physiology final

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73. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the effects of increased production of Angiotensin II in the ultimate increase of MAP? a. A decreased secretion of ADH b. An increased secretion of Aldosterone c. Increased vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles d. Increased thirst stimulation by hypothalamic neurons e. Increased Na reabsorption in late distal tubules and collecting ducts

actions of estrogen during pregnancy (and Luteal phase)

1. promote growth of duct tissue and deposition of fat in breasts 2. suppress lactation 3. increases prolactin secretion 4. increase growth and contractile activity of uterine smooth msucle 5. increase oxytocin receptors in uterus 6. promote fluid retention

actions of estrogen on the follicular phase

1. promotes endometrail growth 2. promote oogenesis and follicle development 3. increase LH receptors on granulosa cells 4. progesterone receptors in uterus 5. LH secretion (late follicular phase only)

actions of progesterone (luteal phase and pregnancy)

1. promotes secretory phase uterine conditions 2. suppresses uterine contractile activity 3. promotes growth of glandular tissue in breasts 3. suppresses milk production

label the functions of granulosa cells

1. secrete antral fluid 2. provide nutreients for developing oocyte 3. secrete paracrines that support follicle development 4. secrete inhibin 5. secrete estrogens 6. secrete substance that forms zona pellucida

List the functions of sertoli cells in males

1. secrete fluid into lumen of seminiferous tubules to support sperm development 2. secrete paracrines that stimulate spermatogenesis 3 secrete inhibin 4. secrete mullerian inhibiting substance in fetal life

list the effects of androgens (sex hormones)

1. stimulate spermatogeneisis 2. promote development of secondary sex characteristics and maintains them 3. increase sex drive 4. promote protein synthesis in skeletal muscle 5. promote development of male reproductive structures during embryonic life

how do you turn off the gastric regulation phase?

1. the chyme moves into the duodenum and causes distension 2. sympathetic response. 3. acidic stomach inhibits gastrin

what is the volume excreted per day?

100ml of fluid

how long should it be before you call the zygote a fetus?

8 weeks

76. Which of the following is TRUE of the innate nervous system? A. It includes all white blood cells except leukocytes. B. It defends body against pathogens from outside the body and once they are inside the body. C. Thedermisisthemostimportantandfirstlineofinnatedefense. D. It acts faster on a pathogen the second time the body encounters it. E. All of the above

78. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the phospholipid bilayer? a. The hydrophilic heads face the cytosol inside the cell as well as the extracellular fluid. b. The phospholipids and other molecules in the bilayer are linked together by chemical bonds. c. The phospholipid bilayer prevents movement of large polar molecules d. Cholesteral molecules found within the lipid bilayer prevent crystallization of the bilayer by interfering with hydrophobic interarions between the phospholipid tails. e. All of the above are characteristics of the phospholipid bilayer

96. Which of the following is a reason why proteins can not cross the blood-brain barrier? a. There are no pores in between endothelial cells b. There are astrocytes on the capillaries helping maintain the tight junctions between the endothelial cells using unknown mechanisms c. Transcytosis can not occur in brain capillaries. d. Hydrophillic molecules must be transported across the endothelial cell's membrane via transport systems e. All of the above are reasons why proteins can not cross the blood-brain barrier

59. Which of the following is not true of Schwann cells? a. They form the myelin around axons in the peripheral nervous system b. One cell provides myelin segments for many axons. c. They are a class of Glial cells. d. With their aid, neurons travel more quickly down the axon. e. All of these are true.

68. Which of the following statements about factors affecting resistance to flow is true? a. Vasoconstriction decreases the diameter, increases resistance, and increases blood flow. b. Increasing blood viscosity, increases resistance, and decreases blood flow. c. Long blood vessels decrease resistance, and decrease blood flow. d. Vasodilation increases the diameter, increases resistance, and increases blood flow. e. Short blood vessels increase resistance, and increase blood flow.

72. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the bronchioles? a. Parasympathetic stimulation causes contraction of the bronchioles and bronchoconstriction. b. Epinephrine causes bronchoconstriction. c. Histamine causes bronchoconstriction. d. Bronchioles dilate when carbon dioxide levels are high. e. Both intrinsic and extrinsic controls effect the contraction and relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle.

80. All matter is composed of which of the following? a. molecules b. atoms c. elements d. protons e. water

84. A solution is divided in the middle by a membrane which is permeable to solutes of side A, but impermeable to solutes of side B. If side A is hypotonic to side B, which of the following is true? a.) The solute will flow from side A to side B b.) Water will flow from side A to side B by osmosis c.) The solute will flow from side B to side A d.) Water will flow from side B to side A by osmosis e.) All of these are false

87. Which of the following is true of a lipophilic ligand? a. The ligand is water soluble b. A receptor is required within the cell c. The ligand's general action of target response is membrane permeability changes d. A lipophilic ligand could be an amino acid, amine, or a protein e. This ligand could be stored

9. Catalina is complaining of fatigue, muscle weakness, and poor night vision while driving. How could ACh cause these symptoms and what mode of action would help reduce them? a. High levels of ACh release from the postganglionic neuron in the sympathetic nervous system. An ACh antagonist would reduce symptoms by binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors on effector organs. b. Decreased levels of AChE causes ACh levels to remain high in the synaptic cleft causing continual parasympathetic stimulation to act on cardiac muscle lowering heart rate and act on circular muscle in the eye causing pupillary constriction. An Ach antagonist will prevent ACh binding on muscarinic receptors, decreasing symptoms. c. Low amounts of ACh would cause continuous skeletal muscle contraction. A drug that increased adrenergic receptor sensitivity could increase Ach binding on effector organs. d. High ACh levels are causing continuous skeletal muscle contraction, resulting in muscle fatigue and relaxation of circular muscle in the eye thus increasing the pupillary constriction. An inhibitory drug that blocks ACh nicotinic receptors on the effector organs. e. Decreased levels of AChE causes Ach levels to decrease in the synaptic cleft causing continual parasympathetic stimulation to act on cardiac muscle lowering heart rate and act on circular muscle in the eye causing decreased constriction. An ACh agonist will keep Ach from binding to muscarinic receptors, decreasing symptoms.

102. What type of receptors are located on Chromaffin cells, and what part of the action potential corresponds with them? a. nicotinic; hyperpolarize b. adrenergic; depolarize c. nicotinic; depolarize d. nicotinic; repolarize e. adrenergic; hyperpolarize

103. Which of the following receptor types does not activate G proteins? a. β3 adrenergic b. β1 adrenergic c. Nicotinic cholinergic d. Muscarinic cholinergic e. α1 adrenergic

104. Which of the following is NOT true regarding neuromuscular junctions? a. There is always an excitatory action potential in skeletal muscle. b. In a neuromuscular junction there is a synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber. c. There is always an inhibitory action potential in skeletal muscles. d. All the above options are true regarding neuromuscular junctions. e. None of the above options are true regarding neuromuscular junctions

112. Which type of blood vessel possesses no smooth muscle? A. Artery B. V enule C. Capillary D. Arteriole E. None of the above

113. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the extrinsic controls of arteriole radius? a. The sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction and an increase in MAP . b. Epinephrine can cause vasoconstriction or vasodilation depending on the type of receptor. c. V asopressin causes vasodilation and a decrease in MAP . d. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and an increase in MAP. e. All of the above are true.

116. Which of the following granulocyte functions in secreting enzymes that kill parasites and contributes to tissue damage in allergic reactions? a. Basophil. b. Lymphocyte. c. Eosinophil. d. Monocyte.

117. What protein is vital to the formation of a blood clot? a. Plasmin b. Prostacyclin c. Fibrin d. Spectrin

118. Which class of leukocytes is the LEAST abundant? A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Basophils D. Monocytes E. Eosinophils

124. What factor decreases levels of insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells? a. Increased levels of amino acids in the plasma. b. Increased levels of glucose in the plasma. c. Increased sympathetic activity. d. Increased parasympathetic activity. e. None of the above.

125. Which of the following correctly describe insulin? a. Insulin is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas. b. Insulin decreases plasma glucose. c. Insulin is secreted by beta cells in the pancreas. d. Insulin decreases plasma amino acids. e. All of the above.

13. Which of the following is NOT true of epinephrine? a. Epinephrine causes bronchodilation during sympathetic stimulation in the respiratory system. b. Epinephrine is important in extrinsic control of arteriolar diameter. c. Epinephrine causes vasodilation when it binds to alpha-one adrenergic receptors in arteriolar smooth muscle. d. Chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla release epinephrine into the bloodstream. e. Epinephrine is classified as a catecholamine and acts as a hormone.

131. Which statement about increasing Angiotensin II is incorrect? aIt causes increase thirst stimulation via hypothalamic neurons. bThe adrenal cortex would increase aldosterone secretion. cSystemic arterioles would increase vasodilation. dThe posterior pituitary would increae ADH secretion. eIncrease sodium reabsorption in late distal tubules and collecting ducts.

135. Which of the following is NOT a Peripheral lymphoid tissue of the Immune System? a. Adenoids b. Tonsils c. Bone marrow d. Spleen

139. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding epinephrine? a. Epinephrine is released from the Adrenal Cortex and relates to the flight-or- fight response b. Of the adrenergic receptor types, Epinephrine has the highest affinity for The b2 receptor. c. Epinephrine decreases sympathetic activity on and therefore decreases heart rate. d. Epinephrine increases sympathetic activity on and therefore increases heart rate.

14. In skeletal muscles, what binds to troponin to initiate cross bridge cycling? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Acetylcholine e. Nothing, it is activated by nerve impulses

144. Cushing's disease results in an increase in _______ secretion, which causes an increase in blood _______ levels. a. TH, glucose b. LH, glucose c. Cortisol, glucose d. Cortisol, insulin e. TH, insulin

147. Which of the following is NOT true to the role of enzymes in chemical reactions? a. Enzymes can generally only catalyze one particular reaction due to substrate specificity. b. For a reaction to be catalyzed, an enzyme molecule must first bind to a substrate. c. Enzymes do not show specificity for substrates; they can bind to any substrate available. d. Many enzymes possess cofactors necessary for the enzyme to function properly. e. A basis for substrate specificity relates to the shapes of the enzymes and substrate molecules.

15. Which of the following glial cells are found in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? A. Astrocytes B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwanncells D. Ependymal cells E. All of the above

150. In an active presynaptic neuron, the membrane is depolarized by the arrival of a what? a. Enzyme potential b. Na2+ potential c. Action potential d. G protein potential e. Wasted potential

154. Which of the following is true about dilation? a. A decrease in body temperature would cause vasodilation to increase blood to the peripheral tissues and warm the body. b. V asodilation would cause an increase in MAP . c. During sympathetic stimulation, the radial muscle is responsible for papillary dilation in that it contracts to allow more light to enter the eye. d. The Parasympathetic NS is responsible for bronchodilation which decreases resistance and increases flow. e. None of the above.

155. Which of the following correctly describe insulin? a. Insulin is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas. b. Insulin decreases plasma glucose. c. Insulin is secreted by beta cells in the pancreas. d. Insulin decreases plasma amino acids. e. All of the above.

28. Bob has a disease causing a hyposecretion of aldosterone. Which of the following would be a result? a. Bob would have an increase of potassium reabsorption and a decrease of sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the renal medulla b. Bob would have a hypersecretion of aldosterone from the posterior pituitary due to the negative feedback loop c. Bob would have an increased MAP causing an decrease in blood pressure d. Bob would have a down regulation of membrane bound aldosterone receptors e. Bob would have increased levels of potassium in the blood due to a decrease in aldosterone levels

18. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the rate of simple diffusion? aThe size and shape of diffusing molecules bthe lipid solubility of the diffusing substance cThe membrane surface area dThe diffusion of water through aquaporins eThe magnitude of the driving force

188. In accommodation when the parasympathetic system is stimulated it causes the... a. pupillary muscles to contract b. ciliary muscles to relax c. zonular fibers to become tightened d. ciliary muscles to contract e. pupillary muscles to relax

19. ATP plays what role in crossbridging cyclying aCocks the myosin head bBinds myosin to actin cReleases the inorganic phosphate Unbinds dmyosin from actin eMore than one are correct

28. Which of the following is NOT controlled by the Medulla Oblongata in the brainstem? a. The Vagus nerve (parasympathetic) to the SA node and AV node. b. Defecation of waste. c. The Dorsal Respiratory Group, which control the respiratory rhythm. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

36. of the following lukocytes, which of the following is not paired correctly? aNeutrophil; Largest leukocyte bEosinophils; attack parasitic invaders cLymphocyte; second largest leukocyte dBasophil; Phagocytes eMacrophage; most abundant in connective tissue

37. Which of the following is FALSE about white matter? A. It is only found in the CNS. B. Itcontainsmyelinatedaxons. C. ItcontainsGlialcells. D. It is found in the cerebral cortex E. It is found on the outside of the spinal cord.

38. Which of the following removes calcium from the cytoplasm in smooth muscle? a. Ca-A TPase b. Phosphorylated myosin light chain c. Ca-Na counter transport d. Two of the answers are correct e. All of the above

4. Mary Jane was at a party and has been smoking marijuana. As the night goes on, she gets the "munchies" and goes to McDonald's for some fries. Mary eats 4 orders of large salted fries; as a result her extracellular concentration of sodium is higher than normal. What would happen in Mary's body as a result of this? a. Mary's heart rate would decrease because of a slower repolarization during a cardiac action potential. b. Mary will have a stronger force of contraction in her skeletal muscle because of a faster rate of cross-bridge cycling due to a faster rate of action potentials being generated at the motor end plate. c. Her adrenal cortex will be signaled to secrete more aldosterone. d. Acetylcholine will be released at a faster rate from the pre-ganglionic neuron because there is a stronger electrochemical gradient for sodium which is moving sodium into the neuron at a faster rate, therefore increasing the speed of depolarization along the axon and the axon terminal. e. This would cause an increase in the reabsorption of water from the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

4. Which of the following Starling Forces favor filtration? a. Glomerular Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure b. Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure c. Bowman's capsule osmotic pressure d. Both a and b e. All of the above

42. Which of the following is not true regarding the actions of glucagons on the liver? a. An increase in gluconeogenesis. b. A decrease in protein synthesis. c. An increase in glycogenolysis. d. A decrease in triglyceride synthesis. e. An increase in ketone synthesis.

