PMP STUDY SET V2

1. A software team tracing the root cause of an application failure can use this to help determine the cause(s) of the failure: A. Ishikawa diagram B. Rummler-Brache swim lane diagram C. Threading analysis D. Deming chart

1. A - Cause-and-effect diagrams, also called Ishikawa diagrams, illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects.

1. At a division project status meeting, all attendees receive a dashboard of cost metrics for each project, and each project manager is presenting the status of his or her project. The metrics for one project show a BAC of $1100, an EV of $998, and an EAC of $1099. However, the project manager is reporting an ETC of $354. What do you do? A. Notify the appropriate management there is a calculation error B. Do nothing C. Advise the project manager to take the additional funds from her p contingency budget D. Congratulate the project manager for being under budget

1. A - If ETC is being reported, then EAC should be AC + ETC. You must notify the appropriate management that there is a calculation error. Project managers are required by the PMI Code to accept ownership of their own errors and to report to the appropriate management any errors they have observed being made by others. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. You are working for a large project organization with several project managers working on 15 projects. All project managers submit their status reports at month's end. One of your fellow project managers, Jane, has reported an error in the past two months. From discussions with one of her project's team members who is also working on one of your projects, you realize Jane is deliberately misreporting the project's status to inflate her performance for the annual performance appraisal next month. The month end review meeting is in two days, and you are preparing your own presentation for it. What should you say about her status report? A. Investigate and verify the blame before reporting the incorrect stat the appropriate management. B. Since there is no direct relationship between your project and hers, the no need to intervene in this issue. C. Prepare a brief of what you have discussed with her team member report the inconsistency in the meeting D. Send an email to her boss asking to check the contents of her report

1. A - Investigate and verify the blame before reporting the incorrect status to the appropriate management. Project managers are required by PMI's Code of Ethics to provide truthful and accurate information, and to report errors and omissions of others to the appropriate management. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. David's project is currently in difficult times, and the project stakeholders are not happy with the project updates they receive. In a meeting with the project sponsor, David said the stakeholders' attitude is irrational since he personally ensures that all project communications are accurate and timely. Mary, the project sponsor, advises David that he needs to go the extra mile in managing the stakeholders rather than just managing the project communications. What does Mary mean? A. David needs to pay attention to the Manage Stakeholder Engage process. B. The project's communications management plan is not comprehensive C. David is not performing the Monitor Communications process. D. David needs to issue a change request.

1. A - Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process of communicating and working with stakeholder to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle. Mary has advised David to pay attention to stakeholder management rather than just relying on communications management processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

1. You are managing a project for your company constructing an office complex in another country. The construction work on two of the buildings is complete, and those buildings are ready for move-in. However, the construction supervisor informs you that you must pay a fee to a local government agency to issue an occupancy permit for any new construction in that country. What should you do? A. Pay the fee B. Ask your legal department if this is legal C. Notify project stakeholders that you have been asked to pay a bribe D. Do not pay the fee

1. A - Pay the fee to the local agency. Because it is a standard fee for a permit that is required of all new construction, it is not a bribe. PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct prohibits accepting or paying bribes. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. The Cost Performance Baseline is a time-phased budget and is used as a basis to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance of the project. It is usually displayed in the form of: A. An S-curve B. An inverted S-curve. C. Pie-chart D. A Z curve

1. A - The correct response is an S-curve (or S curve). The Cost Performance Baseline is a time-phased budget and is used as a basis to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance of the project. It is usually displayed in the form of an S-curve and is developed by summing estimated costs by period. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 254] [Project Cost Management]

1. Andy has just become the project manager of a multi-million-dollar construction project. Andy also has an approved project charter that authorizes him to apply organizational resources to the project. Now, Andy wants to take all key stakeholders onboard with the project charter. Where can Andy find a preliminary list of all key stakeholders? A. Project charter B. Stakeholder register C. Project management plan D. Risk register

1. A - The project has just been approved and all Andy has at the moment is the project charter itself. The project charter has a preliminary list of project stakeholders. Andy can use this list as a starting point. [PMBOK

1. While planning the schedule for your project, you frequently refer to the project calendar. The project calendar is: A. A calendar containing the days on which various meetings are scheduled with the project team. B. A calendar of working days or shifts that establishes those dates on w schedule activities are worked. C. A calendar containing the list of days on which the project team mem will be on leave or take an "off." D. A calendar that establishes the dates on which project deliverables the customer.

1. B - A project calendar is a calendar of working days or shifts that establishes those dates on which schedule activities are worked. It also establishes non-working days that determine dates on which schedule activities are idle, such as holidays, weekends and non-shift hours. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 220] [Project Schedule Management]

1. A government agency has awarded your company a massive software project. This project has an early completion incentive, and your company has a policy of paying a bonus to the project manager if such an incentive is awarded. However, this particular government agency has a reputation for being extremely difficult to work with; there is a great deal of bureaucracy within this agency, and stonewalling and hostility toward contractors are common. The project manager will need to have excellent political skills to lead this project successfully. You have been asked to lead the project because of your expertise with this type of project. However, you have never worked within such a highly charged and political environment. What should you do? A. Decline the project citing lack of experience. B. Accept the project but disclose your lack of experience in this ty environment. C. Accept the project and request that a corporate liaison be assigned to project. D. Accept the project.

1. B - Accept the position, but disclose your lack of experience with this type of environment. PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires that project managers accept only those projects for which they have the appropriate qualifications and background. However, if the project stakeholders receive full disclosure and still give their consent, it is permissible to accept a stretch assignment. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. Adaptive project lifecycles, in comparison with predictive project lifecycles, are developed with the intent of: A. Eliminating cost of changes throughout the project's lifecycle B. Providing agility in responding to change C. Maximizing cost of changes throughout the project's lifecycle D. Minimizing cost of changes throughout the project's lifecycle

1. B - Adaptive project life cycles, in comparison with predictive project life cycles, are developed with the intent of providing agility in responding to change. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 74] [Project Stakeholder Management]

1. You have overheard two functional managers arguing about the impacts that your project will have on their departments. What is your best response? A. Do nothing B. Analyze and report to each manager the impact your project will ha their departments in terms of time and resources required and the re enterprise priority of your project C. Inform the managers that the project sponsors already considered impact when they decided to implement the project D. Put in advance requests for resources from each department

1. B - Analyze and report to each manager the impact your project will have on theirs. Not only will this help the functional managers plan proactively for those times that their resources will be required by your project, it will also ease hostility and promote cooperation among staff. PMI's Code of Conduct mandates that project managers act in good faith and provide timely and accurate information to affected stakeholders. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. Which of these is not an input to the Control Procurements process? A. Agreements B. Change requests C. Work performance data D. Project management plan

1. B - Change requests are not inputs to the Control Procurements process. The other choices are valid inputs to this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 492] [Project Procurement Management]

1. You have completed your estimates for your project and have determined that it will take 10 months to complete. However, your project sponsor insists that it be completed in nine months. How do you handle this? A. Increase the budget by 10 percent B. Inform the sponsor you will have to explore the options before common to that timeline C. Reduce scope D. Add resources

1. B - Inform the sponsor you must explore other options before committing to that timeline. Changing the budget, reducing scope, or adding resources are activities that must be agreed on by the project stakeholders before you can proceed. PMI requires project managers to provide timely and accurate information, and to follow all decision-making processes and policies. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. George is managing a construction project and currently sequencing the project activities and defining their logical relationships. Two activities have both the SS and FF relationships. How should George schedule these activities? A. Apply both the relationships. B. Select the relationship with the highest impact. C. Select the SS relationship as this is more logical than the FF relations D. Select the FF relationship as this can help meet the project deadlines.

1. B - Multiple relationships between the same activities are not recommended, so a decision has to be made to select the relationship with the highest impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Scope Management]

1. Which of these is a valid negative risk response? A. Exploit B. Mitigate C. Enhance D. Share

1. B - Risk mitigation is a valid response to negative risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

1. You just initiated a project to establish windmills in a developing country. To celebrate the initiation of the project, the customers arranged a party in which a key customer offered valuables to you and all your project team members with a request to complete the project sooner than the actual finish date. What should you do? A. Accept the offer and agree to finish the project early B. Reject the offer because it violates the code of ethics and profess conduct C. Accept the offer but refuse to complete the project early D. Reject the offer and do not communicate with that customer

1. B - Since the stakeholder made a request by offering gifts, you should refuse the offer. The PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct suggests that a project manager should never engage in unfairness. Favoring one or more customers by taking gifts is not allowed. Thus, you should reject the offer because it violates the Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Not communicating with one customer could impair relationships with other customers. If it is customary in that country to offer gifts, you might accept them without agreeing to the customer's request. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. What is a recommended method for controlling change within a project? A. Have only the project manager able to initiate change. B. Have each change approved or rejected through a formal change co process. C. Allow each project member ultimate control of changes within their of the project without a review process. D. Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes.

1. B - The change control procedure varies from project to project. However, every change request must be processed through a formal change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Integration Management]

1. A good project manager always gathers and documents lessons learned throughout the project lifecycle rather than delaying the effort until the project closure. Which of the following is not a risk associated with postponing the lessons-learned gathering effort until the very end of the project? A. The project manager has fewer resources available. B. The project's earned value decreases. C. Not all lessons learned might get captured. D. The effort might seem boring and non-value-adding.

1. B - The risk of delaying the lessons learned gathering exercise till the very end of the project is that the gathered information might not be complete because the project manager will not have the whole team available rather than those working on the closing phase. Further, this exercise might seem boring and bureaucratic effort. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 100] [Project Integration Management]

1. Which of the following is not a PMBOK Knowledge Area? A. Procurement management B. Integration management C. Execution management D. Communications management

1. C - Execution management is not a PMBOK knowledge area. Note that execution is a process group. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Pages 23, 24] [Project Framework]

1. You are a non-technical project manager. Two highly skilled and knowledgeable resources on your project are in conflict over the best technical solution to meet a project requirement. However, this is not affecting the project schedule. Who is initially responsible for the conflict resolution? A. The project sponsor is initially responsible for the conflict resolution B. The project manager is initially responsible for the conflict resolution C. Both team members are initially responsible for the conflict resolution D. Either of the team members is responsible for the conflict resolution.

1. C - Initially, both team members are responsible for the conflict resolution. If the conflict escalates, the project manager should help facilitate a satisfactory resolution. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 348] [Project Resource Management]

1. You are a certified PMP, and the PMI has contacted you as part of an investigation it is conducting into allegations of improper conduct by your manager, who is also a PMP. A complaint has been filed stating your manager has received bribes related to a large procurement contract on another project. PMI has asked whether you could provide information regarding this situation. What should you do? A. Confront your manager B. Send PMI project documentation and emails related to the allegation assist with their investigation C. Notify the appropriate management immediately D. Do nothing, citing a conflict of interest

1. C - Notifying the appropriate management of the PMI investigation and their request for your assistance is the best choice. Sharing confidential information with an outside party without approval from your management is a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Once the appropriate management have been notified, they will let you know the best way to proceed with this investigation. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. Which of the following graphical techniques visually depict the product scope by showing a business system and how other systems interact with it? A. Ishikawa diagram B. Histogram C. Influence diagram D. Context diagram

1. D - A context diagram is a graphical technique that visually depicts the product scope by showing a business system and how other systems interact with it. The other choices are graphical techniques designed to achieve other objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 146] [Project Stakeholder Management]

1. Anthony is currently managing a bridge construction project. The project is in the execution phase. During the planning phase of the project, Anthony developed a comprehensive stakeholder engagement plan for the project. However, the frequency of plan review has not yet been defined. How often should Anthony review the stakeholder engagement plan? A. On a monthly basis B. The stakeholder engagement plan cannot be reviewed during execution of the project. C. On a weekly basis D. On a regular basis; Anthony needs to decide the frequency.

