Pediatric Final Exam Reviewer
For which of the following diseases have the most cases been reported in recent years? a) Diphtheria b) Pertussis c) Tetanus
B
In which of the following countries is polio still endemic? a) Kazakhstan b) Niger c) Afghanistan d) Russian Federation
C
Which diluent is the correct choice for reconstituting Hiberix? a) Sterile water b) 0.4% sodium chloride c) 0.9% sodium chloride d) DTaP-IPV liquid
C.) 0.9% sodium chloride
Which vaccine contains DTaP, IPV, and Hib vaccines? A.) ActHIB B.) Pentacel C.) Hiberix D.) PedvaxHIB
D.) Pentacel
T/F: If an infant already has a health care provider diagnosis of rotavirus gastroenteritis, vaccination with rotavirus vaccine is unnecessary.
F
What is the median effectiveness against measles after a single dose of MMR? a) 78% b) 93% c) 97% d) 100%
b.) 93 %
A history of neurologic reaction (e.g., peripheral neuropathy or Guillain-Barre syndrome) following a prior dose of tetanus toxoid is a precaution to vaccination with Tdap. a) True b) False
A
DTaP vaccine should: a) Be refrigerated at a temperature between 2°C and 8°C (between 35°F and 46°F). b) Be frozen for shipping and then refrigerated upon arrival. c) Not be shaken before withdrawing each dose of vaccine. d) Be discarded within 30 minutes after reconstitution.
A
For which person listed below would DTaP vaccine NOT be recommended? (Assume that none of these persons has completed the primary DTaP vaccination series.) a) A child who had a severe allergic reaction to a prior dose of DTaP. b) A 15-month-old child who has cerebral palsy. c) A 3-year-old child with an ear infection and low-grade fever. d) A 4-year-old child who had a temperature of 102°F the day after his last dose of DTaP vaccine.
A
Germinated tetanus spores produce toxins that cause progressive muscle spasms. a) True b) False
A
Hepatitis B vaccine should be: a) Refrigerated at a temperature between 2°C and 8°C (between 35°F and 46°F). b) Reconstituted with the supplied diluent. c) Protected from light at all times. d) Rolled gently before withdrawing each dose.
A
Most persons who become infected with poliovirus have: a) No symptoms of infection. b) Minor flu-like symptoms. c) Stiffness of the neck, back, and legs. d) Flaccid paralysis.
A
One of the permanent contraindications to vaccination is a) severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) to a vaccine or one of its components. b) moderate to severe illness. c) pregnancy. d) hypotonic, hyporesponsive episode after vaccination with any vaccine.
A
Rotavirus is most commonly spread through: a) The fecal-oral route. b) Insect bites. c) The respiratory route. d) Exposure to rotavirus-positive body fluids from infected persons.
A
Rotavirus vaccine is a: a) Live attenuated vaccine. b) Inactivated conjugate vaccine. c) Inactivated polysaccharide vaccine. d) Recombinant vaccine.
A
Tdap vaccine should: a) Be refrigerated at a temperature between 2°C and 8°C. b) Be frozen for shipping and then refrigerated upon arrival. c) Not be shaken before withdrawing each dose of vaccine. d) Be discarded within 30 minutes after reconstitution.
A
The most common adverse reaction after hepatitis A vaccination is: a) Redness at the injection site b) Malaise c) Low-grade fever d) Decreased liver function
A
The most common presentation of invasive meningococcal disease is: a) Meningitis b) Pneumonia c) Otitis media d) Epiglottitis
A
The word "antibody" means a) A protein molecule produced in the body that protects against infection. b) Dirt that gets into a wound and causes tetanus. c) A substance that is foreign to the body, such as a bacterium or virus that can cause disease. d) Part of the complement system that protects against infection.
A
When should the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine be routinely administered? a) Soon after birth, before hospital discharge. b) At 2 months of age. c) At 6 months of age. d) At 1 year of age.
A
When should the temperature of vaccine storage units be assessed and documented by provider staff? a) Twice a day b) Every 12 hours c) Once a day d) Every 48 hours
A
Which statement about diphtheria is correct? a) Diphtheria toxins can cause severe systemic illness, including swelling of the neck. b) Diphtheria infection results in coughing spells that cause a whooping sound. c) Currently, about 50 to 100 cases of diphtheria occur each year in the United States. d) Diphtheria is spread by spores, which enter the body, germinate, and produce toxins.
