pharmacology practice questions Chapters 19, 20, 21, 22,
14. What is the postantibiotic effect of gentamicin therapy? A) the tendency for clients to exhibit symptoms mimicking hypersensitivity after drug administration B) the tendency for adverse effects of a drug to be masked during administration C) the ability of microorganisms to proliferate between doses of antibiotics D) the ability of an antibiotic to kill bacteria even when serum concentrations are low
D
A client, being treated in the intensive care unit, has been diagnosed with ventilator-associated pneumonia. Culture and sensitivity testing of the client's sputum indicates that erythromycin is a treatment option. Which nursing assess is most appropriate to rule out contraindications for this medication therapy? A)Review lab results to confirm normal liver function. B)Question the client about any history of gastrointestinal upset. C)Review the medical for a history of nephrotoxic signs or symptoms. D)Confirm the ability to safely swallow oral medication.
A
A client, who sustained a burn from a gas grill, has been prescribed a sulfonamide to prevent a burn infection. What route is preferred in the prevention of a burn infection? A)intrathecal B)topical C)parenteral D)oral
B
A client prescribed metronidazole to treat Clostridium difficile is also prescribed which medication orally to assist in restructuring the flora of the intestinal tract? A)spectinomycin B)rifaximin C)vancomycin D)quinupristin-dalfopristin
C
Numerous residents of a long-term care facility have developed Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea over the past week. The nurses at this facility would anticipate that many residents would require which medication therapy? A)linezolid B)daptomycin C)metronidazole D)chloramphenicol
C
A college student has a tuberculosis (TB) test prior to starting the semester. The test site is noted to have a reddened, raised area. What phase in the progression of TB is associated with the inability to spread the disease to others? A)transmission B)primary infection C)latent tuberculosis D)active tuberculosis
c
A client, diagnosed with a community-acquired skin infection, has been prescribed linezolid. Which food should not be eaten during the period of this medication therapy? A)pasta B)garlic C)green leafy vegetables D)cheddar cheese
d
12. An adult male client with a diagnosis of osteomyelitis will soon begin treatment with gentamicin. Which schedule is most likely to maximize efficacy and minimize nephrotoxicity? A) gentamicin 500 mg IV OD at 12:00 B) gentamicin 250 mg PO BID at 07:30 and 19:30 C) gentamicin 500 mg PO TID at 08:00, 12:00, and 19:00 D) gentamicin 125 mg IV QID at 06:00, 12:00, 18:00, and 24:00
A
16. A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin after being diagnosed with a sinus infection. What medication should the client avoid taking concurrently with ciprofloxacin? A) antacids B) calcium channel blockers C) beta-adrenergic blockers D) diuretics
A
18. A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin IV for the treatment of cellulitis. After initiating the infusion of the client's first scheduled dose, the client develops a pronounced rash on the chest and arms. How should the nurse respond initially to this event? A) Discontinue the infusion and inform the care provider promptly. B) Slow down the rate so that the infusion takes place over 2 hours. C) Administer oral diphenhydramine to the client during the infusion. D) Administer an STAT dose of acetylcysteine.
A
8. A client is prescribed daptomycin to treat a gram-negative infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Which symptom should be reported immediately to the physician based on the known adverse effects of daptomycin? A)weakness of the legs and arms B)decreased wound drainage C)hematuria D)shortness of breath
A
8. A client is receiving gentamicin to treat meningitis. The health care provider has ordered a peak serum level be drawn in association with the 07:00 dose, which will finish infusing at 07:30. When should the peak serum level be drawn? A) 08:00 B) 09:00 C) 10:00
A
A client being treated for tuberculosis (TB) is determined to be drug resistant. Which medications no longer be effective in the treatment of the tuberculosis? A)isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RIF) B)carbamazepine and phenytoin C)dextroamphetamine and doxapram D)propranolol and sotalol
A
A client is administered telavancin to treat a skin infection. The nurse should monitor which blood level to best assess for adverse effects? A)creatinine B)aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) tests C)creatine phosphokinase (CPK) D)differential
A
A client is diagnosed with an infection attributable to the gram-negative microorganism Pseudomonas. Which anti-infective agent is most reliable in treating this microorganism? A)aminoglycoside B)antifungal C)aminopenicillin D)GABA analog
A
A client is given tetracycline to treat acne-related skin eruptions. How does tetracycline work? A)It binds to the 30S ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis. B)It reduces central nervous system stimulation. C)it is a beta-lactam antibiotic inhibiting cell wall synthesis. D)It works on the final stage of cell wall synthesis.
