Peds final exam

The nurse is caring for an infant exposed to HIV. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test was negative at birth. The nurse tells the mother that the child will most likely be tested again at what age? a) 8 to 10 weeks b) 2 to 3 months c) 12 months d) 4 to 7 weeks

4 to 7 weeks Explanation: Virologic testing for HIV-exposed infants should be done with the polymerase chain reaction test at birth, at 4 to 7 weeks, and again at 8 to 16 weeks. Serologic testing is done at approximately 12 months of age to document disappearance of the HIV-1 antibody

The nurse is caring for a child admitted with possible Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Which assessment question should the nurse ask the child's caregivers to help support this diagnosis?

"Does she/he report pain in the groin that results in a limp?" Symptoms first noticed in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease are pain in the hip or groin and a limp accompanied by muscle spasms and limitation of motion.

A nurse is providing dietary interventions for a 5-year-old with an iron deficiency. Which response indicates a need for further teaching? -"There are many iron fortified cereals that he likes." -"Red meat is a good option; he loves the hamburgers from the drive-thru." -"I must encourage a variety of iron-rich foods that he likes." -"He will enjoy tuna casserole and eggs."

"Red meat is a good option; he loves the hamburgers from the drive-thru." While iron from red meat is the easiest for the body to absorb, the nurse must limit fast food consumption from the drive-thru as it is also high in fat, fillers, and sodium. The other statements are correct.

The nurse is providing instructions to the parents of a child with a severe peanut allergy. Which of the following statements by the parents indicates a need for further teaching about the use of the EpiPen Jr.?

"The EpiPen Jr. should be jabbed into the upper arm" Correct Explanation: The EpiPen Jr. should be jabbed into the outer thigh, as this is a larger muscle, at a 90 degree angle, not into the upper arm. The other statements are correct.

A nurse is conducting a class to a group of parents on sickle cell anemia. Which statement by a parent indicates teaching has been effective? "Sickle cell anemia is common in people of Asian descent." "Fluid restriction is necessary to control sickle cell anemia." "The sickle shape of red blood cells decreases oxygen to tissues." "This is a hereditary disease that is transmitted by one affected gene."

"The sickle shape of red blood cells decreases oxygen to tissues." The sickle shape of the red blood cells impedes the flow of blood through the vessels, thus causing hypoxia to the tissues. Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease but it is autosomal recessive, meaning it requires two genes in order for the disease to be transmitted. Sickle cell anemia is common in people of African, Mediterranean, and Indian descent. Hydration is important to controlling sickle cell anemia. Dehydration is a trigger for sickle cell crisis.

A parent, distressed to learn that her school-aged child is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, asks the nurse how this could happen because no one in the family has diabetes. What instruction is most accurate?

"This disorder is associated with being overweight and eating a diet high in fats and carbohydrates." Type 2 diabetes is now seen in overweight adolescents and those who eat a diet high in fats and carbohydrates and do not exercise regularly. Type 2 diabetes is not caused by the pancreas not making enough insulin. This disorder is not linked to an inadequate ingestion of daily calories. This disorder may have a genetic link, but environmental factors such as obesity, diet, and exercise can influence its development.

The nurse is speaking with the parents of a child recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which statement by a parent indicates an understanding of symptoms of this disorder?

"When they get my son's thyroid levels normal, he won't be so tired." Tiredness, fatigue, constipation, cold intolerance and weight gain are all symptoms of hypothyroidism. Nervousness, anxiety, heat intolerance, weight loss and smooth velvety skin are all symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who plays on two soccer teams. He practices four days a week and his team travels to tournaments once a month. He has been diagnosed with a stress fracture in one of his vertebrae. Which instruction is most important to emphasize to the boy and his parents?

"You and your coaches need to understand that you cannot play soccer for at least six weeks." Explanation: A child with an overuse injury needs to avoid the causative activity for six to eight weeks. The other suggestions are also important, but the nurse must emphasize to the boy and his parents that they must tell the coaches "no soccer for six weeks." In some situations, it is helpful to supply a written directive from the nurse or physician to help the parent avoid undue pressure from coaches.

The parent of a child on chemotherapy contacts the health care provider because her child was exposed to chickenpox and wants to know what to do. What is the nurse's best response? -"Your child can be given zoster immune globulin to prevent chickenpox." -"Your child can receive nonlive vaccines which will prevent chickenpox." -"Your child can't receive any live-virus vaccines while on chemotherapy." -"Nothing can prevent chickenpox, but give your child diphenhydramine for itching."

"Your child can be given zoster immune globulin to prevent chickenpox." Zoster immune globulin may be administered if the child has not been immunized against varicella and is exposed to chickenpox during chemotherapy. Caution parents that live-virus vaccines should not be given during chemotherapy because if the child's immune mechanism is deficient these vaccines could cause widespread viral disease. Nonlive vaccines are also not given while receiving chemotherapy since the immune system cannot mount the response necessary to create immunity. Although diphenhydramine may help itching, there is a preventative with zoster immune globulin.

The young girl has been diagnosed with JIA and has been prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following statements by the child's parent indicates that adequate learning has occurred? a) "She may start feeling better by next week." b) "She can take methotrexate with yogurt or chocolate milk." c) "Swimming sounds like a good exercise for her." d) "We'll need to bring her back in for some lab tests after she starts methotrexate." e) "A warm bath before bed might help her sleep better."

- "We'll need to bring her back in for some lab tests after she starts methotrexate." • "She may start feeling better by next week." Explanation: The child diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis should not take the oral form of methotrexate with dairy products. The approximate time to benefit from methotrexate is typically 3 to 6 weeks. The child will need blood tests to determine renal and liver function during treatment. Children with juvenile idiopathic arthritis usually find swimming to be auseful exercise for them because it helps maintain joint mobility without placing pressure on the joints. Sleep may be promoted by a warm bath at bedtime.

A group of nursing students is discussing the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. The students demonstrate an understanding of the need for dietary iron when suggesting the inclusion of what foods into the diet of a 4-year-old diagnosed with this form of anemia? Select all that apply. -Egg whites -Peanut butter -Cheese -Egg yolks -Oatmeal -Raisins

-Egg yolks -Raisins -Peanut butter -Oatmeal Egg yolks, raisins, peanut butter and oatmeal are food sources high in iron. Cheese is not as high in iron. Avoid egg whites for young children because of allergies.

A child is undergoing skin testing for allergies. About 10 minutes after a scratch test with an allergen, the child develops signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis. The nurse prepares to administer epinephrine subcutaneously. The child weighs 88 pounds. The nurse would administer which dosage of epinephrine? a) 0.2 mg b) 0.4 mg c) 0.8 mg d) 1 mg

0.4 mg Explanation: The child weighs 88 pounds or 40 kg. The dose of epinephrine is 0.01 mg/kg. So for a child weighing 40 kg, the nurse would give 0.4 mg.

The child has been prescribed chemotherapy. In order to properly calculate the child's dose, the nurse must first figure the child's body surface area (BSA). The child is 130 cm tall and weighs 27 kg. Calculate the child's BSA. Record your answer using two decimal places.

0.99 Square root of (height [cm] x weight [kg] divided by 3,600) = BSA. The child is 130 cm tall and weighs 27 kg: 130 x 27 = 3,510; 3,510/3,600 = 0.975; and the square root of 0.975 is 0.9874. The BSA would be 0.987, when rounded to the hundredths place = 0.99.

A nurse is providing care to a child diagnosed with cerebral palsy who is experiencing painful muscle spasms. The health care provider has prescribed baclofen 40 mg/day PO in three divided doses. How many milligrams should the nurse administer in each dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.

13.3 Explanation: The nurse will divide the number of doses per day into the total amount prescribed for each day. 40 mg ÷ 3 doses = 13.3 mg/dose

A child with HIV, weighing 25 kg, is about to receive an infusion of IVIG. The recommended dose is 400 mg/kg/dose. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. What is the proper amount of infusion that the child will receive?

200 mL Explanation: The dose is calculated as 25 x 400 = 10,000 mg. Because the concentration is 50 mg/mL, calculate the volume as 10,000/50 = 200 mL.

A 10-year-old child is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The child's hemoglobin A1C level is being monitored. The nurse determines that additional intervention is needed with the child based on which result?

8.5% Explanation: The goal for hemoglobin A1C in children between the ages of 6 and 12 years is less than 8%. Therefore, a result of 8.5% would indicate that additional intervention is needed to achieve the recommended goal.

The nurse is caring for a group of children on the pediatric unit. The nurse should collect further data and explore the possibility of child abuse in which situation?

A 7-year-old with a spiral fracture of the humerus, which the caregiver reports as having been caused when the child was hit by a bat swung by a Little League teammate. Spiral fractures, which twist around the bone, are frequently associated with child abuse and are caused by a wrenching force. When a broken bone penetrates the skin, the fracture is called compound, or open. A simple, or closed, fracture is a single break in the bone without penetration of the skin. In a greenstick fracture, the bone bends and often just partially breaks.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old girl with HIV. The girl is taking nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) as part of a three-drug regimen. The nurse knows to monitor for signs of a fatal hypersensitivity reaction that can occur with which of the following medications? a) Abacavir b) Ritonavir c) Lamivudine d) Zidovudine

Abacavir Explanation: A fatal hypersensitivity reaction may occur with abacavir. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor, not a nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This drug is not associated with a fatal hypersensitivity reaction. This drug is not associated with a fatal hypersensitivity reaction.

A school-aged child has a bee-sting allergy. When the child is stung by a bee during a school recess, assuming that all of the following interventions are covered by school protocol, which initial intervention by the school nurse would be most appropriate? a) Immediately transport the child to the local hospital. b) Administer epinephrine immediately. c) Apply a warm compress to the site of the bee sting. d) Notify the child's mother.

Administer epinephrine immediately. Explanation: Epinephrine counteracts histamine release to decrease bronchospasm and difficulty breathing.

The school nurse notes that a child diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is experiencing an insulin reaction and is unable to eat or drink. Which action would be the most appropriate for the school nurse to take?

Administer subcutaneous glucagon. Explanation: If the child having an insulin reaction cannot take a sugar source orally, glucagon should be administered subcutaneously to bring about a prompt increase in the blood glucose level. This treatment prevents the long delay while waiting for a physician to administer IV glucose or for an ambulance to reach the child

A nurse in the emergency department is examining an 18-month-old with lip edema, urticaria, stridor, and tachycardia. The nurse immediately suspects: a) anaphylaxis. b) systemic lupus erythematosus. c) severe polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis. d) severe combined immunodeficiency.

Anaphylaxis. Explanation: Lip edema, urticaria, stridor, and tachycardia are common clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis.

11. A child weighing 51 lb (23.1 kg) requires defibrillation. How many joules would the nurse expect to give initially? A) 46 B) 92 C) 102 D) 204

Ans: A Feedback: The initial amount of energy or joules for defibrillation is 2 joules/kg. The child weighs 51 lb, which is 23 kg, so 46 joules would be used.

14. What would lead the nurse to suspect that a 5-year-old child is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia? A) Heart rate 160 beats per minute B) Flattened P waves C) Normal QRS complex D) History of fever

Ans: B Feedback: Supraventricular tachycardia is manifested by flattened P waves, a heart rate greater than 180 beats per minute, a narrow QRS complex, and usually no significant history. A heart rate of 160 beats per minute, normal QRS complex, and history of fever, fluid loss, hypoxia, pain, or fear would suggest sinus tachycardia.

16. After teaching a group of nursing students about shock in children, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which type of shock as most common? A) Septic B) Cardiogenic C) Hypovolemic D) Distributive

Ans: C Feedback: Although septic, cardiogenic, hypovolemic, and distributive shock can occur in children, hypovolemic shock is the most common type of shock that occurs in children.

27. A nurse determines that a child is exhibiting compensated supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). What action would be attempted first? A) Adenosine B) Synchronized cardioversion C) Vagal maneuvers D) Amiodarone

Ans: C Feedback: With compensated supraventricular tachycardia, vagal maneuvers are attempted first and then adenosine is used if vagal maneuvers fail. Adenosine or synchronized cardioversion is used to treat uncompensated SVT; synchronized cardioversion and IV amiodarone are used to treat ventricular tachycardia.

1. The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old girl who was injured in a bicycle accident. Which question would be most important for the nurse to ask during the health history? A) "Has she been diagnosed with any chronic disorders?" B) "Is your daughter currently taking any medications?" C) "Is she allergic to any medications or drugs?" D) "Tell me how the bicycle accident happened."

Ans: D Feedback: The priority inquiry is to determine the nature of the emergency so that appropriate interventions may be initiated. This will also provide direction for obtaining more in-depth information as time permits. Information about allergic reactions to drugs, medications being taken, and chronic disorders that may affect treatment will be gathered next.

The nurse is preparing to send a child with cancer for a radiation treatment. Which medication should the nurse provide to premedicate the child for this procedure? -Antineoplastic -Analgesic -Antiemetic -Antipyretic

Antiemetic Radiation has systemic effects. Radiation sickness that includes nausea and vomiting is the most frequently encountered systemic effect. It also occurs to some extent as a result of the release of toxic substances from destroyed tumor cells. To counteract this, a child is prescribed an antiemetic before each procedure. The child does not need an analgesic, antipyretic, or antineoplastic agent prior to receiving a radiation treatment.

A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a child with hemophilia and his parents. Which information would the nurse be least likely to include to manage a bleeding episode? -Apply heat to the site of bleeding. -Administer factor VIII replacement. -Apply direct pressure to the area. -Elevate the injured area such as a leg or arm.

Apply heat to the site of bleeding. Ice or cold compresses, not heat, would be applied to the site of bleeding. Direct pressure is applied until the bleeding stops. The injured part is elevated unless elevating would contribute to further injury. Factor VIII replacement is given to replace the missing clotting factor.

The parents of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis bring the child to the emergency department because the child is very drowsy and breathing heavily. The child also has been vomiting and complaining of ringing in her ears. The nurse suspects that the child is experiencing a toxic reaction to one of her medications. Which medication would the nurse suspect? a) Etanercept b) Aspirin c) Corticosteroid d) Methotrexate

Aspirin Explanation: The child is exhibiting signs and symptoms of aspirin toxicity. Corticosteroids would lead to signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome as well as masking the signs of infection. Methotrexate would lead to changes in the white blood cell count, placing the child at risk for infection. Etanercept, like methotrexate, places the child at risk for infection. (less)

The nurse is caring for a child who is beginning to show signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis. Which intervention would be the priority? a) Obtaining brief history of allergen exposure b) Assessing patency of the airway c) Administering IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d) Administering corticosteroids

Assessing patency of the airway Explanation: The priority nursing intervention is to assess patency of the airway and breathing. If the child is stable, the next step would be to obtain a brief history of allergen exposure. If epinephrine is required, it would be administered prior to diphenhydramine. Corticosteroids would be used to prevent late-onset reactions.