A
VFC providers are NOT allowed to store vaccines in this type of unit
A dormitory type refrigerator
You are in a perfect position to monitor children's development in your care because (check all that apply): A. You spend a lot of time playing and interacting with children B. Parents see you as a trusted partner C. Parents may ask you about their child's development D. You are in a position to make a diagnosis about a child's development
A, B, C
Developmental screening (check all that apply): A. Involves using a validated developmental screening tool B. Should be done for all children C. Usually requires special training D. Involves looking for children's developmental milestones at specific times
A, B, C, D
Good listening skills involve (check all that apply): A. Listening closely, making eye contact, and nodding when appropriate B. Repeating back in your own words the parent's main point C. Interrupting when necessary D. Considering how the parent feels
A, B, D
Good listening skills involve (check all that apply): a) Listening closely, trying to make eye contact and nodding when appropriate b) Repeating back in your own words the parent's main point c) Interrupting when necessary d) Considering how the parent feels
A, B, D
Developmental monitoring (check all that apply): A. Involves looking for children's developmental milestones over time B. Is best done by watching children and comparing them to each other C. Involves using an objective milestone checklist for the child's age D. Should be done only by trained medical professionals
A, C
When there are developmental concerns, families should be referred to (check all that apply): A. Their child's healthcare provider B. The local chapter of the American Red Cross C. Their local early intervention system or public school D. The local chapter of the United Way
A, C
When there are developmental concerns, families should be referred to (check all that apply): a) Their child's health care provider b) The local chapter of the American Red Cross c) Their local early intervention system or public school d) The local chapter of the United Way
A, C
Discussing development with families regularly can help you (check all that apply): A. Identify potential concerns about a child's development B. Diagnose a child with autism C. Have realistic expectations and better understand children's behaviors D. Encourage parents to talk to their child's doctor if they are concerned
A, C, D
Which of the following children 18 years of age or younger are eligible to receive VFC vaccine? Select all answers that apply. a) Those who are American Indian or Alaska Native b) Those with high-deductible insurance and/or co-pays c) Those with health insurance coverage for vaccines d) Those who are eligible for Medicaid
A, D
Skills such as taking a first step, smiling for the first time, and waving "bye-bye" are examples of developmental milestones. A. True B. False
A. True
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has free and useful tools to help you monitor children's development. A. True B. False
A. True
Which person can be given MMRV today? a) A 10-year-old boy who received doses of MMR and varicella vaccines at age 2 b) A 14-year-old adolescent who has never received MMR or varicella vaccines c) A 9-month-old child who has not received MMR or varicella vaccines d) A 24-year-old who has received only MMR vaccine at 2 years of age
A.) A 10-year-old boy who received doses of MMR and varicella vaccines at age 2
Which age group is typically at highest risk for death related to seasonal influenza infection? a) Adults 65 years of age and older b) Persons 18 through 64 years of age c) Persons aged 5 through 49 years of age d) Children older than 5 years of age
A.) Adults 65 years of age and older
What percentage of infants develop protective antibody levels after completing a primary series of 2 or 3 doses of a Hib vaccine? A.) More than 95% B.) About 90% C.) About 75% D.) Less than 50%
A.) More than 95%
A 2-month-old boy just received his first dose of IPV. According to the recommended polio vaccination schedule, his second dose of IPV should be given at: a) 3 months of age. b) 4 months of age. c) 6 to 18 months of age. d) 4 to 6 years of age.
B
A 2-year-old child received a dose of IPV at 4 months of age and another dose at 12 months of age. How should this child's polio series be completed? a) Since this child is behind schedule and there has been a lapse between doses, this child will need to restart the series and receive 3 more IPV doses with 4 weeks between each dose, followed by a booster dose between 4 and 6 years of age. b) This child will need an IPV dose now and another dose between the ages of 4 and 6 years. c) This child will need a third dose of IPV at 4 years of age, which will complete the child's IPV series.
B
For which person listed below would Tdap vaccine NOT be recommended? a) A 20-year-old man with cerebral palsy who has not received Tdap previously. b) A 42-year-old woman who has a history of severe allergic reaction to a component of Tdap vaccine. c) An 11-year-old child who had a temperature of 102°F the day after his last dose of DTaP vaccine. d) A woman who is 30 weeks pregnant.
