Pharm Exam 2
When a combination of drugs needs to be incorporated into the drug regimen for a hypertensive patient, what type of diuretic would the nurse expect to administer? A) Thiazide B) Loop C) Potassium-sparing D) Osmotic
A A somewhat controversial study, the Antihypertensive and Lipid-Lowering Treatment to Prevent Heart Attack Trial (ALLHAT), reported in 2002 that patients taking the less expensive, less toxic diuretics did better and had better blood pressure control than patients using other antihypertensive agents. Replications of this study have supported its findings, and the use of a thiazide diuretic is currently considered the first drug used in the stepped-care management of hypertension.
A patient with glaucoma has been prescribed a diuretic as treatment of his or her disease process. What drug does the nurse suspect that the patient will be prescribed? A) Acetazolamide (Diamox) B) Spironolactone (Aldactone) C) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) D) Bendroflumethiazide (Naturetin)
A Acetazolamide is used to treat glaucoma. The inhibition of carbonic anhydrase results in decreased secretion of aqueous humor of the eye. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat edema caused by congestive heart failure, liver disease, hypertension, hyperkalemia, and hyperaldosterone. Chlorthalidone is a thiazide-like diuretic and bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide diuretic, are used to treat edema caused by congestive heart failure, liver disease, kidney disease, and as adjunct treatment of hypertension.
A 64-year-old patient in hypertensive crisis is to receive furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. Lasix comes in 100 mg/10 mL containers. How will the nurse administer the medication? A) Give 4 mL over 1 to 2 minutes IV. B) Give 4 mL over 10 minutes. C) Flush the line with normal saline, give 1 mL/min, flush again when finished. D) Fix 10 mL in an IV piggyback and deliver it over 30 minutes.
A Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg over 1 to 2 minutes IV. The other options are not correct.
A 68-year-old patient, who has type 1 diabetes, is to receive hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). Before administration of this medication, what information is most important for the nurse to communicate to the patient? A) His or her insulin dose may need to be increased. B) His or he insulin dose may need to be decreased. C) He or she will need to have him or her urine checked for ketones four times a day. D) He or she will need to have a creatinine clearance done once a month.
A Caution should be used with the following conditions, which include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which frequently causes glomerular changes and renal dysfunction that could precipitate renal failure in some cases; glucose tolerance abnormalities or diabetes mellitus, which is worsened by the glucose-elevating effects of many diuretics; and gout, which reflects an abnormality in normal tubule reabsorption and secretion. There would be no reason to check ketones four times daily or to have a creatinine clearance once a month.
What statement by the 62-year-old patient indicates that the patient understand the nurse's teaching about diuretics? A) "I will weigh myself daily and report significant changes." B) "I will have to limit my high sugar foods." C) "If my leg gets swollen again, I'll take an additional pill." D) "I will take my medication before bedtime on an empty stomach."
A Daily weights and blood pressures should be monitored at home in a patient taking diuretics. Options B, C, and D would indicate that further teaching is needed.
A patient has been prescribed losartan (Cozaar) for hypertension. What patient teaching points will the nurse include about this drug include? A) "Report onset of a cough or fever to health care provider." B) "Limit fluid intake to decrease urinary output." C) "Monitor blood pressure once a week." D) "Take the drug late in the day to prevent sleepiness."
A Losartan is an angiotensin II-receptor blocker that is associated with a cough, back pain, fever, muscle weakness, and upper respiratory tract infections, so the patient should be taught to report a fever or cough to his health care provider. Fluid intake should be normal and the drug is best taken in the morning. Blood pressure should be monitored daily, especially when first starting the drug when adverse effects are not yet known.
The emergency department nurse is asked to prepare a nitroprusside (Nitropress) infusion for a patient being brought to the hospital in an ambulance. The nurse knows this drug is only used in what circumstances? A) Hypertensive emergencies B) Hypertension in a patient having a myocardial infarction C) Hypertension complicated by symptoms of a stroke D) Hypertension associated with diabetic ketoacidosis
A Most of the vasodilators are reserved for use in severe hypertension or hypertensive emergencies. These include hydralazine, minoxidil, and nitroprusside. The presence of absence of a comorbidity does not increase the likelihood of use. These drugs are used when blood pressure is extremely high and needs to be reduced quickly.
The patient is diagnosed with secondary hypertension. What will be the focus of nursing care to treat this patient? A) Administering epinephrine B) Administering antihypertensives C) Promoting healthy lifestyle D) Treating the cause
A Most people have essential, or primary, hypertension with no known cause that is treated with medications and lifestyle changes. Patients with secondary hypertension means there is a known cause of the blood pressure elevation. There are many different things that can result in secondary hypertension; the focus of care is treating the cause whether that requires surgery, medication, or discontinuing a medication that is causing hypertension as an adverse effect.
The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient who is taking a diuretic. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Impaired urinary elimination B) Monitor the patient response to the drug C) Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements D) Risk for fluid volume overload
A Nursing diagnoses related to drug therapy may include impaired urinary elimination related to drug effect. Options B, C, and D would not be appropriate nursing diagnoses.
The nurse is caring for a patient who takes ramipril (Altace) to treat hypertension. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis to include in this patient's care plan? A) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to changes in cardiac output B) Acute pain related to skin effects and headache C) Altered gas exchange related to unrelenting cough D) Impaired body image
A Nursing diagnoses related to drug therapy might include ineffective tissue perfusion (total body) related to changes in cardiac output because ramipril is associated with adverse effects such as reflex tachycardia, chest pain, angina, heart failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. Although dermatitis and rash may occur, headaches are not an associated adverse effect of this drug. Benazepril, enalapril, and fosinopril can cause an unrelenting cough but ramipril is not associated with this adverse effect. Impaired body image would not be associated with this drug.
A patient has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Because this drug causes potassium loss, what will the nurse instruct the patient to eat? A) Peaches B) Apples C) Pears D) Pineapple
A Peaches, as well as bananas, oranges, raisins, and other fruits, spices, and vegetables are high in potassium and consuming them should be encouraged when taking furosemide. Apples, pears, and pineapple, however, do not replace potassium in the body.
A student asks the pharmacy instructor what the difference is between the diuretics spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix). What would the instructor reply? A) Potassium losses are lower with spironolactone. B) Potassium losses are greater with spironolactone. C) Water losses are greater with spironolactone. D) Sodium losses are greater with spironolactone.
A Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic; therefore, it promotes retention of potassium. Furosemide promotes greater water, sodium, and potassium losses than spironolactone.
A patient who was recently prescribed spironolactone calls the clinic and complains that he is not urinating as much as he did when he first started taking this medication. What would be an appropriate question for the nurse to ask this patient? A) "Are you taking a salicylate?" B) "Are you taking acetaminophen?" C) "Are you taking ibuprofen?" D) "Are you using a lot of salt?"
A The diuretic effect decreases if potassium-sparing diuretics are combined with salicylates. Dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve therapeutic effects. There is no decrease in effect when spironolactone is combined with acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and increased sodium intake.
