Pharm II test combination for final

1. cimetidine 2. esomeprazole 3. famotidine 4. ranitidine A. Pepcid B. Tagamet C. Zantac D. Nexium

1. cimetidine B. Tagamet 2. esomeprazole D. Nexium 3. famotidine A. Pepcid 4. ranitidine C. Zantac

The nurse should warn a client taking a magnesium and sodium-containing antacids about which adverse effects? 1. diarrhea 2. constipation 3. flatulence 4. dehydration

1. diarrhea

1. diphenoxylate 2. docusate 3. polyethylene glycol 4. psyllium A. Colace B. Metamucil C. Lomotil D. MiraLAX

1. diphenoxylate C. Lomotil 2. docusate A. Colace 3. polyethylene glycol D. MiraLAX 4. psyllium B. Metamucil

1. doxycycline 2. azithromycin 3. metronidazole 4. levofloxacin A. Flagyl B. Zithromax C. Levaquin D. Vibramycin

1. doxycycline D. Vibramycin 2. azithromycin B. Zithromax 3. metronidazole A. Flagyl 4. levofloxacin C. Levaquin

1. epinephrine 2. secobarbital 3. diphenhydramine hydrochloride 4. benztropine mesylate A. Seconal B. Adrenalin C. Cogentin D. Benadryl

1. epinephrine B. Adrenalin 2. secobarbital A. Seconal 3. diphenhydramine hydrochloride D. Benadryl 4. benztropine mesylate C. Cogentin

1. fludrocortisone (Florinef) 2. metformin (Glucophage) 3. methimazole (Tapazole) 4. methylprednisolone (Solu- Medrol) A. glucocorticoid B. antithyroid medication C. biguanide oral hypoglycemic D. mineralocorticoid

1. fludrocortisone (Florinef) D. mineralocorticoid 2. metformin (Glucophage) C. biguanide oral hypoglycemic 3. methimazole (Tapazole) B. antithyroid medication 4. methylprednisolone (Solu- Medrol) A. glucocorticoid

1. furosemide 2. enoxaparin 3. clopidigrel 4. verapamil A. Calan, Verelan B. Plavix C. Lovenox D. Lasix

1. furosemide D. Lasix 2. enoxaparin C. Lovenox 3. clopidigrel B. Plavix 4. verapamil A. Calan, Verelan

1. guaifenesin 2. diphenhydramine HCL 3. loratidine 4. albuterol 5. potassium iodide 6. tiopropium A. Proventil B. Robitussin C. Spiriva D. SSKI E. Benadryl F. Claritin

1. guaifenesin B. Robitussin 2. diphenhydramine HCL E. Benadryl 3. loratidine F. Claritin 4. albuterol A. Proventil 5. potassium iodide D. SSKI 6. tiopropium C. Spiriva

1. hydrocortisone 2. methyltestosterone 3. tamsulosin 4. sildenafil A. Flomax B. Cortef C. Testred D. Viagra

1. hydrocortisone B. Cortef 2. methyltestosterone C. Testred 3. tamsulosin A. Flomax 4. sildenafil D. Viagra

1. isoniazid 2. rifampin 3. acyclovir 4. pyrantel A. INH B. Reese's C. Rifadin D. Zovirax

1. isoniazid A. INH 2. rifampin C. Rifadin 3. acyclovir D. Zovirax 4. pyrantel B. Reese's

The nurse observes a client receiving a sulfonamide for Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The signs and symptoms that might indicate this syndrome include ________________________. 1. lesions on the skin or mucous membranes 2. increased blood pressure and pulse rate 3. pain in the joints 4. swelling of the extremities

1. lesions on the skin or mucous membranes

1. lisinopril 2. simvastin 3. metoprolol 4. carvedolol A. Prinivil B. Coreg C. Zocor D. Lopressor

1. lisinopril A. Prinivil 2. simvastin C. Zocor 3. metoprolol D. Lopressor 4. carvedolol B. Coreg

1. lispro (Humalog) 2. isophane suspension (NPH) 3. detemir (Levemir) 4. regular insulin (Humulin R) A. 30-60 minutes B. 1.5 hours C. 3-4 hours D. 5-10 minutes

1. lispro (Humalog) D. 5-10 minutes 2. isophane suspension (NPH) B. 1.5 hours 3. detemir (Levemir) C. 3-4 hours 4. regular insulin (Humulin R) A. 30-60 minutes

1. lorazepam 2. carvedilol 3. clonidine 4. carbidopa/levodopa A. Ativan B. Catapres C. Coreg D. Sinemet

1. lorazepam A. Ativan 2. carvedilol C. Coreg 3. clonidine B. Catapres 4. carbidopa/levodopa D. Sinemet

After teaching a client a out prescribed NSAID therapy, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client states which comment? 1. "I should take the drug with food." 2. "I need to take it with a calcium supplement." 3. "I need to take the drug on an empty stomach." 4. "I will take the drug with high-fiber foods."

1. "I should take the drug with food."

A client with constipation is prescribed psyllium. The client asks the nurse how the client should take the medication. What is the nurse's best response? 1. "Take this medication with 8 ounces of water." 2. "Mix the medication with grapefruit juice and water." 3. "Drink 4 ounces of soda a day." 4. "You should sprinkle the medication on the food."

1. "Take this medication with 8 ounces of water."

The nurse is teaching a client about the prescribed inhaled corticosteroid and bronchodilator therapy. Which instruction will the nurse emphasize to this client? 1. "The corticosteroid several minutes after the bronchodilator dose." 2. "The corticosteroid drug provides rapid relief during an asthma attack." 3. "Before each dose of corticosteroid, rinse the mouth thoroughly with water." 4. "Stop corticosteroid therapy immediately if you notice any adverse effects."

1. "The corticosteroid several minutes after the bronchodilator dose."

The nurse is about to administer diphenoxylate (Lomotil) to a client for the first time. Which of the following side effects should be included in the teaching about this medication? 1. "This medication may make you feel lightheaded or drowsy." 2. "This medication has few side effects so you may not notice any." 3. "You can expect to feel an increase in energy on this medication." 4. "Perianal irritation is a side effect of this medication."

1. "This medication may make you feel lightheaded or drowsy."

A patient receives a daily injection of 25 units NPH insulin at 0730. The nurse expects that a hypoglycemic reaction is most likely to occur between what times? 1. 1130 and 1730 2. 2200 and 2400 3. 1900 and 2130 4. 0800 and 1000

1. 1130 and 1730

The nurse should counsel a client to discontinue use of over-the-counter antidiarrheals and seek treatment from a health care provider if diarrhea persists for how long? 1. 2 days 2. 5 days 3. 7 days 4. 1 day

1. 2 days

How would the nurse correctly administer an antacid to a client taking other oral medications? 1. 2 hours before or after administration of other drugs. 2. In early morning and at bedtime 3. With other drugs 4. 30 minutes before or after administration of other drugs

1. 2 hours before or after administration of other drugs.

The nurse assesses a client's blood glucose level after administering insulin. Which result would the nurse interpret as indicative of severe hypoglycemia? 1. 34 mg/dL 2. 65 mg/dL 3. 72 mg/dL 4. 78 mg/dL

1. 34 mg/dL

At what angle is a subcutaneous injection given? 1. 45-90 degrees 2. 10-15 degrees 3. 15-30 degrees 4. 30-60 degrees

1. 45-90 degrees

Which client would be most likely to benefit from treatment with Zofran (ondansetron)? 1. A woman who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of colon cancer. 2. A child with a fractured humerus. 3. A woman who is recovering from a bilateral mastectomy and breast reconstruction. 4. A man who has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure.

1. A woman who is receiving chemotherapy for the

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which of the following should the nurse ask the patient to avoid? 1. Aged Cheese 2. Rice 3. Milk 4. Butter

1. Aged Cheese

A nursing instructor has finished teaching a session about the different types of CNS stimulants. The instructor determines the session was successful when the students correctly place drugs used for narcolepsy in which category? 1. Analeptic 2. Anorexiant 3. Antibiotic 4. Sympathomimetic

1. Analeptic

A client has a rash and pruritus (itching). As the nurse, you suspect an allergic reaction and immediately assess him for other more serious symptoms. What question would be most important to ask the client? 1. Are you having any difficulty breathing? 2. Have you noticed any blood in your stool? 3. Do you have a headache? 4. Are you having difficulty with your vision?

1. Are you having any difficulty breathing?

A nurse is assigned to administer glargine (Lantus) to a patient at a health care facility. What precaution should the nurse take when administering glargine? 1. Avoid mixing glargine with other insulin 2. Administer insulin that was prescribed for another patient 3. Administer glargine via IV route 4. Shake the vial vigorously before withdrawing insulin

1. Avoid mixing glargine with other insulin

Antibiotics that actually destroy bacteria are known as: 1. Bactericidal 2. Semisynthetic 3. Bacteriostatic 4. Prophylactic

1. Bactericidal

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs are also used as antihypertensives? 1. Beta-adrenergic and calcium channel blockers 2. Sodium and calcium channel blockers 3. Potassium and sodium channel blockers 4. Beta-adrenergic and potassium channel blockers

1. Beta-adrenergic and calcium channel blockers

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed a nasal decongestant. Which of the following factors should factors should the nurse assess before administering the drug? 1. Blood pressure 2. Vision 3. Motor coordination 4. Auditory tests

1. Blood pressure

The central nervous system is composed of: 1. Brain and spinal cord 2. Afferent and efferent fibers 3. Gray and white matter 4. Ventral and dorsal roots

1. Brain and spinal cord

The health care provider has asked a nurse to administer a drug intravenously to an unresponsive client. How can the nurse ensure that the drug is administered to the right client? 1. By checking the client's wristband and confirming with a family member 2. By waking the client up to ask their name 3. By asking the nursing assistant for the client's location 4. By identifying the client's room number