B
For which person listed below would hepatitis B vaccine NOT be recommended? (Assume each person has a negative history of prior hepatitis B vaccination.) a) A newborn whose mother is HBsAg-positive. b) A 6-year-old boy who had HBV infection as an infant. c) A 50-year-old man who is an injection drug user. d) A 19-year-old man who is starting nursing school next month.
B
Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for persons in all of these groups EXCEPT: a) Anyone traveling outside the U.S. to visit or work in countries where they would have a high or intermediate risk of hepatitis A virus infection. b) Healthcare personnel. c) Men who have sex with men (MSM). d) Persons with chronic liver disease, including those who are awaiting or have received liver transplants.
B
How is poliomyelitis (polio) most commonly spread? a) Through the oral-oral route. b) Through the fecal-oral route. c) Through respiratory secretions. d) Through contaminated food.
B
How long do I have to keep VFC records? a) 1 year or longer if state requires b) 3 years or longer if state requires c) 5 years or longer if state requires d) 10 years or longer if state requires
B
How many doses of varicella vaccine are routinely recommended in the United States? a) 1 dose b) 2 doses c) 3 doses d) 4 doses
B
In 1999, ACIP recommended that beginning in 2000, poliovirus vaccination in the United States be changed to: a) An all-OPV schedule. b) An all-IPV schedule. c) A combination OPV and IPV schedule. d) An all-combination vaccine schedule.
B
Tdap is now FDA-approved and recommended by ACIP and CDC for a routine booster every 10 years for all adolescents and adults. a) True b) False
B
Tdap vaccine should be administered by the subcutaneous route. a) True b) False
B
The incidence of rotavirus is highest among: a) Infants younger than 3 months of age. b) Children 3 to 35 months of age. c) Adolescents. d) Adults.
B
What is the maximum age for the first dose of rotavirus vaccine? a) 6 weeks of age. b) 14 weeks and 6 days of age. c) 8 months of age. d) 1 year of age.
B
What is the minimum age for the first dose of rotavirus vaccine? a) Soon after birth, before hospital discharge. b) 6 weeks of age. c) 14 weeks and 6 days of age. d) 8 months of age.
B
What is the recommended dose of HPV vaccine? a) 0.25 mL b) 0.5 mL c) 0.75 mL d) 1 mL
B
When should screening and documentation of VFC eligibility be conducted? a) At the first immunization visit only b) At every immunization visit c) Once a year d) Every 6 months
B
When should the first dose of DTaP vaccine be routinely administered? a) Soon after birth, before hospital discharge. b) At 2 months of age. c) At 6 months of age. d) At 1 year of age.
B
Which answer choice is correct regarding storage and handling of varicella vaccine? Varicella vaccine should be: a) Refrigerated at a temperature between 2°C and 8°C (36°F and 46°F). b) Frozen during shipping and storage. c) Used within 24 hours of reconstitution. d) Reconstituted with sterile water.
B
Which of the following is NOT a routine recommendation for the use of HPV vaccine? a) Females and males aged 11-12 years should routinely receive HPV vaccine. b) Females and males aged 30 years or older who have not previously received HPV vaccine are recommended to receive HPV vaccine. c) Females aged 13-26 years who have not previously received HPV vaccine are recommended to receive HPV vaccine. d) Males 13-21 years who have not previously received HPV vaccine are recommended to receive HPV vaccine.
B
Which type of HBV infection (acute infection or chronic infection) results in more complications or deaths? a) Acute HBV infection causes most HBV-related complications and deaths. b) Chronic HBV infection causes most HBV-related complications and deaths.
B
Developmental monitoring (check all that apply): a) Is best done by watching children and comparing them to each other b) Involves looking for children's developmental milestones over time c) Involves using an objective milestone checklist for the child's age d) Should be done only by trained medical professionals
B, C
Discussing development with families regularly can help you (check all that apply): a) Diagnose a child with autism b) Identify potential concerns about a child's development c) Have realistic expectations and better understand children's behaviors d) Encourage parents to talk to their child's doctor if they are concerned
B, C, D
Another preventive service besides immunization that should be implemented for disease detection and/or prevention is a) antibiotic use for viral infections. b) smoking cessation. c) diuretics for hypertension. d) eating one doughnut every day.
B.
Inactivated vaccines generally do a) include rotavirus vaccine. b) require more than 1 or 2 doses for long-lasting immunity. c) result in systemic adverse reactions as the most common type of adverse reaction. d) require spacing between administration and immune globulins.
B.