1. D - As projects progress, project stakeholders and their interests, needs, expectations and engagement levels may change. The project manager should review the stakeholder engagement plan regularly. The frequency of review should be defined by the project manager if it was not imposed by top management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516] [Project Stakeholder Management]

1. During the development of the project stakeholder engagement plan, a project manager is usually dependent on the voice of the project stakeholders to obtain expert opinion. Which of the following is an important tool available to the project manager for gathering and organizing stakeholders' information? A. Fishbone diagrams B. Control charts C. Histograms D. Focus groups

1. D - Fishbone diagrams, control charts and histograms are quality management tools. The question is asking for a tool that helps the project manager collect stakeholder information and focus group is one of the effective tools available to the project manager. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 511] [Project Stakeholder Management]

1. In projects with adaptive life cycles, the overall scope of the project will be decomposed into a set of requirements and work to be performed, sometime referred to as: A. Assumptions backlog B. Feature list C. Project attributes D. Product backlog

1. D - In projects with adaptive life cycles, the overall scope of the project will be decomposed into a set of requirements and work to be performed, sometime referred to as a product backlog. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Communications Management]

1. Your project is nearing completion, but a previously unidentified risk has arisen, and it could significantly affect one of the project deliverables. What do you do? A. Transfer the risk B. Develop a risk mitigation plan C. Include the issue in the project risk log D. Notify the project stakeholders immediately

1. D - Notify the project stakeholders immediately about the new risk. Once the stakeholders have been made fully aware of the circumstances and potential impacts, a plan to deal with this risk can be developed. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires project managers to provide accurate and timely project information at all times and to follow all project processes and policies. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. To assist with the selection of a supplier for a large procurement on your project, you have hired a consultant. The consultant has prepared an independent estimate to be used as a benchmark while reviewing bids on the RFP. The independent estimate is confidential and is not shared with any bidders. When the sealed bids are opened, you discover that only one supplier has submitted a quote lower than the independent estimate. All other quotes are 45 percent to 70 percent higher than the benchmark. While discussing this development with members of the project team, you learn a distant relative of the consultant owns the company with the lowest bids. What is the best course of action? A. Confirm the lowest bidder has understood the requirements and a them the contract B. Since one of the suppliers knows more than others, you must disclose independent estimate to all others to be fair C. Disqualify the lowest bidder D. Review the RFP specifications and requirements

1. D - Review the RFP requirements and specifications. Such a wide range of quotes indicates that there may be elements that are not stated clearly or correctly. Because there is no evidence of collusion between the consultant and the lowest bidder, the RFP review is the best choice. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. An organization's value chain can be represented by a special type of flowchart called SIPOC. SIPOC stands for: A. Superior service, inferior service, peak hour service, optimized se and client service B. Simple, intellectual, procedural, optimal coding C. Sample, information, practice, organization, and control D. Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers

1. D - SIPOC stands for Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 284] [Project Stakeholder Management]

1. You are an electrical engineer with extensive experience in managing transmission projects but limited experience with electronic design projects. However, in a stretch assignment, you were recently transferred to another department in your company that focuses on electronic design. Furthermore, you were asked to lead a highly important project involving both transmission and electronic design. In preparation for a meeting with your manager to discuss this opportunity, you review the initial project design brief. Due to your limited background in electronic design, a number of items in this document seem unclear to you. When you arrive at your meeting, your manager asks if you will be leading the project. How do you respond? A. Accept the project and tell your manager that your experti transmission makes you an ideal manager for this project. B. Decline the project, citing your lack of experience in electronics design C. Accept the project, but do not discuss your qualifications or lack there D. State that you would like to lead the project, but you must disclose your primary domain of expertise is transmission, and that you may supplementary training in electronics design.

1. D - State that you would like to lead the project, but disclose that your expertise is in transmission, not electronics design. PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct mandates that project managers accept only those projects for which they have appropriate qualifications and experience. However, if project stakeholders are fully informed of the areas where you may be lacking skills or knowledge, and they still wish you to lead the project, this is not a violation of the code. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

1. Earned Schedule (ES) is an extension to the theory and practice of EVM. Earned schedule theory replaces the schedule variance measures used in traditional EVM with ES and actual time (AT). Using the alternate equation for calculating schedule variance: A. AT - ES B. EV - PV C. PV - EV D. ES - AT

1. D - The alternate equation for calculating schedule variance is SV = ES - AT. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 233] [Project Resource Management]

10. In projects with adaptive life cycles, many of the project management processes are repeated in each iteration of the project except: A. Develop Project Charter B. Collect Requirements C. Define Scope D. Create WBS

10. A - In projects with adaptive life cycles, many of the project management processes are repeated in each iteration of the project except the Develop Project Charter process; which is typically performed only once at the start of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Mary is currently drafting a stakeholder engagement plan for her new website development project. Her organization has strict communication guidelines. Mary wants to ensure that her stakeholder engagement strategy aligns with the organizational communications guidelines. Where can she find these guidelines? A. Corporate knowledge base B. Stakeholder register C. Project contract D. Lessons learned library

10. A - Mary is looking for the organizational policy on project communications. This is a part of the organizational process assets which are stored in corporate knowledge bases. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 520] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. During the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, a number of project documents might get updated. Which of the following project documents get updated the most during this process? A. Stakeholder register B. Risk register C. Project reports D. Project presentations

10. A - Project reports and presentation distributed to the stakeholders get archived in the organizational process assets during this process. Stakeholder register is the project document that gets updated the most during this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 529] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. You are building a mansion that will have copper roofs. The duration of the project will be approximately three years. You have built into the contract that, as the price of copper increases, your price increases as a percentage of the cost of the copper. However, all other costs are fixed. This is an example of what type of contract? A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee C. Unit Price D. Time and Materials

10. A - Since the price increases are tied only to the rising costs of the copper, this is a fixed-price with economic price adjustment (FP-EPA) contract. This is common with multi-year contracts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 471] [Project Procurement Management]

10. Bill is managing a healthcare software development project using state of-the-art technology. Stakeholder management is crucial for the project's success. Stakeholder involvement and influence are significant. During which of the following project stages will stakeholder management be most challenging for Bill? A. Early during the project execution B. Toward the end of the project execution C. Toward the closure of the project D. Halfway through the project execution

10. A - Stakeholders' influence is highest during the early stages of the project and lowest towards the end of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition,

10. An automotive designer uses a certain technique to determine which combination of suspension and tires will produce the most desirable ride characteristics at a reasonable cost. To do this, the designer employs a statistical framework and systematically changes all the important parameters instead of changing the factors one at a time. This method is known as: A. Design of Experiments B. Nominal Group Technique C. Statistical Sampling D. Force Field Analysis

10. A - The correct response is Design of Experiments; this method plays a key role in optimization of products or processes. [PMBOK 6th edition,

10. Which of these are not inputs to the Determine Budget process? A. Cost baseline, requirements traceability matrix B. Scope baseline, agreements C. Basis of estimates, cost estimates D. Risk register, resource management plan

10. A - The cost baseline and the requirements traceability matrix are not inputs to the Determine Budget process. The other choices are valid inputs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 248] [Project Cost Management]

10. The enterprise environmental factors play an important role during the development of the project stakeholder engagement plan. The following list gives the most significant enterprise environmental factors considered during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process except one. Which one is it? A. Organizational culture B. Organizational communication requirements C. Organizational structure D. Political climate

10. B - Organizational communication requirements should be considered during project stakeholder engagement plan development. However, these are part of organizational process assets and not enterprise environmental factors. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 519, 520] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Organizational process assets are fundamental inputs to most of the project management processes. However, only some of the process assets are relevant to any given process. Which of the following organizational process assets is the least important consideration during the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process? A. Issue management procedures B. Project plan templates C. Change control procedures D. Historical information about previous projects

10. B - Project plan templates are considering during the planning processes. These would be of least importance during the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. The rest of the choices are the organizational process assets relevant to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 526] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. A project manager wants to use a group decision-making technique to generate, classify and prioritize requirements. Which of these is not a valid group decision-making technique? A. Plurality B. Singularity C. Majority D. Unanimity

10. B - Singularity is not a valid method to reach a group decision. The other choices are valid methods to reach a group decision. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144] [Project Scope Management]

10. Which of the following is not a project competing constraint? A. Budget B. Procurement C. Risk D. Resource

10. B - Six competing project constraints are scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources and risk. Procurement is not a project competing constraint. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 28] [Project Framework]

10. Which of the following two project documents are sometimes perceived as containing a certain degree of redundancy? A. Project scope statement and scope management plan B. Project charter and project scope statement C. Risk management plan and scope management plan D. Scope statement and quality management plan

10. B - The project charter and project scope statement are sometime perceived as containing a certain degree of redundancy, although they are different in the level of detail contained in each. The project charter contains high-level information, while the project scope statement contains a detailed description of the scope components. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154] [Project Communications Management]

10. Jessica is managing an office refurbishment project. All the project stakeholders are identified and classified. The stakeholder engagement plan is also approved. Jessica is managing a project for the first time, and she is relying on the PMBOK guide as a reference to deliver an excellent project. Which of the following processes would provide guidance to Jessica regarding how to execute the approved stakeholder engagement plan? A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Identify Stakeholders D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

10. B - The question is asking about the Stakeholder Management process from the executing process group. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process executes the stakeholder engagement strategy developed during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. The Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process deals with making the necessary adjustments to the stakeholder engagement strategy. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Andrew is managing a construction project. He is using his communication, interpersonal and management skills to keep the key project stakeholders engaged with the project. Which of the following activities is not related to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process? A. Addressing and resolving issues B. Developing the stakeholder engagement plan C. Confirming the stakeholders' continued commitment D. Negotiating and communicating with the stakeholders

10. B - The stakeholder engagement plan is developed during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. However, the stakeholder engagement plan might get updated during the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 516, 529] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Diana is managing the development of a mobile phone application. Half the project work has been completed. Diana is currently reviewing her stakeholder engagement plan. She finds that some of the resisting stakeholders have now become supportive. How should Diana update her stakeholder engagement plan? A. Do not update the stakeholder engagement plan at this stage since t are getting better. B. Transfer these stakeholders to the project supporters group, and for stakeholders, adopt the stakeholder engagement strategy defined for project supporters. C. For these stakeholders, continue with the defined resisting stakeholder engagement strategy since this strategy has produced positive result far. D. Transfer these stakeholders to the project supporters group but con with the defined resisting stakeholder engagement strategy with stakeholders.

10. B - The stakeholder engagement plan should be reviewed regularly.

10. In regards to WBS, which of the following is the correct way to decompose the project scope? A. Total scope -> planning package -> control account -> work package B. Total scope -> control account -> work package -> planning package C. Total scope -> control account -> planning package -> work package D. Total scope -> Work package -> control account -> planning package

10. C - A planning package is a work breakdown structure component below the control account and above the work package with known work content but without detailed schedule activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Which of the following processes belong to the planning process group? A. Identify Stakeholders B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

10. C - All of the given choices are the processes from the project stakeholder management knowledge area. However, only the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process belongs to the planning process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. You are a consulting project manager and an investment bank has a contract with you to run a large information technology project that is expected to last 15 months. During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, you discover that several regulatory requirements were addressed in the project management plan but missed from the scope statement. Failure to meet these requirements could result in legal action against the company. However, implementing the technology to comply with these regulations could exceed the budget and scope of the project and result in the cancellation of the project. What should you do? A. Do not do anything as these requirements are not a part of the baseline. Request additional funds to implement these requirements. C. Submit a change request to incorporate the missed requirements in project's scope. D. This is a classic example of scope creep and such requirements mu ignored.