A
A client is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment for a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A)observing the client taking the medications B)administering the medications parenterally C)instructing the family on the medication regime D)counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily
A
A client is started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for a urinary infection. What would contraindicate the use of sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim with this client? A)liver failure B)rheumatoid arthritis C)bone marrow depression D)congestive heart failure
A
What assessment finding would signal the nurse to the possibility that the client's infusion of vancomycin is running too quickly? A)The client is flushed and has a visible skin rash. B)The client's apical heart rate is irregular. C)The client is reporting nausea. D)The client reports pain at the intravenous access site.
A
Which medication is the drug of choice for travelers diarrhea that is caused by an E. coli infection? A)rifaximin B)spectinomycin C)chloramphenicol D)erythromycin
A
Why is concomitant use of erythromycin and corticosteroids contraindicated? A)The client may be unable to adequately metabolize the corticosteroid. B)The effect of the corticosteroid may be greatly increased. C)The client may have an increased risk of thromboembolism. D)The corticosteroid may negate the efficacy of the erythromycin.
A
2. The nurse, providing education to a client prescribed erythromycin, recognizes a need for additional instruction when the client makes which suggestion? Select all that apply. A)taking the medication with or without food B)avoiding grapefruit juice while taking the medication C)recognizing dark urine is a normal side effect D)stomach cramping is considered an adverse effect E)swallowing the medication with milk
A,C,D
The nurse prepares to administer tetracycline 500 mg PO every 6 hours to an adult client newly diagnosed with Lyme's disease. The client takes an oral contraceptive for birth control. Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration? Select all that apply. A)Assess baseline renal and hepatic profiles, complete blood count, and human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). B)Administer the medication with milk or food to decrease gastrointestinal side effects. C)Instruct client about the importance of using another form of contraceptive during the antibiotic usage. D)Educate importance of wearing sunscreen and protective clothing when in the sun while taking the drug. E)Report severe nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, rash, or perineal itching to the prescriber.
A,C,D,E
The nurse prepares to administer ciprofloxacin 250 mg per enteral feeding tube every 12 hours to the adult client diagnosed with pneumonia and a history of renal impairment in the critical care unit. Which measures should the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration? Select all that apply. A)Stop the enteral tube feeding for 1 hour before administering the drug and resume feeding 2 hours after providing the drug. B)Wait 1 hour before administering some other meds the client takes: sucralfate, multivitamin, iron supplement. C)Examine the random peak and trough level, and report abnormal levels promptly to prevent further nephrotoxicity. D)Crush the immediate release tablet and mix with water before administering the medication via the enteral tube. E)Monitor serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and report any changes from baseline to the prescriber.
A,D,E
10. A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which nursing intervention will best prevent the possible development of crystalluria? A) The nurse should limit oral fluids to 500 mL/d. B) The nurse should administer 2000 mL of oral fluids per day. C) The nurse should insert a urinary catheter. D) The nurse should administer phenazopyridine.
