Pharm Final (All Quizzes)
The patient is ordered Ceclor oral suspension 120 mg PO every 12 hours. Ceclor suspension is available as 40 mg/15 ml. How many tablespoons will the patient take for each dose? ____________tablespoons
3
A 4-year-old is tested and found to have deficient growth hormone (GH). What does this condition cause? A) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) B) Acromegaly C) Dwarfism D) Gigantism
C
What neurotransmitter does the cholinergic system use? A) Acetylcholine B) Serotonin C) Dopamine D) GABA
A
Which of the following would contraindicate the use of nitrates? A) heart failure B) hypotension C) CVA D) liver disease
B
The nurse is assessing factors that may affect the absorption of a drug that the nurse will soon administer. What factor should the nurse prioritize? A) The client's liver enzyme levels B) The date on which the client began taking the medication C) The route of administration that has been prescribed D) The client's blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
C
Which is the only drug that should be used for an acute asthma attack?... A) Flovent - inhaled corticosteroid B) zyrtec - a second generation antihistamine C) proventil - a short acting beta agonist D) theophylline - a methylxanthene
C
Which of the following would be considered a therapeutic effect of digoxin? A) decreased cardiac output B) increased heart rate C) increased force of contraction D) decreased renal perfusion
C
Match the following controlled substance, drug classification, generic name, trade name A) the name designated and patented by the manufacturer; brand name B) the chemical or official name C) drug listed according to its abuse potential D) group of drugs that share similar characteristics
C D B A
A client is admitted to the emergency department in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) with a blood glucose level of 485 mg/dL. The client is prescribed an initial dose of 25 units insulin IV. Which type of insulin will be most likely be administered? A) Lispro B) NPH insulin C) Glargine D) Regular insulin
D
Bronchodilators increase a productive cough to clear the airways. True False
False
Drugs that block the cough reflex are called antihistamines. True False
False
All drugs have some type of adverse reaction. True or False?
True
Rebound congestion occurs when the drug effect wears off and the body compensates by vasodilating the same nasal arterioles that the drug constricted. True False
True
Order: Pfizerpen 1,000,000 units Available: A vial of Pfizerpen powder Directions: Add 1.6 mL of sterile water to give a concentration of 5,000,000 units/mL. How many mL will be administered? Round to the tenths.
0.2
Order: Solu-Cortef 150 mg Available: A vial of Solu-Cortef powder Directions: Add 1.8mL of sterile water to yield a solution of 250mg/mL. How many mL will be administered? Round to the tenths.
0.6
Select the description in column 2 that best describes the term in column 1. 1. Antihistamine 2. Antitussive 3. Expectorant 4. Mycolytic A) Drug the liquifies secretions B) Drug that blocks the cough reflex C) Drug that blocks the action of chemical released during inflammation D) Drug that increases a productive cough
1. 3 2. B 3. D 4. A
Match the body response with the correct adrenergic receptor. You may use an answer more than once. A) Beta-1 B) Alpha-1 C) Beta-2 D) Alpha-2 1. Tachycardia 2. Vasoconstriction 3. Relaxed uterine smooth muscle 4. Mydriasis (pupil dilation) 5. Inhibition of norepinephrine 6. Increased myocardial contractility 7. Bronchodilation 8. Increased blood pressure
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. B
Match the term with the appropriate definition. 1. Pharmacotherapy 2. Pharmakokinetics 3. Adverse effects 4. Pharmacodynamics 5. Critical concentration 6. Half-life A) the time it takes for the amount of a drug in the body to decrease to one half of the peak level it previously achieved. B) The concentration a drug must reach in the tissues that respond to the particular drug to cause the desired therapeutic effect. C) The study of the interactions between the chemical components of living systems and the foreign chemicals that enter living organisms; the way the drug affects the body. D) the branch of pharmacology, also known as clinical pharmacology, that uses drugs to treat, prevent, and diagnose disease. E) Drug effects that are not the desired therapeutic effects; sometime called side effects F) movement of a drug through the body to reach the site of action and complete the process of metabolism and excretion.