10. C - All regulatory requirements must be met. Doing nothing or considering this a scope creep are not valid options. You would have to request additional funds, but first you need to submit a change request for approval. A change request can be submitted as a part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Integration Management]

10. Mary has recently finalized her project management plan and has gotten it approved. She is managing a complex manufacturing process improvement project. The project stakeholders' constant support and commitment are crucial for the success of the project. Which of the following are the most important stakeholder management processes at this stage? A. Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Identify Stakeholders and Plan Stakeholder Engagement C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

10. C - Approval of the project management plan marks the closure of the planning phase of the project. The stakeholder management processes from the executing and the monitoring & controlling process groups should be the center of attention now. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Which of the following tools helps in determining the gaps between the current and desired stakeholder engagement levels? A. Stakeholder register B. Monte Carlo analysis C. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix D. Fishbone diagram

10. C - Monte Carlo analysis and the fishbone diagram are risk management and quality management tools respectively. Stakeholder register is a project artifact and not a tool or technique. The correct answer is 'stakeholder engagement assessment matrix' which helps a project manager in mapping the current and desired stakeholder engagement levels. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 521] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. To develop a project stakeholder engagement plan, seek knowledge from groups or individuals with specialized training or subject matter insight into the relationships within the organization. In PMBOK jargon, what is this technique called? A. Professional verdict 0 B. Consultation C. Expert judgment D. Sage opinion

10. C - The technique can be called anything but according to the PMBOK jargon, this technique is called Expert Judgement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 520] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. The stakeholder engagement plan is a subsidiary plan of the project management plan. It includes the strategies required to effectively engage project stakeholders. An ineffective stakeholder engagement strategy can lead to project failure. The stakeholder engagement plan: A. Must be formal and highly detailed B. Must be formal but broadly framed C. Can be formal or informal but must be highly detailed D. Can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed

10. D - According to the PMBOK guide, the stakeholder engagement plan can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 522] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Conflict management is a tool and technique of which of the following processes? A. Control Procurements B. Identify Stakeholders C. Close Project or Phase D. Manage Team

10. D - Conflict Management is a tool and technique of the Manage Team process. Claims Administration, a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process, relates somewhat to conflict management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 348] [Project Resource Management]

10. During a three-year construction project, due to a shortage of resources, a project manager has decided to develop a partial work breakdown structure (WBS) in the beginning of the planning phase. The WBS will be expanded as more information becomes known in the near term. What should the project manager do if a key resource criticizes his or her decision to develop the partial WBS? A. Ignore the resource's comments B. Remove the resource from the project C. Redevelop the complete work breakdown structure for all three years D. Explain to the resource about the Rolling Wave planning

10. D - One of the mandatory standards for a project manager is to show respect to others by holding them in high regard. A project manager must respect others' viewpoints. A project manager need not develop a complete WBS during the initial stages of planning. In long projects, the WBS can be developed partially and can be extended as more details become known later; this approach is known as rolling wave planning. The project manager should explain rolling wave planning to the resource. Ignoring the resource's comments or removing the resource are not appropriate responses. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 185 and PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

10. At the beginning of the project, a project manager realized the technical expertise of the team was limited, a risk to the project. Midway through the project, the project manager decided that this was no longer a risk and considered it outdated. As part of which process would he do the risk reassessment? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Perform Risk Assessment D. Monitor Risks

10. D - Risk reassessment is performed as part of the Monitor Risks process. Such project risk reassessments should be regularly scheduled and may result in the closure of outdated risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453] [Project Risk Management]

10. Nancy's project is in execution. Nancy is currently planning to execute the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. She has gathered the project documents such as the issue log, the change log, the stakeholder register, the lessons learned register and the necessary organizational process assets. Which of the following is a key input to this process that is still missing from this list? A. Expert Judgment B. Communication Skills C. Change requests D. Project Management Plan

10. D - The missing input is the project management plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. Which of these is an input to the Collect Requirements process? A. Observations B. Risk register C. Scope statement D. Project charter

10. D - The project charter is an input to the Collect Requirements process. The other choices are not valid. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 138]

10. Sam's project has successfully been initiated, and all the major roadblocks are removed. The senior stakeholders have now switched from a leading role to a supportive role. What is Sam's next step once the first version of the project stakeholder register is developed? A. Execute the stakeholder engagement strategy as laid out in the stakeholder register B. Start the stakeholder identification process C. Finalize the project management plan before developing the stakeholder engagement strategy D. Start the development of the Stakeholder Engagement Plan

10. D - The project management plan cannot be finalized until all the other subsidiary plans, including the stakeholder engagement plan, are finalized. Since the first version of stakeholder register has been developed, this implies that the first run of the Identity Stakeholders process has been completed and the project manager is now all set to kick start the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516] [Project Stakeholder Management]

10. You are managing a project that involves work on a film shoot. The editing activity can happen only after the film is shot. The best description of the logical relationship between the editing and shooting of the film is: A. Finish-to-Finish (FF) B. Start-to-Start (SS) C. Start-to-Finish (SF) D. Finish-to-Start (FS)

10. D - This is a situation where the editing activity can happen only after the film shooting has been completed. Hence, the logical relationship between the two tasks is Finish-to-Start (FS). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Schedule Management]

11. A ______ is a collection of projects or programs grouped together for strategic business needs. A. Portfolio B. Management System C. Enterprise D. Array

11. A - A portfolio is a collection of projects or programs. It helps facilitate efficient management. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 11] [Project Framework]

11. Which of the following is incorrect? A. Contingency reserves are not part of the project cost baseline. B. Management reserves are not part of the project cost baseline. C. The project manager needs to get approval before spending manage reserve. D. Reserves are usually included in the total budget of a project.

11. A - Contingency reserves are included in the project cost baseline. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 254] [Project Cost Management]

11. As an experienced PMP, you have found that running a WBS meeting is tricky because you need to find a balance between insufficient decomposition and excessive decomposition. When items are excessively decomposed, it leads to all the following except: A. Breaking the 100 percent rule B. Inefficient use of resources C. Nonproductive management effort D. Decreased efficiency when performing work

11. A - Excessive decomposition can lead to inefficient use of resources, decreased efficiency and non-productive management efforts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 160, 161] [Project Scope Management]

11. You are using parametric estimating techniques to estimate costs for each activity and the total budget in your project. However, a project manager colleague tells you to bump up each estimate by 20 percent to account for any unknown risks, and then submit that as a total budget to the customers. What should you do? A. Do not inflate the estimate B. Inform the customer and then inflate the estimate C. Inflate the estimate first and inform the customer D. Inflate the estimate but do not inform the customer

11. A - Honesty is a mandatory standard for project managers. Project managers are required to provide accurate information to customers regarding budget, resources, and risks. Unknown risks can be dealt with by using reserves. Deliberately inflating budget or schedule values or making misleading or false statements is against the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Hence, the best course of action here is to not inflate the estimate. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional

11. Tim is the project manager of a project that has a timeline of 18 months. Tim plans to send daily status reports to all stakeholders. After receiving two such reports, Sue, the project sponsor, informs Tim she would like to have reports every two weeks only. Tim did an analysis of communications requirements and considered various attributes for the communications management plan. What aspect has he missed, which resulted in a daily status report being sent instead of two-week status reports? A. He has not considered the frequency of information distribution. B. He has not considered the purpose for distribution of information. C. He has not considered the project's timeline. D. He has not considered the content of the information.

11. A - Tim has most likely not considered the frequency of distribution of the information. He should have analyzed the stakeholder requirements and planned for distribution of the status reports accordingly. It is unlikely that on an 18-month project, the project sponsor would want to receive daily status reports. (Perhaps only near the end of the project, with just a few days or weeks to go, the project sponsor might request daily reports to monitor the project closely or to deal with certain issues.) Hence, Tim should have considered stakeholder requirements and planned the frequency of the status reports accordingly. The remaining choices are incorrect. The choice that Tim has not considered the timeline of the project may be one of the factors that influence the frequency of information distribution, but is not a complete response by itself. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 377] [Project Communications Management]

11. Few project managers collect lessons-learned information throughout the project's life. Most tackle this in the final days of the project or, worse, after the project is complete. What is the negative consequence of this approach? A. It makes compiling and obtaining project information difficult. B. It might result in further expenses on the project. C. The project's NPV becomes zero. D. It requires hiring a specialist to do the job.

11. A - When lessons-learned gathering and documentation is postponed till the very end, the project manager must scramble for bits and pieces of project history to compile into a lessons-learned document. Often, because the project is in closeout, the project manager has only a few team members remaining, which makes compiling and obtaining project information from the remaining few resources difficult. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 98, 100] [Project Integration Management]

11. The paint on the exotic cars that are manufactured in your plant is bubbling about a year after application. What would be the best tool for your team to use to find potential causes of the peeling paint? A. Scatter diagram B. Ishikawa Diagram C. Control Chart D. Inspection

11. B - All the choices are tools and techniques in quality control; however, the best choice would be the Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

11. If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider? A. Fast Tracking and Schedule Network Analysis B. Crashing and Fast Tracking C. Resource Levelling and What-If Scenario Analysis D. Crashing and Schedule Network Analysis

11. B - Crashing and fast tracking can compress the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 215] [Project Schedule Management]

11. There are numerous ways to share information among project stakeholders. A. Push communication B. Interactive communication C. Pull communication D. Manual communication

11. B - Interactive communication is the most efficient form of communication as it requires multidirectional exchange of information. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] [Project Communications Management]

11. An important aspect of project management is the handling of stakeholder expectations. Typically, at what level are the stakeholders with respect to the project manager? A. At higher levels and with greater authority B. At all levels and with varying degrees of authority C. At higher levels but only the project sponsor has authority greater that project manager D. At the same level with varying degrees of authority

11. B - Project stakeholders are persons and organizations having a stake in the project. They typically exist at different levels and have varying degrees of authority. For example, the project sponsor will be at a higher level and have greater authority than the project manager. In contrast, a team member may be at a lower level and have lesser authority. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 550] [Project Stakeholder Management]

11. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) dictionary supports the WBS and is a companion document to the WBS. Which of the following is not included in the WBS dictionary? A. List of schedule milestones B. Resource assigned C. Agreement Information D. Code of Account Identifier

11. B - Resource requirements are part of WBS dictionary but resource assignments are not. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 162] [Project Scope Management]

11. Which of the following statements about the management of risks in a project is incorrect? A. The effect of various risks on project scope, cost, and quality numerically analyzed in the perform quantitative risk analysis process B. Positive risks are mitigated during the plan risk responses process. C. Stakeholder analysis is performed during the plan risk manage process. D. Risk report is produced during the perform quantitative risk analysis process.

