Pharmacology 2 exam #2
A client asks the nurse what has caused their irritable bowel syndrome. Which information should the nurse prepare to discuss with the client? A. Hyperactive immune response B. Imbalance of the normal flora C. Autoimmune response D. Psychosomatic
A
A client asks the nurse why he cannot take his monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) with diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Which response should the nurse provide? A. "You may develop a hypertensive crisis." B. "The diphenhydramine (Benadryl) interferes with the therapeutic effect of the MAOI." C. "You are at risk for the development of seizures." D. "The MAOI prescription decreases the effectiveness of diphenhydramine (Benadryl)."
A
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN through a central line, but the next bag of solution is not available for administration at this time. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse? A. Administer 20% dextrose in water IV until the next bag is available B. Slow the infusion rate of the current bag until the solution is available C. Monitor for hyperglycemia D. Monitor for hyperosmolar diuresis
A
A nurse is teaching about food safety and foodborne illness to a group of adults at a local community center. Which of the following information should the nurse include? a. unpasteurized fruit juice is a common cause of foodborne illness b. the recommended cooking temperature for ground beef is 145 degrees farenheit c. the onset of norovirus is 5-7 days after exposure to the bacteria d. store hard boiled eggs in the refrigerator for up to 2 weeks
A
For which should the nurse monitor a client suspected of abusing dextromethorphan (Delsym)? A. CNS toxicity B. Cardiotoxicity C. Hepatoxicity D. Nephrotoxicity
A
M42 Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the function of the large intestine? A. "The large intestine absorbs water and eliminates stool." B. "Food travels through the large intestine for 3 to 6 hours." C. "The large intestine contains host flora that manufacture vitamin E." D. "The large intestine absorbs most of the nutrients from food."
A
The educator has reviewed the role of histamine receptors associated with allergic symptoms with a nurse. Which statement made by the nurse indicates further instruction is needed? A. "H1 receptors are found in the stomach." B. "H1 receptors are responsible for allergic symptoms." C. "H2 receptors increase mucus secretion in the stomach." D. "H2 receptors are responsible for peptic ulcers."
A
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed an antihistamine. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "This medication could make me very sleepy." B. "I can still have my after-dinner drink." C. "This prescription is safe because it is sold over-the-counter (OTC)." D. "I may experience diarrhea while taking this prescription."
A
Which can be combined with Aluminum compounds such as Aluminum Hydroxide (AlternaGEL) to increase their effectiveness and reduce the potential for constipation? A. Magnesium B. Phosphate C. Calcium D. Potassium
A
Which condition is an adverse effect of a beta-adrenergic agonist? A. Tachycardia B. Runny nose C. Bradycardia D. Constipation
A
Which describes the mechanism of action of diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)? A. Decrease peristalsis B. Blockage of dopamine receptors C. Increase in stool formation D. Promotion of stool passage
A
Which describes the primary role of the large intestine? A. Excrete fecal matter B. Excrete enzymes C. Control peristalsis D. Absorb nutrients
A
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client with allergic symptoms prescribed an antihistamine? A. "Antihistamines are most effective when taken prophylactically." B. "Antihistamines are effective for long-term therapy." C. "Antihistamines have minimal side effects." D. "Antihistamines are useful in reversing allergic symptoms."
A
Which information should the nurse provide a client that is will receive enteral nutrition? A. "Enteral feedings allow natural digestion to occur." B. "Your nutrition will be administered through your veins." C. "Most enteral feeding consists of thinned pureed food." D. "Nutrition can is administered either continuously."
A
Which is the anticipated treatment outcome for a client that has developed nausea and vomiting? A. Identifying and eliminating the cause B. Providing the client with soft foods C. Replacing fluids D. Encouraging the client to lie still
A
Which of the following foods is the best choice for a client with inflammatory bowel disease who follows a low residue diet? a. Oatmeal b. Steamed broccoli and cauliflower c. Popcorn d. A bagel with sesame and poppy seeds
A
Which prescription is used to prevent allergic rhinitis? A. Intranasal corticosteroids B. Oral decongestants C. Intranasal decongestants D. Oral corticosteroids
A
Which statement is true regarding dry powder inhalers (DPI)? A. The device is activated by inhalation. B. The prescription has to be reconstituted prior to administration. C. The is canister must be pressed for the prescription to be delivered. D. The prescription is delivered by fine mist.
A
A client tells the nurse their "stomach pain is completely relieved after eating and returns a couple hours after the meal." Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? A. Duodenal ulcer B. Gastric ulcer C. Crohn's disease D. Ulcerative colitis
A A duodenal ulcer is characterized by gnawing or burning upper abdominal pain that occurs 1 to 3 hours after a meal. The pain is worse when the stomach is empty and often disappears on ingestion of food.
The nurse is preparing to assess a client receiving enteral feedings. Which finding should the nurse be concerned about? A. Dry lips B. Weight gain of 3 lb in a week C. No change in weight D. Respiratory rate of 20
A Dry lips are concerning because they indicate that sufficient water has not been given.
Which priority question should the nurse ask a client prior to the administration of ipratropium (Atrovent)? A. "Are you allergic to soy?" B. "Do you have seizures?" C. "Do you have diabetes mellitus?" D. "Do you have gout?"
A Ipratropium is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to soy as soya lecithin is used as a propellant in the inhaler
Which vitamin can be toxic if consumed in large amounts? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Niacin D. Folic acid
A Niacin = B and is water soluble
Which action should the nurse take with the prescribed dose of orlistat (Alli) for the client that has ordered dry toast for breakfast? A. Hold the pre-breakfast dose B. Double the pre-breakfast dose C. Reduce the dose by half D. Give the normal dose
A Orlistat should be held if the meal does not contain fat.
The nurse has completed client education about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) and spacer. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "I should keep the spacer moist between uses by storing it in a plastic zip bag." B. "After each use of my metered-dose inhaler (MDI) I will rinse my mouth." C. "While I depress the canister I will make sure that I inhale slowly." D. "It is important that I drink plenty fluids while I am using the metered-dose inhaler (MDI)."