1. D 2. F 3. E 4. C 5. B 6. A
Select the description from column 2 that best describes the term in column 1. 1. Atheroma 2. Prinzmetal's angina 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Stable angina 5. Coronary artery disease 6. Unstable angina 7. Angina pectoris 8. Atherosclerosis A) Disorder involving progressive narrowing of the arteries supplying the myocardium B) Drop in blood flow through the coronary arteries due to vasospasm C) Narrowing of the arteries that results from a loss of elasticity in the vessel walls D) Suffocation of the chest E) Pain due to the imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply and demand that is relieved by rest F) End result of vessel blockage leading to ischemia and then necrosis G) Episode of myocardial ischemia with pain due to an imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply and demand when a person is at rest H) Plaque in the endothelial lining of the arteries
1. H 2. B 3. F 4. E 5. A 6. G 7. D 8. C
The provider has ordered morphine 20 mg IV. The vial reads morphine 15 mg/mL. How many mL will be administered? Round you answer to the nearest tenths. _________mL
1.3
Ordered is meprobamate 300 mg PO. On hand is meprobamate 0.2 gram/tablet. How many tablets would be administered per dose? All tablets are scored. Round to the nearest tenths. __________tablets
1.5
The physician orders 200 mg of an antibiotic IM every 12 hours. The pharmacy sends a vial of antibiotic powder for reconstitution with the following mixing directions: For IM injection, IV direct bolus or IV infusion, add 2 mL of sterile water for injection. Shake well. After reconstitution, concentration is 125 mg/mL. How many mL of medication will the nurse give to the patient? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
1.6
Order: furosemide 1 mg/kg IV bid for hypercalcemia. The child weighs 45 lb. The pharmacy sends Furosemide 40 mg/4 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) Answer:___________mL
2
The physician orders Phenergan 0.05 g PO. Available is Phenergan tablets 25 mg. How many tablets will you give for each dose? Round to the nearest whole number. ___________tablets
2
A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has pneumonia and a prescription for cefpodoxime 5 mg/kg PO every 12 hr for 5 days. The client weighs 88 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) Answer: _________mg
200
The provider orders Ancobon 12.5 mg/kg in four times a day PO to an adult weighing 135 lb. Available is Ancobon (flucytosine) 250 mg capsules. How many capsules should be administered per dose? Round you answer to the nearest whole number.
3
A nurse is converting a toddler's weight from lb. to kg. If the toddler weighs 20.5 lbs, what is the toddler's weight in kg? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) ___________kg
9.3
A 24 year old patient reports taking acetaminophen (tylenol) fairly regularly for headaches. The nurse knows that a patient who consumes excess acetaminophen daily or regularly consumes alcohol should be observed for: A) hepatic toxicity B) pulmonary damage C) thrombus effects D) renal damage
A
A child is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse anticipates an order for the drug of choice when treating children, which is what? A) Levothyroxine B) Methimazole C) Liotrix D) Liothyronine
A
A client has a neurologic disorder characterized by a deficiency of acetylcholine. In what location is acetylcholine normally synthesized? A) Within cholinergic nerves themselves B) In the adrenal medulla C) Within the grey matter of the spinal cord D) In the synaptic cleft between nerves and effector cells
A
A client presents at the clinic reporting vaginal itching and a clear discharge. The client reports to the nurse that she has been taking an oral antibiotic for 10 days. What is the nurse's best action? A) Educate the client about the likelihood of a superinfection caused by destruction of normal flora B) Advocate for discontinuation of the drug due to the presence of toxic effects C) Assess for further signs of an adverse reaction to the antibiotic D) Educate the client about the fact that an overdose may be damaging more than one body system
A
A client presents at the emergency department with respiratory depression and excessive sedation. The family tells the nurse that the client has been taking medication throughout the evening and gives the nurse an almost empty bottle of benzodiazepines. What assessment question addresses a potential factor that could exacerbate the effects of the benzodiazepines? A) "Has the client had any alcohol to drink?" B) "Is he currently taking any blood pressure medications?" C) "Does the client have any history of kidney disease?" D) "Are there any allergies that you know about?"