The word "antigen" means a) A protein molecule produced in the body that protects against infection b) A substance that is foreign to the body, such as a bacterium or virus that can cause disease. c) Dirt that gets into a wound and causes tetanus. d) Part of the complement system that protects against infection.
B.
About how many children in the U.S. have developmental disabilities? A. 1 in 17 B. 1 in 6 C. 1 in 50
B. 1 in 6
A child not reaching milestones at the expected ages may indicate: A. Child is on track developmentally B. Child may need extra support and services
B. Child may need extra support and services
The best way to monitor children's development is to track their: A. Calorie intake B. Developmental milestones C. Head circumference
B. Developmental milestones
Which type of Hib vaccines are currently in use? A.) Live attenuated B.) Polysaccharide conjugate C.) Inactivated viral D.) Pure polysaccharide
B.) Polysaccharide conjugate
An 8-year-old boy has never received seasonal influenza vaccine. How many doses will he need to receive this season? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
B.) Two
A 4-year-old child adopted from outside the United States is brought to the immunization clinic. He has no record of ever having received polio vaccine. How many doses of IPV are recommended before he starts school next year? a) 1 dose b) 2 doses c) 3 doses d) 4 doses
C
By what age should all doses of rotavirus vaccine be administered? a) 6 weeks of age. b) 14 weeks and 6 days of age. c) 8 months and 0 days of age. d) 1 year of age.
C
How are genital HPV infections primarily spread? a) Contact with blood b) Contaminated water c) Sexual contact d) Through the air
C
How many doses of hepatitis B vaccine are needed to complete the primary hepatitis B series for infants, children, and adults? a) 1 dose b) 2 doses c) 3 doses d) 4 doses
C
In which circumstance would a healthcare provider recommend polio vaccination for a 20-year-old pregnant woman who resides in the United States? a) To complete her routine immunizations since she did not complete her polio vaccine series as a child. b) If she is a nurse working in the delivery room at the local hospital. c) Because she must travel to an area where there is polio to visit her mother who is ill. d) Because her baby will be vaccinated with IPV.
C
The 30-year-old nurse is leaving in 9 weeks and will be working with children who have infectious diseases, including polio. The nurse was never vaccinated against polio. How many doses of IPV should the nurse receive before leaving? a) 1 dose b) 2 doses c) 3 doses d) 4 doses
C
The most common vaccine-related adverse event in the clinical trials was: a) Arrhythmia b) Fever c) Injection-site symptoms d) Generalized macular rash
C
Varicella vaccine is a(n): a) Inactivated conjugate vaccine. b) Inactivated polysaccharide vaccine. c) Live attenuated vaccine. d) Recombinant vaccine.
C
What is the minimum interval between the first and second doses of single-antigen hepatitis A vaccine? a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 12 months
C
What type of storage unit is NOT allowed? a) Stand-alone refrigerator b) Combined refrigerator/freezer with separate external refrigerator/freezer doors c) Dormitory style refrigerator/freezer d) Pharmaceutical/medical grade refrigerator/freezer
C
When checking the temperature of your facility's vaccine storage unit, you discover that the current temperature is outside of the recommended temperature range in the vaccine package insert(s). Which of the following actions should you take upon discovering the temperature excursion? a) Wait four hours to see if the temperature returns to the normal range b) Record the temperature on the temperature log and take no further action c) Call your immunization program for guidance d) Immediately discard the vaccine
C
When you bring up a concern about a child's development with his or her parents (check all that apply): A. For the first conversation, it's not necessary to talk to your supervisor beforehand or find out your center's policies. B. It doesn't matter if you haven't talked with the parents much in the past because you can get to know them when you talk about your concerns. C. It helps to have a completed milestone checklist to use in your conversation to provide an objective basis for your concerns.
C
Which of the following vaccines offers protection only against serogroups C & Y? a) Bexsero (MenB-4C) b) Menactra (MenACWY-D) c) MenHibrix (Hib-MenCY-TT) d) Menomune (MPSV4) e) Menveo (MenACWY-CRM) f) Trumenba (MenB-FHbp)
C
Which statement about tetanus is correct? a) Tetanus is a contagious infection that is spread when a person inhales tetanus spores. b) Currently, about 500 cases of tetanus infection occur each year in the United States. c) Germinated tetanus spores produce toxins that cause progressive muscle spasms. d) Tetanus symptoms can begin as a sore throat and progress to a white patch in the throat.