The nurse recognizes blood pressure is determined by three elements including what? A) Peripheral resistance B) Pulse pressure C) Renal blood flow D) Preload
A The pressure in the cardiovascular system is determined by three elements: heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance. The small arterioles are thought to be the most important factors in determining peripheral resistance. Because they have the smallest diameter, they are able to almost stop blood flow into capillary beds when they constrict, building up tremendous pressure in the arteries behind them as they prevent the blood from flowing through.
The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a patient who has been prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). Which situation would contraindicate the administration of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)? A) Allergy to sulfa drugs B) Allergy to codeine C) BP 160/96 D) Blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
A Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are contraindicated with allergy to thiazides or sulfonamides to prevent hypersensitivity reactions. The other options are not correct.
The pediatric nurse examines a child with mildly elevated blood pressure who is 10% above the upper weight limits for his or her age. What is the nurse's priority teaching point? A) Encourage activity and begin weight loss diet. B) Explain how to administer diuretics to reduce adverse effects. C) Involve social services in monitoring this child's diet. D) Explain the most common adverse effects of calcium channel blockers.
A Treatment of childhood hypertension should be done very cautiously because the long-term effects of the antihypertensive agents are not known. Lifestyle changes should be instituted before drug therapy is started if at all possible. Weight loss and increased activity may bring an elevated blood pressure back to normal in many children. As a result, the priority teaching point is to help parents understand how to adapt the child's diet to reduce weight and introduce family activities to increase exercise. Drug teaching would only be required if lifestyle changes is inadequate to lower blood pressure. There is no need to involve social services.
When evaluating an 82-year-old patient receiving hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), what laboratory value deviations may be related to the medication? A) Elevated uric acid levels B) Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels C) A serum potassium level of 4.7 mEq/L D) A hemoglobin A1C of 4.8
A Uric acid excretion is decreased because thiazides interfere with its secretory mechanism. High levels of uric acid can result in a condition called gout. Hydrochlorothiazide does not reduce BUN levels. Thiazide diuretics may lead to hypokalemia and increase blood glucose levels. The potassium and hemoglobin A1C levels are normal and not affected by the medication.
A female patient has a history of frequent bladder infections. Which classification of diuretic would not be recommended for this patient? A) Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics B) Loop diuretics C) potassium-sparing diuretics D) Osmotic diuretics
A Urine is slightly alkalinized when the thiazides or thiazide-like diuretics are used because they block reabsorption of bicarbonate. This effect can cause problems for patients who are susceptible to bladder infections. Loop, potassium sparing, and osmotic diuretics do not have this effect.
The nurse cares for a diabetic patient with uncontrolled hypertension who has been prescribed losartan (Cozaar). The health care provider changes this patient's prescription to losartan with hydrochlorothiazide (Hyzaar). What benefits does the nurse anticipate this patient will receive from this drug therapy? (Select all that apply.) A) Slows progression of diabetic nephropathy in type 2 diabetes B) Increases excretion of fluid and sodium resulting in lower blood volume C) Alters electrolyte and acid-base balance D) Improves control of blood pressure due to combination therapy E) Produces far fewer adverse effects resulting from the combination
A, B Many patients require more than one type of antihypertensive to achieve good control of their blood pressure. There are now many fixed-combination drugs available for treating hypertension. This allows for fewer tablets or capsules each day, making it easier for the patient to comply with drug therapy. Losartan slows the progression of diabetic nephropathy in patients with hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that will increase excretion of fluid and sodium resulting in a lower circulating blood volume that will help to reduce blood pressure, preload, and afterload. The two drugs will work together to better control the patient's blood pressure. Alteration in electrolytes and acid-base is a reasonable expectation but it is an adverse effect and not a benefit. There are likely to be more adverse effects when taking drugs that are not fixed combinations.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been noncompliant with treatment for hypertension. The nurse explains that untreated hypertension increases the risk of what? (Select all that apply.) A) Renal disease B) Cerebral infarction C) Heart failure D) Cholecystitis E) Migraine headache
A, B, C Hypertension is a common chronic disorder. It is estimated that at least 20% of the people in the United States have hypertension. Hypertension increases risks of myocardial infarction, heart failure, cerebral infarction and hemorrhage, and renal disease. It does not increase the risk of cholecystitis or migraine headache.
A patient with glaucoma has been prescribed acetazolamide (Diamox). What adverse effects would the nurse caution the patient about? (Select all that apply.) A) Paresthesia B) Confusion C) Drowsiness D) Vomiting E) Hyperkalemia
A, B, C Metabolic acidosis is a relatively common and potentially dangerous adverse effect that occurs when bicarbonate is lost. Hypokalemia is also common. Patients also complain of paresthesias of the extremities, confusion, and drowsiness. Vomiting and hyperkalemia are not common adverse effects
The nurse works in a clinic that has many African American patients. What would the nurse need to consider when caring for patients with hypertension? (Select all that apply.) A) African American men are at highest risk for hypertension. B) African Americans respond best to single-drug therapy. C) African Americans are most responsive to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. D) Increased adverse effects occur when using thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics. E) First-line use of a calcium channel blocker with changes to lifestyle is best in African Americans.
A, B, D In the United States, African Americans are at highest risk for developing hypertension, with men more likely than women to develop the disease. African Americans are most responsive to single-drug therapy (as opposed to combination drug regimens). African Americans are less responsive to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and beta-blockers. Increased adverse effects (e.g., depression, fatigue, drowsiness) often occur when using thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics. Because African Americans are more responsive to diuretics, the treatment approach should include the first-line use of a diuretic in combination with diet and other lifestyle changes.
The nurse is caring for a patient with edema who has just begun taking a diuretic. What will the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication? (Select all that apply.) A) Daily weight B) Decrease in edema C) Increase in blood pressure D) Increase in urinary output E) Increase in pulse
A, B, D Responsiveness to the use of a diuretic can be measured by daily weights, increased urinary output, decrease in edema, decrease in blood pressure and pulse rate. Options C and E are not correct.
While studying the antihypertensive drugs, the nursing students learn that the pressure in the cardiovascular system is determined by three elements. What are they? (Select all that apply.) A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Preload D) Total peripheral resistance E) Pulse pressure
A, B, D The pressure in the cardiovascular system is determined by three elements: heart rate, stroke volume, or the amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle with each heartbeat (primarily determined by the volume of blood in the system), and total peripheral resistance, or the resistance of the muscular arteries to the blood being pumped through. The preload and the pulse pressure are not factors that regulate pressure in the cardiovascular system.
A patient has just begun therapy with furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is instructing the patient about the need to include foods high in potassium in the diet. Which foods would be appropriate for this patient to choose? (Select all that apply.) A) Prunes B) Apples C) Watermelon D) Lima beans E) Rice
A, C, D Foods high in potassium include avocados, bananas, broccoli, cantaloupe, dried fruits, grapefruit, lima beans, nuts, navy beans, oranges, peaches, potatoes, prunes, rhubarb, Sanka coffee, sunflower seeds, spinach, tomatoes, and watermelon. Apples and rice are not potassium-rich foods.