A
A client with type 1 diabetes presents to the diabetes educator and asks about a change in insulin. The client's occupation requires long international flights and the client does not want to administer insulin on the plane. What kind of insulin would best meet this client's needs? A) glargine (Lantus) B) Novolin R C) lispro (Humalog) D) aspart (Novolog)
A
A nurse is assessing the client's home medication use. After listening to the client list current medications, the nurse asks what priority question? A) "Do you take any over-the-counter medications?" B) "Are these medications safe to take during pregnancy?" C) "Are any of the medications orphan drugs?" D) "Do you take any generic medications?"
A
A nurse is caring for a hospital client who has just been prescribed phenytoin for a seizure disorder. What assessment should the nurse prioritize when assessing for adverse effects? A) Assessment of level of consciousness B) Assessment for chest pain or shortness of breath C) Assessment of urinary output and urine appearance D) Assessment of respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
A
A patient complains of nasal congestion and cold symptoms. What medication may produce temporary nasal congestion relief? A) pseuodephedrine B) albuterol C) allegra D) brethine
A
A patient is experiencing urinary retention after surgery. The nurse would anticipate administering which of the following? A) A cholinergic agonist B) An adrenergic agonist C) An anticholinergic medication D) A beta blocker
A
A patient with Type II diabetes is scheduled to have a radiological study that uses iodine based contrast medium. The nurse makes a pre-procedure phone call, and instructs the patient to stop taking which medication the day of the procedure? A) metformin (glucophage) B) insulin C) furosemide (Lasix) D) acetaminophen (Tylenol)
A
Acetycysteine (Mucomyst) is the drug of choice for: A) cystic fibrosis B) viral illnesses C) sinus congestion D) allergic rhinitis
A
Because of the action of ace inhibitors, which electrolyte should be monitored before initiation and periodically while the patient is taking this medication? A) potassium B) sodium C) magnesium D) calcium
A
Patient teaching for patients using inhaled steroids include which of the following:. A) rinse your mouth after use to avoid adverse effects B) drink a glass of milk immediately after using your inhaler C) use your inhaler when you have chest tightness D) drink lots of water during the day
A
The action of albuterol (proventil) is to: A) dilate bronchioles B) decrease inflammation in the bronchioles C) break down mucoproteins in the airways that block airflow D) stop the breakdown of the mast cell
A
The care provider has prescribed intravenous morphine, an opioid, for a client using client-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse is aware this drug has a high abuse potential. Under what category would morphine be classified? A) Schedule II B) Schedule III C) Schedule IV D) Schedule I
A
The client expresses relief to the nurse after being prescribed a new medication, stating that she expects to experience great benefits. The nurse suspects this drug will be more effective than usual for this client because of what effect? A) Placebo effect B) Cumulative effect C) Cross-tolerance effect D) First-pass effect
A
The diabetes nurse educator describes type 1 diabetes with what statement? A) Exogenous insulin is required for life. B) Blood glucose level can be controlled with diet. C) Oral agents can control blood glucose levels for many clients. D) It is always diagnosed before adulthood.
A
The nurse administers desmopressin to the client to treat diabetes insipidus. What assessment finding would indicate to the nurse that the desmopressin is producing a therapeutic effect? A) Decreased urine output B) Decreased blood volume C) Decreased water reabsorption D) Increased plasma osmolarity
A
The nurse is caring for a client with a brain infection of bacterial etiology. When administering medications to this client, the nurse should prioritize what variable is related to the client's diagnosis? A) The client will require lipid-soluble antibiotics. B) The client's blood-brain barrier will not allow medications to affect brain tissue. C) Active infection may destroy the integrity of the blood-brain barrier. D) Antibiotics will have to be injected directly into brain tissue.