A The spacer and inhaler should be rinsed with water and allowed to air-dry
Which client is at greatest risk for developing vitamin deficiencies? A. A client prescribed oral contraceptives for birth control B. A pregnant client that is receiving prenatal vitamins C. A client newly prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for the treatment of epilepsy D. A client who eats a well-balanced diet and does not take a vitamin supplement
A The use of oral contraceptives is associated with deficiencies of B complex vitamins.
M39 A client with nasal congestion tells the nurse that his symptoms have worsened since he has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin). Which question should the nurse ask the client? A. "How long have you been using the prescription?" B. "Have you checked the expiration date on the prescription?" C. "Have you experienced a recent fever?" D. "Are you using any other inhaled prescriptions?"
A can be rebound congestion
Which is the best statement the nurse should use when discussing the primary reason constipation occurs with a client? A. "The waste material remains in the colon for too long." B. "The motility of the intestines are too slow." C. "Too much water has been reabsorbed in the large intestine." D. "The dietary intake is not high in fiber."
A causing too much water to reabsorb
Which assessment finding should the nurse be most concerned about for a client receiving pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)? A. Heart rate 82 and irregular B. Respiratory rate of 22 C. Complaints of a dry mouth D. Temperature of 100°F
A may cause dysrhythmias
Which information should the nurse provide a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease GERD who is reluctant to make suggested lifestyle changes? Select all that apply. (2) A. "The damage to your esophagus may result in esophagitis." B. "Long-term exposure to acid increases risk for esophageal cancer." C. "Without lifestyle changes, the prescriptions are ineffective." D. "The lifestyle changes will be easier if you adopt them one at a time and institute them gradually." E. "You will eventually have difficulty with swallowing if this condition is not treated."
A, B The nurse should not assume the client will perceive the lifestyle changes easier if they are instituted gradually. The nurse cannot assume what will occur if the treatment is not adhered to.
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client with asthma? Select all that apply. (2) A. Drink additional fluids. B. Eat small, frequent meals. C. Sleep in a warm room. D. Complete activity in the morning and rest in the afternoon. E. Avoid foods high in protein.
A, B cold room
nutrition ch.8 A nurse is performing dietary needs assessments for a group of clients. A blenderized liquid diet is appropriate for which of the following clients? (select all that apply) a. A client who has a wired jaw due to a motor vehicle crash b. A client who is 24 hr postoperative following temporomandibular joint repair c. A client who has difficulty chewing due to oral surgery d. A client who has hypercholesterolemia due to coronary artery disease e. A client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy the next morning
A, B, C
A client asks the nurse, "Is there anything that I can take for my seasonal allergies?" Which information should the nurse provide to the client? Select all that apply. A. "Some antihistamines can help prevent the onset of allergies." B. "Some patients find that intranasal corticosteroids help prevent their allergies." C. "Drugs that are mast cell stabilizers may help you avoid your seasonal allergies." D. "Oral decongestants can help you prevent allergies." E. "Nasal decongestants are very good at preventing allergic response."
A, B, C rest are not preventative
Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate for a client experiencing allergic rhinitis? Select all that apply. (4) A. Tearing eyes B. Itching throat C. Nasal congestion D. Sneezing E. Coughing
A, B, C, D
Which foods high in vitamin A should the nurse recommend to a client? Select all that apply. (4) A. Eggs B. Butter C. Whole milk D. Dark leafy vegetables E. Lean red meat
A, B, C, D
nutrition ch. 10 A charge nurse is providing information about fat emulsion added to total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a group of nurses. Which of the following statements by the charge nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply. (4) A. "Concentration of lipid emulsion can be up to 30%. " B. "Adding lipid emulsion gives the solution a milky appearance. " C. "Check for allergies to soybean oil. " D. "Lipid emulsion prevents essential fatty acid deficiency. " E. "Lipids provide calories by increasing the osmolality of the PN solution. "
A, B, C, D
A client asks the nurse what has caused her allergic rhinitis. Which statements should the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. (4) A. "Allergic rhinitis can occur after exposure to animal dander." B. "Tobacco smoke can cause allergic rhinitis." C. "Exposure to pollens from weeds and grass causes an allergic rhinitis." D. "Asthma is associated with allergic rhinitis." E. "There is a strong genetic predisposition for allergic rhinitis."
A, B, C, E
Which assessment questions should the nurse ask the parents of a young child diagnosed with asthma? Select all that apply. (4) A. "Has your child eaten any new foods?" B. "Does anyone smoke in the home?" C. "Have any chemicals been used in your home?" D. "Has your child recently traveled to any warm climates?" E. "Have you changed the laundry soap recently?"
A, B, C, E
Which should the nurse monitor for a young child prescribed a corticosteroid for asthma?Select all that apply. (3) A. Height B. Bone density C. IQ D. Weight E. EKG
A, B, D
The nurse has provided education for a client diagnosed with asthma. Which statements made by the client indicate that further teaching is required? Select all that apply. (3) A. "My albuterol inhaler should be taken routinely to prevent asthma attacks." B. "I should plan to take a corticosteroid for the rest of my life." C. "My cromolyn inhaler (Intal) will help prevent an asthma attack." D. "I'll use my montelukast (Singulair) inhaler every day." E. "My therapy will include both oral and inhaled drugs."
A, B, D corticosteroid are short term drugs
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply (4) A. Examine trends in weight loss B. Review prealbumin finding C. Administer an IV solution of 20% dextrose D. Add a micron filter to IV tubing E. Use an IV infusion pump
A, B, D, E
Which foods should the nurse associate with triggering an asthma? Select all that apply. (4) A. Cured meat B. Dairy products C. Grapefruit juice D. Nuts E. Shellfish
A, B, D, E
M40 A patient has been prescribed benzonatate (Tessalon). What medication education should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. (4) A. "This medication should help relieve your cough." B. "Do not chew this medication." C. "This medication may increase your blood pressure." D. "You may be nauseated when taking this medication." E. "Adverse effects are uncommon, but you may develop a headache."