The patient does not want to take medication to treat his or her hypertension if he or she can avoid it and asks the nurse if there is anything else he or she can do? What lifestyle changes will the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.) A) "Increase time spent exercising." B) "Eliminate all salt from your diet." C) "Reduce intake of fluids." D) Lose some weight." E) "Try meditation."
A, D, E Exercising, losing weight, and meditation to reduce stress are all effective changes the patient can make in her lifestyle. However, if these do not bring blood pressure to within acceptable limits, the next step in the stepped-care management approach to treat hypertension would be to introduce a diuretic, beta-blocker, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, or angiotensin II-receptor blocker in addition to the lifestyle changes. It is not necessary, or even possible, to eliminate all sodium from the diet but cutting back will reduce water retention. Reducing intake of fluids is not a healthy option and would not be suggested unless comorbidities, such as possibility of heart failure, were present.
The nurse evaluates an improvement in the patient's heart failure (HF) status based on what assessment finding? A) Using fewer pillows to sleep B) Increased skin turgor C) Heart rate regular D) Improved mental status
Ans: A Feedback: The degree of HF is often calculated by the number of pillows required to get relief (e.g., one-pillow, two-pillow, or three-pillow orthopnea). Fluid overload is associated with HF so skin turgor is not an indicator of improvement. Regular heart rate and normal cognition can be found with acute flare-ups of HF so these findings would not indicate improvement.
The patient taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has developed an infection. What antibiotic can the nurse safely administer to this patient? A) Zithromax B) Erythromycin C) Tetracycline D) Cyclosporine
Ans: A Feedback: Zithromax may be given without impacting the effects of digoxin. There is a risk of increased therapeutic effects and toxic effects of digoxin if it is taken with verapamil, amiodarone, quinidine, quinine, erythromycin, tetracycline, or cyclosporine. If digoxin is combined with any of these drugs, it may be necessary to decrease the digoxin dose to prevent toxicity. If one of these drugs has been part of a medical regimen with digoxin and is discontinued, the digoxin dose may need to be increased.
The nurse suspects the patient may have toxic levels of digoxin in the bloodstream when what is assessed? (Select all that apply.) A) Irregular heart rhythms B) Nausea C) Anorexia D) Headache E) Peripheral edema
Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Digoxin toxicity is a serious syndrome that can occur when digoxin levels are too high. The patient may present with anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, depression, irregular heart rhythms including heart block, atrial arrhythmias, and ventricular tachycardia. Peripheral edema is indicative of heart failure, not digoxin toxicity. Headache is not usually associated with digoxin toxicity.
The nurse is preparing to administer a digitalizing dosage of digoxin to a geriatric patient. What factors will the nurse assess for first to avoid digoxin toxicity? (Select all that apply.) A) Renal function B) Low body mass C) Hydration D) Assessment of pulse E) Cognitive function
Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Factors that may contribute to elevated digoxin levels include impaired renal function, low body mass, and dehydration. Assessment of pulse and cognitive function are always important when caring for a geriatric patient, but they will not contribute to elevated digoxin levels.
After administering digoxin, what assessment finding would indicate to the nurse that the drug was having the desired effect? A) Increased heart size B) Increased urinary output C) Decreased respiratory rate D) Increased heart rate
Ans: B Feedback: As cardiac output improves, so does urinary output due to increased renal perfusion. Respiratory rate and heart size would not be impacted by the drug, although ventricular hypertrophy is a common finding in patients with heart failure. Heart rate would decrease as the force of contraction increases, ejecting more blood with each contraction.
What electrolyte inactivates troponin and allows actin and myosin to form a bridge enabling the muscle fibers to contract? A) Magnesium B) Calcium C) Potassium D) Sodium
Ans: B Feedback: Calcium must be present to deactivate troponin so that actin and myosin can react to form actinomycin bridges. Potassium, sodium, and magnesium do not affect troponin.
A patient asks the nurse what cardiac glycosides do to improve his condition. What is the nurse's best response? A) "They decrease the force of myocardial contractions." B) "They help renal blood flow and increase urine output." C) "They increase heart rate." D) "They increase conduction velocity."
Ans: B Feedback: Cardiac glycosides increase intracellular calcium and allow more calcium to enter myocardial cells. This action causes an increased force of myocardial contraction, an increased cardiac output, and renal perfusion that increases urine output. Cardiac glycosides also serve to slow the heart rate and decrease conduction velocity.
What assessment finding would indicate the patient's left-sided heart failure is worsening? A) Increased jugular venous pressure B) Liver enlargement C) Increased crackles in lung fields D) Increased pulse rate
Ans: C Feedback: Fluid may accumulate in the lungs due to left sided heart failure. Patients may evidence dyspnea, tachypnea, and orthopnea. Right-sided failure would include increased jugular venous pressure and liver enlargement. Pulse rate could increase or decrease depending on medications administered.
A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a 78-year-old man. It is determined that the patient is experiencing severe digoxin toxicity. What drug will the nurse administer immediately? A) Inamrinone (Inocor) B) Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) C) Verapamil hydrochloride (Calan) D) Quinidine sulfate
Ans: B Feedback: Digoxin immune Fab is an antigen-binding fragment derived from specific antidigoxin antibodies. The drug is used for the treatment of life-threatening digoxin intoxication when serum levels are greater than 10 ng/mL. Inamrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts as a cardiotonic agent. Verapamil hydrochloride is a calcium channel blocker. Quinidine is an antiarrhythmic agent that when taken with digoxin increases both the therapeutic and toxic effects of digoxin.
The nurse is providing patient teaching to a patient who has been prescribed digoxin. The patient tells the nurse that she occasionally use herbals and other alternative therapies. What herb would the nurse warn the patient to avoid taking with digoxin? A) Black cohosh B) Ginseng C) Saw palmetto D) Valerian
Ans: B Feedback: Digoxin toxicity can occur if the drug is taken concurrently with licorice, ginseng, or hawthorn. St. John's wort and psyllium have been shown to decrease the effectiveness of digoxin, so that combination should be avoided. There is no drug-to-drug interaction with black cohosh, saw palmetto, or valerian.
What order for a digitalizing dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) for a 62-year-old man would the nurse consider appropriate and safe to administer? A) 1.25 mg IV now B) 0.75 mg orally now C) 0.25 mg orally every day D) 1 mg intramuscularly every 4 hours × 24 hours
Ans: B Feedback: Digoxin: Adult: loading dose 0.75 to 1.25 mg orally or 0.125 to 0.25 mg IV, then oral maintenance dose of 0.125 to 0.25 mg/d; decrease dose with renal impairment.
The nurse reviews the patient's lab results and recognizes the patient is at risk for digoxin toxicity due to what electrolyte imbalance? A) Hyperkalemia B) Hypokalemia C) Hypernatremia D) Hyponatremia
Ans: B Feedback: Electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., increased calcium, decreased potassium, decreased magnesium) could alter the action potential and change the effects of the drug. Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia increase cardiac excitability and ectopic pacemaker activity leading to dysrhythmias.