A
The nurse is caring for a client with asthma who has been administered a medication to promote bronchodilation and relieve shortness of breath. When giving this medication, the nurse has affected the client's autonomic nervous system by: A) stimulating beta2-receptors. B) antagonizing alpha2-receptors. C) converting a larger proportion of dopamine to norepinephrine. D) decreasing the reuptake of acetylcholine.
A
When describing angina to a group of patients, which of the following would be most accurate? A) pain due to lack of oxygen in the heart muscle B) chest pain that occurs with exercise C) damage to the heart muscle D) spasm of the blood vessels
A
Which factor accounts for the increased risk for drug reactions among clients aged 65 years and older? A) physiologic changes affecting metabolism and excretion B) drugs more readily crossing the blood-brain barrier in older people C) diminished immune response D) increased drug-metabolizing enzymes in older people
A
Which of the following drugs should be avoided by patients taking nitrates? A) phosphodiasterase inhibitors B) beta blockers C) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs D) cardiac glycosides
A
Which of the following indicates that a patient understands how to use sublingual nitroglycerin? A) I should feel a fizzing or burning sensation B) I should swallow the pill C) I can chew the tablet once it starts dissolving D) I should put the pill between my tongue and cheek
A
A client has been administered phenylephrine, a medication that affects alpha 1-receptors. The nurse should anticipate what effects on the client? Select all that apply. A) Increased blood pressure B) Pupil dilation C) Flushed skin D) Decreased blood glucose E) Drowsiness
A B
The nurse is teaching a class about the autonomic nervous system for critical care nurses. What statements, if made by the nurse during the class, are accurate? Select all that apply. A) "Cholinergic and adrenergic receptors are part of the autonomic nervous system." B) "Adrenergic receptors are part of the sympathetic nervous system." C) "Cholinergic receptors are part of the parasympathetic nervous system." D) "Cholinergic receptors include alpha- and beta-receptors." E) "Adrenergic receptors respond to norepinephrine."
A B C E
A client's drug regimen includes an antihistamine. What potential indications may this drug be used for? Select all that apply. A) Angioedema B) Nighttime sleep aid C) Productive cough D) Urticaria (itching) E) Motion sickness
A B D E
A patient is prescribed Nardil (MAOI). The nurse is teaching the patient about foods to avoid. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. A) aged blue cheese B) red wine C) whole milk D) fresh shellfish E) sour cream
A B E
The nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a client. When collecting data related to medications, the nurse asks, "What medications are you currently taking?" After collecting this information, what other questions should the nurse ask? Select all that apply. A) "What over-the-counter (OTC) medications do you take?" B) "Who prescribed these medications?" C) "Do you take any herbs, vitamins, or supplements?" D) "Do you take medications safely when you take them?" E) "Do you feel like you take enough medication, too much, or too little?"
A C
A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is anxious and has requested a benzodiazepine. The nurse should state that this is not normally done due to the risks of what anomalies? Select all that apply. A) Inguinal hernia B) Gastroschisis C) Microcephaly D) Cleft lip or palate E) Cardiac defects
A C D E
A client has been administered a medication that stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The nurse should anticipate what effects on the client? Select all that apply A) Drowsiness B) Pupil dilation C) Decreased blood glucose D) Increased blood pressure E) Flushed skin
A D
A client is prescribed an antitussive agent with codeine. Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching has been effective? A) "I will take this medication whenever I am coughing." B) "This medication will cause drowsiness, and I will not drive." C) "This medication may make me anxious and nervous." D) "I will call my health care provider if I develop diarrhea when I take it."