B
13. Which client has the highest risk of developing ototoxicity secondary to gentamicin? A) a man who received his first dose of IV gentamicin 12 hours ago B) a man who has required repeated courses of gentamicin over the past several months C) a woman who has a Pseudomonas infection but who has a hypersensitivity to penicillins D) a woman who is immunocompromised and who is being treated with gentamicin
B
15. Extreme caution would be necessary with the use of gentamicin in which client? A) a client who is morbidly obese and who has primary hypertension B) a client who has chronic renal failure secondary to diabetes mellitus C) a client who has bipolar disorder and who is on long-term lithium therapy D) a client who has an atrioventricular block
B
3. The nurse is preparing to administer gentamicin when the client mentions having experienced diminished hearing. What action should the nurse take based on this statement? A) Administer the dosage and notify the health care provider of the alteration in hearing. B) Hold the dosage and notify the health care provider of the alteration in hearing. C) Administer the dosage and report the alteration in hearing to the audiologist. D) Hold the dosage and document the finding in the nurses' notes.
B
7. A client, diagnosed with a genitourinary infection, is being treated with a fluoroquinolone. What is the advantage of a fluoroquinolone over an aminoglycoside? A) The fluoroquinolone does not have adverse effects. B) The fluoroquinolone can be given orally. C) The fluoroquinolone has a nearly immediate peak. D) The fluoroquinolone has a broader spectrum.
B
7. Which miscellaneous antibacterial drug is administered topically in the treatment of acne? A)chloramphenicol B)clindamycin C)daptomycin D)tigecycline
B
A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) and begun multi-drug therapy. The client has asked the nurse why it is necessary to take several different drugs. How should the nurse respond to the client's question? A)"Multiple drugs are used because doctors aren't sure which drug will kill a particular TB strain." B)"The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB." C)"Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 months." D)"Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment."
B
A client is administered a sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to increase the alkalinity of the client's urine and so increasing the medication's effectiveness? A)Provide at least 2000 mL of water daily. B)Administer sodium bicarbonate. C)Recommend a tub bath every evening. D)Provide orange juice daily.
B
A client is seen in the clinic after a bite from a tick. She has a rash over her arms and legs and arthritic pain in the joints. What is the drug of choice for treating the infection associated with Lyme's disease? A.ibuprofen B.tetracycline C. phenazopyridine D. nitrofurantoin
B
A client, being treated for active tuberculosis (TB) with ethambutol, states difficulty in identifying the red and green on the traffic lights when driving. Based on this finding, what intervention should the nurse consider initially? A)Assess for photosensitivity. B)Discontinue ethambutol. C)Decrease the ethambutol dose. D)Administer vitamin B12.
B
A client, being treated for latent tuberculosis (TB) on an out-client basis, tells the nurse, "I've been feeling pretty good lately, so I haven't actually been all that consistent with taking my drugs." Subsequent health education by the nurse should focus on what subject? A)the fact that nonadherence to treatment exacerbates the risks of adverse effects B)the need to consistently take the prescribed drugs in order to cure TB C)the need to match drug dosages carefully to signs and symptoms D)the fact that nonadherence will necessitate the use of antiretrovirals
B
A client, diagnosed with tuberculosis, will soon begin first-line drug treatment. How will rifampin most likely be administered to this client? A)orally, with food B)orally, on an empty stomach C)intramuscularly Dintravenously, as bolus
B
A client, hospitalized with active tuberculosis, is receiving antitubercular drug therapy. When it becomes apparent that the client is not responding to the medications, what condition will the primary health care provider identify as a possible cause? A)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B)drug-resistant tuberculosis C)methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus D)vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B
19. The nurse prepares to administer gentamicin intravenous every 8 hours to an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse provide to decrease nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? Select all that apply. A) Draw the trough level 30 to 60 minutes after drug is administered, and report level above 10 to 12 mcg/mL. B) Obtain baseline assessment of cranial nerve eight and periodic measurements during therapy. C) Monitor estimated creatinine clearance and BUN at baseline and periodically during therapy. D) Obtain peak level before administering next dose of drug, and report level above 2 mcg/mL. E) Provide the client with 2 to 3 L of noncaffeinated oral fluids daily, unless contraindicated.