The nurse prepares to administer a phosphodiesterase inhibitor by what route? A) Oral B) IV C) Subcutaneous D) Intramuscular
Ans: B Feedback: Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are only given IV. They cannot be given orally, intramuscularly, or subcutaneously.
When a drug is said to increase the force of contraction of the heart muscle, the nurse appropriately uses what term? A) Positive chronotropic B) Positive inotropic C) Negative inotropic D) Negative dromotropic
Ans: B Feedback: Sympathetic stimulation causes an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and rate and depth of respirations, as well as a positive inotropic effect (increased force of contraction) on the heart and an increase in blood volume (through the release of aldosterone). A negative inotropic effect would be one that decreased the force of a contraction. A negative dromotropic effect is one that slows the conduction of the impulse through the atrioventricular node. A positive chronotropic effect is one that increases the heart rate.
After administering an IV dose of digoxin, the nurse would expect to see effects within what period of time? A) 30 to 120 minutes B) 5 to 30 minutes C) 1 hour D) 2 hours
Ans: B Feedback: The drug has a rapid onset of action and rapid absorption (30 to 120 minutes when taken orally, 5 to 30 minutes when given IV).
The nurse is preparing digoxin for an infant. What is the nurse's priority intervention? A) To perform hand hygiene B) To have another nurse check dosage calculations C) To check the child's apical pulse D) To identify the patient by checking the ID bracelet
Ans: B Feedback: The margin of safety for the dosage of this drug is very narrow in children. The dosage needs to be very carefully calculated and should be double-checked by another nurse before administration. The other options are important and the nurse should implement all three. However, these actions are of lower priority.
The 96-year-old patient is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). In the morning, the patient complains of a headache and nausea. What will the nurse do first? A) Contact the patient's physician immediately. B) Check her laboratory values and vital signs. C) Administer acetaminophen and Maalox. D) Give her clear liquids and have her lie down.
Ans: B Feedback: The nurse will check the patient's digoxin level and electrolytes. Assessing vital signs is important because the risk of cardiac arrhythmias could increase due to the patient's receiving furosemide, which is a potassium-losing diuretic. The adverse effects most frequently seen with the cardiac glycosides include headache, weakness, drowsiness, and vision changes (a yellow halo around objects is often reported). Gastrointestinal (GI) upset and anorexia also commonly occur. Only after checking lab values and assessing vital signs might the nurse call the physician. Acetaminophen and Maalox would not be indicated. Having her lie down and restricting her diet to clear liquids would be appropriate but not the first actions.
What common action do both cardiac glycosides and phosphodiesterase inhibitors have in common related to therapeutic action? A) Blocking the enzyme phosphodiesterase B) Increasing cellular calcium C) Developing ventricular arrhythmias D) Metabolizing in the liver and excreted in the urine
Ans: B Feedback: The phosphodiesterase inhibitors block the enzyme phosphodiesterase. This blocking effect leads to an increase in myocardial cell cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), which increases calcium levels in the cell (Figure 44.4). Increased cellular calcium causes a stronger contraction and prolongs the effects of sympathetic stimulation, which can lead to vasodilation, increased oxygen consumption, and arrhythmias. Digoxin also increases intracellular calcium and allows more calcium to enter myocardial cells during depolarization.
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who is about to begin digoxin therapy? A) Blood glucose levels B) Neurological function C) Kidney function D) Liver function
Ans: C Feedback: Digoxin is primarily excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution should be exercised if renal impairment is present. Blood glucose levels and neurological and liver function would not be a priority assessment related to digoxin therapy.
The nurse administers an IV phosphodiesterase inhibitor. What drug will result in forming a precipitate if given via the same IV line without adequate flushing? A) Albuterol (Proventil) B) Nifedipine (Procardia) C) Furosemide (Lasix) D) Lovastatin (Mevacor)
Ans: C Feedback: Furosemide, when given with a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, forms precipitates; therefore, this combination should be avoided. Use alternate lines if both of these drugs are being given IV. There are no known drug-to-drug interactions with albuterol, nifedipine, or lovastatin.
The nurse administers a human B-type natriuretic peptide with the expectation it will have what action? A) Decrease blood volume B) Increase force of cardiac contraction C) Reduce venous return D) Lighten the heart's workload
Ans: C Feedback: Human B-type natriuretic peptides are normally produced by myocardial cells as a compensatory response to increased cardiac workload and increased stimulation by the stress hormones. They bind to endothelial cells, leading to dilation and resulting in decreased venous return, peripheral resistance, and cardiac workload. They also suppress the body's response to the stress hormones, leading to increased fluid loss and further decrease in cardiac workload. Diuretics decrease blood volume, cardiac glycosides increase force of contraction, and vasodilators lighten the heart's workload.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has digoxin toxicity. As the nurse assesses the changes in the patient's daily activities, what finding could indicate the cause of the toxic level? A) The patient has been sleeping more lately. B) The patient took nitroglycerin for chest pain twice yesterday. C) The patient's daughter brought her a bag of licorice that she has been enjoying. D) The patient's intake of sodium increased lately because she's been eating seafood.
Ans: C Feedback: Increased digoxin toxicity has been reported with ginseng, hawthorn, and licorice. Patients should be advised to avoid these combinations. Increased sodium intake will exacerbate the patient's heart failure, which might explain why she is sleeping more and requiring nitroglycerin but these actions did not contribute to the digoxin toxicity.
The nurse assesses the patient before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) and withholds the drug and notifies the physician with what finding? A) Respiratory rate falls below 14 B) History reveals liver failure C) Pulse is 44 beats/min D) Blood pressure is 72/40 mm Hg
Ans: C Feedback: Monitor apical pulse for 1 full minute before administering the drug to assess for adverse effects. Hold the dose if the pulse is less than 60 beats/min in an adult or less than 90 beats/min in an infant; retake pulse in 1 hour. If pulse remains low, document pulse, withhold the drug, and notify the prescriber.
The nurse admits a patient to the constant care unit with a digoxin level of 11 ng/mL and a serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Digoxin immune Fab is administered. The next day, the patient's digoxin level remains elevated. What action does the nurse anticipate? A) Administer digoxin immune Fab again. B) Administer a reduced dosage of digoxin. C) Continue to monitor the patient's digoxin level daily. D) Notify the health care provider of the elevated level.
Ans: C Feedback: Serum digoxin levels will be very high and unreliable for about 3 days after the digoxin immune Fab infusion because of the high levels of digoxin in the blood. The patient should not be redigitalized for several days to 1 week after digoxin immune Fab has been used, because of the potential of fragments remaining in the blood. There is no need to notify the health care provider or to administer digoxin immune Fab again.
When administering milrinone (Primacor), the nurse will assess the patient for what common adverse effect? A) Hypoglycemia B) Confusion C) Hypotension D) Seizures
Ans: C Feedback: The adverse effects most frequently seen with these drugs are ventricular arrhythmias (which can progress to fatal ventricular fibrillation), hypotension, and chest pain. Hypoglycemia, confusion, and seizures are not generally adverse effects of milrinone.