43. Which of the following is NOT true about graded potentials? a. Graded potentials are spread by electronic conduction b. Graded potentials can be either temporal summation or spatial summation c. Some types of graded potentials are pacemaker potential, postsynaptic potential, end-plate potential, slow wave potential, or receptor potential d. During a graded potential, it is capable of being propagated long distances along the length of an axon without any decrease in strength e. Graded potentials are decremental

48. Which of the following is NOT true regarding neurotransmitter GABA? a. It is an inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS. b. It belongs to the most abundant class of neurotransmitters- amino acids. c. At low doses, valium, alcohol, and sleep aids enhance GABA activity, depressing the CNS. d. It is an excitatory neurotransmitter of the CNS. e. Both A and C.

49. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT: A. Contraction of ciliary muscles and relaxation of zonular fibers allowing for near vision. B. Contractionofdetrussormusclecausingtheinternalurethralspinctertoopen and micturition to occur. C. ThebindingofAchtomuscariniccholinergicrecptorsintheSAandAV nodes causing supression of T type Ca channels and augmentation of K channels leading to hyperpolarization and a decreased heart rate. D. Contraction of radial eye muscles causing pupillary dialation. E. Bronchoconstriction

206. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the human urinary system? a. Consists of 2 kidneys. b. Consists of glomerulus that are refererd to as tuft of capillaries c. Consists of two kidneys, two ureters, the urinary bladder and the urethra d. Sometimes, crystals in the kidneys may form into stones e. The system helps in activating vitamin D3 into calcitriol

215. What is the latent period? a. The delay in a muscle cell between the time of the action potential and the start of the contraction. b. The amount of time it takes for the action potential to propagate down the axon. c. The time in between the stimulus and when the action potential travels down the t-tubule. d. All of the above. e. A and C only.

220. Which of the following is the pressure exerted by the fluid in the upper portion of the proximal convoluted tubule? a. Glomerular Osmotic Pressure b. Glomerular Capillary Osmotic Pressure c. Glomerular Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure d. Bowman's Capsule Osmotic Pressure e. Bowman's Capsule Hydrostatic Pressure

27. Which of the following are components of the conducting zone? A. the larynx B. respiratorybronchioles C. alveolarsacs D. bronchioles E. B and D are both correct

what cause the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle

low levels of estrogen and progesterone bc of the degeneraton of the corupus luteum

what happens prior to ovulate

1 primary oocyte will be chosen and it will under go meiosis 1 and turn into a second oocyte which will leave the ovary and enter the uterian tube.

label the reproductive tract

seminiferous tubules > rete testis > efferent ductules > epididymis > vas deferens > ejaculatory duct > urethra

what do seminal vesicles secrete?

1. alkaline solution that neutralizes the acid in the female reproductive tract. 2. fructose that adds energy for motility for the sperm 3. enzymes that facilitate semen clotting after ejaculation 4. prostaglandins that help with sperm motility and viability

What are the 4 things that LH does?

1. causes Granulosa cells to secrete paracrins to stimulate completion of meiosis 1 2. causes granulosa cells to secrete progesterone 3. caues granulosa cells to secrete enzymes to dissolve the wall of the follicle. 4. Causes granulosa cells and theca cells to differentiate in to the corpus lutem

the 3 phases on sexual response in males

1. erection 2. emission 3. ejaculation

what is micturation?

to urinate

the digestive system is regulated extrinsically by the

ANS and endocrine system

122. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Urinary System? a. Regulate plasma osmolarity. b. Excreting end products of bodily metabolism c. Produce and secrete EPO. d. Primarily release CO2. e. Maintain water balance.

regulation of hormones secretions. FSH

FSH secretion in the anterior pituitary causes inhibin secretion and oogenesis and follicular development in the granulosa cells. inhibin provides negative feedback to FSH only.

hormone control of ovarian cycle follicular phase

FSh and estrogen are responsible for the growth of the follicle

how does secretin help with panreatic juice?

High acid levels in the duodenum causes high levels of secretin secretions. Secretin targets pancreatic duct and cause for the high levels of bicarobnate rich fluid secretion. These fluids with neutralize the acid. the acid levels in the duodenum decrease and causes a negative feedback.

189. Which of the following does NOT increase mean arteriole pressure? a. The binding of epinephrine to an alpha-one receptor b. The binding of epinephrine to a beta-two receptor c. Increased peripheral resistance d. Increased cardiac output e. Activation of sympathetic nervous system

what two phases make up the ovarian cycle?

Follicular phase which happens first and the luteral phase which happens last

Stimuli in the GI tract and the receptors and effectors

Food, acidity, and osmolarity causes stimuli. chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and osmoreceptors detect the stimuli. Smooth muscle cells exocrine glands like (gastric glands, cheif cells and partietal cells) and endocrine glands like g cells are all the effectors.

what do G cells and myenteric plexuese do in the gastric reguatlion phase?

G cells release gastrin that helps stimulates secretory cells and is also use gastrin along with myenteric plexuese to start the mixing of chyme.

short term feeding behavior

Ghrelin ( gastric hormone released by the stomach when stomach is empty) and bc it looks good

what does progesterone inhibit?

GnRH, LH, FSH, and LH surges.

increased FSH and testosterone secretions causes spermatogenesis and inhibin secretion in the sertoli cells. what does inhibine do?

Inhibin stops the production of FSH by negative feedback

hormone control of ovarian cycle luteal phase

LH surge causes ovulation and corpus luteum development.

regulation of hormones secretion.LH

Lh secretio in the anterior pituitary causes theca cells to increase androgen. Inreased androgen causes enzymatic modification of androgens, estrogen secretio and oogenesis and follicular development in the granulosa cells.

what is the mesothelium?

Mesothelium of the serosa is the outer layer of epithelia tissue that secretes a watery lubricating fluid that makes it easier for organs to slide past one another.

82. An hydrolysis reaction involves a. the joining together of two or more smaller molecules. b. the breaking of the bonds that link a molecule together. c. the addition of a phosphate group. d. the removal of electrons from a molecule. e. the addition of electrons to a molecule.

what hormone is involved in parturition

Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary strengthen uterine contractions and pressure of the fetus against the cervix. this cause a postitive feedback for oxytocin.

what inhibits prolactin?

PIH from the hypothalamus that in decreased whenever a tactile receptor in the nipple is stimulated.

what stimulates HCI secretion?

Parasympathetic nervous system, gastrin, and histamine

how do parietal cells release HCI into the lumen?

Primary active counter transport of H+ into the lumen and K+ in to the cell. F.D. of Cl and K+ in the lumen. AND h20 and Co2 synethsis of H2CO3 which breaks into HCO3 that leaves the cell and goes into the ISF by secondary active counter transport with Cl. The H+ molecules found in the cell come from this reaction as well.

51. All matter is composed of which of the following? a. molecules b. atoms c. elements d. protons e. water

126. When a B-Cell contacts a foreign molecule, also known as ________, the B-cell produces ___________, which secrete ___________ which are also known as _____________. a. plasma; antigens; immunoglobulins; antibodies b. antigens; plasma; antibodies; immunoglobulins c. antibodies; plasma; foreign invaders; immunoglobulins d. foreign invader; antigens; plasma; antibodies e. None of the above

10. Why would it be bad to NOT have sodium/potassium pumps on cell membranes? a. Sodium concentration inside the cell would be too high to respond to stimuli. b. Sodium and potassium concentrations would reach equilibrium and the cell would not be able to respond to stimuli. c. Leak channels would close and no ions would pass across membrane. d. More energy would be required for ions to diffuse across membrane. e. Sodium and potassium ions would not move across membrane.

what two plxi make up the enteric nervous system?

The submucosal plexus and myenteric plexus make up the enteric nervous system. The submucosal plexus communicates with the muscles of the muscularis externa via the myenteric plexus

what is receptive relaxation and what organ is involved and what is the point?

The swallowing center in the medulla triggers relaxation of smooth muscles in the upper portion of the stomach which increases its volume

108. In the ECG, what causes the formation of the QRS complex? a. Ventricular repolarization b. Ventricular depolarization c. Atrial repolarization d. Atrial depolarization e. Opening of the AV valves

1. Jackie Walker, a 75 year-old woman that is postmenopausal came into the doctor's office complaining about pain while walking after a minor fall a few days prior. When we took her blood pressure, it showed her heart rate was lower than normal. We decided to run several tests. The blood work came back and revealed that calcium in the blood is high, an elevation in parathyroid hormone, and a high level of lymphocytes. When we took an x-ray it exposed low bone density and a fragility fractured bone in one of her legs. A couple days after the fall, she also noticed several scrapes on her leg that she put Neosporin on to help with infections. What does Jackie have and what is the best treatment for this patient? A. Jackie has osteoporosis which can be treated by taking a parathyroid antagonist medication. This would decrease calcium levels in the blood because calcium isn't being removed from the bone. B. Jackie is hyper secreting IGF-1 causing her calcium levels in the blood to be high. Prescribe an IGF-1 antagonist. C. Jackie has a low heart rate because her calcium level is high making her heart contraction shorter thus prescribe her a calcitonin antagonist. D. Jackie has Tetanus causing her skeletal muscle in her leg to constantly contract which could have caused her to fall. A high level of calcium in the blood binds to troponin causing the muscle to constantly contract making her lose balance. Prescribe her a calcium ATPase inhibitor. E. Jackie is experiencing kidney stones. A high level of calcium in the blood causing a high level of calcium to be filtered through the kidney causing a buildup of excess calcium. Prescribe an increase in vitamin D intake.

11. Heppy Lepsy is a 21 year old college student. One day while walking to class Heppy has a grand mal seizure. She becomes unconscious, falls on the ground, and begins to have convulsions. These convulsions cause her skeletal muscles to contract. What would cause these contractions? a. Excited neurons in her brain send action potentials to her motor unit causing an end plate potential and muscle contraction. These high amounts of action potentials would cause her skeletal muscle to contract at such a high frequency that her muscle fibers would not be able to relax. b. Before she hits the ground her body has a withdrawal reflex, and her muscles contract to take the force of the fall. c. Heppy ate a bunch of candy for breakfast. This caused her blood glucose levels to be high. To maintain homeostasis insulin is secreted, and there is a reuptake of glucose in her muscle cells. Higher concentrations of glucose inside her muscle cells create more cross bridge cycling and increased muscle contraction due to higher ATP production. d. Heppy has had a hemorrhage which has caused her blood volume and blood pressure to drop. Her muscles contract to create a skeletal muscle pump to increase the blood flow back to her heart. e. When Heppy is unconscious she has trouble breathing. This causes less oxygen to supply her skeletal muscles. This creates acidity in her tissues causing them to lose proper function and contract.

110. The most numerous cells are erythrocytes, which are also known as __________? a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Platelets d. Plasma

133. Which of the following does the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA) NOT regulate? a. K levels b. V olume of the ECF c. Blood pressure d. None of the above e. BandC

14. Grant and Hillary were arguing over who's lab group final grades would be better. Things get heated and Grant stabs Hillary in the chest, puncturing the thoracic wall. Dr. Ketchum takes a moment to explain to Hillary why she's having trouble breathing. Which of these best describes Hillary's injury? a. Intrapleural pressure has equalized with atmospheric pressure causing a condition known as a pneumothorax. b. Intrapleural pressure has risen above alveolar pressure resulting in a condition known as a pneumothorax. c. Intrapleural pressure has equalized with atmospheric pressure causing a condition known as a myocardial infarction. d. Intrapleural pressure has risen above alveolar pressure resulting in a condition known as a myocardial infarction. e. The knife punctures the lung. allowing more oxygen to enter the lungs. This causes the VC to rise and allowing more oxygen to diffuse into the blood.

141. Which of the following pairs involving the neuromuscular junction is INCORRECT? a. Latroxin, found in black widow venom, blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. b. The compound tubocurarine, found in curare, blocks Acetylcholine by binding to its receptors. c. Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system produces antibodies against Acetylcholine receptors. d. Crotoxin, found in rattlesnake venom, inhibits the release of Acetylcholine resulting in skeletal muscle paralysis. e. More than one of these is INCORRECT.

143. Which of the following statements about graded potentials is true? a. the magnitude of graded potential varies with the strength of the stimulus b. Graded potentials are initiated in duration by the refractory period c. All graded potentials are hyperpolorization d. Graded potentials can not sum over time e. Graded potentials are not produced at ligand gated channels

180. Which of the following steps of cellular respiration occurs in the cell's cytoplasm? a. Glycolysis b. Kreb's cycle c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. aandb e. aandc

194. Which of the following does aldosterone regulate? a. Both the reabsorption of sodium and the secretion of potassium. b. Both the reabsorption of potassium and the secretion of sodium. c. The reabsorption of potassium only. d. The reabsorption of sodium only. e. None of the above

20. Mary Krismas has a tumor on her adrenal medulla, causing hyposecretion of epinephrine. On Black Friday, Mary decided to take a trip to Wal-mart to purchase the new Xbox One and got into a heated fistfight with Ebenezer over the last One, when Ebenezer pulled out a screwdriver to stab her. Mary's sympathetic nervous system begins to take over. Because of her tumor, Mary is unable to run away and receives a fatal stabbing. What physiological effects are hindered by the tumor while Mary was fighting for her life? a. Inability to increase cardiac output, decreasing the amount of oxygen being transported to her muscles by the blood, which results in her inability to escape from Ebenezer. b. The bronchioles in the lungs vasoconstrict, decreasing her oxygen intake, which prevents oxygen from reaching her muscles. c. The adrenergic receptors would upregulate on the nuclear membrane inside the cells because of the decreased amount of epinephrine being secreted. d. IP3 would be inhibited in the second messenger system, preventing the opening of Funny-Na channels and T-Type Calcium channels. e. Decreased levels of epinephrine would promote gluconeogenesis, increasing blood glucose levels.