11. B - Risk mitigation is a negative risk response strategy; it is not applicable to positive risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

11. A project manager needed to shorten a project schedule and decided to employ crashing, a schedule compression technique. Which of the following activities would not be an example of crashing? A. Bringing in additional resources B. Reducing project scope C. Paying to expedite delivery activities D. Approving overtime

11. B - Schedule compression techniques such as crashing and fast tracking shorten the project schedule without changing the project scope. Approving overtime, bringing in additional resources and paying to expedite delivery activities are valid examples of crashing. Reducing project scope is not a valid example of crashing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 215] [Project Schedule Management]

11. Kelly is part of a project management office (PMO). Her office is responsible for the centralized and coordinated management of 18 projects. Each project has its own project manager. Which of the following will not typically be a responsibility of her PMO? A. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight B. Development of a detailed description of each project and the prod produces C. Managing shared resources across all the projects administered by PMO D. Developing and managing project policies

11. B - The primary function of a PMO is to support project managers in a variety of ways. This may include developing and managing project policies, coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight. This may also include management of resources that are shared across the projects. However, development of a detailed description of each project would be a responsibility of the project manager handling the project, not of the

11. Three years back, your organization awarded a fixed price contract to a reputable local contractor to construct a new airport terminal in the city. A few days back, you received a change request from the contractor requesting to adjust the contract's price. The contractor is claiming that as a result of the recent national recession, the prices of raw materials have gone up and he cannot complete the rest of the project at the contract price. Is the contactor's request legitimate? A. Yes, you cannot penalize the contactor for price escalations due to majeure. B. Yes, unless there is no Economic Price Adjustment provision in contract. C. No, the price of the contract is fixed and cannot be changed. D. No, the price hike due to recession must be adjusted against contractor's profit.

11. B - Unless there is no provision for economic price adjustment due to inflation, a fixed price contract's value cannot be changed. Usually fixed price contracts spanning over one year in duration have this provision built into the contract. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 471] [Project Procurement Management]

11. Which of the following statements about team-building activities is incorrect? A. It can be a five-minute agenda item in a status review meeting. B. It can be a professionally facilitated experience designed to improve interpersonal relationships. C. The objective of team-building activities is to help team members individually and effectively. D. Informal communication and activities help in building trust establishing good working relationships.

11. C - The objective of team-building activities is to help team members work together and not individually. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 341] [Project Resource Management]

11. A collection of formally documented procedures that define how project deliverables and documentation are controlled, changed, and approved is: A. An authorization system B. Project documentation C. A change control board D. A change control system

11. D - A collection of formally documented procedures that define how project deliverables and documentation are controlled, changed and approved is called a change control system. This is a subsystem of the configuration management system. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 700] [Project Integration Management]

11. A key output of Plan Resource Management is a list of project roles and responsibilities. What should this document include? A. Work packages, Effort, Authority, Duties B. Role, Responsibility, Authority, Risk C. Role, Title, Resource Cost, Responsibility D. Role, Authority, Responsibility, Competence

11. D - The following items should be addressed when listing the roles and responsibilities of team members needed to complete the project: Role, authority, responsibility, and competence. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 318, 319] [Project Resource Management]

11. You are working on a waste management project that, upon completion, will be turned over to the local municipality for steady-state operation. Parking of trucks and other vehicles has become a serious problem because no parking area was allotted to you on the main dumping site. As a result, your trucks are parked on nearby roadsides. One of the fleet supervisors informs you that close to the main site, there is a large tract of land a local charity owns. Many locals park their cars on this tract of land. What should you do? A. Since the piece of land is already used as parking, you can park trucks over there. B. Don't park the trucks on that piece of land because it will be a violate other's property rights. C. Check the local parking laws. D. Ask the supervisor to get contact information of the local charity.

11. D - You must not use someone's property without permission, even if others are doing the same thing. The best option is to call the charity and ask for their permission. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

12. Early in the project, you are meeting with your team and would like to address all the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats the project is facing. What tool should be used? A. SWOT Analysis B. Interviewing C. Delphi Technique D. Brainstorming

12. A - A SWOT Analysis chart would be the best choice. SWOT is an acronym for strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 415] [Project Risk Management]

12. Public recognition of superior performance creates positive reinforcement for the team members. When is the best time for a project manager to recognize team members' performance? A. During the lifecycle of the project B. At the end of every phase of the project C. At the end of the project D. As mandated by the HR department

12. A - A good strategy for project managers is to give the team all possible recognition during the life cycle of the project rather than after the project is completed. This will keep the team members motivated through the duration of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 342] [Project Resource Management]

12. A software development project team has determined that the best way to mitigate the risk of not having the computational resources to complete all bug testing on schedule is to add three more servers to the test bed. However, the network may not have enough capacity to handle the extra load of those three servers and could fail. This type of risk is a _______________ risk. A. Secondary B. Simulation C. Bottleneck D. Hidden

12. A - A secondary risk arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 439] [Project Risk Management]

12. A project can be authorized by any of the following except: A. The project manager B. The PMO C. The sponsor D. The portfolio steering committee

12. A - Projects are authorized by someone external to the project such as a project sponsor, project management office (PMO), or portfolio steering committee. A project manager does not authorize the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 77] [Project Integration Management]

12. In a textile manufacturing project, a team divided the project work into 35 work packages and assigned a few work packages to the design department for review. After the review, the manager of the design department requested that the team further divide the work packages into more manageable work components for estimating and scheduling resources. Which of the following techniques should the team use to satisfy the manager's request? A. Decomposition B. The parametric estimating C. The precedence diagramming method D. The bottom-up estimating

12. A - The manager requested the team to divide the work packages into more manageable components for estimating the resources. The Define Activities process is used to divide the work packages into more manageable activities for estimating, scheduling, and executing the project work. Decomposition is the technique used during this process to divide the work packages into activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 185]

12. What is the best way to show, at a glance, all the work packages or project activities assigned to a specific organizational department? A. Organizational Breakdown Structure B. RACI chart C. Work Breakdown Structure D. Roles and Responsibilities Chart

12. A - The organizational breakdown structure (OBS) looks similar to the WBS; however, instead of being arranged according to a breakdown of project deliverables, it is arranged according to an organization's existing departments, units, or teams. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 316] [Project Resource Management]

12. Ideally the relationship between a project manager and a business analyst should be: A. Business analyst should directly report to the project manager B. A collaborative partnership C. Project manager should directly report to the business analyst D. Business analyst must audit the project manager

12. B - Ideally the project managers and the business analysts should collaborate to achieve the project objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 132] [Project Quality Management]

12. Two of your team members are constantly arguing with each other about work assignments. Due to their attitude, the project is delayed, and pressure is building on other team members. What should you do? A. Issue a memo B. Meet with them to understand their concerns C. Inform the concerned functional manager D. Replace the team members

12. B - One of the mandatory standards in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is respect. A project manager must listen to others' points of view and understand them. Hence, you must meet with the team members first to understand their concerns. If the problem continues, you may issue a memo or even replace the team members if necessary. Talking to the functional manager may not resolve the problem as the team members are managed by you in your project. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 348 and PMI Code of Ethics and

12. Linda is a first-time project manager and is analyzing a project schedule. She intends to apply resource leveling, and she has the following guidelines on Resource Leveling. Which of these four statements is incorrect? A. Resource Leveling can often cause the critical path to change. B. Resource Leveling is applied to a schedule before it has been analyze the critical path method. C. Resource Leveling is applied to keep resource usage at a constant lev D. Resource Leveling is necessary when resources have been over-allocated

12. B - Resource leveling is a schedule network analysis technique. It is applied to a schedule that has already been analyzed by the critical path method. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 211] [Project Schedule Management]

12. Which of the following statements accurately describes how the completion of project scope and the completion of product scope are measured? A. The completion of project scope and product scope are both mea against the product requirements. B. The completion of project scope is measured against the p management plan, and the completion of product scope is mea against the product requirements. C. The completion of project scope is measured against the PR requirements, and the completion of product scope is measured again project management plan. D. The completion of project scope and product scope are both mea against the project management plan.

12. B - The completion of project scope is measured against the project management plan, whereas the completion of product scope is measured against the product requirements. The work of the project results in delivery of the specified product scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Scope Management]

12. A summary milestone schedule would normally be part of which document? A. Project sign-off document B. Project charter C. Project requirements document D. Project scope statement

12. B - The summary milestone schedule is normally included as part of the project charter, which documents the business need, understanding of customer's needs, and other high-level items. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 81] [Project Integration Management]

12. Julia is managing a software development project. Recently, an unexpected event delayed the project by 15 days. Julia has called a team meeting to identify measures to take to bring the project back on schedule. A measure that is taken to bring future results back in line with the project plan is best described as? A. Change request B. Preventive action C. Corrective action D. Defect repair

12. C - A corrective action is anything that needs to be done to bring the project back on track. Care must be taken not to confuse corrective action with preventive action. Corrective action is taken to correct the results of a non-conformance event that happened in the past. Whereas, preventive action is taken to avoid or mitigate any potential nonconformance event that may occur in the future. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Integration Management]

12. The State of New York has contracted with your company to provide a claims payment system for Medicaid benefits. In the contract, a clause states that the State of New York can review your work processes and deliverables. This is an example of: A. Performance Report B. Record Management System C. Deliverables Checklist D. Inspections and Audits

12. D - A contractually authorized review by the buyer of work and deliverables is an example of an inspection and audit. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

12. In a Finish-to-Start relationship between predecessor and successor activities, a project manager decides to schedule a successor activity five days before its predecessor is complete. This is accomplished by providing five days of: A. Lag B. Load C. Fast-tracking D. Lead

12. D - A lead allows an early start of the successor activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192] [Project Schedule Management]

12. After brainstorming potential project risks, what is the recommended method for prioritizing these risks and their mitigation plans? A. RACI chart B. Control chart C. Fishbone diagram D. Probability and impact matrix

12. D - A probability and impact matrix will help filter the high-risk items and high-impact items from the others, so that you can focus your attention on these riskier items. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 425] [Project Risk Management]

12. Which of the following can NOT be used to measure business value? A. Customer satisfaction B. Revenue growth C. Market share D. Expected monetary value

12. D - An increase or decline in Business Value that an action produces is traditionally measured in terms of Customer Satisfaction, Revenue Growth, Profitability, Market Share, Wallet Share, Cross-Sell Ratio, Marketing Campaign Response Rates, or Relationship Duration. Expected monetary value is the product of an event's probability of occurrence and the gain or loss that will result. EMV is used for managing risks and not measuring business value. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 7, 435] [Project Integration Management]

12. Large organizations typically manage a wide range of projects; from small projects to large initiatives requiring long-term commitments. Which of the following factors can be used in scaling such projects: A. Team size, geographical distribution, regulatory compliance organizational complexity, technical complexity, and funds availability B. Team size, geographical distribution, regulatory compliance organizational complexity. C. Team size, geographical distribution and regulatory compliance. D. Team size, geographical distribution, regulatory compliance organizational complexity and technical complexity.

12. D - In large organizations, there may be a mixture of small projects and large initiatives requiring long-term commitments to manage these programs using scaling factors such as team size, geographical distribution, regulatory compliance, organizational complexity, and technical complexity. Funds availability is a constraint applicable to all projects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 178] [Project Procurement Management]

12. A program management office (PMO) chose you to write a purchase order because of your expertise in business writing. You learned the PMO has already selected a seller for a software product and would like to award the procurement contract to the selected seller as a purchase order, which you must prepare. In this scenario, the PMO is administering: A. The monitor stakeholder engagement process B. The control procurements process C. The plan procurement management process D. The conduct procurements process

12. D - In the Conduct Procurements process, sellers are selected and procurement contracts are awarded to them. Contracts can be awarded in the form of a purchase order. Since the PMO selected you to write the purchase order, it is in the process of conducting procurements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 482] [Project Procurement Management]

12. Which of the following is an agile prototyping technique showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations: A. Nominal group technique B. Mind mapping Decision trees Storyboarding

12. D - Storyboarding is an agile prototyping technique that shows sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations. The rest of the choices are graphical techniques designed to achieve other objectives.

