been established. Surgery may be necessary for higher grades of VUR, but the scarring is not reversible.
When caring for a child with probable appendicitis, the nurse should be alert to recognize which sign or symptom as a manifestation of perforation? a. Anorexia b. Bradycardia c. Sudden relief from pain d. Decreased abdominal distention
C Signs of peritonitis, in addition to fever, include sudden relief from pain after perforation. Anorexia is already a clinical manifestation of appendicitis. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of peritonitis. Abdominal distention usually increases in addition to an increase in pain (usually diffuse and accompanied by rigid guarding of the abdomen).
A 14-year-old girl is in the intensive care unit after a spinal cord injury 2 days ago. What nursing intervention is a priority for this child? a. Minimizing environmental stimuli b. Administering immunoglobulin c. Monitoring and maintaining systemic blood pressure d. Discussing long-term care issues with the family
C Spinal cord injury patients are physiologically labile, and close monitoring is required. They may be unstable for the first few weeks after the injury. Increased blood pressure may be an indication of autonomic dysreflexia. It is not necessary to minimize environmental stimuli for this type of injury. Spinal cord injury is not an infectious process. Immunoglobulin is not indicated. Discussing long-term care issues with the family is inappropriate. The family is focusing on the recovery of their child. It will not be known until the rehabilitation period how much function the child may recover.
The health care provider has prescribed surfactant, beractant (Survanta), to be administered to an infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). The nurse understands that the beractant will be administered by which route? a. Orally b. Intravenously c. Via the ET tube d. Intramuscularly
C Surfactant is administered via the ET tube directly into the infant's trachea.
The nurse is teaching a group of female adolescents about toxic shock syndrome and the use of tampons. What statement by a participant indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I can alternate using a tampon and a sanitary napkin." b. "I should wash my hands before inserting a tampon." c. "I can use a superabsorbent tampon for more than 6 hours." d. "I should call my health care provider if I suddenly develop a rash that looks like sunburn."
C Teaching female adolescents about the association between toxic shock syndrome and the use of tampons is important. The teaching should include not using superabsorbent tampons; not leaving the tampon in for longer than 4 to 6 hours; alternating the use of tampons with sanitary napkins; washing hands before inserting a tampon to decrease the chance of introducing pathogens; and informing a health care provider if a sudden high fever, vomiting, muscle pain, dizziness, or a rash that looks like a sunburn appears.
What statement is most accurate in describing tetanus? a. Inflammatory disease that causes extreme, localized muscle spasm. b. Disease affecting the salivary gland with resultant stiffness of the jaw. c. Acute infectious disease caused by an exotoxin produced by an anaerobic spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus. d. Acute infection that causes meningeal inflammation resulting in symptoms of generalized muscle spasm.
C Tetanus results from an infection by the anaerobic spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus Clostridium tetani. The organism forms two exotoxins that affect the central nervous system to produce the clinical manifestations of the disease. Tetanus is not an inflammatory process. The toxin acts at the neuromuscular junction to produce muscular stiffness and to lower the threshold for reflex excitability. It is usually a systemic disease. Initial symptoms are usually a progressive stiffness and tenderness of the muscles of the neck and jaw. The sustained contraction of the jaw-closing muscles provides the name lockjaw. Meningeal inflammation is not the cause of the muscle spasms.
What is a priority of care when a child has an external ventricular drain (EVD)? a. Irrigation of drain to maintain flow b. As-needed dressing changes if dressing becomes wet c. Frequent assessment of amount and color of drainage d. Maintaining the EVD below the level of the child's head
C The EVD is inserted into the child's ventricle. Frequent assessment is necessary to determine amount of drainage and whether an infection is present. The EVD is a closed system and is not opened for irrigation. Antibiotics may be administered through the drain, but this is usually done by the neuropractitioner. The dressing is not changed. If it becomes wet, then the practitioner should be notified that cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may be leaking. Unless ordered, maintaining the EVD below the level of the child's head position will create too much pressure and potentially drain too much CSF.
A child has a nasogastric (NG) tube after surgery for Hirschsprung disease. What is the purpose of the NG tube? a. Prevent spread of infection. b. Monitor electrolyte balance. c. Prevent abdominal distention. d. Maintain accurate record of output.
C The NG tube is placed to suction out gastrointestinal secretions and prevent abdominal distention. The NG tube would not affect infection. Electrolyte content of the NG drainage can be monitored. Without the NG tube, there would be no drainage. After the NG tube is placed, it is important to maintain an accurate record of intake and output. This is not the reason for placement of the tube.
The nurse is caring for a child admitted with acute abdominal pain and possible appendicitis. What intervention is appropriate to relieve the abdominal discomfort during the evaluation? a. Place in the Trendelenburg position. b. Apply moist heat to the abdomen. c. Allow the child to assume a position of comfort. d. Administer a saline enema to cleanse the bowel.
C The child should be allowed to take a position of comfort, usually with the legs flexed. The Trendelenburg position will not help with the discomfort. If appendicitis is a possibility, administering laxative or enemas or applying heat to the area is dangerous. Such measures stimulate bowel motility and increase the risk of perforation.
An 8-year-old child is hit by a motor vehicle in the school parking lot. The school nurse notes that the child is responding to verbal stimulation but is not moving his extremities when requested. What is the first action the nurse should take? a. Wait for the child's parents to arrive. b. Move the child out of the parking lot. c. Have someone notify the emergency medical services (EMS) system. d. Help the child stand to return to play.
C The child was involved in a motor vehicle collision and at this time is not able to move his extremities. The child needs immediate attention at a hospital for assessment of the possibility of a spinal cord injury. Because the child cannot move his extremities, the child should not be moved until his cervical and vertebral spines are stabilized. The EMS team can appropriately stabilize the spinal column for transport. Although it is important to notify the parents, the EMS system should be activated and transport arranged for serious injuries. The only indication to move the child is to prevent further trauma.
A 3-day-old infant presents with abdominal distention, is vomiting, and has not passed any meconium stools. What disease should the nurse suspect? a. Pyloric stenosis b. Intussusception c. Hirschsprung disease d. Celiac disease
C The clinical manifestations of Hirschsprung disease in a 3-day-old infant include abdominal distention, vomiting, and failure to pass meconium stools. Pyloric stenosis would present with vomiting but not distention or failure to pass meconium stools. Intussusception presents with abdominal cramping and celiac disease presents with malabsorption.
An adolescent has just been brought to the emergency department with a spinal cord injury and paralysis from a diving accident. The parents keep asking the nurse, "How bad is it?" The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Families adjust better to life-threatening injuries when information is given over time. b. Immediate loss of function is indicative of the long-term consequences of the injury. c. Extent and severity of damage cannot be determined for several weeks or even months. d. Numerous diagnostic tests will be done immediately to determine extent and severity of damage.
C The extent and severity of damage cannot be determined initially. The immediate loss of function is caused by anatomic and impaired physiologic function, and improvement may not be evident for weeks or months. It is essential to provide information about the adolescent's status to the parents. Immediate treatment information should be provided. Long-term rehabilitation and prognosis can be addressed after the child is stabilized. During the immediate postinjury period, physiologic responses to the injury make an accurate assessment of damage difficult.
The school nurse is seeing a child who collected some poison ivy leaves during recess. He says only his hands touched it. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Soak his hands in warm water. b. Apply Burow's solution compresses. c. Rinse his hands in cold running water. d. Scrub his hands thoroughly with antibacterial soap.
C The first recommended action is to rinse his hands in cold running water within 15 minutes of exposure. This will neutralize the urushiol not yet bonded to the skin. Soaking his hands in warm water is effective for soothing the skin lesions after the dermatitis has begun. Antibacterial soap removes protective skin oils and dilutes the urushiol, allowing it to spread.
A When a child slows down the eating process, it is easier to recognize signs of fullness. If food is consumed rapidly, this feedback is lost. Regular meals and snacks are encouraged to prevent the child from becoming too hungry and overeating. Low-fat foods are usually higher in calories than the regular versions. Nutritional labels should be checked and foods high in sugar and calories avoided. Food should not be used as a special treat or reward; this encourages the child to use food as comfort measures in response to boredom and stress.
C The goal of behavior modification in weight control is to help the participant identify abnormal eating processes. After the abnormal patterns are identified, then techniques, including problem solving, are taught to eliminate inappropriate eating. Learning how to cook low-fat meals can be a component of the program, but the focus of behavior modification is identifying target behaviors that need to be changed. Improving relationships is not the focus of weight management behavior management programs. Achieving normal weight during the program is an inappropriate goal. As the child incorporates the techniques, weight gain will slow. In childhood obesity, the goal is to stop the increase of weight gain.
An infant of a mother with herpes simplex infection has just been born. What should nursing considerations include? a. The infant should be isolated in a nursery. b. No special precautions are necessary. c. The mother and infant should be together in a private room. d. Immediate discharge is indicated to prevent spread of infection.
C The herpes virus can be transmitted to the infant intrapartum or by direct contact. The mother and infant should room together in a private room to reduce the risk of transmission to other infants and mothers. The infant should be kept with the mother. Placement in the nursery creates the possibility of transmission of the virus. Immediate discharge is not necessary. Good handwashing and a private room will minimize the risk of transmission while allowing the mother and infant to receive postpartum care.
What factor predisposes an infant to fluid imbalances? a. Decreased surface area b. Lower metabolic rate c. Immature kidney functioning d. Decreased daily exchange of extracellular fluid
C The infant's kidneys are functionally immature at birth and are inefficient in excreting waste products of metabolism. Infants have a relatively high body surface area (BSA) compared with adults. This allows a higher loss of fluid to the environment. A higher metabolic rate is present as a result of the higher BSA in relation to active metabolic tissue. The higher metabolic rate increases heat production, which results in greater insensible water loss. Infants have a greater exchange of extracellular fluid, leaving them with a reduced fluid reserve in conditions of dehydration.
The nurse suspects shock in a child 1 day after surgery. What should be the initial nursing action? a. Place the child on a cardiac monitor. b. Obtain arterial blood gases. c. Provide supplemental oxygen. d. Put the child in the Trendelenburg position.
C The initial nursing action for a patient in shock is to establish ventilatory support. Oxygen is provided, and the nurse carefully observes for signs of respiratory failure, which indicates a need for intubation. Cardiac monitoring would be indicated to assess the child's status further, but ventilatory support comes first. Oxygen saturation monitoring should be begun. Arterial blood gases would be indicated if alternative methods of monitoring oxygen therapy were not available. The Trendelenburg position is not indicated and is detrimental to the child. The head-down position increases intracranial pressure and decreases diaphragmatic excursion and lung volume.
What is an important nursing consideration when caring for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)? a. Apply ice packs to relieve acute swelling and pain. b. Administer acetaminophen to reduce inflammation. c. Teach the child and family correct administration of medications. d. Encourage range of motion exercises during periods of inflammation.
C The management of JIA is primarily pharmacologic. The family should be instructed regarding administration of medications and the value of a regular schedule of administration to maintain a satisfactory blood level in the body. They need to know that nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs should not be given on an empty stomach and to be alert for signs of toxicity. Warm, moist heat is best for relieving stiffness and pain. Acetaminophen does not have antiinflammatory effects. Range of motion exercises should not be done during periods of inflammation.
Tretinoin (Retin-A) is a commonly used topical agent for the treatment of acne. What do nursing considerations with this drug include? a. Sun exposure increases effectiveness. b. Cosmetics with lanolin and petrolatum are preferred in acne. c. Applying of the medication occurs at least 20 to 30 minutes after washing. d. Erythema and peeling are indications of toxicity and need to be reported.
C The medication should not be applied for at least 20 to 30 minutes after washing to decrease the burning sensation. The avoidance of sun and the use of sunscreen agents must be emphasized because sun exposure can result in severe sunburn. Cosmetics with lanolin, petrolatum, vegetable oil, lauryl alcohol, butyl stearate, and oleic acid can increase comedone production. Erythema and peeling are common local manifestations.
What condition is the most common cause of acute renal failure in children? a. Pyelonephritis b. Tubular destruction c. Severe dehydration d. Upper tract obstruction
C The most common cause of acute renal failure in children is dehydration or other causes of poor perfusion that may respond to restoration of fluid volume. Pyelonephritis and tubular destruction are not common causes of acute renal failure. Obstructive uropathy may cause acute renal failure, but it is not the most common cause.
What needs to be included as essential teaching for adolescents with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. High calorie diet because of increased metabolic needs b. Home schooling to decrease the risk of infections c. Protection from sun and fluorescent lights to minimize rash d. Intensive exercise regimen to build up muscle strength and endurance
C The photosensitive rash is a major concern for individuals with SLE. Adolescents who spend time outdoors need to use sunscreens with a high SPF, hats, and clothing. Uncovered fluorescent lights can also cause a photosensitivity reaction. The diet should be sufficient in calories and nutrients for growth and development. The use of steroids can cause increased hunger, resulting in weight gain. This can present additional emotional issues for the adolescent. Normal functions should be maximized. The individual with SLE is encouraged to attend school and participate in peer activities. A balance of rest and exercise is important; excessive exercise is avoided.
What is a physiologic effect of immobilization on children? a. Metabolic rate increases. b. Venous return improves because the child is in the supine position. c. Circulatory stasis can lead to thrombus and embolus formation. d. Bone calcium increases, releasing excess calcium into the body (hypercalcemia).
C The physiologic effects of immobilization, as a result of decreased muscle contraction, include venous stasis. This can lead to pulmonary emboli or thrombi. The metabolic rate decreases with immobilization. With the loss of muscle contraction, there is a decreased venous return to the heart. Calcium leaves the bone during immobilization, leading to bone demineralization and increasing the calcium ion concentration in the blood.
What is a priority of care for an infant with an intraventricular hemorrhage? a. Avoid use of analgesia. b. Keep the infant's head to the right side. c. Minimize interventions that cause crying. d. Encourage the staff and parents to hold the infant.
C The priority goal is to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). Allowing the infant to cry will cause an increase in pressure. Analgesia is used as necessary to maintain the child pain free. This reduces ICP. The infant should be positioned with the body and head in the midline position. Turning the child's head to the right side can cause cerebral venous congestion and increased ICP. The child should have minimum stimulation to avoid increases in ICP.
The nurse is placing an infant in a servocontrol radiant warmer. The nurse should attach the temperature probe to which area of the infant's body? a. Scapula b. Sternum c. Abdomen d. Front of the lower leg
C The temperature probe should be placed over a nonbony, well-perfused tissue area such as the abdomen or flank. The scapula, sternum, and front of the lower leg would be a bony area.
A parent calls the clinic nurse because his 7-year-old child was bitten by a black widow spider. What action should the nurse advise the parent to take? a. Apply warm compresses. b. Carefully scrape off the stinger. c. Take the child to the emergency department. d. Apply a thin layer of corticosteroid cream.
C The venom of the black widow spider has a neurotoxic effect. The parent should take the child to the emergency department for treatment with antivenin and muscle relaxants as needed. Warm compresses increase the circulation to the area and facilitate the spread of the venom. The black widow spider does not have a stinger. Corticosteroid cream has no effect on the venom.