1. By checking the client's wristband and confirming with a family member

To avoid symptoms associated with orthostatic hypotension, the nurse advises the patient to _________ 1. Change positions slowly 2. Avoid sitting for prolonged periods 3. Sleep in a side-lying position 4. Get up from a sitting position quickly

1. Change positions slowly

The most serious and frequent reactions seen with carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) include: 1. Chewing motions and rocking movements 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Headache and dizziness 4. Dry mouth and dry eyes

1. Chewing motions and rocking movements

A nurse is preparing to administer a transdermal adrenergic blocker. Which medication would the nurse be preparing to administer? 1. Clonidine (Catapres-TTS) 2. Methyldopa 3. Guanfacine (Tenex) 4. Guanabenz (Wytensin)

1. Clonidine (Catapres-TTS)

The nursing instructor is teaching a session explaining mast cell stabilizers. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which drug as an example? 1. Cromolyn 2. Beclomethasone 3. Albuterol 4. Montelukast

1. Cromolyn

Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient administered allopurinol? 1. Encourage liberal fluid intake 2. Encourage use of a brace or corset 3. Instruct to avoid direct moonlight 4. Encourage moderate exercise

1. Encourage liberal fluid intake

Which can be mixed in certain situations with an injectable local anesthetic to cause local vasoconstriction? This should not be used in fingers and toes. 1. Epinephrine 2. Phenylephrine 3. Oxymetazoline 4. Diphenhydramine

1. Epinephrine

After teaching a group of nursing students about corticosteroids, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students correctly choose which drug as a mineralocorticoid? 1. Fludrocortisone 2. Triamcinolone 3. Hydrocortisone 4. Betamethasone

1. Fludrocortisone

The drug Advair is a combination of different medications. Which drugs are in this inhaler? SELLECT ALL THAT APPLY 1. Fluticasone 2. Salmeterol 3. Zafirlukast 4. Omalizumab

1. Fluticasone 2. Salmeterol

Proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics are often used in combination to rid which common cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)? 1. Helicobactor pylori 2. Listeria monocytogenes 3. Clostridium difficile 4. Giardiasis

1. Helicobactor pylori

The substance produced in the body in response to injury is: 1. Histamine 2. Dopamine 3. Hismanal 4. Antihistamine

1. Histamine

As a rule of thumb, drugs used in this chapter whose generic names end in "-tidine" belong to which class of drugs? 1. Histamine (H2) receptor antagonists 2. Coating agents 3. Proton pump inhibitors 4. Prokinetic agents

1. Histamine (H2) receptor antagonists

What is the major side effect that is seen when a glucocorticoid is administered? 1. Hyperglycemia 2. Hypotension 3. Weight loss 4. Hives

1. Hyperglycemia

Which one of the following factors predisposes a client to digitalis toxicity? 1. Hypokalemia 2. Low serum ablumin 3. Hyperthyroidism 4. Increased cardiac function

1. Hypokalemia

While assessing a patient, a nurse is required to perform the tuberculin test. The drug is to be administered by an intradermal injection. Which of the following sites is ideal for administering the intradermal injection to the patient? 1. Inner forearm 2. Hairy areas 3. Thigh 4. Upper arm

1. Inner forearm

A patient receiving amlodipine (Norvasc) for angina is complaining of dizziness. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to help alleviate the condition? 1. Instruct the patient to lie down 2. Apply a warm cloth over the forehead 3. Reduce the dosage of amlodipine 4. Instruct the patient to drink less water

1. Instruct the patient to lie down

How do the action of TZDs (thiazolidinediones) lower blood glucose? 1. Insulin sensitizer. Makes muscle and fat tissue sensitive to allow more glucose to enter the cell in the presence of insulin 2. By stimulating release of insulin from beta cells in the pancreas 3. By affecting certain enzymes used in the digestion of sugars that results in delayed glucose absorption 4. By an unknown mechanism of action

1. Insulin sensitizer. Makes muscle and fat tissue sensitive to allow more glucose to enter the cell in the presence of insulin

The client has had a swimming accident and lacerated his foot on a broken bottle in the water. The nurse is prepared to assist the healthcare provider with what type of anesthesia? 1. Local 2. Conduction block 3. Topical 4. General

1. Local

Your patient is using a Flovent (fluticasone) inhaler for the first time. What do you include in your teaching plan? 1. Make sure you rinse your mouth and use regular hygiene measures each time you use your inhaler 2. Soak your mouthpiece in alcohol before each use. 3. Exhale when you place the mouthpiece in your mouth 4. Bradycardia is a common symptom. Teach patient how to take his/her pulse.

1. Make sure you rinse your mouth and use regular hygiene measures each time you use your inhaler

1. Mucomyst/Acetadote 2. Celexa 3. Paxil 4. Narcan A. naloxone B. citalopram C. acetylcysteine D. paroxetine

1. Mucomyst/Acetadote C. acetylcysteine 2. Celexa B. citalopram 3. Paxil D. paroxetine 4. Narcan A. naloxone

A patient with a throat infection has been recommended penicillin therapy by the primary health care provider. Before administering the first dose of penicillin to the patient, which of the following interventions should the nurse perform as part of the pre-administration assessment? 1. Obtain patient's general health history and allergies 2. Inspect patient's stools 3. Perform renal and hepatic function tests. 4. Evaluate the patient's lifestyle and diet

1. Obtain patient's general health history and allergies

1. OxyContin 2. Celebrex 3. Duragesic 4. Tegretol A. fentanyl B. celecoxib C. oxycodone D. carbamazepine

1. OxyContin C. oxycodone 2. Celebrex B. celecoxib 3. Duragesic A. fentanyl 4. Tegretol D. carbamazepine

If tetracycline is administered to children under 9, it can cause: 1. Permanent yellow-gray discoloration of the teeth 2. Renal insufficiency 3. Muscle weakness 4. Gastrointestinal bleeding

1. Permanent yellow-gray discoloration of the teeth

1. Phlebitis 2. Infiltration 3. Half-life 4. Absorption 5. Metabolism A. Drug is transferred into circulating fluids B. Cool, pale, edema C. Body changes drug to a more or less active form D. Warm, red, painful E. Time when 50% of drug is eliminated

1. Phlebitis D. Warm, red, painful 2. Infiltration B. Cool, pale, edema 3. Half-life E. Time when 50% of drug is eliminated 4. Absorption A. Drug is transferred into circulating fluids 5. Metabolism C. Body changes drug to a more or less active form

Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat hyperlipidemia? 1. Plendil (felodipine) 2. Pravachol (pravastatin) 3. Mevacor (lovastatin) 4. Lipitor (atorvastatin)

1. Plendil (felodipine)

Commonly used beta blockers include which of the following drugs? Select all that apply. 1. Propranolol 2. Naldolol 3. Metoprolol 4. Clonidine

1. Propranolol 2. Naldolol 3. Metoprolol

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing antiemetic drug therapy to prevent nausea. The patient reports loss of appetite because of nausea. What should the nurse do to enhance the patient's appetite? 1. Remove items with a strong smell and odor 2. Avoid giving frequent oral rinses to the patient 3. Suggest consumption of milk products 4. Suggest physical exercises to the patient

1. Remove items with a strong smell and odor

In order to evaluate the proper use of an aerosol inhaler, the nurse should: 1. Request that the patient return demonstrates the use of the inhaler 2. Assume that the patient understands if he has no questions 3. Instruct another family member in its use 4. Monitor the serum theophylline level

1. Request that the patient return demonstrates the use of the inhaler

A patient is prescribed an iodine procedure for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. Which of the food allergies is of highest concern to the client about to take radioactive iodine? 1. Seafood 2. Peanut or other tree nuts 3. Lactose intolerance 4. Wheat products

1. Seafood

The following data identified during a nursing assessment and interview. When considering risks for the development of a peptic ulcer, which situation should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Self-medicates with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) several times per day. 2. Has a stressful job as an air traffic controller. 3. Eats spicy food at least twice a week. 4. Is 15 pounds over ideal weight.

1. Self-medicates with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) several times per day.

A client currently prescribed an MAOI for depression is also prescribed a decongestant for cold symptoms. Which potential adverse reaction should the nurse point out will warrant contacting the healthcare provider? 1. Severe headache 2. Sedation 3. Bradycardia 4. Hypotension

1. Severe headache

1. Singulair (montelukast) 2. Benadryl (diphenhydramine) 3. Sudafed (pseudoephedrine) 4. Proventil (albuterol) 5. Theolair (theophylline) 6. Flonase (fluticasone) A. Decongestant B. Xanthine Derivative C. Antihistamine D. Corticosteroid E. Leukotriene Modifier F. Bronchodilator

1. Singulair (montelukast) E. Leukotriene Modifier 2. Benadryl (diphenhydramine) C. Antihistamine 3. Sudafed (pseudoephedrine) A. Decongestant 4. Proventil (albuterol) F. Bronchodilator 5. Theolair (theophylline) B. Xanthine Derivative 6. Flonase (fluticasone) D. Corticosteroid

Medications given orally are absorbed: 1. Slower than by other routes 2. Rapidly but erratically 3. More rapidly when food is present 4. More rapidly than via other routes

1. Slower than by other routes

A client asks the nurse about how his prescribed digoxin helps his heart. The nurse would include which response? Select all that apply. 1. Slows the conduction velocity through the atrioventricular (AV) node 2. Increases force of contraction 3. Decreases cardiac output 4. Decreases heart rate

1. Slows the conduction velocity through the atrioventricular (AV) node 2. Increases force of contraction 4. Decreases heart rate

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a client who is receiving diuretic therapy. The nurse determines that the client is at risk for electrolyte imbalance based on which results? Select all that apply. 1. Sodium 124 mEq/L 2. Sodium 139 mEq/L 3. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L 4. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L

1. Sodium 124 mEq/L 3. Potassium 2.9 mEq/

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has been prescribed amoxapine for depression accompanied by anxiety. After administration of the drug, the nurse observes muscle rigidity and sweating. What action should the nurse prioritize? 1. Stop the drug and contact the health care provider. 2. Suggest the client engage in exercise. 3. Encourage the client to breathe deeply. 4. Get the client to drink a glass of cold water.