C
Which symptom of hepatitis A infection occurs most commonly in the late stage of infection in older children and adults? a) Anorexia b) Malaise c) Jaundice d) Nausea
C
A vaccine that fits the first General Rule on immunization "The more similar a vaccine is to the natural disease, the better the immune response to the vaccine" is a) DTaP b) Hib c) MMR d) Polio
C.
Active immunity a) is that which a pregnant woman transmits to her newborn infant. b) comes from immune globulin injections. c) follows natural infection or vaccination. d) follows antibiotic use for pneumonia.
C.
Live attenuated vaccines do not a) include MMR vaccine. b) provide long-lasting immunity after 1 or 2 doses. c) include DTaP vaccine. d) require spacing between administration and immune globulins.
C.
At what age can most children point to show others something interesting? A. 9 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 24 months
C. 18 months
Tracking children's development in your care is important for the following reasons: A. To find out if a child's development is on track B. To find out if a child might have a developmental delay C. Both
C. Both
Cooing or babbling sounds are a milestone in which domain: A. Social/emotional B. Cognitive C. Language/Communication D. Movement/Physical
C. Language/Communication
Which of the following individuals has a valid contraindication to pneumococcal conjugate vaccine? a) An individual recovering from an upper respiratory infection b) An individual who is planning to become pregnant soon c) An individual who had a severe allergic reaction to a prior dose of PCV13 d) An individual who has a history of severe allergic reaction to eggs
C.) An individual who had a severe allergic reaction to a prior dose of PCV13
Which statement is accurate and included in the inactivated seasonal influenza Vaccine Information Statement? a) Adults 65 years of age and older should receive 2 doses of influenza vaccine each season. b) Children 6 months through 8 years of age might need two doses during one year. c) Persons who have had a severe allergic reaction to eggs should not be given influenza vaccine. d) Pregnant women and persons who are immunosuppressed should not receive influenza vaccine.
C.) Children 6 months through 8 years of age might need two doses during one year.
In general, higher rates of seasonal influenza occur during which time of the year in the United States? a) April through September b) September through December c) October through May d) Year-round
C.) October through May
Which Hib vaccine requires only 2 doses in the primary series, recommended at 2 months and 4 months of age? A.) ActHIB B.) Hiberix C.) PedvaxHIB D.) Pentacel
C.) PedvaxHIB
A 5-year-old child needs protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. Which vaccine is recommended, if there are no contraindications? a) Tdap b) Td c) DT d) DTaP
D
A mother brings her 16-year-old son into the clinic and wants to know if he can receive HPV vaccine today. The most accurate response is: a) No, because HPV vaccine is not licensed for use in males. b) No, because he is too young to start the HPV series. c) No, because he is too old to start the HPV series. d) Yes (assuming he has no valid contraindications to HPV vaccination)
D
A person infected with varicella-zoster virus is typically infectious during which time period? a) From day 4 after exposure until onset of the rash. b) From day 4 after exposure until the day the lesions are crusted. c) From 1 to 2 days before the onset of the rash until the rash appears. d) From 1 to 2 days before the onset of the rash until the lesions have crusted.
D
After receiving 3 doses of IPV, what percentage of recipients develop immunity against poliomyelitis (polio)? a) Approximately 50%. b) Less than 75%. c) Less than 85%. d) 99% to 100%.
D
HBV is mainly transmitted through: a) The fecal-oral route. b) Insect bites. c) The respiratory route. d) Exposure to HBsAg-positive body fluids from infected persons.
D
Hepatitis A vaccine may be used for postexposure prophylaxis (instead of immune globulin) for: a) Immunocompromised persons. b) Persons diagnosed with chronic liver disease. c) Children younger than 12 months of age. d) Healthy persons 12 months through 40 years of age.
D
Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is spread mainly by which route? a) Respiratory b) Bloodborne c) Droplet d) Fecal-Oral
D
How often should the Provider Profile form and Provider Agreement form be completed and submitted to your state or local immunization program? a) Every other year b) Quarterly c) Monthly d) Annually
D
If a healthy 6-year-old child (who does not have evidence of immunity to varicella) was exposed to a confirmed case of varicella 2 days ago, the correct action to take is: a) Advise the parents that the child will likely develop varicella. b) Administer antiviral medication (or refer the child to a health care provider who can administer antiviral medication). c) Administer VZIG (or refer the child to a health care provider who can VZIG). d) Administer varicella vaccine.