An infant is brought to the emergency department with the following clinical manifestations: poor skin turgor, weight loss, lethargy, tachycardia, and tachypnea. This is suggestive of which situation? a. Water excess b. Sodium excess c. Water depletion d. Potassium excess
C These clinical manifestations indicate water depletion or dehydration. Edema and weight gain occur with water excess or overhydration. Sodium or potassium excess would not cause these symptoms.
A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux asks how to decrease the number and total volume of emesis. What recommendation should the nurse include in teaching this parent? a. Surgical therapy is indicated. b. Place in prone position for sleep after feeding. c. Thicken feedings and enlarge the nipple hole. d. Reduce the frequency of feeding by encouraging larger volumes of formula.
C Thickened feedings decrease the child's crying and increase the caloric density of the feeding. Although it does not decrease the pH, the number and volume of emesis are reduced. Surgical therapy is reserved for children who have failed to respond to medical therapy or who have an anatomic abnormality. The prone position is not recommended because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome. Smaller, more frequent feedings are more effective than less frequent, larger volumes of formula.
A 14-year-old is admitted to the emergency department with a fracture of the right humerus epiphyseal plate through the joint surface. What information does the nurse know regarding this type of fracture? a. It will create difficulty because the child is left handed. b. It will heal slowly because this is the weakest part of the bone. c. This type of fracture requires different management to prevent bone growth complications. d. This type of fracture necessitates complete immobilization of the shoulder for 4 to 6 weeks.
C This type of fracture (Salter type III) can cause problems with growth in the affected limb. Early and complete assessment is essential to prevent angular deformities and longitudinal growth problems. The difficulty for the child does not depend on the location at the epiphyseal plate. Any fracture of the dominant arm presents obstacles for the individual. Healing is usually rapid in the epiphyseal plate area. Complete immobilization is not necessary. Often these injuries are surgically repaired with open reduction and internal fixation.
The nurse is assisting a child with celiac disease to select foods from a menu. What foods should the nurse suggest? a. Hamburger on a bun b. Spaghetti with meat sauce c. Corn on the cob with butter d. Peanut butter and crackers
C Treatment of celiac disease consists primarily of dietary management. Although a gluten-free diet is prescribed, it is difficult to remove every source of this protein. Some patients are able to tolerate restricted amounts of gluten. Because gluten occurs mainly in the grains of wheat and rye but also in smaller quantities in barley and oats, these foods are eliminated. Corn, rice, and millet are substitute grain foods. Corn on the cob with butter would be gluten free.
What is a strategy used to minimize scarring with burn injury in a child? a. Applying of drying agents on skin b. Use of loose-fitting garments over healing areas c. Limitation of period without pressure to areas of scarring d. Immobilization of extremities while healing is occurring
C Uniform pressure to the scar decreases the blood supply and forces the collagen into a more normal alignment. When pressure is removed, blood supply to the scar is immediately increased; therefore, periods without pressure should be brief to avoid nourishment of the hypertrophic tissue. Moisturizing agents are used with massage to help stretch tissue and prevent contractures. Compression garments, not loose-fitting garments, are indicated. Range of motion exercises are done to minimize contractures.
What should the nurse consider when providing support to a family whose infant has just been diagnosed with biliary atresia? a. The prognosis for full recovery is excellent. b. Death usually occurs by 6 months of age. c. Liver transplantation may be needed eventually. d. Children with surgical correction live normal lives.
C Untreated biliary atresia results in progressive cirrhosis and death usually by 2 years of age. Surgical intervention at 8 weeks of age is associated with somewhat better outcomes. Liver transplantation is also improving outcomes for 10-year survival. Even with surgical intervention, most children require supportive therapy. With early intervention, 10-year survival rates range from 27% to 75%.
The nurse is teaching a client to prevent future urinary tract infections (UTIs). What factor is most important to emphasize as the potential cause? a. Poor hygiene b. Constipation c. Urinary stasis d. Congenital anomalies
C Urinary stasis is the single most important host factor that influences the development of UTIs. Urine is usually sterile but at body temperature provides an excellent growth medium for bacteria. Poor hygiene can be a contributing cause, especially in females because their short urethras predispose them to UTIs. Urinary stasis then provides a growth medium for the bacteria. Intermittent constipation contributes to urinary stasis. A full rectum displaces the bladder and posterior urethra in the fixed and limited space of the bony pelvis, causing obstruction, incomplete micturition, and urinary stasis. Congenital anomalies can contribute to UTIs, but urinary stasis is the primary factor in many cases.
What developmental characteristic does not occur until a child reaches age 2 1/2 years? a. Birth weight has doubled. b. Anterior fontanel is still open. c. Primary dentition is complete. d. Binocularity may be established.
C Usually by age 30 months, the primary dentition of 20 teeth is complete. Birth weight doubles at approximately ages 5 to 6 months. The anterior fontanel closes at ages 12 to 18 months. Binocularity is established by age 15 months.
The nurse is facilitating a conference between the teachers and parents of a 7-year-old child newly diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What does the nurse stress? a. Academic subjects should be taught in the afternoon. b. Low-interest activities in the classroom should be minimized. c. Visual references should accompany verbal instruction. d. The child's environment should be visually stimulating.
C Verbal instructions should always be accompanied by visual or written instructions. This provides the child with reinforcement and a reference to expectations. Academic subjects should be taught in the morning when the child is experiencing the effects of the morning dose of medication. Low-interest activities should be mixed with high-interest activities to maintain the child's attention. Environmental stimulation should be minimized to help eliminate distractions that can overexcite the child.
The nurse is caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula. What should nursing care include? a. Feed glucose water only. b. Elevate the patient's head for feedings. c. Raise the patient's head and give nothing by mouth. d. Avoid suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic.
C When a newborn is suspected of having a tracheoesophageal fistula, the most desirable position is supine with the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees. It is imperative that any source of aspiration be removed at once; oral feedings are withheld. The oral pharynx should be kept clear of secretions by oral suctioning. This is to prevent the cyanosis that is usually the result of laryngospasm caused by overflow of saliva into the larynx.
Parents ask the nurse, "How should we deal with our toddler's regression since our new baby has come home?" The nurse should give the parents which response? a. "Introduce new areas of learning." b. "Use time-out as punishment when regression occurs." c. "Ignore the behavior and praise appropriate behavior." d. "Explain to the toddler that the behavior is not acceptable."
C When regression does occur, the best approach is to ignore it while praising existing patterns of appropriate behavior. It is advisable not to introduce new areas of learning when an additional crisis is present or expected, such as beginning toilet training shortly before a sibling is born or during a brief hospitalization. Time-out should not be used as a punishment, and the toddler does not have the cognitive ability to understand an explanation that the behavior is not acceptable.
What is an important priority in dealing with the child suspected of having Wilms tumor? a. Intervening to minimize bleeding b. Monitoring temperature for infection c. Ensuring the abdomen is protected from palpation d. Teaching parents how to manage the parenteral nutrition
C Wilms tumor, or nephroblastoma, is the most common malignant renal and intraabdominal tumor of childhood. The abdomen is protected, and palpation is avoided. Careful handling and bathing are essential to prevent trauma to the tumor site. Before chemotherapy, the child is not myelosuppressed. Bleeding is not usually a risk. Infection is a concern after surgery and during chemotherapy, not before surgery. Parenteral therapy is not indicated before surgery.
What most accurately describes bowel function in children born with a myelomeningocele? a. Incontinence cannot be prevented. b. Enemas and laxatives are contraindicated. c. Some degree of fecal continence can usually be achieved. d. Colostomy is usually required by the time the child reaches adolescence.
C With a combination of dietary modification, regular toilet habits, and prevention of constipation and impaction, some degree of fecal continence can usually be achieved. Incontinence can be minimized with the development of a regular bowel training program. A surgical intervention can assist with continence. Enemas and laxatives are part of a bowel training program. Colostomies are not indicated in children with myelomeningocele.
What explains physiologically the edema formation that occurs with burns? a. Vasoconstriction b. Reduced capillary permeability c. Increased capillary permeability d. Diminished hydrostatic pressure within capillaries
C With a major burn, capillary permeability increases, allowing plasma proteins, fluids, and electrolytes to be lost into the interstitial space, causing edema. Maximum edema in a small wound occurs about 8 to 12 hours after injury. In larger injuries, the maximum edema may not occur until 18 to 24 hours later. Vasodilation occurs, causing an increase in hydrostatic pressure.
The nurse is teaching a parent of an 18-month-old about developmental milestones associated with feeding. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. The child will begin to use a fork. b. The child will be able use a straw and cup. c. The child will be able to hold a cup with both hands. d. The child will be able to drink from a cup with a lid. e. The child will begin to use a spoon but may turn it before reaching the mouth.
C, D, E An 18-month-old child can hold a cup with both hands, is able to drink from a cup with a lid, and begins to use a spoon but may turn it before reaching the mouth. Using a fork is a developmental milestone of a 36-month-old child. Using a straw and cup is a milestone seen at 24 months.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with complex partial seizures. What clinical features of complex partial seizures should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. They last less than 10 seconds. b. There is usually no aura. c. Mental disorientation is common. d. There is frequently a postictal state. e. There is usually an impaired consciousness.
C, D, E Clinical features of complex partial seizures include the following: it is common to have mental disorientation, there is frequently a postictal state, and there is usually an impaired consciousness. These seizures last longer than 10 seconds (usually longer than 60 seconds), and there is usually an aura.
The nurse is caring for a child with an epidural hematoma. The nurse should assess for what signs that can indicate Cushing triad? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Flushing c. Bradycardia d. Systemic hypertension e. Respiratory depression
C, D, E Cushing triad (systemic hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression) is a late sign of impending brainstem herniation. Fever or flushing does not occur with Cushing triad.
A, B, C Signs of withdrawal in a drug-exposed newborn include increased tone; increased respiratory rate; disturbed sleep; fever; excessive sucking; and loose, watery stools. Other signs observed included projectile vomiting, mottling, crying, nasal stuffiness, hyperactive Moro reflex, and tremors.
C, D, E Feeding facilitation techniques for preterm infants include recognizing the infant's limits; preparing a calm, quiet area for the feeding; and ensuring a restful environment between feedings. Using a firm nipple with slower flow and gently arousing the infant for the feeding are other facilitation techniques. Using a soft nipple and avoiding arousing the infant are techniques that would not facilitate feeding.
The nurse is caring for a child with a subdural hematoma. The nurse should assess for what signs that can indicate brainstem compression? (Select all that apply.) a. Coma b. Lethargy c. Hemiplegia d. Hemiparesis e. Unequal pupils
C, D, E Hemiparesis, hemiplegia, and anisocoria (unequal pupils) are signs of brainstem compression and require emergency treatment targeted at decreasing increased intracranial pressure. Coma and lethargy are seen with a subdural hematoma but do not indicate a brainstem compression.
The nurse is caring for a child who has a temperature of 30° C (86° F). What physical effects of hypothermia should the nurse expect to observe in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduced urinary output b. Injury to peripheral tissue c. Increased blood pressure d. Tachycardia e. Irritability with loss of consciousness f. Rigid extremities
C, D, E Hypothermia has varying physical effects depending on the child's core temperature. At 30° C (86° F), a child would experience an increase in blood pressure, tachycardia, and irritability followed by a loss of consciousness. Reduced urinary output from a decrease of blood flow to the kidneys, injury to peripheral tissue, and rigid extremities are physical effects observed as the body temperature continues to decrease.
What are risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Postterm b. Female gender c. Low Apgar scores d. Recent viral illness e. Native American infants
C, D, E Infant risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome include those with low Apgar scores and recent viral illness and Native American infants. Preterm, not postterm, birth and male, not female, gender are other risk factors.
The nurse is teaching parents about high-fiber foods that can prevent constipation. What foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Oranges b. Bananas c. Lima beans d. Baked beans e. Raisin bran cereal
C, D, E Lima beans have 13.2 g of fiber in 1 cup, baked beans have 10.4 g of fiber in 1 cup, and raisin bran cereal has 7.3 g of fiber in 1 cup. One orange has only 3.1 g of fiber, and 1 banana has only 3.1 g of fiber, so they are not recommended as high-fiber foods.
What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the neonatal period (birth to 1 month)? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Bradypnea c. Frequent urination d. Poor urinary stream e. Failure to gain weight
C, D, E Signs and symptoms of a urinary tract disorder in the neonatal period are frequent urination, poor urinary stream, and failure to gain weight. The respirations would be rapid, not slow, and dehydration, not edema, occurs.
What child behavior indicates to the nurse that temper tantrums have become a problem? (Select all that apply.) a. The child is 2 to 3 years old b. Tantrums occur at bedtime c. Tantrums occur past 5 years of age d. Tantrums last longer than 15 minutes e. Tantrums occur more than five times a day
C, D, E Temper tantrums are common during the toddler years and essentially represent normal developmental behaviors. However, temper tantrums can be signs of serious problems. Temper tantrums that occur past 5 years of age, last longer than 15 minutes, or occur more than five times a day are considered abnormal and may indicate a serious problem. A popular time for a tantrum is before bedtime.
The nurse is teaching the parents of a child with a seizure disorder about the triggers that can cause a seizure. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Cold b. Sugared drinks c. Emotional stress d. Flickering lights e. Hyperventilation
C, D, E The most common factors that may trigger seizures in children include emotional stress, sleep deprivation, fatigue, fever, and physical exercise. Other precipitating factors include sleep, flickering lights, menstrual cycle, alcohol, heat, hyperventilation, and fasting. Cold and sugared drinks are not triggers for seizures.
The nurse is positioning a preterm neonate. What are therapeutic positions the nurse should implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Elbows extended b. Hands at the side c. Neutral or slightly flexed neck d. Trunk slightly rounded with pelvic tilt e. Hips partially flexed and adducted to near midline
C, D, E Therapeutic positioning of the neonate includes a neutral or slightly flexed neck and the trunk slightly rounded with the pelvis tilted and hips partially flexed and adducted to near midline. The elbows should be flexed, not extended, and the hands should be brought to the face or midline as the position allows, not by the side.
Diagnosis of hepatitis B is confirmed by the detection of various hepatitis virus antigens, and the antibodies that are produced in response to the infection. Match the antibody or antigen to its definition. Indicates active infection a. HBsAg b. Anti-HBs c. HBcAg d. HBeAg
D
Many cutaneous lesions are associated with local symptoms. Match the symptom with its definition. Diminished sensation a. Pruritus b. Anesthesia c. Hyperesthesia d. Hypesthesia e. Paresthesia
D
Match the acute wound to its definition. Division of the skin made with a sharp object a. Abrasion b. Avulsion c. Laceration d. Incision e. Puncture
D
Match the classification of urinary tract infections of inflammations to its definition. Inflammation of the upper urinary tract and kidneys a. Persistent urinary tract infection b. Cystitis c. Urethritis d. Pyelonephritis e. Urosepsis
D
Match the following terms related to food sensitivities to the accurate descriptions. Initial exposure to an allergen resulting in an immune response; subsequent exposure induces a much stronger response a. Food allergy b. Food allergen c. Food intolerance d. Sensitization e. Atopy
D
Match the level of consciousness to its description. Remaining in a deep sleep, responsive only to repeated stimulation a. Confusion b. Disorientation c. Obtundation d. Stupor e. Coma
D
Match the type of fracture to its definition. Small fragments of bone are broken from the fractured shaft and lie in the surrounding tissue a. Transverse b. Oblique c. Spiral d. Comminuted
D
Match the type of skin graft to its definition. Histocompatible tissue obtained from genetically identical individuals a. Allografts b. Xenografts c. Autografts d. Isografts
D
Match the type of vegetarianism to its description. Eliminate all foods of animal origin, including milk and eggs, allowing only a few types of fruits, vegetables, and legumes a. Lacto-ovo vegetarians b. Lactovegetarians c. Pure vegetarians (vegans) d. Macrobiotics e. Semi-vegetarians
D
Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a 24-month-old child? a. Skips b. Broad jumps c. Rides tricycle d. Walks up and down stairs
D A 24-month-old child can go up and down stairs alone with two feet on each step. Skipping and broad jumping are skills acquired at age 3 years. Tricycle riding is achieved at age 4 years.