The nurse provides teaching about digoxin to the 62-year-old patient. The nurse evaluates patient understanding and determines further teaching is needed when the patient says she will do what? A) "Take the medication daily in the morning." B) "Take her pulse before taking her dose." C) "Weigh herself daily at the same time." D) "Take the medication with a meal."
Ans: D Feedback: Avoid administering the oral drug with food or antacids to avoid delays in absorption. The other answers are appropriate actions for the patient to take when self-administering digoxin.
The nurse expects the patient's heart failure (HF) is caused by what diagnosis that is responsible for 95% of the cases diagnosed? A) Cardiomyopathy B) Hypertension C) Congenital anomaly D) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Ans: D Feedback: CAD is the leading cause of HF, accounting for approximately 95% of the cases diagnosed. CAD results in an insufficient supply of blood to meet the oxygen demands of the myocardium. Consequently, the muscles become hypoxic and can no longer function efficiently. When CAD evolves into a myocardial infarction, muscle cells die or are damaged, leading to an inefficient pumping effort. Cardiomyopathy, hypertension, and congenital anomaly are rarely associated with heart failure.
The nurse administers a cardiac glycoside for what therapeutic effect? A) To decrease cardiac output B) To decrease afterload C) To increase ventricular rate D) To increase the force of the contraction of the heart
Ans: D Feedback: Cardiac glycosides exert a negative cardiotonic and positive inotropic effect. They do not decrease cardiac output, decrease afterload, or increase the ventricular rate of the heart.
A 6-year-old child weighing 60 pounds has been prescribed oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 30 mcg/kg as a loading dose. How many milligram will she be given? A) 0.218 mg B) 0.418 mg C) 0.618 mg D) 0.818 mg
Ans: D Feedback: First, using the formula: 2.2 pounds and 60 pounds: multiplied by kg, determine the child's weight in kg (60/2.2 = 27.27 kg). Next, using the formula: amount of drug prescribed times weight in kg, determine the dose in mcg the child should receive (30 multiplied by 27.27 = 0. 818 mcg). Then to determine the amount of mg the child should receive, use the formula: 1 mg: 1,000 mcg = X mg: 818 mcg (818/1,000 = 0.818 mg).
The nurse is providing discharge instruction to a patient who has just begun using diuretics. The nurse counsels the patient that it is most important to monitor the intake of foods that contain which element? A) Calcium B) Potassium C) Glucose D) Magnesium
B Potassium is the most important element to monitor in the diet because diuretics are most likely to lead to hyper- or hypokalemia depending on the diuretic prescribed. Calcium, glucose, and magnesium may need to be monitored in the diet but potassium would be the most important.
A patient presents to the emergency department with rales, wheezing, and blood-tinged sputum. What does the nurse recognize that these symptoms indicate? A) Cardiomyopathy B) Cardiomegaly C) Valvular heart disease D) Pulmonary edema
Ans: D Feedback: In left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle pumps inefficiently resulting in a backup of blood into the lungs causing pulmonary vessel congestion and fluid leaks into the alveoli and lung tissue. As more fluid continues to collect in the alveoli, pulmonary edema develops. The patient will present with rales, wheezes, blood-tinged sputum, low oxygenation, and development of a third heart sound. Cardiomyopathy can occur as a result of a viral infection, alcoholism, anabolic steroid abuse, or a collagen disorder. It causes muscle alterations and ineffective contraction and pumping. Cardiomegaly is an enlargement of the heart due to compensatory mechanisms in congestive heart failure (CHF) and leads to ineffective pumping and eventually exacerbated CHF. Valvular heart disease leads to an overload of the ventricles because the valves do not close adequately causing blood to leak backward. This causes muscle stretching and increased demand for oxygen and energy.
The patient has been prescribed inamrinone (Inocor). Before administering the drug the nurse needs to know the drug has what pharmacokinetic effect? A) Decrease in cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) B) Decrease in cardiac output C) Increase in cardiac preload D) Increase in cAMP
Ans: D Feedback: Inamrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that blocks the enzyme phosphodiesterase. This blocking effect leads to an increase in myocardial cell cAMP, which increases calcium levels in the cell. These drugs do not decrease cardiac output or increase cardiac preload.
Which drug is in the class of drugs called human B-type natriuretic peptides? A) Bosentan (Tracleer) B) Milrinone (Primacor) C) Digoxin (Lanoxin) D) Nesiritide (Natrecor)
Ans: D Feedback: Nesiritide is the only drug currently available in a class of drugs called human B-type natriuretic peptides. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor. Bosentan is an endothelin receptor antagonist.
A 62-year-old African American man diagnosed with congestive heart failure and hypertension has BiDil included in his drug therapy. What nursing assessment finding would indicate the patient is developing a complication from this drug? A) Alopecia B) Photosensitivity C) Anorexia D) Orthostatic hypotension
Ans: D Feedback: Orthostatic hypotension is an adverse effect of a combination of isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine called BiDil. This could lead to safety concerns and should be addressed in drug teaching for this patient. Alopecia, photosensitivity, and anorexia are not adverse effects related to this drug.
The patient has just been prescribed milrinone (Primacor). The nurse recognizes the drug is contraindicated due to the patient's allergy to what? A) Penicillins B) Salicylates C) Opioids D) Bisulfites
Ans: D Feedback: Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are contraindicated in the presence of allergy to the drug or to bisulfites. Penicillins, salicylates, and opioids have no contraindications when used with milrinone.
The nurse, caring for a patient who is receiving cardiac glycosides to treat heart failure, will teach the patient to follow what diet? A) High sodium, low potassium, high fat B) Low sodium, low potassium, low fat C) High iron, high calcium, high potassium D) Low sodium, high potassium, low fat
Ans: D Feedback: Restrict dietary sodium to reduce edema in patients receiving cardiac glycosides. If the patient is hyponatremic or using a potassium-losing diuretic, increase potassium in diet, as well as limit fat intake to reduce weight and atherogenic activity.
A patient who works on road construction has been diagnosed with hypertension. After attempting to decrease his blood pressure with lifestyle changes and a mild diuretic, it is determined that he will need to be placed on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Based on his occupation, what is the nurse's priority assessment? A) Chronic constipation B) Excessive sweating on the job C) Three large meals a day D) One beer every night
B A patient taking an ACE inhibitor should be sure to maintain fluid intake, so excessive sweating on the job places him at risk for a drop in fluid volume. Excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or dehydration need to be monitored and treated if they occur while taking an ACE inhibitor. Six smaller meals rather than three larger ones would be better and should be encouraged. However, this could be a problem with his job. The best treatment for constipation would be to increase fluid and fiber and one beer a night would be within reason when considering alcohol intake.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing diuretic drugs with the nursing class. What would the instructor cite as an adverse effect of loop diuretics? A) Hyperkalemia B) Alkalosis C) Hypertension D) Hypercalcemia
B Alkalosis is a drop in serum pH to an alkaline state due to bicarbonate loss in urine. Hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypotension are also adverse effect of these drugs. Therefore, the other options are not correct.