D
If an infant spits out a dose of rotavirus vaccine, the correct action to take is: a) Repeat the dose immediately. b) Don't count the dose and readminister it in 4 weeks. c) Try to readminister the dose that was spit out. d) Document the dose and continue with the vaccine schedule.
D
Satisfactory documentation of recovery from which disease would eliminate the need for that vaccine component? a) Diphtheria b) Pertussis c) Tetanus d) None of these illnesses
D
The risk for varicella complications is generally increased among: a) Infants. b) Persons who are immunocompromised. c) Pregnant women. d) All of the above.
D
What type of vaccine is Menomune (MPSV4)? a) Toxoid b) Live attenuated c) Inactivated conjugate d) Inactivated polysaccharide
D
Which of the following is not a CDC vaccine storage unit recommendation? a) Use a stand-alone refrigerator to store refrigerated vaccines. b) Use only the refrigerator compartment of a combination refrigerator/freezer unit to store refrigerated vaccines. c) Use a pharmaceutical grade refrigerator to store refrigerated vaccines d) Use the refrigerator and freezer sections of a combination refrigerator/freezer unit for storing vaccines
D
Which of the following vaccines are administered by the subcutaneous route? a) MenACWY b) MenB c) Hib-MenCY-TT d) MPSV4
D
Which statement regarding Menactra (MenACWY-D) storage and handling is accurate? Menactra should: a) Be kept frozen at 30° F or colder b) Be stored in the refrigerator door. c) Be used within 30 days of reconstitution d) Not be reconstituted
D
Which statement regarding storage and handling of 9vHPV and 4vHPV vaccine is correct? 9vHPV and 4vHPV vaccine: a) Must be discarded within 48 hours of opening vial b) Require mixing with the diluent supplied c) Require storage at a temperature of less than 35°F (2°C) d) Should be protected from light
D
Passive immunity does NOT come from a) blood transfusions. b) a pregnant woman to her newborn infant. c) immune globulin injections. d) natural infection or vaccination.
D.
The "grace period" recommended by CDC and its Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) is a) the maximum time period for reporting communicable diseases to CDC. b) the minimum interval between doses of inactivated vaccines. c) the time period after a vaccine expires that it can still be used. d) four days, which is the number of days before a minimum interval or minimum age permitted to administer a vaccine.
D.
Monitoring children's development includes which of the following? A. Observing children's milestones B. Using a developmental milestone checklist or developmental screening tool C. Sharing observations with parents and encouraging them to take action if concerned D. All the above
D. All of the above
Tracking children's development is important for the following reasons: a) To find out if a child's development is on track b) To find out if a child might have a developmental delay c) To find out if a child is popular d) Both a and b
D. Both a and b
Do parents need a doctor's referral or a medical diagnosis to contact their early intervention program or their local public school for help, if they are concerned about their child's development? A. It depends on their insurance requirements B. Yes, always C. Usually, but there are ways around it D. No
D. No
Which statement is correct regarding the use of the Hib VIS? a) Adults receiving Hib vaccine do not need to be offered a copy of the VIS. b) A copy of the Hib VIS should be signed by the parent or patient and placed in the medical record. c) The Hib VIS needs to be given to the parent or patient only before the first dose of Hib vaccine. d) A copy of the Hib VIS should be offered to the parent or patient to keep before each dose of Hib vaccine.
D.) A copy of the Hib VIS should be offered to the parent or patient to keep before each dose of Hib vaccine.
Which statement regarding MMR storage and handling is accurate? MMR should be: a) Stored at room temperature b) Stored only in the refrigerator c) Reconstituted with sterile saline diluent d) Discarded if not used within 8 hours of reconstitution
D.) Discarded if not used within 8 hours of reconstitution
Which statement regarding the storage and handling of influenza vaccines is accurate? a) Influenza vaccines should be kept frozen at or below 5°F (-15°C). b) Influenza vaccines can be stored at room temperature for up to 24 hours. c) Influenza vaccine can be used after the BUD as long as the expiration date printed on the label has not been reached. d) Influenza vaccines should be stored in the original packaging to protect against light, help maintain the recommended temperature, and to help avoid administration errors.
D.) Influenza vaccines should be stored in the original packaging to protect against light, help maintain the recommended temperature, and to help avoid administration errors.