The nurse is providing preoperative care for a 7-year-old boy with a brain tumor and his parents. Which intervention is priority? -Educating the child and parents about shunts -Providing a tour of the intensive care unit -Having the child talk to another child who has had this surgery -Assessing the child's level of consciousness

Assessing the child's level of consciousness The priority intervention is to monitor for increases in intracranial pressure because brain tumors may block cerebral fluid flow or cause edema in the brain. A change in the level of consciousness is just one of several subtle changes that can occur indicating a change in intracranial pressure. Lower priority interventions include providing a tour of the ICU to prepare the child and parents for after the surgery, and educating the child and parents about shunts.

The nurse is providing teaching for the parents of a child with a latex allergy. The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following foods? a) Blueberries b) Pomegranate c) Banana d) Pumpkin

Banana Explanation: The nurse should instruct children and their families to avoid foods with a known cross-reactivity to latex, such as bananas.

A group of nursing students are studying information about childhood cancers in preparation for a class examination. They are reviewing how childhood cancers differ from adult cancers. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify what location as an unlikely site for childhood cancer? -Kidney -Bladder -Brain -Blood

Bladder The most common sites for childhood cancer include the blood, lymph, brain, bone, kidney, and muscle. Bladder is a common site for adult cancer.

The nurse is planning care for a school-aged child recovering from being hit by a motor vehicle while riding a bicycle. For what will the nurse assess to determine the onset of disseminated intravascular coagulation in this child? -Bleeding from intravenous sites -Sudden onset of knee pain -Blurred vision -Nausea and vomiting

Bleeding from intravenous sites Disseminated intravascular coagulation is an acquired disorder of blood clotting that results from excessive trauma. The child begins to develop petechiae or have uncontrolled bleeding from puncture sites from injections or intravenous therapy. Blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, and a sudden onset of knee pain are not manifestations associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation.

In understanding the development of the musculoskeletal system, the nurse recognizes that what is implanted in a gel-like substance during fetal life?

Cartilage Explanation: During fetal life, tissue called cartilage, which is a type of connective tissue consisting of cells implanted in a gel-like substance, gradually calcifies and becomes bone.

A pediatric client has just been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. What would the nurse do first?

Check blood glucose levels. Explanation: The nurse must check the insulin level before it can be administered. Once a need is established, then insulin administration becomes the priority intervention. Stress management, glucose checks, and nutritional consultation can all be implemented once therapy with insulin begins.

The nurse is assessing a 10-year-old girl with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. What information would lead the nurse to suspect that the cancer has infiltrated the central nervous system? -Palpation of abdomen reveals enlarged liver and spleen -Child reports of facial palsy and vision problems -Noting adventitious breath sounds during auscultation -Observing petechiae, purpura, or unusual bruising

Child reports of facial palsy and vision problems The presence of facial palsy and vision problems indicates that the central nervous system has been infiltrated by leukemia cells. The petechiae, purpura, or unusual bruising results from decreased platelet levels and may be present regardless of metastasis. Adventitious breath sounds may indicate pneumonia, and may be present whether the disease has metastasized or not. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly result from infection, not metastasis.

The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old boy in Buck traction for a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). What information would the nurse include when completing a neurovascular assessment of the affected leg? Select all that apply.

Color Sensation Pulse Capillary refill Explanation: Reference: Kyle, T., & Carman, S., Essentials of Pediatric Nursing, 4th ed., Philadelphia, Wolters Kluwer, 2021, Chapter 22: Nursing Care of the Child With an Alteration in Mobility/Neuromuscular or Musculoskeletal Disorder, Assisting With Cast Application, p. 755.

Assessment of a newborn reveals that the child has hypothyroidism. How does the nurse document this finding?

Congenital hypothyroidism

The nurse knows that which condition is caused by excessive levels of circulating cortisol?

Cushing syndrome

A woman in her first trimester of pregnancy has just been diagnosed with acquired hypothyroidism. The nurse is alarmed because this condition can lead to which pregnancy complication?

Decreased cognitive development of the fetus Explanation: If acquired hypothyroidism exists in a woman during pregnancy, her infant can be born intellectually disabled, because there was not enough iodine present for fetal growth. It is important, therefore, that girls with this syndrome be identified before they reach childbearing age.

A child is prescribed glargine insulin. What information would the nurse include when teaching the child and parents about this insulin?

Do not mix this insulin with other insulins.

Which of the following would best identify foods to which a child is allergic? a) Hyposensitivity testing b) Elimination diet c) Corticosteroid challenge testing d) Complete dietary protein restriction

Elimination diet Explanation: Elimination diets involve adding foods slowly to a child's diet so foods to which the child is allergic can be identified.

The nurse is assessing a 1-month-old girl who, according to the mother, doesn't eat well. Which assessment suggests the child has congenital hypothyroidism?

Enlarged tongue

Which of the following drugs should be available for emergency treatment of a child who goes into anaphylactic shock? a) Vistaril b) Morphine sulfate c) Meperidine d) Epinephrine

Epinephrine Explanation: Epinephrine (adrenaline) reverses the effects of histamine (severe bronchospasm and edema).

A 9-year-old girl has just been diagnosed with Graves disease. Which symptom should the nurse expect in this child? Select all that apply.

Exophthalmos (protruding eyes) Moist skin Nervousness Increased basal metabolic rate

The first time a child with hypersensitivity to stinging insects is stung, the reaction is usually anaphylactic shock and, if not immediately treated, death. a) True b) False

False Explanation: The first time a child is stung, the total reaction is probably only local edema at the site. The second time, generalized urticaria, pruritus, and edema may develop. The third time, symptoms may progress to wheezing and dyspnea. The next time, the reaction could be so severe that shock and death result. The progression of symptoms may be slower than this (involving 10 to 12 stings) if the stings occur far apart; if the stings are received close together (1 or 2 days apart, or even 3 weeks apart), the progression to fatal symptoms may occur as early as the second or third exposure

A high-school football player has been diagnosed as having osteosarcoma of the femur. The parents are angry because they told the adolescent not to play football. Which health teaching points would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the adolsecent and parents? -You can expect some discoloration of the leg following chemotherapy. -Osteosarcoma often follows trauma, such as a football injury. -Football injuries do not contribute to the development of a tumor. -Tumor growth is related to your dislike of milk.

Football injuries do not contribute to the development of a tumor. Osteosarcoma is the most malignant form of bone cancer. It is caused from the embryonic mecenchymal tiisue that forms in the bones. A football injury may predispose more scrutiny of a lesion but it will not be the cause of the cancer, nor will the dislike of milk. Osteosarcoma may be treated with chemotherapy and radiation. It may also involve an amputation. The parents who state they are angry at their adolescent for playing football is more likely projecting their fears of the diagnosis and the future for their adolescent.

A preschooler who received chemotherapy in the pediatric oncology outpatient department 1 week ago now has a temperature of 101.5°F (38.6°C). Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse? -Ask whether any family members or other close associates are ill. -Tell the parent to administer acetaminophen every 4 hours until the fever dissipates. -Instruct the parent to immediately obtain and give the antibiotic that the oncologist will order. -Have the parent bring the child to the pediatric oncology clinic as soon as possible.

Have the parent bring the child to the pediatric oncology clinic as soon as possible. The preschooler is considered immune suppressed following recent chemotherapy. A fever can mean sepsis, which would require immediate investigation of blood and other body fluids to identify the organism, plus prompt treatment with an IV antibiotic. This can be accomplished only by seeing the pediatric oncologist and is likely to result in hospitalization.

Through which mechanism is Duchenne muscular dystrophy acquired?

Heredity Explanation: Muscular dystrophy is hereditary and acquired through a recessive sex-linked trait. Therefore, it isn't caused by viral, autoimmune, or environmental factors.

A child is diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance would the nurse most likely expect to address?

Hypocalcemia

A nursing instructor is preparing a teaching plan for a class about the immune response. When discussing the immune response, which of the following would the instructor describe as being primarily involved in a secondary immune response? a) IgE b) IgG c) IgA d) IgM

IgG Explanation: Only IgM and IgG are involved in primary and secondary immune responses. The main immunoglobulin produced in a secondary response is IgG. With a primary immune response, IgM antibodies peak at 14 days after an initial exposure to an antigen and then decline. This is followed by the production of IgG, which remains high for several weeks. IgE antibodies are involved in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction

A child is scheduled to undergo hyposensitization. The nurse understands that this therapy attempts to achieve which of the following? a) Blockage of histamine release b) An increased level of IgE c) Reduction in allergen exposure d) Increased concentration of IgG

Increased concentration of IgG Explanation: Hyposensitization works by increasing the plasma concentration of IgG antibodies. IgG acts to prevent or block IgE antibodies from coming into contact with the allergen. IgE levels are not increased. Antihistamines block the release of histamine. Environmental control helps to reduce exposure to potential allergens

The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency. Which therapy would you anticipate will be prescribed for the child?

Injections of GH

The caregivers of a child just diagnosed with diabetes express concern that they won't remember the different signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. As a result, they are afraid they won't handle an emergency correctly. What is the best initial response by the nurse to help ensure the child's safety?

Instruct them to treat the reaction as if it's hypoglycemia, which is more likely.

Which characteristic is true of cerebral palsy?

It appears at birth or during the first 2 years of life.

Nursing students are reviewing information about childhood cancers. They demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify what as the most frequent type? -Brain stem tumor -Non-Hodgkin lymphoma- -Wilms tumor -Leukemia

Leukemia Although Wilms tumor, brain stem tumors, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma can occur in children, the most frequent type of cancer in children is leukemia.

The nurse is preparing the care plan regarding medication therapy for a client with hyperpituitarism. The child is receiving Decadron (dexamethasone). What interventions should the nurse add to the care plan? Select all that apply.

Monitor client for edema Monitor client for high glucose levels Do not abruptly stop administering medication

When providing care for a child immediately after a bone marrow aspiration, which nursing action is priority? -Educate the family on proper handwashing. -Allow the child to play with a doll and syringe. -Evaluate pain and administer medication. -Monitor the site dressing and vital signs.

Monitor the site dressing and vital signs. Monitoring vital signs and the dressing for signs of bleeding is a priority after bone marrow aspiration. Although providing pain medication, educating on handwashing, and allowing for therapeutic play are all important, these should only be performed after first stabilizing the child.

The nurse is planning care for a child with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Which client education should be included? -To use mainly cold water to wash -What foods are high in folic acid -Not to pick or irritate the nose -To apply a soothing cream to lesions

Not to pick or irritate the nose Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) occurs as an immune reponse following a viral infection. It produces antiplatelet antibodies which destroy platelets. This leads to the classic symptoms of petechaie, purpura, and excessive bruising. Without adequate platelets, children bleed easily from lesions. If the child "picks" the nose, an area could be opened and bleeding could occur. Folic acid will have no effect on the disease process. The lesions are not itchy and are open or draining, so cold water washing and soothing lotions are not required.

A 7-year-old child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus is at school reporting a headache and dizziness. The school nurse notices sweat on the child's face. What should the nurse do first?

Offer the child 8 ounces of juice or soda These are symptoms of hypoglycemia. Glucagon is given only for severe hypoglycemia. Juice or soda is the best choice to get the child an immediate source of carbohydrates. Insulin or water would be given for hyperglycemia.

Type 1 diabetes will have:

Polyuria Polydipsia Polyphagia Abrupt Weight loss

The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a 9-month-old infant with a suspected neuromuscular disorder. Which finding would warrant further evaluation?

Presence of Moro reflex Explanation: The persistence of a primitive reflex in a 9-month-old would warrant further evaluation. Symmetrical spontaneous movement and absence of the Moro and tonic neck reflex are expected in a normally developing 9-month-old child.

What is the priority action the nurse should take when caring for a child newly diagnosed with Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)? -Obtain a catheterized urine specimen. -Protect the abdomen from manipulation. -Control acute pain. -Assess for constipation.

Protect the abdomen from manipulation. Manipulation can release malignant cells into the abdominal cavity. Constipation may be a problem following surgical intervention. Pain is uncommon; obtaining a urine specimen is not a priority.

The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old girl with ambiguous genitalia. Which finding suggests congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

Pubic hair and hirsutism

The nurse is planning care for a school-age child diagnosed with growth hormone deficiency. Which diagnosis should the nurse select to help the child with this health problem?

Risk for situational low self-esteem related to short stature

The nurse is instructing a group of women of childbearing age about HIV during pregnancy. Which of the following should be a priority recommendation in this setting? a) Proper nutrition b) Screening for HIV c) Prophylactic treatment for HIV d) Screening for STIs

Screening for HIV Explanation: No screening mandate has been put forth for HIV, but all pregnant women should be encouraged to undergo this test. Prophylactic treatment would be initiated only once the woman has been screened. Screening for STIs and ensuring proper nutrition are also part of health promotion for women in this age group, but they are of lower priority than identifying HIV-positive individuals

The nurse is caring for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). There is involvement of five or more small joints and it is affecting the body symmetrically. This tells the nurse which of the following? a) The child has polyarticular JIA b) The child has pauciarticular JIA c) The child is at risk for anaphylaxis d) The child has systemic JIA

The child has polyarticular JIA Explanation: Polyarticular JIA is defined by the involvement of five or more joints, frequently the small joints, and affects the body symmetrically. Pauciarticular JIAs is defined by the involvement of four or fewer joints. Systemic JIA presents with fever and rash in addition to join involvement at the time of diagnosis. The child with JIA is not at greater risk for anaphylaxis.

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD). What is the most important nursing intervention for the nurse to include in working with this child and his caregivers?

The nurse should help the caregivers to understand and help the child to effectively use the corrective devices. Explanation: Nursing care focuses on helping the child and caregivers to manage the corrective device and on the importance of compliance to promote healing and to avoid long-term disability.

To establish whether the problem is truly a milk allergy in a child who is suspected of having this condition, milk should be reintroduced every 6 to 12 months. a) True b) False

True Explanation: To establish whether the problem is truly a milk allergy, milk should be reintroduced every 6 to 12 months. If the problem is a true milk allergy, signs will recur

A nurse should recognize that which laboratory result would be most consistent with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

a fasting blood glucose greater than 126 mg/dl

When caring for a child experiencing anaphylactic shock, the most important nursing action would be to a) counteract hypertension. b) enhance the action of histamine. c) facilitate breathing. d) reverse sympathetic nervous system responses.

facilitate breathing. Explanation: The sudden release of histamine with an allergic reaction can cause severe bronchospasm, closing the airway.

A pediatric client has just been diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What is the primary consideration for this client?

fluid replacement

A young patient comes to the clinic with multiple symptoms of an infection. The nurse realizes that the patient has been seen in the clinic every month for the last 6 months for the same problems. Which body system does the nurse suspect is malfunctioning in this patient? a) gastrointestinal b) cardiovascular c) respiratory d) immune

immune Explanation: Disorders of the immune system include deficiencies of immune substances and function that affect the body's ability to ward off infection.