B
A client's postsurgical pain is severe and persistent, and the client states that recent doses of morphine IV have "helped only a little bit." The client has a PRN dose of morphine available and wants to receive the medication, but the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What is the nurse's best action? A) Inform the client that morphine would cause excessive respiratory depression and offer nonpharmacologic interventions B) Administer the morphine as prescribed and monitor the client's respiratory status closely C) Offer an ice pack and reassess the client's respiratory status in 30 minutes D) Contact the care provider to seek direction
B
A client's sympathetic nervous system has been stimulated, resulting in the release of norepinephrine. Where was this client's norepinephrine synthesized? A) In the postsynaptic junction B) In the axon terminal C) In the presynaptic junction D) In the dendrite terminal
B
A client's unexpected response to a new medication has been attributed to characteristics of the client's genetic make-up. What area of study best explains this client's medication response? A) Parmacoeconomics B) Pharmacogenomics C) Pharmacotherapeutics D) Pharmacodynamics
B
A group of students are reviewing the various antihypertensive agents. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as an example of an angiotensin II receptor blocker? A) lisinopril B) losartan C) amlodipine D) hydrochlorothiazide
B
A nurse is assessing a patient's pain level. Which of the following would be the most appropriate method? A) ask the patient if he is experiencing any pain B) have the patient rate it on a scale of 0 to 10 C) palpate the area where the patient says he has pain D) review the patient's vital signs for changes
B
A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving a drug by the intramuscular route at a dose of 0.25 mg. After discharge, the client will be prescribed the same medication orally at a dose of 2.5 mg. What phenomenon should the nurse describe when explaining the reason for the increased dosage for the oral dose? A) Active transport B) First-pass effect C) Glomerular filtration D) Passive diffusion
B
A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and has a prescription for glyburide, a sulfonylurea. Which of the following statements by the nurse best describes the action of this medication? A) "Glyburide prevents your liver from destroying your insulin." B) "Glyburide stimulates your pancreas to release insulin." C) "Glyburide absorbs the excess carbohydrates in your system." D) "Glyburide replaces insulin that is not being produced by your pancreas."
B
A patient is receiving an antidepressant that also aids in smoking cessation. Which drug would this most likely be? A) venlofaxine B) buproprion C) mirtazipine D) selegiline
B
A patient who has been receiving verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, for several months comes to the clinic reporting significant dizziness, light-headedness, and fatigue. He also reports frequent episodes of nausea and swelling of his ankles. Drug toxicity is suspected. Which question would be critical to ask the patient? A) are you taking any over -the -counter pain relievers like ibuprofen B) have you been drinking grapefruit juice lately C) are you splitting or crushing your pills D) when did you take the last dose of the drug
B
After administering propylthiouracil (PTU), what effect would the nurse anticipate the drug will have in the client's body? A) To suppress the anterior pituitary gland's secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B) To inhibit production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland C) To suppress the hypothalamus's production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) D) To destroy part of the thyroid gland
B
After administering somatropin to an 11-year-old client with growth failure, what outcome would indicate that the drug should be stopped? A) Gynecomastia B) Closure of the epiphyses in long bones C) Thyroid overactivity D) Early sexual development
B
After teaching a group of students about drugs used as antianginal agents, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a beta blocker antianginal agent ? A) amlodipine B) nadolol C) verapamil D) furosemide
B
Antihistamines, such as allegra and zyrtec, are the treatment of choice for: A) viral infection B) allergic rhinitis C) influenza D) asthma
B
In response to the client's question about how to know whether drugs are safe, the nurse explains that all medications in the United States undergo rigorous scientific testing controlled by what organization? A) Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) D) Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
B
The client asks the nurse why generic drugs would be used and voices concerns that only the brand name product will be safe. What is the nurse's best response? A) "Generic drugs are absolutely identical to brand name drugs and less expensive." B) "Most generic drugs are very safe and can be cost-effective as well." C) "Some significant quality control problems have been found with generic drugs, but they're much cheaper." D) "Although initial cost is higher for a brand name, it may cost less in the long run."