1. Stop the drug and contact the health care provider.

A patient receiving Synthroid (levothyroxine) should be monitored for these signs and symptoms of overdose: 1. Tachycardia, heat intolerance, palpitations 2. Cold intolerance, bradycardia 3. Bradycardia, weight gain 4. Sluggish speech, increasing confusion

1. Tachycardia, heat intolerance, palpitations

1. Tardive dyskinesia 2. Dystonia 3. Pain 4. Blood dyscrasias A. Unpleasant sensory and emotional perception associated with tissue damage B. Facial grimacing and twisting of the neck into unnatural positions C. Abnormal condition of the blood cells D. rhythmic, involuntary movement of the face, tongue, or jaw

1. Tardive dyskinesia D. rhythmic, involuntary movement of the face, tongue, or jaw 2. Dystonia B. Facial grimacing and twisting of the neck into unnatural positions 3. Pain A. Unpleasant sensory and emotional perception 4. Blood dyscrasias C. Abnormal condition of the blood cells

Cephalosporins in general have a strong cross-sensitivity with __________________. 1. The penicillins 2. The tetracyclines 3. The sulfonamides 4. The macrolides

1. The penicillins

A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol (Inderal). Which are safety concerns that would alert the nurse to hold the medication? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. 1. The pulse is 54 beats per minute. 2. The systolic pressure is less than 90 mmHg. 3. The is irregularity in the client's heart rate or rhythm. 4. The temperature is higher than 100.9 degrees Fahrenheit.

1. The pulse is 54 beats per minute. 2. The systolic pressure is less than 90 mmHg. 3. The is irregularity in the client's heart rate or rhythm.

A 60-year-old client named Donna Cunningham with osteoarthritis of the knee reveals to the nurse the recent use of an OTC NSAID. The nurse should point out the client is at an increased risk for developing which disorder related to the use of NSAIDs? 1. Ulcer disease 2. Blindness 3. Loss of voice 4. CNS disorders

1. Ulcer disease

Redman Syndrome is associated with what medication? 1. Vancocin (vancomycin) 2. Lamisil (terbinafine) 3. Flagyl (metronidazole 4. Diflucan (fluconazole)

1. Vancocin (vancomycin)

Identify the interventions to use when taking drugs with photosensitivity reactions: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) 1. Wear long-sleeved shirts 2. Wear head coverings 3. Wash the skin frequently 4. Use high SPF sunscreen

1. Wear long-sleeved shirts 2. Wear head coverings 4. Use high SPF sunscreen

A client who is obese is to start receiving amphetamine as part of the treatment. Which factor should the nurse prioritize in the preadministration assessment? 1. Weight 2. Arterial blood gas results 3. Temperature 4. Blood glucose level

1. Weight

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a 10-year-old client with ADHD. The client has been prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin) 20 mg daily. The nurse will point out which information will be important to record and report to the health care providers on routine visits? 1. Weight and growth 2. Voiding pattern 3. Social interaction 4. Sleeping pattern

1. Weight and growth

1. Wellbutrin/Zyban 2. Advil 3. Toradol 4. Xylocaine A. bupropion B. ketolorac C. lidocaine D. ibuprofen

1. Wellbutrin/Zyban A. bupropion 2. Advil D. ibuprofen 3. Toradol B. ketolorac 4. Xylocaine C. lidocaine

A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol (Inderal) to a client for the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse checks the client's apical pulse rate and blood pressure before administration and notes that the pulse rate is 58 bpm. Which action would the nurse prioritize? 1. Withhold the drug and contact health care provider. 2. Delay drug administration for some time. 3. Provide proper ventilation to the client. 4. Immediately give oxygen via face mask.

1. Withhold the drug and contact health care provider.

You should administer Heparin and Lovenox in the : 1. abdomen 2. lower back area 3. upper thigh 4. upper arm

1. abdomen

1. alprazolam 2. metoprolol 3. methylphenidate 4. zolpidem A. Ritalin/Concerta B. Lopressor C. Xanax D. Ambien

1. alprazolam C. Xanax 2. metoprolol B. Lopressor 3. methylphenidate A. Ritalin/Concerta 4. zolpidem D. Ambien

In monitoring drug therapy, the nurse is aware that a synergistic drug effect may be defined as _______ 1. an effect greater than the sum of the separate actions of two or more drugs 2. an increase in the action of one of the two drugs being given. 3. a comprehensive drug effect. 4. a neutralizing drug effect.

1. an effect greater than the sum of the separate actions of two or more drugs

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a drug hypersensitivity reaction? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) 1. angioedema 2. skin rash 3. urinary incontinence 4. wheezing

1. angioedema 2. skin rash 4. wheezing

When is it appropriate to document medication administration on the client's medication administration record (MAR)? 1. as soon as possible after administration 2. at least once during a 24-hour period 3. at the end of each shift 4. before removing the medication from the package

1. as soon as possible after administration

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking an adrenergic blocking agent. What assessment would be among the nurse's priorities? 1. assessing heart rate 2. measuring urine output 3. monitoring respiratory rate 4. checking blood glucose level

1. assessing heart rate

1. ceftriaxone 2. cefazolin 3. amoxicillin/clavulanate 4. trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole A. Ancef B. Rocephin C. Bactrim D. Augmentin

1. ceftriaxone B. Rocephin 2. cefazolin A. Ancef 3. amoxicillin/clavulanate D. Augmentin 4. trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole C. Bactrim

A nurse is preparing to administer a prostaglandin drug used to reduce the risk of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers in high-risk clients, such as the elderly or the critically ill. Which medication will the nurse administer? 1. misoprostol (Cytotec) 2. ranitidine (Zantac) 3. pantoprazole (Protonix) 4. sucralfate (Carafate)

1. misoprostol (Cytotec)

1. montelukast 2. epinephrine 3. acetylcysteine 4. cetirizine A. Zyrtec B. Mucomist C. Adrenalin D. Singulair

1. montelukast D. Singulair 2. epinephrine C. Adrenalin 3. acetylcysteine B. Mucomist 4. cetirizine A. Zyrtec

Adverse side effects associated with digoxin include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. nausea and vomiting 2. bradycardia 3. decreased cardiac output 4. visual disturbances

1. nausea and vomiting 2. bradycardia 4. visual disturbances

1. od 2. ou 3. t.i.d. 4. q.i.d. 5. po A. four times per day B. by mouth C. both eyes D. three times per day E. right eye

1. od E. right eye 2. ou C. both eyes 3. t.i.d. D. three times per day 4. q.i.d. A. four times per day 5. po B. by mouth

The nurse correctly administer Singulair (montelukast) _____________________ 1. once daily in the evening 2. once daily in the morning 3. twice daily in the morning and evening 4. three times a day with meals

1. once daily in the evening

Which of the following foods would you encourage clients on loop diuretics to include in their diet? 1. potatoes, bananas 2. ice cream, yogurt 3. apples, fruit juice 4. meat and yellow vegetables

1. potatoes, bananas

1. propranolol 2. lidocaine 3. warfarin sodium 4. diltiazem A. Coumadin B. Inderal C. Cardizem D. Xylocaine

1. propranolol B. Inderal 2. lidocaine D. Xylocaine 3. warfarin sodium A. Coumadin 4. diltiazem C. Cardizem

What are the classic symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. 1. resting tremors 2. muscle rigidity 3. bradykinesia 4. worsening eyesight

1. resting tremors 2. muscle rigidity 3. bradykinesia

1. terbinafine 2. allopurinol 3. alendronate 4. baclofen A. Fosamax B. Zyloprim C. Lamisil D. Lioresal

1. terbinafine C. Lamisil 2. allopurinol B. Zyloprim 3. alendronate A. Fosamax 4. baclofen D. Lioresal

If the nurse has 2 mL remaining in an ampule. It should be: 1. thrown in the sharps container 2. returned to client medication storage 3. labeled and dated 4. placed in the refrigerator

1. thrown in the sharps container

A patient asks the nurse the meaning of the "antitussive". The nurse correctly answers that an "antitussive" is a drug: 1. used to relieve coughing 2. used to help raise respiratory secretions 3. that thins respiratory secretions 4. that stimulates the bronchi

1. used to relieve coughing

On an overcast day, the nurse instructs the client taking sulfonamides to ___________________. 1. wear sunscreen 2. protect feet from harm 3. sunbathe without fear of skin reaction 4. wear a bikini

1. wear sunscreen

You know that Mr. C. Lot needs additional teaching about Coumadin (warfarin sodium) if he states: 1. "I will contact my physician before I take over-the-counter medications". 2. "I will increase the dark green, leafy vegetables in my diet". 3. "I will not drink alcoholic beverages". 4. "I will avoid walking barefoot".

2. "I will increase the dark green, leafy vegetables in my diet".

The nurse is about to administer a laxative to a client for the first time. What should be included in client education? 1. "It is good to take this medication daily as it is non-habit forming." 2. "It is not uncommon to experience some abdominal discomfort and flatulence." 3. "If you are allergic to red dye number 5, you may have an allergic reaction to this medication." 4. "It is important to avoid a large intake of fluids when taking this medication."

2. "It is not uncommon to experience some abdominal discomfort and flatulence."

A client calls regarding taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements would be of concern and should be reported immediately? 1. "Nurse my cheeks look like I'm having a hot flash." 2. "My penis is still erect now after 5 hours." 3. "I can't take those pills because they give me headache!" 4. "My nose is suddenly stuffy, wonder if I have a cold."

2. "My penis is still erect now after 5 hours."