The nurse is caring for a child with rickets. Which diagnostic test result would the nurse expect to find in the child's medical record?

low serum calcium levels

The nursing diagnosis you anticipate that would best apply to a child with allergic rhinitis is a) risk for infection related to blocked eustachian tubes. b) disturbed self-esteem related to inherited tendency for illness. c) pain related to sinus edema and headache. d) ineffective tissue perfusion related to frequent nosebleeds.

pain related to sinus edema and headache. Correct Explanation: Many children with allergic rhinitis develop sinus headaches from edema of the upper airway

An adolescent wears a body brace for scoliosis. Which client education should the nurse provide?

to continue with age-appropriate activities

Which of the following treatments are common to both systemic lupus erythematosus and juvenile idiopathic arthritis? Select all that apply. a) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatories b) Corticosteroids c) Antipyretics d) Antirheumatics e) Antimalarial

• Corticosteroids • Nonsteroidal antiinflammatories Explanation: Antimalarials are specific to SLE; antirheumatics are specific to JIA. Antipyretics are not typically used for either disorder

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of new parents and is planning to discuss nutrition during the first year. As part of the presentation, the nurse is planning to address foods that should be avoided to reduce the risk of possible food allergies. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include? Select all that apply.

• Eggs • Peanuts • Shrimp Explanation: Foods that should be avoided in children younger than 1 year of age include: cow's milk, eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, sesame seeds, kiwi fruit, and fish and shellfish (ie, shrimp). Carrots, potatoes, and oranges are not considered problematic. (less)

Nursing students are reviewing the events involved in humoral immunity. They demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as occurring with complement activation? Select all that apply. a) Smooth muscle relaxation b) Decreased vascular permeability c) Lysis of the foreign antigen d) Phagocytosis e) Chemotaxis

• Lysis of the foreign antigen • Chemotaxis • Phagocytosis Explanation: Complement activation results in increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and lysis of the foreign antigen

The nursing is caring for a child recently admitted with an endocrine disorder. The child's mother asks the nurse what the term metabolism means. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Metabolism refers to all physical and chemical reactions occurring in the body's cells that are necessary to sustain life."

A 15-year-old adolescent is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound to evaluate for a possible ovarian cyst. Which instruction by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"Drink plenty of fluids because you need to have a full bladder." Explanation: A full bladder is needed for an ultrasound of the pelvic region. The client needs to remain still for a computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging scan, not an ultrasound. Water is withheld during a water deprivation test used to detect diabetes insipidus. Limiting stress and physical activity for 30 minutes before the test is required for the growth hormone stimulation test.

Which results would indicate to the nurse the possibility that a neonate has congenital hypothyroidism?

Low T4 level and high TSH level Screening results that show a low T4 level and a high TSH level indicate congenital hypothyroidism and the need for further tests to determine the cause of the disease.

A group of students are reviewing information about the skeletal development in children. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify that ossification is complete by what age?

adolescence

A 5 year old is hospitalized after an asthma attack at school. The child tells the nurse that the janitor had been cleaning in the classroom prior to the attack and that a lot of dust was in the air. The dust that likely caused the attack is known as what? a) allergen b) macrophage c) immunogen d) antigen

allergen Explanation: Mediating substances that are released and cause tissue injury and allergic symptoms are called allergens. An antigen is any foreign substance capable of stimulating an immune response. An antigen that can be readily destroyed by an immune response is called an immunogen. Macrophages are mature white blood cells.

A nursing student correctly identifies the inability to distinguish self from nonself, causing the immune system to carry out immune responses against normal cells, as which of the following? a) autoimmunity b) allergen c) delayed hypersensitivity d) immunity

autoimmunity Explanation: Autoimmunity results from an inability to distinguish self from nonself, causing the immune system to carry out immune responses against normal cells and tissue. Delayed hypersensitivity is when T-lymphocyte activity occurs without an accompanying humoral response. Immunity is the ability to destroy like antigens. An allergen is any mediating substance that when released causes tissue injury and allergic symptoms.

A 9-year-old male is coming into the office to be seen for possible precocious puberty. The nurse would expect that the lab will perform which test?

hCG test Laboratory testing may include different blood tests, depending on the sex of the client. In boys, the healthcare prescriber may order a serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test, which if elevated could indicate an hCG-secreting tumor. In girls, an elevated cortisol or ACTH level with no signs of Cushing syndrome (CS) could be caused by glucocorticoid resistance, evidenced by signs of precocious puberty. IGF-1 levels are assessed for growth hormone deficiency, not precocious puberty. FSH is measured to assess delayed puberty.

The nurse is assessing a child for signs of an endocrine disorder. Which statement by the parent would alert the nurse to further assess the child for an endocrine disorder?

have all of a sudden noticed my child is always thirsty...even at night." Explanation: Polydipsia (extreme thirst) is a sign of diabetes mellitus, an endocrine disorder. The other statements by the parent would indicate musculoskeletal, vision, or integumentary disorders. The nurse would further assess for polyuria, weight loss and polyphagia.

The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) for a child who has not had an IVIG infusion in over 10 weeks. The nurse knows to first: a) obtain baseline physical assessment. b) begin infusion slowly increasing to prescribed rate. c) assess for adverse reaction. d) premedicate with acetaminophen or diphenhydramine.

premedicate with acetaminophen or diphenhydramine. Explanation: Premedication with diphenhydramine or acetaminophen may be indicted in children who have never received intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), have not had an infusion in over 8 weeks, have had a recent bacterial infection, or have history of serious infusion-related adverse reactions. The nurse should first premedicate, and then obtain a baseline physical assessment. Once the infusion begins, the nurse should continually assess for adverse reaction

The parents of a child who was diagnosed with diabetes insipidus ask the nurse, "How does this disorder occur?" When responding to the parents, the nurse integrates knowledge that a deficiency of which hormone is involved?

Antidiuretic hormone Diabetes insipidus results from a deficiency in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This hormone, also known as vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland. Hypopituitarism or dwarfism involves a growth hormone deficiency. Diabetes mellitus involves a disruption in insulin secretion. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that if deficient leads to hypothyroidism.

The nurse is administering the prescribed intravenous immunoglobulin to a 10-year-old boy. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to do? a) Administer with food. b) Have epinephrine available. c) Monitor urine for glucose. d) Monitor for signs of Cushing syndrome.

Have epinephrine available. Explanation: The nurse should have epinephrine available during the infusion in case of an adverse reaction. Monitoring urine for glucose would be appropriate when corticosteroids are being given. Intravenous immunoglobulin does not need to be administered with food because it is being given as an intravenous infusion. Monitoring for signs of Cushing syndrome would be appropriate when corticosteroids are given

A woman in her fourth month of pregnancy has recently learned that her sexual partner is HIV positive. She agrees to be tested for the virus but asks the nurse what early symptoms she should be looking for in herself. Which of the following should the nurse mention to the client? a) Mild, flu-like symptoms b) Genital warts c) Skin rash d) Vaginal discharge

Mild, flu-like symptoms Explanation: Unlike other sexually transmitted infections, HIV infection rarely begins with reproductive tract lesions. Instead, early symptoms are more subtle and often difficult to differentiate from those of other diseases or even from the symptoms of early pregnancy such as fatigue, anemia, diarrhea, and weight loss. The initial invasion of the virus may be accompanied by mild, flulike symptoms.

The nurse is explaining patterns of incidence and transmission of HIV to a group of adolescent girls. She explains that the risks for this population are much higher because of the possibility of both vertical and horizontal transmission. Horizontal transmission refers to transmission of the disease during which of the following? a) Pregnancy b) The birthing process c) Feeding with breast milk d) Sexual contac

Sexual contact Explanation: Horizontal transmission refers to person-to-person transfer of the virus. Transmission by feeding with breast milk, birthing, and pregnancy are all examples of vertical transmission

In caring for a child in traction, which intervention is the highest priority for the nurse?

The nurse should monitor for decreased circulation every 4 hours. Explanation: Any child in traction must be carefully monitored to detect any signs of decreased circulation or neurovascular complications. Cleaning pin sites is appropriate for a child in skeletal traction to reduce the risk of infection. Providing age-appropriate activities and monitoring intake and output are important interventions for any ill child but would not be the highest priority interventions for the child in traction.

The nurse is administering meperidine as ordered for pain management for a 10-year-old boy in sickle cell crisis. The nurse would be alert for: -priapism. -leg ulcers. -behavioral addiction. -seizures.

seizures. Repeated use of meperidine for pain management during sickle cell crisis increases the risk of seizures when used in children with sickle cell anemia. Behavioral addiction is rarely a concern in the child with sickle cell anemia if the narcotic is used for the alleviation of severe pain. Priapism is a complication of sickle cell anemia unrelated to meperidine administration. Leg ulcers are a complication of sickle cell anemia unrelated to meperidine administration.

A nurse is caring for an 11-year-old with an Ilizarov fixator and is providing teaching regarding pin care. The nurse should provide which instruction?

"Cleansing by showering should be sufficient." Explanation: The Ilizarov fixator uses wires that are thinner than ordinary pins, so simply cleansing by showering is usually sufficient to keep the pin site clean.

24. A group of students are working on a presentation for a local health fair about safety for children. When developing this presentation, the students would address what cause as the most common in pediatric injury? A) Sports B) Firearm use C) Falls D) Automobile accidents

Ans: C Feedback: Falls are the most common cause of pediatric injury. Automobile accidents continue to cause deaths of about five children daily. Childhood trauma also results from pedestrian accidents, sporting and bicycle injuries, and firearm use.

17. A child who weighs 53 lb is receiving fluid volume replacement as part of the treatment for shock. The nurse is evaluating the child's hourly urinary output to determine if the child's condition is improving. Which output would the nurse interpret as most indicative of improvement? A) 12 mL B) 15 mL C) 22 mL D) 30 mL

Ans: D Feedback: Improved urinary output of 1 to 2 mL/kg/hour is the goal. The child weighs 53 pounds, which is equivalent to 24 kg. Thus, improvement in this child would be noted by an hourly urinary output between 24 and 48 mL/hour.

The nurse is working with a group of caregivers of school-aged children discussing fractures. The nurse explains that if the fragments of fractured bone are separated, the fracture is said to be:

Complete Explanation: If the fragments of fractured bone are separated, the fracture is said to be complete. If fragments remain partially joined, the fracture is termed incomplete. Greenstick fractures are one kind of incomplete fracture, caused by incomplete ossification, common in children. Spiral fractures twist around the bone.

A child with primary immune deficiency is about to receive an infusion of IVIG. Which of the following is the most appropriate premedication to minimize the reaction? a) Ibuprofen b) Solu-Medrol c) Ketorolac d) Diphenhydramine

Diphenhydramine Explanation: Diphenhydramine and acetaminophen are the most commonly used medications for this purpose. Nonsteroidals and steroids typically are not used for this indication.

A child has been prescribed Stimate (desmopressin) acetate for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The client and the parents ask the nurse how this drug works. What is the correct response by the nurse?

Stimate (desmopressin acetate) is a synthetic antidiuretic hormone that will slow down your urine output

An infant on the pediatric floor has diabetes insipidus. Which assessment data are important for the nurse to monitor while the infant is on strict fluid precautions?

Urine output

An infant is placed in Bryant traction. For Bryant traction to be effective, the infant must be positioned on the:

back with hips up off the bed.

A child and parents are being seen in the office after discharge from the hospital. The child was newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. When talking with the child and parents, which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"Young people can usually be managed with an oral agent, meal planning, and exercise." Explanation: Treating type 2 diabetes in children may require insulin at the outset if the child is acidotic and acutely ill. More commonly, the child can be managed initially with oral agents, meal planning, and increasing activity. Telling the child that she is lucky she did not have to learn how to give a shot might scare her, so it will inhibit her from seeking future health care. Additionally, insulin may be used if good control is not achieved. The condition will not rectify itself if all orders are followed. A weight-loss program might need to be implemented but that is not always the case.

23. A child is brought to the emergency department with a suspected poisoning. What treatment would the nurse least likely expect to be used? A) Gastric lavage B) Syrup of ipecac C) Activated charcoal D) Whole bowel irrigation

Ans: B Feedback: Ipecac is rarely used in the health care setting to induce vomiting and is no longer recommended for use in the home setting. Gastric lavage, administration of activated charcoal (binds with the chemical substance in the bowel), or whole bowel irrigation with polyethylene glycol electrolyte solutions may be used.

The nurse knows that disorders of the pituitary gland depend on the location of the physiologic abnormality. Caring for a child who has issues with the anterior pituitary, the nurse would expect the child to have issues with which hormone?

Growth hormone

An infant born to a mother who was HIV positive was tested at birth and found to be negative. The infant is scheduled for follow up testing. Which test would the nurse expect to be performed? a) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test b) CD4 counts c) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) d) Platelet count

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test Explanation: The PCR is the preferred test to determine HIV infection in infants over 1 month of age. The ELISA is positive in infants of HIV-infected mothers because of transplacentally received antibodies. These antibodies may persist and remain detectable up to 24 months of age, making the ELISA test less accurate at detecting HIV infection in infants and toddlers than the PCR. The platelet count would provide no information about the infant's HIV status. CD4 counts would be used to monitor HIV infection but not to confirm whether the infant is positive or negative for the virus

A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. The nurse suspects the client's dose of medication is inadequate when assessing which signs and/or symptoms? Select all that apply.

Tachycardia Diarrhea Fever Irritability

The young boy has fractured his left leg and has had a cast applied. The nurse educates the boy and his parents prior to discharge from the hospital. The parents should call the physician when which incidents occur? Select all that apply.

The parents should call the physician when the following things occur: The child has a temperature greater than 101.5F° (38.7° C) for more than 24 hours, there is drainage from the casted site, the site distal to the casted extremity is cyanotic, or severe edema is present.

A child presents to the primary care setting with enuresis, nocturia, increased hunger, weight loss, and increased thirst. What does the nurse suspect?

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

The nurse is explaining to a parent some of the basic aspects of the immune system and its functions. She informs them that B cells, also known as _________ cells, will attack __________ antigens. a) humoral; viral b) humoral; bacterial c) killer; bacterial d) killer; viral

humoral; bacterial Explanation: B cells are also called humoral cells and typically attack bacterial organisms. Another term for T cells is killer cells, and they most commonly attack viral organisms.

The mother of a child with a possible food allergy asks the nurse for information about how to test for it. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) "We can inject an extract of the food under the skin and see if there is a reaction." b) "Skin testing using a patch is probably the easiest method." c) "The best way is to eliminate the food from the diet and then look for improvement." d) "We can check the level of antibodies in the blood to confirm the allergy.

"The best way is to eliminate the food from the diet and then look for improvement." Explanation: Food allergies are best identified by eliminating a suspected food from the diet and observing whether symptoms improve. After a time of improvement, the food is reintroduced and if the child is allergic to the food, the symptoms will return. Skin testing with either a patch or intracutaneous injection is ineffective for determining food allergies. Serum antibody levels can be measured but are not specific in helping to determine food allergies

26. A child is undergoing rapid sequence intubation and is receiving atropine. The nurse understands that this agent is used to: A) lessen the vagal effects of intubation. B) reduce intracranial pressure. C) induce amnesia. D) provide short-term paralysis.

Ans: A Feedback: Atropine is used to decrease respiratory secretions and mitigate the vagal effects of intubation. Thiopental reduces intracranial pressure and oxygen demand. Midazolam causes amnesia. Rocuronium or other neuromuscular blocking agents provide short-term paralysis during intubation.