A, B, D, E hypertension not a side effect
Which disorders are antihistamines used to treat? Select all that apply. A. Insomnia B. Vertigo C. Cystic fibrosis D. Parkinson's disease E. Nasal congestion
A, B, E
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a female client prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)? Select all that apply. (3) A. "A headache is a common adverse effect." B. "You can divide the daily dose throughout the day to decrease the adverse effects." C. "You may experience infertility only during the prescribed treatment." D. "You can crush your tablets and mix it in juice." E. "If you are outdoors be sure you use a strong sunscreen."
A, B, E
Which statements should the nurse include in the education for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? Select all that apply. (3) A. "Eliminate the use of alcohol." B. "Elevate the head of the bed." C. "Eliminate the use of caffeine." D. "Take measures to decrease the stress in your life." E. "Eat meals at least 3 hours prior to sleeping."
A, B, E
A nurse is instructing a client on how to administer cyclic enteral feedings at home. Which of the following information should the nurse include? Select all that apply. (2) a. Set the feeding up before you go to bed. b. Ensure your head is elevated to 15 degrees during administration c. Weigh yourself daily d. give a feeding every 6 hours e. Flush the tube with a carbonated beverage to dislodge clogs
A, C
Which assessment should the nurse conduct for the client receiving beclomethasone (Beconase) nasal spray? Select all that apply. (4) A. Assess the client's mouth for any sign of fungal infection. B. Assess the client's blood glucose prior to administration of nasal spray. C. Assess if the client has blown his nose prior to administration of nasal spray. D. Assess if the client has had a change in taste. E. Assess the client for any hoarseness or change in voice.
A, C, D, E
A nurse is explaining the process of respiration to a client. Which information should be given? Select all that apply. (4) A. "Moving air in and out of the lungs is called ventilation." B. The smooth muscle in the alveoli helps to pull air into the lungs. C. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs across a thin capillary membrane. D. Respiration is not effective without perfusion. E. Your basic respiratory drive is determined by your brain.
A, C, D, E Alveoli is not made up of smooth muscle.
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client that will be receiving intermittent enteral nutrition at home? Select all that apply. (4) A. "Clean the equipment between each feeding administration." B. "Once mixed, the enteral feeding should hang no more than 8 hours." C. "Refrigerate any feeding that is not needed for a feeding." D. "You may use plain tap water for scheduled tubing flushes." E. "Keep the area around the insertion site clean."
A, C, D, E Enteral feedings should hang no more than 4 hours.
A nurse is administering bolus enteral feedings to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions? Select all that apply. (3) a. flush the feeding tube with warm water b. instill the formula over 60 minutes c. administer the feeding at room temperature d. elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees e. verify the presence of bowel sounds
A, C, E
Which laboratory tests should the nurse evaluate for the client receiving topical vitamin A? Select all that apply. (3) A. Serum calcium level B. Hemoglobin level C. Blood urea nitrogen D. Serum potassium level E. Serum cholesterol
A, C, E may increase all
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client with peptic ulcer disease prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec)? Select all that apply. (2) A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) should not be crushed or chewed. B. Omeprazole (Prilosec) is best taken with yogurt. C. Omeprazole (Prilosec) is recommended for long-term treatment of peptic ulcer disease. D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) should be administered before meals. E. Omeprazole (Prilosec) should be administered after meals.
A, D
A client has been prescribed a leukotriene modifier. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to question this prescription? Select all that apply. (2) A. A client 72 years old. B. Type II diabetic. C. A client with chronic kidney disease. D. The client has chronic hepatitis C. E. The client has a history of a CVA 2 years ago.
A, D Patients who are older than age 65 have been found to experience an increased frequency of infections when taking leukotriene modifiers. Significant hepatic dysfunction is a contraindication to this medication as it is extensively metabolized by the liver.
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid? Select all that apply. (3) A. "You may feel a burning sensation when using this drug." B. "This prescription will be most effective if used only when symptoms are present." C. "Squeeze the container cautiously so you do not inadvertently administer too much of a dose." D. "This prescription may dry out your nasal passages enough to cause nosebleed." E. "Avoid eating licorice while taking this prescription."
A, D, E The prescription is provided in metered-spray device Licorice may potentiate the effects of corticosteroids
A client asks the nurse why they are prescribed a multivitamin. Which information should the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. (3) A. Small amounts of vitamins are needed for health. B. Vitamins will heal many illnesses. C. Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are not always stored in the body. D. Your body cannot synthesize most vitamins. E. Vitamins are needed for growth and maintenance of normal metabolic processes.
A, D, E Vitamins are organic compounds and many are stored in the body. Only vitamin D can be synthesized.
Which vitamins are lipid soluble? Select all that apply. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E
A, D, E and K
nutrition ch.13 A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to a group of new parents. Infants who react to which of the following foods typically outgrow the sensitivity? Select all that apply. (2) a. soy b. fish c. wheat d. eggs e. cow's milk
A, E
A client tells the nurse they would like to control their nausea with natural products such as herbal options instead of prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. (2) A. "Peppermint may be effective." B. "Melatonin may be helpful in controlling nausea." C. "Vitamin E oil is sometimes effective for nausea." D. "Chamomile tea is effective in controlling nausea." E. "Ginger can be effective for controlling nausea."
A, E chamomile is for relaxation
A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about medication compatibility with TPN. Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make? A. "Use the Y-port on the TPN IV tubing to administer antibiotics. " B. "Regular insulin may be added to the TPN solution. " C. "Administer heparin through a port on the TPN tubing. " D. "Administer vitamin K IV bolus via a Y-port on the TPN tubing. "
B
A client asks the nurse how probiotics can be beneficial in the treatment of their irritable bowel syndrome. Which response should the nurse provide? A. Probiotics decrease the intestinal water absorption B. Probiotics restore the normal intestinal bacteria C. Probiotics decrease the bowel frequency D. Probiotics attack infective bacteria in the intestine
B
A client asks the nurse when she should use an antitussive. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "When you are coughing up secretions" B. "When you have a dry cough and cannot rest." C. "When have been diagnosed with a respiratory infection." D. "When your temperature is 101.2°F."