An older client has been prescribed omeprazole for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What explanation should the nurse provide when asked by the client why they are not being treated with famotidine? 1. "Famotidine and omeprazole are both histamine-2 antagonists and could be used interchangeable." 2. "Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, produce fewer adverse effects among the older population." 3. "Omeprazole is taken at bedtime making it easier to remember." 4. "Famotidine is more expensive than omeprazole."

2. "Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, produce fewer adverse effects among the older population."

A client who is receiving a benzodiazepine tells the nurse that their mouth feels really dry. Which suggestion would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? 1. "Try drinking about 8 oz of water at least every 2 hours." 2. "Sucking on hard sugarless candy might help you." 3. "Make sure you eat a lot of green leafy vegetables.." 4. "Change your position slowly as you get out of bed."

2. "Sucking on hard sugarless candy might help you."

A nursing instructor determines the nursing student is performing an oral drug administration correctly after comparing the drug label and MAR how many times? 1. 4 2. 3 3. 2 4. 5

2. 3

While assessing the medication history of a client, the nurse notes the client takes acetaminophen daily. The nurse will further question the client to determine how much and how often to ensure the client is not exceeding what daily amount? 1. 7 grams 2. 3 grams 3. 1 gram 4. 5 grams

2. 3 grams

When a patient is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis, the nurse administers the drug: 1. At bedtime 2. 30 minutes before breakfast on an empty stomach 3. By injection 4. With food or milk

2. 30 minutes before breakfast on an empty stomach

The client is reporting GI disturbances after receiving the first dose of carbidopa/levodopa for Parkinson's disease. Which action should the nurse prioritize for this client? 1. Withhold the next drug dose. 2. Administer the next drug dose with meals. 3. Observe for alterations in blood pressure. 4. Administer the next drug dose with milk.

2. Administer the next drug dose with meals.

A group of drugs used to relieve pain are known as: 1. Antipyretics 2. Analgesics 3. Antidotes 4. Anti-inflammatory

2. Analgesics

A nurse is preparing to teach a client about aspirin (acetasalicylic aspirin). Which actions will the nurse explain to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Antiviral 2. Antipyretic 3. Analgesic 4. Anti-inflammatory

2. Antipyretic 3. Analgesic 4. Anti-inflammatory

The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about Cozaar (losartan) which was recently prescribed. The nurse can explain that losartan exerts which action on the body? 1. Blocks aldosterone receptors 2. Blocks angiotensin II receptors 3. Prevents conversion of angiotensin I 4. Prevents renin secretion

2. Blocks angiotensin II receptors

Which learning domain would be utilized when giving a patient preprinted material for future reference? 1. Long-term memory domain 2. Cognitive domain 3. Affective domain 4. Psychomotor domain

2. Cognitive domain

A nurse has administered cimetidine to an older adult client. Which assessment findings should the nurse prioritize? 1. Concentrated urine. 2. Confusion and dizziness. 3. Reports pain or sour taste. 4. Signs of tardive dyskinesia.

2. Confusion and dizziness.

A nurse is required to administer 5 mL of a drug intramuscularly to an adult patient. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform while administering the drug to the patient? 1. Administer the drug at the upper back 2. Divide the drug and give it as two separate injections 3. Use a needle with a 1/2 inch length for the injection 4. Insert the needle at an angle of 45 degrees.

2. Divide the drug and give it as two separate injections

What position is it best to have a woman in when administering vaginal medication? 1. Left Sim's 2. Dorsal recumbent 3. Prone 4. Supine

2. Dorsal recumbent

A client with an opioid addiction is to begin methadone (Dolophine). Which factor will the nurse include in the teaching to the client? 1. Methadone is discontinued while in the hospital. 2. Dosages vary according to the client's weight. 3. Dosages vary according to length of the client's addiction. 4. Male clients are prescribed higher doses than female clients.

2. Dosages vary according to the client's weight.

When taking a cholinergic blocking drug (anticholinergic) for Parkinson-like symptoms, the client most likely would experience which of the following adverse reactions? 1. Muscle spasm, convulsions 2. Dry mouth dizziness 3. Urinary frequency, excess salivation 4. Diarrhea, hypertension

2. Dry mouth dizziness

A client with allergic rhinitis is prescribed an antihistamine. The nurse instructs the client to suck on hard candy to address which potential adverse reaction? 1. Thickening of the bronchial secretions 2. Dryness of the oral mucosa and the throat 3. Altered sensation of taste 4. Drowsiness and sedation

2. Dryness of the oral mucosa and the throat

Which measurement is the best indicator of how well an anticonvulsant (antiepileptic) medication is working? 1. Urinary output 2. Frequency and duration of seizures 3. Serum drug levels 4. Liver enzymes

2. Frequency and duration of seizures

A health care provider has prescribed growth hormone for a client. Which periodic tests would the nurse anticipate monitoring at different intervals during the treatment? 1. Carbohydrate tolerance 2. Glucose tolerance test/height 3. pH level of the blood 4. Serum electrolyte levels

2. Glucose tolerance test/height

When a histamine H2 antagonist drug is prescribed for the treatment of a peptic ulcer, the nurse monitors the client for which of the following adverse effects? 1. Edema, tachycardia 2. Headache, somnolence 3. Dry mouth, urinary retention 4. Constipation, anorexia

2. Headache, somnolence

Your patient asks, "When is the best time for me to take my statin cholesterol medication"? You respond: 1. On an empty stomach before breakfast 2. In the evening 3. Every morning 4. With food at lunchtime

2. In the evening

A patient who was on benzodiazepine therapy for 4 weeks visits a health care facility. The patient exhibits benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following should the nurse assess for in the patient? 1. Decreased pulse rate 2. Increased anxiety 3. Increased red blood cell (RBC) count 4. Increased appetite

2. Increased anxiety

A client with anxiety is prescribed anxiolytic therapy. Before administering the drug, which symptoms of anxiety would the nurse expect to find on the preadministration assessment? 1. Decreased pulse rate 2. Increased blood pressure 3. Decreased muscle tension 4. Increased glucose level

2. Increased blood pressure

When histamine is released in the body, the nurse would be able to note signs and symptoms of a/an: 1. Rebound nasal congestion 2. Inflammatory response 3. Anemia 4. Increased intracranial pressure

2. Inflammatory response

Which is the mechanism of action of pantoprazole? 1. Coating the lining of the stomach 2. Inhibiting the gastric acid pump of the stomach's parietal cells 3. Increasing gastric emptying 4. Reducing peristalsis

2. Inhibiting the gastric acid pump of the stomach's parietal cells

The nurse is providing care to a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which would the nurse anticipate administering to assist in lowering the client's blood ammonia level? 1. Lubiprostone 2. Lactulose 3. Mineral oil 4. Psyllium

2. Lactulose

The nursing instructor has completed a teaching session explaining the various antihypertensive drugs. The instructor determines additional training is needed when the students choose which drugs as an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor? 1. Enalopril 2. Metoprolol 3. Benazepril 4. Quinapril

2. Metoprolol

A client comes to the emergency department and the physician, based on the client's symptoms, suspects an opioid overdose. Which should the nurse anticipate to be ordered for this client? 1. Revox 2. Narcan 3. Lidocaine 4. Versed

2. Narcan

A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer due to H. pylori. The nurse would anticipate administering which agent in conjunction with an antibiotic? 1. Cimetidine 2. Omeprazole 3. Magaldrate 4. Acetominophen

2. Omeprazole

A nursing instructor is conducting a session exploring leukotriene modifiers. The instructor determines the session is successful when students correctly choose which route of administration? 1. Nasal spray 2. Orally 3. Nebulization 4. Metered-dose inhaler

2. Orally

A sedative is a drug that: 1. Anesthetizes people 2. Produces a relaxing, calming effect 3. Relieves pain 4. Induces sleep

2. Produces a relaxing, calming effect

An older client with acute sinusitis is administered epinephrine emergently. The nurse should prioritize reporting a change in which assessment finding to the health care provider? 1. Blood glucose level 2. Pulse rate 3. Appetite 4. Temperature

2. Pulse rate

A nurse is assessing a client with angina who has received diltiazem. Which finding should the nurse prioritize and notify the health care provider for further instructions? 1. Systolic B/P is 110 mm Hg 2. Pulse rate is 45 beats per minute 3. Lightheadedness 4. Significant weight loss

2. Pulse rate is 45 beats per minute

The nurse has completed a teaching plan with a client prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) daily for seizure activity. The nurse determines the session is successful after the client correctly chooses which potential adverse reaction that can occur if the client misses a dose of medication? 1. Nystagmus 2. Recurrence of seizures 3. Hypotension 4. CNS depression

2. Recurrence of seizures

Rifampin turns all body secretions _________________. 1. Gray to black 2. Red-orange 3. Green 4. Deep blue

2. Red-orange

Which insulin do you draw up first in your syringe? 1. Glargine (Lantus) 2. Regular 3. Trujeo 4. NPH

2. Regular

A client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis has been admitted to the intensive care unit. The client is prescribed an intravenous insulin drip which the RN is preparing to hang. The RN knows that what type of insulin will be administered? 1. Glargine (Lantus) 2. Regular (Humulin R) 3. Detemir (Levemir) 4. Isophane insulin (NPH)

2. Regular (Humulin R)

The nurse is preparing to admit a client who has received conscious sedation. What is the most important area to assess when the client returns from the procedure using this type of anesthesia? 1. Pulse 2. Respirations 3. Temperature 4. Blood pressure

2. Respirations

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed barbiturates. Which of the following is a symptom of acute drug toxicity? 1. Frequent micturition 2. Respiratory depression 3. Lowered blood sugar 4. Increased blood pressure

2. Respiratory depression

A nurse is preparing to teach a client and caregiver about the antidepressant therapy which will be continued at home. Which precaution should the nurse suggest if the client experiences dizziness when getting out of bed? 1. Strictly avoid movements if dizziness occurs. 2. Rise slowly when getting out of bed. 3. Have a glass of water to overcome dizziness. 4. Have breakfast before getting out of bed.