The most common clinical presentation of pneumococcal disease among adults is: a) Bacteremia b) Meningitis c) Otitis media d) Pneumonia
D.) Pneumonia
Tdap is recommended for: a) Children aged 7 through 10 years who are not fully vaccinated against pertussis and have no contraindication to pertussis vaccine. b) Persons aged 11 through 18 years who have completed the recommended childhood DTaP vaccination series and have not previously received a dose of Tdap. c) Adults 19 years of age and older who have not received Tdap previously. d) Pregnant women, during each pregnancy (optimally between 27 and 36 weeks` gestation, although Tdap may be given at any time during pregnancy). e) All of the above
E
MMR and MMRV should be administered by which route? a) Oral b) Intranasal c) Intradermal d) Intramuscular e) Subcutaneous
E.) Subcutaneous
T/F: 4vHPV vaccine protects against all types of sexually transmitted HPV.
F
T/F: ACIP recommends that children 2 months through 23 months of age with functional or anatomic asplenia may receive Menactra (MenACWY-D) at the same time they receive Prevnar 13 (PCV13).
F
T/F: Approximately 50% of persons who are carriers of Neisseria meningiditis develop invasive meningococcal disease.
F
T/F: Because HBV-infected infants and children usually do not have symptoms, they cannot transmit the virus.
F
T/F: Complications of varicella are more frequent among healthy children than among healthy adolescents and adults.
F
T/F: DTaP is a combination of three live weakened vaccines.
F
T/F: DTaP vaccine should be administered by the subcutaneous route.
F
T/F: HPV vaccine is recommended for pregnant women.
F
T/F: Hepatitis A infection can be diagnosed based solely on its unique clinical symptoms.
F
T/F: Hepatitis A vaccine should be stored in the freezer between -50°C and -15°C (-58°F and +5°F).
F
T/F: Hepatitis B vaccine is more effective in older adults (40 years of age or older) than in younger adults.
F
T/F: Hepatitis B vaccine should be administered by the subcutaneous route.
F
T/F: Meningococcal B vaccines are very effective when used in children younger than 18 months of age.
F
T/F: Meningococcal disease is very contagious.
F
T/F: Once a person is infected with an HPV virus, the person is immune to any further HPV infection.
F
T/F: One dose of hepatitis A vaccine is 100% effective in preventing hepatitis A infection in children, adolescents, and adults.
F
T/F: PCV13 vaccine is available in manufacturer-filled syringes. Once the syringe is activated by adding a needle, the syringe can be used until the expiration date as long as it is stored and handled properly.
F
T/F: Pediarix, which contains DTaP, hepatitis B, and inactivated polio vaccine, may be used for the fifth dose in the DTaP series.
F
T/F: Persons who have been vaccinated against varicella cannot become infected with wild-type VZV after vaccination.
F
T/F: The incubation period for rotavirus infection is long, usually 2 to 4 weeks.
F
T/F: Women who receive HPV vaccine no longer need periodic Pap tests for cervical cancer screening.
F
True or False? Expired vaccine may be stored in the same storage unit as viable vaccine until the expired vaccine is returned to the centralized distribution center or otherwise disposed of as directed by the immunization program.
F
T/F: PPSV23 is as effective in adults 65 years of age and older as it is in persons who are younger than 65 years of age.
FALSE
A 68-year-old woman asks if she can have the intradermal flu vaccine because she heard it has a really tiny needle and she doesn't like needles. True or false, she is able to receive intradermal flu vaccine today?
False
ACIP recommends that children 2 months through 23 months of age with functional or anatomic asplenia may receive Menactra (MenACWY-D) at the same time they receive Prevnar 13 (PCV13).
False
Approximately 50% of persons who are carriers of Neisseria meningiditis develop invasive meningococcal disease.
False
Meningococcal B vaccines are very effective when used in children younger than 18 months of age.
False
Meningococcal disease is very contagious.
False
T/F: Healthcare providers should wait until influenza cases begin to occur in their area before offering influenza vaccinations.
False
T/F: If a dose of Hib vaccine is inadvertently administered to a 2-week-old infant, no further doses of Hib vaccine should be administered.
False
T/F: If your shipment of influenza vaccine is delayed, you may administer seasonal influenza vaccine remaining from the prior year.
False
T/F: Koplik's spots may occur inside the mouth of someone with mumps.
False
T/F: MMR is contraindicated for persons who live in the household with an immunocompromised person.
False
T/F: MMR is contraindicated for someone with an egg allergy.
False
T/F: Pentacel is approved for use as the fifth dose of the DTaP series in children over 5 years of age.
False
T/F: Persons can only spread Hib bacteria to others when they are having symptoms of Hib disease.