B
A client prescribed beclomethasone (Beconase) intranasally asks the nurse whether the prescription is safe. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Intranasal glucocorticoids are safe if they are not used too long." B. "Intranasal glucocorticoids produce almost no serious adverse effects." C. "Intranasal glucocorticoids will provide immediate relief." D. "Intranasal glucocorticoids are safe only if used once a day."
B
A client with pancreatitis asks the nurse why they are receiving pancrelipase (Pancreaze). Which information should the nurse provide as the primary reason the client is receiving the prescription? A. "The prescription will promote digestion of starches and fats." B. "The prescription will replace the enzymes your pancreas cannot make." C. "The prescription will help digest all of the food you eat." D. "The prescription will help promote healing of your pancreas."
B
A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple sclerosis and requires liquids with honey-like thickness. Which of the following foods can the client consume without adding a thickening agent? a. Ice cream b. Yogurt c. Buttermilk d. Cream of chicken soup
B
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive a Level 2 dysphagia diet due to a recent stroke. Which of the following dietary selections is most appropriate? a. Turkey sandwich b. Poached eggs c. Peanut butter crackers d. Granola
B
A nurse is instructing a client who has celiac disease about foods to avoid. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Potatoes B. Graham crackers C. Wild rice D. Canned pears
B
A nurse is teaching a client who is starting continuous feedings about the various typed of eternal nutrition (EN) formulas. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? a. the high-calorie formula has increased water content b. standard formula contains whole protein c. formula rich in fiber is recommended when starting EN d. hydrolyzed formula is recommended for a full-functioning GI tract
B
For which class of prescription should the nurse monitor a client for a fungal infection of the throat? A. Mast cell inhibitors B. Inhaled corticosteroid C. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agonists D. Methylxanthines
B
The nurse notes a client is prescribed Orlistat (Alli). Which condition should the nurse recognize the prescription is treating? A. Malnutrition B. Obesity C. Malabsorption syndrome D. Over nutrition
B
Which are leukotriene modifiers primarily used for? A. Treat infection B. Prophylaxis of asthma symptoms C. Bronchodilation in asthma D. Status asthmaticus
B
Which condition is associated with a cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency? A. Pellagra. B. Pernicious anemia. C. Rickets. D. Scurvy.
B
Which condition is characterized by an erosion of the mucosal layer of the stomach or duodenum? A. Diverticulum B. Peptic ulcer C. Hiatal hernia D. Crohn's disease
B
Which information should the nurse include in the dietary discussion with a client that consumes a vegetarian diet? A. "You may be at risk for a vitamin C deficiency." B. "Seek out dietary sources which include vitamin B12." C. "You are not at risk for vitamin deficiencies." D. "Increase fluids and fiber to promote the absorption of vitamins."
B
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed scopolamine for motion sickness? A. Take an initial dose of the prescription 1 day prior to travel B. Take your prescription 20 to 60 minutes prior to travel C. Limit periods of movement after you take your prescription D. Take your prescription in the evening or at bedtime
B
Which information should the nurse include when discussing the appropriate dosing and administration needs for self-administering prescriptive therapy? A. "Clear your nasal passages by blowing prior to using your nasal spray." B. "Take your antihistamine as soon as you begin experiencing allergy symptoms." C. "Avoid drinking liquids with expectorants." D. "Drink water when you take cough syrup."
B
Which information should the nurse provide a client that asks the nurse how they got H. Pylori? A. "H. Pylori naturally lives in your gastrointestinal tract." B. "The bacteria has entered your body somehow." C. "Your immune system is weak." D. "The stomach pH is too low."
B
Which is the primary goal of treatment for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? A. Prevent infection B. Reduce gastric acid secretions C. Promote ulcer healing D. Decrease stomach pain
B
Which vitamin should the nurse encourage a female to take prior to becoming pregnant to help prevent neural tube defects? A. Riboflavin B. Folic acid C. Thiamine D. Niacin
B
A client tells the nurse they have been taking Imodium (loperamide) for diarrhea, but it has not helped. Which response should the provide the client? A. "How much Imodium are you taking daily?" B. "Are you taking it after every episode of diarrhea?" C. "Imodium is not very effective against diarrhea." D. "You may have to take the maximum dose for 2 or 3 days before diarrhea slows."
B Loperamide is taken as a 4 mg single dose, followed by 2 mg after each diarrhea episode up to 16 mg/day.
A client asks the nurse how misoprostol (Cytotec) will treat their peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "It inhibits bacterial growth." B. "It increases mucus production in your stomach." C. "It neutralizes stomach acid." D. "It dissolves into a gel and sticks to your ulcer."
B Misoprostol inhibits gastric secretion and stimulates the production of protective mucus
The nurse teaches a client about the difference between oral and nasal decongestants. The nurse evaluates that learning has been effective when the client makes which statement? A. "Intranasal decongestants are safe to use for a few weeks." B. "Oral decongestants can cause hypertension." C. "Oral and nasal decongestants can cause rebound congestion." D. "Oral decongestants are the most effective at relieving severe congestion."
B Oral decongestants do not cause rebound congestion
Which information should the nurse include in the client education for the administration of an intranasal decongestant? A. "Wait 15 minutes in between additional nasal sprays." B. "Spit out any excess intranasal decongestant that drains in the mouth." C. "Clear the nasal passage after administering the intranasal decongestant." D. "Limit the use of the nasal decongestant to 2 weeks."
B Swallowing additional drug may increase the risk of systemic adverse effects.
A client with Clostridium difficile tells the nurse they have begun taking an over the counter prescription to stop their diarrhea. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Follow the dosing on the packaging." B. "An antidiarrheal can worsen your infection." C. "If you continue to have diarrhea contact the clinic." D. "You may experience rebound constipation."