120. During active expiration, which of the following contracts? a. external intercostals and diaphragm b. internal intercostals and abdominals c. external intercostals and internal intercostals d. diaphragm and abdominals e. none of the above

21. Leigh's disease is a disorder thought to be caused by mutated mitochondrial DNA that disrupts oxidative phosphorylation. Which answer correctly describes the effect of Leigh's disease? a. Decreased contractions of the heart muscle (myocytes)and decreased activity of calcium ATP-ase pumps on the sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. Increased absorption of Glucose into the endothelial cells via sodium co-transport within the small intestine and into the plasma. c. Increased urine volume, decreased plasma volume, and increased reabsorption of water in the convoluted distal tubule, collecting duct, and ascending loop of henle in the kidney tubules. d. Muscular hypertrophy and decreased muscle strength and force of contractions due to an increase in stimulation causing an increase in the release of calcium and more cross-bridges to be formed causing an optimum length to be met between the thick and thin filaments. e. An increased action potential frequency in sensory neurons, and hypersensitivity resulting in prolonged pain symptoms.

214. What enzyme is responsible for the removal of acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft? a. Acetylcholinesterase b. Protein Kinase A c. cAMP d. Adenylate Cyclase

219. If the receptor is a channel-linked receptor: a. It is ionotropic and has a fast response on the postsynaptic neuron. b. It is metabotropic and has a fast response on the postsynaptic neuron. c. It is ionotropic and has a slow response on the postsynaptic neuron. d. It is metabotropic and has a slow response on the postsynaptic neuron.

24. Franklin is running a sprint for his track team. During the run, he feels a rapid increase in his heart rate. What branch of the nervous system is causing this effect and how will this change Franklin's cardiac potential and pacemaker potential? a. Sympathetic neurons release epinephrine, which binds to SA nodal cells, causing an increase in rate of pacemaker potentials and an increase in the rate of cardiac potentials. b. Parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine, which binds to SA nodal cells, causing an increase in rate of pacemaker potentials and an increase in cardiac action potentials. c. Parasympathetic neurons release epinephrine, which binds inside the cytosol to decrease cardiac potentials and increase pacemaker potentials. d. Sympathetic nervous system stimulates slow wave potentials, which cause rapid depolarization pacemaker cells from potassium influx. e. The parasympathetic nervous system triggers the thymus to increase pacemaker potential and cardiac potentials.

3. Jimbo, a 32 year old male, enjoys being outdoors and recently joined an outdoor soccer league! However, he has a severe allergy to pollen. For the past 10 years Jimbo has been taking the same prescription antihistamine medicine. This allergy season was predicted to extremely mild, so Jimbo decided to decrease his dosage of the antihistamine for the last couple of months. Unfortunately, Jimbo has recently been experiencing difficulty breathing, mild hives, and a minor cough. His doctor, that he has been going to for 15 years is stumped, what do you think Jimbo is suffering from? a. Jimbo has decreased his dosage of antihistamine (that blocks histamine receptors), which has caused the receptors to up-regulate. Since he is no longer ingesting the same amount of anti-histamine, this has allowed for histamine to bind instead, resulting in his symptoms. b. Athletic induced asthma has caused bronchoconstriction, thereby giving him a cough. c. Mast cells started hypersecreting once the antihistamine dosage was reduced, and his receptors down regulated. d. Jimbo has contracted a parasitic infection, and his basophils have increased their secretion of heparin, therefore increasing his inflammatory response. e. Jimbo has decreased his dosage of antihistamine (that blocks histamine receptors), to compensate, his body has induced an autonomic response causing his airways to constrict, blood flow to increase(causing hives) and the decrease secretion of mucus.

31. You have more potassium ions inside a cell than you do outside of the cell, if this ion moves along its concentration gradient due to its chemical driving force it will... a. Need a channel and move from the cell out b. Need a channel and move from outside into the cell c. It will be back and forth and equilibrate since there is a channel d. Ions cannot move through channels

52. During __________ of the cell cycle, two daughter cells are separated to become individual cells. This separation is accomplished by the contraction of __________. A. Cytokinesis; Microfilaments B. Metaphase:Intermediatefilaments C. Anaphase;Intermediatefilaments D. Cytokinesis; Microtubules E. Anaphase; Microtubules

6. Which of the following is not considered a Granulocyte? a. Monocyte. b. Basophil. c. Eosinophil. d. Neutrophil. e. None of the above.

60. Action Potentials will continue to be generated until a. The neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft b. A new neurotransmitter is released c. The presynaptic neuron repolarizes d. The presynaptic neuron depolarizes e. The post synaptic neuron depolarizes

67. Which of the following is NOT true regarding pacemaker activity? a. Voltage gated potassium inner rectifier channels begin closing during repolarization. b. Funny sodium channels are open during slow depolarization. c. Voltage gated T-type calcium channels are open during slow depolarization. d. Voltage gated L-type calcium channels are closing during repolarization. e. Voltage gated potassium channels open during repolarization.

7. Patient comes in to the hospital complaining of increased heart rate, shakiness, and jitters. Patients states he has taken a workout supplement not knowing that it inhibits the activity of phosphodiesterase. Explain why the patient still has an increase in heart rate hours after his workout. a. Inhibiting cAMP phosphodieterase results in high levels of cAMP remaining inside the cytosol of the pacemaker cells after his workout, which would continue to augment funny Sodium channels and T-type Calcium channels. b. Beta 1 receptors on the plasma membrane of the cells will increase the rate of epinephrine binding when a supplement inhibits the activity of cAMP phosphodiesterase. c. The inhibition of phosphodiesterase causes the G Protein to constantly activate adenylate cyclase which causes high amounts of cAMP to be produced. This would cause a constant release of calcium from the SR, increasing cross bridging and contractility, resulting in an increased heart rate. d. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase increases cAMP concentrations in motor neurons which will increase the rate of actions potentials being sent to the heart, thus increasing heart rate. e. Inactivity of phosphodiesterase causes high levels of cAMP in the blood and causes agglutination which thickens the blood and requires the heart to pump harder to give tissues adequate blood supply.

99. what is the correct order for phototransduction? a.Light is absorbed by photopigment, retinal and opsin dissociate, transducin is activated, cGMP levels in cytosol decrease, sodium channels close, cell hyperpolarizes, calcium channels close, transmitter release is decreased, graded potential in bipolar cell gets smaller. B.Light is absorbed by photopigment, transducin is activated, cGMP levels in cytosol decrease, sodium channels close, retinal and opsin dissociate, cell hyperpolarizes, calcium channels close, transmitter release is decreased, graded potential in bipolar cell gets smaller. C.Sodium channels close, retinal and opsin dissociate, cell hyperpolarizes, calcium channels close, transmitter release is decreased, light is absorbed by photopigment, transducin is activated, cGMP levels in cytosol decrease, graded potential in bipolar cell gets smaller. D.Cell hyperpolarizes, calcium channels close, transmitter release is decreased, light is absorbed by photopigment, transducin is activated, cGMP levels in cytosol decrease, sodium channels close, retinal and opsin dissociate, graded potential in bipolar cell gets smaller. E.The cGMP levels in cytosol decrease Sodium channels close, retinal and opsin dissociate, cell hyperpolarizes, calcium channels close, transmitter release is decreased, light is absorbed by photopigment, transducin is activated, graded potential in bipolar cell gets smaller.

183. Which of these is NOT a source used for gluconeogensis? a. Glycerol; which is produced by breaking down triglycerides b. Lactate c. Ketones; which are produced by breaking down fatty acids d. Amino acids; which are produced by breaking down proteins

the compression of veins during an erection allows for

accumlation of blood in penis and doesnt allow blood to leave the penis

prolactin stimulate milk synthesis from

alveoli in the mammary glands

127. Jack was telling Jill all about action potentials. Which of Jack's statements was INCORRECT? a. Hyperpolarization is the final stage of a normal action potential. b. In a pacemaker potential, funny Na+ channels and T-type VG Ca+ channels open during rapid depolarization. c. In a cardiac potential, VG Na+ channels open during rapid depolarization. d. Normal action potentials are propagated via a positive feedback loop. e. All of Jack's statements were CORRECT.

132. Which of the following is NOT a substance that diffuses freely across the plasma membrane? a. Fatty acids b. Potassium c. Oxygen d. Carbon Dioxide e. Non-polar molecules

134. Which of the following is FALSE regarding amino acids and proteins? a. They contain a central carbon, an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen, and an R group. b. The polymer form is referred to as a triglyceride c. The can act as enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions. d. They form both fibrous and globular three-dimensional shapes. e. More than one of these is false

137. Which of the following statements regarding the eye is FALSE? a. Myopia is when an individual suffers from near sightedness. b. When the radial muscle contracts in pupillary dilation, there is a decreased amount of light entering the eye. c. In the fovea there are more cones with few to none rods. d. Phototransduction is the process of converting light waves into an electrical signal. e. The choroid is the middle layer of the eye.

140. Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle larger than the myocardium of the right ventricle? a. Because the myocardium on the right side needs to be thinner than the left side so that the electrical conduction of the SA and AV nodes can pass through. b. Because the left ventricle is the ventricle that pumps all of the blood to the rest of the body and therefore needs to be stronger. c. Because the left bicuspid valve is much stronger and therefore needs more muscle to anchor itself down to. d. Because the right ventricle needs to be lighter, in order to, be able to exert more force so that it can pump all of the blood to the rest of the body. e. None of the above

152. The macrophages in the _____ will engulf red blood cells and break them into ____ and _____. a. Kidney; Hemoglobin; polypeptides b. Spleen; Bilirubin; Iron c. Spleen; Heme; Iron d. Kidney; Heme; Globin

157. Which is NOT true concerining the chemical, Epinephrine? a. Epinephrine acts through indirect communication. b. Epinephrine is a steroid messanger. c. After Ach binds to Chromaffin Cells, Epinephrine is released. d. Epinephrine can bind to both Alpha-one and Beta-two adernergic receptors. e. Epinephrine binds to Beta-one receptors in the SA node, AV node, and the ventricular myocardium.

159. Which of the following is NOT true regarding (Tonicity) the behavior of cells when placed in a solution? a. A solution being Hypotonic b. A solution being Monotonic c. A solution being Isotonic d. A solution being Hypertonic e. None of the above

162. When referring to an end-plate potential in skeletal muscle tissue, if an action potential occurs in a motor neuron, it is always followed by an ____________. a. b. c. d. e. An impulse through the muscle tissue that the neuron innervates. Action potential in the muscle cells it innervates. Release of calcium to bind to calmodulin. Release of sodium from the SR. Absorption of calcium into the SR.

166. Which of the following is a correct order of the pathway of an electrical impulse from a presynaptic neuron to a postsynaptic neuron? 1. Cell Body 2. Axon Terminal 3. Axon 4. Dendrites 5. Axon Hillock 6. Synapse 7. Post synaptic Neuron a. 1,3,2,4,5,6,7 b. 4,1,5,3,2,6,7 c. 4,1,6,5,3,2,7 d. 4,3,5,2,6,1,7 e. 3,4,6,1,5,2,7

168. Which membranous organelle's function is that of the degradation of molecules such as amino acids, fatty acids, and toxic foreign matter? a. Lysosome b. Peroxisome c. Mitochondria d. Golgi Apparatus e. none of the above

169. Which of a. b. c. d. e. the following is NOT a correct match of cell structure and function? Lysosomes- breakdown of cellular and extracellular debris Mitchondria- RNA synthesis Rough ER- protein synthesis and post-translational processing Peroxisomes- breakdown of toxic substances Cytosol- cell metabolism and storage

17. Sally has a condition where she has an abnormally high level of sodium in her epithelial cells. What would be an accurate consequence of her condition? a. This high level of sodium in her epithelial cells will trigger Aldosterone release, which will increase the rate of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. b. During carbohydrate digestion, this high level of sodium in her epithelial cells will cause less glucose absorption into the blood; therefore, she will have a low plasma glucose level. c. This high level of sodium in her epithelial cells will cause water to leave the cells, causing her cells to shrivel. d. This high level of sodium in her epithelial cells will cause the sodium funny channels to close faster, causing her heart rate to increase. e. This high level of sodium in her epithelial cells will cause the resting membrane potential in her cells to be more positive, causing potassium to enter the cell.

172. Which of the following is NOT a hypothalamic tropic hormone? a. Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) c. Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) d. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) e. all of these are hypothalamic tropic hormones

175. Which of the following sensory receptors is responsible for detecting Blood oxygen levels? a. Photoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Thermoreceptors d. Mechanoreceptors e. Both b and d

177. What part of the brain controls the division of the ANS dominating in the heart? a. hypothalamus b. Medulla d. Sympathetic portion of the Medulla d. Hippocampus e. Sympathetic portion of the Thalmus

181. Which of these does NOT occur during vasodilation in the arterioles? a. CO2 increases b. Myogenic activity increases c. Histamine release d. Decrease in sympathetic stimulation e. Resistance decreases

182. Which area of the cerebral cortex is associated with speech formation? a. Limbic association cortex b. Broca's area c. Primary visual cortex d. Primary somatosensory cortex e. Central sulcus

184. Which of the following is NOT contained within the Organ of Corti? a. Inner and Outer hair cells b. Scala V estibuli c. Tectorial Membrane d. Stereocilia e. BothCandD

200. Which of the following statements can you NOT attribute to acetylcholine? a. Calcium ions entering the voltage-gated channels cause the exocytosis of acetylcholine at a cholinergic synapse. b. The synthesis of acetylcholine from acetyl CoA and choline is catalyzed by acetylcholinesterase. c. Acetylcholine can bind to different classes and subclasses of cholinergic receptors. d. Acetylcholine is released by preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system. e. Acetylcholine is synthesized in the cytosol of the axon terminal of neurons.