B
The client is 8 weeks pregnant and requires an antithyroid medication. The nurse identifies what drug as the drug of choice for this client? A) Methimazole B) Propylthiouracil C) Radioactive iodine D) Alendronate
B
The client is taking a drug that affects the body by increasing cellular activity. Where does this drug work on the cell? A) Golgi body B) Receptor sites C) Cell membrane D) Endoplasmic reticulum
B
The nurse accompanies the physician into the client's room and remains after the client is told he has cancer and a poor prognosis. The client's respirations became rapid and deep, his pupils dilate and he appears diaphoretic. What type of response is the nurse witnessing? A) Muscarinic receptor stimulation response B) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) response C) Parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) response D) Nicotinic receptor stimulation response
B
The nurse administers a drug that stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. What assessment finding would most clearly suggest that the drug is working? A) The client's fingers and toes become cool B) The client's bowel sounds are increased on auscultation C) The client's pupils are visible dilated D) The client's heart rate goes from 64 beats/minute to 78
B
The nurse instructs the patient that he can repeat the dose of nitroglycerin every 5 minutes up to a maximum total of how many doses? A) two B) three C) four D) five
B
A client has been prescribed phenytoin for the treatment of seizures. How should the nurse most accurately determine whether the client has therapeutic levels of the medication? A) Monitor the client for seizure activity B) Assess the client carefully for adverse effects C) Review the client's laboratory blood work D) Assess the client's cognitive status
C
A client in the community is taking regular and NPH insulin to manage type 1 diabetes. What laboratory finding best demonstrates that the client's diabetes management is adequate? A) The client's fasting blood glucose level is 80 mg/dL. B) The client's creatinine clearance of 1.75 mL/s/m2 is within reference ranges. C) The client's glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) level is 6.1%. D) The client's random blood glucose is 120 mg/dL.
C
A client is brought to the emergency department with hypoglycemia, their blood glucose level is 19 mg/dL. What drug should the nurse prepare to administer intravenously? A) Metformin B) Glyburide C) Glucagon D) Insulin
C
A client is experiencing inflammation in the right elbow. Which orally administered medication is most likely to diminish inflammation and assist in relieving this pain? A) morphine sulfate B) clonidine C) ibuprofen (Motrin) D) acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C
A client is having a stress response that is causing the release of norepinephrine. This norepinephrine will be made from what dietary precursor? A) Tryptophan B) Trichinosis C) Tyrosine D) Thiamine
C
A client with diabetes insipidus has been administered desmopressin and is now reporting drowsiness, light-headedness, and headache. What intervention will best address this client's symptoms? A) Temporary bed rest B) STAT administration of epinephrine C) Reduction in the client's dose of desmopressin D) Administration of a loop diuretic
C
A nurse is instructing a pregnant client concerning the potential risk to her fetus from a Pregnancy Category D drug. What should the nurse inform the client? A) "Adequate studies in pregnant women have demonstrated there is no risk to the fetus." B) "Animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus, but there have been no adequate studies in pregnant women." C) "There is evidence of human fetal risk, but the potential benefits from use of the drug may be acceptable despite potential risks." D) "Animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in pregnant women."