2. Rise slowly when getting out of bed.

An older client with hypertension is prescribed furosemide and atenolol. The client reports perspiring a lot lately and having diarrhea. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse most likely prioritize? 1. Acute Pain 2. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume 3. Ineffective Sexuality Patterns 4. Activity Intolerance

2. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume

Which of the following is a common adverse reaction seen when administering an antihistamine? 1. Headache 2. Sedation 3. Blurred vision 4. Hypertension

2. Sedation

The nurse is preparing a teaching session for a client prescribed dextromethorphan orally. Which instruction should the nurse prioritize? 1. Take the drug on an empty stomach. 2. Swallow the whole tablet and do not chew it. 3. Take the drug with a glass of milk. 4. Dissolve the tablet in water and take the drug.

2. Swallow the whole tablet and do not chew it.

Which statement(s) would be included in a teaching plan for a client prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? 1. This drug may turn the urine dark brown. This is an indication of serious conditions and should be reported immediately. 2. This drug may turn the urine reddish-orange. This is a normal occurrence that will disappear when use of the drug is discontinued. 3. This drug may cause photosensitivity. Take precautions when out in the sun by wearing sunscreen, a hat, and a long-sleeved shirt for protection 4. There is a danger of heat prostration or heat stroke when taking phenazopyridine in a hot climate.

2. This drug may turn the urine reddish-orange. This is a normal occurrence that will disappear when use of the drug is discontinued.

Why must steroid replacement therapy be gradually discontinued in small increments? 1. To decrease the risk of electrolyte imbalance 2. To ensure that the patient's adrenal glands are able to start secreting steroids appropriately. 3. To maintain a more normal body rhythm 4. To lessen the adverse effects.

2. To ensure that the patient's adrenal glands are able to start secreting steroids appropriately.

The nurse is teaching a young female about the prescribed anticoagulant. The nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly indicates they will apply which recommendation? 1. Take the drug on an empty stomach 2. Use a reliable contraceptive 3. Avoid caffeinated drinks 4. Take the drug with a glass of milk

2. Use a reliable contraceptive

Bleeding resulting from the administration of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) should be treated with: 1. Calcium gluconate 2. Vitamin K 3. Vitamin E 4. Protamine sulfate

2. Vitamin K

A client taking oral penicillin reports he has a sore mouth. On inspection, the nurse notes a black, furry tongue and bright red oral mucous membranes. The primary care provider is notified immediately, because these symptoms may be caused by: 1. poor oral hygiene 2. a superinfection 3. a vitamin C deficiency 4. an allergic reaction

2. a superinfection

Which of the listed drug categories is not included as a class of CNS stimulants? 1. amphetamines 2. analgesics 3. anorexiants 4. analeptics

2. analgesics

A client who has suffered a myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to help prevent straining during defecation. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer? 1. psyllium 2. docusate 3. lactulose 4. lubiprostone

2. docusate

If a urinary drug has anticholinergic effects, the symptoms will be __________________. 1. moist skin 2. dry mouth 3. slow heartbeat 4. wakefulness

2. dry mouth

Which herbal products have been used as a homeopathic remedy for GI problems, including motion sickness, nausea, vomiting, and digestion? 1. ginseng 2. ginger 3. ma huang 4. ginkgo biloba

2. ginger

The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed drug parenterally using the Z-track method. The nurse would correctly administer the drug by which route? 1. intravenous 2. intramuscular 3. subcutaneous 4. intradermal

2. intramuscular

When administering an ophthalmic solution, the drug is instilled into the: 1. upper conjunctival sac 2. lower conjunctival sac 3. inner canthus 4. upper canthus

2. lower conjunctival sac

Prophylactic antibiotics are used with dental procedures for persons with a history of: 1. asthma 2. rheumatic heart disease 3. diabetes mellitus 4. renal insufficiency

2. rheumatic heart disease

A client asks the nurse about medications he can get without a prescription to help relieve his excess gas. Which would the nurse suggest? 1. psyllium 2. simethicone 3. diphenoxylate 4. olsalazine

2. simethicone

The nurse instructs the patient prescribed the transdermal system Androderm (testosterone) __________ . 1. that the sites where the system is applied are rotated with at least 10 days between application to any specific site 2. to apply the system nightly to the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm 3. to apply the system every 7 days to dry skin on the abdomen. 4. to apply the system nightly to the scrotum

2. to apply the system nightly to the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm

The client reports a mild stinging sensation after using a nasal spray decongestant. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "You need to stop the medication immediately." 2. "The dose is probably too strong and needs to be reduced." 3. "This sensation is common and usually disappears with continued use" 4. "We better contact your primary care provider right away."

3. "This sensation is common and usually disappears with continued use"

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed medication by subcutaneous injection. When determining the amount to give, the nurse would keep in mind the maximum volume that should be given in a subcutaneous injection as how much? 1. 0.5 mL 2. 3 mL 3. 1 mL 4. 2 mL

3. 1 mL

A client receiving lithium is reporting nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The nurse suspects lithium toxicity after noting which result on the blood lithium level? 1. 0.8 mEq/L 2. 1.3 mEq/L 3. 1.8 mEq/L 4. 1.0 mEq/L

3. 1.8 mEq/L

A client who is prescribed a hypnotic asks the nurse, "About how long will I be taking this medication?" Which time frame would the nurse most likely include in the response? 1. 4 weeks 2. 6 weeks 3. 2 weeks 4. 8 weeks

3. 2 weeks

A client is prescribed clonidine (Catapress TTS) as a transdermal patch. After instructing the client about this drug, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client states that the patch should remain in place for how long? 1. 3 days 2. 2 weeks 3. 7 days 4. 24 hours

3. 7 days

A client is prescribed zolpidem (Ambien). As part of the teaching plan, the nurse would emphasize the need to plan for the proper amount of sleep. The nurse determines that the teaching plan was successful when the client states that they will plan for how many hours of sleep at night? 1. 11 to 12 hours 2. 5 to 6 hours 3. 7 to 8 hours 4. 9 to 10 hours

3. 7 to 8 hours

A client is administered insulin lispro (Humalog) at 8 AM. The nurse would be alert for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia at about which time? 1. 11 AM 2. 8:15 AM 3. 9 AM 4. 1:30 PM

3. 9 AM

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client ordered to take acetaminophen for pain relief. The nurse will monitor the client for liver failure if there is a history of which disorder? 1. Hypertension 2. Diabetes 3. Alcoholism 4. Urinary Tract Infection

3. Alcoholism

Which of the following medications is NOT a loop diuretic? 1. Demadex (torsemide) 2. Lasix (furosemide) 3. Aldactone (spironolactone) 4. Bumex (bumetanide)

3. Aldactone (spironolactone)

Drugs used for the management of convulsive disorders are known as: 1. Psychomotor agents 2. NSAIDS 3. Antiepileptics 4. CNS stimulants

3. Antiepileptics

A patient at a sports camp is complaining of itchy and watery eyes, coughing, and sneezing when outdoors. The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grass. Which medication class will the nurse administer? 1. Antitussive 2. Decongestant 3. Antihistamine 4. Expectorant

3. Antihistamine

A client is diagnosed with an arrhythmia that involves irregular and rapid atrial contraction and an irregular and inefficient ventricular contraction. The nurse determines this is which type of arrhythmia? 1. Ventricular fibrillation 2. Ventricular tachycardia 3. Atrial fibrillation 4. Atrial flutter

3. Atrial fibrillation

Which medications are capable of CNS depression, hypnosis, deep coma, respiratory depression, and prescribed infrequently? 1. Nonbenzodiazepines 2. Opioids 3. Barbiturarates 4. Benzodiazepines

3. Barbiturarates

The nurse has administered dicyclomine (Bentyl) to an elderly client. Which finding on the ongoing assessment should the nurse prioritize? 1. Mydriasis 2. Lightheadedness 3. Blurred vision 4. Disorientation

3. Blurred vision

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication into a client's cheek pocket. What kind of administration is this? 1. Transdermal 2. Intraocular 3. Buccal 4. Sublingual

3. Buccal

A client has been admitted to the cardiac unit for heart failure and has been ordered carvedilol (Coreg). The client's blood pressure is 80/50. What should the nurse do? 1. Call the provider after giving the medication, informing the provider of client's blood pressure when the medication was given. 2. Continue to take the client's blood pressure using different BP machines until a better blood pressure is obtained. 3. Call the provider and advise them of the client's blood pressure prior to administering the medication. 4. Give the medication so that the blood pressure will increase.

3. Call the provider and advise them of the client's blood pressure prior to administering the medication.

Which medication is an anticholinergic agent used for Parkinson's disease? 1. Requip (ropinirole) 2. Symmetrel (amantadine hydrochloride) 3. Cogentin (benzotropine) 4. Carbidopa/Levodopa (Sinemet)

3. Cogentin (benzotropine)

A nurse has been caring for a patient who was treated for a bacterial infection. The patient is now scheduled to receive treatment on an outpatient basis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse offer to the patient and patient's family under continuing care? 1. If you develop hives, continue to take the medication 2. If it does not agree with your stomach, stop taking it 3. Complete the full course of treatment 4. Share your antibiotics with your mother if she needs something to treat an infection

3. Complete the full course of treatment

A nurse has administered an opioid to a client. Which activities should the nurse encourage the client to do? 1. Get up and walk once every hour. 2. Maintain complete bed rest. 3. Cough and breathe every 2 hours. 4. Restrict consumption of liquids.

3. Cough and breathe every 2 hours.

If your client has severe liver disease, the dose of the antibiotic ordered may need to be: 1. Withheld 2. Unchanged 3. Decreased 4. Increased

3. Decreased

A nurse is performing a preadministration assessment of a client who is to receive an opioid analgesic. Which activity should the nurse prioritize? 1. Obtain client's blood pressure and pulse within 5 to 10 minutes. 2. Record each bowel movement and its appearance, color, and consistency. 3. Document description of pain and an estimate of when the pain began. 4. Auscultate lung sounds.