The clinic nurse is evaluating an adolescent with menses that have stopped occurring. The nurse understands that which minimum amount of time should the menses be absent after a period of menstruation to be diagnosed as secondary amenorrhea? a. 3 months b. 4 months c. 5 months d. 6 months
D A 6-month or more cessation of menses after a period of menstruation is secondary amenorrhea.
The nurse is presenting an educational program to a group of parents about differences between anorexia nervosa (AN) and bulimia nervosa (BN) at a community outreach program. What statement by a parent would indicate a need for additional teaching? a. "A child with AN will turn away from food to cope, but a child with BN turns to food to cope." b. "A child with AN maintains rigid control and is introverted, but a child with BN is an extrovert and frequently loses control." c. "A child with AN denies the illness, but a child with BN recognizes the illness." d. "A child with AN is usually sexually active and seeks intimacy, but a child with BN avoids intimacy and is usually not sexually active."
D A child with AN is usually the one who avoids intimacy and is not sexually active, but a child BN often seeks intimacy and is sexually active. A child with AN turns away from food to cope with life, maintains rigid control, is introverted, and denies the illness. A child with BN turns to food to cope, is an extrovert who loses control, and recognizes that he or she has an illness.
During a well-child visit, the nurse plots the child's BMI on the health record. What is the purpose of the BMI? a. To determine medication dosages b. To predict adult height and weight c. To identify coping strategies used by the child d. To provide a consistent measure of obesity
D A consistent measure of the degree of obesity is important to determine whether modification of the body fat component is indicated. Body surface area (BSA), not BMI, is used for medication dosage calculation. The BMI is not a predictor of adult height. A child with a high BMI may use food as a coping mechanism, but the BMI is not correlated with coping strategy use.
The nurse is teaching parents about caring for their infant with seborrheic dermatitis (cradle cap). Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "We will rinse off the shampoo quickly and dry the scalp thoroughly." b. "We will shampoo the hair every other day with antiseborrheic shampoo." c. "We will be sure to shampoo the hair without removing any of the crusts." d. "We will use a fine-tooth comb to help remove the loosened crusts from the strands of hair."
D A fine-tooth comb or a soft facial brush helps remove the loosened crusts from the strands of hair after shampooing. This is an accurate statement. Shampoo should applied to the scalp and allowed to remain on the scalp until the crusts soften. Shampoo should not be rinsed off quickly. The crusts should be removed, and shampooing with antiseborrheic shampoo should be done daily, not every other day.
The presence of which pair of factors is a good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% in an infant? a. Weight loss and decreased heart rate b. Capillary refill of less than 2 seconds and no tears c. Increased skin elasticity and sunken anterior fontanel d. Dry mucous membranes and generally ill appearance
D A good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% is any two four factors: capillary refill of more than 2 seconds, absent tears, dry mucous membranes, and ill general appearance. Weight loss is associated with fluid deficit, but the degree needs to be quantified. Heart rate is usually elevated. Skin elasticity is decreased, not increased. The anterior fontanel is depressed.
A woman in premature labor delivers an extremely low-birth-weight (ELBW) infant. Transport to a neonatal intensive care unit is indicated. The nurse explains that which level of service is needed? a. Level I b. Level IA c. Level II d. Level IIIB
D A level IIIB neonatal unit has the capability of providing care for ELBW infants, including high-frequency ventilation and on-site access to medical subspecialties and pediatric surgery. A level I facility manages normal maternal and newborn care. Infants at less than 35 weeks of gestation are stabilized and transported to a facility that can provide appropriate care. A level IA facility does not exist. Level II facilities provide care for infants born at 32 weeks of gestation and weighing more than 1500 g. If the infant is ill, the health problems are expected to resolve rapidly and are not anticipated to require specialty care.
What refers to a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst of meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord with its nerves through a defect in the vertebral column? a. Rachischisis b. Meningocele c. Encephalocele d. Myelomeningocele
D A myelomeningocele has a visible defect with an external saclike protrusion, containing meninges, spinal fluid, and nerves. Rachischisis is a fissure in the spinal column that leaves the meninges and the spinal cord exposed. Meningocele is a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst of meninges with spinal fluid but no neural elements. Encephalocele is a herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull, producing a fluid-filled sac.
Which refers to an infant whose rate of intrauterine growth has slowed and whose birth weight falls below the 10th percentile on intrauterine growth charts? a. Postterm b. Postmature c. Low birth weight d. Small for gestational age
D A small-for-gestational-age, or small-for-date, infant is one whose rate of intrauterine growth has slowed and whose birth weight falls below the 10th percentile on intrauterine growth curves. A postterm, or postmature, infant is any child born after 42 weeks of gestation, regardless of birth weight. A low-birth-weight infant is a child whose birth weight is less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age.
What substance is released from the posterior pituitary gland and promotes water retention in the renal system? a. Renin b. Aldosterone c. Angiotensin d. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D ADH is released in response to increased osmolality and decreased volume of intravascular fluid; it promotes water retention in the renal system by increasing the permeability of renal tubules to water. Renin release is stimulated by diminished blood flow to the kidneys. Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex. It enhances sodium reabsorption in renal tubules, promoting osmotic reabsorption of water. Renin reacts with a plasma globulin to generate angiotensin, which is a powerful vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin also stimulates the release of aldosterone.
The nurse is caring for a child after a cleft palate repair who is on a clear liquid diet. Which feeding device should the nurse use to deliver the clear liquid diet? a. Straw b. Spoon c. Sippy cup d. Open cup
D Acceptable feeding devices after a cleft palate repair include open cup for liquids, but rigid utensils such as spoons, straws, and hard-tipped sippy cups should be avoided to prevent accidental injury to the repair.
What recommendation should the nurse make to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young girls? a. Avoid public toilet facilities. b. Limit long baths as much as possible. c. Cleanse the perineum with water after voiding. d. Ensure clear liquid intake of 2 L/day.
D Adequate fluid intake minimizes urinary stasis. The recommended fluid intake is 50 ml/kg or 100 ml/lb per day. The average 5- to 6-year-old weighs approximately 18 kg (40 lb), so she should drink 2 L/day of fluid. There is no evidence that using public toilet facilities increases UTIs. Long baths are not associated with increased UTIs. Proper hand washing and perineal cleansing are important, but no evidence exists that these decrease UTIs in young girls.
Many adolescents use alcohol for self-medication. How does an adolescent view the benefit of alcohol? a. Believes it has a stimulant effect b. Believes it increases alertness c. Provides a sense of euphoria d. Provides a defense against depression
D Adolescents who abuse alcohol often rely on it as a defense against depression, anxiety, fear, and anger. Alcohol is a depressant and has a sedative effect. Alcohol does not provide a sense of euphoria. It does reduce inhibitions against aggressive behaviors.
What factor is most likely to increase the likelihood that an adolescent will misuse alcohol? a. Female gender b. Regular school attendance c. Rural environment d. Unconventional behavior
D Adolescents who are connected and engage in conventional behavior are less likely to misuse alcohol. Those who are disconnected from school, family, and other social supports have fewer assets and are more likely to abuse alcohol. School attendance is a sign of connectedness. Girls and boys report a similar onset and course of experimentation with alcohol. Urban youths have a higher likelihood of alcohol abuse than rural adolescents.
A health care provider prescribes feedings of 1 to 2 oz Pedialyte every 3 hours and to advance to 1/2 strength Similac with iron as tolerated postoperatively for an infant who had a pyloromyotomy. The nurse should decide to advance the feeding if which occurs? a. The infant's IV line has infiltrated. b. The infant has not voided since surgery. c. The infant's mother states the infant is tolerating the feeding okay. d. The infant is taking the Pedialyte without vomiting or distention.
D After a pyloromyotomy, feedings are usually instituted within 12 to 24 hours, beginning with clear liquids. They are offered in small quantities at frequent intervals. Supervision of feedings is an important part of postoperative care. The feedings are advanced only if the infant is taking the clear liquids without vomiting or distention. Feedings would not be advanced if the infant has not voided, the IV line becomes infiltrated, or the mother states the infant is tolerating the feedings.
An 8-year-old girl with moderate cerebral palsy (CP) recently began joining a regular classroom for part of the day. Her mother asks the school nurse about joining the after-school Girl Scout troop. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Most activities such as Girl Scouts cannot be adapted for children with CP. b. After-school activities usually result in extreme fatigue for children with CP. c. Trying to participate in activities such as Girl Scouts leads to lowered self-esteem in children with CP. d. Recreational activities often provide children with CP with opportunities for socialization and recreation.
D After-school and recreational activities serve to stimulate children's interest and curiosity. They help the children adjust to their disability, improve their functional ability, and build self-esteem. Increasing numbers of programs are adapted for children with physical limitations. Almost all activities can be adapted. The child should participate to her level of energy. Self-esteem increases as a result of the positive feedback the child receives from participation.
What intervention should be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reye syndrome? a. Immunization against the disease b. Medical attention for all head injuries c. Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis d. Avoidance of aspirin for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza
D Although the etiology of Reye syndrome is obscure, most cases follow a common viral illness, either varicella or influenza. A potential association exists between aspirin therapy and the development of Reye syndrome, so use of aspirin is avoided. No immunization currently exists for Reye syndrome. Reye syndrome is not correlated with head injuries or bacterial meningitis.
A child has a seizure disorder. What test should be done to gather the most specific information about the type of seizure the child is having? a. Sleep study b. Skull radiography c. Serum electrolytes d. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D An EEG is obtained for all children with seizures and is the most useful tool for evaluating a seizure disorder. The EEG confirms the presence of abnormal electrical discharges and provides information on the seizure type and the focus. The EEG is carried out under varying conditions—with the child asleep, awake, awake with provocative stimulation (flashing lights, noise), and hyperventilating. Stimulation may elicit abnormal electrical activity, which is recorded on the EEG. Various seizure types produce characteristic EEG patterns: high-voltage spike discharges are seen in tonic-clonic seizures, with abnormal patterns in the intervals between seizures; a three-per-second spike and wave pattern is observed in an absence seizure; and absence of electrical activity in an area suggests a large lesion, such as an abscess or subdural collection of fluid.
A child is admitted for revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is a common reason for elective revision of this shunt? a. Meningitis b. Gastrointestinal upset c. Hydrocephalus resolution d. Growth of the child since the initial shunting
D An elective revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt would most likely be done to accommodate the child's growth. Meningitis would require an emergent replacement or revision of the shunt. Gastrointestinal upset alone would not indicate the need for shunt revision. Noncommunicating hydrocephalus will not resolve without surgical intervention.
What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy? a. Neurogenic shock b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Anaphylactic shock
D Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Neurogenic shock results from loss of neuronal control, such as the interruption of neuronal transmission after a spinal cord injury. Cardiogenic shock is decreased cardiac output. Hypovolemic shock is a reduction in the size of the vascular compartment, decreasing blood pressure, and low central venous pressure.
The nurse is teaching an adolescent about acne care. What statement by the adolescent indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will cleanse my face twice a day." b. "I will frequently shampoo my hair." c. "I will brush my hair away from my forehead." d. "I will use my antibacterial soap to cleanse my face."
D Antibacterial soaps are ineffective and may be drying when used in combination with topical acne medications. Further teaching is needed if the adolescent indicates using antibacterial soap. Gentle cleansing with a mild cleanser once or twice daily is usually sufficient. For some adolescents, hygiene of the hair and scalp appears to be related to the clinical activity of acne. Acne on the forehead may improve with brushing the hair away from the forehead and more frequent shampooing.
What is the most common cause of cerebral palsy (CP)? a. Central nervous system (CNS) diseases b. Birth asphyxia c. Cerebral trauma d. Neonatal encephalopathy
D Approximately 80% of CP is caused by unknown prenatal causes. Neonatal encephalopathy in term and preterm infants is believed to play a significant role in the development of CP. CNS diseases such as meningitis or encephalitis can result in CP. Birth asphyxia does contribute to some cases of CP. Cerebral trauma, including shaken baby syndrome, can result in CP.
What is a common clinical manifestation of Hodgkin disease? a. Petechiae b. Bone and joint pain c. Painful, enlarged lymph nodes d. Nontender enlargement of lymph nodes
D Asymptomatic, enlarged cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is the most common presentation of Hodgkin disease. Petechiae are usually associated with leukemia. Bone and joint pain are not likely in Hodgkin disease. The enlarged nodes are rarely painful.
The developmental task with which the child of 15 to 30 months is likely to be struggling is a sense of which? a. Trust b. Initiative c. Intimacy d. Autonomy
D Autonomy versus shame and doubt is the developmental task of toddlers. Trust versus mistrust is the developmental stage of infancy. Initiative versus guilt is the developmental stage of early childhood. Intimacy and solidarity versus isolation is the developmental stage of early adulthood.
The nurse is caring for a child with myasthenia gravis (MG). What health care prescription should the nurse verify before administering? a. Ceftizoxime (Cefizox) b. Cefotaxime (Claforan) c. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) d. Garamycin (gentamicin)
D Avoid aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin because they potentiate MG symptoms. Cefizox, Claforan, and Rocephin are cephalosporin antibiotics.
The nurse is discussing long-term care with the parents of a child who has a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. What issues should be addressed? a. Most childhood activities must be restricted. b. Cognitive impairment is to be expected with hydrocephalus. c. Wearing head protection is essential until the child reaches adulthood. d. Shunt malfunction or infection requires immediate treatment.
D Because of the potentially severe sequelae, symptoms of shunt malfunction or infection must be assessed and treated immediately. Limits should be appropriate to the child's developmental age. Except for contact sports, the child will have few restrictions. Cognitive impairment depends on the extent of damage before the shunt was placed.
The nurse is caring for a high-risk neonate who has an umbilical catheter and is in a radiant warmer. The nurse notes blanching of the feet. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Place socks on the infant's feet. b. Elevate the infant's feet 15 degrees. c. Wrap the infant's feet loosely in a prewarmed blanket. d. Report the findings immediately to the practitioner.
D Blanching of the feet in a neonate with an umbilical catheter is an indication of vasospasm. Vasoconstriction of the peripheral vessels, triggered by the vasospasm, can seriously impair circulation. It is an emergency situation and must be reported immediately.
What best describes central nervous system (CNS) stimulants? a. Acute intoxication can lead to coma. b. They produce strong physical dependence. c. Withdrawal symptoms are life threatening. d. They can result in strong psychologic dependence.