22. The nurse is providing care to a child experiencing shock. Which intravenous solution would the nurse expect to administer? A) Ringer lactate B) Dextrose 5% and water C) Dextrose 5% and normal saline D) Dextrose 10% and water

Ans: A Feedback: Isotonic fluids, such as Ringer lactate or normal saline, are the fluids of choice given rapidly to children experiencing shock. Dextrose solutions are contraindicated in shock because of the risk of complications such as osmotic diuresis, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, and worsening of ischemic brain injury

13. The nurse is gathering the necessary equipment for tracheal intubation for a child who is 2 years old. Which tracheal tube size would the nurse obtain? A) 4.5 B) 5 C) 5.5 D) 6

Ans: A Feedback: To calculate tracheal tube size, divide the child's age by 4 and add 4. For a 2-year-old child, 2 divided by 4 equals 0.5 plus 4 equals 4.5. The nurse also should have one size smaller ready.

18. A child has a tracheal tube in place and will be receiving medications via this tube. Which medications would the nurse expect to be administered in this manner? Select all that apply. A) Lidocaine B) Adenosine C) Atropine D) Dopamine E) Epinephrine F) Naloxone

Ans: A, C, E, F Feedback: Medications that may be administered via a tracheal tube include lidocaine, epinephrine, atropine, and naloxone. Adenosine is given intravenously; dopamine is given intravenously or intraosseously.

25. As part of their orientation to their pediatric clinical rotation, an instructor is teaching a group of students how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a child. Two students return demonstrate the skill using an infant manikin. What action indicates the proper technique? A) Compressing 30 times for every 2 breaths B) Placing the heel of the hand on the midsternum C) Giving 2 breaths followed by 15 compressions D) Using two hands to perform chest compressions

Ans: C Feedback: For two-person CPR on an infant, the rescuers would perform 15 compressions to 2 breaths, with two thumbs encircling the chest at the nipple line. The ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths is used for one-person CPR with an infant. The heel of the hand on the sternum at the nipple line is used for a child; two hands would be used for an older child.

Why will it be necessary for the nurse to be very supportive of parents' attempts to feed the infant with recently repaired myelomeningocele?

Assuming the usual feeding position will be difficult. Explanation: Because the repaired area will need to be protected, having to use an alternate feeding position is likely. The infant may need to be fed prone with the head turned to the side and may not be able to be held. Being able to provide food for the infant is central to parenting the child. Difficulty nurturing a child can be very stressful. Little pain will be experienced and should easily be controlled owing to loss of sensation in the area. The sucking reflex should not be affected by the myelomeningocele or its repair. Nausea and vomiting are unlikely after recovery from the anesthetic.

type 1 diabetes mellitus

Body does not have any insulin. Type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) is a disorder in which the child's body has a deficiency of insulin; children with type 1 DM cannot produce insulin. Type 2 DM is controlled through diet, medicine, and exercise. Type 2 DM can be prevented through diet and exercise, but type 1 DM cannot. Resistance to insulin is not the primary factor in type 1 DM.

Question: Place in correct order the steps in the anaphylactic response.

Exposure to allergen Rapid immune response Vasodilation Bronchoconstriction Circulatory collapse Explanation: Anaphylaxis typically is a very rapid response to exposure to an allergen. Vasodilation leads to potential circulatory collapse. Bronchospasm occurs simultaneously with other system reactions, also contributing to the life-threatening possibility.

The nurse is caring for a child with leukemia. Which nursing intervention would be the highest priority for this child? -Following guidelines for protective isolation -Providing age-appropriate activities -Grouping nursing care -Encouraging the child to share feelings

Following guidelines for protective isolation The child with leukemia is susceptible to infection, especially during chemotherapy. Infections such as meningitis, septicemia, and pneumonia are the most common causes of death. To protect the child from infectious organisms, follow standard guidelines for protective isolation. Grouping nursing care to provide rest is important, but not the highest priority. Encouraging the child to share feelings and providing age-appropriate activities are important, but psychological issues are a lower priority than physical.

The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous immunoglobulin infusion. While reconstituting the product according the manufacturer's instructions, the nurse knows to take which step for proper preparation? a) Gently roll the vial to mix the medication. b) Reconstitute the medication 2 hours prior to administration. c) Shake the vial vigorously to disperse the diluent. d) Store the reconstituted medication no longer than 4 hours in the refrigerator

Gently roll the vial to mix the medication. Explanation: The nurse knows not the shake the intravenous immunoglobulin, as this may lead to foaming and may cause the immunoglobulin protein to degrade. Reconstituted intravenous immunoglobulin can be refrigerated overnight but should be brought to room temperature prior to administration. The nurse does not need to reconstitute the medication 2 hours prior to administration

Question: The nurse instructs a school-aged child who has a bee-sting allergy and his parents on proper use of the EpiPen. What is the order of steps that should be taken if the child is bit by a bee?

Grasp the EpiPen with your fist, with black tip pointing down. Remove gray safety cap. Place EpiPen against child's thigh, injecting solution. Hold syringe in place for 10 seconds. Explanation: These are the necessary steps for injecting the EpiPen. First, make sure to hold the device correctly. Then remove the cap. Next, place the injection tip against the thigh, either directly on the skin or on the clothing. Finally, hold the syringe in place for 10 seconds to make sure the content is injected properly.

A child is brought to the clinic experiencing symptoms of nervousness, tremors, fatigue, increased heart rate and blood pressure. Based on this assessment, the nurse would suspect a diagnosis of which condition?

Graves disease Children who develop Graves disease experience nervousness, tremors, and increased heart rate and blood pressure cause by overstimulation of the thyroid gland. Cushing syndrome, hypertension, and hypothyroidism are not associated with these symptoms.

The nurse is caring for a child who has just had a plaster cast applied to the arm. The nurse is correct in performing which action with this child?

Handling the cast with open palms when moving the arm.

The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old boy who has had long-term corticosteroid therapy. Which finding, along with the use of the corticosteroids, indicates Cushing disease?

History of rapid weight gain Explanation: Cushing disease= Rapid weight gain + long term corticosteroid therapy. -Confirm with adrenal suppresion test Cushings --OR-- Growth hormone deficiency= A round child-like face Growth hormone deficiency= A high weight-to-height ratio and delayed dentition

When teaching about primary and secondary humoral responses, what should the nurse identify as the immunoglobin that is first to appear in the serum? a) IgM b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG

IgM Explanation: IgM is the first immunoglobin to appear in the serum with the primary and secondary humoral responses

The nurse will teach parents of children with myelomeningocele to maintain an environment free of what element?

Latex Explanation: A latex-free environment is important because research shows that up to 73% of children with repeated surgeries for spina bifida are sensitive to latex. Those with known sensitivity must be managed in a latex-free environment in the health care setting and in the home, in the school, and beyond. Children at risk for latex sensitivity should wear medical alert identification. The other options may present risks to individual children but are not a threat to those with spina bifida as a group.

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with low functioning parathyroid. Which is a treatment goal of a child with hypoparathyroidism?

Maintain the child's calcium level at a normal level with calcium replacement as prescribed

A mother, who is HIV positive, is distraught when she learns that her 6-month-old baby is also HIV positive. The child had undergone open heart surgery as a newborn and had received numerous blood transfusions. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is the most likely means of transmission of the disease to this child? a) Placental spread during pregnancy b) Blood transfusion products contaminated with the virus c) The mother kissing the baby on the forehead d) Breastfeeding

Placental spread during pregnancy Explanation: Although it is decreasing in incidence, transmission of HIV from mother to child by placental spread is still the most common reason for childhood HIV infection in the United States. Children with hemophilia no longer have a high incidence of the disease because blood products are now screened for the virus. HIV is not transmitted by animals or through usual casual contact, such as shaking hands or kissing, or in households, day care centers, or schools. Infection via breast milk is possible but less likely that via placental spread. (less)

Which findings should the nurse expect to assess when completing the health history of a child admitted for possible type 2 diabetes? Select all that apply.

Polyuria Polydipsia Polyphagia Gradual onset Weight gain/obesity

A nurse is providing care to a child with HIV who is prescribed therapy with a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Which of the following would the nurse expect to administer? a) Nevirapine b) Ritonavir c) Efavirenz d) Zidovudine

Zidovudine Explanation: Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Nevirapine and efavirenz are classified as nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor.

The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy and notes the presence of a Gower sign on the assessment form. What action by the child would support this assessment?

when on the floor, rising to the knees and pressing the hands against the ankles, knees, and thighs to stand A Gower sign is when children "walk up their front." When on the floor, the only way they can stand is to roll on their stomach and push themselves up to their knees. They then press their hands against their ankles, knees, and thighs. The presence of a waddling gait, difficulty climbing stairs, and a short heel cord are all present in Duchenne muscular dystrophy, but they are not the Gower sign. Meeting milestones late is also a symptom of this disorder, but it is not the Gower sign.

After teaching a class of nursing students about acquired immunodeficiency, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the students identify which of the following as a contributing factor? Select all that apply. a) Immunosuppressive drugs b) Vitamin therapy c) Minor localized infection d) Malnutrition e) Cancer

• Cancer • Malnutrition • Immunosuppressive drugs Explanation: Factors contributing to secondary (acquired) immunodeficiency include severe systemic infection, cancer, renal disease, radiation therapy, severe stress, malnutrition, immunosuppressive therapy, and aging.

The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a 4-year-old child. Which of the following would the nurse identify as potentially indicative of a primary immunodeficiency? Select all that apply. a) Recurrent deep abscess of the thigh b) Pneumonia last spring; resolved with antibiotics c) Oral thrush, persistent over the past 6 to 7 months d) Acute otitis media, one episode every 3 to 4 weeks over the past year. e) Infected laceration requiring IV antibiotic 2 months ago; healed

• Recurrent deep abscess of the thigh • Oral thrush, persistent over the past 6 to 7 months • Acute otitis media, one episode every 3 to 4 weeks over the past year. Explanation: Warning signs associated with primary immunodeficiency include eight or more episodes of acute otitis media in 1 year (one episode every 3 to 4 weeks results in at least 12 episodes in the past year), recurrent deep skin or organ abscesses, persistent oral thrush or skin candidiasis after 1 year of age. A history of infections that do not clear with IV antibiotics or two or more episodes of pneumonia in 1 year would be considered warning signs.

A nurse is conducting a physical examination of a 12-year-old girl with suspected systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). How would the nurse best interview the girl? a) "Tell me if you have noticed any new bruising or different color patterns on your skin" b) "Have you noticed any hair loss or redness on your face?" c) "Do you notice any wheezing when you breathe or a runny nose?" d) "Do you have any shoulder pain or abdominal tenderness?"

"Have you noticed any hair loss or redness on your face?" Explanation: Alopecia and the characteristic malar rash (butterfly rash) on the face are common clinical manifestations of SLE. Rhinorrhea, wheezing, and an enlarged spleen are not hallmark manifestations of SLE. Petechiae and purpura are more commonly associated with hematological disorders, not SLE

The toddler with a cancer diagnosis is seen for a well-child checkup. Which health maintenance activity will the nurse exclude? -Plotting height and weight on a growth chart -Assessing dietary intake by addressing "picky eating" and "food jags" -Administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine -Teaching the importance of taking water safety measures

Administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine Live vaccines (viral or bacterial) should not be administered to an immune suppressed child because of the risk of causing disease. The other health maintenance activities are important for the health maintenance of the toddler and should be included during the well-child visit.

30. Two nurses are driving to work and have just come upon the scene of a motor vehicle accident (MVA) involving a child being hit by a car. The nurses decide to stop and find that only the child was injured. One of the nurses begins providing care. What is the first question the other nurse should ask the witnesses of the accident? A) "Can I get your name and numbers in case someone needs to contact you later?" B) "How did the accident happen?" C) "Do you know if the children have any health history I should know about?" D) "How long ago did someone activate the EMS?"

Ans: B Feedback: The first question should be asking how the accident occurred in order to get an idea of the types of injuries the children may have sustained. All other questions can be asked after establishing this information; however, asking names and numbers of the witnesses would be the last question asked by the nurse, and would most likely be asked by someone else.

The nurse is assessing a child with spina bifida occulta. During the assessment, the parents say, "It's going to be so difficult taking care of our child. He'll never be able to walk." The nurse identifies which nursing diagnosis as the priority?

Deficient knowledge related to diagnosis and condition Explanation: The parents' statement indicates a lack of understanding about the condition. Spina bifida is a term that is often used to refer to all neural tube disorders that affect the spinal cord. This can be confusing and a cause of concern for parents. There are well-defined degrees of spinal cord involvement, and it is important for health care professionals to use the correct terminology. Spina bifida occulta is a defect of the vertebral bodies without protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges. This defect is not visible externally and in most cases has no adverse affects. In most cases, spina bifida occulta is benign and asymptomatic and produces no neurologic signs; it may be considered a normal variant. Mobility typically is not impaired with spina bifida occulta. The child is at no greater risk for injury as any other child. The parents demonstrate a lack of knowledge, not problems with coping.

The nurse is administering the prescribed intravenous immunoglobulin to a 10-year-old boy. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to do? a) Have epinephrine available. b) Administer with food. c) Monitor for signs of Cushing syndrome. d) Monitor urine for glucose.

Have epinephrine available. Explanation: The nurse should have epinephrine available during the infusion in case of an adverse reaction. Monitoring urine for glucose would be appropriate when corticosteroids are being given. Intravenous immunoglobulin does not need to be administered with food because it is being given as an intravenous infusion. Monitoring for signs of Cushing syndrome would be appropriate when corticosteroids are given.

A child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is beginning treatment with methotrexate in an attempt to eradicate the leukemic cells. Which stage of therapy is the child undergoing? -Delayed intensive-therapy stage -Sanctuary stage -Consolidation stage -Induction stage

Induction stage The induction stage is the first attempt at eradicating the leukemic cells to induce or achieve a complete remission. The next stage of therapy is the consolidation stage. Medications given during this stage are used to reduce the leukemic cell burden. The next stage of treatment is the maintenance stage. Treatment during this stage is to eliminate all the residual leukemic cells. There is another stage which methotrexate is used. The drug is a central nervous system prophylaxis. Medications during this stage are given to reduce any risk of developing central nervous system involvement from the cancer cells. The sanctuary stage and delayed intensive-therapy stages are not actual or correct stages of chemotherapy medication administration.

A 9-month-old infant with iron-deficiency anemia is given ferrous sulfate therapy. Which assessment would best help the nurse determine that the infant is actually taking it daily? -The stools will appear black. -The infant will develop diarrhea. -The infatn will be more irritable than at the last visit. -The reticulocyte count will have decreased.

The stools will appear black. Oral iron supplements are dark in color because the iron is pigmented. As a result of digestion of this pigment, the stools of an infant taking iron will be dark to black. Taking iron supplements will cause constipation, not diarrhea. After treatment with iron, the reticulocyte count should increased, not decreased. Children with iron deficiency are tired and many times irritable. With correction of the deficiency, the infant should be less irritable and have more energy.

A nurse is taking care of an infant with diabetes insipidus. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to monitor while the infant has a prescription for fluid restriction?