13. Which of the following is not a Tuckman's team development stage? A. Confronting B. Forming C. Norming D. Adjourning

13. A - Confronting is not a valid choice. The Tuckman ladder's team development stages are: Forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 338] [Project Resource Management]

13. Control Schedule is part of which Project Management process group? A. Monitoring and controlling B. Planning C. Executing D. Initiating

13. A - Control Schedule is part of the monitoring and controlling process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Framework]

13. Which of the following processes deals with maintaining the integrity of baselines by releasing only approved changes for incorporation into the project management plan? A. Perform Integrated Change Control B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Develop Project Management Plan D. Monitor and Control Project Work

13. A - Maintaining the integrity of baselines is done in the Perform Integrated Change Control process. This process is conducted from project inception through project completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Integration Management]

13. Which of the following is not a Project Schedule Management process? A. Source Activities B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Define Activities D. Sequence Activities

13. A - The Project Schedule Management processes include Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 173]

13. The costs on a project are typically classified as direct and indirect costs. The cost of electric utilities for the office is: A. An indirect cost B. Appraisal cost C. A specific cost D. A direct cost

13. A - The cost of electric utilities for the office would be considered as an indirect cost. Indirect costs are also known as overhead, general, or administrative costs. They are the costs allocated by the project team as a cost of doing business. Examples include salaries of management indirectly involved in the project and the cost of electric utilities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 246] [Project Procurement Management]

13. You are working as a project manager for MALTEX, an IT organization having a projectized organization structure. You have recently started managing a project that involves stakeholders from within and outside your organization. The stakeholders external to your organization are highly critical since the project negatively affects their interests. You are making serious efforts to gather their expectations and influence levels early in the project to ensure their voice is heard and proper communication needs can be planned in the project's future phases. The outcome of your effort can be documented in: A. The stakeholder engagement plan B. The project scope document C. The risk register D. The stakeholder communication plan

13. A - The stakeholder engagement plan is a component of the project management plan and identifies the management strategies required to effectively engage stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 522] [Project Stakeholder Management]

13. Which of the following is not a part of the data gathering tools used in Control Quality process? A. Checklists B. Control Chart C. Check sheets D. Statistical sampling

13. B - Control chart is a monitoring tool, while the rest of the choices are valid data gathering tools used during Control Quality process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 302, 303] [Project Quality Management]

13. Which of the following statements is correct: A. Project lifecycles and product lifecycles are interdependent. B. Project lifecycles are independent of product lifecycles. C. A product lifecycle is the same as a project lifecycle. D. The last lifecycle for a project is generally the product's retirement.

13. B - Project life cycles are independent of product life cycles, which may be produced by a project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 19] [Project Framework]

13. In an IT project, after several brainstorming sessions with customers, Kurt established various project deliverables. Two weeks later, while reviewing the plan, Kurt identifies two similar deliverables and decides to merge them into a single deliverable. What should Kurt do next? A. Merge the deliverables and inform the customer B. Submit the need to merge to the customer C. Merge the deliverables but do not inform the customer D. Merge the deliverables but do not update the project management plan

13. B - The customer must be notified about any changes made to deliverables because acceptance of deliverables is key to a successful project. It is the responsibility of the project manager to notify appropriate stakeholders before making changes. Kurt must submit the proposed merge to the customer. Once the customer accepts the change, Kurt can merge the deliverables and notify the customer that this has been done. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

13. You are carrying out a project for an external customer. Most of the project's scope of work is outsourced and distributed among many subcontractors. What would be the role of the Direct and Manage Project Work process in this scenario? A. Inspect and verify the adequacy of the seller's product B. Authorize the seller's work at the appropriate time C. Assure that the changes are properly approved and communicated D. The Direct and Manage Project Work process will become redundant this case

13. B - The role of the Direct and Manage Project Work will be to authorize the seller's work at the appropriate time. Inspection and verification of the seller's work will be handled by the Control Quality process and the change management will be handled by the Perform Integrated Change

13. If you are managing changes to the project's cost baseline, which process are you using? A. Negotiate Costs B. Estimate Costs C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget

13. C - Control Costs is the process of managing the project's costs and the changes that threaten the bottom line. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 257] [Project Cost Management]

13. You are working in a matrix project environment where functional managers have control over the resources. You are well aware that not acquiring the project team soon enough for your project could result in changes to the schedule, cost, and quality. To acquire the project team from functional managers, the best technique for you to use is: A. Pre-assignment B. Virtual teams C. Negotiations D. Acquisition

13. C - Pre-assignment, virtual teams or negotiations as tools or techniques for acquiring project resources. However, negotiation is the tool used to acquire the project team from functional managers to ensure that the project receives appropriate staff in the required time frame. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 332]

13. The requirements elicitation team has generated a large number of ideas during sessions to gather product and project requirements. Which of the following techniques is best suited to sorting these ideas into groups for review and analysis? A. Control chart B. Venn diagram C. Affinity diagram D. Brainstorming

13. C - The affinity diagram enables a large number of ideas to be sorted into groups for further review and analysis. It is a tool used in gathering of requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144] [Project Scope Management]

13. You recently took over a project as the project manager. This is your first project management assignment. The project sponsor is very supportive and is helping you out in successfully managing the project. Recently, some bad quality deliverables were received on the project, and the project sponsor suggested that you to periodically review the vendor's progress to deliver project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract. Which of the following statements is true in this context? A. The sponsor has asked you to carry out regular trend analysis. B. The sponsor has asked you something that is not a good p management practice. C. The sponsor has asked you to carry out regular procurement perform reviews. D. The sponsor is giving you a bigger workload so that you can perform better on the next assignment.

13. C - The sponsor is not giving you more workload. He is asking you to carry out regular procurement performance reviews, which is a good project management practice. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

13. John, a project manager for Code Crashers, Inc., has a project with a group of inexperienced programmers that will develop a software package that creates Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for a chemical company. This situation strongly resembles a project his colleague, Peter, worked on in 2006. If John needs to come up with a rough order of magnitude estimate, what tool or technique should he use? A. Parametric Estimating B. Bottom Up Estimating C. Three-point estimate D. Analogous Estimating

13. D - Analogous estimating is the correct choice. This technique relies on parameters from a similar previous project and is a gross value estimating approach. It is also generally less accurate. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Cost Management]

13. Which of the following enterprise environmental factors is not applicable to the Plan Resource Management process? A. Organizational culture and structure B. Existing resources, capabilities and competencies C. Marketplace conditions D. Lessons learned

13. D - Lessons learned from historical projects are valuable inputs to the Plan Resource Management process. However, these are classified as organizational process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 315] [Project Resource Management]

13. Bill and Jake are two team members in a project. They do not get along well and are constantly involved in verbal conflicts. The project manager understands the characteristics of conflict and the conflict management process and tries to resolve the situation. Which of the following is not a correct statement? A. Openness resolves conflict B. Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives C. Conflict is inevitable in a project environment. D. The project manager is not responsible for conflict management.

13. D - Project team members are initially responsible for resolution of their conflicts. If conflict escalates, the project manager should help resolve it. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 348] [Project Resource Management]

13. RACI stands for______________, ________________, ___________, _______________. A. Review, Analyze, Calculate, Implement B. Responsible, Actual, Complete, Informative C. Roles, Activities, Costs, Instructions D. Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform

13. D - RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317] [Project Resource Management]

13. The Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct has as its foundation four values identified by practitioners from the global project management community. They are: A. Respect, fairness, transparency, and freedom B. Responsibility, transparency, fairness, and honesty C. Respect, freedom, honesty, and transparency D. Responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty

13. D - The values that practitioners from the global project management community have identified as being the most important are: Responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty. These values form the basis for the Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

14. Which of the following is not an activity related to the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. Inspecting the project deliverables for completeness B. Implementing approved changes C. Creating project deliverables to meet the planned project work D. Performing activities to accomplish project objectives

14. A - Inspections of deliverables are part of the Validate Scope process. The other choices are activities relating to the Direct and Manage Project

14. Rob has been assigned to manage a complex project. Rob has recently acquired his PMP certification and is excited about applying his newly acquired knowledge to his project. During the project initiation, he produced the stakeholder register and impressed his project sponsor. Rob is now about to develop the stakeholder engagement plan for his project. This has made the project sponsor a bit uncomfortable because he thinks Rob is spending too much time doing paperwork instead of actually executing the project work. The project sponsor has asked Rob to explain the difference between the stakeholder register and the stakeholder engagement plan. How should Rob respond? A. The stakeholder register only contains basic stakeholder assess information, while the stakeholder engagement plan includes de stakeholder engagement strategy that ensures project success. B. The stakeholder engagement plan is a component of the p management plan, while the stakeholder register is not. C. The stakeholder register is produced during the project initiation, the stakeholder engagement plan is produced during the project plan phase. D. Developing the stakeholder engagement plan is a good project management practice.

14. A - It must be noted that the project manager is responding to the project sponsor in order to defend a position. The sponsor is asking for the difference between the two documents. The best response should not only clarify the difference between the two, it should also make some business sense. All of the statements are technically correct, but having a stakeholder engagement strategy to ensure success makes more business sense. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 522]

14. Which process is MOST responsible for managing changes to the schedule components of the Project Management Plan? A. Control Schedule B. Create WBS C. Develop Project Management Plan D. Develop Schedule

14. A - The Control Schedule is the process of managing the changes to the schedule baseline to achieve the project management plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 222] [Project Schedule Management]

14. You are in charge of constructing the Ferris wheel in each town a carnival visits. However, this is something you have never done before, and you are getting different opinions from others on how long it takes. Joe is new and has given you what you believe to be an optimistic estimate of three hours; Bill says it will take 10 hours, which seems too long to you and quite pessimistic. Last, Margie, who is the most experienced at this task, is telling you it will take eight hours. You are not sure whom to believe, so you decide to do three-point estimation (based on beta distribution). Based on this, how many hours will it take you to assemble the Ferris wheel? A. 7.5 hours B. 8 hours C. 21 hours D. 7 hours

14. A - The formula for three-point estimate (based on beta distribution) is Estimate = (Optimistic + (Most Likely *4) + Pessimistic)/6. [PMBOK

14. During the Control Procurements process, a number of documents might get updated due to various reasons. Which of the following components of the project management plan is least likely to get updated during this process? A. Quality management plan B. Procurement management plan C. Schedule baseline D. Cost baseline

14. A - The procurement management plan, schedule baseline, and the cost baseline typically gets updated as result of a significant change in procurement contracts or strategy. However, the quality management plan is least likely to get updated during this process since quality requirements always need to be met by all contractors. The contractors can be allowed more money or time to complete the works but cannot be allowed to compromise the quality of the works. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 500] [Project Procurement Management]

14. As part of the quality control in your project, you are exploring a technique that shows the history and pattern of variation. This is a line graph that shows data points plotted in the order in which they occurred. You are most likely looking at a: A. Control chart B. Pareto diagram C. Histogram D. Cause-and-effect diagram

14. A - This is most likely to be a control chart. A control chart shows the trends in a process over a period of time. The remaining choices are not line graphs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 304] [Project Quality Management]

14. Unless an enterprise-wide ERP is deployed in an organization, disparate IT systems perform specialized tasks in a project. Which of the following systems typically processes supplier's payments after obtaining all the necessary certification of satisfactory work? A. Project management information system B. Accounts payable system C. Change control and tracking system D. Supply chain management system

14. B - Payments to the seller are typically processed by the accounts payable system of the buyer after certification of satisfactory work by an authorized person on the project team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 497] [Project Procurement Management]

14. Which of the following inaccurately describes a prototype? A. A prototype is tangible and allows stakeholders to fine-tune expectations. B. Requirements from a prototype are usually insufficient to move to design phase. C. Prototypes support the concept of progressive elaboration. D. A prototype is a working model of the expected product.

