Pharm

a

A major concern among public health authorities is an increase in drug-resistant TB infections. Traditionally, this has been attributed to patient lack of adherence to medication regimen. New evidence indicates that: a) Many drug-resistant infections are new infections, especially in those who are immunosuppressed. b) All TB infections are now drug-resistant. c) Client adherence is the only cause of drug-resistant TB infections. d) New cases of drug-resistant infections are decreasing.

d

A young lifeguard has been prescribed moxifloxacin (Avelox). The nurse focuses education on which adverse reaction? a) Diarrhea b) Nausea c) Abdominal pain d) Photosensitivity

b

After teaching a group of students about aminoglycosides, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which drug as the prototype for this class? a) Tobramycin b) Gentamicin c) Kanamycin d) Neomycin

d

An elderly patient comes to the clinic and informs the nurse that he feels as if his ear is clogged. He states that he frequently has to have his ears irrigated to get out the wax. He asks the nurse what causes this wax build-up. What is the nurse's best response? a) Poor hygiene b) Diabetes c) No real cause d) Modified sweat glands in the ear canal

a, b

Choice Multiple question - Select all answer choices that apply. The physician has prescribed ciprofloxacin. For which patient would you contact the physician to clarify the order because the medication is contraindicated? (Select all that apply.) a) Pregnant and lactating mothers b) Children younger than 18 c) People suffering from hypertension d) Women above the age of 60

a

Drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria are known as which of the following? (Choose one) a) Bacteriostatic b) Bacteriocidal c) Bacteriophage d) Bacteriostationary

b

If a nurse needs to administer otic preparations in both of the patient's ears, how long should the nurse wait to place drops in the second ear? (Choose one) a) At least 3 minutes b) At least 5 minutes c) At least 30 seconds d) At least 1 minute

a

Macrolides must be used with caution in clients who have which of the following conditions? a) Liver dysfunction b) Hypertension c) Diabetes mellitus d) Glaucoma

c

Michael, 25 years old, has had mitral valve regurgitation since age four, after having rheumatic fever. Michael is planning to go to his dentist to have his teeth cleaned. Because of Michael's history he will need to take antibiotics in conjunction with this procedure to prevent bacteremia. Which class of antibiotics will Michael most likely receive if he has no allergies? a) Vancomycin b) Tetracycline c) Penicillin d) Cephalosporin

a

The client calls the clinic to report the he is experiencing a throbbing headache and his face is flushed. The client received cefotetan as an IV antibiotic prior to a minor surgical procedure the day before, and returned home that same day. What has this client consumed that has caused this reaction? a) Alcohol b) Leafy green vegetables c) Dairy products d) Carbonated beverages

c

The nurse receives a call from a client who is taking clindamycin (Cleocin) and reports of a burning feeling when swallowing. The nurse knows that the client has developed which adverse reaction related to this medication? a) nausea b) peptic ulcer c) esophagitis d) gastritis

d

The physician has prescribed cotrimoxazole to a 1-month-old infant for an infection. The nurse knows that this medication is contraindicated because of the potential for what health problem? a) Hepatotoxicity b) Neuropathy c) Nephropathy d) Kernicterus

c

Tuberculosis was a relatively low-incidence disease in the United States until its resurgence in the mid-1980s. Government actions have contributed to the present low level of active disease. These actions include: a) Developing a preventative TB vaccine. b) Deporting immigrants with TB. c) Strengthening TB control measures. d) Mandatory patient adherence to drug therapy regimens.

c

A 25-year-old female patient who presents at the clinic with vaginal discharge and discomfort is diagnosed with chlamydia. The nurse knows that the drug of choice to treat this infection is doxycycline. What would be a priority assessment for this patient before beginning the medication? a) Measuring the patient's blood pressure b) Asking the patient if she is allergic to sulfonamides c) Asking the patient if she is pregnant d) Asking the patient if she has had an allergic reaction to a penicillin

a

A 25-year-old woman is being treated with penicillin G as prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis prior to a dental procedure. The nurse should question the patient concerning her the use of a) oral contraceptives. b) alcohol. c) nicotine. d) fats in her diet.

a

A 5-year-old child has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are consistent with otitis externa. What assessment question is most likely to address the etiology of this health problem? a) "Has he been swimming a lot in the last little while?" b) "Are all his immunizations up-to-date?" c) "How would you describe his overall level of hygiene?" d) "Has he been spending quite a bit of time around animals lately?"