The nurse on the coronary unit is caring for a patient with known coronary artery disease who is being treated with cholestyramine (Questran) and hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). What action will the nurse take? A) Call the physician and refuse to give the drugs without further orders. B) Make sure that the drugs are given at least 2 hours apart. C) Give the patient an antacid with the drugs. D) Check the patient's blood glucose level before giving the drugs.
B Because of its effects in the GI tract, cholestyramine should be taken at least 2 hours earlier or later than hydrochlorothiazide to ensure the absorption of hydrochlorothiazide. This combination of drugs can be used effectively. An antacid would further aggravate drug absorption and would not be recommended. Blood glucose levels would not be affected by either of these drugs.
The nurse is providing drug teaching for a patient who is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). What drug specific adverse effect will the nurse include in the drug teaching? A) Sedation B) Persistent cough C) Tachycardia D) Rash
B Benazepril, enalapril, and fosinopril are generally well tolerated but cause an unrelenting cough, possibly related to adverse effects in the lungs, where the angiotensin-converting enzyme is inhibited, which may lead patients to discontinue the drug. This persistent cough develops in approximately 10% to 20% of patients.
The nurse provides drug teaching to the patient prescribed captopril (Capoten). What statement made by the patient does the nurse interpret to mean teaching has been effective? A) "I will limit my fluid intake to 1,200 mL daily." B) "I will call my doctor if I bruise easily or become extremely tired." C) "I will move from a reclining to a standing position slowly." D) "I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium."
B Captopril has been associated with a sometimes-fatal pancytopenia, cough, and unpleasant gastrointestinal (GI) distress so the patient should be alert to symptoms related to anemia, reduction in platelets, or infection. There is no need to increase potassium intake because a slight rise in potassium level is associated with this drug. Orthostatic hypotension is not a listed adverse effect. There is no need to limit fluid intake for most patients unless they have a comorbid disorder.
What is the term for the action of a diuretic in a patient with glaucoma? A) Intraocular pressure (IOP) B) Osmotic pull C) Diuresis D) Potassium sparing
B Glaucoma is an eye disease characterized by increased pressure in the eye—known as intraocular pressure (IOP)—which can cause optic nerve atrophy and blindness. Diuretics are used to provide osmotic pull to remove some of the fluid from the eye, which decreases IOP, or as adjunctive therapy to reduce fluid volume and pressure in the cardiovascular system, which also decreases pressure in the eye somewhat. Potassium sparing refers to a class of diuretics that help to retain potassium.
The nurse works with the patient, diagnosed with hypertension, and the patient's family to determine the goal of drug therapy for the patient taking an antihypertensive medication is what? A) Maintaining compliance B) Maintaining the blood pressure within normal limits C) Maintaining a fluid volume balance D) Maintaining homeostasis
B Helping the patient to maintain the blood pressure within normal limits is the goal of drug therapy. How blood pressure is maintained within normal limits may involve balancing fluid volume and patient compliance with the plan of care, but these are interventions and not the goal of therapy. Returning the patient to homeostasis comes before maintaining homeostasis.
The nurse is caring for an obese child with hypertension and slightly elevated serum glucose levels. What would the nurse anticipate will be ordered if lifestyle changes do not return blood pressure to an acceptable limit? A) Lifestyle changes B) Mild diuretic C) Calcium channel blocker. D) Beta-blocker
B Lifestyle changes should be instituted before drug therapy if at all possible. If drug therapy is used, a mild diuretic may be tried first, with monitoring of blood glucose and electrolyte levels on a regular basis. Calcium channel blockers have been used to treat hypertension in children and may be among the first considerations if drug therapy other than mild diuretics is needed. Beta-blockers have been used with success in some children; adverse effects may limit their usefulness in others. The safety and efficacy of the angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and the angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) have not been established in children.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 72-year-old patient who has been discharged home on a diuretic. What would the patient's instructions regarding the use of a diuretic at home include? A) Measuring intake and output of urine B) To weigh themselves on the same scale, at the same time of day, in the same clothing C) Restrict fluids to 500 mL/d to limit the need to urinate D) Decrease exercise to conserve energy
B Patients taking a diuretic at home need to learn to weigh themselves every day, at the same time, and in the same clothes to monitor for loss or retention of fluid. They should not be asked to measure urine output or to decrease activity. Restricting fluids can lead to a rebound fluid retention when compensatory mechanisms are activated.The emergency department (ED) nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing pulmonary edema. The patient is treated with furosemide (Lasix). What will the nurse monitor? A) Sodium levels B) Bone narrow function C) Calcium levels D) Potassium levels
An older adult patient is taking a sustained-release antihypertensive drug. What is the nurse's priority teaching point about this medication? A) "Take your blood pressure only at night." B) "Swallow the drug whole and do not to cut, crush, or chew it." C) "Take the drug before bedtime." D) "Use over-the-counter (OTC) drugs to control headache or cold symptoms."
B Sustained-release drugs are suspended in a matrix system that allows a steady release of the drug over time. Sustained-release drugs cannot be cut, crushed, or chewed; it destroys the matrix system and allows absorption of the complete dose all at once. Older patients should be especially cautioned about sustained-release antihypertensives that cannot be cut, crushed, or chewed to avoid the potential for excessive dosing if these drugs are inappropriately cut. Many OTC drugs contain ingredients that increase blood pressure and so are not recommended for patients with hypertension. The patient can take his or her blood pressure any time during the day but should take the drug in the morning.
What drug is a safe and effective calcium channel blocker only if the nurse administers them as sustained-release or extended-release preparations to treat hypertension? A) Aliskiren (Tekturna) B) Diltiazem (Cardizem) C) Atenolol (Tenormin) D) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
B The calcium channel blockers available in immediate-release and sustained-release forms that are used in treating hypertension include amlodipine (Norvasc), felodipine (Plendil), isradipine (DynaCirc, DynaCirc CR), and nicardipine (Cardene, Cardene SR). Other calcium channel blockers are safe and effective for this use only if they are given as sustained-release or extended-release preparations. These include diltiazem (Cardizem, Dilacor CR), nifedipine (Procardia XL), nisoldipine (Sular), and verapamil (Calan SR). Aliskiren (Tekturna) is a renin inhibitor. Atenolol (Tenormin) and Metoprolol (Lopressor) are beta-blockers, not calcium channel blockers.
A 91-year-old patient is being discharged on the diuretic spironolactone (Aldactone). What is the major adverse effect of this type of medication? A) Hypokalemia B) Hyperkalemia C) Gastric irritation D) Hypertension
B The most common adverse effect of potassium-sparing diuretics is hyperkalemia, which can cause lethargy, confusion, ataxia, muscle cramps, and cardiac arrhythmias. Hypokalemia, gastric irritation, and hypertension are not recognized as adverse effects of spironolactone.