14. B - Prototypes usually go through multiple feedback cycles after which the requirements obtained from the prototype are sufficiently complete to move to a design or build phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 147] [Project Scope Management]

14. Shawn is in the execution phase of his project. He is getting unexpected requests from his stakeholders about the project's progress. Shawn can use all the following to respond to their requests except: A. Communications management plan B. Business case C. Organizational process assets D. Work performance reports

14. B - Since Shawn is in the execution phase and stakeholders are requesting project information, he must respond through the Manage Communications process. The communications management plan, organizational process assets and work performance reports are inputs to this process. Shawn can use any of these documents to respond to their requests. The project's business case is not of much help at this stage. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Communications Management]

14. Prompt lists are usually developed based on historical information and knowledge accumulated from previous similar projects. Which of the following statements about risk prompt lists is wrong? A. The prompt list can be used as a framework B. The lowest level of the Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) cannot be as a risk prompt list. C. Prompt lists can be used for idea generation D. Prompt list is a predetermined list of risk categories

14. B - The lowest level in the RBS can be used as a basic risk prompt list. The other statements are all true. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 416] [Project Risk Management]

14. You have managed a federal highway construction project, which is intended to improve transportation between north and south regions of the country. In the execution phase, you received many complaints from stakeholders, including the highway transportation agency. At least half these complaints were regarding the quality of the micro texture of the road, and the nonconformance to the quality levels incorporated in the project quality management plan. So far, you have successfully fixed all the reported issues, but you are concerned by this recurrent event. What should you do to avoid future similar issues? A. Initiate a defect repair to repair the road or completely pave a new road B. Initiate a preventive action to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with the poor quality of the road C. Initiate a change request to update the project quality management plan D. Initiate a corrective action to bring the future quality of the road in with the project management plan

14. B - There is no need to update the quality management plan since the problem is with the workmanship and not with the quality management plan. The scenario is asking for an action that will ensure future compliance, i.e. a preventive action. Note that since all of the reported defects have been fixed, there is no need for any corrective action or defect repair at this stage. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Integration Management]

14. The Identify Risks process involves determining which risks may impact a project. It is considered an iterative process. What is the frequency of the iteration? A. Every month B. Every two weeks C. The frequency of iteration will vary based on the situation D. Every week

14. C - Identify Risks is an iterative process as risks become known or evolve. The frequency of iteration, and who participates in each cycle, will vary by the situation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 411] [Project Risk Management]

14. Andy is currently working for ABC Contractors as a quality control manager for a railway track construction project. National Railways awarded this cost-plus construction contract to ABC Contractors a few months ago. As a contractual requirement, ABC Contractors has to submit each completed deliverable for client acceptance. Reviewing project data, Andy found that the current submission rejection rate is 22 percent. He conducts a root cause analysis and submits his findings along with construction process improvement recommendations to the project director. In this scenario, Andy's report is an example of: A. Work performance data B. Raw observations C. Work performance information D. Work control report

14. C - The data on rejections is the project performance data. Andy analyzed it and converted it into work performance information, i.e. reasons for rejections and recommendations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 26] [Project Quality Management]

14. A first-time project manager created a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) where the deliverables had different levels of decomposition. What would your comment on this be? A. This is incorrect. All deliverables need to have the same lev decomposition. B. This is incorrect. Only deliverables under different branches can different levels of decomposition. C. This is fine. Different deliverables can have different level decomposition, depending on the work involved. D. This is fine. The focus of the WBS is not the deliverables but the involved.

14. C - This is acceptable. Deliverables need not all have the same level of decomposition. This will depend on the work involved and degree of control required. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 158] [Project Scope Management]

14. Measuring the quality of items in a sample on a pass/fail basis is: A. Biased sampling B. Variable sampling C. Stratified sampling D. Attribute sampling

14. D - Attribute sampling measures the quality of items in a sample on a pass/fail basis; variable sampling measures the quality on a continuous scale. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274] [Project Quality Management]

14. For complex and high value projects, activities of business analysis get started well before the project is initiated. Typically in such cases, the requirements management process starts with: A. Plan Scope Management B. Collect Requirements C. Define Scope D. Needs Assessment

14. D - For complex and high value projects, activities of business analysis get started well before the project is initiated. Typically in such cases, the requirements management process starts with a business need analysis. The rest of the choices are the processes that are performed once the project has been initiated. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 132] [Project Quality Management]

14. Mandatory dependencies are those that are inherent in the nature of the work being done. They often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project when it is impossible to erect the superstructure until the foundation is built. According to the PMBOK, a mandatory dependency is also: A. Soft logic B. Unilateral dependency C. Fixed logic D. Hard logic

14. D - Mandatory dependencies are also referred to as hard logic. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 191] [Project Schedule Management]

14. One of the performance requirements of a company website development project is that the home page should load in one second. Such performance requirements are usually part of: A. Business needs B. Business requirements C. Project management requirements D. Product requirements

14. D - Performance requirements such as the loading time of websites are usually considered as part of product requirements and scope. Project requirements include business requirements, project management requirements and delivery requirements, whereas product requirements include technical, security, and performance requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Scope Management]

14. The management of a retail business unit has just assigned Mario to compare multiple projects and select the best project that will produce the most value for the unit. Although Mario has worked as a project manager for a long time, he has only a limited understanding of project selection methods. What should be the first course of action from Mario in this scenario? A. Select the best project with whatever knowledge he possesses B. Refuse to take the assignment C. Obtain an expert's judgment to help select the project D. Inform the management about lack of knowledge on project selection methods

14. D - The management has just assigned Mario to select the best project. One of the mandatory standards for practitioners of project management is honesty. Therefore, Mario should tell the management about his lack of knowledge of project selection methods. Attempting to select the project without expert knowledge could create problems later. Refusing the assignment is not an appropriate action. Management may suggest soliciting expert judgment for selecting the project, but informing the management is the first step to take, and it is up to management to decide what to do next. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

15. Why is the project change log a prime input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process? A. So that the changes and their impact can be communicated to appropriate stakeholders B. So that the new identified changes can be appended to the log C. So that stakeholders can review the log and prioritize the issues D. So that the Integrated Change Control process is made redundant

15. A - A change log is used during the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process so that the project changes and their impact on the project in term of time, cost, and risk can be communicate to the appropriate stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 525] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. During a key stakeholders' update meeting, George's project was challenged. The project is currently in the executing phase. One of the key stakeholders claimed the project no longer makes any business sense. What must George do next? A. Update the issue log and request that the stakeholder provide more de B. Request the project sponsor to intervene C. Prematurely terminate the project D. Redo the business case for the project

15. A - All key stakeholders' concerns must be addressed. George must first understand these concerns and determine the root cause before taking any action. He must request the objecting stakeholder to provide further details so that he can analyze the situation. Taking immediate action without understanding the problem and determining the root cause is poor project management. Finally, this issue must be recorded in the issue log. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. In order to facilitate project configuration and change management on complex projects, a project manager relies on configuration and change management tools. Such tools: A. Can be manual or automatic; the selection depends on the pro-environment and requirements. B. Must be manual; a complex project requires all change requests manually signed. C. Must be automatic; a complex project requires complex change co procedures. D. Change control must be manual, but the configuration control m automatic.

15. A - In order to facilitate configuration and change management, manual or automated tools may be used. Tool selection should be based on the needs of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 118] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Stanley's project is in execution. Stanley has a monthly stakeholder update meeting scheduled in which he presents the project's progress and current issues to the key stakeholders. During the last stakeholder update meeting, the stakeholders requested Stanley to provide bi-weekly project updates instead of monthly updates. The communication management plan has been broadly framed, and it does not restrict Stanley from doing bi-weekly updates. What should Stanley do? A. Start providing bi-weekly updates instead of monthly updates B. Update the communication management plan prior to providing the weekly updates C. Disregard the stakeholders' request and continue with the monthly up D. Request that the stakeholders submit a change request

15. A - The key stakeholders' concerns and requests can never be disregarded. Since the communication management plan is flexible and it does not restrict Stanley from doing bi-weekly updates, Stanley must immediately accept the key stakeholders' request. Since this is not impacting the communication management plan, there is no need to go through the formal change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 389] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Which of the following stakeholder analysis techniques is recommended when you need to analyze project stakeholders based on their power, urgency, and legitimacy? A. Salience model B. Power/interest grid C. Power/influence grid D. Influence/impact grid

15. A - The salience model is used to analyze classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 513] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. George is managing a telecommunication network deployment project. Most of the key project stakeholders are happy with the project so far. However, George has some potential concerns that might become issues in the near future. The next project status update meeting with the key stakeholders is the next day. What should George do? A. Wait until the concerns become issues B. Discuss these concerns with the key stakeholders C. Do not report the concerns in the next meeting but try to mitigate concerns D. Briefly discuss these concerns in the next meeting but do not make it look significant

15. B - Effective stakeholder management requires addressing potential concerns that have not yet become issues and anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders. Such concerns need to be identified and discussed as soon as possible to assess associated project risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 524] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. It is extremely important for a project manager to determine and map key stakeholder engagement levels early in the project. Which of the following statements support this claim: A. Stakeholder engagement levels change during the lifecycle of the pro B. Stakeholder engagement throughout the lifecycle of the project is critical to project success Leading stakeholders assume a supportive role during project execution Development of the stakeholder assessment matrix is a mandatory PMBOK requirement

15. B - No project management practice, tool or technique is a mandatory requirement in PMBOK. Rather, PMBOK allows project managers to tailor the PMBOK processes to suit the needs of a project. Although the rest of the three statements are true, the question is asking for the 'reason' of stakeholder engagement mapping exercise since the reason will support the claim. The correct answer is that the stakeholder engagement throughout the life cycle of the project is critical to project success. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 551] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Nancy has recently become the project manager for a project already in execution. Nancy has learned the previous project manager did a good job so far and religiously followed the PMBOK guiding principles. However, some of the project communications don't make sense to her. Which of the project artifacts should Nancy refer to in order to determine reasons for distribution of some reports? A. Stakeholder engagement plan and the scope management plan B. Stakeholder engagement plan and the communications management p C. Scope management plan and the communications management plan D. Scope management plan and the risk management plan

15. B - The reason for information distribution are documented both in stakeholder engagement plan and communications management plan. Nancy should refer to both of these plans. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 377, 522] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Key project stakeholders can significantly influence a project in many ways. During which stage of the project do these stakeholders have the maximum ability to influence a project? A. Planning B. Initiating C. Executing D. Monitoring & Controlling

15. B - The stakeholder influence is highest at the start of the project and decreases as the project progresses towards completion. This is due to the fact that risk and uncertainty are greatest at the start of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Which of the following actions decreases the risk of the project failing to meet its goals and objectives? A. Discouraging changes to the initial project scope B. Acquiring more than required resources C. Active management of stakeholders D. Fast-tacking the project schedule to finish the project before deadline

15. C - Changes are inevitable. Acquiring more than required resources with put a strain on the budget and hence might compromise the project's financial goals. Fast-tracking always induces risk to the project. However, active management of stakeholders almost guarantees a decrease in project risk. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 504-506] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is a very important project management process. An ineffective effort in this process can sabotage the whole project. Which of the following is the key benefit of this process? A. It makes the Manage Communications process redundant. B. It produces the stakeholder engagement plan. C. It increases support and minimizes resistance from stakeholders. D. Lessons learned are documented during this process.