C
A patient has had a myocardial infarction and is to receive propanalol. The nurse understands that this drug is being used to achieve which of the following? A) reduce the risk for recurrent anginal attacks B) control the risk for vasospasm C) prevent reinfarction D) prevent the development of hypertension
C
A patient is receiving a gluccocorticoid for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency. It is necessary to report which of the following conditions to the primary health provider? A) headache B) muscle aches C) high fever D) insomnia
C
A patient is using transdermal nitroglycerin. The nurse would instruct the patient to apply a new patch at which frequency? A) each time he has chest pain B) before activities that may cause chest pain C) every day D) every week
C
After reviewing information about the various antidepressants, a group of students demonstrate their understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as an SSRI? A) nardil B) amitriptyline C) fluoxetine D) bupropion
C
An expectorant drug such as Guaifenisin (Robiturssin), is used to relieve: A) dry hacky cough B) nasal congestion C) chest congestion D) allergic rhinitis
C
The anatomy and physiology instructor is discussing adrenergic receptors with the nursing class. What adrenergic receptor would the instructor tell the students is found in the heart and can stimulate increased myocardial activity and increase heart rate? A) Alpha1 B) Alpha2 C) Beta1 D) Beta2
C
The most frequently occurring adverse effects to sumatriptan most commonly affect the ___________ system. A) respiratory B) integumentary C) cardiovascular D) immune
C
A 72 year old female with a history of gastric ulcer is to start celecoxib (celebrex) a COX -2 inhibitor for osteoarthritis. She asks you why she has to have a prescription for this and cannot just take aspirin or ibuprofen over the counter. What would be your best response? A) Aspirin or ibuprofen do not relieve arthritis pain B) You can take either aspirin or ibuprofen if you want C) Celecoxib is prescription strength aspirin D) Celecoxib does not cause GI adverse effects as frequently as aspirin or ibuprofen
D
A client has a new diagnosis of a seizure disorder. What aspect of this client's health status would contraindicate the use of carbamazepine? A) The client has type 2 diabetes, controlled through diet B) The client has an allergy to sulfonamides C) The client is 17 years old D) The client's most recent blood work reveal pancytopenia
D
A client has been prescribed a medication that is known to be a drug agonist. This drug will have what effect? A) It will react with receptor sites to block normal stimulation, producing no effect. B) It will react with a receptor site on a cell preventing a reaction with another chemical on a different receptor site. C) The drug will interfere with the enzyme systems that act as catalyst for different chemical reactions. D) The drug will interact directly with receptor sites to cause the same activity that a natural chemical would cause at that site.
D
A client with type 1 diabetes reports recurrent hypoglycemia late in the morning. After collecting his health history, what finding should the nurse suspect is most likely causing the late-morning hypoglycemia? A) The client likes to nap shortly after eating lunch. B) The client eats oatmeal early in the morning for breakfast. C) The client often eats an early lunch, between 11:00 and 11:30. D) The client goes to the gym each day before work.
D
A patient who is taking digoxin would withhold the drug if his pulse rate were which of the following? A) 78 beats/minute B) 70 beats/minute C) 64 beats/minute D) 56 beats/minute
D
After the effector cell has been stimulated by acetylcholine (ACh), what enzyme stops this stimulation and allows the effector membrane to repolarize? A) Catecholamine B) Norepinephrine C) Decarboxylase D) Acetylcholinesterase
D
Antitussives, such as dextramothrophan is used to treat: A) chest congestion B) sinus congestion C) allergic rhinitis D) dry hacky cough
D
Buspirone has been prescribed for a client with anxiety who is a teacher. When providing health education, the nurse should describe what benefit of this medication over other anxiolytics? A) Sublingual administration B) Decreased risk of hepatic injury C) Rapid onset and short duration D) Less central nervous system depression
D
The most serious adverse effect of ace inhibitor therapy is: A) hypokalemia B) dizziness C) cough D) angioedema
D
The nurse is assessing a client. What assessment findings should the nurse interpret as suggesting a sympathetic response? A) Decreases sweating and respiratory rate B)Increased bowel sounds and pupil constriction C) Evidence of inflammation D) Increase in blood pressure and decrease bowel sounds
D
When giving patient instructions regarding the use of pseudoephredrine (sudafed) , the nurse should caution the patient regarding potential adverse effects which include: A) hypotension B) bradycardia C) cough D) anxiety
D
Which of the following would the nurse identify as a cardiac glycoside? A) diltiazem B) lisinopril C) propanolol D) digoxin
D
Which of the following would the nurse identify as a nitrate? A) metoprolol B) amlodipine C) nicardipine D) nitroglycerine
D
Why are SSRI drugs prescribed more often than TCA drugs for the treatment of depression? A) SSRI drugs work more rapidly than TCA drugs. B) TCA drugs lead to more adverse effects. C) TCA drugs are more likely to lead to dependence. D) SSRI drugs have fewer side effects than TCA drugs.
D
Your patient is receiving an SSRI . The nurse would inform the patient that the full effects of the drug may not occur for which time frame? A) 1 week B) 2 weeks C) 8 weeks D) 4 weeks
D