The nurse has just administered 150 g of mannitol IV to a patient with increased intracranial pressure. What is most important for the nurse to monitor in the hour after administration? A) Weight of patient B) Blood pressure of patient C) Pulse of patient D) Respiratory rate of patient
B The most common and potentially dangerous adverse effect related to an osmotic diuretic is the sudden drop in fluid levels. Mannitol peaks 1 hour after administration, therefore, it would be most important to monitor blood pressure. Weight is the best indicator over time but would not be as effective in indicating a dangerous fluid drop as the blood pressure. Respiratory and pulse rates would also not be as effective as blood pressure in evaluating dangerous fluid drops.
A patient newly diagnosed with hypertension has just been given a prescription for medication. Along with promoting safety, what is the other goal of the nurse's teaching plan? A) A blood pressure of 120/80 B) Medication compliance C) A discussion with his insurance company about the cost of the drug D) Verbalization of why drugs should be kept out of the reach of children
B The nurse provides thorough patient teaching, including the name of the drug, dosage prescribed, measures to avoid adverse effects, warning signs of problems, and the need for periodic monitoring and evaluation, to enhance patient knowledge about drug therapy and to promote compliance. All of the options are realistic outcomes for this patient. However, compliance is a great concern for people who are in need of hypertensive agents. It would be most important for his or her health care provider to know that he or she has filled the prescription and is taking his or her medication as prescribed. Keeping the drug out of the reach of children would be a safety measure.
The staff educator in the ICU is talking with a group of new nurses about osmotic diuretics. The educator would tell the new nurses that osmotic diuretics act on which site in the nephron? A) Proximal tubule B) Glomerulus C) Ascending limb of loop of Henle D) Collecting tubule
B These drugs are freely filtered at the renal glomerulus, poorly reabsorbed by the renal tubule, not secreted by the tubule, and resistant to metabolism. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not correct.
A patient has been started on losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II-receptor blocker (ARB), for hypertension. After 6 weeks of therapy, it is decided that the losartan alone is not controlling the patient's hypertension. What does the nurse anticipate will be added to the losartan regimen for better control of this patient's hypertension? A) Candesartan (Atacand) B) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hyzaar) C) Captopril (Capoten) D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B When losartan therapy is started, maximal effects on blood pressure usually occur within 3 to 6 weeks. If losartan alone does not control blood pressure, a low dose of a diuretic may be added. A combination product of losartan and hydrochlorothiazide (Hyzaar) is available. Adding a second ARB such as candesartan or captopril would risk causing toxic adverse effects. ADH causes retention of water in the nephrons, which would further increase blood pressure.
A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about loop diuretics. Which would be included in this classification? (Select all that apply.) A) Acetazolamide B) Torsemide C) Ethacrynic acid D) Mannitol E) Bumetanide
B, C, E Torsemide, ethacrynic acid, and bumetanide are examples of loop diuretics. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrous inhibitor and mannitol is an osmotic diuretic.
A patient has been prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and the nurse is preparing to give the patient discharge instructions. Which adverse effects may this patient experience while taking this medication? (Select all that apply.) A) Constipation B) Dizziness C) Polyphagia D) Nocturia E) Muscle cramps
B, D, E The adverse effects associated with hydrochlorothiazide are dizziness, vertigo, orthostatic hypotension, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, dry mouth, diarrhea, polyuria, nocturia, muscle cramps, and spasms. The patient would not experience polyphagia (great hunger) and constipation.
The nurse administers ambrisentan (Letairis) to the patient diagnosed with pulmonary arterial hypertension. What single indicator would the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication? A) Oxygen saturation B) Resting respiratory rate C) Exercise tolerance D) Breath sounds
C Although it is certainly important to assess all aspects of oxygenation and ventilation, the single best indicator of drug effectiveness is improved exercise tolerance. Many patients can oxygenate at rest and maintain a normal resting respiration, but activity increases oxygen demand, which is when signs of pulmonary hypertension are best seen.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking acetazolamide (Diamox) for treatment of glaucoma. What drug, if taken with acetazolamide (Diamox), would cause the nurse to contact the physician? A) Indomethacin (Indocin) B) Colestipol (Colestid) C) Lithium (Eskalith) D) Ibuprofen (Motrin)
C An increase in the excretion of lithium can occur when taken with acetazolamide, so that special monitoring or a dosage adjustment may be necessary. Indomethacin, colestipol, and ibuprofen do not produce drug-to-drug interactions when given with acetazolamide.
The clinic nurse assesses a patient taking benazepril (Lotensin) to control hypertension. What is the priority nursing assessment related to this drug? A) Mental illness B) Hepatic disease C) Renal disease D) Peptic ulcer disease
C Benazepril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor; drugs in this class are contraindicated in the presence of impaired renal function. Mental illness, hepatic disease, or peptic ulcer disease is not a contraindication with this drug.
A patient taking diltiazem (Cardizem) for hypertension has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. What adverse effects would the nurse assess the patient for? A) Chest pain and pale skin B) Shortness of breath and wheezing C) Peripheral edema and bradycardia D) Tachycardia and increased energy level
C Cardiovascular adverse effects of diltiazem include bradycardia, peripheral edema, and hypotension. Skin flushing and rash may occur. There should be no effect on the lungs and usually this drug causes fatigue rather than increased energy levels.
The nurse provides dietary teaching to the patient with hypertension and determines the patient understood the information when what meal is selected? A) Hot dogs, baked beans, and cole slaw B) French fries, grilled hamburger, and cola drink C) Grilled chicken, green salad with dressing, and baked apple D) Bologna sandwich with mayonnaise, potato chips, and a chocolate-chip cookie
C Chicken, salad, and fruit are all low in sodium. The other meal options all contain foods high in sodium (i.e., hot dogs, French fries, processed meats like bologna, and potato chips).
What is the nurse's priority to assess before giving a female patient her prescription for an angiotensin II-receptor blocker (ARB)? A) "Do you eat something when you take your medications?" B) "How much physical exercise do you get?" C) "When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?" D) "Have you always weighed 130 pounds since you grew up?"
C It would be important to know when the patient's LMP occurred and that the patient was not pregnant. These drugs can cause fetal abnormalities and fetal death. The other questions are appropriate and would help the nurse plan care for the patient; however, it would not be as important as assessing for the possibility of pregnancy before beginning of therapy. The nurse should teach the patient the need to avoid pregnancy using a barrier contraceptive.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a severe head injury. An osmotic diuretic is ordered. The nurse understands which drug is an osmotic diuretic? A) Spironolactone (Aldactone) B) Bumetanide (Bumex) C) Mannitol (Osmitrol) D) Ethacrynic (Edecrin)
C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic. Bumetanide and ethacrynic are loop diuretics.
A patient has just been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). After reviewing the patient's medication history, what drug would cause the nurse concern when taken with furosemide (Lasix)? A) Acetaminophen B) Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) C) Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) D) Ampicillin
C Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug. There may also be a decreased loss of sodium and decreased antihypertensive effects if these drugs are combined with indomethacin, ibuprofen, salicylates, or other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs. The patient receiving this combination should be monitored closely and appropriate dosage adjustments should be made. There is no contraindication to the intercurrent use of acetaminophen, ferrous sulfate, or ampicillin.