203. Which of the following is NOT true regarding reflexes? a. Autonomic reflexes occur in smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue b. Spinal reflexes involved the brain and the spinal cord c. Somatic reflexes occur in skeletal muscle d. Y ou are born with innate reflexes e. None of the above, they are all true

207. Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive feedback loop? a. Sodium channels opening, causing a rapid depolarization of the cell. b. Body temperature regulation. c. Aggregated platelets secrete PF3, which stimulates the clotting cascade that results in thrombin activation. d. During child birth, the head of the fetus pushes against the cervix, causing a nerve impulse from the cervix to the brain. The brain stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete oxytocin, which is carried through the bloodstream to the uterus, where it stimulates uterine contractions and pushes the fetus towards the cervix. e. All of the above are examples of positive feedback

21. Which of the following is the CORRECT pathway of a reflex arc? a. An effector organ, an efferent neuron, an integration center, an afferent neuron, a sensory receptor b. A sensory receptor, an afferent neuron, an integration center, an efferent neuron, an effector organ c. An integration center, an effector organ, an efferent neuron, an afferent neuron, a sensory receptor d. An integration center, an afferent neuron, an integration center, an efferent neuron, an effector organ e. None of the above

210. Which cell-to-cell adhesion allows quick transmission of electrical signals between adjacent cells? a. desmosome b. gap junction c. tight junction d. all of the above

22. Scare D. Cat is a 26-year-old female who has many anxiety attacks before she gives speeches to her fellow employees at Google. Before and during her speeches, which she has to give every month, she starts to tremble and sweats tremendously. She was prescribed a beta-blocker called Propranolol that helps control some of her anxiety. After 6 months of taking the medication, she feels as if the medication isn't helping her with her stage freight and without consulting a doctor, she decided to just suddenly stop taking the medication all together. What will happen to her adrenergic receptors and what might happen to her? a. With the sudden stop of the medication, the beta blockers will fall off from her alpha receptors and epinephrine will bind immediately to her receptors in her eyes, which will cause her pupils to dilate more due to her increased anxiety. b. With the sudden stop of the medication, the beta blockers will fall off from her adrenergic receptors and epinephrine will bind immediately to her receptors, which can cause an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and other symptoms, worsening her anxiety. c. With the sudden stop of the medication, the beta blockers will remain bound to her adrenergic receptors and epinephrine will not be able to bind to those receptors still which will cause a further decrease in heart rate, blood pressure, and other symptoms, putting her at risk of heart failure. d. With the sudden stop of the medication, the beta blockers will fall off from her adrenergic receptors and epinephrine will bind immediately to her receptors, which can cause an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, causing her to urinate more due to her anxiety. e. With the sudden stop of the medication, the beta blockers will remain bound to her adrenergic receptors and epinephrine will not be able to bind to those receptors still which would cause her sweat glands to secrete more sweat due to her decrease anxiety.

23. Stiles has accidentally touched deadly kanima toxin while cleaning. It has absorbed through his skin and within a few minutes has temporarily paralyzed him, he cannot move from the neck down. The toxin works as an antagonist against Acetylcholine. He is still breathing and his heart is beating. He has discomfort in his stomach. Why is he having these reactions in his heart, stomach, and skeletal muscle? a. In the skeletal muscle, inhibiting ACh from binding to muscarinic cholinergic receptors stops end plate potentials being sent down the sarcolemma. Cross bridge cycling cannot occur therefore the muscle cannot contract. In the heart, inhibiting ACh from binding to muscarinic cholinergic receptors on the myocardium blocks cardiac muscle contraction. In the stomach, inhibiting ACh will affect the nicotinic cholinergic receptors from producing slow wave potentials in the submucosal plexus, causing discomfort. b. An antagonist for ACh would bind to nicotinic cholinergic receptors on motor end plates of the skeletal muscle, blocking end plate potentials and resulting in paralysis. An antagonist for ACh would affect muscarinic cholinergic receptors on the nodal cells, blocking the normal effect of Ach, which is to lower heart rate by augmenting K-channels and inhibiting T-type Ca-channels. In the stomach, an antagonist for ACh would block muscarinic receptors in the submucosal plexus, blocking increases in secretion; in the myenteric plexus, it would block muscarinic receptors that stimulate contraction of the smooth muscle of the muscularis externa, blocking increases in peristalsis and segmentation. Because food is not being digested as efficiently and is moving more slowly through the digestive tract, discomfort occurs. c. The inhibition of ACh affects the nicotinic cAMP second messenger system that controls skeletal and smooth muscle contraction. Disrupting this system will lead to paralysis and inhibit contraction of the smooth muscle in the GI tract. Since the second messenger system doesn't affect cardiac muscle, the heart will still be able to contract properly. d.The antagonist for ACh binds to adrenergic receptors on the motor end plates of the skeletal muscle, blocking postsynaptic potentials causing paralysis. The same antagonist also binds to nicotinic cholinergic receptors located on the ventricular myocardium causing an increase in contractile force that results in a higher heart rate. Inhibiting ACh will affect the sodium and potassium concentration gradients in the epithelial cells lining the GI tract. Changing these gradients affects how effectively solutes can cross the apical membrane, and inhibiting the proper movement of solutes will lead to discomfort in the stomach. e. If ACh cannot bind to muscarinic cholinergic receptors on the SA nodal cells of the heart, then the heart rate increases due to the cAMP second messenger system augmenting Na-funny channels and T-type calcium channels causing the pacemaker potential to occur quicker. ACh can also affect the force of contraction of the heart: if there are high levels of ACh bound to muscarinic cholinergic receptors in the ventricular muscle wall then the force of contraction is increased. If ACh cannot bind to muscarinic cholinergic receptors in the skeletal muscle than cross bridge cycling cannot occur and therefore the muscles cannot contract. ACh must also bind to nicotinic cholinergic receptors in the stomach for food to be properly digested.

31. Bumble Ling recently decided to begin growing and canning her own asparagus to eat over Christmas break. Unfortunately, however, she forgot to sterilize the containers she used to can her asparagus, and Clostridium Botulinum, the bacteria that produce botulinum toxin, survived the canning process and subsequently proliferated in Bumble Ling's home-canned asparagus. After devouring her first can of asparagus, Bumble Ling began displaying characteristic symptoms of botulism poisoning and her friends quickly drove her to the nearest emergency room. Based specifically on the knowledge that botulinum toxin prevents acetylcholine release from neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system, what might some of her symptoms include? a. Bumble Ling should not be showing any symptoms of botulism poisoning because botulinum toxin has no negative effects on humans, as evidenced by the popular use of Botox in cosmetic procedures. b. One of Bumble Ling's symptoms would include dry mouth because parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary gland increases production of saliva for digestive purposes, inhibition of this process would result in dry mouth. c. Bumble Ling would have a stomachache because of the inability of acetylcholine to bind to alpha-1 receptors in the smooth muscle of her gut. Subsequently, this would result in the inability to convert PIP3 to IP3 or DAG, which would inhibit smooth muscle contraction in the gut causing her stomachache. d. Bumble Ling would have died within minutes of eating her canned asparagus because the ventricular myocardium of the heart relies on the release of acetylcholine from the parasympathetic nervous system to continue contracting. e. One of Bumble Ling's symptoms would be severely dilated pupils because parasympathetic innervation of the radial muscle layer of the iris causes constriction of the pupils. Since this process is inhibited by the inability of Bumble's parasympathetic neurons to release acetylcholine her pupils would become dilated.

39. Beta cells in the pancreas release insulin to decrease blood glucose levels. Which of the following is NOT an action of insulin on target tissues? a. Insulin secretion increase glucose uptake in most tissues b. Insulin secretion decreases glycogen synthesis in the liver and muscle c. Insulin secretion decreases gluconeogenesis d. Insulin secretion increases amino acid uptake in most tissues

41. Which of the following is NOT true of epinephrine (sympathetic)? a. Increases heart rate and force of contraction by sympathetic by innervating the SA, AV and myocardium. b. Bind to beta two receptors (skeletal and heart) located in arteriolar smooth muscle and cause vasoconstriction. c. Turns off Beta cells in the pancreas inhibiting insulin secretion d. Increase venomotor tone e. All of the above are correct

45. Which of the following is NOT an example of an autoimmune disease? A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. DiabetesInsipidus C. MultipleSclerosis D. Diabetes Mellitus E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

92. Which of the following is true regarding the epinephrine? a. Epinephrine binds to β adrenergic receptors on smooth muscles cells. b. Epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla during sympathetic stimulation causing bronchodilation. c. During blood clotting, epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, which increases resistance to blood flow, minimizing blood loss. d. The primary function of epinephrine is to act as a hormone. e. All of the above are true

94. what happens after the G protein activates adenylate cyclase? aAddition of phosphate group bConverts A TP + camp cActivates G - Protein dPhosphorylation of Channel eActivation of protein kinase A

95. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic control? a. Increased resistance in arterioles in organs to alter blood flow to the organ— reconditioning organs b. Increased stretch in cardiac muscle causing an increase in EDV—Starling's Law c. Release of nitric oxide by blood vessel endothelial cells to promote vasodilation d. Smooth muscle in afferent arterioles contracting in response to stretch (due to increased MAP) thereby causing vasoconstriction and increased resistance, ultimately lowering Glomerular Filtration Rate—Myogenic Regulation e. All of the above are examples of intrinsic control

what is parturition

birth

10. Kandace is really stressed out because finals are approaching causing her cortisol levels to be high. Cortisol is a steroid hormone and is synthesized and secreted from the zomerula fasculata in the adrenal cortex. What type of transmembrane transport allows for cortisol to cross the capillary membrane? What is another example of this type of transmembrane transport in Kandace's body? a. Facilitated Diffusion; Secretion of inhibin from Sertoli cells into the blood via facilitated diffusion b. Simple Diffusion; Transmembrane movement of glucose across capillary walls via simple diffusion c. Simple Diffusion; When we inhale oxygen crosses the alveolar and capillary membranes in the lungs to enter the blood via simple diffusion d. Secondary Active Counter Transport; During regulation of digestion chloride crosses the cell membrane via secondary active counter transport e. Facilitated Diffusion; Glucose is reabsorbed into the plasma in the proximal tubule via facilitated diffusion

158. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the gradients (pressure, chemical, electric, etc.) for the following? a. In the respiratory system, when the pressure inside the alveoli is less than the atmospheric pressure, a pressure gradient is established drawing air inward into the alveoli. b. In the cardiovascular system, when the pressure in the heart's atria is greater than the pressure in the ventricles, bulk flow of blood will move through the AV valves into the ventricles. c. During simple diffusion, movement of solutes from an area of 1 M concentration to an area of .25 M concentration will create a larger gradient than movement of solutes from an area of 1 M concentration to an area of 0 M concentration. d. Regarding osmosis, a hypertonic cell placed in a hypotonic solution, will establish a concentration gradient that will drive water molecules from the solution into the cell. e. In the urinary system, the medullary osmotic gradient is established since the outer regions of the medulla have a smaller osmolarity than the inner regions which is necessary for water reabsorption.

161. Which of the following is not part of primary endocrine organs? a. Pineal gland b. Adrenal gland c. Heart d. Thymus e. Pituitary gland

165. Which of the following is FASLE about biomolecules? a. The four basic types of biomolecules are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleotides. b. Biomolecules are molecules that are synthesized by living organisms. c. Biomolecules are molecules that are synthesized by non-living organisms. d. Biomolecules contain carbon atoms. e. All of the above are true.

167. Which of the following hormone(s) is NOT released by the anterior pituitary gland? a. Luteinizing hormone (LH) b. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) c. Thyroid hormone (TH) d. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

170. Which of the following is not true of Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials? a) K+ ions move out as Cl- ions move in b) They hyperpolarize a cell c) They involve metabotropic receptors d) They produce fast reponses

173. In cAMP second messenger system, cAMP activates which protein? a. Adenylate cyclase b. Phospholipase C c. Protein kinase A d. Protein kinase G e. Catalase

174. Calcium Voltage-Gated channels are located on the __________ of the neuron. a. Cell body b. Axon and the axon terminal c .Axon terminal d. Dendrites, cell body, and the axon terminal

18. Bill has just been admitted to the hospital. The doctors diagnosed him and intravenously administered bicarbonate. Why might they have done this? a. To increase reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule. b. To increase the carbon dioxide levels in the blood. c. So his pH would increase and treat metabolic acidosis. d. His saliva is more basic than normal. e. To make his small intestine more acidic to provide further digestion of food.

186. Which of the following defects in vision of the eye is NOT correctly matched up to its defintion? a. Presbyopia= hardening of lens b. Cataract = discoloration of lens c. Glaucoma = decreased volume aqueous humor d. A and C are both incorrect. e. All of the above are correctly matched.

187. What what type of thermoregulation is occuring when the body, which is warmer than it's surroundings, loses heat? a. Evaporation b. Conduction c. Radiation d. All of the above e. None of the above

190. All of the following is true of histamine EXCEPT? a. It is a paracrine messenger b. It is primarily found in the hypothalamus c. It is both a catecholamine and a biogenic amine d. Secretion of histamine causes bronchoconstriction e. Histamine is secreted by mast cells

196. Which of the following would NOT need a carrier protein in order to diffuse through the plasma membrane? a. glucose b. Calcuim c. Carbon dioxide d. Protein e. Potassium

197. The subarchnoid space is the space between the: a. pia matter and dura matter b. dura matter and subarachnoid matter c. pia matter and arachnoid matter d. dura matter and arachnoid matter

2. Becky is a student at the University of Oklahoma and loves the game of basketball. Every morning she drinks a protein shake to get ready for the day, but her roommate has been poisoning her protein shakes for the past month without her knowledge. She has been mixing a substance in the protein shake that blocks the secretion of renin from the kidneys and inhibits the functioning of her neck cells in the stomach. Becky eventually goes to urgent care complaining of stomach pains, and frequent urination. Which of the following explains her symptoms? a. Decreased protein digestion; vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles in the nephrons b. Increased synthesis of angiotensin II; increased HCl production in stomach c. Decreased release of Aldosterone and decreased Potassium secretion; perforating ulcers d. Decreased release of Aldosterone and increase in sodium reabsorption; perforating ulcers e. Increased paracrine secretion by macula densa cells in the liver

211. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the factors affecting an increase in the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions? a. An increase in the catalytic rates of the enzyme to convert substrates into products will result in an increase rate. b. A higher number in the enzyme concentration increases the likelihood a substrate will bind to an enzyme, and therefore increasing the reaction rate. c. When the substrate concentration is low, less time will pass before the next substrate molecule is able to bind to the enzyme leading to a increase rate of reaction. d. If the enzyme affinity is high, the active site on the enzyme will be occupied more by a given substrate for a given length of time, resulting in an increased rate. e. Any raise in the given temperature of a enzyme to its optimum temperature level will increase enzyme activity, and there by increase the rate of reaction.

216. What second messenger is activated when Epinephrine binds to alpha one receptors of arteriolar smooth muscle? a. cAMP b. Protein Kinase C c. IP3 d. PF3 e. none of the above

217. Which of the following parts of the brain are NOT involved in the regulation of the autonomic nervous system? a. Medulla oblongata b. Hypothalamus c. Diencephalon d. Pons

123. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Urinary System? a. Regulate plasma osmolarity. b. Excreting end products of bodily metabolism c. Produce and secrete EPO. d. Primarily release CO2. e. Maintain water balance.