3. Document description of pain and an estimate of when the pain began.

A physician has ordered Regular insulin 10 units with NPH insulin 20 units subcutaneously every morning. The nurse should: 1. Draw up the NPH insulin first, then the Regular insulin in the same syringe 2. Vigorously shake the NPH insulin vial to distribute the suspension 3. Draw up the Regular insulin first, the NPH insulin in the same syringe if permitted by facility. 4. Administer both Regular insulin and NPH insulin at 10:00 am

3. Draw up the Regular insulin first, the NPH insulin in the same syringe if permitted by facility.

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing methylcellulose therapy for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome. Overuse of the drug results in constipation of the patient. What instruction should the nurse offer the patient to avoid constipation? 1. Take commercial electrolytes 2. Avoid milk products 3. Eat foods high in roughage 4. Take the drug with food

3. Eat foods high in roughage

A client is brought to the emergency department with suspected overdose of a benzodiazepine. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering to counteract the effects of the overdose? 1. Diazepam (Valium) 2. Naltrexone (Vivitrol) 3. Flumazenil (Romazicon) 4. Naloxone (Narcan)

3. Flumazenil (Romazicon)

When giving a bulk-forming laxative, the nurse instructs the patient to: 1. Take the second dose in 30 minutes 2. Refrain from drinking fluids for one hour 3. Immediately drink a full glass of water 4. Not to eat for 4 hours

3. Immediately drink a full glass of water

A nurse is caring for a client with suicidal tendencies. Which action should be most important for the nurse to do after administering the drug orally? 1. Monitor the pulse rate for unusual changes. 2. Monitor body temperature for changes. 3. Inspect the oral cavity to ensure that the drug is swallowed. 4. Monitor blood pressure for unusual changes.

3. Inspect the oral cavity to ensure that the drug is swallowed.

The nurse should discourage frequent use of mineral oil as a laxative because this drug can: 1. Increase serum potassium levels 2. Produce severe fluid retention 3. Interfere with the absorption of vitamins A,D,E, and K 4. Increase the absorption of fats

3. Interfere with the absorption of vitamins A,D,E, and K

If the drug dutasteride (Avodart) is used for BPH and used only for men, why is it rated pregnancy category X? 1. To make it clear it is to be given to men only 2. To be sure it is not administered to women for menopausal symptoms 3. It can harm a male fetus if absorbed by a pregnant woman 4. All drugs are ranked no matter if only for men or not

3. It can harm a male fetus if absorbed by a pregnant woman

One drug commonly used for moderate sedation is ____________ . 1. Thorazine 2. Morphine 3. Lorazepam 4. Phenobarbitol

3. Lorazepam

A client who has been prescribed metformin is scheduled to undergo diagnostic testing with the administration of parenteral radiographic contrast media containing iodine. What fact should direct the nurse's plan of care for this client? 1. The client will be prescribed an extra dose of metformin to address the contrast media effect on the body. 2. Insulin will be temporarily substituted for the metformin to address the risk of potential kidney failure. 3. Metformin should be discontinued at least 48 hours before and after diagnostic tests that use contrast media. 4. The client needs to be encouraged to drink 1 to 2 L of water to flush the contrast media out of the kidneys.

3. Metformin should be discontinued at least 48 hours before and after diagnostic tests that use contrast media.

An older adult client has been on long-term proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. The nurse practitioner should focus on what assessment related to adverse effects? 1. dental health 2. integumentary system 3. bone density 4. joint mobility

3. bone density

After teaching a group of nursing students about upper gastrointestinal system drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students correctly choose which drug as a gastrointestinal stimulant? 1. Omeprazole (Prilosec) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Metoclopramide (Reglan) 4. Misoprostol (Cytotec)

3. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

The aminoglycosides have a common side effect, especially in the elderly. They may cause damage to the eighth cranial nerve and this side effect is called: 1. Nephrotoxicity 2. Thrombophlebitis 3. Ototoxicity 4. Hypersensitivity

3. Ototoxicity

The effects of heparin are monitored by this lab test: 1. BUN 2. PT 3. PTT or Anti-Xa 4. CBC

3. PTT or Anti-Xa

The nurse is teaching a client and caregiver the proper technique for administering the prescribed nitroglycerin ointment. Which method should the nurse point out is the best way to determine the amount of ointment to apply? 1. A teaspoon 2. Length of a finger 3. Paper applicator with markings 4. A ruler

3. Paper applicator with markings

A toddler who has been vomiting for the last 3 days is seen in the clinic. The mother reports the toddler refuses to eat or take fluids. In order to prevent dehydration, the nurse anticipates the primary health provider will recommend which treatment? 1. Slo-salt 2. PhosLo 3. Pedialyte 4. Citracal

3. Pedialyte

The study of drugs and their action on living organisms is: 1. Toxicology 2. Pharmacodynamics 3. Pharmacology 4. Biology

3. Pharmacology

A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed Coumadin (warfarin sodium) and notes a positive occult blood screen, petechiae on both legs, and blood-tinged toothbrush. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe which antidote to counteract these findings? 1. Tenecteplase 2. Ticlopidine 3. Phytonadione (Vitamin K) 4. Protamine sulfate

3. Phytonadione (Vitamin K)

Potassium supplements and salt substitutes should NOT be given with this class of diuretic: 1. Thiazide 2. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 3. Potassium-sparing 4. Loop

3. Potassium-sparing

What is the best way to administer ear drops to an adult? 1. Have patient gently blow nose first 2. Tilt head to side only 3. Pull earlobe upward and back 4. Pull earlobe downward and back

3. Pull earlobe upward and back

A patient is receiving morphine for pain control. What will the nurse emphasize about preventing constipation? 1. enemas should be given on a weekly basis 2. Laxatives should be given on a daily basis. 3. Stool softeners are taken on a regular basis during opioid use. 4. Adequate hydration consists of four full glasses of water every day.

3. Stool softeners are taken on a regular basis during opioid use.

The health care provider has ordered epinephrine for a child admitted with bronchospasms. The LPN will prepare to administer this drug via which route? 1. Intradermal 2. Intravenous Push 3. Subcutaneous 4. Oral

3. Subcutaneous

When caring for a client with angina, the nurse instructs the client to place the nitroglycerin tablet under his tongue. Which form of nitroglycerin is the nurse administering? 1. Intravenous 2. Transdermal 3. Sublingual 4. Buccal

3. Sublingual

A nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client who is prescribed glucocorticoid therapy. Which instructions should the nurse point out in the teaching plan for the client and caregivers? 1. notify the primary health care provider if glucose appears in the urine. 2. Measure the amount of fluids taken each day. 3. Take the oral drug with meals or snacks. 4. Report any symptoms of sore throat or fever imediately.

3. Take the oral drug with meals or snacks

A nurse is preparing a teaching session for a client who is prescribed miglitol (Glyset). The nurse would instruct the client to administer this drug at which time? 1. Before or after a meal during the day 2. At bedtime 3. Three times a day with the first bite of a meal 4. 30 minutes before eating breakfast

3. Three times a day with the first bite of a meal

The most common and least serious allergic reaction to penicillins is ______________________. 1. Anaphylaxis 2. Hives in the mouth 3. Torso rash 4. Endocarditis

3. Torso rash

A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation is requesting pain medication for a headache and for home use. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the health care provider will suggest? 1. Empirin 2. Bufferin 3. Tylenol 4. Ecotrin

3. Tylenol

A 24-year-old woman has come to the clinic with a strep throat and has been prescribed penicillin. The nursing assessment reveals that she is taking oral contraceptives. The nurse will instruct her to: 1. Stop using oral contraceptives and focus on the penicillin. 2. Abstain from intercourse for at least 48 hours after taking penicillin. 3. Use an additional form of birth control while taking penicillin. 4. Include adequate proteins and vitamins in her diet.

3. Use an additional form of birth control while taking penicillin.

Directly observed therapy (DOT) is most commonly used _____________. 1. In all hospitalized patients 2. Because judging dosage is difficult 3. When lack of compliance is an issue 4. With small children

3. When lack of compliance is an issue

Which of the following IV solutions must be typed and crossmatched before administration? 1. TPN 2. Normal saline 3. Whole blood 4. Lipid solutions

3. Whole blood

What should you tell your patient who has just started to take Lipitor (atorvastatin)? 1. If you are pregnant, Lipitor is safe to take 2. The best time to take the medicine is in the morning 3. Your physician should be ordering blood work to check your liver function 4.Hypertension is a common side effect, monitor BP weekly

3. Your physician should be ordering blood work to check your liver function

Nurses are responsible for which part of the drug distribution process? 1. dispensing 2. dosing 3. administration 4. prescribing

3. administration

The nurse must be aware that older men taking androgens are _______________________ . 1. prone to urinary problems 2. at increased risk for confusion 3. at increased risk for prostate cancer 4. at greater risk for hypertension

3. at increased risk for prostate cancer

Under the Controlled Substances Act, schedule II to V drugs are typically accounted for in the health care setting. Which of the following drugs would the nurse least expect to be counted during change-of-shift duties? 1. opioids 2. antidiarrheals with codeine 3. heroin 4. morphine

3. heroin

The nurse can evaluate the client's response to therapy by asking him if ____________________. 1. he completed the entire course of therapy 2. he has experienced any constipation 3. his symptoms have been relieved 4. he has seen any evidence of blood in the urine

3. his symptoms have been relieved

A nurse working in the clinic asks how the sulfonamides control an infection. The most accurate answer is that these drugs _________________________. 1. make the urine alkaline, which eliminates bacteria 2. reduce urine output 3. inhibit folic acid metabolism 4. encourage the production of antibodies