B Use of antidiarrheals for a client with Clostridium difficile will result in the retention of the harmful substance in the body. Antidiarrheal use is contraindicated in cases of diarrhea caused by PMC that is caused by Clostridium difficile . This infection can cause fatal toxic megacolon.
Which client assessment finding should the nurse associated with a duodenal ulcer? A. Nausea and lower right quadrant abdominal pain B. Burning pain several hours after eating a meal C. Nausea and vomiting D. Anorexia and weight loss
B a is associated w appendicitis
Which over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamine combination contains an analgesic property? A. Sudafed PE Sinus and Allergy B. Actifed Plus C. Triaminic Cold/Allergy D. Tavist Allergy 12-hour
B analgesic = relieve pain
Which describes the purpose for the use of an opioid antitussive? A. Break down mucus B. Relieve severe cough C. Decrease nasal congestion D. Relieve mild cough
B antitussive = cough
Which describes the body's need for vitamins? A. They are needed in large amounts to support metabolic processes. B. They are needed in small amounts to promote growth. C. They are needed in small amounts to detoxify chemicals. D. They are needed in large amounts to promote health.
B are organic
The nurse has provided education about peptic ulcer disease (PUD) for a client. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I will drink more milk and limit spicy foods." B. "I will limit my intake of caffeine products." C. "I will join a gym and increase my exercise." D. "I will take ibuprofen (Motrin) for my headaches."
B it is a risk factor
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client with an increased risk for the development a Clostridium difficile infection?Select all that apply. (2) A. Report any episode of diarrhea. B. Treat diarrhea with over-the-counter antidiarrheal drugs. C. Increase intake of active culture yogurt. D. Avoid fatty foods. E. Increase fluid intake.
B, C
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply (3) A. Steatorrhea B. Anemia C. Tarry stools D. Epigastric pain E. Swollen lymph nodes
B, C, D
Which clients are at risk for peptic ulcer disease? Select all that apply. (3) A. A client with decreased intrinsic factor B. A client with Type O blood C. A client that smokes D. A client experiencing excessive psychological stress E. A client with a low fiber diet
B, C, D
Which clinical conditions would the nurse most likely associate with a client who has a documented history of alcoholism? Select all that apply. (4) A. Carbohydrate deficiency B. Thiamine deficiency C. Scurvy D. Vitamin A deficiency E. Pellagra
B, C, D, E alcohol is a carb Scurvy = Vitamin C deficiency Pellagra = niacin deficiency
Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment plan for a client suspected to have developed peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Select all that apply. (4) A. Antibiotic treatment B. Testing for H. pylori C. Multiple prescriptions D. Pharmacotherapy for 4 weeks E. Lifestyle changes
B, C, D, E antibiotics only necesary if they have H pylori
A nurse is assisting a client who has a prescription for a mechanical soft diet with food selections. Which of the following are appropriate selections by the client? (select all that apply) a. Dried prunes b. Ground turkey c. Mashed carrots d. Fresh strawberries e. Cottage cheese
B, C, E
The nurse is reviewing the major functions of the upper respiratory tract with a client. Which information should the nurse include? Select all that apply. (3) A. Inward airflow from the trachea branches off to the two bronchi. B. The nose warms the air before it reaches the lungs. C. The nasal mucosa is the first line of immunological defense. D. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system constricts arterioles in the nose. E. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system constricts arterioles in the nose.
B, C, E The trachea and bronchi are part of the lower respiratory tract
For which clinical conditions should the nurse recognize self-directed antacid use is not recommended? Select all that apply. (2) A. Decreased calcium levels. B. Diminished renal function. C. Perimenopause. D. Sodium-restricted diets. E. Coronary artery disease.
B, D
The client treated for GERD says, "I seem to have been getting many more colds and coughs." Which statements should the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. (2) A. "Be sure to get your flu shot." B. "The medicine you are on for GERD changes your gastric pH." C. "You need to avoid crowds until your GERD is under control." D. "You may be more susceptible to respiratory infection while taking this medication." E. "You may be having an allergic reaction to your medicine."
B, D Getting immunized against influenza is important, but the client is not at higher risk for contracting the flu. There is no reason to avoid crowds.
A client asks the nurse what the difference is between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. Which information should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. (3) A. Ulcerative colitis can appear anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract. B. Crohn's disease will reoccur after surgery. C. Crohn's disease is more common in smokers. D. Client's with Crohn's disease are more likely to have arthritis. E. Inflammation of ulcerative colitis is limited to the lining of the digestive tract.
B, D, E
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative from a gastric bypass and who just finished eating a meal. Which of the following findings are manifestations of dumping syndrome? Select all that apply (3) A. Bradycardia B. Dizziness C. Dry skin D. Hypotension E. Diarrhea
B, D, E
For which condition is the use of a bulk-type laxative contraindicated in? Select all that apply. (3) A. Coronary heart disease B. Prescribed antibiotic C. Type 2 diabetes D. Fecal impaction E. Pregnancy
B, D, E
Which should the nurse include in the plan of care for the client experiencing frequent constipation? Select all that apply. (3) A. Increase dietary protein. B. Increase the fluid intake. C. Increase dairy products. D. Increase dietary fiber. E. Increase daily physical exercise.
B, D, E
nutrition ch.8 A nurse is teaching a client who is recovering from pancreatitis about following a low fat diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend? Select all that apply (3) A. Ribeye steak B. Oatmeal C. Ice cream D. Canned peaches E. Pretzels
B, D, E
A nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy who has a postoperative prescription that read "discontinue NPO status; advance diet as tolerated." Which of the following are appropriate for the nurse to offer the client initially (select all that apply) (2) a. Applesauce b. Chicken broth c. Sherbert d. Wheat toast e. Cranberry juice
B, E
Which of the following vitamins will likely require supplementation in a client who follows a vegan diet ? B12 C A K
B12
A client asks the nurse how much vitamin C should be taken to prevent a cold. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client? A. "Increase your dietary intake of Vitamin C as well as add an oral supplement." B. "Vitamin C must be taken prior to the onset of the cold to be most effective." C. "There is no proof that vitamin C prevents the common cold." D. "Vitamin C is effective if you take the recommended daily allowance."