A patient taking a calcium channel blocker is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with drug toxicity. When collecting the nursing history, what finding would indicate the likely cause of this drug toxicity? A) Intake of alcohol B) The use of eggs in the diet C) The ingestion of grapefruit juice D) Intake of aged cheese
C The calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs that interact with grapefruit juice. When grapefruit juice is present in the body, the concentrations of calcium channel blockers increase, sometimes to toxic levels. Advise patients to avoid drinking grapefruit juice taking a calcium channel blocker. If a patient on a calcium channel blocker reports toxic effects, ask whether he or she is drinking grapefruit juice. Use of alcohol could be important if the patient was ingesting large amounts, but that would not be the most likely cause of drug toxicity. Eggs and cheese should not exert any food-drug interaction.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with essential hypertension. The nurse is aware that the health care provider will begin therapy with which classification of diuretics? A) Loop diuretics B) Carbonic anhydrous inhibitors C) Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics D) potassium-sparing diuretics
C Thiazides are considered to be mild diuretics compared with the more potent loop diuretics. These agents are the first-line drugs used to manage essential hypertension when drug therapy is needed. Loop and potassium-sparing diuretics and carbonic anhydrous inhibitors would be used in combination with or after the thiazide diuretics are no longer effective.
What does the clinic nurse anticipate as initial drug therapy for a 39-year-old African American man who is 25 pounds overweight and newly diagnosed with hypertension? A) An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor B) A beta-blocker C) A calcium channel blocker D) A diuretic
D African Americans are at highest risk for developing hypertension with men more likely than women to develop the disease. African Americans have documented differences in response to antihypertensive therapy. They are most responsive to single-drug therapy and diuretics. The first line use of a diuretic is in combination with diet and other lifestyle changes. The use of a calcium channel blocker and/or alpha-adrenergic blocker should follow. African Americans are less responsive to ACE inhibitors and beta-blocker.
A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit in shock with hypotension. What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Impaired gas exchange B) Deficient fluid volume C) Risk for shock D) Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion
D An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion. If blood pressure becomes too low, the vital centers in the brain, as well as the rest of the tissues of the body, may not receive enough oxygenated blood to continue functioning. Because the patient is already in shock it would not be a risk diagnosis. There is no indication of altered gas exchange or deficient fluid volume.
A patient has just begun to take a prescribed diuretic. Why would the nurse tell the patient to drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily (unless it is counterindicated)? A) To decrease the action of the renin-angiotensin cycle B) To make more concentrated plasma C) To dilute the urine D) To avoid rebound edema
D Care must be taken when using diuretics to avoid fluid rebound, which is associated with fluid loss. If a patient stops taking in water and takes the diuretic, the result will be a concentrated plasma of smaller volume. The decreased volume is sensed by the nephrons, which activate the renin-angiotensin cycle. When concentrated blood is sensed by the osmotic center in the brain, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released to retain water and dilute the blood. The result can be "rebound" edema as fluid is retained. Drinking 8 to 10 glasses of water will not decrease the action of the renin-angiotensin cycle, or make plasma more concentrated. It may produce urine that is dilute but that is not the reason it is recommended.
The nurse evaluates the patient's lifestyle for factors that are contributing to his or her diagnosis of hypertension and then addresses the need to change what factor? A) Working outdoors in the sun B) Weight lifting at the gym C) Married with two children D) Exposure to high-frequency noise
D Factors that are known to increase blood pressure in some people include high levels of psychological stress, exposure to high-frequency noise, a high-salt diet, lack of rest, and genetic predisposition. Working outdoors in the sun may increase risk for skin cancer but does not contribute to hypertension. Weight lifting is good exercise, especially if he uses low weight and frequent repetition. Being married with two children is not a contributing factor for hypertension.
The emergency department (ED) nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing pulmonary edema. The patient is treated with furosemide (Lasix). What will the nurse monitor? A) Sodium levels B) Bone narrow function C) Calcium levels D) Potassium levels
D Furosemide is associated with loss of potassium, so that the patient will need to be monitored carefully for low potassium levels, which could cause cardiac arrhythmias and further aggravate pulmonary edema. The nurse would not monitor sodium or calcium levels or bone marrow function because of the effects of the drug during the acute treatment of pulmonary edema.
A patient comes to the clinic for a 1-month follow-up appointment. The patient tells the nurse he or she has been taking chlorothiazide (Diruil) for a month and now has leg cramps and "feels tired all the time." What will the nurse consider as the cause of the patient's symptoms? A) Hypercalcemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypokalemia
D Hypokalemia results from the loss of potassium in the distal tubule and causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia presents with cardiac arrhythmias and occasionally muscle weakness. Hypercalcemia is characterized by fatigue, depression, mental confusion, nausea, vomiting, and constipation. Hypocalcemia presents with muscle spasms, facial grimacing, possible convulsions, irritability, and depression.
A stepped care management approach to treating hypertension includes weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased use of alcohol, reducing salt in the diet, and increased physical exercise. In which step of a stepped-care management approach will the nurse teach about these changes in lifestyle? A) Step 1 only B) Steps 1 and 2 C) Steps 1, 2, and 3 D) Steps 1, 2, 3, and 4
D Lifestyle changes are encouraged in all four steps and should be advocated for the maintenance of good health. These changes are stressed in steps 1 and 2 in the hope that drug therapy will not be necessary. However, these changes should occur in steps 3 and 4 as well.
A 10-year-old child has edema caused by a heart defect. The patient is taking furosemide (Lasix). The dosage is 6 mg/kg/d. The child weighs 76 pounds. How many mg does the child receive in each dose? A) 20 mg B) 50 mg C) 105 mg D) 210 mg
D The nurse will administer 210 mg/dose of the drug (2.2 pounds: 1 kg = 76 pounds: × kg, 76 divided by 2.2 = 34.5, 35 times 6 = 210 mg).
The nurse is talking with a group of nursing students. What drug would the nurse tell them, when combined with furosemide (Lasix), is likely to cause hearing loss? A) Codeine B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) C) Digoxin (Lanoxin) D) Gentamicin (Garamycin)
D The risk of ototoxicity increases if loop diuretics are combined with aminoglycoside antibiotics (gentamicin) or cisplatin. No known increased risk of ototoxicity exists when furosemide is taken with codeine, ciprofloxacin, or digoxin.
The class of diuretics that act to block the chloride pump in the distal convoluted tubules and leads to a loss of sodium and potassium and a minor loss of water is what? A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors B) Osmotic diuretics C) Potassium-sparing diuretics D) Thiazide diuretics
D Thiazide diuretics work to block the chloride pump, which leads to a loss of sodium, potassium, and some water. They are considered mild diuretics. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors work to block the formation of carbonic acid and bicarbonate in the renal tubules. Osmotic diuretics use hypertonic pull to remove fluid from the intravascular spaces and to deliver large amounts of water into the renal tubules. Potassium-sparing diuretics are mild and act to spare potassium in exchange for the loss of sodium and water.