3. inhibit folic acid metabolism

Which of the following behaviors would the nurse expect to see in a client experiencing tardive dyskinesia (TD)? 1. muscle weakness, paralysis of the eyelids, diarrhea 2. muscle rigidity, dry mouth, insomnia 3. irreversible rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw 4. dyspnea, somnolence, muscle spasms

3. irreversible rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw

Which types of insulin are the most rapid-acting? (Select all that apply) 1. isophane, NPH 2. glargine (Lantus) 3. lispro (Humalog) 4. aspart (Novolog)

3. lispro (Humalog) 4. aspart (Novolog)

Clients receiving sulfasalazine for ulcerative colitis are told that the drug ______________________. 1. rarely causes adverse effects 2. is not to be taken with food. 3. may turn the urine and skin an orange-yellow color 4. may cause hair loss

3. may turn the urine and skin an orange-yellow color

A group of nursing students are analyzing the various categories of upper gastrointestinal systems drugs. The instructor determines the session is successful when students choose which drugs as examples of a proton pump inhibitor? 1. ranitidine 2. misoprostol 3. omeprazole 4. sucralfate

3. omeprazole

Which client would the nurse identify as being opioid-naive? 1. individual who is physically dependent on opioids 2. one who is psychologically dependent on opioids 3. one who does not routinely take opioids 4. person who routinely takes opioids

3. one who does not routinely take opioids

A client needing to evacuate the colon for endoscopy would likely be prescribed which medication? 1. methylcellulose 2. mineral oil 3. polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution 4. psyllium

3. polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution

Which antacids would the nurse identify as being contraindicated in clients with heart failure? 1. magnesium hydroxide 2. aluminum hydroxide 3. sodium bicarbonate 4. calcium carbonate

3. sodium bicarbonate

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking insulin. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing hypoglycemia when the client displays what signs? 1. increased pulse rate and fruity-smelling breath 2. decreased respiratory rate and hot, dry skin 3. weakness, sweating, and decreased mentation 4. increased thirst and increased urine output

3. weakness, sweating, and decreased mentation

Nurse A arrives for work on a unit that has been very busy. Nurse B has been caring for the clients that Nurse A will now care for. Nurse B hands Nurse A the syringe and says, "Mr. Smith in room 431 needs his pain medication. Here it is, I haven't had time to give it." What is Nurse A's best response? 1. "OK, j let me just verify the order on the MAR. 2. "When was the last time Mr. Smith had pain medication?" 3. "Will you show me the vial that you drew this medication from?" 4. "I can't give medication someone else prepared. I will go prepare it now."

4. "I can't give medication someone else prepared. I will go prepare it now."

A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving an adrenergic medication. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse about an adverse effect of the medication and a reason to call the prescriber? 1. "I am concerned about this hospitalization." 2. "I have a nervous feeling." 3. "I wonder what my trigger of this allergic reaction." 4. "I feel a "fluttering" feeling of my heart."

4. "I feel a "fluttering" feeling of my heart."

The caregiver of a client who is started on antipsychotic drug therapy asks the nurse when the client's symptoms will improve? Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "It may take a week." 2. "You should notice an improvement immediately." 3. "Look for movements of their face, mouth, or jaw and that's the sign of improvement." 4. "It may take about 6 weeks or so before the drug is most effective."

4. "It may take about 6 weeks or so before the drug is most effective."

The female client is scheduled to get her breakfast tray at 0800. At what time should she receive her prescribed dose of NPH insulin? 1. 1100 2. 0500 3. 1430 4. 0730

4. 0730

A nurse is teaching a client about his prescribed lansoprazole. The nurse instructs the client to take the drug at which time? 1. Only when they need it 2. at bedtime 3. 3 hours after a meal 4. 1 hour before eating

4. 1 hour before eating

The nurse is monitoring the effects of naloxone after administering the drug to a client with respiratory depression. The nurse anticipates to monitor changes in which time frame? 1. 3 to 4 minutes 2. 5 to 6 minutes 3. 7 to 8 minutes 4. 1 to 2 minutes

4. 1 to 2 minutes

The nurse is preparing to administer an antiasthmatic drug to a client. The nurse determines the drug should be held and the health care provider notified after noting which respiratory rate on assessment? 1. 18 breaths/min 2. 22 breaths/min 3. 14 breaths/min 4. 10 breaths/min

4. 10 breaths/min

There is a low degree of addiction potential with CNS stimulant drugs due to depression of the brain's pleasure centers with enhanced neurotransmission of dopamine. True False

False

A client is in the clinic to have blood drawn for a theophylline level. The client is taking theophylline (Theo-Dur) and appears to be doing well on the drug and reports no problems. What serum level will the nurse expect the client to have? 1. 25 to 35 mcg/mL 2. 40 to 50 mcg/mL 3. 0.5 to 5 mcg/mL 4. 10 to 20 mcg/mL

4. 10 to 20 mcg/mL

The nurse is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. At which angle will the needle be inserted? 1. 45 degrees 2. 30 degrees 3. 90 degrees 4. 15 degrees

4. 15 degrees

One fluid ounce is equivalent to: 1. 3 tsp 2. 15 mL 3. 2 tsp 4. 30 mL

4. 30 mL

After administering penicillin IM in the outpatient setting, how long is the patient asked to wait in the waiting room? 1. 15 minutes 2. 1 hour 3. 5 minutes 4. 30 minutes

4. 30 minutes

How long does a patient have to be on preventive therapy for exposure to tuberculosis? 1. 4 months 2. 2 months 3. 1 month 4. 6 months to 1 year

4. 6 months to 1 year

A nurse is caring for a patient with acute renal failure. The physician has prescribed a diuretic medication for the patient to promote diuresis. What intervention should the nurse perform to prevent the inconvenience caused by increased urination? 1. Ask the patient to decrease fluid intake 2. Gradually increase the drug dosage. 3. Encourage the patient to exercise 4. Administer the drug early in the day.

4. Administer the drug early in the day

Patients should avoid which of the following when taking benzodiazepines? 1. Operating machinery 2. Alcohol 3. Driving 4. All of the above

4. All of the above

A nurse is assessing the medical record of a client with arthritis who is to receive celecoxib (Celebrex). The nurse would question this order based on which finding in the client's history? 1. Acute gout 2. Diabetic retinopathy 3. Cataract 4. Allergy to sulfonamides

4. Allergy to sulfonamides

A client with chronic asthma is prescribed Proventil (albuterol). The nurse will prioritize which nursing diagnosis for this client? 1. Risk of Injury 2. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion 3. Risk of Impaired Oral Mucous Membranes 4. Anxiety

4. Anxiety

The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client with unstable angina and a recent MI (myocardial infarction). Which medication will the nurse include in this teaching? 1. Diflunisal 2. Acetaminophen 3. Magnesium sulfate 4. Aspirin

4. Aspirin

An example of a combination sulfonamide is _______________. 1. Furadantin 2. Macrodantin 3. Doxycycline 4. Bactrim

4. Bactrim

A nurse is teaching a client about the thyroid hormone replacement therapy which has been prescribed. The nurse determines the teaching session is successful when the client indicates which time to take the drug? 1. Before bedtime 2. After lunch 3. Just before dinner 4. Before breakfast

4. Before breakfast

Which classification of commonly prescribed drugs may mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia when taken concurrently with insulin? 1. Glucogon 2. Corticosteroids 3. Oral Contraceptives 4. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents

4. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents

A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching for a client who is to continue taking NSAIDs at home. Which important point should the nurse prioritize in the teaching? 1. Take aspirin if necessary strictly with a full glass of water. 2. Take the drugs strictly with a glass of milk or juice. 3. Use the drug on a very regular basis during treatment. 4. Call your health care provider if you have no relief after 2 weeks.

4. Call your health care provider if you have no relief after 2 weeks.

What mode of action do all barbiturates have? 1. Cause people to dream 2. Relieve mild to moderate pain 3. Eventually cause addiction 4. Cause CNS depression

4. Cause CNS depression

What does the nurse expect to find in assessing a patient receiving high dosages of morphine? 1. Urinary urgency 2. Increased bowel sounds 3. Hypertension 4. Constricted pupils

4. Constricted pupils

The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube who will receive oral medications through this tube. What procedure should the nurse follow to administer the client's oral tablets? 1. Break the tablets in quarters and mix with the client's liquid medications. 2. Cut the tablets in small pieces and drop them the tube. 3. Place the tablets in a carbonated beverage one hour before administration. 4. Crush the tablets and dissolve them in water before administration.

4. Crush the tablets and dissolve them in water before administration.

The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis and has been administering edrophonium (Tensilon). The nurse suspects the client needs an increased dose based on which assessment finding? 1. Abdominal cramping 2. Muscle spasms 3. Clenching of the jaw 4. Difficulty breathing

4. Difficulty breathing

Nitroglycerin: 1. Decreases heart muscle contractility 2. Increases afterload 3. Decreases the heart rate 4. Dilates the coronary arteries

4. Dilates the coronary arteries

To prevent gastrointestinal upset, most antihistamines are given orally with: 1. Fruit juice 2. Antacids 3. One teaspoon of jello 4. Food

4. Food

Which of these drugs is classified as an expectorant? 1. Dextromethorphan 2. Codeine 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Guaifenesin

4. Guaifenesin

Which of the following has been implicated as a causative agent in a type of chronic gastritis and peptic and duodenal ulcers? 1. E-coli 2. Pseudomonas 3. Prolonged use of laxatives 4. Helicobacter pylori

4. Helicobacter pylori

A nurse is providing care to a client with arthritis in several large weight-bearing joints who is receiving NSAID therapy. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate? 1. Impaired Gas Exchange 2. Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose levels 3. Risk for Imbalanced Body Temperature 4. Impaired Mobility

4. Impaired Mobility

A hypnotic is a drug that: 1. Produces relaxation 2. Hypnotizes people 3. Induces anesthesia 4. Induces sleep

4. Induces sleep

When administering two inhalations of the same drug, it is advisable to wait at least 1 hour between puffs. True False

False

A nurse needs to administer a cephalosporin to a patient. The patient informs the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following actions is the nurse most likely to take in such a situation? 1. Suggest kidney function tests 2. Administer an antipyretic drug 3. Obtain patient's occupational history 4. Inform the primary health care provider that ordered the med.