15. C - Lessons learned can get documented during any project management process. The key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is that it allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders, significantly increasing the changes to achieve project success. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Sandra is managing a software development project. The project has many stakeholders having a negative attitude toward the project. Sandra knows she can't keep everybody happy but still can try her best to manage them. Which of the following can help Sandra manage these negative stakeholders better? A. Ignore them B. Send them project updates C. Engage them in project decisions D. Send inaccurate project reports

15. C - Regardless how bad the situation is, send inaccurate project reports is never an option. Further ignoring the negative stakeholders is not recommended. Sending periodic project updates will help but the best way to reduce the negative bias towards the project is to involve the negative stakeholders in project decisions so they get a sense of ownership. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 504-506] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. A new project manager has just taken over a project that is 50 percent complete. As part of the hand-over process, the outgoing project manager provided the new project manager with a list of stakeholders that needed to be managed. The list had been compiled at the start of the project. Which of the following is true about stakeholders? A. Stakeholder identification is usually performed when there are problems with the project B. Stakeholder identification needs to happen at the start of each new of a project C. Stakeholder identification is a continuous process and needs to happen through the project D. Stakeholder identification needs to happen at the start of the project

15. C - Stakeholder identification is a continuous process and can be quite difficult. Failure to identify stakeholders can result in project overruns. The new project manager can use the list of stakeholders provided by the outgoing project manager as a starting point, but he or she will still need to perform his or her own analysis to identify stakeholders during the rest of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 507]

15. PMBOK offers a number of tools and techniques for all the project management processes. These tools and techniques must be carefully applied in order to meet the objectives of any process. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process? A. Expert judgment B. Meetings C. Decision-making D. Interpersonal skills

15. D - 'Interpersonal skills' is not a tool or technique of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. The rest of the choice are valid tools or techniques. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Anna has recently taken over a project as the project manager. The project is early in the executing phase. Although all the key stakeholders signed off on the project scope statement, Anna learns that some of the key stakeholders do not fully understand the project scope. The stakeholders' constant support is crucial for the success of the project. What must Anna do? A. Email the copy of the scope management plan to the key p stakeholders B. Don't do anything since all the key project stakeholders signed the statement. C. Email the copy of the scope statement to the key project stakeholders D. Conduct one-to-one meeting sessions with these key stakeholder ensure they understand the project scope

15. D - It is Anna's duty to ensure that all key project stakeholders understand the project scope and are aligned with the project management plan. Anna must conduct one-to-one meetings with those key stakeholders that are not fully aware of the project scope. Just emailing copies of the plans is not sufficient. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. A company hires you to work as a project manager in a foreign country. You discover that you must pay kickbacks to the officials there to get licenses for your project. What should you do? A. Offer kickbacks but inform your management B. Resign from the project C. Offer kickbacks but document them in the project cost management p D. Refuse to pay kickbacks

15. D - Offering kickbacks is against the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Resigning from the project is not an appropriate action. Thus, you must refuse to pay kickbacks. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

15. The stakeholder engagement plan is developed early during project planning phase. However, as the project moves into its execution phase, project stakeholders' needs, interests and/or influence might change. If a significant change happens, what should the project manager do? A. Refer the issue to the project sponsor B. Hold all project communications until the issue has a resolution C. Seek expert judgment from the project sponsor D. Revisit the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process

15. D - The Plan Stakeholder Engagement is an iterative process. Stakeholders' needs, interests or influence might change during the project lifecycle and whenever a significant change happens, the project manager must revisit the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process and update the stakeholder engagement plan accordingly. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 518] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Tom is managing a software development project. The buyer of the product is an external entity. During the project's execution, Tom finds that a new operations manager was hired in the customer organization. The new manager is now a key stakeholder. Which of the following documents is least likely to be updated because of the addition of this new stakeholder? A. Stakeholder register B. Risk register C. Stakeholder engagement plan D. Issue log

15. D - The stakeholder register must be updated since a new project stakeholder has joined the project. Changes to the stakeholder engagement plan might also be required to ensure that the new key stakeholder is properly engaged with the project. Addition of a new key stakeholder might bring some additional uncertainty to the project; this should be recorded in the risk register. The issue log is least likely to be updated in this case since no new issue has emerged. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Stakeholder Management]

15. Lena is managing the construction of a new office facility for her company. The project is halfway through the execution. The project sponsor has asked Lena to ensure that all key project stakeholders are still committed to the project. How can Lena assess the stakeholders' current engagement levels? A. By analyzing the most recent issue register B. By reviewing the Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix updated during the planning phase of the project C. By requesting the key stakeholders to submit a signed declaration commitment D. By communicating and interacting with the key stakeholders

15. D - The stakeholders' current engagement levels can be assessed by communicating and interacting with them. Reviewing the Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix developed during the planning phase of the project will be of little help, if it has not been reviewed since then. Analyzing the issue register can indicate stakeholder engagement levels, but this document alone is not sufficient to determine the current engagement levels. Asking the stakeholders to sign a declaration of commitment is ridiculous. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 524] [Project Stakeholder Management]

16. A project manager manages a distributed team with team members located in five countries. Due to time zone differences, he cannot find a time that is acceptable to all team members. Which conflict resolution technique is best suited for this situation? A. Compromise B. Force C. Withdraw D. Avoid

16. A - A compromise requires searching for options that bring some degree to satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict. This would be the best way to handle the current situation, since time zone differences are not under anyone's control. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349] [Project Resource Management]

16. You are a project manager working on a project to create high-efficiency electric motors for a company introducing a new electric golf cart. Your company's president is keenly interested in the project and requests a chart that shows the number of defects by type ordered by their frequency of occurrence. Which type of chart would BEST meet this request? A. Histogram B. Control chart C. Statistical sampling D. Scatter diagram

16. A - Histograms show a graphical representation of numerical data. A histogram can be used to display how many defects were produced by type or category of cause and ordered by their frequency. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

16. Jack is currently identifying stakeholders in his automobile project. While talking to his senior manager, Jack learns that one of the key stakeholders, whom he identified in his project, is so influential that he or she cancelled an IT project before it moved into the planning phase. What should Jack do with such influential stakeholders? A. Get an approval from sponsor to eliminate him or her from the project B. Involve this person from the beginning of the project and manage closely C. Provide limited access to project information compared to stakeholders D. Provide more access to project information compared to stakeholders

16. B - All stakeholders must be identified as early as possible in the project. The stakeholders can be positive or negative. They must be classified based on their influence, interest, expectations, and importance. A project manager must not hide information. He or she must provide equal access to all stakeholders who are authorized to have that information. Thus, Jack must involve the influential stakeholders from the beginning of the project and manage them closely. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Project Stakeholder Management]

16. Which of the following is NOT a knowledge management tools and technique? A. Networking B. Change requests C. Knowledge fairs and cafes D. Storytelling

16. B - Change request is a change management tool and not a knowledge management tool. The other choices are valid examples of knowledge management tools. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 103] [Project Framework]

16. Decision tree analysis is used to calculate the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. What are a decision node's inputs and outputs? A. Input: Cost of each decision; Output: Probability of occurrence B. Input: Cost of each decision; Output: Decision made C. Input: Scenario probability; Output: Expected Monetary Value (EMV D. Input: Cost of each decision; Output: Payoff

16. B - Decision tree analysis is used to calculate the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. In a decision node, the input is the cost of each decision and the output is a decision made. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

16. Business value is also defined as the aggregate of all tangible and intangible elements of the business. Which of the following is NOT an example of a tangible business element? A. Monetary assets B. Goodwill C. Fixtures D. Stockholder equity

16. B - Good will is an intangible element, while the rest are considered tangible elements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 7] [Project Integration Management]

16. When possible, the detailed project schedule _________ throughout the project to adjust for knowledge gained, increased understanding of the risk, and value-added activities. A. Should stand firm B. Should remain flexible C. Must be avoided D. Must be inflated

16. B - Ideally the detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to adjust for knowledge gained, increased understanding of the risk, and value-added activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 175] [Project Schedule Management]

16. You are assisting Benjamin, another project manager, to interview candidates for a resource position on his project. While reviewing your interview notes together, you notice that he sorts the candidate's resumes into two piles: One pile for further interviews, the other for candidates that did not meet the requirements for the position. You also notice that he has placed several of the highly qualified candidates in the second pile, stating that those interviewees "did not fit the corporate profile." Upon further review, you discover that all these candidates are of the same ethnic group. What do you do? A. Excuse yourself from the interviewing process B. Report this to the appropriate management C. File a complaint with PMI D. Do nothing

16. B - Report this to the appropriate management immediately. Discrimination based on nationality is prohibited by the PMI Code of Ethics and may also be illegal, depending on local laws. PMI requires project managers to report discriminatory behavior to the appropriate management; not doing so is a violation of the Code of Ethics. [PMI

16. The termination clause and alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mechanism for each procurement in a project is in the: A. Scope Statement B. Agreement C. Resource Calendars D. Source Selection Criteria

16. B - The termination clause and alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mechanism for each procurement in a project are documented in the respective procurement agreement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

16. Your project team works in two different buildings across the city. The team has been struggling to perform effectively and has a difficult time resolving problems. What would be the BEST team development technique to resolve this issue? A. Mediation B. Rewards C. Co-location D. Training

16. C - Co-location is an organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically moved or placed next to one another to improve communication, working relationships and productivity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 340] [Project Resource Management]

16. Which of the following is an output from the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. Budgeted costs B. Project charter C. Work performance data D. Execution plan

16. C - The Direct and Manage Project Work process involves the management of the direction of the planned project activities. Work Performance Data is routinely collected as part of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 90] [Project Integration Management]

16. The list of identified risks is found in the risk register. However, the overall high-level project risks is first listed in the: A. Scope statement B. Requirement document C. Project charter D. Risk management plan

16. C - The project charter is a document that authorizes the project. Along with details such as the purpose of the project, project objectives, high level requirements, etc., it also lists the overall project risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 81] [Project Integration Management]

16. Various tools and techniques determine project requirements during the Collect Requirements process. These requirements form the basis for defining the project scope. One of the responsibilities of a project manager is to identify key project deliverables during this exercise. Where are the key project deliverables documented? A. Scope Management Plan B. Requirements Management Plan C. Project Scope Statement D. Accepted Deliverables

16. C - The project scope statement provides the product description, acceptance criteria, key deliverables, project boundaries, assumptions, and constraints about the project. The scope management plan and the requirements management plan are the subsidiary plans of the overall project management plan and they detail how the project team needs to manage the project scope and requirements respectively. These plan do not document the actual scope of the project. Accepted Deliverables is the wrong answer since deliverables are accepted post completion and validation, the identification of the key deliverable is done early during the planning phase of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154] [Project Scope Management]

16. A management control point where scope, budget and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement is a: A. Code of accounts B. Control packages C. Control account D. Account Plan

16. C - This is a control account. Control accounts are placed at selected management points of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). Each control account may include one or more work packages, but each of the work packages must be associated with only one control account.