D CNS stimulants such as amphetamines and cocaine produce a strong psychologic dependence. Acute intoxication leads to violent aggressive behavior or psychotic episodes characterized by paranoia, uncontrollable agitation, and restlessness. This class of drugs does not produce strong physical dependence and can be withdrawn without much danger.
The nurse is assisting the family of a child with a history of encopresis. What should be included in the nurse's discussion with the family? a. Instruct the parents to sit the child on the toilet at twice-daily routine intervals. b. Instruct the parents that the child will probably need to have daily enemas. c. Suggest the use of stimulant cathartics weekly. d. Reassure the family that most problems are resolved successfully, with some relapses during periods of stress.
D Children may be unaware of a prior sensation and be unable to control the urge after it begins. They may be so accustomed to bowel accidents that they may be unable to smell or feel them. Family counseling is directed toward reassurance that most problems resolve successfully, although relapses during periods of stress are possible. Sitting the child on the toilet is not recommended because it may intensify the parent-child conflict. Enemas may be needed for impactions, but long-term use prevents the child from assuming responsibility for defecation. Stimulant cathartics may cause cramping that can frighten children.
What pain management approach is most effective for a child who is having a bone marrow test? a. Relaxation techniques b. Administration of an opioid c. EMLA cream applied over site d. Conscious or unconscious sedation
D Children need explanations before each procedure that is being done to them. Effective pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic measures should be used to minimize pain associated with procedures. For bone marrow aspiration, conscious or unconscious sedation should be used. Relaxation, opioids, and EMLA can be used to augment the sedation.
What is the antiepileptic medication that requires monitoring of vitamin D and folic acid? a. Topiramate (Topamax) b. Valproic acid (Depakene) c. Gabapentin (Neurontin) d. Phenobarbital (Luminal)
D Children taking phenobarbital or phenytoin should receive adequate vitamin D and folic acid because deficiencies of both have been associated with these drugs.
Which statement best describes colic? a. Periods of abdominal pain resulting in weight loss b. Usually the result of poor or inadequate mothering c. Periods of abdominal pain and crying occurring in infants older than age 6 months d. A paroxysmal abdominal pain or cramping manifested by episodes of loud crying
D Colic is described as paroxysmal abdominal pain or cramping that is manifested by loud crying and drawing up the legs to the abdomen. Weight loss is not part of the clinical picture. There are many theories about the cause of colic. Emotional stress or tension between the parent and child is one component. This is not consistent throughout all cases. Colic is most common in infants younger than 3 months of age.
What clinical manifestation(s) should the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and becomes decompensated shock? a. Thirst b. Irritability c. Apprehension d. Confusion and somnolence
D Confusion and somnolence are beginning signs of decompensated shock. Thirst, irritability, and apprehension are signs of compensated shock.
A child is admitted for minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS). The nurse recognizes that the child's prognosis is related to what factor? a. Admission blood pressure b. Creatinine clearance c. Amount of protein in urine d. Response to steroid therapy
D Corticosteroids are the drugs of choice for MCNS. If the child has not responded to therapy within 28 days of daily steroid administration, the likelihood of subsequent response decreases. Blood pressure is normal or low in MCNS. It is not correlated with prognosis. Creatinine clearance is not correlated with prognosis. The presence of significant proteinuria is used for diagnosis. It is not predictive of prognosis.
What chemotherapeutic agent is classified as an antitumor antibiotic? a. Cisplatin (Platinol AQ) b. Vincristine (Oncovin) c. Methotrexate (Texall) d. Daunorubicin (Cerubidine)
D Corticosteroids have immunosuppressive effects. Children who are taking prednisone are susceptible to infections. Hair loss is not a side effect of corticosteroid therapy. Children taking corticosteroids have increased appetites. Gastric irritation, not nausea and vomiting, is a potential side effect. The medicine should be given with food.
Daily toothbrushing and flossing can be encouraged for the child on chemotherapy when the platelet count is above which? a. 10,000/mm3 b. 20,000/mm3 c. 30,000/mm3 d. 40,000/mm3
D Daily toothbrushing and flossing are encouraged in children with platelet counts above 40,000/mm3.
What side effect commonly occurs with corticosteroid (prednisone) therapy? a. Alopecia b. Anorexia c. Nausea and vomiting d. Susceptibility to infection
D Daunorubicin is an antitumor antibiotic. Cisplatin is classified as an alkylating agent. Vincristine is a plant alkaloid. Methotrexate is an antimetabolite.
The nurse is helping parents achieve a more nutritionally adequate vegetarian diet for their children. Which is most likely lacking in their particular diet? a. Fat b. Protein c. Vitamins C and A d. Iron and calcium
D Deficiencies can occur when various substances in the diet interact with minerals. For example, iron, zinc, and calcium can form insoluble complexes with phytates or oxalates (substances found in plant proteins), which impair the bioavailability of the mineral. This type of interaction is important in vegetarian diets because plant foods such as soy are high in phytates. Fat and vitamins C and A are readily available from vegetable sources. Plant proteins are available.
Which term refers to the relative lactase deficiency observed in preterm infants of less than 34 weeks of gestation? a. Congenital lactase deficiency b. Primary lactase deficiency c. Secondary lactase deficiency d. Developmental lactase deficiency
D Developmental lactase deficiency refers to the relative lactase deficiency observed in preterm infants of less than 34 weeks of gestation. Congenital lactase deficiency occurs soon after birth after the newborn has consumed lactose-containing milk. Primary lactase deficiency, sometimes referred to as late-onset lactase deficiency, is the most common type of lactose intolerance and is manifested usually after 4 or 5 years of age. Secondary lactase deficiency may occur secondary to damage of the intestinal lumen, which decreases or destroys the enzyme lactase.
Clinical manifestations of sodium excess (hypernatremia) include which signs or symptoms? a. Hyperreflexia b. Abdominal cramps c. Cardiac dysrhythmias d. Dry, sticky mucous membranes
D Dry, sticky mucous membranes are associated with hypernatremia. Hyperreflexia is associated with hyperkalemia. Abdominal cramps, weakness, dizziness, nausea, and apprehension are associated hyponatremia. Cardiac dysrhythmias are associated with hypokalemia.
What type of diarrhea is associated with an inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa in the ileum and colon caused by infectious agents? a. Osmotic b. Secretory c. Cytotoxic d. Dysenteric
D Dysenteric diarrhea is associated with an inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa in the ileum and colon caused by infectious agents such as Campylobacter, Salmonella, or Shigella organisms. Edema, mucosal bleeding, and leukocyte infiltration occur. Osmotic diarrhea occurs when the intestine cannot absorb nutrients or electrolytes. It is commonly seen in malabsorption syndromes such as lactose intolerance. Secretory diarrhea is usually a result of bacterial enterotoxins that stimulate fluid and electrolyte secretion from the mucosal crypt cells, the principal secretory cells of the small intestine. Cytotoxic diarrhea is characterized by the viral destruction of the villi of the small intestine. This results in a smaller intestinal surface area, with a decreased capacity for fluid and electrolyte absorption.
A school-age child with diarrhea has been rehydrated. The nurse is discussing the child's diet with the family. What food or beverage should be tolerated best? a. Clear fluids b. Carbonated drinks c. Applesauce and milk d. Easily digested foods
D Easily digested foods such as cereals, cooked vegetables, and meats should be provided for the child. Early reintroduction of nutrients is desirable. Continued feeding or reintroduction of a regular diet has no adverse effects and actually lessens the severity and duration of the illness. Clear fluids (e.g., fruit juices and gelatin) and carbonated drinks have high carbohydrate content and few electrolytes. Caffeinated beverages should be avoided because caffeine is a mild diuretic. In some children, lactose intolerance will develop with diarrhea, and cow's milk should be avoided in the recovery stage.
The nurse is caring for a newborn with Erb palsy. The nurse understands that which reflex is absent with this condition? a. Root reflex b. Suck reflex c. Grasp reflex d. Moro reflex
D Erb palsy (Erb-Duchenne paralysis) is caused by damage to the upper plexus and usually results from stretching or pulling away of the shoulder from the head. The Moro reflex is absent in a newborn with Erb palsy. The root and suck reflex are not affected. A grasp reflex is present in newborns because the finger and wrist movements remain normal.
A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes burns on the child's lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect what condition in the child? a. A chemical burn b. A hot-water scald c. An electrical burn d. An inhalation injury
D Evidence of an inhalation injury includes burns of the face and lips, singed nasal hairs, and laryngeal edema. Clinical manifestations may be delayed for up to 24 hours. Chemical burns, electrical burns, and burns associated with hot-water scalds would not produce singed nasal hair.
An infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) classified according to the pathophysiology of inadequate caloric intake. The nurse understands that the reason for the FTT is most likely related to what? a. Cow's milk allergy b. Congenital heart disease c. Metabolic storage disease d. Incorrect formula preparation
D FTT classified according to the pathophysiology of inadequate caloric intake is related to incorrect formula preparation, neglect, food fads, excessive juice poverty, breastfeeding problems, behavioral problems affecting eating, parental restriction of caloric intake, or central nervous system problems affecting intake consumption. Cow's milk allergy would be related to the pathophysiology of inadequate absorption, congenital heart disease would be related to the pathophysiology of increased metabolism, and metabolic storage disease is related to defective utilization.
An adolescent girl asks the school nurse for advice because she has dysmenorrhea. She says that a friend recommended she try an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). The nurse's response should be based on what? a. Hormone therapy is necessary for the treatment of dysmenorrhea. b. Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for the treatment of dysmenorrhea. c. Over-the-counter NSAIDs are rarely strong enough to provide adequate pain relief. d. NSAIDs are effective because they inhibit prostaglandins, leading to reduction in uterine activity.
D First-line therapy for adolescents with dysmenorrhea is NSAIDs. NSAIDs are potent anti-inflammatory agents that block the formation of prostaglandins, resulting in decreased uterine activity. Hormone therapy may be indicated if there is no physical abnormality and NSAIDs are ineffective. Acetaminophen does not have an antiprostaglandin action. It can help with pain control but will not be as effective as NSAIDs.
What should the nurse plan for an immobilized child in cervical traction to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? a. Elevate the child's legs. b. Place a foot cradle on the bed. c. Place a pillow under the child's knees. d. Assist the child to dorsiflex the feet and rotate the ankles.
D For a child who is immobilized, circulatory stasis and DVT development are prevented by instructing patients to change positions frequently, dorsiflex their feet and rotate the ankles, sit in a bedside chair periodically, or ambulate several times daily. Elevating the legs or placing a foot cradle on the bed will not prevent DVTs. A pillow under the knee would impair circulation, not improve it.
A child has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm3. The nurse should expect to be administering which prescribed treatment? a. Platelets b. Packed red blood cells c. Zofran (ondansetron) d. G-CSF (Neupogen) daily
D G-CSF (filgrastim [Neupogen], pegfilgrastim [Neulasta]) directs granulocyte development and can decrease the duration of neutropenia following immunosuppressive therapy. G-CSF is discontinued when the ANC surpasses 10,000/mm3.
Parents of a newborn with ambiguous genitalia want to know how long they will have to wait to know whether they have a boy or a girl. The nurse answers the parents based on what knowledge? a. Chromosome analysis will be complete in 7 days. b. A physical examination will be able to provide a definitive answer. c. Additional laboratory testing is necessary to assign the correct gender. d. Gender assignment involves collaboration between the parents and a multidisciplinary team.
D Gender assignment is a complex decision-making process. Endocrine, genetic, social, psychologic, and ethical elements of sex assignment have been integrated into the process. Parent participation is included. The goal is to enable the affected child to grow into a well-adjusted, psychosocially stable person. Chromosome analysis usually takes 2 or 3 days. A physical examination reveals ambiguous genitalia, but additional testing is necessary. A "correct" gender may not be identifiable.
The mother of a 1-month-old infant tells the nurse she worries that her baby will get meningitis like the child's younger brother had when he was an infant. The nurse should base a response on which information? a. Meningitis rarely occurs during infancy. b. Often a genetic predisposition to meningitis is found. c. Vaccination to prevent all types of meningitis is now available. d. Vaccinations to prevent pneumococcal and Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis are available.
D H. influenzae type B meningitis has been virtually eradicated in areas of the world where the vaccine is administered routinely. Bacterial meningitis remains a serious illness in children. It is significant because of the residual damage caused by undiagnosed and untreated or inadequately treated cases. The leading causes of neonatal meningitis are the group B streptococci and Escherichia coli organisms. Meningitis is an extension of a variety of bacterial infections. No genetic predisposition exists. Vaccinations are not available for all of the potential causative organisms.
A 12-year-old child is injured in a bicycle accident. When considering the possibility of renal trauma, the nurse should consider what factor? a. Flank pain rarely occurs in children with renal injuries. b. Few nonpenetrating injuries cause renal trauma in children. c. Kidneys are immobile, well protected, and rarely injured in children. d. The amount of hematuria is not a reliable indicator of the seriousness of renal injury.
D Hematuria is consistently present with renal trauma. It does not provide a reliable indicator of the seriousness of the renal injury. Flank pain results from bleeding around the kidney. Most injuries that cause renal trauma in children are of the nonpenetrating or blunt type and usually involve falls, athletic injuries, and motor vehicle accidents. In children, the kidneys are more mobile, and the outer borders are less protected than in adults.
A preterm neonate has begun breastfeeding, but the infant tires easily and has weak sucking and swallowing reflexes. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Encourage the mother to breastfeed. b. Resume orogastric feedings of formula. c. Try nipple feeding the preterm infant formula. d. Feed the remainder of breast milk by the orogastric route.
D If a preterm infant tires easily or has weak sucking when breastfeeding is initiated, the nurse should feed the additional breast milk by the enteral route. The nurse supports the mother in the attempts to breastfeed and ensures that the infant is receiving adequate nutrition. Breast milk should be used as long as the mother can supply it.
What do the psychosocial developmental tasks of toddlerhood include? a. Development of a conscience b. Recognition of sex differences c. Ability to get along with age mates d. Ability to delay gratification
D If the need for basic trust has been satisfied, then toddlers can give up dependence for control, independence, and autonomy. One of the tasks that toddlers are concerned with is the ability to delay gratification. Development of a conscience and recognition of sex differences occur during the preschool years. The ability to get along with age mates develops during the preschool and school-age years.
The nurse is caring for a child with tetanus during the acute phase. What should the nurse plan in the care for this child? a. Playing music on a radio b. Giving frequent back rubs c. Providing bright lighting in the room d. Clustering nursing care to limit distractions
D In caring for a child with tetanus during the acute phase, every effort should be made to control or eliminate stimulation from sound, light, and touch. Although a darkened room is ideal, sufficient light is essential so that the child can be carefully observed; light appears to be less irritating than vibratory or auditory stimuli. The infant or child is handled as little as possible, and extra effort is expended to avoid any sudden or loud noise to prevent seizures.
A toddler sustains a minor burn on the hand from hot coffee. What is the first action in treating this burn? a. Apply burn ointment. b. Put ice on the burned area. c. Cover the hand with gauze dressing. d. Hold the hand under cool running water.
D In minor burns, the best method to stop the burning process is to hold the burned area under cool running water. Ointments are not applied to a new burn; the ointment will contribute to the burning. Ice is not recommended. Gauze dressings do not stop the burning process.