221. You have an AB+ patient whom presents with a hematocrit level of 40% and BP is 100/60, the patient tells you that he is taking a new medication and has not been very thirsty recently. Upon slight rehydration his hematocrit level drops to 30%. You ask him about the medication he is taking and he says it contains pilocarpine. What is the best initial method of treatment to quickly raise the patient's hematocrit level? a) Give the patient a blood transfusion b) Give the patient EPO c) Give the patient Atropine d) Test for specific anemia's

24. Which of the following classes of chemical messengers is matched with ALL the correct types of messenger? a. Paracrine : Amines, amino acids b. Autocrine : peptides/proteins, steriods c. Neurotransmitter : amino acids, amines, peptides/proteins d. hormone : amines, steriods e. none of the above are correct

25. Which of the following regarding slow excitatory post-synaptic potentials in neurons is NOT true? a. Slow ESPS can involve the second messenger, cAMP. b. Slow ESPS are g-protein linked. c. Binding of a neurotransmitter to a metabotropic receptor activates movement of sodium and potassium ions through the same channel. d. Slow ESPS are initiated by neurotransmitter binding to a metabotropic receptor. e. In a Slow ESPS, phosphorylation of the potassium channel on the neuron causes depolarization of the cell.

26. Which of the following is not associated with the cAMP Second Messenger system? A. ATP B. Thyroid Hormone C. Angiotensin II D. Protein Kinase A E. Adenylate Cyclase

27. Jessica had given birth to her first child. After a few weeks, she noticed her baby had extremely watery diarrhea. Being the concerned mother she is, she took her baby to the doctor. The doctor decided to run some tests. The results were: a fast pulse, slightly acidic blood, and a little glucose in the urine. Which of the following could be the cause of the baby's symptoms? a. Chloride shift in the systemic vessels is occurring at a higher rate as a result of low bicarbonate ion levels in red blood cells b. The baby's mitochondria are not producing enough ATP for the sodium glucose co-transporter to function properly. c. Sodium glucose co-transporters in the intestines are not functioning adequately causing water to accumulate in the lumen of the intestines. d. The potassium calcium counter transport proteins on the cardiac pacemaker cells are over active due to high potassium levels in the ECF e. Glucose and sodium co-transporters in the kidneys are functioning normally, which means a little glucose in the urine is normal.

30. During depolarization, NA+ activation gates are __________ and NA+ inactivation gates are __________. A.) Open, closed B.) Closed, open C.) Open, open D.) Closed, closed

32. The P wave of the ECG indicates the event of a. atrial repolarization b. ventricular depolarization c. atrial depolarization d. ventricular repolarization e. none of the above

33. When comparing B and T Lymphocytes, which of the following is false? A) Both B and T lymphocytes originate in the Bone Marrow. B) BCellssecreteAntibodies,whileTcellssecretecytokines. C) Both B and T lymphocytes have a long life span. D) The B lymphocytes mature in the Bone Marrow, while T Lymphocytes mature in the Thymus. E) B and T lymphocytes both produce memory cells.

34. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The nervous system is capable of long-distance communication. B. The endocrine system is capable of long-distance communication. C. Onlytheendocrinesystemusedchemicalmessengerscalledhormones. D. The nervous system can communicate through direct cell-to-cell contact. E. The endocrine system can not communicate through direct cell-to-cell contact.

40. Which of the following neurotransmitter is involved with Depression? A. Acetylcholine B. Heparin C. Serotonin D. Cortisol E. V asopressin

44. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Immune System? a. IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α stimulate liver cells to produce acute phase proteins b. Interferon-γ is secreted by active T cells and NK cells c. The alternative pathway of the complement system involves activation by binding to antibodies d. The immune system has the capacity to recognize and respond to antigens that our bodies have not encountered before2 e. Natural killer cells' activities can be enhanced by IL-2 and antibodies

46. Which of the following is TRUE and occurs during primary hyposecretion of the thyroid hormone? a. Thyroid hormone (TH) levels are increased. b. Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) levels decrease. c. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels increase. d. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels decrease. e. Both b and c.

47. Which of the following is NOT true about muscle? a. Smooth muscle is not striated. b. Skeletal, Smooth and Cardiac muscle all have actin and myosin. c. Skeletal, Smooth and Cardiac muscle have calcium binding to troponin for contraction. d. Skeletal muscle is voluntary controlled e. Smooth and Cardiac muscles are controlled by the autonomic nervous system

53. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Carbohydrate? a. Monosaccharide b. Polysaccharide c. Triglyceride d. Disaccharide e. All of the following are carbohydrates

54. Which of the following is NOT true of energy storage and use? A) The breakdown of glycogen to pyruvate (the process of glycolysis) is reversible. B) Glycogen is a branched-chain molecule found only in animal cells. C) Glucose can be made via gluconeogenesis from four sources: glycerol, lactate, amino acids, and glycogen. D) Fats can be synthesized to store energy when they are in abundant supply in the diet.

56. If your anterior pituitary is hypersecreting growth hormone after puberty then you might have a condition known as: A. Progeria B. Gigantism C. Acromegaly D. Dwarfism E. none of these

57. Which of the following hormones are not secreted by the anterior pituitary? a. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone c. Gonad Otropin releasing Hormone d. Luteinizing Hormone e. Growth Hormone

128. Jack was telling Jill all about acetylcholine (ACh). Which of Jack's statements was INCORRECT? a. Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems release ACh. b. ACh only binds to cholinergic receptors. c. ACh is the sole neurotransmitter of the somatic branch of the efferent nervous system. d. The adrenal medulla secretes many adrenocorticoids, including ACh. e. All of Jack's statements were CORRECT.

65. The hypothalamus integrates the autonomic, somatic, and endocrine response. The hypothalamus has a non-functioning pituitary adenoma. What is the best response below that indicates the effects of a non-functioning pituitary adenoma. A. It would cause elevated levels of cortisol secretion. B. Excitation of the autonomic nervous system as epinephrine is hypersecreted. C. Inhibition of fight-or-flight response due to low levels of epinephrine. D. Sympathetic activity would over ride the parasympathetic activity causing more epineprhine release. E. The somatic nervous system would innervate more motor neurons due to increased action potentials caused by increased epinephrine.

69. Which of the following is NOT true regarding obstructive pulmonary diseases? a. Residual volume increases because it is harder to inspire and expire b. The functional residual capacity is increased c. Sleep apnea is a form of obstructive pulmonary diseases d. Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases are caused by an in increase in airway resistance e. More than one of these is incorrect

71. The first respiratory zone structure begins in what structure. a. alveoli sacs b. tertiary bronchi c. respiratory bronchioles d. terminal bronchioles e. trachea

75. An increase in insulin secretion by the beta cells in the pancreas causes which of the following to happen? a. An increase in the synthesis of fatty acids and triglycerides in adipose tissue and the liver. b. An increase in gluconeogenesis in the liver. c. A decrease in lipolysis in adipose tissue. d. A and C are correct. e. All of the above.

77. ________ is the transfer of thermal energy from one object to another that occurs when the objects are in direct contact with each other. a. convection b. radiation c. conduction d. evaporation e. filtration

79. Hemoglobin consists of how many polypeptide chains? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e more than 5

8. Al Waisben Chase is vigorously running from his mother. He's asthmatic and to aid his breathing, takes a puff of medicine. His mother has been chasing him repeatedly throughout a school semester and is getting tired of it so she takes advantage of his medicine break and pulls out a stun gun and stuns him, sending him into cardiac arrest. The paramedics arrive and medicate him back to health. Throughout this whole ordeal, what is most likely to have happened? a. When running, his sympathetic nervous system coordinated the fight-or-flight response, norepinephrine is released and causes rate of digestion to speed up. b. The released norepinephrine will bind to muscarinic cholinergic receptors which operate through the action of a G protein. c. During his medicine break, Al took a drug containing epinephrine which caused bronchodilation. d. The paramedics administered a drug containing epinephrine that caused vasodilation to increase cardiac output. e. Norepinephrine release due to his stress coordinates with the sympathetic nervous system which innervates, regarding the heart, only the SA and AV nodes.

98. Which of the following defects of vision is correctly matched with its description? aPresbyopia - discoloration of lens bCataract - increased volume of aqueous humor cMyopia - near-sighted dHyperopia - hardening of lens eAstigmatism - far-sighted

sperm are initially incapable of fertilization until

capacitation = the tail moves faster and the plasma membrane changes so that it can fuse with the secondary oocyte.

what does the sympathetic system do during emission

causes contractions of the epididymis, vas deferens and ejaculatory duct. and secretions from seminal vesicles and prostate. All of this results in the movement of semen.

the three phases of GI control

cephalic - head/brain gastric - stomach intestinal - intestines

what causes these cycles to happen?

changes in estrogen, progesterone, and other hormones like LH, FSH, and GnRH

What are the 2 changes that can happen i response to stimulus in the GI

changes in motility and secretion

what cell secretes pepsinogen?

cheif cells.

the head piece of the sperm contains

chromosomes (22 autsomes and one sex chromosome) acrosome = contains enzymes necessary for fertilization

what happens in the intestinal phase

chyme that moves in to the duodenum causes enterogastric reflex that inhibits gastric production and gastric contraction and stimulate pyloric sphincter to to contract(close).

what happens in the distal segment during peristalsis

circular muscle relaxes while the longitudinal msucle contracts, this increases diameter size.

what 2 muscles and plexus makes up the muscularis propria

circular muscle, longitudinal muscle, and auerback's (myenteric) plexus

what happens in the proximal segment during peristalsis

ciruclar muscle contract while longitudinal muscle relaxe. This decreases the diameter size.

12. Banana Bob is a patient with hypokalemia (meaning his potassium levels are low). Which of the following could lead to Banana Bob's condition? a. Potassium is freely filtered in the tubules and undergoes both reabsorption and secretion of the glomerulus which could cause low levels in the kidneys b. The adrenal medulla is not secreting enough potassium, meaning levels are too low for the body to function as normal c. Ligand gated potassium channels are not opening quickly enough during the rapid depolarization phase of pacemaker potentials causing less potassium to exit the cell d. There is a defect in the tubule that is causing too much potassium to be reabsorbed causing low levels e. During an action potential depolarization phase, potassium channels are slowly closing, causing low levels of potassium efflux

how do treat enlarged prostate glands

continual nafarlin injections which is a synthetic GnRH. It helps the anterior pituitary down regulate.

what is it called when the male testes have not dropped?

cryptorchid

1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding aldosterone? a. Aldosterone is a glucocorticoid. b. Aldosterone is secreted from the zona glomerulosa region of the adrenal cortex. c. Aldosterone is indirectly triggered by a decreased MAP. d. Aldosterone is secreted when blood potassium gets too low. e. Aldosterone increased blood volume

100. Choose the correct order in which light passes through the eye to the retina. A. Cornea, vitreous humor, aqueous humor, lens, pupil, neural layer of retina B. Cornea, lens, vitreous humor, pupil, aqueous humor, neural layer of retina C. Cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor, neural layer of retina D. Cornea, pupil, aqueous humor, vitreous humor, lens, neural layer of retina

101. Inhibiting acetyl-cholinesterase on the motor end plate would do which of the following: a. prevent Ach from binding to the nicotinic cholinergic receptor on the motor end plate. b. reduce the amount of choline actively transported back into the terminal button. c. cause acetylcholine to be left in the synaptic cleft longer. d. two of these are correct. e. all of these are correct.

107. In which of the following skeletal muscle types would one expect to find a high density of capillaries? a. slow oxidative b. fast oxidative c. fast glycolytic d. answers A and B e. all of the above

109. The pulmonary semilunar valve opens when a. left ventricle pressure is greater than pulmonary vein pressure b. left ventricle pressure is greater than pulmonary artery pressure c. right ventricle pressure is greater than pulmonary vein pressure d. right ventricle pressure is greater than pulmonary artery pressure e. none of the above

114. Which is NOT true of the pulmonary circuit? a. The pressure gradient driving blood flow in the pulmonary circuit is smaller than that of the systemic circuit. b. The pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit circulate the same volume of blood. c. Blood vessels in the pulmonary circuit offer less resistance than those in the systemic circuit. d. The pressure gradient driving blood flow through the pulmonary circuit is equated to the mean arterial pressure. e. Pulmonary arterial pressure is lower than aortic pressure.

119. In the conducting zone of the respiratory system, which of these features of the respiratory structures does not decrease in size or in number further down the respiratory system? a. Inner diameter. b. Goblet Cells. c. Alveolar sacs. d. Smooth muscle. e. Cartilage.

12. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Histamine? a. It is a paracrine signaler made from histidine b. It causes bronchoconstriction of the conducting zone c. It is a lipophobic amine d. It is secreted by specialized phagocytic cells of the Immune System e. It causes vasodilation of the arterioles

121. Which of the following is NOT a correct method of regulation glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys? A. Tubuloglomular Feedback B. MyogenicRegulation C. ExtrinsicSympatheticControl D. Extrinsic Parasympathetic Control

13. One morning Dee Hydrated woke up and decided to drink a liter of water. Dee was running late so she grabbed a bottle from the refrigerator and drank the entire liter in less than a minute. What is a possible side effect Dee may experience? a. Urge to urinate because when that much water is taken in that quickly the kidneys will excrete the majority of it instead of reabsorbing it through the proximal convoluted tubule and ascending loop of Henle. b. The sudden increase in water will lead to a decrease in the osmolarity of the plasma, which is normally more concentrated than the interstitial fluid due to the higher amount of proteins present in the interstitial fluid relative to plasma. c. Drinking this amount of water causes the pressure in the blood vessels to increase. In response to this, the granular cells of the renal tubules secrete renin, which ultimately leads to an increase in aldosterone levels in the blood and consequent sodium reabsorption. d. While drinking the water her epiglottis was in the closed position and Dee wasn't able to respirate adequately due to the rate at which she was drinking. This lead to a build-up of carbon dioxide in her lungs. To compensate, her rate of respiration increased. e. Heart rate would increase, thereby inducing a parasympathetic response causing acetylcholine to bind to muscarinic cholinergic receptors that would lead to a decrease in venous compliance and subsequent high blood pressure.

