Pharm Exam 2 Practice Questions

62.) A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."

4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing." Rationale: Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals, this will decrease gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).

222.) A nurse has administered a dose of diazepam (Valium) to a client. The nurse would take which important action before leaving the client's room? 1. Giving the client a bedpan 2. Drawing the shades or blinds closed 3. Turning down the volume on the television 4. Per agency policy, putting up the side rails on the bed

4. Per agency policy, putting up the side rails on the bed Rationale: Diazepam is a sedative-hypnotic with anticonvulsant and skeletal muscle relaxant properties. The nurse should institute safety measures before leaving the client's room to ensure that the client does not injure herself or himself. The most frequent side effects of this medication are dizziness, drowsiness, and lethargy. For this reason, the nurse puts the side rails up on the bed before leaving the room to prevent falls. Options 1, 2, and 3 may be helpful measures that provide a comfortable, restful environment, but option 4 is the one that provides for the client's safety needs.

112.) A hospitalized client is started on phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) for the treatment of depression. The nurse instructs the client to avoid consuming which foods while taking this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Figs 2. Yogurt 3. Crackers 4. Aged cheese 5 Tossed salad 6. Oatmeal cookies

1. Figs 2. Yogurt 4. Aged cheese Rationale: Phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor(MAOI). The client should avoid taking in foods that are high in tyramine. Use of these foods could trigger a potentially fatal hypertensive crisis. Some foods to avoid include yogurt, aged cheeses, smoked or processed meats, red wines, and fruits such as avocados, raisins, and figs.

103.) A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has been taking clozapine (Clozaril) for the treatment of a schizophrenic disorder. Which laboratory study prescribed for the client will the nurse specifically review to monitor for an adverse effect associated with the use of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Cholesterol level 3. White blood cell count 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

3. White blood cell count Rationale: Hematological reactions can occur in the client taking clozapine and include agranulocytosis and mild leukopenia. The white blood cell count should be checked before initiating treatment and should be monitored closely during the use of this medication. The client should also be monitored for signs indicating agranulocytosis, which may include sore throat, malaise, and fever. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to this medication.

232.) A client in the mental health unit is administered haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse would check which of the following to determine medication effectiveness? 1. The client's vital signs 2. The client's nutritional intake 3. The physical safety of other unit clients 4. The client's orientation and delusional status

4. The client's orientation and delusional status Rationale: Haloperidol is used to treat clients exhibiting psychotic features. Therefore, to determine medication effectiveness, the nurse would check the client's orientation and delusional status. Vital signs are routine and not specific to this situation. The physical safety of other clients is not a direct assessment of this client. Monitoring nutritional intake is not related to this situation.

When hydrocortisone use is discontinued, the nurse must recognize the possibility of what side effect, if this drug is stopped abruptly? a.) Development of myxedema b.) Circulatory collapse c.) Development of Cushing's syndrome d.) Development of diabetes insipidus

b.) Circulatory collapse

65. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is added to the treatment regimen of a client with arthritis. The nurse explains that the major advantage of this drug is: a.) The drug is less expensive. b.) The drug has no known side effects. c.) The drug has anti-inflammatory properties. d.) The drug's effectiveness is the same as opioids.

c.) The drug has anti-inflammatory properties. Celecoxib (Celebrex) has anti-inflammatory properties. It is not less expensive, has many side effects, and is less potent than opioids.

31.) A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." 2. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time." 3. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet." 4. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor."

1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 lb or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development.

79.) Ibuprofen (Advil) is prescribed for a client. The nurse tells the client to take the medication: 1. With 8 oz of milk 2. In the morning after arising 3. 60 minutes before breakfast 4. At bedtime on an empty stomach

1. With 8 oz of milk Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). NSAIDs should be given with milk or food to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

224.) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is suspected in a client who is taking chlorpromazine. Which medication would the nurse prepare in anticipation of being prescribed to treat this adverse effect related to the use of chlorpromazine? 1. Protamine sulfate 2. Bromocriptine (Parlodel) 3. Phytonadione (vitamin K) 4. Enalapril maleate (Vasotec)

2. Bromocriptine (Parlodel) Rationale: Bromocriptine is an antiparkinsonian prolactin inhibitor used in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) overdose. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Enalapril maleate is an antihypertensive used in the treatment of hypertension.