C
A client asks the nurse why they must continue to take their asthma prescription when they have not had an asthma attack in several months. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "The prescription should be taken indefinitely to prevent future asthma attacks." B. "The prescription needs to be taken or your lungs can become increasingly damaged if you continue to have asthma attacks." C. "The prescription is still needed to decrease inflammation in your airways and help prevent an attack." D. "The prescription should be taken for at least a year and if you have not had an asthma attack within that year you will be able to stop taking your prescription."
C
A client prescribed an albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler asks the nurse why they can't just take a pill. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "Oral prescriptions produce too many side effects." B. "The prescription cannot be absorbed in the GI tract because the acid in the stomach will destroy it." C. "When you inhale the prescription the blood supply in the lungs absorb it rapidly resulting in quicker effects." D. "Oral prescriptions will not relieve your symptoms you must have an inhaled prescription for relief of symptoms."
C
A nurse is discussing the use of a low profile gastrostomy device with the guardian of a child who is receiving enteral feeding. Which of the following is an appropriate statement by the nurse? a. this access requires less maintenance than a traditional nasal tube b. checking residual is much easier with this device c. the device is usually comfortable for children d. mobility of the child is limited with this device
C
A nurse is preparing to administer lipid emulsion and notices a layer of fat floating in the IV solution bag. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Shake the bag to mix the fat B. Turn the bag upside down one time C. Return the bag to the pharmacy D. Administer the bag of solution
C
Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse be concerned about for the client that has been vomiting for several days? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
C
Which assessment finding should the nurse be concerned about for the client receiving Ranitidine (Zantac) for treatment of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? A. Headache B. Pain 24 hours after treatment C. Increased diarrhea D. Constipation
C
Which current prescription should the nurse be concerned about for a client newly prescribed orlistat (alli)? A. Aspirin B. Vitamin C C. Warfarin D. Ibuprofen
C
Which describes an important function of vitamin A? A. Facilitates bile excretion B. Antioxidant properties C. Promote visual pigment of the eye D. Promotes blood clotting
C
Which describes the mechanism of action of proton-pump inhibitors? A. Neutralize the acid in the stomach B. Block H2 receptors in the stomach C. Block the enzyme that secretes acid in the stomach D. Decrease the amount of Helicobacter pylori
C
Which describes the primary action of stool softeners? A. Break up fecal material in the colon B. Increase gastrointestinal peristalsis C. Increase water absorption in the stool D. Decrease gastrointestinal peristalsis
C
Which enteral formula should the nurse anticipate for a client that with a functioning GI tract experiencing undernourishment? A. Modular B. Semi-elemental C. Polymeric D. Elemental
C
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed dextromethorphan (Delsym)? A. Decrease your alcohol intake while taking this prescription. B. The prescription may have a slow onset of action. C. Avoid grapefruit juice. D. Dextromethorphan can be used with a chronic cough.
C
Which information should the nurse provide a parent of a newborn prescribed a vitamin K injection? A. "Vitamin K is administered if there is observed bleeding." B. "Newborns are unable to store vitamin K in their body." C. "Newborns do not have enough intestinal bacteria to synthesize vitamin K." D. "Vitamin K is only administered to infants that are bottle fed."
C
Which is a priority nursing assessment for the client for that is receiving a parenteral feeding? A. Weight loss B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Fluid overload D. Overnutrition
C
Which should the nurse be prepared to administer to a client who has overdosed on diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)? A. Large volume of normal saline B. Beta blocker C. Naloxone D. Activated charcoal
C
Which should the nurse monitor the client for after initiating pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy? A. Sedation B. Headache C. Nausea and vomiting D. Dry mouth
C
Which should the nurse recognize is a long-term control prescription used to treat asthma? A. Systemic corticosteroids B. Intermediate acting beta2-adrenergic agonists C. Mast cell stabilizers D. Anticholinergics
C
Which should the nurse recognize is the function of the duodenum? A. Secretes hydrochloric acid B. Reabsorbs water and vitamins C. Receives chyme from the stomach D. Performs most of the digestion and chemical absorption
C
Which should the nurse understand about the use of albuterol (VoSpire ER)? A. Most frequently prescribed for chronic asthma B. The effects can last up to 12 hours C. A short-acting beta agonist D. Used as needed for acute episodes
C
Which clinical condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed calcium carbonate (Tums)? A. Anemia B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) C. Kidney stones D. Diarrhea
C Calcium-based products can be used in the presence of anemia
Which is the most important question the nurse should ask a client with ulcerative colitis prior to administering sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)? A. "Are you currently experiencing any diarrhea?" B. "What other prescriptions have you take for ulcerative colitis?" C. "Do you have any medication allergies?" D. "Are you experiencing any pain?"
C Clients that have allergies to sulfonamides or furosemide should not take sulfasalazine
Which should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? A. Thyroid function B. Liver enzymes C. Blood glucose levels D. Potassium levels
C Hyperglycemia may occur, as total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain concentrated amounts of glucose.
A client asks the nurse how metoclopramide (Reglan) will help their peptic ulcer disease. Which mechanism of action should the nurse discuss with the client? A. Neutralizes the stomach acid B. Relaxes the muscles of the gastrointestinal tract C. Increased emptying time of the stomach D. Decreased the production of hydrochloric acid
C Metoclopramide causes muscles in the upper intestine to contract, resulting in faster emptying of the stomach, and blocks food from re-entering the esophagus from the stomach, which is of benefit in patients with GERD.
Which priority intervention should the nurse implement for a client that is experiencing magnesium toxicity? A. Assess the client's reflexes B. Administer an IV bolus of NS C. Administer IV calcium gluconate D. Monitor the client's breathing
C Serious respiratory and cardiac suppression may result from overdose. Calcium gluconate or gluceptate may be administered IV as an antidote.