B,C,E
. A client has been prescribed chloramphenicol for vancomycin-resistant enterococci. How is this medication eliminated from the body? A)through the liver B)exhaled through the lungs C)excreted in the urine D)excreted in the bile
C
17. An older adult client has a feeding tube in place to manage dysphagia. After developing an infected pressure ulcer, ciprofloxacin suspension has been prescribed via feeding tube. How should the nurse follow-up this order? A) The nurse should flush the client's feeding tube with free water before and after administration of the ciprofloxacin suspension. B) The nurse should dilute the suspension thoroughly before administration. C) The nurse should liaise with the care provider to provide an alternative route of administration. D) The nurse should administer small, frequent doses of the drug to minimize GI upset.
C
5. A client scheduled for a bowel resection is to receive neomycin sulfate by mouth. The client asks the nurse the purpose of this medication. What is the most appropriate response the nurse can provide to the client? A) "The administration by mouth will prevent renal damage from occurring." B) "The administration by mouth will minimize the risk of ototoxicity." C) "The administration will decrease the growth of intestinal bacteria." D) "The administration decreases the risk of airborne contamination of the wound."
C
9. A client has been prescribed a once-daily aminoglycoside. What is the advantage of this method of administration? A) It is associated with less hepatotoxicity. B) It is significantly more cost-effective. C) It reduces the risk of nephrotoxicity. D) It increases adherence to treatment.
C
A client has been prescribed phenazopyridine for urinary tract symptoms related to the infection. The client asks why she is taking this medication. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse A)"This medicine is used to treat urinary retention." B)"This medicine will stop the blood in your urine." C)"This medicine will decrease the pain of your infection." D)"This medicine will prevent hesitancy when you're passing urine."
C
A client is prescribed isoniazid and rifampin for the treatment of active tuberculosis (TB). The client's medication education should stress that initial symptom improvement is likely to take how long? A)48 hours B)a week to 10 days C)2 to 3 weeks D)4 to 6 weeks
C
The nurse is educating a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection about the prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ). The client has a history of type 2 diabetes and currently takes a sulfonylurea. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? A)"I will monitor my blood sugar carefully since the drug may lower it." B)"I will take the drug with 8 ounces of water before or after meals." C)"The drug will not affect the herbal supplement, ginseng that I take." D)"If a rash develops, the drug will be discontinued and my prescriber notified."
C
What is the rationale for not administering tetracycline to children under the age of 8 years? A)It will not treat the infection effectively. B)It will increase the risk of heart failure. C)It will interfere with enamel development. D)It will increase the risk for future infections.
C
A client is being treated for a urinary tract infection with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. What assessment should the nurse make prior to the administration of the medication? A)assessing for the presence of asthma B)assessing for hypertension C)assessing for diabetes mellitus D)assessing for renal insufficiency
D
A client is prescribed rifampin. What information should the nurse include in the client's medication education? A)When taking it with warfarin, an increased anticoagulant effect occurs. B)It decreases hepatic enzymes and decreases metabolism of drugs. C)It has an increased serum half-life, so it is more effective than rifabutin. D)The urine, tears, sweat, and other body fluids will be a discolored red-orange.
D
A client with a diagnosis of active TB has begun second-line therapy that includes the use of pyrazinamide. When monitoring this client, the nurse should suspect that adverse effects of this drug may account for which laboratory values? A)low hematocrit and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) B)increased INR and aPTT C)increased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine D)increased AST, ALT, and GGT
D
A client, diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease, has been prescribed clarithromycin. Which organism is this medication used to treat? A)Streptococcus pneumoniae B)Haemophilus influenzae C)Mycobacterium avium complex D)Helicobacter pylori
D
A client, prescribed clindamycin, is now reporting frequent diarrhea. How should the nurse best respond to this client's statement? A)Reemphasize the importance of taking clindamycin with food. B)Encourage the client to temporarily use an over-the-counter antidiarrheal. C)Encourage the client to increase his or her fluid intake until the course of treatment is complete. D)Liaise with the client's care provider to have the drug discontinued.