Urine output Explanation: An infant with the diagnosis of diabetes insipidus has decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). The infant is at risk for dehydration so monitoring urinary output is the most important intervention. The child's oral intake has been ordered. Monitoring a child who is under fluid restriction includes assessing the oral mucosa; however, urine output is the most important assessment for this patient. Vital signs are part of a basic assessment.

A 13-year-old adolescent is being treated for scoliosis with a brace. During the first follow-up appointment after the brace was initiated, which statement by the adolescent indicates the need for further instruction?

When I get home from school, I look forward to taking off my brace for a few hours before I go to bed." Scoliosis refers to the lateral curvature of the spine. There are differing types of the condition. Mild-to-moderate curvatures can be managed by a brace. The brace is worn daily for all activities other than bathing. Clients should remove the brace for only 1 hour each day. Exceeding this time with the brace off will impair the therapeutic effects of the bracing treatment. During the time the brace is off, hygiene activities such as bathing should be done. It is important to check the brace for any damage daily to prevent injury. For comfort, a lightweight t-shirt may be worn under the brace.

A child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. What treatment would the nurse expect to administer?

Regular insulin Explanation: Insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis is given intravenously. Only regular insulin can be administered by this route.

Prior to discharging an infant with congenital hypothyroidism to home with the parents, what should the nurse emphasize regarding the care that this child will need going forward?

Administration of levothyroxine indefinitely

Susie is a 3-year-old with a history of neonatal transmission of HIV and recent diagnosis of AIDS, as manifested by M. tuberculosis infection. To date, Susie has been relatively healthy with few illnesses associated with high fever; she has been developing appropriately and is at the 5th percentile for height and weight. Susie is at risk for all of the following diagnoses. Prioritize the order of urgency of these diagnoses based on the scenario provided.

Altered family coping related to new presentation of significant illness Altered comfort related to severity of new illness Inadequate adherence to medication regimen related to side effects Inadequate nutrition related to side effects of medication Delayed growth and development related to frequent infections Explanation: Because Susie has been relatively healthy since she was diagnosed with HIV, the change in her status is likely to cause changes in family coping mechanisms and dynamics that will have implications for the entire family. Next, the nurse needs to address the specific symptoms of the child. With the increased degree of illness and altered coping strategies, the child may have more difficulty with medication adherence, as well as other complications of AIDS-related illness and treatment, such as poor nutritional intake and delayed growth and development

6. The parents bring their 3-year-old son to the emergency department after he ingested some of his mother's medicine. Which assessment would be of critical importance for this child? A) Assessing mental status and skin moisture and color B) Evaluating the effectiveness of the child's breathing C) Noting the child's pulse rate and quality D) Auscultating all lung fields for signs of edema

Ans: A Feedback: In cases of poisoning, clinical manifestations vary widely depending on the medication or chemical ingested. Therefore, it is important to pay particular attention to the child's mental status, skin moisture and color, and bowel sounds. Evaluating the effectiveness of the child's breathing and noting the child's pulse rate and quality are basic to any rapid cardiopulmonary assessment. Auscultating all lung fields for signs of pulmonary edema would be critically important for a child who is a near-drowning victim.

After teaching a group of students about endocrine disorders, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify insulin deficiency, increased levels of counterregulatory hormones, and dehydration as the primary cause of which condition?

Diabetic ketoacidosis Explanation: Insulin deficiency, in association with increased levels of counterregulatory hormones (glucagon, growth hormone, cortisol, catecholamines) and dehydration, is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening form of metabolic acidosis that is a frequent complication of diabetes. Liver converts triglycerides (lipolysis) to fatty acids, which in turn change to ketone bodies. The accumulation and excretion of ketone bodies by the kidneys is called ketonuria. Glucosuria is glucose that is spilled into the urine.

A child with primary immune deficiency is about to receive an infusion of IVIG. Which of the following is the most appropriate premedication to minimize the reaction? a) Solu-Medrol b) Diphenhydramine c) Ketorolac d) Ibuprofen

Diphenhydramine Explanation: Diphenhydramine and acetaminophen are the most commonly used medications for this purpose. Nonsteroidals and steroids typically are not used for this indication.

Question: The nursing instructor is describing the events of anaphylaxis. Place the assessment findings in the order that they would occur from first to last.

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea Urticaria, angioedema Bronchospasm Hypoxia Seizures Explanation: Initially, a child may be nauseous, with vomiting and diarrhea, because of the sudden increase in gastrointestinal secretions produced by the stimulation of histamine. This is followed by urticaria and angioedema. Bronchospasm can become so severe the child becomes dyspneic and hypoxemic. Continued bronchospasm leads to hypoxia. As blood vessels dilate, the blood pressure and pulse rate fall. Seizures and death may follow as soon as 10 minutes after the allergen is introduced into the child's body.

Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse prepare for the infant who is placed prone to protect the myelomeningocele repair site?

Risk for impaired skin integrity Explanation: The skin of the infant's knees and elbows is exposed to both pressure and friction. Leakage of urine and stool makes skin cleanliness a challenge. Should voluntary movement of the legs be affected, they become more vulnerable to skin integrity problems. The neuromuscular dysfunction the infant experiences is neither peripheral nor vascular. Disorganized infant behavior does not reflect the reality of the situation, and risk for activity intolerance is not appropriate because little activity occurs.

A 12-year-old boy arrives at the emergency room experiencing nausea, vomiting, headache, and seizures. He is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Other findings include a decrease in urine production, hyponatremia, and water intoxication. Which pituitary gland disorder would be most associated with these symptoms?

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone Explanation: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a rare condition in which there is overproduction of antidiuretic hormone by the posterior pituitary gland. This results in a decrease in urine production and water intoxication. As sodium levels fall in proportion to water, the child develops hyponatremia or a lowered sodium plasma level. It can be caused by central nervous system infections such as bacterial meningitis. As the hyponatremia grows more severe, coma or seizures occur from brain edema. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria, not decreased urine production. Hyposecretion of somatotropin, or growth hormone, results in undergrowth; hypersecretion results in overgrowth.

The nurse is preparing a child for discharge following a sickle cell crisis. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? -"She loves popsicles, so I'll let her have them as a snack or for dessert." -"I bought the medication to give to her when she says she is in pain." -"She has been down, but playing in soccer camp will cheer her up." -"I put her legs up on pillows when her knees start to hurt."

"She has been down, but playing in soccer camp will cheer her up." Following a sickle cell crisis, the child should avoid extremely strenuous activities that may cause oxygen depletion. Fluids are encouraged, pain management will be needed, and the child's legs may be elevated to relieve discomfort, so these are all statements that indicate an understanding of caring for the child who has had a sickle cell crisis.

The nurse is caring for a 6-month-old boy with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. The nurse teaches the parents which of the following: a) "Don't encourage a pacifier due to possible oral malformation" b) "Do not use a sponge bath for light cleaning" c) "Don't use a tub bath for daily cleansing" d) "Do not insert anything in the rectum"

"Do not insert anything in the rectum" Explanation: Children with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome should not be given rectal suppositories or temperatures since these children are at a high risk for bleeding. Tub baths are not contraindicated. Pacifi ers are not contraindicated in Wiskott-Aldrich but should be kept as sanitary as possible to avoid oral infections.

12. A 1-month-old infant admitted to the emergency department in respiratory distress exhibits a regular pattern of breathing followed by brief periods of apnea, then tachypnea for a short time, eventually returning to a normal respiratory rate. This type of breathing is: A) hypoventilation. B) hyperventilation. C) periodic breathing D) stridor.

Ans: C Feedback: Periodic breathing is regular breathing with occasional short pauses followed by rapid breathing for a short period, then eventually resumption of a normal respiratory rate. Hypoventilation refers to a decrease in the depth and rate of respirations. Hyperventilation refers to an increased depth and rate of respirations. Stridor refers to a high-pitched, easily audible inspiratory noise.

What advice would be most appropriate for the child with a stinging-insect allergy?

Obtain a Medic-Alert bracelet so the presence of the allergy can be identified easily. Explanation: Stinging-insect allergy can lead to anaphylactic shock. Alerting health care personnel to the possibility of an insect sting is important

The nurse is concerned that a school-aged child has iron-deficiency anemia. What did the nurse assess in this client? -Craving for ice cubes -Asking many questions -Shyness -Thumb-sucking

Craving for ice cubes In school-aged children, there is an association between iron-deficiency anemia and pica or the craving for ice cubes. Iron-deficiency anemia is not associated with shyness, thumb-sucking, or inquisitive behavior.

The nurse is caring for an 11-year-old presenting with tenderness in the shoulder. He is the pitcher for his baseball team and reports shoulder pain with active internal rotation but is able to continue past the pain with full range of motion. Based on these reported symptoms, the nurse is aware that the disorder is most likely to be:

epiphysiolysis of the proximal humerus.

When evaluating parents' understanding of atopic dermatitis, which of the following statements would you want to hear them voice? a) "Flare-ups of lesions are not uncommon following therapy." b) "Hydrocortisone cream may lead to kidney disease." c) "Atopic dermatitis follows a streptococcal infection." d) "Atopic dermatitis turns to asthma later in life."

"Flare-ups of lesions are not uncommon following therapy." Explanation: Atopic dermatitis may recur when the child is re-exposed to the substance to which he or she is allergic.

To avoid anaphylactic reactions in children, which question would be most important to ask a parent before administering penicillin to her infant? a) "What do you give her to alleviate itching?" b) "Do you have a telephone to call us immediately if she develops trouble breathing?" c) "Is there any family history of allergy to penicillin?" d) "Has she ever had penicillin before?"

"Has she ever had penicillin before?" Explanation: Penicillin is a drug frequently involved in allergic reactions. The reaction occurs after the child has first been sensitized to the drug.

The nurse is admitting to an examination room a child with the diagnosis of "probable acute lymphoblastic leukemia." What will confirm this diagnosis? -Complete white blood count -History of leukemia in twin -Lethargy, bruising, and pallor -Bone marrow aspiration

Bone marrow aspiration Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy are diagnostic. An abnormal white blood count and symptoms of lethargy, bruising, and pallor only create suspicion of leukemia; a twin may or may not be affected.

Question: The nurse is observing a child demonstrate the use of an Epipen. The nurse determines that the child has performed the procedure correctly. Place the steps below in the proper sequence that was demonstrated by the child.

Grasps Epipen with black tip pointing downward Forms a fist around the Epipen Pulls off the gray safety release Jabs the Epipen firmly into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle Holds Epipen in place for 10 seconds Massages site for 10 seconds after removing Epipen Explanation: The steps to using an Epipen are as follows: Grasp the Epipen or Epipen Jr. with the black tip pointing downward, forming a fist; with the other hand, pull off the gray safety release; swing and jab the Epipen firmly into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle and hold firmly there for 10 seconds; remove the Epipen and massage the thigh for 10 seconds

The type of fracture often seen in young children is one in which there is not complete ossification of the bone, and the bone bends and just partially breaks. What type of fracture is this?

Greenstick Explanation: Greenstick fractures are one kind of incomplete fracture, caused by incomplete ossification, common in children. The bone bends and often just partially breaks. Spiral fractures are seen when the fracture goes around the bone instead of through (i.e., looks like someone twisted the bone, and can occur in skiing injuries, falls, or abuse). A complete fracture is when the bone is actually broken in two pieces. An epiphyseal fracture occurs at the epiphyseal growth plate.

Nursing students demonstrate correct understanding when they identify which immunoglobin as occurring most frequently in plasma and the major one to be synthesized during secondary response? a) IgD b) IgM c) IgG d) IgA

IgG Explanation: IgG is the most frequent antibody in plasma and is the major immunoglobin to be synthesized during the secondary response.

A 3-year-old child is hospitalized with a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia and is experiencing a pain crisis. Using the FACES scale, the nurse assesses the child's pain to be a 10 on a scale of 1 to 10. The child is receiving intravenous fluids and oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The parent is at the bedside holding the child's hand and has a concerned look. What is the nurse's priority in caring for the child? -Implement strategies to address the child's pain. -Provide diversional activities for the child. -Ask the parent if he or she has questions about the plan of care. -Contact the health care provider to meet with the parent.

Implement strategies to address the child's pain. In this case, the nurse's priority is to address the child's pain. The child is already receiving IV fluids and oxygen. That in combination with analgesia will assist in resolving the crisis. Asking the parent if he or she has questions, asking the health care provider to meet with the parent, and providing distraction for the child are all appropriate interventions, but the priority is to address the child's pain.

The nurse is caring for a child recently diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism disorder. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered?

Oral calcium Explanation: Medical management for hypoparathyroidism includes intravenous calcium gluconate for acute or severe tetany, then intramuscular or oral calcium as prescribed. IV diuretics is used in treatment of hyperparathyroidism. Oral corticosteroids and oral potassium are not used in the treatment of hypoparathyroidism.

The most accurate screening test for the presence of HIV antigen in young children is a) Western blot b) PCR c) CD4 count d) ELISA

PCR Explanation: PCR tests directly for the HIV antigen. ELISA and the Western blot test detect the presence of HIV antibodies. The CD4 count is used as a measure of disease status and progression.

The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old girl with hypothyroidism. Which information should be part of the nurse's teaching plan for the child and family?

Reporting irritability or anxiety Explanation: Side effects of hypothyroidism are restlessness, inability to sleep, or irritability. These should be reported to the physician. Educating how to recognize vitamin D toxicity is necessary for a child with hypoparathyroidism. Teaching parents how to maintain fluid intake regimens is important for a child with diabetes insipidus. Teaching the child and parents to administer methimazole with meals is necessary for hyperthyroidism.

After explaining the causes of hypothyroidism to the parents of a newly diagnosed infant, the nurse should recognize that further education is needed when the parents ask which question?

So, hypothyroidism can be treated by exposing our baby to a special light, right?" Congenital hypothyroidism can be permanent or transient and may result from a defective thyroid gland or an enzymatic defect in thyroxine synthesis. Only the last question, which refers to phototherapy for physiologic jaundice, indicates that the parents need more information.

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old boy with a fracture of the humerus. His chart indicates "fracture is partially through the physis extending into the metaphysis." The nurse identifies this as which Salter-Harris classification?

Type II Explanation: According to the Salter-Harris classification........... a type II fracture= partially through the physis extending into the metaphysis. A type I fracture is through the physis, widening it. A type IV fracture is through the metaphysis, physis, and epiphysis. A type V fracture is a crushing injury to the physis.

5. A 9-year-old girl who has fallen from a second-story window is brought to the emergency department. Which assessment would be the priority? A) Evaluating pupils for equality and reactivity B) Monitoring oxygen saturation levels C) Asking the child if she knows where she is D) Using the appropriate pain assessment scale

Ans: B Feedback: Airway is always the priority in any emergency situation. Therefore, monitoring oxygen saturation levels, part of the rapid cardiopulmonary assessment, would be performed before any of the other assessments. Evaluating pupils for equality and reactivity, asking the child if she knows where she is, and using an appropriate pain assessment scale are assessments that would follow the ABCs.