Which should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for a bowl preparation prior to a colonoscopy? A. Methylcellulose (Citrucel) B. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) C. Sodium biphosphate (Fleet Phospho-Soda) D. Docusate sodium (Colace)
C Sodium phosphate is an osmotic saline laxative
Which condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed an antitussive with codeine? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Asthma D. Coronary artery disease
C bronchoconstriction may occur
Which information should the nurse include in the education of a client prescribed an antacid? A. Antacids can be safely administered with antibiotics. B. Antacids can be safely administered with H2-receptor medications. C. Administer antacids at least 2 hours before other oral medications. D. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking antacids.
C can affect absorption
Which condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed fluticasone (Flonase)? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pregnancy D. Glaucoma
C category C > effects unknown
The nurse has provided a client with asthma education about bronchodilators. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "The prescription widens the airways because it acts on the parasympathetic nervous system." B. "The prescription widens the airways because it decreases the production of mucus that narrows them." C. "The prescription widens the airways because it stimulates the fight-or-flight response of the nervous system." D. "The prescription widens the airways because it decreases the production of histamine that narrows them."
C in sympathetic response, the bronchiolar smooth muscle relaxes, and bronchodilation occurs
Where does the pyloric sphincter regulate the flow of food into? A. Esophagus B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Rectum
C out stomach to SI
How is the body mass index calculated to diagnose obesity? Select all that apply. (2) A. Age B. Gender C. Weight D. Height E. Skinfold thickness
C, D
A client with a peptic ulcer colonized with H. pylori asks how the prescription of bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) will help them. Which information should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. (2) A. "Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) increases stomach acid to help kill bacteria." B. "Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) helps prevent the side effects of antibiotics." C. "Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) is effective for inhibiting bacterial growth." D. "Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) keeps bacteria from sticking in your stomach." E. "Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) helps relieve ulcer-related constipation."
C, D Bismuth compounds (Pepto-Bismol) prevent H. pylori from adhering to the gastric mucosa
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed aluminum hydroxide (AlternaGEL)? Select all that apply. (2) A. You should expect this medication to take up to 2 days to start taking effect. B. Take this medication with a glass of milk. C. You may notice constipation as an effect of this drug. D. Take this medication at least 2 hours before or after any other medication you are taking. E. This medication will reduce the acid your stomach produces.
C, D antacids actsto neutralize acid, not to reduce its production.
A client tells the nurse, "My healthcare provider told me that I have COPD and might develop emphysema. I always thought I had chronic bronchitis." Which response should the nurse provide the client? Select all that apply. (3) A. "Are you certain you do not have asthma?" B. "Chronic bronchitis has no relation to COPD." C. "COPD is either asthma, chronic bronchitis, or emphysema, or a combination of those disorders." D. "As COPD progresses, it becomes emphysema." E. "Both diagnoses are correct."
C, D, E
A nurse is preparing to administer intermittent enteral feeding to a client. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions? Select all that apply. (3) a. elevate the head of the client's bed for 15 minutes after administration b. fill the feeding bag with 24 hours worth of formula c. place any unused formula in open cans in the refrigerator d. discard feeding equipment after 24 hours e. flush the feeding tube every 4 hours
C, D, E
Which information should the nurse include in the education for the client prescribed inhaled ipratropium (Atrovent)? Select all that apply. (3) A. Wait 15 minutes between inhaled dosages. B. The prescription may also be used for acute asthma attacks. C. Report any increased dyspnea. D. Report any changes in urinary pattern. E. Use the medication consistently, not occasionally.
C, D, E
Which long-term control prescriptions have an anti-inflammatory mechanism of action? Select all that apply. (3) A. Immunomodulators B. Methylxanthines C. Mast cell stabilizers D. Leukotriene modifiers E. Inhaled corticosteroids
C, D, E
A client asks the nurse how benzonatate (Tessalon) works to suppress her cough. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Raises the cough threshold in the CNS" B. "Reduces the viscosity of the mucus" C. "Anticholinergic effects decrease the cough reflex" D. "Anesthetizes the receptor sites of the lungs"
D
A client receiving ipratropium (Atrovent) tells the nurse they are going to stop taking their prescription because of the bitter taste left in their mouth after its use. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "A bitter taste may indicate you are experiencing a serious side effect." B. "You may be administering to high of a dose." C. "This is a common side effect that will go away over time." D. "You can decrease that side effect by rinsing your mouth after use."
D
A client taking diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for diarrhea asks the nurse why they do not experience pain relief from their arthritis. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "You would really have to take a lot to experience pain relief." B. "It does provide some relief from the pain associated with diarrhea." C. "Diphenoxylate with atropine is not an opioid." D. "Diphenoxylate with atropine does not have analgesic properties."
D
A client with COPD tells the nurse, "I don't see why I need to stop smoking because the damage to my lungs is already done." Which statement should the nurse provide the client? A. "If you stop smoking, your lungs have a good chance of improving quickly." B. "You should at least try because smoking is associated with other diseases." C. "If you stop smoking the disease process will not advance." D. "Your symptoms may be lessened if you aren't smoking."
D
A client with peptic ulcer disease and positive for H. pylori asks the nurse why the healthcare provider would like to treat them with a combination therapy. Which information should the nurse provide the client? A. The use of sucralfate (Carafate) along with antibiotics is the best combination therapy for peptic ulcer disease (PUD). B. Various antibiotics are used to eradicate the bacteria that are responsible for the development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). C. Combination therapy has the best outcomes when antibiotics are used with antacids. D. Combination therapy has the best outcomes when antibiotics are used with proton-pump inhibitors.
D
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking phenelzine. Consuming which of the following foods while taking this medication could cause a hypertensive crisis? a. grapefruit juice b. dark green vegetables c. greek yogurt d. smoked fish
D
A nurse is teaching a client who has constipation about a high fiber, low fat diet. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A. Peanut butter B. Peeled apples C. Hard boiled egg D. Brown rice
D
For which adverse effect should the nurse assess a client receiving a methylxanthine? A. "Have you experienced any weight loss?" B. "Have you experienced any urinary retention?" C. "Have you experienced any recent coughing?" D. "How have you been sleeping?"