136. Which of the following is NOT true regarding peroxisomes? a. They are similar in appearance to lysosomes but smaller. b. The function in the degradation of amino acids, fatty acids, and toxic foreign matter. c. They often produce hydrogen peroxide. d. They have a double membrane. e. They contain catalase to break down the toxic hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.

145. Which of the following is the autonomic nervous system NOT responsible for? a. Changes in the functions of organs in response to changing conditions in the body b. Involuntary control c. Dual innervation of effector organs d. Motor neurons e. Adjustment of eye or near vision

146. Which factor does NOT affect venous pressure? a. Blood volume b. Venomotor pressure c. Respiratory pump d. Acetylcholine e. Skeletal muscle pump

15. Anita Shower is training for a triathlon and frequently experiences exercise-induced hypertension. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic control mechanism within her heart used to regulate her blood pressure and maintain homeostasis? a. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus send signals to the hypothalamus to decrease ADH synthesis and secretion b. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus signals to the medulla oblongata to increase parasympathetic activity and lower heart rate c. Increased pressure in the glomerular capillaries causes an increase in glomerular filtration rate and urine output d. Increased pressure in the ventricles causes muscle fibers in the ventricular myocardium to lengthen, which causes a greater force of contraction so that stroke volume matches venous return e. She can begin "blood doping" so that she has a higher hematocrit and a greater oxygen-carrying capacity

151. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? a. The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate b. The enzyme's catalytic rate c. The concentration of the enzyme d. The type of bond present between the enzyme and the substrate e. The concentration of the substrate

153. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the intrinsic control of blood flow distribution to organs? a. Blood flows equally to all organs. b. An individual organ or tissue does not know how much blood it needs at any given time. c. Intrinsic control is least important in regulating blood flow to the heart, brain, and skeletal muscles. d. The vascular resistance of an organ or tissue is altered by the contraction or relaxation of smooth muscle in arterioles and small arteries. e. Blood flow to the brain varies at different times.

16. Sally has ingested a drug that has inhibited her ability to perform oxidative phosphorylation. Sally feels weak and like she cannot perform regular body functions normally. Why is this? a. In muscle cells, inhibiting the use of NADH and FADH2 will decrease the affinity for myosin to myosin-binding sites. So, Sally feels weaker do to her muscle fibers not contracting with normal strength. b. Since Sally cannot perform the normal pathway for ATP synthesis, her body is going to lactic acid fermentation in order to produce ATP. With the buildup of lactic acid, her body begins to convert it to ketones. Since Sally feels weak she is now showing signs of ketoacidosis do to the buildup of the acid in her blood stream. c. Sally's ingestion of the drug has caused Aplastic Anemia. Aplastic Anemia is caused by the lack of NADH and FADH2 production, which affects the levels of ATP present in Sally's bone marrow. d. Preventing oxidative phosphorylation will affect NADH and FADH2. Since NADH and FADH2 are used to make ATP, less ATP being made would explain why Sally feels weak. e. Since NADH and FADH2 are important in the formation of ATP, preventing oxidative phosphorylation would increase the stimulation of glucagon from beta cells in the pancreas so that more glucose is available for glycolysis.

160. Little Red Riding Hood was walking through the forest and the Big Bad Wolf jumped out from behind a tree. Red's fight or flight response kicked in. Which of these is taking place in her body? a. The arterioles to her skeletal muscles are vasoconstricting b. The parasympathetic nervous system is increasing the heart rate c. The parasympathetic nervous system is decreasing the activity of the gastrointestinal tract d. The sympathetic nervous system is causing her pupils to dilate e. The parasympathetic nervous system is causing her piloerector muscles to contract (goosebumps)

176. Which of the following is NOT characteristic rapid depolarization during an action potential? a. An rapid increase of the slope after reaching threshold. b. The activation of the Na+ gate opening also causes a sudden increase to the permeability to sodium followed by an increased influx of sodium ions into the cell. c. The initial activation of the K+ voltage gated channels to open, but they are still closed during this stage. d. A relative refractory period occurs that inhibits a second action potential from being generated in response to a second stimulus. e. The membrane potential changes from -70 mV to +30 mV.

179. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory system? a. Provides a route for water and heat losses. b. Activates certain plasma proteins as they pass through the pulmonary circulation. c. Contributes to the regulation of acid-base balance in the blood. d. Enhances end-systolic volume e. Participates in defense against pathogens and foreign particles in the airways.

19. Polly Dee is a 25-year-old female that was involved in an accident during her NRCHA competition where she fell off her horse and hit her head. In the days following she began experiencing an unquenchable thirst and large volumes of urine output. Polly's symptoms are most likely a result of: a. Increase in the osmolarity of the body fluids causing water to pass the blood brain barrier resulting in swelling of neurons and glial cells, increasing the secretion of ADH and increasing urine output. b. The cytoplasm of her proximal tubules has a decreased number of free ribosomes causing less synthesis of aquaporins, decreasing the movement of water by osmosis, and increasing urine output. c. She has a secondary hypersecretion disorder of the anterior pituitary causing an increased secretion of ADH, increasing the osmolarity of her extracellular fluid, and increasing her urine output. d. The osmolarity of her extracellular fluid is decreased causing less secretion of ADH, decreased water reabsorption by the kidneys, and increased urine output. e. The osmolarity of her extracellular fluid is decreased causing her osmoreceptors to send signals to the motor neurons innervating the multi-unit smooth muscles causing calcium to bind to troponin and initiate contraction of her detrusor muscles.

192. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Thyroid Negative Feedback Loop? a. TSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary. b. The negative feedback loop sends signals to the hypothalamus. c. The negative feedback loop sends signals to the anterior pituitary. d. The negative feedback loops sends signals to the target cell. e. The thyroid gland initiates the negative feedback loop.

193. Which of the following is NOT one of the ion channel types found on a neuron? a. Leak channels b. Ligand-gated channels c. V oltage-gated channels d. Voltage-gated plutonium channel e. V oltage-gated sodium channel

198. During platelet plug formation, what causes the initial step of platelet adhesion? a. blood coming in contact with the endothelium b. secretion of serotonin and epinephrine c. secretion of vWf d. blood coming in contact with subendothelial tissue e. secretion of ADP

2. Which of the following inhibits acetylcholine which induces flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscle? a. curare b. latroxin c. epinephrine d. crotoxin e. cytotoxine

201. Which lists the correct order of air flow through the respiratory system? 1. Larynx 2. Smaller bronchi 3. Alveoli 4. Nasal cavity 5. Tertiary bronchi 6. Terminal bronchioles 7. Primary bronchi 8. Respiratory bronchioles 9. Secondary bronchi 10. Pharynx 11. Bronchioles 12. Trachea 13. Alveolar duct a. 3, 13, 8, 6, 11, 2, 5, 9, 7, 12, 1, 10, 4 b. 13, 9, 4, 2, 6, 8, 1, 5, 3, 11, 7, 10, 12 c. 1, 3, 6, 9, 12, 2, 4, 7, 11, 8, 10, 13, 5 d. 4, 10, 1, 12, 7, 9, 5, 2, 11, 6, 8, 13, 3 e. 4, 1, 10, 12, 7, 9, 5, 2, 11, 8, 6, 13, 3

202. Which of the following parts of the cell cycle is incorrectly described: a. Anaphase: Chromosome pairs separate and move to opposite poles of the cell b. Cytokinesis: Two daughter cells form when the cytoplasm separates. c. Metaphase: Chromosome pairs align and attach to the mitotic spindle at the centromeres d. Prophase: DNA is scattered throughout the nucleus as chromatin e. Telophase: The Nuclear envelope redevelopes and the mitotic spindle breaks down

204. Which of these CANNOT diffuse across a membrane freely through simple diffusion a. Non-polar b. O2 c. Fatty acids d. Glucose e. CandD

208. Which of these is NOT a component of the brain stem? a. medulla oblongata b. pons c. midbrain d. thalamus

209. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Epinephrine? a. It is produced by chromaffin cells inside the adrenal gland b. Acts as an Norepinephrine agonist c. Increases heart rate by binding to autorhythmic cells within the SA and AV nodes. d. Causes bronchoconstriction e. Also known as adrenaline

212. An increase of sympathetic nervous control would NOT have which of the following affects: a. Increase contractility of ventricular myocardium b. Decrease motility of the gastrointestinal tract c. Vasoconstriction of arterioles d. Relaxation of radial muscle in the eye e. Stimulation of the kidneys

213. Which of these statements is TRUE of a resting cell? a. The concentration of Na+ in the ICF is nearly equal to the K+ in the ECF. b. Glucose can cross the cell membrane by active transport. c. K+ enters the cell through leak channels. d. The concentration of H20 in the ICF is less than the concentration of H20 in the ECF. e. Both b and d.

218. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of histamine? a. Histamine is an example of a paracrine messenger. b. Histamine is secreted through mast cells located throughout the body. c. Histamine is secreted by a nonphagocytic cells. d. Histamine is releases by agranulocyte cells which up make up a portion of the leukocytes. e. Histamine results in bronchoconstriction.

22. Angiotensin II is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT: A. Stimulates the release of vasopressin B. IncreasesMeanArterialPressure C. Stimulatesthirst D. Stimulates Arterial Vasodilation E. More then one is correct

23. Which of the following is not a component of the limbic system? a. hippocampus b. cerebral cortex c. amygdale d. midbrain e. hypothalamus

25. Saul Tedaug has been experiencing extreme thirst. He went to the doctor to ask for blood tests, and has discovered that he suffers from hypernatremia (high plasma sodium concentration). Which of the following could be a complication of this disorder? a. Poor sensitivity in his fingertips due to the inability of his sensory neurons to depolarize because of the low electrochemical gradient of Sodium b. Swelling of cells due to the body's attempt to re-establish homeostasis c. High water reabsorption due to decreased sodium concentration in the interstitial fluid surrounding the nephron d. Increased frequency of action potentials in cardiac contractile cells due to increased flow of sodium through the Voltage-Gated Sodium channels e. Increased equilibrium potential of sodium and normal electrochemical gradient of sodium

26. You are walking to class when suddenly you trip over a rock and scrape your knee and it begins to bleed. Being a physiology student, you are interested in the body's reaction to this. You notice that the area of the scrape is already bleeding less and becoming inflamed. What may be taking place for you to see this? a. Histamine is being secreted. b. Heparin is being secreted. c. Both Heparin and Histamine is being secreted from Eosinophils. d. Basophils in the area are secreting Heparin and Histamine. e. None of the above is happening.

5. Place in order of first to last the correct sequence of events in protein synthesis and release? 1) In the ER lumen, proteolytic enzymes cleave off some amino acids from the prepropeptide, yielding the propeptide. 2) In the smooth ER, the propeptide is packaged into transport vesicles. 3) Translation starts and the ribosome attaches to the rough ER. Polypeptide is formed inside the rough ER lumen, first as a prepropeptide. 4) Propeptide is packaged, stored and released from the Golgi apparatus. More amino acids are cleaved off by proteolytic ezymes in the Golgi apparatus or in the secretory vesicle to give the final product, a peptide. 5) The vesicles transport the propeptide to the Golgi apparatus. 6) Release occurs by exocytosis a. 1,2,3,4,5,6 b. 3,4,2,5,1,6 c. 3,1,2,4,5,6 d. 3,1,2,5,4,6 e. 2,1,3,5,4,6

55. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a lipophilic ligand? a. It is lipid soluble b. It is not water soluble c. Some examples are steriods and eicosanoids d. A phospholipid bilayer receptor is required e. Its target response is involved in gene activation

58. Which of the following is true concerning the Na/K pump? a. It is used to establish the concentration gradients required for the resting membrane potentials of neurons b. It activates only if the neuron reaches threshold c. It is used to maintain concentration gradients for neurons d. a and c are correct e. none of the above are correct

6. You have a patient named Katy in the Norman Regional Emergency Room who has just been bitten by a snake. The venom of this snake is causing phosphodiesterase levels in her body to increase above normal. How would this affect the patient? a. Your patient would not be able to see as well because phosphodiesterase causes cAMP levels in the cytosol of the rods and cones to decrease. b. Your patient would have difficulty generating skeletal muscle movements because phosphodiesterase causes cGMP levels in the cytosol to decrease, which decreases the amount of action potentials that are fired in the pre-synaptic neuron. c. Your patient would have an increased heart rate because her body is in a fight-or flight state and this will allow the sodium funny channels and the T-type calcium channels to stay open longer, which will depolarize the membrane faster and cause the heart rate to increase. d. Your patient would have an increased urine output due to phosphodiesterase causing cAMP levels on the basolateral membrane to decrease, causing a decreased permeability to water at the apical membrane for water reabsorption into the peritubular capillaries. e. Your patient would have a decreased rate of digestion because phosphodiesterase causes cGMP levels in the stomach to decrease causing the stomach to not be able to contract as much. This allows less food to be broken down in the stomach and less nutrients reabsorbed in the small intestine.

62. Which of the following components of the limbic system functions in learning and the ability to process memories? a. Fornix b. Cingulate Gyrus c. Parahippocampal Gyri d. Hippocampus e. Amygdala

63. Which of the following is true regarding the state of a photoreceptor in the dark? a. Retinal and opsin dissociate. b. Sodium channels close. c. Transducin is activated. d. Calcium channels open in response to depolization. e. cGMP levels in cytosol decrease.

64. Which of the following muscle(s) have all of the following characteristics...involuntary, myogenic, gap junctions, binds to troponin? a. skeletal b. smooth - multi unit c. smooth - single unit d. cardiac e. more than one of the above are correct

66. What kind of receptors located on the SR membrane transmit electrical signals from the T-tubules to the SR? a. End plate receptors b. Ryanodine receptors c. Muscarininc receptors d. DHP receptors e. Nicotinic receptors

70. What do goblet cells secrete? a. blood b. hormones c. cilia d. mucus e. proteins

74. The Thyroid hormone promotes which of the following: a. Glycogenolysis only b. Glycogenolysis and proteosynthesis c. Lipolysis and Proteolysis d. A and C are correct e. None of the above

8. The Autonomic nervous system connects to what type of effecter organs? a.skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle only b.smooth muscle, skeletal muscle, and glands c.smooth muscle and cardiac muscle only d.smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands e.skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

81. Which of the following is NOT true regarding peroxisomes? a. They are similar in appearance to lysosomes but smaller. b. The function in the degradation of amino acids, fatty acids, and toxic foreign matter. c. They often produce hydrogen peroxide. d. They have a double membrane. e. They contain catalase to break down the toxic hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.