237.) A client who is on lithium carbonate (Lithobid) will be discharged at the end of the week. In formulating a discharge teaching plan, the nurse will instruct the client that it is most important to: 1. Avoid soy sauce, wine, and aged cheese. 2. Have the lithium level checked every week. 3. Take medication only as prescribed because it can become addicting. 4. Check with the psychiatrist before using any over-the-counter (OTC) medications or prescription medications.

4. Check with the psychiatrist before using any over-the-counter (OTC) medications or prescription medications. Rationale: Lithium is the medication of choice to treat manic-depressive illness. Many OTC medications interact with lithium, and the client is instructed to avoid OTC medications while taking lithium. Lithium is not addicting, and, although serum lithium levels need to be monitored, it is not necessary to check these levels every week. A tyramine-free diet is associated with monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

94.) The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has begun therapy with zidovudine (Retrovir, Azidothymidine, AZT, ZDV). The nurse carefully monitors which of the following laboratory results during treatment with this medication? 1. Blood culture 2. Blood glucose level 3. Blood urea nitrogen 4. Complete blood count

4. Complete blood count Rationale: A common side effect of therapy with zidovudine is leukopenia and anemia. The nurse monitors the complete blood count results for these changes. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the use of this medication.

159.) A nurse is caring for a client receiving morphine sulfate subcutaneously for pain. Because morphine sulfate has been prescribed for this client, which nursing action would be included in the plan of care? 1. Encourage fluid intake. 2. Monitor the client's temperature. 3. Maintain the client in a supine position. 4. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.

4. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe. Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex. Clients need to be encouraged to cough and deep breathe to prevent pneumonia. *ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation*

223.) A client with a psychotic disorder is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). Which of the following would indicate the presence of a toxic effect of this medication? 1. Nausea 2. Hypotension 3. Blurred vision 4. Excessive salivation

4. Excessive salivation Rationale: Toxic effects include extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) noted as marked drowsiness and lethargy, excessive salivation, and a fixed stare. Akathisia, acute dystonias, and tardive dyskinesia are also signs of toxicity. Hypotension, nausea, and blurred vision are occasional side effects.

225.) A nursing student is assigned to care for a client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is prescribed for the client, and the nursing instructor asks the student to describe the action of the medication. Which statement by the nursing student indicates an understanding of the action of this medication? 1. It is a serotonin reuptake blocker. 2. It inhibits the breakdown of released acetylcholine. 3. It blocks the uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. 4. It blocks the binding of dopamine to the postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the brain.

4. It blocks the binding of dopamine to the postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the brain. Rationale: Haloperidol acts by blocking the binding of dopamine to the postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the brain. Imipramine hydrochloride (Tofranil) blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. Donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept) inhibits the breakdown of released acetylcholine. Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) is a potent serotonin reuptake blocker.

52. A patient takes oxycodone (OxyContin), 40 mg PO twice daily, for the management of chronic pain. Which intervention should be added to the plan of care to minimize the gastrointestinal adverse effects? A) Take an antacid with each dose. B) Eat foods high in lactobacilli. C) Take the medication on an empty stomach. D) Increase fluid and fiber in the diet.

D) Increase fluid and fiber in the diet. Narcotic analgesics reduce intestinal motility, leading to constipation. Increasing fluid and fiber in the diet can help manage this adverse effect.

The nurse on a large med-surg unit administered 3 doses of diazepam (Valium) 10 mg IV at 15-min intervals to a client experiencing status epilepticus. After the seizure acitivity ceases, the nurse adds which intervention to the care plan? 1) Perform oropharyngeal suctioning every 2-3 hours 2) Reposition the client every 2-4 hours 3) Teach the family members at the bedside about the side effects of the drug 4) Monitor for drug side effects for the next 4-5 hours.

Teach family members at the bedside about the side effects of the drug. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine and CNS depressant. B/c diazepam has a half-life of 20-50 hrs, a risk of life-threatening side effects such as cardiovascular collapse and laryngospasms exist. Family members at the bedside need to be aware of the signs/symptoms of the side effects (4). A 4-5 hour interval of assessment is insufficient when compared to the half-life of the drug (4). Unless the client demonstrates impaired airway clarance, suction would not be necessary (1). Re-positioning the client is routin nursing care, but not unique to administration of this drug (2)

10. In the administration of hydrocortisone (Aeroseb-HC, Alphadern, Cetacort), it is vital that the nurse recognize that this drug might mask which symptoms? a.) Signs and symptoms of infection b.) Signs and symptoms of heart failure c.) Hearing loss d.) Skin infections

a.) Signs and symptoms of infection

64. Naloxone (Narcan) is administered to a client with severe respiratory depression and suspected drug overdose. After 20 minutes, the client remains unresponsive. The most likely explanation for this is: a.) The client did not use an opioid drug. b.) The dose of naloxone was inadequate. c.) The client is resistant to this drug. d.) The drug overdose is irreversible.

a.) The client did not use an opioid drug. If opioid antagonists (Naloxone) fail to reverse symptoms of respiratory depression quickly, the overdose was likely due to a non-opioid substance.