D
M41 The nurse has provided a client with education about intrinsic factor. Which statement indicates an understanding of the information? A. "Intrinsic factor is necessary for absorption of vitamin B6." B. "Intrinsic factor aids in the secretion of mucus to protect the stomach." C. "Intrinsic factor is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach." D. "Intrinsic factor is necessary for absorption of vitamin B12."
D
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergies. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I need to watch my intake of sodium with this medication." B. "If this medication makes my nose run, I can use a nasal spray." C. "I cannot take this medication with pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)." D. "Drowsiness is common but should lessen over time."
D
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed psyllium mucilloid (Metamucil). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "This prescription takes several days to work." B. "My cholesterol level will be reduced somewhat with this prescription." C. "This prescription is a lot more natural than other laxatives." D. "I don't need to drink extra fluids while I take this prescription."
D
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed zafirlukast (Accolate). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "Zafirlukast will activate my fight-or-flight response." B. "I can use this prescription for acute asthma attacks." C. "This prescription will dilate my airways so I can breathe better." D. "This decreases the inflammation in my lungs."
D
The nurse is providing education for a client prescribed albuterol (ProAir HFA). Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Oral solutions can terminate an acute asthma attack. B. A nebulizer must be used to deliver the prescription. C. Albuterol can be used for prevention of an asthma attack. D. Administer the prescription 15 to 30 prior to activity.
D
Which best describes the pathogenesis of diarrhea? A. It occurs when the large intestine reabsorbs too little water. B. It is infrequent uncontrolled passage of stool. C. It is an increase in the amount of bowel movements. D. It is an increase in frequency and fluidity of bowel movements.
D
Which condition should the nurse identify as a complication for long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)? A. Intestinal irritation B. Hypertension C. Anemia D. Osteoporosis
D
Which electrolyte should the nurse assess for a client prescribed aluminum hydroxide (AlternaGEL)? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Phosphate
D
Which histamine receptor is blocked by the action of an antihistamine? A. B1 receptor site B. H2 receptor site C. B2 receptor site D. H1 receptor site
D
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching of a client with chronic bronchitis prescribed breathing treatments with acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? A. "This drug is used to decrease bronchospasms." B. "Do not use the prescription if you notice it has a foul odor." C. "Stop the treatment if you start to cough." D. "You may experience nausea while using this drug."
D
Which information should the nurse include when discussing inhalation therapy as part of a treatment plan for the client's asthma? A. Inhalation therapy is effective because it provides both systemic and local relief of symptoms. B. Inhalation therapy is the preferred treatment for adolescents because it is easier for them to manage. C. Inhalation therapy is effective because it provides around-the-clock therapy, as opposed to oral medications. D. Inhalation therapy is effective because it goes to the direct site of action in the respiratory tract.
D
Which substance assists with the efficient absorption of calcium? A. Phosphorus B. Coenzymes C. Intrinsic factor D. Vitamin D
D
Which is the priority nursing assessment for the client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate experiencing muscle weakness? A. Peripheral edema B. Oxygen saturation C. Peripheral edema D. Deep tendon reflexes
D A trace or absent deep tendon reflexes indicates the client is experiencing a magnesium toxicity.
Which client is most at risk to develop constipation? A. The young client in the hospital for an appendectomy B. The pediatric client who takes antibiotics for ear infections C. The middle-aged client who uses an enema during periods of travel D. The elderly client who routinely takes a stimulant laxative twice daily
D Exceeding the recommended dose or frequent laxative use increases the risk of adverse effects and decreases normal peristalsis over time, resulting in laxative dependence
Which current medication should the nurse be concerned about for a client newly prescribed ondansetron (Zofran)? A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Atenolol (Tenormin) C. Warfarin (coumadin) D. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D Haloperidol taken with ondansetron increases the client's risk of prolonged Q-T interval
Which symptom should the nurse instruct the client prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to report to the healthcare provider? A. Diarrhea B. Sedation C. Weight gain D. Urinary hesitancy
D anticholenergic effect
Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor for a client receiving albuterol (Proventil) reporting fatigue and palpitations? A. Hemoglobin B. Arterial blood gases C. Amylase D. Electrolytes
D can cause hypokalemia
Which describes the effect of saline cathartics? A. Promote peristalsis by irritating the gastric mucosa B. Absorb water and increase the size of the fecal mass C. Cause more water and fat to be absorbed into the stools D. Pull water into the fecal mass creating a waterier stool
D cathartics = accelerates defecation
Which should the nurse include in the plan of care when administering total parenteral nutrition? A. Withhold oral medications while the total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is hanging. B. Maintain a dedicated percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the solution. C. Check the feeding tube for residual prior to initiating feedings. D. Remove the solution from the refrigerator 30 minutes prior to hanging.
D cold infusion could cause irritation to the intravenous (IV) site.
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed a stool softener for constipation? A. "Continue to take this prescription until your stool is very loose and diarrhea-like." B. "This medication should work within 12 hours." C. "If you do not have a bowel movement by tomorrow, return to the clinic." D. "If your discomfort gets worse, return to the clinic."
D may be 2-3 days to work
Which describes a function of Vitamin C? A. Promotes the manufacturing of platelets. B. Regulates digestion. C. Maintains vision. D. Promotes development of bones and teeth.
D vision = A
A client asks the nurse why esomeprazole (Nexium) works better than cimetidine (Tagamet). Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "It is about the same but a lot cheaper than your cimetidine (Tagamet)." B. "It is not as effective as cimetidine (Tagamet) but kills bacteria better." C. "It is about the same but has fewer side effects than your cimetidine (Tagamet)." D. "It decreases acid in your stomach better than cimetidine (Tagamet)."
D Proton-pump inhibitors reduce acid secretion to a greater extent than H2-receptor antagonists, and have a longer duration of action