A child with primary immune deficiency is about to receive an infusion of IVIG. Which of the following is the most appropriate premedication to minimize the reaction? a) Ketorolac b) Diphenhydramine c) Ibuprofen d) Solu-Medrol

Diphenhydramine Explanation: Diphenhydramine and acetaminophen are the most commonly used medications for this purpose. Nonsteroidals and steroids typically are not used for this indication.

A newborn is found to have Di George syndrome and has misshaped ears, a small mandible, and an absent thymus. The nurse recognizes that this condition is associated with which of the following types of immunodeficiency disorders? a) B-lymphocyte deficiency b) Combined T- and B-lymphocyte deficiency c) T-lymphocyte deficiency d) Secondary immunodeficiency

T-lymphocyte deficiency Explanation: T-lymphocyte immunodeficiencies involve inadequate numbers or inadequate functioning of one or more types of T lymphocytes; this affects cell-mediated immunity and also, because of helper T-lymphocyte function, possibly humoral immunity as well. Di George syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in which there is deletion of a small piece of chromosome 22. This leads to not only a T cell defect but misshaped or low-set ears, smaller than usual mandible, absent thymus, neonatal tetany, and congenital heart disease

A 6-year-old boy has a moon-faced, stocky appearance but with thin arms and legs. His cheeks are unusually ruddy. He is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. What is the most likely cause of this condition in this child?

Tumor of the adrenal cortex Explanation: Cushing syndrome is caused by overproduction of the adrenal hormone cortisol; this usually results from increased ACTH production due to either a pituitary or adrenal cortex tumor. The peak age of occurrence is 6 or 7 years. The overproduction of cortisol results in increased glucose production; this causes fat to accumulate on the cheeks, chin, and trunk, causing a moon-faced, stocky appearance. Cortisol is catabolic, so protein wasting also occurs. This leads to muscle wasting, making the extremities appear thin in contrast to the trunk, and loss of calcium in bones (osteoporosis). Other effects include hyperpigmentation (the child's face is unusually red, especially the cheeks).

An elementary school child takes metformin three times each day. Which disorder would the school nurse expect the child to have?

Type 2 diabetes mellitus Explanation: Metformin is the common treatment to manage type 2 DM. Insulin, not oral medication, is the treatment of choice for type 1 DM. Metoclopramide is the treatment for GI reflux. Methylprednisolone is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease.

The nurse is preparing to administer the child's dose of intravenous immune globulin (IVIG). Which of the following activities by the nurse indicates the need for further education? Select all that apply. a) The nurse is prepared to give acetaminophen to the child b) The nurse is prepared to give diphenhydramine to the child c) The nurse is preparing to administer the medication ventrogluteal site as an intramuscular injection d) The nurse takes baseline vital signs and will monitor the vital signs during the infusion e) The nurse has mixed the medication with the child's intravenous antibiotic

• The nurse is preparing to administer the medication ventrogluteal site as an intramuscular injection • The nurse has mixed the medication with the child's intravenous antibiotic Explanation: IVIG should be given only intravenously and should not be given as an intramuscular injection. IVIG cannot be mixed with other medications. The nurse should closely monitor the child's vital signs during the infusion of the IVIG. The child may require an antipyretic and/or an antihistamine during infusion to help with fever and chills.

The nurse assists with the application of a full-body plaster cast to a child. The child immediately becomes diaphoretic and reports feeling hot. Which nursing intervention would be indicated?

Advise the child that this is to be expected. Explanation: Plaster becomes hot as it sets. Even with fiberglass casts, there will be a warm feeling inside the cast when it is drying. This is a normal expectation about which to educate the child before the application of the cast. If discomfort continues, the nurse should notify the health care provider. Infection would not present in this way with a cast application. A cast should not be moistened. If it does become wet, the cast should be dried with a hair dryer. There are some newer types of casts which can get wet but the nurse should know this before applying any moisture.

Food allergies have become more and more common in the last few decades. Which of the following are common food allergies of childhood? Select all that apply. a) Milk b) Eggs c) Cheerios d) Apples e) Peanuts

• Eggs • Milk • Peanuts Explanation: Allergies to eggs, peanuts, and milk are common in childhood. Cheerios are made of oats and are not known to be allergenic. Apples also are not allergenic, unlike bananas, which can cause problems for children who have latex allergies.

A school-aged child is admitted to the hospital with a vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. Which measure in the child's care care should be given priority? -Beginning active range-of-motion exercises -Seeing that the child ingests a protein-rich diet -Maintaining a fluid intravenous line -Encouraging the child to take deep breaths hourly

Maintaining a fluid intravenous line Sickle cells clump together and prevent normal blood flow. This leads to tissue hypoxia. With a vaso-occlusive crisis, the cells are clumped together and prevent blood flow to the joint or organ. The blood with the clumped sickled cells is very viscous. Adequate hydration is crucial in relieving the problems of a vaso-occlusive crisis. The hydration dilutes the blood and decreases the viscosity. During a crisis the recommended fluid intake (IV and PO) is 150 ml/kg/day. During a vaso-occlusive crisis, the child has severe pain. The goal is to get the pain under control and increase blood flow. Range of motion excercises will add to the increased pain during this period of time, so should not be started until crisis in under control. The diet and hourly deep breaths are important, but they are not crucial to correcting the crisis.

What will be the nurse's next action after noting dimpling and a tuft of hair located in the lumbosacral area of the preschool child during examination?

Record and refer the finding for follow-up to the pediatrician Dimpling and hair growth may signal spina bifida occulta, which usually is benign. However, some complications can be associated, and further investigation is warranted to prevent possible damage to the spinal cord. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is often the diagnostic tool used. No hygienic concerns need prevail. These findings do not suggest development of precocious puberty or any other hormonal problem. The dimpling and hair tuft must be clearly explained to the parents.

A 5-year-old client has been diagnosed with leukemia and is currently on chemotherapy and radiation. The child is having difficulty due to mucositis. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this child? -Disturbed body image related to loss of hair after chemotherapy -Risk for imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to inflammation -Pain due to neoplastic process in bone -Compromised family coping, related to long-term chemotherapy regimen

Risk for imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to inflammation Mucositis is inflammation of the oral mucosa, which puts this child at risk for risk for imbalanced nutrition. The client may have pain due to neoplastic process in the bone, but that is not mentioned in the scenario. The client may have lost hair, but that is not mentioned. The client's family coping is also not mentioned.

The nurse is interpreting the negative feedback system that controls endocrine function. What secretion will the nurse correlate as decreasing while blood glucose levels decrease?

insulin Explanation: Feedback is seen in endocrine systems that regulate concentrations of blood components such as glucose. Glucose from the ingested lactose or sucrose is absorbed in the intestine and the level of glucose in blood rises. Elevation of blood glucose concentration stimulates endocrine cells in the pancreas to release insulin. Insulin has the major effect of facilitating entry of glucose into many cells of the body; as a result, blood glucose levels fall. When the level of blood glucose falls sufficiently, the stimulus for insulin release disappears and insulin is no longer secreted. Glycogen is stored in the liver and muscles. It is released to provide energy when the blood glucose levels fall. Glucagon is also produced by the pancreas. Its job is to force the liver to release stored insulin when the body has a need for more insulin. The adrenocorticotropic hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary. Its function is to regulate cortisol. This is needed so the adrenal glands can function properly. It also helps the body respond to stress.

4. When caring for an 8-year-old boy injured in an automobile accident, the nurse demonstrates understanding of the principles of Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) by which action? A) Assisting ventilation with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) device B) Treating ventricular fibrillation using a defibrillator C) Managing compensated shock to prevent decompensated shock D) Treating supraventricular tachycardia using cardioversion

Ans: C Feedback: The principles of PALS stress evaluating and managing compensated shock with the goal of preventing decompensated shock and thereby preventing cardiopulmonary arrest. Assisting ventilation with a BVM device, treating ventricular fibrillation using a defibrillator, and treating supraventricular tachycardia using cardioversion are interventions that may be used to treat both children and adults.

A nurse is providing dietary interventions for a 12-year-old with a shellfish allergy. Which of the following responses indicates a need for further teaching? a) "Wheezing is a sign of a severe reaction" b) "We must order carefully when dining out" c) "He will likely outgrow this" d) "He must avoid lobster and shrimp"

"He will likely outgrow this" Correct Explanation: Older children and adolescents with allergic reactions to fish, shellfish, and nuts usually continue to have that concern as a life-long problem. The other statements are correct

The nurse is caring for a newborn with facial nerve palsy from birth trauma. The mother is very upset and concerned about the child's prognosis. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"In most cases treatment is not necessary, only observation." Explanation: The nurse should reassure the mother by reminding her that in most cases treatment is not necessary, only observation. Asking about signs of improvement might alarm the mother because in some cases it can take many months for the palsy to resolve. Asking whether this was a result of pressure from forceps does not address the mother's concerns about the child's prognosis. The mother may not understand or know why the condition occurred. Telling the mother that this is the most common facial nerve palsy does not address the mother's concerns about the child's prognosis.

A 13-year-old adolescent with hyperthyroidism who takes antithyroid medication has a sore throat and a fever. The parent calls the nurse and asks what to do. Which is the best response from the nurse?

"Please take your child straight to the emergency department." A side effect of antithyroid medications is leukopenia. Signs and symptoms that include fever and sore throat need to be seen immediately. These instructions should be reviewed with parents upon discharge. The question includes information about Graves disease, so ibuprofen would not be the treatment. The question centers around drug therapy, not the child's fluid status.

When treating allergies in a child, the nurse is aware that the classification for the drug of choice to control itching, sneezing, and rhinorrhea is which of the following? a) Antihistamines b) Decongestants c) Antibiotics d) Corticosteroids

Antihistamines Explanation: Antihistamines block histamine release and as a result control itching, sneezing, and rhinorrhea.

A mother brings her 4-month-old infant to the doctor's office due to vesicular lesions that have appeared on the child's scalp and face. The mother says that the child will not stop scratching at the lesions and that she is concerned that he is having some kind of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse recommend to the mother to help reduce pruritus in this child? a) Put the child on elimination diets b) Have the child retested for PKU c) Have the child undergo skin testing d) Apply wet dressings for 15 to 20 minutes, followed by moisturizer

Apply wet dressings for 15 to 20 minutes, followed by moisturizer Explanation: A major consideration in treatment of atopic dermatitis is aimed at reducing pruritus so children do not irritate lesions and cause secondary infections by scratching. Hydrating the skin by bathing or applying wet dressings (wet with tap water or Burrow's solution) for 15 to 20 minutes, followed by application of moisturizer such as Eucerin is helpful. Skin testing is usually ineffective because, although the allergen causing infantile atopic dermatitis may be pollen, dust or a mold spore; it is often a food allergen. Elimination diets can help identify an allergen, but do not directly help reduce pruritus; in any case, a 4-month-old should not be eating solid foods. Because untreated phenylketonuria (PKU) can lead to atopic dermatitis, children with infantile atopic dermatitis need to have a repeat test for PKU to be certain this is ruled out—however, this intervention does not directly reduce pruritus, either.

An adolescent with scoliosis is refusing to wear the prescribed body brace. Which instruction is best to progress the adolescent to the treatment goals?

CORRECT: "It is important to wear the brace now to stabilize your spinal alignment, decreasing your symptoms." INCORRECT: "It is important to correct spinal curvature before it gets too bad, causing you problems." It is important to have the adolescent understand the treatment and how the treatment will benefit him or her. Body bracing helps to hold the spine in alignment and prevent further curvature, decreasing the symptoms. The brace will not correct the problem. Adolescents have a hard time being compliant with the brace due to body image disturbance and peer reaction. The brace can also cause discomfort and be hot to wear. Torticollis is tightened neck muscles causing the head to tilt downward. A herniated disc is related to the disc space between the vertebrae. It has no affect on the curvature of the spine.

The nurse caring for an infant with myelomeningocele before surgical intervention will prioritize care in what way?

Cover the sac with a saline-moistened dressing Explanation: Protection of exposed neural tissue is of high priority. Keeping the cystic mass moist prevents damage to neural elements from drying. Blankets may cause trauma to the sac. An Isolette can be used for warmth, but much attention will have to be directed toward keeping the sac moist. Side-to-side hourly position changes increase the risk of damage to protruding nervous tissue. Unnecessary handling should be avoided.

The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with muscular dystrophy would expect which laboratory values to be most abnormal?

Creatine kinase Explanation: Serum creatine kinase levels are elevated early in the disorder, when significant muscle wasting is actively occurring. Bilirubin is a by-product of liver function. Potassium and sodium levels can change due to various factors and aren't indicators of muscular dystrophy.

The nurse is observing a 3-year-old boy who is sitting and playing in the waiting area of his pediatrician's office. The nurse calls the boy and his mother back for the boy's appointment. The boy rolls onto his stomach and pushes himself to his knees. Then he presses his hands against his ankles, knees, and thighs, walking up the front of his body, to stand. Which condition should the nurse suspect in this client?

Duchenne muscular dystrophy By age 3, children with: Duchenne muscular dystrophy = can rise from the floor only by rolling onto their stomachs and then pushing themselves to their knees. To stand, they press their hands against their ankles, knees, and thighs (they "walk up their front"); this is a Gower sign. Symptoms of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy begin after the child is 10 years old, and the primary symptom is facial weakness. The child becomes unable to wrinkle the forehead and cannot whistle. Congenital myotonic dystrophy begins in utero and typically leads to death before age 1 year because of inability to sustain respiratory function. The symptoms of juvenile arthritis are primarily stiff and painful joints

A newborn is discovered to have congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia. What will the nurse most likely observe when assessing this client?

Enlarged clitoris Explanation: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a syndrome that is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait, which causes the adrenal glands to not be able to synthesize cortisol. Because the adrenal gland is unable to produce cortisol, the level of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secreted by the pituitary in an attempt to stimulate the gland to increase function is increased. Although the adrenals enlarge under the effect of ACTH, they still cannot produce cortisol but rather overproduce androgen. Excessive androgen production during intrauterine life masculinizes the genital organs in a female fetus so that the clitoris is so enlarged it appears to be a penis. This disorder does not cause divergent vision. The child will not be born small for gestational age. This disorder does not cause abnormal facial features.

A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the immune system. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following being produced by the thymus? a) Stem cells b) Lymphocyte T cells c) White blood cells d) Antibodies

Lymphocyte T cells Explanation: The thymus is responsible producing lymphocyte T cells. The bone marrow produces stem cells that are capable of differentiating into various blood cells. White blood cells arise from the stem cells in the bone marrow. Antibodies are formed by the B cells.

A 12-year-old child has hyperthyroidism. The nurse understands that the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in children is:

Graves disease.

When describing anaphylaxis to a group of parents whose children have experienced anaphylaxis from insect stings, the nurse integrates knowledge that this response is related to which immunoglobulin? a) IgG b) IgE c) IgM d) IgA

IgE Explanation: Anaphylaxis is an acute IgE-mediated response to an allergen that involves many organ systems and may be life-threatening.

When describing anaphylaxis to a group of parents whose children have experienced anaphylaxis from insect stings, the nurse integrates knowledge that this response is related to which immunoglobulin? a) IgM b) IgE c) IgG d) IgA

IgE Explanation: Anaphylaxis is an acute IgE-mediated response to an allergen that involves many organ systems and may be life-threatening.