4. Inform the primary health care provider that ordered the med.

The single most important organ that detoxifies drugs is the: 1. Lung 2. Spleen 3. Stomach 4. Liver

4. Liver

A client with alcohol dependence is admitted for care at a local health care facility. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe which medication for this client? 1. Methadone 2. Levorphanol 3. Naproxen 4. Naltrexone

4. Naltrexone

A nurse is conducting an assessment on a client who has recently undergone exploratory laparotomy. The nurse notes the continued order for Lovenox (enoxaparin). The nurse predicts this is to accomplish which goal? 1. Prevent coagulation cascade 2. Encourage cessation of bleeding 3. Repair damage to a blood vessel 4. Prevent formation of a clot

4. Prevent formation of a clot

Which statement is true regarding Heparin? 1. Heparin can be used to break up and dissolve a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) 2. Heparin can be administered orally or intravenously 3. Heparin dosage is adjusted according to the PT/INR 4. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin

4. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin

A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with gangrene on his toes. The nurse needs to teach the patient how to bandage the wound at home. What learning domain should the nurse employ to teach the patient? 1. Intellectual 2. Affective 3. Cognitive 4. Psychomotor

4. Psychomotor

Within minutes of the first initiation of a nebulizer treatment with a sympathomimetic bronchodilator, the 14-year-old patient turns on his call light and states that he feels "panicky" and his heart is racing. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Stop the treatment and notify the physician 2. Add more diluents to the nebulizer 3. Administer a sedative 4. Reassure the patient that this is expected

4. Reassure the patient that this is expected

In teaching a patient prescribed a topical nasal decongestant, the nurse explains that overuse of the topical agent can cause: 1. Weight loss 2. Excessive nasal secretions 3. Bradycardia 4. Rebound nasal congestion

4. Rebound nasal congestion

The nurse is evaluating a client who has received naloxone for respiratory depression. Which finding on an assessment would indicate effectiveness of the drug therapy? 1. Fluid intake and output are balanced 2. Weaning from mechanical ventilation. 3. Level of pain has decreased. 4. Respiratory rate and depth are within acceptable parameters.

4. Respiratory rate and depth are within acceptable parameters.

If a client is taking metoclopramide (Reglan), which of the following behaviors indicates an irreversible condition that should be reported immediately to the primary health care provider? 1. Dyspnea, somnolence, muscle spasms 2. Muscle rigidity, dry mouth, insomnia 3. Muscle weakness, paralysis of the eyelids 4. Rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw

4. Rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw

What is the portion of the heart that receives unoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cava? 1. Left ventricle 2. Left atrium 3. Right ventricle 4. Right atrium

4. Right atrium

Which of the following adverse reactions of Xylocaine (lidocaine) should be reported immediately to the primary health care provider? 1. Dry mouth 2. Lightheadedness 3. Nausea 4. Seizures

4. Seizures

The client is receiving the bronchodilator Theo-Dur (theophylline). The nurse would expect to closely monitor: 1. Electrolytes 2. Thyroid levels 3. Prothrombin time 4. Serum theophylline levels

4. Serum theophylline levels

Which of the following is an antileukotriene agent? 1. Mucomyst (acetylcysteine) 2. Atrovent (ipratropium bromide) 3. Aerobid (flunisolide) 4. Singular (montelukast)

4. Singular (montelukast)

A nurse is to instruct an outpatient in the right method of administering mineral oil for constipation. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the patient for optimal response to therapy? 1. Take it half an hour after a meal 2. Take it before breakfast 3. Take it after lunch 4. Take it on an empty stomach in the evening

4. Take it on an empty stomach in the evening

A client is assessed by the home health nurse on the appropriate use of her metered-dose inhalers. Instructions concerning which interventions will assist a client in the proper administration of the metered-dose inhaler? 1. Pushing fluids 2. Administering a corticosteroid firse 3. Exhaling immediately after administration 4. Using a spacer

4. Using a spacer

Which of the following adverse reactions, if observed in a client prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), would indicate that the patient may be developing phenytoin toxicity? 1. somnolence 2. hyperactivity 3. severe occipital headache 4. ataxia

4. ataxia

Antitussives are medications that ___________________ . 1. fight microbial infections of the lungs 2. loosen respiratory secretions 3. increase production of mucous secretion 4. depress the cough center in the brain

4. depress the cough center in the brain

The nurse makes a note in the chart that the client's pain has lessened following a 14-day course of antibiotics. This is an example of which phase of the nursing process? 1. implementation 2. analysis 3. assessment 4. evaluation

4. evaluation

When antihistamines are administered to clients receiving CNS depressants, the nurse monitors the client for __________________. 1. an increase in anticholinergic effects 2. loss of hearing 3. seizure activity 4. excessive sedation

4. excessive sedation

Conjugated estrogen (Premarin) is prescribed during menopause for which condition or symptom? 1. amenorrhea 2. breast cancer 3. breakthrough uterine bleeding 4. hot flashes

4. hot flashes

After teaching a class about the various drugs used to control blood glucose, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies what as a biguanide? 1. meglitol (Glyset) 2. sitagliptin (Januvia) 3. glimepiride (Amaryl) 4. metformin (Glucophage)

4. metformin (Glucophage)

Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for milligram? 1. gm 2. mL 3. mcg 4. mg

4. mg

Which medication does the nurse hold if a patient's vital signs are blood pressure 144/90, pulse 60, and respirations 8? 1. digoxin (Lanoxin) 2. ibuprofen (Advil) 3. furosemide (Lasix) 4. morphine sulfate (Morphine)

4. morphine sulfate (Morphine)

If the patient receives codeine for its antitussive activity, the nurse observes the patient for adverse reactions, which may include: 1. diaphoresis, dry skin 2. skin rash, increased respiratory rate 3. dilated pupils, restlessness 4. respiratory depression, sedation

4. respiratory depression, sedation

A convulsion is best described as: 1. disturbances in brain electrical activity 2. disrupted CNS neurologic impulses 3. loss of consciousness 4. sudden, involuntary contractions

4. sudden, involuntary contractions

Unless the primary health care provider or clinical pharmacist directs otherwise, the nurse informs the client to take oral medications with: 1. food 2. milk 3. fruit juice 4. water

4. water

Order the steps used to start an IV access in a client. Answer with the letters only, no commas, no spaces, use Capital Letters. A. Apply tourniquet above intended puncture site B. Inspect the limb. C. Cleanse the site for puncture. D. Ask the client about previous IV sites. E. Pull the skin taut for access.

DBACE

Bile acid resins are frequently called "statin" drugs. These drugs lower the blood level of cholesterol low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and triglycerides. True False

False

Fexofenadine (Allegra) causes a lot of sedation as the drug is freely permeable along the blood-brain barrier. True False

False

General anesthesia includes topical, local infiltration, spinal, and regional pain relief and is used when dealing with a specific area of the body and the patient can remain conscious. True False

False

Radioactive iodine is used to treat hypothyroidism. True False

False

Sedatives produce sleep. True False

False

Sulfonamides treat infections caused by first-degree burns. True False

False

The thiazolidinedione (TZDs) drugs are contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease. True False

False

What is the acronym to help you remember the order to draw up mixed insulins?

IRRI

Acetominophen is used for treating children with fever and flu-like symptoms. True False

True

Adrenal insufficiency is a critical deficiency of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids. True False

True

Antacids do not actually coat the stomach; instead, they neutralize the acid in the stomach. True False

True

Antihistamine agents may also have antipruritic and antiemetic effects True False

True

Antipsychotics disturb the function of the extrapyramidal portion of the nervous system, causing abnormal muscle movement. True False

True

Antiretroviral drugs are used primarily to reduce viral load in patients with HIV. True False

True

Benzodiazepine doses should always be tapered and never stopped abruptly; withdrawal can occur with symptoms such as a return of anxiety, concentration problems, tremors, and sensory disturbances. True False

True

Blocking of monoamine oxidase (MAOI) results in an increase in endogenous (available) epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin in the nervous system True False

True

Bone resorption inhibitors are used to treat osteoporosis. True False

True

Cardiotonic, like digoxin, increase the efficiency and improve the contraction of the heart muscle. True False

True

Diuretics are drugs that reduce body fluid by increasing production of urine by altering the excretion or reabsorption of electrolytes in the kidney True False

True

Estrogen and progestin therapy is contraindicated in patients with breast cancer. True False

True

Men taking antianginals need to be assessed and cautioned for use of erectile dysfunction medications because these drugs also cause vasodilation. True False

True

Multiple OTC products exist to treat GI symptoms. True False

True

People with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are at risk for TB because of their compromised immune systems. True False

True

Pseudoephedrine may be administered orally to relieve nasal decongestion. True False

True

The NSAIDs can be used for the treatment of dysmenorrhea. True False

True

The anticholinergic drugs block the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the parasympathetic branch. True False

True

The drugs used to treat Parkinson disease and parkinsonism either supplement dopamine or block excess acetylcholine to enhance neurotransmission. True False

True

The hormone estrogen can be replaced, helps to relieve flushing, sweating, and atrophy of vaginal and urinary tissues; and improves bones. True False

True

The patient taking theophylline may report heartburn because the drug relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter allowing gastroesophageal reflux. True False

True

The usual therapeutic range for the INR of a patient who is being anticoagulated is 2 to 3. True False

True

When medications are given IV, the vein needs to be monitored frequently because the medications can be irritating to the tissue and cause phlebitis. True False

True