101. The safest narcotic choice for an elderly client with acute pain is: a. Meperidine (Demerol). b. Oxycodone. c. Fentanyl transdermal patch. d. Morphine sulfate.

d. Morphine sulfate. Rationale: Morphine is the "gold standard" of narcotics for acute pain. The other choices are incorrect.

109.) A client taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 month returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which of the following would indicate medication effectiveness? 1. No rapid heartbeats or anxiety 2. No paranoid thought processes 3. No thought broadcasting or delusions 4. No reports of alcohol withdrawal symptoms

1. No rapid heartbeats or anxiety Rationale: Buspirone hydrochloride is not recommended for the treatment of drug or alcohol withdrawal, paranoid thought disorders, or schizophrenia (thought broadcasting or delusions). Buspirone hydrochloride is most often indicated for the treatment of anxiety and aggression.

30.) A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus previously had been well controlled with glyburide (DiaBeta) daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? 1. Prednisone 2. Phenelzine (Nardil) 3. Atenolol (Tenormin) 4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

1. Prednisone Rationale: Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a β-blocker, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia.

A family member who takes diazepam (Valium) for anxiety is concerned about the administration of diazepam 10 mg IV to a relative having frequent tonic-clonic seizures that last 10 mins. The nurse provides which of the following explanations? 1) "The drug inhibits the irregular firing across the nerves in the brain." 2) "The drug relaxes peripheral muscles at the spinal level." 3) "The drug reduces the anxiety related to seizure activity." 4) "The drug provides amnesia of the seizure episode."

2) The drug relaxes peripheral muscles at the spinal level. B/c diazepam relaxes smooth muscles at the spinal level as well as in the brain stem at the reticular formation level, it is an effective anticonvulsant to treat status epilepticus. The statement in option 1 is the physiologic process occurring w/ the ingestion of most anticonvulsant drugs, but this is not how diazepam reduces seizure activing. Since the level of consciousness is reduced during seizures, perception of a threate would be imperceptible (option 3). Amnesia is commonly associated w/ seizures w/o the introduction of a drug (option 4)

209.) A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving diazepam (Valium), a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing a side effect related to this medication? 1. Headache 2. Drowsiness 3. Urinary retention 4. Increased salivation

2. Drowsiness Rationale: Incoordination and drowsiness are common side effects resulting from this medication. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

227.) When teaching a client who is being started on imipramine hydrochloride (Tofranil), the nurse would inform the client that the desired effects of the medication may: 1. Start during the first week of administration 2. Not occur for 2 to 3 weeks of administration 3. Start during the second week of administration 4. Not occur until after a month of administration

2. Not occur for 2 to 3 weeks of administration Rationale: The therapeutic effects of administration of imipramine hydrochloride may not occur for 2 to 3 weeks after the antidepressant therapy has been initiated. Therefore options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

56. A nurse administers naloxone (Narcan) to a postoperative patient experiencing respiratory sedation. What undesirable effect would the nurse anticipate after giving this medication? A) Drowsiness B) Tics and tremors C) Increased pain D) Nausea and vomiting

C) Increased pain Naloxone is a medication that reverses the effects of narcotics. Although the patient's respiratory status will improve after the administration of naloxone, pain will be more acute.

100. The nurse is creating a pain management plan for a client with a previous history of substance abuse. Which of the following should be included in this plan? a.) Ask the physician to prescribe short-acting analgesics. b.) Ask the physician to prescribe a medication similar to the one the client abused. c.) Ask the physician to prescribe all analgesics for the oral route. d.) Keep a dose of Narcan at the bedside.

C.) Ask the physician to prescribe all analgesics for the oral route. Extended-release and long-acting analgesics are recommended for clients with a history of abuse. Specific interventions should avoid analgesics similar to the abused drug, utilize long-acting analgesics, avoid Narcan, and administer medications through the oral route.