A child is scheduled to undergo hyposensitization. The nurse understands that this therapy attempts to achieve which of the following? a) Blockage of histamine release b) Increased concentration of IgG c) An increased level of IgE d) Reduction in allergen exposure

Increased concentration of IgG Explanation: Hyposensitization works by increasing the plasma concentration of IgG antibodies. IgG acts to prevent or block IgE antibodies from coming into contact with the allergen. IgE levels are not increased. Antihistamines block the release of histamine. Environmental control helps to reduce exposure to potential allergens.

The nurse is caring for a child with systemic lupus erythematosus. The doctor will most likely order which test to monitor the child's progress? a) Immunoglobulin electrophoresis b) Lymphocyte immunophenotyping T-cell quantification c) IgG subclasses d) Complement assay (C3 and C4)

Lymphocyte immunophenotyping T-cell quantification Explanation: Lymphocyte immunophenotyping T-cell quantification is for ongoing monitoring of progressive depletion of CD4 T lymphocytes in HIV disease. The nurse would expect the physician to order a complement assay (C3 and C4) for ongoing monitoring of systemic lupus erythematosus. IgG subclasses measures the levels of the four subclasses of IgG and is used to determine immunodeficiencies. Immunoglobulin electrophoresis is ordered for immunodeficiency and autoimmune disorders, not to monitor systemic lupus erythematosus.

A 9-year-old child with Graves disease is seen at the pediatrician's office reporting sore throat and fever. The nurse notes in the history that the child is taking propylthiouracil. Which of the following would concern the nurse?

The child may have developed leukopenia. Explanation: Graves disease is defined as an overproduction of thyroid hormones. Propylthiouracil is used to suppress thyroid function. A complication of Graves disease is leukopenia

A school-age child is diagnosed as having Cushing syndrome from long-term therapy with oral prednisone. What assessment finding is consistent with this child's diagnosis and treatment?

There are purple striae on the abdomen. Explanation: Cushing syndrome is caused by overproduction of the adrenal hormone cortisol. The overproduction of cortisol results in hyperpigmentation, which occurs from the melanin-stimulating properties of ACTH. Purple striae resulting from collagen deficit appear on the child's abdomen. The child will not be pale or fatigued. The child will not be excessively tall. The child will not be demonstrating signs of hypoglycemia.

A 6-month-old boy has been admitted to the hospital with severe bloody diarrhea. The nurse notes petechiae and eczema with signs of secondary infection. As the nurse documents the boy's history, the parents report easy bruising and prolonged bleeding after circumcision. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects a diagnosis of which of the following? a) Severe combined immunodeficiency b) von Willebrand's disease c) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome d) Beta-thalassemia major

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome Explanation: Severe bloody diarrhea, petechiae, bruising, eczema with secondary infection, and prolonged bleeding episodes are signs and symptoms of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. Beta-thalassemia major would be manifested by signs of bleeding. von Willebrand's disease would be manifested by signs of bleeding. Severe combined immunodeficiency would be manifested by chronic diarrhea and failure to thrive, persistent thrush, and a history of severe infections beginning in infancy. (less)

The child has a peanut allergy and accidentally ate food that contained peanuts. Which of the following findings are clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply. a) The child's pulse is 52 beats per minute b) The child states that his tongue feels "too big" for his mouth c) The child has developed hives on his face and trunk d) The child states that he feels like he might faint e) The child states he feels might "throw up"

• The child states he feels might "throw up" • The child states that his tongue feels "too big" for his mouth • The child states that he feels like he might faint • The child has developed hives on his face and trunk Explanation: The following are common signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis: tongue edema, urticaria, nausea, vomiting, and syncope. Typically, the child who has developed anaphylaxis will be tachycardic.

Parents ask why their child just diagnosed with leukemia needs a "spinal tap." Which is the best response by the nurse? -"It will help rule out a second malignancy." -"Checking the cerebrospinal fluid will reveal whether leukemic cells have entered the central nervous system." -"A sample of cerebrospinal fluid is needed to check for possible central nervous system infection." -"The spinal tap will help relieve pressure and headache for your child."

"Checking the cerebrospinal fluid will reveal whether leukemic cells have entered the central nervous system." The cerebrospinal fluid is checked so the clinician can determine whether leukemic cells have invaded the central nervous system. It is common for a chemotherapy medication, usually methotrexate, to be administered immediately following lumbar puncture as treatment for potential infiltration. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old girl who is receiving chemotherapy using antitumor antibiotics. Which intervention would the nurse question? -Assessing the mouth for redness, lesions, or ulcers -Maintaining meticulous hand-washing procedures -Assessing for tachypnea and adventitious breath sounds -Administering antiemetics prior to chemotherapy

Assessing the mouth for redness, lesions, or ulcers Antitumor antibiotics do not cause mucositis, so it would not be necessary to assess the mouth for redness, lesions, or ulcers. Antitumor antibiotics cause nausea and vomiting, so administering antiemetics prior to chemotherapy would be appropriate. Antitumor antibiotics do cause myelosuppression, so meticulous hand washing would be appropriate. Antitumor antibiotics do cause myelosuppression, placing the child at risk for infection; therefore, assessing for tachypnea and adventitious breath sounds would be appropriate.

A newborn is diagnosed with the salt-losing form of congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia. On what should the nurse focus when assessing this client?

Dehydration Explanation: If there is a complete blockage of cortisol formation, aldosterone production will also be deficient. Without adequate aldosterone, salt is not retained by the body, so fluid is not retained. Almost immediately after birth, affected infants begin to have vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, loss of weight, and extreme dehydration. If these symptoms remain untreated, the extreme loss of salt and fluid can lead to collapse and death as early as 48 to 72 hours after birth. The salt-losing form must be detected before an infant reaches an irreversible point of salt depletion. This disorder does not cause hypoglycemia, excessive bleeding, or excessive cortisone secretion.

The pediatric nurse examines the radiographs of a client that show that there are lesions on the bone. This finding is indicative of: -Ewing sarcoma. -Hodgkin disease. -non-Hodgkin lymphoma. -neuroblastoma.

Ewing sarcoma Radiographs that show lesions on the bone may indicate tumors (e.g., Ewing sarcoma, osteosarcoma) or metastasis of tumors. Osterosarcome is the most common type of bone malignancy in children. It occurs primarily in the long bones. Ewing sarcoma is a highly malignant bone cancer. It occurs in the pelvis, chest wall, vertebrae and midshaft of the long bones. Neuroblastomas are seen in children younger than 5 years old and arise from immature nerve cells and the adrenal glands. Hodgkin disease develops from the immune system. Non-Hodgkin is a blood cancer.

Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as being the most appropriate for a child with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura? -Risk for infection related to abnormal immune system -Risk for bleeding related to insufficient platelet formation -Risk for altered urinary elimination related to kidney impairment -Ineffective breathing pattern related to decreased white blood count

Risk for bleeding related to insufficient platelet formation Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is the result of a decrease in the number of circulating platelets in the presence of adequate megakaryocytes, which are precursors to platelets. Because bleeding can occur with this disease process, the diagnosis most appropriate for the patient at this time is risk for bleeding related to insufficient platelet formation. Reduced numbers of platelets would not increase the patient's risk for infection. Reduced numbers of platelets does not increase the patient's risk for renal impairment. Reduced risk of platelets will not lead to an ineffective breathing pattern.

A child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is receiving methotrexate for therapy. Which nursing diagnosis would best apply during therapy? -Risk for self-directed violence related to effect of methotrexate on central nervous system -Risk for impaired mobility related to depressant effects of methotrexate -Excess fluid volume related to effect of methotrexate on aldosterone secretion -Risk for impaired skin integrity related to oral ulcerations associated with chemotherapy

Risk for impaired skin integrity related to oral ulcerations associated with chemotherapy Methotrexate is a chemotherpeutic agent that has one of its side effects of cauisng oral mucositis. Oral ulcerations can interfere with nutrition because of pain and leave a portal for infection. Mucositis can be treated with oral swish and swallow agents or swish and spit agents (benadryl, lidocaine, nystatin). Mucositis is very painful and children will not be able to eat, so alternate ways of delivering nutrition may be necessary. The child receiving methotrexate may need large volumes of hydration to prevent dehydration from the medication effects. The nursing diagnosis of fluid overload from aldosterone production would be incorrect. Methotrexate works on specific cells. It does not affect the central nervous system. The child may have decreased mobility from the cancer effects and any side effects of many drugs the child is receiving and because the child is in a weakend state but methotrexate is not a depressant.

The nurse is assessing a school-aged child with sickle-cell anemia. Which assessment finding is consistent with this child's diagnosis? -Increased growth of long bones -Depigmented areas on the abdomen -Slightly yellow sclera -Enlarged mandibular growth

Slightly yellow sclera In sickle-cell anemia, eye scleras become icteric or yellowed from the release of bilirubin from the destruction of the sickled cells. Mandibular and long bone growth and depigmentation are not manifestations of this health problem.

The nurse is caring for a child admitted to the hospital for an open fracture of the femur following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse notes the following lab values: white blood cells 10,000mm3, hemoglobin 7.9 g/dL (79 g/L), hematocrit 28%, platelets 151,000 mm3. Which nursing action is priority? -Transfuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells. -Administer antibiotics intravenously stat. -Ask the child to rate pain on a scale 0 to 10. -Provide the family with preop instructions.

Transfuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells. In a situation where the child exhibits signs of anemia related to acute hemorrhage, the nurse should anticipate administering a transfusion of packed red blood cells to improve oxygenation and circulation. Administration of antibiotics, pain assessment, and family education can be performed after the beginning the blood transfusion.

The parents of a 6-year-old child with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) ask the nurse conducting an assessment of the child what causes the disease. What is the nurse's bestresponse? -"ITP occurs when the body's iron stores are depleted due to rapid physical growth, inadequate iron intake, inadequate iron absorption, or loss of blood." -"ITP is a serious bleeding disorder characterized by a decreased, absent, or dysfunctional procoagulant factor." -"ITP is characterized by the loss of surface area on the red blood cell membrane." -"ITP is primarily an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks and destroys the body's own platelets, for an unknown reason."

"ITP is primarily an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks and destroys the body's own platelets, for an unknown reason." Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is primarily an autoimmune disease, which is an acquired, self-limiting disorder of hemostasis characterized by destruction and decreased numbers of circulating platelets. The child will exhibit symptoms of excessive petechaie, pupura, and brusing. Hemophilia A and hemophilia B are distinguished by the particular procoagulant factor that is decreased, absent, or dysfunctional. Iron-deficiency anemia occurs when the body's iron stores are depleted. Hereditary spherocytosis (HS) is characterized by loss of surface area on the red blood cell membrane.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of caregivers of children diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. One of the caregivers tells the group, "I give my child ferrous sulfate." Which statement made by the caregivers is correct regarding giving ferrous sulfate? -"When I give my son ferrous sulfate I know he also needs potassium supplements." -"My husband gives our daughter orange juice when she takes her ferrous sulfate, so she gets Vitamin C." -"I always give the ferrous sulfate with meals." -"We watch closely for any diarrhea since that usually happens when he takes ferrous sulfate."

"My husband gives our daughter orange juice when she takes her ferrous sulfate, so she gets Vitamin C." When ferrous sulfate is administered, it should be given between meals with juice (preferably orange juice, because vitamin C aids in iron absorption). For best results, iron should not be given with meals. Ferrous sulfate can cause constipation or turn the child's stools black.

A mother asks the nurse why her infant who was born at 34 weeks' gestation is being prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? -"Infants with pyloric stenosis require ferrous sulfate." -"Preterm infants are at risk for iron-deficiency anemia." -"Your infant may have been having excessive diarrhea." -"Ferrous sulfate helps improve red blood cell formation."

"Preterm infants are at risk for iron-deficiency anemia." Infants born prematurely are at risk for iron-deficiency anemia because iron stores are built during the last few weeks of gestation. Although some infants with pyloric stenosis may require an iron supplement, such as ferrous sulfate, not all infants will. Infants with excessive diarrhea may develop iron-deficiency anemia, and ferrous sulfate helps improve red blood cell formation, but this does not explain why a preterm infant is being prescribed an iron supplement.

The nurse is caring for a child with aplastic anemia. The nurse is reviewing the child's blood work and notes the granulocyte count is about 500, platelet count is over 20,000, and the reticulocyte count is over 1%. The parents ask if these values have any significance. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? -"The doctor will discuss these findings with you when he comes to the hospital." -"I'm really not allowed to discuss these findings with you." -"These labs are just common labs for children with this disease." -"These values will help us monitor the disease."

"These values will help us monitor the disease." This response answers the parent's questions. In the nonsevere form, the granulocyte count remains about 500, the platelets are over 20,000, and the reticulocyte count is over 1%. The other responses do not address what the parents are asking and would block therapeutic communication.

A 9-year-old child with leukemia is scheduled to undergo an allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplant. When teaching the child and parents, what information would the nurse include? -"You'll need to have an incision in your hip area to instill the cells." -"The risk for rejection is much less with this type of transplant." -"You won't need to receive the high doses of chemotherapy before the transplant." -"We'll need to have a match to a donor."

"We'll need to have a match to a donor." An allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) refers to transplantation using stem cells from another individual that are harvested from the bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood. With this type of transplant, human leukocyte antibody (HLA) matching must occur. Therefore, the lesser the degree of HLA matching in the donor, the higher the risk for graft rejection and graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). Regardless of the type of transplant, a period of purging of abnormal cells in the child is necessary and accomplished through high-dose chemotherapy or irradiation. The procedure is accomplished by intravenously infusing hematopoietic stem cells into the child.

A nurse is reinforcing the diagnosis of constitutional delay by the health provider to a 13-year-old male adolescent. Which is the best approach for this teen?

"You will not need medication because your hormone levels are normal. I would be glad to discuss these findings with you." This diagnosis of "short stature" or constitutional delay may cause self-esteem issues with male teens. The nurse should explore the teen's feelings. Teens with a delay in puberty usually experience puberty late, so there is no need for a second opinion. Hormone therapy is not given until after age 14.

The nurse is preparing a 12-year-old client and the parents for radiation treatments that will occur for several weeks. Which nursing instructions are appropriate? Select all that apply. -Do not wash off the marks drawn on the skin. -Encourage lengthy soaks in the bathtub. -Schedule a tour of the radiation department. -Encourage high calorie meals and snacks. -Help the child develop "mind games" for diversion. -Encourage fresh fruit and vegetables.

-Encourage high calorie meals and snacks. -Schedule a tour of the radiation department. -Help the child develop "mind games" for diversion. -Do not wash off the marks drawn on the skin. Encourage high-calorie meals when the child is not nauseated. Schedule a tour of the radiation department if possible to reduce the child's anxiety. Help the child devise mind games for diversion during radiation, since the child has to lie still for a period of time. If the area to be radiated is marked on the child's skin, do not wash of the marks. Reduce amounts of fresh fruit and vegetables because they may contribute to diarrhea and fluid loss. Avoid long soaks in bath water or swimming pools because this is hard on the skin.