A 6-year-old child is admitted for revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What sign or symptom does the child have that indicates a revision is necessary? a. Tachycardia b. Gastrointestinal upset c. Hypotension d. Alteration in level of consciousness
D In older children, who are usually admitted to the hospital for elective or emergency shunt revision, the most valuable indicators of increasing intracranial pressure are an alteration in the child's level of consciousness, complaint of headache, and changes in interaction with the environment.
Which is a characteristic of postmature infants? a. Abundant lanugo b. Lack of scalp hair c. Plump appearance d. Parchment-like skin
D In postterm infants, the skin is often cracked, parchment-like, and desquamating. Lanugo is usually absent. Scalp hair is usually abundant. Subcutaneous fat is usually depleted, giving the child a thin, elongated appearance.
What functional ability should the nurse expect in a child with a spinal cord lesion at C7? a. Complete respiratory paralysis b. No voluntary function of upper extremities c. Inability to roll over or attain sitting position d. Almost complete independence within limitations of wheelchair
D Individuals who sustain injuries at the C7 level are able to achieve a significant level of independence. Some assistance is needed with transfers and lower extremity dressing. Patients are able to roll over in bed and to sit and eat independently. Patients with injuries at C3 or higher have complete respiratory paralysis. Those with injuries at C4 or higher do not have voluntary function of higher extremities. Injuries at C5 or higher prevent rolling over or sitting.
Women who smoke during pregnancy are most likely to have infants who are what? a. Large for gestational age b. Preterm but size appropriate for gestational age c. Growth restricted in weight only d. Growth restricted in weight, length, and chest and head circumference
D Infants born to mothers who smoke have retardation in all aspects of growth. Infants of mothers with diabetes are large for gestational age. Infants of mothers who smoke are small for gestational age.
A child with pyloric stenosis is having excessive vomiting. The nurse should assess for what potential complication? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyperchloremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
D Infants with excessive vomiting are prone to metabolic alkalosis from the loss of hydrogen ions. Potassium and chloride ions are lost with vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, is likely.
An infant is born with a gastroschisis. Care preoperatively should include which priority intervention? a. Prone position b. Sterile water feedings c. Monitoring serum laboratory electrolytes d. Covering the defect with a sterile bowel bag
D Initial management of a gastroschisis involves covering the exposed bowel with a transparent plastic bowel bag or loose, moist dressings. The infant cannot be placed prone, and feedings will be withheld until surgery is performed. Electrolyte laboratory values will be monitored but not before covering the defect with a sterile bowel bag
What statement is correct regarding sports injuries during adolescence? a. Conditioning does not help prevent many sports injuries. b. The increase in strength and vigor during adolescence helps prevent injuries related to fatigue. c. More injuries occur during organized athletic competition than during recreational sports participation. d. Adolescents may not possess insight and judgment to recognize when a sports activity is beyond their capabilities.
D Injuries occur when the adolescent's body is not suited to the sport or when he or she lacks the insight and judgment to recognize that an activity exceeds his or her physical abilities. More injuries occur when an adolescent's muscles and body systems (respiratory and cardiovascular) are not conditioned to endure physical stress. Injuries do not occur from fatigue but rather from overuse. All sports have the potential for injury to the participant, whether the youngster engages in serious competition or in sports for recreation. More injuries occur during recreational sports than during organized athletic competition.
What term describes invagination of one segment of bowel within another? a. Atresia b. Stenosis c. Herniation d. Intussusception
D Intussusception occurs when a proximal section of the bowel telescopes into a more distal segment, pulling the mesentery with it. The mesentery is compressed and angled, resulting in lymphatic and venous obstruction. Atresia is the absence or closure of a natural opening in the body. Stenosis is a narrowing or constriction of the diameter of a bodily passage or orifice. Herniation is the protrusion of an organ or part through connective tissue or through a wall of the cavity in which it is normally enclosed.
Parents of an infant born at 36 weeks' gestation ask the nurse, "Will our infant need a car seat trial before being discharged?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Yes, to see if the car seat is the appropriate size." b. "Yes, to determine if blanket rolls will be needed." c. "No, your infant was old enough at birth to not need a trial." d. "Yes, to monitor for possible apnea and bradycardia while in the seat."
D It is recommended that infants younger than 37 weeks of gestation have a period of observation in an appropriate car seat to monitor for possible apnea and bradycardia. The trial is not done to check the size of the car seat or to determine if blanket rolls will be needed. The infant was born at 36 weeks of gestation, so it is recommended to perform a car sear trial.
The nurse is attending a delivery of a full-term infant with meconium noted in the amniotic fluid. The nurse should understand that what action should be performed in the delivery room? a. The infant will be suctioned with a DeLee trap suctioning device after delivery of the head while the chest is still compressed in the birth canal. b. The infant's nose will be suctioned at the delivery of the head; subsequent suctioning of the mouth will occur after completion of the delivery. c. The infant will need to take the first breath after delivery of the head and shoulders and will require tracheal suctioning. d. The infant's mouth, nose, and posterior pharynx will be suctioned just after the head is delivered while the chest is still compressed in the birth canal.
D Meconium aspiration syndrome can occur when a fetus is subjected to intrauterine stress that causes relaxation of the anal sphincter and passage of meconium into the amniotic fluid, and the meconium-stained fluid is aspirated with the first breath. To prevent meconium aspiration, the infant's mouth, nose, and posterior pharynx should be suctioned just after delivery of the head while the chest is still compressed in the birth canal. A DeLee trap is no longer used in the delivery room. The infant's mouth should be suctioned before the nose and during the delivery, not at the completion of delivery. The infant should not take its first breath without suctioning first and may or may not require tracheal suctioning.
A preterm infant with respiratory distress syndrome is receiving inhaled nitric oxide (NO). What is the reason for administering the inhaled nitric oxide? a. To mature the lungs b. To deliver a level of oxygen that is safe c. To increase the removal of pulmonary debris such as meconium d. To reduce pulmonary vasoconstriction and pulmonary hypertension
D NO is used for infants with conditions such as meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia, sepsis, and congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Most infants with these disorders do have mature lungs. NO is not oxygen. Inhaled NO is beneficial for infants with meconium aspiration syndrome, but it does not work by removing debris. Inhaled NO is a significant treatment for infants with persistent pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary vasoconstriction, and subsequent acidosis and severe hypoxia. When inhaled into the lungs, it causes smooth muscle relaxation and reduction of pulmonary vasoconstriction and subsequent pulmonary hypertension.
A 23-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis. She is lethargic and very irritable with a temperature of 102° F. What should the nurse's care plan include? a. Observing the child's voluntary movement b. Checking the Babinski reflex every 4 hours c. Checking the Brudzinski reflex every 1 hour d. Assessing the level of consciousness (LOC) and vital signs every 2 hours
D Observation of vital signs, neurologic signs, LOC, urinary output, and other pertinent data is carried out at frequent intervals on a child with meningitis. The nurse should avoid actions that cause pain or increase discomfort, such as lifting the child's head, so the Brudzinski reflex should not be checked hourly. Checking the Babinski reflex or child's voluntary movements will not help with assessing the child's status.
The nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just started dialysis. The child always seems angry, hostile, or depressed. The nurse should recognize that this is most likely related to what underlying cause? a. Physiologic manifestations of renal disease b. The fact that adolescents have few coping mechanisms c. Neurologic manifestations that occur with dialysis d. Resentment of the control and enforced dependence imposed by dialysis
D Older children and adolescents need to feel in control. Dialysis forces the adolescent into a dependent relationship, which results in these behaviors. Being angry, hostile, or depressed are functions of the age of the child, not neurologic or physiologic manifestations of the dialysis.
The nurse is assessing a 20-month-old toddler during a well-child visit and notices tooth decay. The nurse should understand that early childhood caries are caused by what? a. Allowing the child to eat citrus foods at bedtime b. A hereditary factor that cannot be prevented c. Poor fluoride supply in the drinking water d. Giving the child a bottle of juice or milk at naptime
D One cause of early childhood caries is allowing the child to go to sleep with a bottle of milk or juice; as the sweet liquid pools in the mouth, the teeth are bathed for several hours in this cariogenic environment. Eating citrus fruit at bedtime and poor fluoride supply in drinking water do not cause early childhood caries. The problem is not hereditary and can be prevented with proper education.
What clinical manifestation should be the most suggestive of acute appendicitis? a. Rebound tenderness b. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding c. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating d. Colicky, cramping, abdominal pain around the umbilicus
D Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized, usually periumbilical. The pain becomes constant and may shift to the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is not a reliable sign and is extremely painful to the child. Bright or dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain that is relieved by eating are not signs of acute appendicitis.
A nurse is observing children playing in the playroom. What describes parallel play? a. A child playing a video game b. Two children playing a card game c. Two children watching a movie on a television d. A child playing with blocks next to a child playing with trucks
D Parallel play is when a toddler plays alongside, not with, other children. A child playing with blocks next to a child playing with trucks is descriptive of parallel play. The child playing a video game is descriptive of solitary play. Two children playing cards is descriptive of cooperative play. Two children watching a television is descriptive of associative play.
Parents ask the nurse for strategies to help their toddler adjust to a new baby. What should the nurse suggest? a. Start talking about the baby very early in the pregnancy. b. Move the toddler to a new bed after the baby comes home. c. Tell the toddler that a new playmate will be coming home soon. d. Alert visitors to the new baby to include the toddler in the visit.
D Parents can minimize sibling rivalry by alerting visitors to the toddler's needs, having small presents on hand for the toddler, and including the child in the visits as much as possible. Time is a vague concept for toddlers. A good time to start talking about the new baby is when the toddler becomes aware of the pregnancy and the changes occurring in the home in anticipation of the new member. To avoid additional stresses when the newborn arrives, parents should perform anticipated changes, such as moving the toddler to a different room or bed, well in advance of the birth. Telling the toddler that a new playmate will come home soon sets up unrealistic expectations.
The nurse is caring for a child with severe head trauma after a car accident. What is an ominous sign that often precedes death? a. Delirium b. Papilledema c. Flexion posturing d. Periodic or irregular breathing
D Periodic or irregular breathing is an ominous sign of brainstem (especially medullary) dysfunction that often precedes complete apnea. Delirium is a state of mental confusion and excitement marked by disorientation for time and place. Papilledema is edema and inflammation of the optic nerve. It is commonly a sign of increased intracranial pressure. Flexion posturing is seen with severe dysfunction of the cerebral cortex or of the corticospinal tracts above the brainstem.
The nurse is caring for an infant with hemolytic disease. Which medication should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to decrease the bilirubin level? a. Phenytoin (Dilantin) b. Valproic acid (Depakene) c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) d. Phenobarbital (Phenobarbital)
D Phenobarbital is used to decrease the bilirubin level in a newborn with hemolytic disease. Phenobarbital promotes (1) hepatic glucuronyl transferase synthesis, which increases bilirubin conjugation and hepatic clearance of the pigment in bile, and (2) protein synthesis, which may increase albumin for more bilirubin binding sites. Dilantin, Depakene, and Tegretol are antiseizure medications and do not lower bilirubin levels.
Congenital defects of the genitourinary tract, such as hypospadias, are usually repaired as early as possible to accomplish what? a. Minimize separation anxiety. b. Prevent urinary complications. c. Increase acceptance of hospitalization. d. Promote development of normal body image.
D Promoting development of normal body image is extremely important. Surgery involving sexual organs can be upsetting to children, especially preschoolers, who fear mutilation and castration. Proper preprocedure preparation can facilitate coping with these issues. Preventing urinary complications is important for defects that affect function, but for all external defects, repair should be done as soon as possible.
The nurse should instruct parents to administer a daily proton pump inhibitor to their child with gastroesophageal reflux at which time? a. Bedtime b. With a meal c. Midmorning d. 30 minutes before breakfast
D Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when administered 30 minutes before breakfast so that the peak plasma concentrations occur with mealtime. If they are given twice a day, the second best time for administration is 30 minutes before the evening meal.
The nurse is planning care for a family expecting their newborn infant to die because of an incurable birth defect. What should the nurse's interventions be based on? a. Tangible remembrances of the infant (e.g., lock of hair, picture) prolong grief. b. Photographs of infants should not be taken after death. c. Funerals are not recommended because the mother is still recovering from childbirth. d. The parents should be given the opportunity to "parent" the infant, including seeing, holding, touching, or talking to the infant in private.
D Providing care for the neonate is an important step in the grieving process. It gives the parents a tangible person for whom to grieve, which is a key component of the grieving process. Tangible remembrances and photographs can make the infant seem more real to the parents. Many neonatal intensive care units make bereavement memory packets, which may include a lock of hair, handprints, footprints, a bedside name card, and other individualized objects. Families need to be informed of their options. The ritual of a funeral provides an opportunity for the parents to be supported by relatives and friends.
An 8-year-old child is hospitalized with infectious polyneuritis (Guillain-Barré syndrome [GBS]). When explaining this disease process to the parents, what should the nurse consider? a. Paralysis is progressive with little hope for recovery. b. Disease is inherited as an autosomal, sex-linked, recessive gene. c. Disease results from an apparently toxic reaction to certain medications. d. Muscle strength slowly returns, and most children recover.
D Recovery usually begins within 2 to 3 weeks, and most patients regain full muscle strength. The paralysis is progressive with proximal muscle weakness occurring before distal weakness. The recovery of muscle strength occurs in the reverse order of onset of paralysis. Most individuals regain full muscle strength. Better outcomes are associated with younger ages. GBS is an immune-mediated disease often associated with a number of viral or bacterial infections or the administration of vaccines.
What finding is the most reliable guide to the adequacy of fluid replacement for a small child with burns? a. Absence of thirst b. Falling hematocrit c. Increased seepage from burn wound d. Urinary output of 1 to 2 ml/kg of body weight/hr
D Replacement fluid therapy is delivered to provide a urinary output of 30 ml/hr in older children or 1 to 2 ml/kg of body weight/hr for children weighing less than 30 kg (66 lb). Thirst is the result of a complex set of interactions and is not a reliable indicator of hydration. Thirst occurs late in dehydration. A falling hematocrit would be indicative of hemodilution. This may reflect fluid shifts and may not accurately represent fluid replacement therapy. Increased seepage from a burn wound would be indicative of increased output, not adequate hydration.
What is the most common type of burn in the toddler age group? a. Electric burn from electrical outlets b. Flame burn from playing with matches c. Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons d. Scald burn from high-temperature tap water
D Scald burns are the most common type of thermal injury in children, especially 1- and 2-year-old children. Temperature should be reduced on the hot water in the house and hot liquids placed out of the child's reach. Electric burns from electrical outlets and hot object burns from cigarettes or irons are both significant causes of burn injury. The child should be protected by reducing the temperature on the hot water heater in the home, keeping objects such as cigarettes and irons away from children, and placing protective guards over electrical outlets when not in use. Flame burns from matches and lighters represent one of the most fatal types of burns in the toddler age group but not one of the most common types of burn.