b

A 7-year-old child has tonsillitis and is prescribed penicillin V, which is to be administered at home. The nurse will instruct the parents to administer the drug a) immediately before or with a meal. b) with a glass of water 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. c) intravenously with the assistance of a home health nurse. d) with a sip of water 1 hour before mealtime.

b

A 70-year-old woman is assessed in the clinic for signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis related to pneumococci. Which of the following sulfonamides will be prescribed? a) Doxycycline b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) c) Tetracycline (Sumycin) d) Demeclocycline (Declomycin)

d

A 72-year-old patient with TB is undergoing standard treatment in a health care facility. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform during ongoing assessment of the treatment? a) Use DOT to administer the drug to the patient. b) Assess patient's history of contacts. c) Monitor patient's vital signs every 24 hours. d) Monitor for appearance of adverse reactions.

a

A 75-year-old patient with a history of renal impairment is admitted to the primary health care center with a UTI and has been prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to perform when caring for this patient? a) Monitoring blood creatinine levels. b) Monitoring fluid intake. c) Testing for occult blood. d) Testing for increased glucose levels.

d

A client has been on sulfonamide therapy for the last six weeks. What client report may cause the health care provider to discontinue the sulfonamide? a) Unable to eat spicy foods b) Loose stools for the last two days c) Decreased appetite d) 10 lb weight loss

c

A client is prescribed cefazolin for a sinus infection. After administration of the first dose of the medication, the client reports itching. The nursing assessment reveals a rash over the client's torso; the client has a history of allergic reaction to penicillin. The client: a) should be watched carefully during the next dose of the medication to ensure the symptoms do not become more severe. b) is having an anaphylactic reaction and needs to be transferred to the ICU. c) is experiencing an allergic reaction caused by a cross-sensitivity reaction. d) is experiencing a side effect from the medication.

a

A client is taking penicillin for an upper respiratory infection. The client calls the office after 2 days of therapy reporting nausea and abdominal pain. Which would be the best instruction for the nurse to give the client? a) These are normal side effects, but if they increase in severity or frequency, you need to contact the office again. b) Stop the medication and the physician will order you a different antibiotic. c) Stop the medication immediately and go to the emergency room; these could be signs of a life-threatening reaction. d) Continue to take the medication as prescribed; these are expected side effects from the medication.

d

A client who takes zinc daily is diagnosed with a severe infection and is ordered levofloxacin (Levaquin). The nurse is aware that taking these two drugs may have what affect on the antibiotic? a) Decreased elimination b) Increased elimination c) Increased absorption d) Decreased absorption

b

A client with a positive sputum culture for TB has been started on streptomycin antitubercular therapy. Upon review of the laboratory results, the nurse notes that the client may be experiencing toxicity if which of the following results is abnormal? a) Amylase and lipase b) BUN and creatinine c) Sodium and potassium d) Red blood cells and white blood cells

a

A client's risk for ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neurotoxicity increases dramatically if he or she receives an aminoglycoside in conjunction with a potent diuretic. a) True b) False

a

A college student has a TB test prior to starting college. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radioagraph is negative? a) Latent tuberculosis b) Transmission c) Active tuberculosis d) Primary infection

b

A female client is admitted to the critical care unit with sepsis related to a contaminated central line. The physician orders intravenous beta-lactam antimicrobials. The client's current laboratory report reflects renal impairment. What would the nurse expect the physician to do? a) Increase the drug dose. b) Decrease the drug dose. c) Administer the drug via an intramuscular route. d) Maintain the drug dose.

a

A group of students are reviewing information about drugs used to treat tuberculosis. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which drug as a first-line treatment option? a) Rifampin b) Capreomycin c) Ciprofloxacin d) Kanamycin

d

A group of students are reviewing material for a test on antibiotics. They demonstrate an understanding of the material when they identify what as the first antibiotic introduced for clinical use? a) Erythromycin b) Ampicillin c) Cephalexin d) Penicillin

b

A nurse is caring for a patient who is being administered penicillin. What are the common adverse reactions to penicillin a nurse should assess for? a) Severe hypotension b) Inflammation of the tongue and mouth c) Sudden loss of consciousness d) Impaired oral mucous membranes

d

A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who is suspected to also have tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following is true about patients with HIV and TB? a) It is not difficult to diagnose TB in a patient with HIV. b) A patient with HIV has an immune system usually resistant to TB. c) Patients with HIV are not at risk for TB. d) The skin test may not show a reaction even though the disease is present.