False
T/F: Seasonal influenza vaccines provide lifelong protection against influenza viruses.
False
T/F: Systemic influenza symptoms usually last for several weeks.
False
T/F: When parotitis occurs with mumps, it is always bilateral.
False
100 mL/kg
Fluid maintenance requirement for 1-10 kg child in 24 hrs
1000 mL + 50 mL/kg for every kg over 10
Fluid maintenance requirement for 11-20 kg child in 24 hrs
1500 mL + 20 mL/kg for every kg over 20
Fluid maintenance requirement for >20 kg child in 24 hrs
What type of vaccine is Menomune (MPSV4)?
Inactivated polysaccharide
Which of the following vaccines are administered by the subcutaneous route?
MPSV4
Which of the following vaccines offers protection only against serogroups C & Y?
MenHibrix (Hib-MenCY-TT)
The most common presentation of invasive meningococcal disease is:
Meningitis
Y/N: A healthcare worker has 2 documented doses of MMR, but the titer for measles is negative. Does CDC recommend a 3rd dose of MMR for this person?
No
Which statement regarding Menactra (MenACWY-D) storage and handling is accurate? Menactra should:
Not be reconstituted
T/F: A history of anaphylactic allergy to neomycin is a contraindication to varicella vaccination.
T
T/F: At minimum, vaccine management plans and standard operating procedures should be reviewed once a year.
T
T/F: Diphtheria toxins can cause severe systemic illness, including swelling of the neck.
T
T/F: Either meningococcal vaccine can be administered to someone who received a blood transfusion within the past month?
T
T/F: Hepatitis B disease is caused by a virus.
T
T/F: It is important to encourage all parents to talk to their child's doctor about their child's development.
T
T/F: Rotavirus is a virus that can cause severe diarrhea, along with fever and vomiting.
T
T/F: Twinrix is approved for use only in persons 18 years of age or older.
T
T/F: Varicella is highly infectious with a secondary infection occurring in 60% to 100% of susceptible household contacts.
T
T/F: Most healthy adults who receive PPSV23 develop antibodies against the serotypes contained in the vaccine that persist for at least 5 years.
TRUE
Either meningococcal vaccine can be administered to someone who received a blood transfusion within the past month?
True
T/F: Hib vaccine can be administered simultaneously with any other vaccine.
True
The most common clinical presentation of invasive pneumococcal disease among children younger than 2 years of age is: a) Bacteremia b) Meningitis c) Pneumonia d) Tonsillitis
a.) Bacteremia
Which statement is accurate about use of an influenza VIS? a) Each person being given influenza vaccine should be offered his or her own copy of the VIS to read and take home. b) Parents should be given the VIS when children are vaccinated, but it is not required to give the VIS to adults who are going to be vaccinated. c) Vaccine administration clinics that use a laminated copy of the VISs do not need to offer a copy for patients and parents to take home when they leave the office. d) Persons should be given the VIS the first time influenza vaccine is given, but its use is not mandatory if previous annual doses have been given.
a.) Each person being given influenza vaccine should be offered his or her own copy of the VIS to read and take home.
A 36-month-old girl who has sickle cell anemia is being seen for a check-up. She has not received any doses of PCV13. It is recommended that she receive: a) 3 doses, at least 8 weeks apart b) 2 doses, at least 8 weeks apart c) 1 dose d) No doses
b) 2 doses, at least 8 weeks apart
A 2-month-old child is being seen for a check-up. If the PCV13 series is started today, the routine schedule for PCV13 would be a dose today and then doses at: a) 3 months, 4 months, and 6 months of age b) 4 months, 6 months, and 12 to 15 months of age c) 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months of age d) 9 months and 12 to 15 months of age
b.) 4 months, 6 months, and 12 to 15 months of age
What type of vaccine is MMR? a) Conjugate b) Live, attenuated c) Subunit, viral d) Toxoid
b.) Live, attenuated
A 15-month-old boy with sickle cell anemia just received his last dose of PCV13. How long should he wait before receiving PPSV23? a) At least 8 weeks b) About 6 months c) At least 9 months d) About 5 years
c) At least 9 months
Which vaccine is indicated for a 19-year-old woman with symptomatic HIV who has never received pneumococcal vaccine? a) PCV13 b) PPSV23 c) Neither vaccine is recommended d) Both PCV13 and PPSV23
d.) Both PCV13 and PPSV23