What is a characteristic of most neonatal seizures? a. Clonic b. Generalized c. Well organized d. Subtle and barely discernible
D Seizures in newborns may be subtle and barely discernible or grossly apparent. Most neonatal seizures are subcortical and do not have the etiologic or prognostic significance of seizures in older children. Clonic seizures are slow, rhythmic jerking movements. Generalized seizures are bilateral jerks of the upper and lower limbs that are associated with electroencephalographic discharges. Neonatal seizures are not well organized.
An adolescent girl calls the nurse at the clinic because she had unprotected sex the night before and does not want to be pregnant. What should the nurse explain? a. It is too late to prevent an unwanted pregnancy. b. An abortion may be the best option if she is pregnant. c. The risk of pregnancy is minimal, so no action is necessary. d. Postcoital contraception is available to prevent implantation and therefore pregnancy.
D Several emergency methods of contraception (ECP) are available and appropriate for use after unprotected sexual intercourse. A progestin-only ECP (levonorgestrel [Plan B]) is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and has high effectiveness and low rates of side effects. Plan B is effective if given within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. An abortion is not indicated. Although the risk of pregnancy depends on the time during her menstrual cycle, a low risk of pregnancy exists. ECP is indicated.
What specific gravity of the urine is desired so that hemorrhagic cystitis is prevented? a. 1.035 b. 1.030 c. 1.025 d. 1.005
D Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis is a side effect of chemical irritation to the bladder from chemotherapy or radiotherapy. It can be prevented by a liberal oral or parenteral fluid intake (at least one and a half times the recommended daily fluid requirement). The urine should be dilute so 1.005 is the expected specific gravity.
Which is a bright red, rubbery nodule with a rough surface and a well-defined margin that may be present at birth? a. Port-wine stain b. Juvenile melanoma c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Strawberry hemangioma
D Strawberry hemangiomas (or capillary hemangiomas) are benign cutaneous tumors that involve only capillaries. They are bright red, rubbery nodules with rough surfaces and well-defined margins. They may or may not be apparent at birth but enlarge during the first year of life and tend to resolve spontaneously by ages 2 to 3 years. A port-wine stain is a vascular stain that is a permanent lesion and is present at birth. Initially, it is a pink; red; or, rarely, purple stain of the skin that is flat at birth; it thickens, darkens, and proportionately enlarges as the infant grows. Melanoma is not differentiated into juvenile and adult forms. A cavernous hemangioma involves deeper vessels in the dermis and has a bluish red color and poorly defined margins.
What nursing consideration is most important when caring for a child with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)? a. Children with ESRD usually adapt well to minor inconveniences of treatment. b. Children with ESRD require extensive support until they outgrow the condition. c. Multiple stresses are placed on children with ESRD and their families until the illness is cured. d. Multiple stresses are placed on children with ESRD and their families because children's lives are maintained by drugs and artificial means.
D Stressors on the family are often overwhelming because of the progressive deterioration. The child progresses from renal insufficiency to uremia to dialysis and transplantation, each of which requires intensive therapy and supportive care. The treatment of ESRD is intense and requires multiple examinations, dietary restrictions, and medications. Adherence to the regimen is often difficult for children and families because of the progressive nature of the renal failure. ESRD has an unrelenting course that has no known cure. Children do not outgrow the renal failure.
A young adolescent experiences infrequent migraine episodes. What pharmacologic intervention is most likely to be prescribed? a. Opioid b. Lorazepam c. Ergotamine d. Sumatriptan
D Sumatriptan is a serotonin agonist at specific vascular serotonin receptor sites and causes vasoconstriction in large intracranial arteries. Opioids are used infrequently because they rarely work on the mechanism of pain. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts as an anxiolytic and sedative. It is not indicated for treatment of migraine episodes. Ergotamine, an alpha-adrenergic blocker, is used for adult vascular headaches, but it is not used in adolescents because of the side effects.
Parents are considering treatment options for their 5-year-old child with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Both surgical and conservative therapies are appropriate. They are able to verbalize the differences between the therapies when they make what statement? a. "All therapies require extended periods of bed rest." b. "Conservative therapy will be required until puberty." c. "Our child cannot attend school during the treatment phase." d. "Surgical correction requires a 3- to 4-month recovery period."
D Surgical correction involves additional risks of anesthesia, infection, and possibly blood transfusion. The recovery period is only 3 to 4 months rather than the 2 to 4 years of conservative therapies. The use of non-weight-bearing appliances and surgical intervention does not require prolonged bed rest. Conservative therapy is indicated for 2 to 4 years. The child is encouraged to attend school and engage in activities that can be adapted to therapeutic appliances.
An infant has been diagnosed with bladder obstruction. What do symptoms of this disorder include? a. Renal colic b. Strong urinary stream c. Urinary tract infections d. Posturination dribbling
D Symptoms of bladder obstruction include poor force of urinary stream, intermittency of voided stream, feelings of incomplete bladder emptying, and posturination dribbling. They may also include urinary frequency, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis, and urgency. Renal colic is a symptom of upper urinary tract obstruction. Children with bladder obstruction have a weak urinary stream. Urinary tract infections are not associated with bladder obstruction.
What can stroking infants who are physiologically unstable result in? a. Fewer sleep periods b. Increased weight gain c. Shortened hospital stay d. Decreased oxygen saturation
D Tactile interventions can have both positive and negative effects on neonates. For physiologically unstable infants and those who are disturbed during sleep, outcomes such as gasping, grunting, decreased oxygen saturation, apnea, and bradycardia have been observed. Fewer sleep periods are not associated with tactile stimulation in physiologically unstable infants. Increased weight gain and shortened hospital stays are positive outcomes that are observed when tactile stimulation is done at developmentally supportive times.
The parents of a newborn say that their toddler "hates the baby. . . . He suggested that we put him in the trash can so the trash truck could take him away." What is the nurse's best reply? a. "Let's see if we can figure out why he hates the new baby." b. "That's a strong statement to come from such a small boy." c. "Let's refer him to counseling to work this hatred out. It's not a normal response." d. "That is a normal response to the birth of a sibling. Let's look at ways to deal with this."
D The arrival of a new infant represents a crisis for even the best prepared toddler. Toddlers have their entire schedules and routines disrupted because of the new family member. The nurse should work with the parents on ways to involve the toddler in the newborn's care and to help focus attention on the toddler. The toddler does not hate the infant. This is an expected, normal response to the changes in routines and attention that affect the toddler. The toddler can be provided with a doll to imitate parents' behaviors. The child can care for the doll's needs at the same time the parent is performing similar care for the newborn.
A toddler's parent asks the nurse for suggestions on dealing with temper tantrums. What is the most appropriate recommendation? a. Punish the child. b. Explain to child that this is wrong. c. Leave the child alone until the tantrum is over. d. Remain close by the child but without eye contact.
D The best way to deal with temper tantrums is to ignore the behaviors, provided that the actions are not dangerous to the child. Tantrums are common during this age group as the child becomes more independent and overwhelmed by increasingly complex tasks. The parents and caregivers need to have consistent and developmentally appropriate expectations. Punishment and explanations will not be beneficial. The presence of the parent is necessary both for safety and to provide a feeling of control and security to the child when the tantrum is over.
A father tells the nurse that his daughter wants the same plate and cup used at every meal, even if they go to a restaurant. The nurse should explain that this is what? a. A sign the child is spoiled b. An attempt to exert unhealthy control c. Regression, which is common at this age d. Ritualism, an expected behavior at this age
D The child is exhibiting the ritualism, which is characteristic at this age. Ritualism is the need to maintain sameness and reliability. It provides a sense of structure and comfort to the toddler. It will dictate certain principles in feeding practices, including rejecting a favorite food because it is served in a different container. This does not indicate the child has unreasonable expectations but rather is part of normal development. Ritualism is not regression, which is a retreat from a present pattern of functioning.
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of teaching regarding care of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) that is in remission after administration of prednisone. The nurse realizes further teaching is required if the parents state what? a. "We will keep our child away from anyone who is ill." b. "We will be sure to administer the prednisone as ordered." c. "We will encourage our child to eat a balanced diet, but we will watch his salt intake." d. "We understand our child will not be able to attend school, so we will arrange for home schooling."
D The child with MCNS in remission can attend school. The child needs socialization and will be socially isolated if home schooled. The other statements are accurate for home care for a child with MCNS.
Postoperative positioning for a child who has had a medulloblastoma brain tumor (infratentorial) removed should be which? a. Trendelenburg b. Head of bed elevated above heart level c. Flat on operative side with pillows behind the head d. Flat, on either side with pillows behind the back
D The child with an infratentorial procedure is usually positioned flat and on either side. Pillows should be placed against the child's back, not head, to maintain the desired position. The Trendelenburg position is contraindicated in both infratentorial and supratentorial surgeries because it increases intracranial pressure and the risk of hemorrhage.
The nurse is interviewing the parents of a 4-month-old boy brought to the hospital emergency department. The infant is dead, and no attempt at resuscitation is made. The parents state that the baby was found in his crib with a blanket over his head, lying face down in bloody fluid from his nose and mouth. The nurse might initially suspect his death was caused by what? a. Suffocation b. Child abuse c. Infantile apnea d. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
D The description of how the child was found in the crib is suggestive of SIDS. The nurse is careful to tell the parents that a diagnosis cannot be confirmed until an autopsy is performed.
What is an important consideration in the diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Learning disabilities are apparent at an early age. b. The child will always be distracted by external stimuli. c. Parental observations of the child's behavior are most relevant. d. It must be determined whether the child's behavior is age appropriate or problematic.
D The diagnosis of ADHD is complex. A multidisciplinary evaluation should be done to determine whether the child's behavior is appropriate for the developmental age or whether it is problematic. Learning disabilities are usually not evident until the child enters school. Each child with ADHD responds differently to stimuli. Some children are distracted by internal stimuli and others by external stimuli. Parents can only provide one viewpoint of the child's behavior. Many observers should be asked to provide input with structured tools to facilitate the diagnosis.
What signs should the nurse expect when a pneumothorax occurs in an infant on mechanical ventilation? a. Tachycardia b. Clear, distinct heart tones c. Widened pulse pressure d. Abrupt duskiness or cyanosis
D The early signs of a pneumothorax in an infant on mechanical ventilations include the abrupt onset of duskiness or cyanosis. Tachypnea is the presenting sign. Usually the heart rate is decreased. The heart sounds usually become muffled, diminished, or shifted. The pulse pressure decreases in pneumothorax.
A parent asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis was improving. What would be the nurse's best response? a. Blood pressure will stabilize. b. Your child will have more energy. c. Urine will be free of protein. d. Urine output will increase.
D The first sign of improvement in acute glomerulonephritis is an increase in urinary output with a corresponding decrease in body weight. With diuresis, the child begins to feel better, the appetite improves, and the blood pressure decreases to normal with the reduction of edema. Gross hematuria diminishes, in part because of dilution of the red blood cells in the more dilute urine. Renal function and hypocomplementemia usually normalize by 8 weeks.
The nurse is preparing to administer a gavage feeding to an infant. The nurse should place the infant in which position for the feeding? a. Supine with the head flat b. Sitting upright in a car seat c. Left side-lying with the head flat d. Prone with the head slightly elevated
D The gavage feeding is best performed when an infant is in a prone or a right side-lying position with the head slightly elevated. Supine and left side-lying with the head flat would not be a recommended position. The infant should not be gavage fed sitting in a car seat.
An older school-age child asks the nurse, "What is the reason for this topical corticosteroid cream?" What rationale should the nurse give? a. The cream is used for an antifungal effect. b. The cream is used for an analgesic effect. c. The cream is used for an antibacterial effect. d. The cream is used for an anti-inflammatory effect.
D The glucocorticoids are the therapeutic agents used most widely for skin disorders. Their local anti-inflammatory effects are merely palliative, so the medication must be applied until the disease state undergoes a remission or the causative agent is eliminated. It does not have an antifungal, analgesic, or antibacterial effect.
A woman who is Rh-negative is pregnant with her first child, and her husband is Rh positive. During her 12-week prenatal visit, she tells the nurse that she has been told that this is dangerous. What should the nurse tell her? a. That no treatment is necessary b. That an exchange transfusion will be necessary at birth c. That no treatment is available until the infant is born d. That administration of Rh immunoglobulin is indicated at 26 to 28 weeks of gestation
D The goal is to prevent isoimmunization. If the mother has not been previously exposed to the Rh-negative antigen, Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg) is administered at 26 to 28 weeks of gestation and again within 72 hours of birth. The intramuscular administration of RhIg has virtually eliminated hemolytic disease of the infant secondary to the Rh factor. Unless other problems coexist, the newborn will not require transfusions at birth.
What is a major goal of therapy for children with cerebral palsy (CP)? a. Cure the underlying defect causing the disorder. b. Reverse the degenerative processes that have occurred. c. Prevent the spread to individuals in close contact with the child. d. Recognize the disorder early and promote optimum development.
D The goals of therapy include early recognition and promotion of an optimum developmental course to enable affected children to attain their potential within the limits of their dysfunction. The disorder is permanent, and therapy is chiefly symptomatic and preventive. It is not possible at this time to reverse the degenerative processes. CP is not contagious.
What is a systemic response to severe burns in a child? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Decreased metabolic rate c. Increased renal plasma flow d. Abrupt drop in cardiac output
D The initial physiologic response to a burn injury is a dramatic change in circulation. A precipitous drop in cardiac output precedes any change in circulating blood or plasma volumes. A circulating myocardial depressant factor associated with severe burn injury is thought to be the cause. Metabolic acidosis usually occurs secondary to the disruption of the body's buffering action resulting from fluid shifting to extravascular space. There is a greatly accelerated metabolic rate in burn patients, supported by protein and lipid breakdown. With the loss of circulating volume, there is decreased renal blood flow and depressed glomerular filtration.
The school nurse is reviewing the process of wound healing. What is the initial response at the site of injury? a. Contraction b. Maturation c. Fibroplasia d. Inflammation
D The initial response at the site of injury is inflammation, a vascular and cellular response that prepares the tissues for the subsequent repair process. Fibroplasia (granulation or proliferation), the second phase of healing, lasts from 5 days to 4 weeks. During contraction and maturation, the third and fourth phases of wound healing, collagen continues to be deposited and organized into layers, compressing the new blood vessels and gradually stopping blood flow across the wound.
Where do eczematous lesions most commonly occur in an infant? a. Abdomen, cheeks, and scalp b. Buttocks, abdomen, and scalp c. Back and flexor surfaces of the arms and legs d. Cheeks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs
D The lesions of atopic dermatitis are generalized in infants. They are most common on the cheeks, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces of the extremities. The abdomen and buttocks are not common sites of lesions. The back and flexor surfaces are not usually involved.
What physiologic state(s) produces the clinical manifestations of nervous system stimulation and excitement, such as overexcitability, nervousness, and tetany? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic and respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
D The major symptoms and signs of alkalosis include nervous system stimulation and excitement, including overexcitability, nervousness, tingling sensations, and tetany that may progress to seizures. Acidosis (both metabolic and respiratory) has clinical signs of depression of the central nervous system, such as lethargy, diminished mental capacity, delirium, stupor, and coma. Respiratory alkalosis has the same symptoms and signs as metabolic alkalosis.
The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. What clinical manifestation is the most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition? a. Posturing b. Vital signs c. Focal neurologic signs d. Level of consciousness
D The most important nursing observation is assessment of the child's level of consciousness. Alterations in consciousness appear earlier in the progression of an injury than do alterations of vital signs or focal neurologic signs. Neurologic posturing is indicative of neurologic damage.