b

A nurse is demonstrating the correct technique for instilling antibiotic ear drops into a child's ear canal. The nurse should teach the child's caregivers to do which of the following? a) Rinse the child's ear canal with normal saline prior to instilling the ear drops. b) Place a cotton ball in the ear canal after instilling the ear drops. c) Have the child lie supine during instillation of the ear drops. d) Have the child lie still for 30 to 45 minutes after instilling the ear drops.

b

A nurse is required to administer an anti-infective drug to a patient. The nurse knows that which of the following tests need to be conducted before administering the first dose of an anti-infective drug to the patient? a) Stool tests b) Culture tests c) Urinalysis d) Ulcer tests

b

A nurse teaching the patient with tuberculosis (TB) should include the following information about ethambutol: a) It can increase risk for bleeding. b) It can cause optic neuritis. c) It can cause urticaria. d) it can cause paralysis.

c

A patient is administered isoniazid (INH) for latent tuberculosis. Which of the following factors will result in discontinuation of the medication? a) Cachexia b) Fever c) Jaundice d) Thrombus

d

A patient is admitted to the emergency room with a diagnosis of Legionnaire's disease and is placed on isolation. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for Legionnaire's disease? a) Meclizine (Antivert) b) Loxapine hydrochloride (Loxitane) c) Pravastatin (Pravachol) d) Erythromycin (Ery-Tab)

a

A patient is allergic to penicillin and has been diagnosed with a genitourinary infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following medications will be administered? a) Erythromycin (Ery-Tab) b) Flumazenil (Mazicon) c) Atazanavir (Reyataz) d) Acamprosate calcium (Campral)

a

A patient is being treated for a urinary tract infection with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What assessment should the nurse make prior to the administration of the medication? a) Renal insufficiency b) Hypertension c) Asthma d) Diabetes mellitus

c

A patient is started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim) for a urinary infection. What adverse effect should the nurse assess with this patient? a) Congestive heart failure b) Bone marrow depression c) Renal damage d) Liver toxicity

c

A patient is to receive rifampin. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan for this patient? a) "Call your doctor if you experience headache or dizziness." b) "You might experience some nausea or stomach upset." c) "Your urine or sweat may become orange in color." d) "The drug can cause an allergic reaction."

d

A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and peripheral neuropathy. Which laboratory values should be assessed? a) Hematocrit and hemoglobin b) Urine culture and sensitivity c) Erythrocyte count and differential d) ALT/AST and creatinine

b

A patient with TB has been admitted to a health care facility. When providing instructions for the patient teaching related to antitubercular drugs, which instructions should the nurse provide in order to avoid complications in the patient's GI tract? a) Double the dose if earlier dose is missed. b) Avoid the consumption of alcohol. c) Take prescribed Ethambutol with food. d) Take prescribed Pyrazinamide without regard to food.

a

A patient with TB is admitted to a health care facility. The nurse is required to administer an antitubercular drug through the parenteral route to this patient. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take when administering frequent parenteral injections? a) Rotate injection sites for frequent parenteral injections. b) Monitor patient's vital signs each morning. c) Monitor signs of liver dysfunction weekly. d) Administer streptomycin to promote nutrition.

b, c, e

Choice Multiple question - Select all answer choices that apply. Which of the following are examples of a secondary infection? Select all that apply. a) Otitis media b) Vaginal candidiasis c) Oral candidiasis d) Endocarditis e) C. difficile colitis

c

Ms. Jones is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of rule-out tuberculosis. She is placed in isolation. The diagnosis is confirmed 72 hours after admission, based on sputum cultures and chest x-ray findings. She has been prescribed three different drugs for the treatment of TB. You are completing the discharge teaching with Ms. Jones. Which statement by her indicates that she understands the drug therapy? a) "I will only be taking one medication at home for the next 6 months." b) "I will contact the physician to renew the prescription every month." c) "I will need to take the medication daily for up to 2 years." d) "The physician will stop the medication in 1 to 2 months."

d

The client calls the clinic to report the he is experiencing a throbbing headache and his face is flushed. The client received cefotetan as an IV antibiotic prior to a minor surgical procedure the day before, and returned home that same day. What has this client consumed that has caused this reaction? a) Dairy products b) Leafy green vegetables c) Carbonated beverages d) Alcohol

d

The client has been taking her antibiotic for five days. She tells the nurse that she is now experiencing vaginal itching and discharge. The nurse suspects what has occurred? a) The client has developed sepsis. b) The client is experiencing an adverse reaction. c) The client is not taking her medications. d) The client has developed a superinfection.