86. Termination of the actions of cAMP requires its degradation by which of the following? a. Protein Kinase A b. Adenylate Cyclase c. Phospholipase C d. Phosphodiesterase e. Calcium

88. Which of the following are Primary Endocrine organs? a. Hypothalamus b. Pancreas c. Kidney d. Two of these are correct e. All of these are correct

89. Which of the following is the correct order of layers of the Adrenal gland, going from superficial to deep? a. Capsule, Zona Reticularis, Zona Glomerulosa, Zona Fasciculata, Adrenal Medulla b. Adrenal Medulla, Capsule, Zona Glomerulosa, Zona Fasciculata, Zona Reticularis c. Zona Glomerulosa, Capsule, Zona Fasciculata, Zona Reticularis, Adrenal Medulla d. Capsule, Zona Glomerulosa, Zona Fasciculata, Zona Reticularis, Adrenal Medulla e. Capsule, Zona Reticularis, Zona Fasciculata, Adrenal Medulla, Zona Glomerulosa

9. which of the following factors affect the changes in stroke volume? a. a measure of the ventricle's capacity for generating force. b.End-diastolicvolume c. Preloadoftheend-systolicvolume D.BothAandB E. BothAandC

90. Which channel is NOT correctly matched with the zone on the neuron? a. Trigger Zone; Na/K voltage gated b. Input Zone; Leak channels c. Output Zone; Ca+ voltage gated d. Trigger Zone; Leak channels e. Input Zone; Ligand gated ion channels

129. What is the term for a motor neuron plus all the muscles it innervates? a. Motor end plate b. Terminal bouton c. Neuromuscular junction d. Action potential e. Motor unit

91. Which of the following is not true regarding relative and absolute refractory periods? a. No action potentials can be generated during the absolute refractory period because most of the Na+ inactivation gates are closed during this period. b. The stimulus needed to generate an action potential during the relative refractory period needs to be stronger than normal. c. The absolute refractory period keeps action potentials from summing by preventing action potentials from overlapping. d. During the relative refractory period the stimulus must be stronger, because it needs to open more K+ channels to counteract the outflow of Na+ during repolarization. e. The absolute refractory period occurs between the beginning of depolarization and the end of repolarization.

93. Which of the following is NOT an example of a neuropeptide? aEndogenous opioids bTRH cV asopressin dAch eSubstance P

follicle cells (granulose cells) contain

develping ovum

fraternal twins are

dizygotic and come from two separate eggs

site of secretion, stimuli for secretion and actions for scretin

duodenum and jejunum. acid in duodenum. inhibits gastric secretion and motility; stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion; potentiates actions of CCK on pancreatic enzyme secretion; stimulates bile secretion by liver

site of secretion, stimuli for secretion and actions for cholecystokinin CCK

duodenum and jejunum. fat or protein digestion products in duodenum. inhibits gastric secretion and motility; potentiates ations of scretin on pancreatic bicarbonate secretion; stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion; stimulates bil secretion by liver; stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of sphincter of oddi

what causes the Lh surge?

during the late follicular phase, increased estrogen secretion causes positive feedbach and for Lh to increase. FSH doesn't increase because of inhibin.

105. Which of the following is the most correct answer regarding the function/activity of the Sympathetic Nervous System? a. Contraction of the circular muscle of the iris b. Increase blood flow to the smooth muscle of the digestive system c. Decreased the kidney's Glomerular Filtration Rate d. The neurotransmitter Ach binds to Cholinergic receptors located in the heart e. End Systolic volume is lower than the Normal Volume

106. Which of the following affect the force generated by individual muscle fibers? a. The frequency of stimulation b. The fibers diameter c. The changes in the length of the fiber d. Bothaandc e. All of the above

11. Quiet breathing is known as ____ and the difference between alveolar and atmospheric pressure is generally less than ____ mm Hg. A. Apnea, 2 B. Dyspnea,2 C. Eupnea,6 D. Apnea,3 E. Eupnea, 2

111. Which of the following is likely to cause a decrease in the stroke volume of the left ventricles? A. An increase in end diastolic volume B. Anincreaseintheactivityofsympatheticnervestotheheart C. An increase in central venous pressure D. An increase in end diastolic pressure E. An increase in mean arterial pressure

115. Which of the following is TRUE regarding an increase in stroke volume? a. An increase in cardiac output and a decrease in sympathetic activity. b. An increase in MAP and a decrease in glomerular filtration rate. c. A decrease in MAP and a decrease in the action potential frequency of arteriole baroreceptors. d. A decrease in cardiac output and a decrease in venous return. e. An increase in arteriole blood pressure and an increase in glomerular filtration pressure.

130. Which of the following is the most correct answer regarding the function/activity of the Sympathetic Nervous Systerm? a. Contraction of the circular muscle of the iris b. Increase blood flow to the smooth muscle of the digestive system c. Increased the Kidney's Glomerular Filtration Rate d. The neurotransmitter Ach binds to Cholinergic receptors located in the heart e. End Systolic volume is lower than the Normal Volume

138. The forces that drive the movement of fluid into and out of capillaries are called starling forces. They include which of the following? a. Capillary hydrostatic pressure. b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Capillary osmotic pressure d. Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure e. All of the above

142. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY stated regarding muscles in the body? a. The circular muscles in the muscularis externa are myogenic and can generate slow wave potentials. b. Action potentials in skeletal muscle are propagated by the binding of Ach to nicotinic cholinergic receptors on the motor end plate. c. Cardiac muscle is comprised of intercalated disks and desmosomes which help the heart muscle cope with stress and resist stretching. d. Smooth muscle concentration decreases as you descend the respiratory tract (i.e. larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles) e. In skeletal muscle contraction, the Z lines do not move, but the H zone and A bands both shorten.

148. Which of the following is true regarding the concentrations of solutes? a. Extra cellular fluid is rich in Ca+ b. Intra cellular fluid is rich in K+ c. Intra cellular fluid is rich in Ca+ d. Extra cellular fluid is rich in Na+ e. Two of the above are correct

149. Which of the following is NOT a form of indirect communication of chemical messengers? a. Autocrine. b. Neurotransmitters. c. Hormones.. d. Neurohormones. e. Gap Junctions.

156. Which of the following is a chemical class of a neurotransmitter? a. Aceylcholine b. Biogenic Amines c. Amino Acids d. Neuropeptides e. All of the above

16. Pyrimidines contain a single carbon ring, which of the following is/are considered a pyrimidines? a) Cytosine and Uracil b) Adenine and Guanine c) Thymine d) BandC e) AandC

163. You are overwhelmed by the intensity, but in a few moments your vision is restored to normal. Which of the following best explains what has happened to you? have just walked out of the movie theater exit into bright sunshine. Your eyes a. The cones have become hyperpolarized, unable to code for any additional brightness b. The rods have become hyperpolarized, unable to code for any additional brightness c. Rhodopsin has absorbed light, and the opsin is in its active form d. Opsin has absorbed light, and the rhodopsin is in its active form e. More than one of the above is correct

164. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby Angiotensin II can increase mean arterial pressure? a. Stimulation of Systemic arterioles to increase vasoconstriction. b. Stimulation of the Adrenal cortex to secrete Aldosterone. c. Stimulation the Posterior pituitary to secrete ADH. d. Activation of Hypothalamic neurons to increase thirst. e. All of the above are ways Angiotensin II can increase MAP.

17. Which of the following is true about myopia? a. It is also known as far-sightedness. b. The cornea is too strong for the length of the eyeball. c. To correct vision, you would use a concave lens. d. The eye can focus on close-up objects without accomodation. e. B, C, and D are true.

171. Which of the following is the most abundant type of leukocyte? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Lymphocytes d. Monocytes e. Neutrophils

178. In order for inspiration to occur, which of the following best describes muscle action? a. Relaxation of the diaphragm causing it to press up on the lungs and contraction of the external intercostals causing the chest to rise up and move out b. Relaxation of the diaphragm causing it to press up on the lungs and relaxation of the external intercostals causing the chest to rise up and move out c. Contraction of the diaphragm causing it to flatten and move down and relaxation of the external intercostals causing the chest to rise up and move out d. Relaxation of the diaphragm causing it to flatten and move down and contraction of external intercostals causing the chest to rise up and move out e. Contraction of the diaphragm causing it to flatten and move down and contraction of external intercostals causing the chest to rise up and move out

185. Which of the following chemical messangers is lipophobic? a. Amino acids only b. Steroids only c. Amines only d. Amino acids and Steroids only e. Amino acids, Amines, and Peptides/ Proteins

191. Which is not a function of a G-Protein/ Second messenger system? a. When retinal and opsin dissociate, causes the G-protein the activate phosphodiesterase which breaks down cAMP in phototranduction in the light. b. Augment the opening of VG K+ channels and the closing of T-Type Ca channels to decrease heart rate when the parasympathetic NS is in control. c. Activates adenylate cyclase to convert A TP into cAMP , which activates protein kinase, which phosphyorlates Funny channels and T-Type Ca channels to open longer, and K+ channels to close sooner, which in turn causes the heart rate to increase when the sympathetic NS is I control d. G-protein activates PIP2, which activates IP3, which stimulates the opening of Ca channels on the surface of the SR, in turn increasing binding to calmodulin. e. All of the above

195. What factor enhances venous pressure and venous return? a. Skeletal muscle pump b. Respiratory pump c. Blood volume d. V enomotor tone e. All of the above

199. Which of the following is true regarding sodium reabsorption? a. In all tubular segments sodium ions are actively transported b. Transport of the Na ions helps keep concentration high in the intracellular fluid c. Aldosterone plays a role in sodium reabsorption d. Atrial natriuretic peptide increases sodium reabsorption e. More than 1 of these is correct

20. Which of the following are components of the brainstem? a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Medulla Oblongata d. A&Conly e. All of the above

205. Which of the following is a factor that affects the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? a. Catalytic rate b. Affinity c. pH d. Enzyme concentration e. All of the above

what phases of the ovarian cycle and uterine cycle overlap?

follicular phase overlaps with menstrual and proliferative and luteral phase overlaps secretory phase

29. Bob has a disease that is destroying the cells of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex, causing a hypo-secretion of aldosterone. Which of the following would be a result? a. Bob would have an increase of potassium reabsorption and a decrease sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the renal medulla b. Since aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid which falls in the class of adrenocorticoids (Steriod Hormones) and other hormones are released from the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system aldosterone should also be synthesized and secreted this way as well as through the adrenal cortex c. Bob has high blood pressure because he has an increased MAP due to failure of the kidneys to excrete sufficient amounts of sodium and water d. Aldosterone is hydrophobic and lipophilic which means it requires a transmembrane protein to diffuse across the plasma membrane and has a high membrane permeability meaning that the hypo-secretion of aldosterone will have no effect on Bob e. Because of the decreased levels of aldosterone Bob would have higher potassium levels in his blood because of the decrease in sodium reabsorption and the decrease in potassium secretion

29. Stroke volume, which is the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a single heartbeat, is influenced by which factors: A. Cardiac Output and Afterload B. Preload, Central V enous Pressure, and End Diastolic V olume C. Ventricular Contractility and Cardiac Output D. Cardiac Output and Preload E. End Diastolic Volume, Ventricular Contractility, and Afterolad

3. Which of the following has Adrenergic Receptors? a. SA or AV node that is innervated by Sympathetic branch of ANS b. Postganglionic fiber c. Arteriolar smooth muscle d. All of the above e. AorC

30. A. Billy Fye has been under a lot of stress lately due to the abundance of work he is required to do in his physiology class. Unfortunately for him, he has been under this stress for 5 years seeing as how he can't seem to pass Dr. K's class! Because of this excess stress, Billy's body has elevated levels of cortisol that just won't go away. This high level of cortisol (chronic) has caused Billy's thymus to atrophy and his immune system was significantly hindered causing him to develop the flu multiple times this year. Which of these statements about cortisol is INCORRECT? a. Cholesterol is a precursor to cortisol, which is a lipophilic steroid hormone that mainly travels bound to carrier proteins. b. Excess cortisol can lead to Cushing's syndrome, which could include symptoms such as hyperglycemia. c. After synthesis, coritsol can immediately diffuse into the blood stream from the adrenal cortex. d . Cortisol receptors are located in the cytosol or nucleus of the target cell and involve activation of a gene. e. An increase in cortisol secretion will cause your kidneys to increase water reabsorption, and decrease water excretion resulting in an increased MAP.

32. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the use smooth muscle? a) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels in order to increase total peripheral resistance and increase MAP b) Contraction of the detrusor muscle by the parasympathetic nervous system in the bladder c) Contraction of the circular muscle of the eye during parasympathetic stimulation d) Peristalsis in the GI tract e) Contraction of the external anal sphincter in defecation

35. which of the following is not true regarding interferons? aStimulates the production of antibodies. bSlows down cell division and tumor growth. cEnhances phagocyte activity of macrophages. dEnhances killing power of Natural Killer cells and Cytoxic T-cells eAll above answers are correct.

5. Nube Abie was born prematurely in the summer of 1994. At his twenty four month checkup, Dr. Addison Montgomery found him to have decreased motor skills and muscle development when compared to a normal two year old. Nube has yet to start walking or standing and is doing minimal amounts of crawling. Due to his symptoms, which of the following can immediately be ruled out as a cause of his decreased motor development? a. Fewer muscarinic cholinergic receptors on the motor end plate, causing decreased voluntary movement. b. A rare neuromuscular disorder that causes the demyelination of nerves of the peripheral nervous system. c. A hyposecreting tumor on the parathyroid gland resulting in decreased available calcium in the extracellular fluid. d. Nube has an underdeveloped prefrontal cortex. e. Increased calcium in the cytosol due to hypersensitive DHP receptors.