The parents of a child with cancer tell the nurse that a bone marrow transplant (BMT) may be necessary. What information should the nurse recognize as important when discussing this with the family? a. BMT should be done at the time of diagnosis. b. Parents and siblings of the child have a 25% chance of being a suitable donor. c. If BMT fails, chemotherapy or radiotherapy will need to be continued. d. Finding a suitable donor involves matching antigens from the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system.
D The most successful BMTs come from suitable HLA-matched donors. The timing of a BMT depends on the disease process involved. It usually follows intensive high-dose chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Usually, parents only share approximately 50% of the genetic material with their children. A one in four chance exists that two siblings will have two identical haplotypes and will be identically matched at the HLA loci. The decision to continue chemotherapy or radiotherapy if BMT fails is not appropriate to discuss with the parents when planning the BMT. That decision will be made later.
What should the nurse anticipate in an infant who was exposed to cocaine during pregnancy? a. Seizures b. Hyperglycemia c. Large for gestational age d. Hypertonia and jitteriness
D The nurse should anticipate neurobehavioral depression or excitability and implement care directed at the infant's manifestations. Few or no neurologic sequelae appear in infants born to mothers who used cocaine during pregnancy. The infant is usually a poor feeder, so hypoglycemia should be more likely than hyperglycemia. The infant usually has intrauterine growth restriction.
A parent asks the nurse about negativism in toddlers. What is the most appropriate recommendation? a. Punish the child. b. Provide more attention. c. Ask child not to always say "no." d. Reduce the opportunities for a "no" answer.
D The nurse should suggest to the parent that questions should be phrased with realistic choices rather than yes or no answers. This provides a sense of control for the toddler and reduces the opportunity for negativism. Negativism is not an indication of stubbornness or insolence and should not be punished. The negativism is not a function of attention; the child is testing limits to gain an understanding of the world. The toddler is too young to comply with requests not to say "no."
A child who has just had definitive repair of a high rectal malformation is to be discharged. What should the nurse address in the discharge preparation of this family? a. Safe administration of daily enemas b. Necessity of firm stools to keep suture line clean c. Bowel training beginning as soon as the child returns home d. Changes in stooling patterns to report to the practitioner
D The parents are taught to notify the practitioner if any signs of an anal stricture or other complications develop. Constipation is avoided because a firm stool will place strain on the suture line. Daily enemas are contraindicated after surgical repair of a rectal malformation. Fiber and stool softeners are often given to keep stools soft and avoid tension on the suture line. The child needs to recover from the surgical procedure. Then bowel training may begin, depending on the child's developmental and physiologic readiness.
The parents of an infant who has just died decide they want to hold the infant after their infant has gone to the morgue. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention at this time? a. Explain gently that this is no longer possible. b. Encourage the parents to accept the loss of their infant. c. Offer to take a photograph of their infant because they cannot hold the infant. d. Have the infant brought back to the unit, wrapped in a blanket, and rewarmed in a radiant warmer.
D The parents should be allowed to hold their infant in the hospital setting. The infant's body should be retrieved and rewarmed in a radiant warmer. The nurse should provide a private place where the parents can hold their child for a final time. If possible, to facilitate the parents' grieving, the nurse should bring the infant back to the unit. A photograph is an excellent idea, but it does not replace the parents' need to hold the child.
The nurse is teaching parents about toilet training. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. Bladder training is accomplished before bowel training. b. The mastery of skills required for toilet training is present at 18 months. c. By 12 months, the child is able to retain urine for up to 2 hours or longer. d. The physiologic ability to control the sphincters occurs between 18 and 24 months.
D The physiologic ability to control the sphincters occurs somewhere between ages 18 and 24 months. Bowel training is usually accomplished before bladder training because of its greater regularity and predictability. The mastery of skills required for training are not present before 24 months of age. By 14 to 18 months of age, the child is able to retain urine for up to 2 hours or longer.
What is most descriptive of the signs observed in neonatal sepsis? a. Seizures b. Sudden hyperthermia c. Decreased urinary output d. Subtle, vague, and nonspecific physical signs
D The signs of neonatal sepsis are usually characterized by the infant generally "not doing well." Poor temperature control, usually with hypothermia, lethargy, poor feeding, pallor, cyanosis or mottling, and jaundice, may be evident. Seizures are not a manifestation of sepsis. Severe neurologic sequelae may occur in low-birth-weight infants with sepsis. Hyperthermia is rare in neonatal sepsis. Urinary output is not affected by sepsis.
Which is a central factor responsible for respiratory distress syndrome in a newborn? a. Absence of alveoli b. Immature bronchioles c. Overdeveloped alveoli d. Deficient surfactant production
D The successful adaptation to extrauterine breathing requires numerous factors, which most term infants successfully accomplish. Preterm infants with respiratory distress are not able to adjust. The most likely central cause is the abnormal development of the surfactant system. The number and state of development of the alveoli are not central factors in respiratory distress syndrome. The instability of the alveoli related to the lack of surfactant is the causative issue. The bronchioles are sufficiently developed in newborns.
The nurse is closely monitoring a child who is unconscious after a fall and notices that the child suddenly has a fixed and dilated pupil. How should the nurse interpret this? a. Eye trauma b. Brain death c. Severe brainstem damage d. Neurosurgical emergency
D The sudden appearance of a fixed and dilated pupil(s) is a neurosurgical emergency. The nurse should immediately report this finding. Although a dilated pupil may be associated with eye trauma, this child has experienced a neurologic insult. One fixed and dilated pupil is not suggestive of brain death. Pinpoint pupils or fixed, bilateral pupils for more than 5 minutes are indicative of brainstem damage. The unilateral fixed and dilated pupil is suggestive of damage on the same side of the brain.
What is characteristic of children with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Denial as a defense mechanism is unusual. b. Traumatic effects cannot remain indefinitely. c. Previous coping strategies and defense mechanisms are not useful. d. Children often play out the situation over and over again.
D The third phase of adjustment to PTSD involves the children playing out the situation over and over to come to terms with their fears. Denial is frequently used as a defense mechanism during the second phase. For some children, traumatic effects can remain indefinitely. Coping is a learned response. During the third stage, the children can be helped to use their coping strategies to deal with their fears.
What immunization should not be given to a child receiving chemotherapy for cancer? a. Tetanus vaccine b. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine c. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) d. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
D The vaccine used for MMR is a live virus and can cause serious disease in immunocompromised children. The tetanus vaccine, inactivated poliovirus vaccine, and DPT are not live vaccines and can be given to immunosuppressed children. The immune response is likely to be suboptimum, so delaying vaccination is usually recommended.
When a child develops latex allergy, which food may also cause an allergic reaction? a. Yeast b. Wheat c. Peanuts d. Bananas
D There are cross-reactions between allergies to latex and to a number of foods such as bananas, avocados, kiwi, and chestnuts. Although yeast, wheat, and peanuts are potential allergens, currently they are not known to cross-react with latex allergy.
The nurse is teaching parents the proper use of a hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis (HKAFO) for their 4-year-old child. The parents demonstrate basic essential knowledge by making what statement? a. "Alcohol will be used twice a day to clean the skin around the brace." b. "Weekly visits to the orthotist are scheduled to check screws for tightness." c. "Initially, a burning sensation is expected and the brace should remain in place." d. "Condition of the skin in contact with the brace should be checked every 4 hours."
D This type of brace has several contact points with the child's skin. To minimize the risk of skin breakdown and facilitate use of the brace, vigilant skin monitoring is necessary. Alcohol should not be used on the skin. It is drying. Parents are capable of checking and tightening the screws when necessary. If a burning sensation occurs, the brace should be removed. If several complaints of burning occur, the orthotist should be contacted.
What factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections? a. Respirations are abdominal. b. Pulse and respiratory rates in toddlers are slower than those in infants. c. Defense mechanisms are less efficient than those during infancy. d. Toddlers have short, straight internal ear canals and large lymph tissue.
D Toddlers continue to have the short, straight internal ear canals of infants. The lymphoid tissue of the tonsils and adenoids continues to be relatively large. These two anatomic conditions combine to predispose toddlers to frequent infections. The abdominal respirations and lowered pulse and respiratory rate of toddlers do not affect their susceptibility to infection. The defense mechanisms are more efficient compared with those of infancy.
What laboratory finding, in conjunction with the presenting symptoms, indicates minimal change nephrotic syndrome? a. Low specific gravity b. Decreased hemoglobin c. Normal platelet count d. Reduced serum albumin
D Total serum protein concentrations are reduced, with the albumin fractions significantly reduced. Specific gravity is high and proportionate to the amount of protein in the urine. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are usually normal or elevated. The platelet count is elevated as a result of hemoconcentration.
Total-body irradiation is indicated for what reason? a. Palliative care b. Lymphoma therapy c. Definitive therapy for leukemia d. Preparation for bone marrow transplant
D Total-body irradiation is used as part of the destruction of the child's immune system necessary for a bone marrow transplant. The child is at great risk for complications because there is no supportive therapy until engraftment of the donor marrow takes place. Irradiation for palliative care is done selectively. The area that is causing pain or potential obstruction is irradiated. Lymphoma and leukemia are treated through a combination of modalities. Total-body irradiation is not indicated.
The nurse is caring for an immobilized preschool child. What intervention is helpful during this period of immobilization? a. Encourage wearing pajamas. b. Let the child have few behavioral limitations. c. Keep the child away from other immobilized children if possible. d. Take the child for a "walk" by wagon outside the room.
D Transporting the child outside of the room by stretcher, wheelchair, or wagon increases environmental stimuli and provides social contact. Street clothes are preferred for hospitalized children. This decreases the sense of illness and disability. The child needs appropriate limits for both adherence to the medical regimen and developmental concerns. It is not necessary to keep the child away from other immobilized children.
A woman who is 6 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she is worried that, even though she is taking folic acid supplements, the baby might have spina bifida because of a family history. The nurse's response should be based on what? a. Prenatal detection is not possible yet. b. There is no genetic basis for the defect. c. Chromosome studies done on amniotic fluid can diagnose the defect prenatally. d. Open neural tube defects (NTDs) result in elevated concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid.
D Ultrasound scanning and measurement of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate the presence of anencephaly or myelomeningocele. The optimum time for performing this analyzing is between 16 and 18 weeks. Prenatal diagnosis is possible through amniocentesis. A multifactorial origin is suspected, including drugs, radiation, maternal malnutrition, chemicals, and possibly a genetic mutation. Chromosome abnormalities are not present in NTDs.
What is a nursing intervention to reduce the risk of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) in an unconscious child? a. Suction the child frequently. b. Turn the child's head side to side every hour. c. Provide environmental stimulation. d. Avoid activities that cause pain or crying.
D Unrelieved pain, crying, and emotional stress all contribute to increasing the ICP. Disturbing procedures should be carried out at the same time as therapies that reduce ICP, such as sedation. Suctioning is poorly tolerated by children. When necessary, it is preceded by hyperventilation with 100% oxygen. Turning the head side to side is contraindicated for fear of compressing the jugular vein. This would block the flow of blood from the brain, raising ICP. Nontherapeutic touch and environmental stimulation increase ICP. Minimizing both touch and environmental stimuli noise reduces ICP.
The nurse has been caring for an infant who has just died. The parents are present but appear to be "afraid" to hold the dead infant. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Tell them there is nothing to fear. b. Insist that they hold the infant "one last time." c. Respect their wishes and release the body to the morgue. d. Keep the infant's body available for a few hours in case they change their minds.
D When the parents are hesitant about holding and touching their infant, the nurse should wrap the infant in blankets and keep the infant's body on the unit for a few hours. Many parents change their minds after the initial shock of the infant's death. This will provide the parents time to see and hold their infant if they desire. Telling the parents there is nothing to fear minimizes the parents' feelings. The nurse should allow the family to parent their child as they wish in death, as in life.
The nurse is caring for an infant who will be discharged on home phototherapy. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to the parents? a. Apply an oil-based lotion to the infant's skin two times per day to prevent the skin from drying out under the phototherapy light. b. Keep the eye shields on the infant's eyes even when the phototherapy light is turned off. c. Take the infant's temperature every 2 hours while the newborn is under the phototherapy light. d. Make a follow-up visit with the health care provider within 2 or 3 days after your infant has been on phototherapy.
D With short hospital stays, infants may be discharged with a prescription for home phototherapy. It is the responsibility of the nurse planning discharge to include important information such as the need for a follow-up visit with the health care provider in 2 or 3 days to evaluate feeding and elimination pattern and to have blood work done if needed. The parents should be taught to not apply oil or lotions to prevent increased tanning; the baby's eye shields can come off when the phototherapy lights are turned off, and the infant's temperature needs to be monitored but not taken every 2 hours.
What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child in the oliguria phase of acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension? (Select all that apply.) a. High fat b. Low protein c. Encouragement of fluids d. Moderate sodium restriction e. Limit foods high in potassium
D, E Dietary restrictions depend on the stage and severity of acute glomerulonephritis, especially the extent of edema. A regular diet is permitted in uncomplicated cases, but sodium intake is usually limited (no salt is added to foods). Moderate sodium restriction is usually instituted for children with hypertension or edema. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are generally restricted during the period of oliguria. Protein restriction is reserved only for children with severe azotemia resulting from prolonged oliguria. A low-protein, high-fat diet with encouragement of fluids would not be recommended.
What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome with massive edema? (Select all that apply.) a. Soft diet b. High protein c. Fluid restricted d. No salt added at the table e. Restriction of foods high in sodium
D, E The child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome maintains a regular diet, not soft. However, salt is restricted during periods of massive edema and while the patient is on corticosteroid therapy; no salt is added at the table, and foods with very high salt content are excluded. Although a low-sodium diet will not remove edema, its rate of increase may be reduced. Water is seldom restricted. A diet generous in protein is logical, but there is no evidence that it is beneficial or alters the outcome of the disease.
During the physical examination of an adolescent with significant weight loss, what finding may indicate an eating disorder? a. Diarrhea b. Amenorrhea c. Appetite suppression d. Erosion of tooth enamel
During the physical examination of an adolescent with significant weight loss, what finding may indicate an eating disorder? a. Diarrhea b. Amenorrhea c. Appetite suppression d. Erosion of tooth enamel
Many cutaneous lesions are associated with local symptoms. Match the symptom with its definition. Abnormal sensation a. Pruritus b. Anesthesia c. Hyperesthesia d. Hypesthesia e. Paresthesia
E
Match the acute wound to its definition. Wound with a relatively small opening compared with the depth a. Abrasion b. Avulsion c. Laceration d. Incision e. Puncture
E
Match the classification of urinary tract infections of inflammations to its definition. Febrile urinary tract infection coexisting with systemic signs of bacterial illness a. Persistent urinary tract infection b. Cystitis c. Urethritis d. Pyelonephritis e. Urosepsis
E
Match the type of vegetarianism to its description. Exclude meat from their diet but consumes dairy products with some fish and poultry a. Lacto-ovo vegetarians b. Lactovegetarians c. Pure vegetarians (vegans) d. Macrobiotics e. Semi-vegetarians
E
After surgery yesterday for gastroesophageal reflux, the nurse finds that the infant has somehow removed the nasogastric (NG) tube. What nursing action is most appropriate to perform at this time? a. Notify the practitioner. b. Insert the NG tube so feedings can be given. c. Replace the NG tube to maintain gastric decompression. d. Leave the NG tube out because it has probably been in long enough.