a

The drug's effect on what best reflects the major reason for avoiding the use of tetracyclines in children under 8 years of age? a) Teeth b) Vision c) Hearing d) Kidneys

a

The nurse is administering erythromycin to a patient. For what common side effects should the nurse monitor the patient? a) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b) Urticaria and colitis c) Headache, fever, and itching d) Shortness of breath

c

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a sulfonamide but does not have an infection. The nurse is aware that the medication has been prescribed to treat what condition? a) Gastritis b) Crystalluria c) Ulcerative Colitis d) Stomatitis

b

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse infuses the medication at the prescribed rate to prevent what from occurring? a) Gray syndrome b) Red man syndrome c) Serotonin syndrome d) Cushing's syndrome

c

The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman who will be taking amoxicillin for treatment of acute otitis media. The nurse teaches the client that which symptom indicates the development of a superinfection and should be reported to the physician? a) Nausea b) Swelling and itching of the throat c) Vaginal itching and discharge d) Abdominal pain

d

The nurse is preparing to administer amikacin to a client with a complicated Staphylococcus aureus infection. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? a) Gastrointestinal function b) Nutritional status c) Muscle strength d) Renal function

c

The nurse is providing care for a teenager with otitis media. When assessing the patient for potentially adverse effects of Cortisporin Otic, what question should the nurse ask? a) "Has there been any blood that you've noticed in your outer ear?" b) "Have you been getting any headaches since you started taking the drops?" c) "Have you noticed any loss of hearing since you started taking the drops?" d) "Have you developed a fever since you started to use the ear drops?"

c

The nurse knows that tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by which of the following bacteria? a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Eschericia coli c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) Clostridium difficile

a

When administering a secondary drug to a patient with tuberculosis (TB), the nurse is treating which type of TB? a) extrapulmonary TB b) TB of the lungs

b

When administering aminoglycosides, the nurse must be aware of which of the following adverse reactions? a) Glaucoma and renal failure b) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity c) Liver necrosis, or hepatic failure d) Hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia

d

When instilling ear drops, the nurse informs the patient that to facilitate penetration of the drug into the ear canal, the patient should lie on the untreated side for how many minutes after receiving the drops? a) 3 minutes b) at least 10 minutes c) 1 minute d) 5 minutes

b c, d, d

Which of the drug-specific nursing diagnoses may be used in the administration of a cephalosporin? (Select all that apply.) a) Diarrhea b) Risk for impaired comfort c) Ineffective tissue profusion d) Impaired urinary elimination e) Risk for impaired skin integrity

a

Which of the following is considered a secondary drug to treat tuberculosis? (Choose one) a) Ciprofloxacin b) Pyrazinamide c) Ethambutol d) Isoniazid

b

Which of the following is true in regards to the oral administration of tetracyclines? (Choose one) a) Tetracyclines should only be administered in the evening. b) Tetracyclines should be administered with a full glass of water. c) Tetracyclines should be administered on a full stomach. d) Tetracyclines should only be administered in the morning.

a, b, d, e

Which of the following is true of cephalosporins given via injection? (Select all that apply.) a) Pain can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. b) Inflammation can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. c) Phlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IM. d) Thrombophlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IV. e) Tenderness can occur when cephalosporins are given IM.

d

Which of the following should a nurse carefully monitor in a patient who has been administered cephalosporin as well as aminoglycosides for a wound infection? a) Respiratory difficulty b) Nausea c) Increased bleeding d) Nephrotoxicity

b

Which statement by a client taking a sulfonamide requires further instruction? a) "I will take my medicine with my meals like it says on the prescription bottle." b) "I will make sure to use extra sunscreen when I go to the tanning booth." c) "I will take all of my medicine even if my symptoms go away." d) "I will be sure to drink a full glass of water every time I take my medicine."

a

Your client is being treated for streptococcal pharyngitis and is NPO. Her health care provider has ordered Penicillin G to be given IM. She wants to know why she cannot take her medications via an oral route. Your best response is: a) Penicillin G is inactivated by gastric acid, therefore it is only given IM or IV. b) Penicillin G is no longer used for this problem. c) Penicillin G is inactivated by gastric acid, therefore it is only given IM. d) Penicillin G can be given orally but requires higher doses.