50. Erythrocytes have a high capacity for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide because they contain what two proteins in their cytoplasm? a. globulins and fibrinogen b. hemoglobin and albumins c. fibrinogen and hemoglobulin d. albumins and globulins e. carbonic anhydrase and hemoglobin

61. Which of the following is a reason why proteins can not cross the blood-brain barrier? a. There are no pores in between endothelial cells b. There are astrocytes on the capillaries helping maintain the tight junctions between the endothelial cells using unknown mechanisms c. Transcytosis can not occur in brain capillaries. d. Hydrophillic molecules must be transported across the endothelial cell's membrane via transport systems e. All of the above are reasons why proteins can not cross the blood-brain barrier

7. What type of ligand requires a trans-membrane protein to cross the cell membrane? a. A Lipophobic ligand b. A Hydrophobic ligand c. A Hydrophilic ligand d. A water soluble ligand e. a, c, d are all correct

83. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding carriers transmembrane proteins in facilitated diffusion? A. Carrier transmembrane proteins undergo a conformational change to release the molecule into the cell B. Carriers have multiple binding sites C. Carriers are specific for certain substances D.Glucose is a substance that would need a carrier protein to cross the plasma into the cell E. All of the above are correct

85. In messenger transport, diffusion through the interstitial fluid when the secretor cell and the target cell are close is best exemplified by: a.) Neurotransmitter release at the neuromuscular junction b.) NT release from the Rods in the eye to the bipolar cells in photo-transduction c.) Cytokine release by Suppressor T-cells d.) None of these is correct e.) A, B, and C are correct

97. Which of the following is the most commonly found photoreceptor located in the eye? a. Bipolar Cells b. Amacrine Cells c. Cones d. Ganglion Cells e. Rods

the digestive system is regulated extrinsically by the

enteric NS and varius paracrine regulators.

what are the 3 layers of the mucosa

epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa

which 2 phases of the sexual response are sympathetic and which one is parasympathetic?

erection is parasympathetic and emission and ejaculation is sympathetic

what hormone helps the development of the lining

estrogen

which two hormones inhibit lactation

estrogen and progesterone

what causes poop to be pooped out

feces streches the rectum and activates stretch receptors. smooth muscles around the rectum causes contraction and the external sphicter to relax.

what is satiety?

feeling full

purpose of the vagina

female organ of copulation, surface bathed in acid fluid secreted from uterus or glands in cervix. this protects against bacterial infections

limited gamete production

females are born with a set # of oogocites

3 phases of oogenesis are

fetal development, prior to ovulation, after fertilization

what moves ova from the ovaries, how does it happen, and how long does it take?

fimbriae and entundibulum help move the ova. they do this by peristalsis first and then ciliary actions. It takes 4 days for the ova to reach the uterine tube.

the tail piece of the sperm

flagellum = used for motility

why do estrogen and progesterone levels stay high during pregnancy?

hCG secreted from the placenta sustains corpus luteum. the corpus luteum will sustain for a couple months and then the majority of estrogen and progesterone is coming form the placenta

how does CCK help bile secretion?

high CCK plasma levels will increase gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of oddi. This allows for bile secretion

how doese secretin help bile secretion

high acid levels cause high plasma secretin levels. high secretin levels cause the liver to secrete bile and will be released in to the duodenum with the help of CCK

what happens after fertilization

if the secondary oocyte is fertalized, meiosis 2 will happen and the secondary oocyte will turn into an ovum.

explain the 3rd step of the ovarian luteal phase

if the secondary oocyte isn't fertalized, the corpus luteum will begin to degeneration into scar tissue called corpus albicans with causes estrogen and progesterone evels to decrease. low estrogen and progesterone levels will start the folllicular phase all over again

site of secretion, stimuli for secretion and actions for GIP

inhibits gastric secretion and motility; stimulates insulin secretion by pancreas.

short term satiety factors?

insulin and CCK and neural input form mechano and chemo receptors. Once insulin is secreted, it doesn't allow the hypothalamus to trigger satiety.

is the gastric regulation phase long or short?

long

what does it mean the cervix ripens

it gets softer because enzymatic breakdown of tissue in the region to help the birth

long term satiety factor

leptin

Pathway for leptin

leptin made in adipose tissue > A - MSh and CART are made in the arcuate nucleus and they travel to the lateral hypothalamic area to induce satiety and to the paraventricular nucleus to stimulate the release of CRH and TRH > CRH and TRH trigger ACTH and TSH release from anterior pituitary > thyroid gland and adrenal cortex release cortisol and TH which increases metabolism.

is the intestinal regulation phase long or short?

long

what triggers the release of secretin?

low Ph in the duodenum.

stimuli for an erection?

mechanical stimulation and activity in descending neural pathways from brain

which 3 phases make up the uterine cycle?

menstrual phase when happens first. the proliferative phase which happens second. and the secretory phase which happens last.

the follicular phase goes from

menstruatio to ovulation

what occurs during the menstrual phase

menstruation which is decrease blood delivery to the endometrium and causes menstrual flow which is the dead bloody uterus lining falling out of the vagina.

what plexus makes up the submucosa

messiner's (submucosal) plexus

the midpiece of the sperm

mitochondria

what happens during fetal development

mitosis of oogonia and the development of primary oocyte. primary oocyte stop production at meiotic arrest because ether the female hasnt under gone puberty or the female is about to ovulate.

identical twins are

monozygotic and come from one egg

List the 4 major layers of the GI wall

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria, serosa

what do exocrine globlet cells on the mucosa membrane secrete?

mucus

what does the bulbourethral glands secrete?

mucus that protects the lining of the urethra and acts as a lubricant

what happens during cephalic regulation

mucus, pepsinogen, and HCI all increase from parasympathetic stimulation

the circular muscle is myogenic or neurogenic?

myogenic

the longitudinal muscle is myogenic or neurogenic?

neurogenic

steps of oogenesis

oogonia (2n) > mitosis > primary oocyte (2n x 2)> meiotic arrest > meiosis 1 > secondary oocyte (n x 2) > meiosis 2 > ovum (2n).

long term feeding behavior

orexigenic factors. (neuropeptide Y and agouti-related peptide) they increase parasympathetic activity and inhibit ACTH and TSH so that eating is promoted

the menstrual cycle contains 2 cycles, what are they

ovarian cycle and uterine cycle which both over lap each.

If there is not a presence of the Y gene, what will be produced.

ovaries will be produced. There will be an absence of testosterone which therefore means no male reproductive structures and wolffian ducts. The absence of MIS as well will to development of mullerian ducts and femal reproductive structures.

reproductive tract

overy > uterine tube > uterus > cervix > vagina > labium minus > labium majus

the luteal phase goes from

ovulation to before menstruation

Parasympathetic and sympathetic salivation

para - very watery symph - thick, mucusy

what stimulates pepsinogen secretion?

parasympathetic, gastrin, histamine

what cells produce HCI?

parietal cells

The three salivary glands?

parotid, sublingual, submandibular

all endocrine GI homrones are

peptides and are lipophobic.

what does smooth muscles in the testes do?

peristalsis, propel sperm

what does the trophoblast help with

plays a role in implantation

what does the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle do?

prepares for a fertalized ovum by 1. endometrial lining, layer, and gland development 2. smooth muscle layer thickening 3. cervical glands secrete mucus.

what does the secretory phase do?

prepares for zygote implantation 1. increases blood supply 2. enlarged glands that secrete glycogen rich fluid 3. cerivcal secretions that form a plug that happen bc of high progesterone levels.

explain the 1st step of the ovarian follicular phase

primary oocyte begins to develop follicular cells around its self. This is called the primordial stage and primordial follicle.

which 2 hormoens stimulate lactation

prolactin and oxytocin

what 2 glands and 1 kind of vessicles does the reproductive tract bypasss

prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles

what does plasma testosterone do

protein synthesis, libido, secondary sex characteristics

what does the parasympathetic system do during an erection

relaxes smooth muscles in arterioles to allow more blood flow. cause vasodilation in the dick. it also causes the release of nitric oxide that causes vasodilation

how do you turn off cephalic phase?

remove the stimulus

what does the prostate gland secrete?

secrete citrate that also adds energy for the sperm motility and it adds enzymes that breakdown semen clots when sperm is in the female reproductive tract

how does the trophoblast penetrate the endometrium

secretes enzymes that digest endometrial cells to provide noursihment for embryo. they also secrete paracrine that stimulate decidual response (increased O2 and nutrient delivery to the area). the trophoblast also develops into the placenta

where is the site of sperm production in the testes?

seminferous tubules

which path reflex pathway doesn't use the ANS for GI control?

short reflex

when the circular muscle contract, the diameter of the lumen?

shortens

when the longitudinal muscle contracts, the diameter of the lumen

shortens

purpose of the uterus

site of female development. contains the cervix. Contains a middle layer called the myometrium which is the thickest layer and contains smooth muscle. contains an inner layer called the endometrium that contains epithelial cells, connective tisue, and numerous glands.

males are born with a finite # of what after puberty?

spermatogonia

label the order of spermatogenesis

spermatogonia(2n) > mitosis > primary spermatocytes (2n x 2) > meiosis 1 > secondary spermatocytes (n x 2) > meiosis 2 > spermatids (n) > spermatozoa (n)

what does the sympathetic system do during ejaculation

stimulates contractions of smooth muscle in urethra and skeletal muscle at base of penis. Stimulates colosure of internal urethral sphincter so semen doesn't with urine.

what does LH stimulate the secretion of?

stimulates the secretion of testosterone form leydig cells

oxytocin stimulate milk ejection reflex form

stimulating myoepithelial smooth muscle of the alveoli

the circular and longitudinal muscles in the muscularis mucosa main job is to

stir the luminal contents in the gut

GI hormones are S/S by the

stomach and small intestines *secondary endocrine organs

site of secretion, stimuli for secretion and actions for gastrin

stomach, proteins and protein digestion products, distension of stomach; parasympathetic input to stomach

what happens during gastric regulation?

stretch receptors and chemoreceptors detect distension and acid in the stomach. This stimuli trigger both submucosal and myenteric plexuses to activate the secretory cells.

where is the site where parasympathetic preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic neurons that innervate smooth muscle of the GI tract?

submucosal plexus and myenteric plexus

what happens with submucosal plexus during cephalic regulation.

submucosal will stimulate the mucous, cheif, and pariteal cells to secrete there shit but it also stimulates G cells to secrete gastrin that travels through the blood and reinforces these cells to keep on secreting their shit.

what do sertoli cells support?

support sperm development

If there is a presence of the Y gene, what will be produced

testes will be produced. There will also be a presence of tesosterone will develop in the wolffian duct and then the male reproductive structures. There will also be a presence of MIS which will regress mullerian duct formation

what do leydig cells secrete?

testosterone

how do sperm penetrate the oocyte

the acrosomal part of their head releases enzymes that break through the zona pellucida.

what is potentiation?

the amplification of one hormone effect by another hormone. (CCK and secretin)

how does vomiting work?

the contraction of the abdominal muscles causes the abdominal pressure to increase which causes the stomach volume to decrease and pushes throw up out of the stomach and into the esphogus.

explain the 2nd step of the ovarian luteal phase

the corpus luteum will secrete estrogen and progesterone.

explain the 2nd step of the ovarian follicular phase

the follicular cells around the primordial follicle begin to turn into granulosa. this stage is called granulosa.

explain the 1st step of the ovarian luteal phase

the graafian follicle will repture and the secondary oocyte will travel to the uterine tube. the rest of the reptured follicle will transform in the corpus luteum gland.

explain the 5th step of the ovarian follicular phase

the graafian follicle will undergo meiosis 1 and this primary oocyte will turn into the secondary oocyte. After this, Luteal phase will occur

what does the lining of the endometrial of the uterus look like during the uterine cycle?

the lining is thin during the menstrual phase but gets thicker during the proliferative phase and secretory phase

what are mesenteries?

the mesenteries of the serosa is a system of clear; thin membranes that interconnects most of the abdominal organs and houses nerves and blood vessels running to them.

what is the peritoneum?

the peritoneum in the serosa is part of the mesenteries that lining the inside of the abdominal cavity.

What is the swallowing reflex?

the presence of food in the mouth stimulates the medulla which causes mechanoreceptors to inititate chewing

The presence of what in the duodenum cause CCk and GIP secretion?

the presence of lipid and carbohydrates.

explain the 3rd step of the ovarian follicular phase.

the primoridial follice is now considered a primary follicle and the stage of development is called the preantral stage. This stages consist of the granulosa cells secrete the zona pellucida which will then form into the theca

what is happening in the duodenum during intestinal regulation?

the s/s of CCK, GIP and secretin is happening

explain the 4 step of the ovarian follicular phase.

the theca of the primary follicle will turn into an antrum and the follicle will now be called a secondary follicle. This stage of development is called the early antral stage and if the secondary follicle is selected, it be the one follicle selected to develop into maturity and be called the dominant follicle. The domiant follicle will grow and enter the late antral phase where the antrum and granulosa cells will form a corona radiata and cumulus oophorus. The follicle is now called a graafian follicle.

what triggers parturiton?

the theory is that fetus converts DHEA in estrogen which initiates parturition

the chorium that encapsulate the embryo is derived from

the tropoblast.

what nerve innervates the GI tract and cause parasymphathetic actoins

the vagal nerve innverates all of the GI tract except for the large intestine whic receives signals from the sacral region

what happens one a sperm reaches the receptors of the oocyte

the zona pellucida hardens to prevent polyspermy = so that other sperm won't penetrate the egg

what are the name of the lymph nodes in the lamina propria and why are they there

they are called peyer's patches and they are there bc they are close to the lumen and the blood vessels in the lamina propria

what do g cells of the mucosa membrane secrete?

they secrete the hormone gastrin into the blood stream

what does CCK, GIP, and Secretin inhibit?

they will inhibit chief and parietal cells along with peristalsis.

what does the scrotum hang out over the body?

to allow the sperm to stay cool and not be altered by the bodies heat.

why does the endometrium swell when the blastocyst enter the cell wall

to increase glycogen stores that provide energy and substance for the growing zygote

where are ovum fertalized at?

uterine tube

cephalic regulation is short or long?

very short.

what is colostrum?

watery milk produced 1st few days after birth. rich in antibodies and proteins but not nutrients. milk after this is far better with nutrients but not as many antibodies

If ovum is fertalized, where does it go? If ovum is not fertalized, where does it go?

will be implanted into the uterus wall if fertalized it will exit out the vagina if not fertalized

Does the activity in the distal segment precede the activity in the proximal segment?

physiology final

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