Notify the practitioner.
Several types of long-term central venous access devices are used. What is a benefit of using an implanted port (e.g., Port-a-Cath)? a. You do not need to pierce the skin for access. b. It is easy to use for self-administered infusions. c. The patient does not need to limit regular physical activity, including swimming. d. The catheter cannot dislodge from the port even if the child "plays" with the port site.
Several types of long-term central venous access devices are used. What is a benefit of using an implanted port (e.g., Port-a-Cath)? a. You do not need to pierce the skin for access. b. It is easy to use for self-administered infusions. c. The patient does not need to limit regular physical activity, including swimming. d. The catheter cannot dislodge from the port even if the child "plays" with the port site.
What statement regarding chlamydial infections is correct? a. The treatment of choice is oral penicillin. b. The treatment of choice is nystatin or miconazole. c. Both men and women may have asymptomatic infections. d. Clinical manifestations include small, painful vesicles on the genital areas.
What statement regarding chlamydial infections is correct? a. The treatment of choice is oral penicillin. b. The treatment of choice is nystatin or miconazole. c. Both men and women may have asymptomatic infections. d. Clinical manifestations include small, painful vesicles on the genital areas.
What strategy is considered one of the best for preventing smoking in teenagers? a. Large-scale printed information campaigns b. Emphasis on the long-term effects of smoking on health c. Threatening the social norms of groups most likely to smoke d. Peer-led programs emphasizing the social consequences of smoking
What strategy is considered one of the best for preventing smoking in teenagers? a. Large-scale printed information campaigns b. Emphasis on the long-term effects of smoking on health c. Threatening the social norms of groups most likely to smoke d. Peer-led programs emphasizing the social consequences of smoking
Match the cranial syndrome or sequence with its facial features. Shallow orbits and underdevelopment of the middle third of the face a. Crouzon syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Pierre Robin sequence
A
A health care provider prescribes paroxetine (Paxil), 20 mg, PO, daily for a child with depression. The medication label states: "Paroxetine (Paxil) 10 mg/1 tablet." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many tablet(s) should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer as a whole number.
2 Follow the formula for dosage calculation. Desired ----------- x Quantity = Tablets per dose Available 20 mg ----------- x 1 = 2 tabs 10 mg
Match the level of consciousness to its description. Impaired decision making a. Confusion b. Disorientation c. Obtundation d. Stupor e. Coma
A
Match the type of fracture to its definition. Crosswise at right angles to the long axis of the bone a. Transverse b. Oblique c. Spiral d. Comminuted
A
Lactose intolerance is diagnosed in an 11-month-old infant. Which should the nurse recommend as a milk substitute? a. Yogurt b. Ice cream c. Fortified cereal d. Cow's milk-based formula
A Yogurt contains the inactive lactase enzyme, which is activated by the temperature and pH of the duodenum. This lactase activity substitutes for the lack of endogenous lactase. Ice cream and cow's milk-based formula contain lactose, which will probably not be tolerated by the child. Fortified cereal does not have the nutritional equivalents of milk.
A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). What should the nurse recommend? a. Use of condoms b. Prophylactic antibiotics c. Any type of contraception method d. Withdrawal method of contraception
A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). What should the nurse recommend? a. Use of condoms b. Prophylactic antibiotics c. Any type of contraception method d. Withdrawal method of contraception
What functional goal should the nurse expect for a child who has a T1 to T10 spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.) a. May be braced for standing b. Able to drive automobile with hand controls c. Can manage adapted public transportation d. Some able to use regular public transportation e. Ambulates well, often with short leg braces with or without cane
A, B, C A child with a T1 to T10 spinal cord injury may be braced for standing, is able to drive an automobile with hand controls, and can manage adapted public transportation. The ability to use regular public transportation and ambulation with bilateral long braces using four-point or swing-through crutch gait are functional goals for individuals with a T10 to L2 injury.
The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure. What laboratory findings should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level e. Decreased plasma creatinine level
A, B, D A child with acute renal failure would have hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen levels. The child would have metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, and the plasma creatinine levels would be increased, not decreased.
The nurse is preparing to feed a 10-month-old child diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Which actions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Be persistent. b. Introduce new foods slowly. c. Provide a stimulating atmosphere. d. Maintain a calm, even temperament. e. Feed the infant only when signs of hunger are exhibited.
A, B, D Feeding strategies for children with FTT should include persistence; introducing new foods slowly; and maintaining a calm, even temperament. The environment should be unstimulating, and a structured routine should be developed with regard to feeding, not just when the infant shows signs of hunger.
What menstrual disorders are indications for a pelvic examination? (Select all that apply.) a. Amenorrhea b. Dyspareunia c. Impaired fertility d. Irregular uterine or vaginal bleeding e. Dysmenorrhea unresponsive to therapy
A, D, E Indications for a pelvic examination include amenorrhea, irregular uterine or vaginal bleeding, and dysmenorrhea unresponsive to therapy. Impaired fertility is not an indication for a pelvic examination; it can be a result of endometriosis. Dyspareunia (painful intercourse) is not an indication for a pelvic examination but may be a sign of endometriosis.
An adolescent will receive a bone marrow transplant (BMT). The nurse should explain that the bone marrow will be administered by which method? a. Bone grafting b. Intravenous infusion c. Bone marrow injection d. Intraabdominal infusion
B Bone marrow from a donor is infused intravenously, and the transfused stem cells migrate to the recipient's marrow and repopulate it.
The nurse is caring for a child with hypercalcemia. The nurse evaluates the child for which signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia? (Select all that apply.) a. Tetany b. Anorexia c. Constipation d. Laryngospasm e. Muscle hypotonicity
B, C, E Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia are anorexia, constipation, and muscle hypotonicity. Tetany and laryngospasm are signs of hypocalcemia.
It is important that women with anogenital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) receive adequate treatment because this sexually transmitted infection increases the risk of what? a. Gonorrhea b. Cervical cancer c. Chlamydial infection d. Urinary tract infection
B Infection with HPV is associated with cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. A vaccine has been developed and is recommended for young women.
The nurse is caring for an adolescent brought to the hospital with acute drug toxicity. Cocaine is believed to be the drug involved. Data collection by the nurse should include what information? a. Drug's actual content b. Mode of administration c. Adolescent's level of interest in rehabilitation d. Function the drug plays in the adolescent's life
B Cocaine is available in two forms, water soluble and non-water soluble, and can be administered through multiple routes. For treatment purposes, it is essential to know the type of drug and route of administration. Because cocaine is a street drug, the actual content usually cannot be identified. The adolescent's level of interest in rehabilitation and the function that drug plays in the adolescent's life are concerns to be addressed after the initial emergency treatment is instituted.
The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with hepatitis B. What clinical features of hepatitis B should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. The onset is rapid. b. Rash is common. c. Jaundice is present d. No carrier state exists. e. The mode of transmission is principally by the parenteral route.
B, C, E Clinical features of hepatitis B include a rash, jaundice, and the mode of transmission principally by the parenteral route. The onset is insidious, not rapid, and a carrier state does exist.
Match the following terms related to food sensitivities to the accurate descriptions. Allergy with a hereditary tendency a. Food allergy b. Food allergen c. Food intolerance d. Sensitization e. Atopy
E
Match the level of consciousness to its description. No motor or verbal response to noxious stimuli a. Confusion b. Disorientation c. Obtundation d. Stupor e. Coma
E
A 17-month-old child should be expected to be in which stage, according to Piaget? a. Preoperations b. Concrete operations c. Tertiary circular reactions d. Secondary circular reactions
C A 17-month-old is in the fifth stage of the sensorimotor phase, tertiary circular reactions. The child uses active experimentation to achieve previously unattainable goals. Preoperations is the stage of cognitive development usually present in older toddlers and preschoolers. Concrete operations is the cognitive stage associated with school-age children. The secondary circular reaction stage lasts from about ages 4 to 8 months.
The nurse observes that a newborn is having problems after birth. What should indicate a tracheoesophageal fistula? a. Jitteriness b. Meconium ileus c. Excessive frothy saliva d. Increased need for sleep
C Excessive frothy saliva is indicative of a tracheoesophageal fistula. The child is unable to swallow the secretions, so there are excessive amounts of saliva in the mouth. Jitteriness is associated with several disorders, including electrolyte imbalances. Meconium ileus is associated with cystic fibrosis. Increased need for sleep is not associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula.
What is the primary method of treating osteomyelitis? a. Joint replacement b. Bracing and casting c. Intravenous antibiotic therapy d. Long-term corticosteroid therapy
C Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus infection. The treatment of choice is antibiotics. Joint replacement, bracing and casting, and long-term corticosteroid therapy are not indicated for infectious processes
A 1-year-old child is on a pure vegetarian (vegan) diet. This diet requires supplementation with what? a. Niacin b. Folic acid c. Vitamins D and B12 d. Vitamins C and E
C Pure vegetarian (vegan) diets eliminate any food of animal origin, including milk and eggs. These diets require supplementation with many vitamins, especially vitamin B6, vitamin B12, riboflavin, vitamin D, iron, and zinc. Niacin, folic acid, and vitamins C and E are readily obtainable from foods of vegetable origin.
What is the primary objective of care for the child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)? a. Reduce blood pressure. b. Lower serum protein levels. c. Minimize excretion of urinary protein. d. Increase the ability of tissue to retain fluid.
C The objectives of therapy for the child with MCNS include reducing the excretion of urinary protein, reducing fluid retention, preventing infection, and minimizing complications associated with therapy. Blood pressure is usually not elevated in minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Serum protein levels are already reduced as part of the disease process. This needs to be reversed. The tissue is already retaining fluid as part of the edema. The goal of therapy is to reduce edema.
A 5-year-old girl sustained a concussion when she fell out of a tree. In preparation for discharge, the nurse is discussing home care with her mother. What sign or symptom is considered a manifestation of postconcussion syndrome and does not necessitate medical attention? a. Vomiting b. Blurred vision c. Behavioral changes d. Temporary loss of consciousness
C The parents are advised of probable posttraumatic symptoms that may be expected. These include behavioral changes, sleep disturbances, emotional lability, and alterations in school performance. If the child is vomiting, has blurred vision, or has temporary loss of consciousness, she should be seen for evaluation.
Match the cranial syndrome or sequence with its facial features. Displacement of the chin as a result of micrognathia a. Crouzon syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Pierre Robin sequence
D
The nurse is caring for an infant born at 37 weeks of gestation of a nondiabetic mother just admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit for observation. The nurse notes that which lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio obtained before delivery indicates no risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? a. 1.4:1 b. 1.6:1 c. 1.8:1 d. 2:1
D An L/S ratio of 2:1 in nondiabetic mothers indicates virtually no risk of RDS.
The parents of an infant with a cleft palate ask the nurse, "What follow-up care will our infant need after the repair?" Which is an accurate response by the nurse? a. "Your infant will not need any subsequent follow-up care." b. "Your infant will only need to be evaluated by an audiologist." c. "Your infant will only need follow-up with a speech pathologist." d. "Your infant will need follow-up with audiologists and orthodontists."
D A cleft palate means that audiologists will evaluate the child's hearing throughout early childhood and work closely with otolaryngologists to determine if pressure-equalizing (PE) tubes are needed. An infant with a cleft palate will also go through multiple phases of orthodontic intervention to align the teeth and the maxillary arches. Follow-up will be needed as the child grows. Following up with only an audiologist or only a speech pathologist would not be adequate.
The nurse is providing care to a preterm infant. Which characteristic of daily care should be considered supportive? a. Coordinated with parental visiting times b. Given on a fixed schedule to ensure needs are met c. Provided when infant's heart rate is at its lowest level d. Directed toward development of sleep organization
D Developmentally supportive care uses both behavioral and physiologic information as the basis of caregiving. A focus in preterm infants is to be alert for infant behavioral states and intervene during alert times. The parents should be taught how to recognize the infant's behavioral states. Infants sleep for approximately 1 1/2 hours. The parents can provide care when the infant is awake. Care should not be delivered on a fixed schedule. It should always be responsive to the infant's cues. The heart rate is at its lowest when the infant is in a sleep period. The infant should not be disturbed during this time if possible.
Rickets is caused by a deficiency in what? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Folic acid and iron d. Vitamin D and calcium
D Fat-soluble vitamin D and calcium are necessary in adequate amounts to prevent rickets. No correlation exists between rickets and folic acid, iron, or vitamins A and C.
What do the clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome include? a. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain b. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever c. Hypertension, weight loss, and proteinuria d. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
D Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema are clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria and bacteriuria are not seen, and there is usually weight loss, not gain. The blood pressure is normal or hypotensive.
Neuropathic bladder disorders are common among children with which disorder? a. Plagiocephaly b. Meningocele c. Craniosynostosis d. Myelomeningocele
D Myelomeningocele is one of the most common causes of neuropathic bladder dysfunction among children. Plagiocephaly is the flattening of a side of the child's head. This is not associated with neuropathic bladder. Children with meningocele usually do not have neuropathic bladder. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of one or more cranial sutures. It is not associated with neuropathic bladder.
What clinical manifestation(s) is associated with calcium depletion (hypocalcemia)? a. Nausea, vomiting b. Weakness, fatigue c. Muscle hypotonicity d. Neuromuscular irritability
D Neuromuscular irritability is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia. Nausea and vomiting occur with hypercalcemia and hypernatremia. Weakness, fatigue, and muscle hypotonicity are clinical manifestations of hypercalcemia.
The nurse is administering an oral antihistamine at bedtime to a child with atopic dermatitis (eczema). Which antihistamine should the nurse expect to be prescribed at bedtime? a. Cetirizine (Zyrtec) b. Loratadine (Claritin) c. Fexofenadine (Allegra) d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D Oral antihistamine drugs such as hydroxyzine or diphenhydramine usually relieve moderate or severe pruritus. Nonsedating antihistamines such as cetirizine (Zyrtec), loratadine (Claritin), or fexofenadine (Allegra) may be preferred for daytime pruritus relief. Because pruritus increases at night, a mildly sedating antihistamine such as Benadryl is prescribed.
For minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS), prednisone is effective when what occurs? a. Appetite increases and blood pressure is normal b. Urinary tract infection is gone and edema subsides c. Generalized edema subsides and blood pressure is normal d. Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes
D Studies suggest that the duration of steroid treatment for the initial episode should be at least 3 months. In most patients, diuresis occurs as the urinary protein excretion diminishes within 7 to 21 days after the initiation of steroid therapy. The blood pressure is normal with MCNS, so remaining so is not an improvement. There is no urinary tract infection with MCNS.
Which is an appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children? a. Substitute raisins for candy. b. Substitute sugarless gum for regular gum. c. Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar. d. When sweets are to be eaten, select a time not during meals.
Which is an appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children? a. Substitute raisins for candy. b. Substitute sugarless gum for regular gum. c. Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar. d. When sweets are to be eaten, select a time not during meals.