D
A client, prescribed isoniazid (INH) for a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB), has a yellow color in the sclera of the eye. What other finding would lead the nurse to suspect that hepatotoxicity has developed? A)diarrhea B)numbness C)diminished vision D)light-colored stools
D
The nurse is educating a client newly diagnosed with a urinary tract infection about the prescribed phenazopyridine hydrochloride. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? A)"The drug is an azo dye that acts directly on urinary tract mucosa to provide pain relief." B)"If I develop a sore throat, bleeding, or bruising, I will report the symptoms to my prescriber." C)"I will need to take the drug with food to decrease stomach upset." D)"I should report reddish-orange urine immediately to the prescriber."
D
The nurse prepares to administer nitrofurantoin 100 mg PO every 12 hours to an adult client newly diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which measures would the nurse provide for safe and effective drug administration? Select all that apply. A)Instruct the client that the drug is a urinary analgesic to provide pain relief of urinary tract infection symptoms. B)Inform the client that the medication may cause the urine to turn a harmless brown coloration. C)Administer the drug with a meal or snack because food helps with drug absorption and decreases onset of GI distress. D)Administering with antacids with magnesium increase the drug absorption of the nitrofurantoin. E)Educate the client that the drug is safe with pregnancy and has no adverse effects on fetal development.
b,c
2. A client is diagnosed with a gram-negative infection and is prescribed an aminoglycoside. What is the action of an aminoglycoside? A) It blocks protein synthesis of the cell wall. B) It blocks the process of DNA replication. C) It destroys the integrity of the cell wall structure. D) It increases white blood cell viability.
A
A client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has been infected with Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) from an indoor pool. Which medication is the recommended treatment for this infection? Select all that apply. A)clarithromycin B)isoniazid (INH) C)rifabutin D)azithromycin E)rifampin
A,C,D
A client, seen in the clinic for symptoms of persistent cough, fever, and night sweats, has recently entered the United States from the India. What is the most plausible explanation for the client's condition? A)latent tuberculosis B)bacterial pneumonia C)active tuberculosis D)emphysema
c
A client has been prescribed doxycycline. Which teaching instruction is a priority with this medication? A)Avoid sun exposure. B)Avoid unprotected sexual activity. C)Administer with an antacid. D)Chew the tablets.
A
Which medication is the drug of choice for Legionnaires disease? A)erythromycin B)loxapine hydrochloride C)meclizine D)pravastatin
A
A client is prescribed isoniazid (INH) for a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which adverse effect will result in discontinuation of the medication? A)weight gain B)jaundice C)fever D)arthralgia
B
A client receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his or her great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed? A)hematocrit and hemoglobin B)ALT and AST C)urine culture and sensitivity D)complete blood count (CBC) with differential
B
A nurse preparing to administer a client's first scheduled dose of tetracycline should first ensure that the client has not recently eaten what type of foods? A)dairy products B)leafy green vegetables C)any high-fat foods D)acidic foods
A
An older adult client is assessed in the clinic for signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis related to pneumococci. Which sulfonamide that will most likely be prescribed? A)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole B)tetracycline C)doxycycline D)demeclocycline
A
A client with a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease. The nurse should anticipate including what information when educating the client regarding the prescribed therapy? Select all that apply. A)There is a once-daily dose of clarithromycin. B)600 mg dose of azithromycin will be prescribed. C)Any previous prescription of ethambutol will be discontinued. D)The therapy may include a prescription for rifabutin. E)Clarithromycin is prescribed because it's associated with lower relapse rates.