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection related to chemotherapy-induced immunosuppression. What would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the child and parents about reducing the child's risk? Select all that apply. -Providing a low-carbohydrate, low-protein diet -Having the child sleep in a single bed and room -Encouraging frequent, thorough handwashing -Cheering up the environment with fresh flowers and plants -Encouraging frequent close contact with numerous visitors

-Having the child sleep in a single bed and room -Encouraging frequent, thorough handwashing To reduce the risk of infection, the nurse should teach the child and parents about minimizing the child's exposure to potentially infectious situations. The nurse should encourage the parents to arrange for the child to sleep in a single bed and room and, if possible, avoid close contact with other family members who may be developing upper respiratory tract infections. Thorough and frequent handwashing, especially after using the bathroom and before eating, is essential. A high-calorie, high-protein diet helps to rebuild white blood cells and should be encouraged. If possible, the child's exposure to large crowds and visitors should be limited because of the increased risk of infection from these individuals. Fresh flowers and plants should be avoided because they could harbor mold spores.

A pediatric nurse is providing a session on risk factors for childhood cancers. Which risk factor does the nurse include in this teaching session? Select all that apply. -genetic predisposition for certain cancers -environmental exposure, such as cigarette smoke -absence of tumor suppressor cells that allow abnormal growth -viral triggers -accumulation of mutations in the cell that transform to neoplasm -genetic markers that fail to suppress cancer

-viral triggers -genetic predisposition for certain cancers -genetic markers that fail to suppress cancer -absence of tumor suppressor cells that allow abnormal growth -accumulation of mutations in the cell that transform to neoplasm Oncogenic (cancer-causing) viruses such as HPV may be directly responsible for tumor growth. According to this viral theory, oncogenic viruses have the ability to change the structure of DNA or RNA in cells. C-type RNA viruses, for example, have been implicated in leukemia. As more and more evidence is compiled on the nature of genes, specific markers in tumors that apparently fail to suppress, or stimulate, cancer-causing genes are being identified; almost all childhood cancers have such markers or a genetic trigger or predisposition to cancer. Somatic mutation theory postulates that an accumulation of mutations in the cell is what ultimately results in the transformation to a neoplastic state. In some children, because of their genetics, tumor suppressor cells may not be present, allowing abnormal growth stimulated by viruses to continue. Environmental factors do not seem to be a factor in children. In adults, tumors may grow because normal cell growth has been altered by environmental exposures, such as chronic exposure to chemical irritants or cigarette smoke. In contrast, in children tumors most frequently occur in organs unexposed to the environment such as leukemia of the bone marrow.

3. A 5-year-old girl is cyanotic, dusky, and anxious when she arrives in the emergency department. Which action would be most appropriate? A) Ventilating the child with a bag-valve-mask B) Estimating the child's weight using a Broselow tape C) Providing therapy using automated external defibrillation D) Using rescue breathing and chest compressions

Ans: A Feedback: The child is exhibiting signs of ineffective oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, ventilating the child with a bag-valve-mask and 100% oxygen would be effective and efficient. Estimating the child's weight with a Broselow tape is typically done by ambulatory care providers. According to the American Heart Association, automated external defibrillators are recommended for use in children who are older than age 1 year who have no pulse and have suffered a sudden, witnessed collapse outside the hospital setting. Rescue breathing and chest compressions are implemented for children who are not breathing and do not have a pulse or when the pulse rate is less than 60 beats per minute.

7. What would the nurse do first for a 5-year-old girl with profound bradycardia? A) Provide oxygen at 100% B) Administer epinephrine as ordered C) Use warming blankets D) Perform gastric lavage

Ans: A Feedback: The most common cause of profound bradycardia is respiratory compromise, hypoxia, and shock; thus, oxygenation and ventilation are the priorities. If the bradycardia persists, the next step would be to administer epinephrine or atropine as ordered. Hypothermia or toxic ingestion can cause bradycardia. Treating the underlying problem will relieve the bradycardia.

19. A group of students are reviewing information about respiratory arrest in children. The students demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify what common causes of respiratory arrest involving the upper airway? Select all that apply. A) Croup B) Asthma C) Pertussis D) Epiglottitis E) Pneumothorax

Ans: A, D Feedback: Common causes of respiratory arrest involving the upper airway include croup and epiglottitis. Asthma, pertussis, and pneumothorax are common causes involving the lower airway.

2. The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old boy experiencing respiratory distress who is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. What would be most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care? A) Administering a sedative to help calm the child B) Assisting the child to lie still during the chest radiograph C) Accompanying the child to continue observation D) Informing the child that he might hear a loud banging noise

Ans: B Feedback: Chest radiographs that disclose alterations in normal anatomy or lung expansion, or evidence of pneumonia, tumor, or foreign body, are commonly performed for respiratory emergencies. Therefore, the nurse would need to assist the child in remaining still during the procedure. A sedative may be ordered for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Accompanying the child to continue observation would be necessary if the child was to undergo a computed tomography scan. Telling the child about a loud banging noise would be appropriate if the child was having an MRI.

10. The nurse is providing care to a 4-year-old boy with a broken arm and an infected laceration from a fall. The nurse notes a significant elevation in the child's heart rate. Which intervention would be least appropriate? A) Administering antipyretics as ordered for fever B) Using a defibrillator to reduce the heart rate C) Administering analgesics to reduce pain D) Allowing the parents to comfort the child

Ans: B Feedback: Fever, fear, and pain are common explanations for significant increases in the heart rate of a child. This normal elevation in heart rate is known as sinus tachycardia and can be managed by treating the underlying causes. Antipyretics, analgesics, and comfort from the parents would be appropriate. However, defibrillation should be avoided.

29. A nurse has just transferred from an adult medical-surgical unit to a pediatric unit. When reviewing CPR skills, what it is important for the nurse to realize? A) The pediatric chain of survival and the adult chain of survival are the same B) Prevention of cardiac arrest and injuries is the first step in the chain of survival for children C) Integrated post-cardiac arrest care is not part of the chain of survival for children D) Early CPR should occur before any steps of the chain of survival are considered

Ans: B Feedback: Prevention of cardiac arrest and injuries is the first step in the chain of survival in children in contrast to early emergency medical system (EMS) activation in adults. Integrated post-cardiac arrest care is the last step in the chain for both adults and children. Early CPR is the second step in the chain for both adults and children.

21. The nurse is providing care to a child who is intubated and the child's condition is deteriorating. What would the nurse do first? A) Check if the tracheal tube is obstructed B) Assess for displacement of the tracheal tube C) Look for signs of a possible pneumothorax D) Check the equipment for malfunction

Ans: B Feedback: The PALS mnemonic "DOPE" is useful for troubleshooting when the status of a child who is intubated deteriorates: D = Displacement: the tracheal tube is displaced from the trachea; O = Obstruction: the tracheal tube is obstructed (e.g., with a mucus plug); P = Pneumothorax: usually a pneumothorax results in a sudden change in the child's assessment manifested by decreased breath sounds and decreased chest expansion on the side of the pneumothorax, possible subcutaneous emphysema over the chest (with a tension pneumothorax, there may be a sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure); E = Equipment failure: relatively simple problems such as a disconnected oxygen supply, leaks in the ventilator circuit, and loss of power can cause the child to deteriorate.

28. The nurse is teaching a CPR course for a group of nursing students. Which responses indicate an understanding of the content provided regarding the AED? Select all that apply. A) "When considering the use of the AED, the child must weigh at least 30 pounds (13.6 kg)." B) "An AED must only be employed if the collapse is witnessed." C) "To use the device the child must be at least 1 year of age." D) "The AED can be used only if the victim is demonstrates no heart rate." E) "The AED is safe for use prehospital."

Ans: B, C, D, E Feedback: An AED is an alternative to manually defibrillating an individual. The AED device consists of electrodes that are applied to the chest. These electrodes are used to monitor the heart rhythm and deliver the electrical current. AED devices are readily available in a variety of locations, such as airports, sports facilities, and businesses. Additionally, the AHA has recommended that an AED be used for children who are older than age 1 year who have no pulse and have suffered a sudden, witnessed collapse.

8. Which measure would be most appropriate for the nurse to do to ensure that a child's endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly positioned? A) Auscultate for abdominal breath sounds B) Mark the tracheal tube at the child's lip C) Watch for a yellow display on a CO2 monitor D) Inspect for water vapor in the tracheal tube

Ans: C Feedback: The best way to verify correct tracheal tube placement is to use a CO2 monitor. If the tube is properly placed, the monitor display will turn yellow with each exhalation. Auscultation for breath sounds and inspecting the tube for signs of water vapor are valid confirmations, but not as good as CO2 monitors. Marking the tube alerts the nurse if the tube becomes misplaced.

9. Which intervention would be most helpful in preventing barotrauma when ventilating a 3-year-old girl with a bag-valve-mask? A) Choosing the correct size bag and face mask B) Setting the flow rate at exactly 10 L/minute C) Maintaining the airway in the open position D) Delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds

Ans: D Feedback: Barotrauma is often the result of physicians or nurse practitioners ventilating the child too rapidly using too much tidal volume. Therefore, delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds is the best way to prevent barotrauma. Choosing the correct size bag and face mask and setting the correct flow rate are important for effective ventilation, as is maintaining the airway in the open position. However, these actions would have little impact on preventing barotrauma.

15. What would be most appropriate to use to help maintain a patent airway in an infant experiencing a respiratory emergency? A) Neck hyperextension B) Head tilt-chin lift technique C) Jaw-thrust maneuver D) Small towel under shoulders

Ans: D Feedback: The infant will benefit from a small sheet or towel folded under the shoulders. This facilitates keeping the infant's airway in the sniff position as recommended by the American Heart Association's Basic Cardiac Life Support guidelines. Neck hyperextension and flexion should be avoided because these may occlude the airway. The head tilt-chin lift technique is appropriate to open the airway of a child older than age 1 year if a cervical spine injury is not suspected. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used if there is concern about the cervical spine.

20. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a child experiencing respiratory distress. What action would be the top priority? A) Providing supplemental oxygen B) Monitoring for changes in status C) Assisting ventilation D) Maintaining a patent airway

Ans: D Feedback: The priority when caring for any child with respiratory distress is to maintain a patent airway. Although providing supplemental oxygen, monitoring for changes in status, and assisting with ventilation are important, these measures would be futile if the child's airway was not patent.

The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the parents of an 8-year-old girl with leukemia. Which instruction would be the priority? -Writing down phone numbers and appointments -Using acetaminophen if the child needs an analgesic -Keeping a written copy of the treatment plan -Calling the doctor if the child gets a sore throat

Calling the doctor if the child gets a sore throat Calling the doctor if the child gets a sore throat is the priority. Because of the child's impaired immune system, any sign of potential infection, such as sore throat, must be evaluated by a physician. Using acetaminophen if the child needs an analgesic, writing down phone numbers and appointments, and keeping a written copy of the treatment plan are important teaching points but secondary to guarding against infection.

A nursing student compares and contrasts childhood and adult cancers. Which statement does so accurately? -Environmental and lifestyle influences in children are strong, unlike those in adults. -Children's cancers, unlike those of adults, often are detected accidentally, not through screening. -Little is known regarding cancer prevention in adults, although much prevention information is available for children. -Adult cancers are more responsive to treatment than are those in children.

Children's cancers, unlike those of adults, often are detected accidentally, not through screening. Children's cancers are often found during a routine checkup, following an injury, or when symptoms appear---not through screening procedures or other specific detection practices. A very small percentage of children may be followed closely because they are known to be at high risk genetically. Most children's cancers are highly responsive to therapy. Few prevention strategies are available for children, although many are known to be effective for adults. Several lifestyle and environmental influences regarding children's cancers are suspect, but few have been scientifically documented. The reverse is true in the adult population.

A child receiving chemotherapy is experiencing significant reduction in red blood cells secondary to myelosuppression. Which agent would the nurse most likely expect to be ordered? -Gamma interferon -Epoetin alfa -Filgrastim -Sargramostim

Epoetin alfa Epoetin alfa is a colony-stimulating factor used to stimulate production of red blood cells. Filgrastim is a colony-stimulating factor used to stimulate production of granulocytes. Sargramostim is a colony-stimulating factor used to stimulate production of granulocytes. Gamma interferon is used to stimulate macrophage production to fight bacteria and fungus.

A 15-year-old client diagnosed with von Willebrand disease has reached menarche. Based on this fact, what information is most important for the nurse to convey to the client? -The duration of each period will be short. -Bruising may occur in the perineal area. -Occasional skipped periods can be expected. -Expect menstrual bleeding to be heavy.

Expect menstrual bleeding to be heavy. Females diagnosed with von Willebrand disease are at risk for menorrhagia. Bruising in the perineal area is not a risk unless there is some sort of trauma at the site. Von Willebrand disease does not cause intermittent periods or shorten the duration of menses.

A nurse is preparing a 7-year-old girl for bone marrow aspiration. Which site should she prepare? -Sternum -Anterior tibia -Iliac crest -Femur

Iliac crest Bone marrow aspiration provides samples of bone marrow so the type and quantity of cells being produced can be determined. In children, the aspiration sites used are the iliac crests or spines (rather than the sternum, which is commonly used in adults) because performing the test at these sites is usually less frightening for children; these sites also have the largest marrow compartments during childhood. In neonates, the anterior tibia can be used as an additional site.

Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a child with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura? -Risk for altered urinary elimination related to kidney impairment -Risk for infection related to abnormal immune system -Ineffective tissue perfusion related to poor platelet formation -Ineffective breathing pattern related to decreased white blood count

Ineffective tissue perfusion related to poor platelet formation Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) results from an immune response following a viral infection that produces antiplatelet antibodies. These antibodies destroy the platelets which cause petechiae, purpura and excessive bleeding. ITP does not affect the kidneys. Breathing difficulties would not occur with decreased whit blood cells. It occurs when there is decreased red blood cells. The child who develops ITP has no different immune system than othe children who are healthy.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a 15-year-old boy who is being treated for acute myelogenous leukemia about the side effects of chemotherapy. For which symptoms should the parents seek medical care immediately? -Blisters, ulcers, or a rash appear -Earache, stiff neck, or sore throat -Temperature of 101° F (38.3° C) or greater -Difficulty or pain when swallowing

Temperature of 101° F (38.3° C) or greater The parents should seek medical care immediately if the child has a temperature of 101°F (38.3° C) or greater. This is because many chemotherapeutic drugs cause bone marrow suppression; the parents must be directed to take action at the first sign of infection in order to prevent overwhelming sepsis. The appearance of earache, stiff neck, sore throat, blisters, ulcers, or rashes, or difficulty or pain when swallowing are reasons to seek medical care, but are not as grave as the risk of infection.

The nurse is caring for a child who is scheduled for bone scan. It is suspected that the child has a growth hormone deficiency. Which finding would support this medical diagnosis?

The bone scan would show bone age would be two or more deviations below normal. Diagnostic testing used in children with suspected GH deficiency include bone age will be two or more deviations below normal. CT or MRI scans would be used to rule out tumors or structural abnormalities, not bone scans.