A,B,D
11. Why is important to monitor the results of a serum gentamicin level? A) to identify possible changes in the client's serum osmolality B) to identify whether the drug is at a therapeutic level C) to identify whether the drug is causing hepatotoxicity D) to identify possible hemolysis following administration
B
A 22-year-old college student allergic to penicillin is being treated with oral erythromycin for a chlamydial infection. What assessment should the nurse prioritize during this clients course of treatment to monitor for adverse reactions? A)assessment of the client's apical heart rate B)assessment of the client's hearing C)assessment of the client's peripheral pulses D)assessment of the client's renal function
B
A client who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this client's most likely diagnosis? A)active tuberculosis B)latent tuberculosis C)Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) D)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B
A homeless individual was screened for tuberculosis (TB), and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse would anticipate inclusion of what intervention into the client's plan of care? A)undergoing conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications B)being treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs C)close monitoring to determine if treatment is necessary D)rescreening in 10 to 12 weeks to determine whether the TB has become active
B
A public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what STI? A)vaginitis B)Chlamydia C)human papillomavirus D)trichomoniasis
B
A client is allergic to penicillin and has been diagnosed with a genitourinary infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which medication will most likely be prescribed? A)acamprosate calcium B)atazanavir C)erythromycin D)flumazenil
C
A young adult client's acne has responded well to treatment with tetracycline. However, the client has now returned to the clinical 6 weeks later with signs and symptoms of oral candidiasis. The nurse should recognize that this client's current health problem is likely attributable to which occurrence? A)a delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction B)the fact that the client may have chewed the capsules prior to swallowing them C)superinfection following the eradication of normal oral flora D)a type I hypersensitivity reaction
C
How does rifampin achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms? A)It is metabolized in the liver. B)It binds to acetylcholine. C)It inhibits synthesis of RNA. D)It causes phagocytosis.
C
4. A client is diagnosed with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. Which aminoglycoside medication is used in a 4- to 6-drug regimen? A) tetracycline hydrochloride B) amoxicillin C) sulfadiazine D) streptomycin
D
6. A client has started aminoglycoside therapy. It is time for a client's next dose of an aminoglycoside. What action should the nurse take when learning the client's creatinine level is 3.9 mg/dL? A) Administer the medication and report the creatinine level. B) Hold the dose until another creatinine level is assessed. C) Administer the medication with 100 mL of fluids. D) Hold the medication and assess the urine output.
D
A 64-year-old client seeking care for the treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI) was prescribed nitrofurantoin. What change in the client's health status would prompt the use of an alternative medication? A)The client develops a fluid volume deficit. B)Urinalysis reveals the presence of ketones. C)The client develops leukocytosis. D)The client's UTI progresses to urosepsis.
D
A 9-year-old has been admitted to the pediatric unit after being diagnosed with pertussis. The pediatric nurse is processing the admission orders and notes that IV demeclocycline has been ordered. After beginning this treatment, the nurse should confirm the results of what laboratory test? A)mean corpuscular volume (MCV) B)D-dimer C)bilirubin D)blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D
A client has developed Clostridium difficile associated with pseudomembranous colitis. Which medication is effective in the treatment of Clostridium difficile? A)linezolid B)cladribine C)clarithromycin D)metronidazole
D
A nurse is caring for an adult client diagnosed with bacterial sinusitis. The nurse has cautioned the client against taking prescribed oral erythromycin together with antacids. What is the basis of this instruction? A)Antacids delays metabolism of the drug. B)Antacids can exacerbate nausea and reflux. C)Antacids cause a dangerous rise in gastric pH. D)Antacids decrease the absorption of the drug.
D
A nurse is preparing a client's scheduled dose of oral vancomycin. This client's current illness was most likely manifested by what sign or symptom? A)vomiting B)inflamed, swollen skin C)shortness of breath D)diarrhea
D
A teenager asks the nurse how tetracycline will improve the acne. Which statement should the nurse provide to the client regarding the action of tetracycline? A)"Tetracycline decreases redness and swelling of the pustules." B)"Tetracycline treats the Chlamydia organism that causes acne." C)"Tetracycline is used in combination with doxycycline to treat acne." D)"Tetracycline interferes with the production of free fatty acids."
D