16. You have just joined a new organization as a project manager. You have heard a number of rumors about the procurement manager having possible underhanded dealings with suppliers. However, you have no proof these rumors are true. Your project requires a large number of dump trucks. Company policy mandates that all purchases go through the procurement department rather than the department employees. The value of the dump truck purchase is US$395,000, and the contract went to a supplier your company regularly uses. Shortly after taking delivery of the dump trucks, you learn the procurement manager is driving a new car. What should you do? A. Ask the procurement manager about the purchase of her new car B. Report this to the appropriate management C. Talk to the supplier to find out if there was a bribe involved in the pro D. Do nothing

16. D - No action is required in this situation. Although PMI's Code of Ethics requires project managers to report illegal or unethical activity to the appropriate management, you have no evidence that there has been any wrongdoing in this situation. Therefore, reporting or investigating the procurement manager's new car purchase is unwarranted. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

16. On-demand scheduling is one of the techniques used in agile projects. This type of scheduling relies on: A. A schedule that was developed previously for the development of project increments. B. Discretionary dependencies that cannot be changed by the project tea C. Skills of the project manager rather than the skills of the team. D. A backlog or intermediate queue of work to be done.

16. D - On-demand scheduling does not rely on a schedule that was developed previously for the development of the product or product increments, but rather pulls work from a backlog or intermediate queue of work to be done immediately as resources become available. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Resource Management]

16. Your drug manufacturing project requires the synthesis of many pharmaceutical chemicals to produce an active ingredient for a drug. You are managing a contractor to supply all these chemicals. Recent quality testing of the drugs raised concerns over the quality of the chemicals supplied by the contractor. Which of the following must be your first action to ensure that the contractor is meeting all contractual obligations? A. Escalate this issue to the sponsor and submit all drug testing reports B. Reject all poor quality drugs and penalize the contractor C. Convene a meeting with stakeholders and communicate the findings D. Carry out audits and inspections to verify compliance in the seller's deliverables

16. D - Since the drug testing raised doubts over the chemicals supplied by the contractor, you must ensure that the contractor is satisfying quality requirements by inspecting and auditing the seller's deliverables. Auditing can also include seller's personnel. All other actions, including meeting with the sponsor and stakeholders, can be performed later if the seller is not meeting contractual requirements. Therefore, your first action should be to perform audits and inspections to verify compliance of the seller's deliverables. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

16. Mary has just assigned Thomas as project manager of an upcoming railway construction project. She hands an approved project charter to Thomas. Once Thomas thoroughly reviews the project charter, what should he do next? A. Review the charter once again since one thorough review is never end B. Kick-start the Develop Project Management Plan process C. Add the project charter to the organizational lessons-learned archive D. Distribute the charter to all key project stakeholders and ensure com understanding

16. D - Upon the receipt of the approved project charter, it is the project manager's responsibility to inform all key stakeholders of the approved project charter and to ensure common understanding of the key deliverables, milestones, and their roles and responsibilities. This is also mentioned in the PMP examination content outline as one of the project manager's task during project initiation. [PMI best practice; not explicitly stated in PMBOK] [Project Integration Management]

17. The formula for Cost Variance is: A. CV=EV-AC B. CV=AC-EV C. CV=BAC-(AC-EV) D. CV=SV-BC

17. A - CV equals earned value (EV) minus actual cost (AC). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 262] [Project Cost Management]

17. Midway through a project, a project manager determined the project was running far behind schedule. If the project manager needs to shorten the project schedule without changing the project scope, which of the following schedule compression techniques could he use? A. Crashing B. Reserve Analysis C. Forecasting D. Last Tracking

17. A - Crashing is a technique that can be applied to compress the project schedule without changing the project scope. Another option is fast tracking. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 215] [Project Schedule Management]

17. You have been assigned as the project manager for a software development project. You are currently communicating with stakeholders and addressing their issues and expectations. Which of the following documents are inputs to this effort? A. The Issue log, Project charter, and Configuration management system B. The stakeholder engagement plan, communications management plan the change log C. The Project risk register, Work performance information, and Acc deliverables D. Business case, change requests, and control charts

17. B - Communicating with stakeholders to address their issues is done during the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. The stakeholder engagement plan, communications management plan and the change log are some of the inputs of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

17. Long hours to meet a looming deadline and immense pressure for success from management are causing a decline in team morale. There are occasional conflicts between team members over priorities and resources. How should these non-disruptive conflicts be handled? A. Use of disciplinary actions B. Using a private, direct, and collaborative approach first C. Escalation to senior management D. Arbitration

17. B - Conflicts should be addressed early. A private, direct and collaborative approach should be employed first. [PMBOK 6th edition,

17. You have been asked to create a graphic display of schedule-related information, listing schedule activities on the left side of the chart, dates on the top, and activity durations as date-placed horizontal bars on the right side. What is such a chart called? A. PERT chart B. Gantt chart C. Hunt chart D. GERT chart

17. B - Such a chart is called a Gantt chart. This is a popular representation of project schedule information. Activity start dates, end dates, durations, dependencies, and milestones are easily depicted on this chart in a graphical manner. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 217] [Project Schedule Management]

17. The most detailed level of the WBS is the _______________. A. Control Account B. Work package C. Scope statement D. Accepted Deliverable

17. B - The work package is the lowest and most detailed level of the WBS and can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 157] [Project Scope Management]

17. Which of the following is an example of a chart, used on agile projects, that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog? A. Histogram B. Control chart C. Burndown chart D. Scatter diagrams

17. C - An iteration burndown chart tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog. The rest of the choices quality management tools. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 226] [Project Schedule Management]

17. A number of identified risks occurred early in a project. As a result, most of the project objectives ended up in jeopardy. The project manager decided to present a case to management that the project be closed down. This is an example of: A. Risk Acceptance B. Risk Mitigation C. Risk Avoidance D. Risk Transfer

17. C - Risk avoidance involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the risk. Although an extreme situation, shutting down a project constitutes a radical but legitimate avoidance strategy. [PMBOK

17. A project manager is spending most of the project funding in the current phase of the project. The manager is also managing various resources in the project. What is the stakeholder influence on the project now compared to earlier phases? A. Cannot be determined B. More C. Less D. Same

17. C - Since the project manager is spending most of the money and managing resources, he or she is currently in the execution phase of the project. Spending levels reach a maximum in the execution phase. Stakeholder influences on the project decrease over the life of the project. Hence, stakeholder influence is now less than in previous phases. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Framework]

17. Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. A project manager prepared a display chart of sensitivity analysis for his project. The diagram contained a series of bars with the length of the bars corresponding to the risk impact on the project. The longer the bar, the greater was the risk presented. Such a chart is likely to be: A. An assessment diagram B. A triangular distribution C. A tornado diagram D. A funnel distribution

17. C - The chart is likely to be a tornado diagram. Tornado diagrams are useful for comparing relative importance and impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable. The variables are positioned vertically, and the bars extend horizontally. The longest bar is at the top of the chart, and the shortest bar is at the bottom. This resembles the shape of a tornado; hence the name. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 434] [Project Risk Management]

17. The project management team expects that during the course of the project there could be delays in component delivery due to strikes, changes to the permitting processes, or extensions of specific engineering durations. What analysis could be helpful in preparing contingency and response plans to mitigate these issues? A. Contingency analysis B. Variance analysis C. What-If scenario analysis D. Schedule compression

17. C - What-If Scenario Analysis is used to assess the feasibility of the project schedule under adverse conditions. This is an analysis of the question "What if the situation represented by scenario 'X' happens?" It is used in preparing contingency and response plans to mitigate the impact of adverse conditions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 213] [Project Schedule Management]

17. You have just returned from the weekly change control board meeting at which you presented the requested changes to the employee move project. You had five change requests approved and one request rejected. These are outputs of what process? A. Control Quality B. Control Scope C. Monitor Risks D. Perform Integrated Change Control

17. D - Approved and rejected change requests are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Integration Management]

17. While conducting interviews for a project manager position, you notice that your classmate is one of the prospective candidates. What should you do immediately? A. Encourage your classmate by offering some tips B. Resign from the interview panel C. Remove your classmate from the list D. Inform the interview panel of the relationship

17. D - As a project manager, you have a responsibility to disclose to the interview panel that interviewing your classmate could represent a potential conflict of interest. It is up to the panel to decide on the best course of action, which might include excusing you from the interview process. Therefore, your first step is to inform the interview panel of the relationship. Offering tips to your classmate would violate the fairness standard of the PMI code of ethics and professional conduct. Removing your classmate is not appropriate. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

17. Which of these is not a data gathering technique used in the Identify Risks process? A. Interviewing B. Checklists C. Brainstorming D. Delta technique

17. D - Delta technique is not a valid type of data gathering technique. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] [Project Risk Management]

17. As a project manager, you are analyzing a process and looking for opportunities for improvements by identifying and analyzing non-value added activities. This relates to which of the following tools and techniques of the Manage Quality process? A. Quality Audits B. Affinity diagrams C. Interrelationship digraphs D. Process Analysis

17. D - Process analysis helps identify opportunities for improvements by identifying and analyzing non-value-added activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 292]

17. What term defines the work needed to deliver a product, service, or result? A. Product scope B. Scope creep C. Scope verification D. Project scope

17. D - Project scope describes the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service, or result to the stakeholders. Product scope describes the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Scope Management]

17. Which of the following statements correctly define the 100 percent rule for WBS? A. The project is only considered complete once all requirements define the original scope statements have been completed. B. The project is only considered complete once all requirements in the approved scope baseline have been completed. C. The final deliverables should fully conform to product require nothing less, nothing more. D. The total of the work at the work package level should roll up to higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is performed

17. D - The WBS represents all product and project work, including the project management work. The total of the work at the lowest levels should roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is performed. This is called the 100 percent rule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Integration Management]

17. Jack is the project manager of a project that is halfway through its execution. He is currently looking at the work schedule. He adjusts a few of the schedule milestones and imposes date constraints for some of the work packages. This relates to which of the following processes? A. Control Quality B. Develop Schedule C. Control Scope D. Control Schedule

17. D - The project is halfway through the execution. Since the project manager is adjusting the project plans, this needs to be a process from the monitoring and controlling process group. Jack is currently performing the Control Schedule process as he is adjusting the project schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 222] [Project Schedule Management]

18. At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to? A. Zero B. Equal to the total PV C. One D. Equal to the total EV

18. A - The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. At the end of the project, all of the planned values should be earned, and the difference should be zero. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 262] [Project Cost Management]

18. One of your team leaders informs you that a team member criticizes him constantly about the allocation of tasks. The team leader also asserts that this team member is also responsible for the delay of many tasks, leading to delays in the project schedule. What action should you take as a project manager? A. Conduct a meeting with the sponsor, team leader, and the team member B. Approach the team member and understand his point of view C. Replace the team member Direct your team leader to issue a memo

18. B - A project manager should manage such a conflict by directly approaching the team member who caused the conflict. According to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, a project manager must be responsible and show respect. He or she must listen to others' viewpoints, seeking to understand them before making a decision. Neither replacing the team member nor issuing a memo is an appropriate action. Involving the sponsor in team issues is not an appropriate action either, unless the issues are beyond the project manager's control.

18. One of the senior team members, who is the best performer in your project, plays favorites. A few of the other team members who work closely with this team member have gotten exceptionally good appraisal reports in the past, even though they may not have deserved them. As the project manager, what do you need to actively do? A. Ask all the members of your team who are appraisers of other members to be liberal in their appraisals. This will help compensate the appraisals the senior team member does. B. Speak to the senior team member and ask him or her to do appraisal fairly, in accordance with the appraisal guidelines. C. Ignore the matter since you would otherwise lose a senior team me who is key to your project. D. Ensure that the senior team member does not get to appraise anybody

18. B - As project manager, you need to speak to the senior team member and ask for all appraisals to be done in an objective manner. The other options are incorrect. Ignoring the matter will not help solve it. The other two options are likewise impractical. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

18. Changes in projects are inevitable. Therefore, project managers must develop or use a system to manage and control changes. There are four types of changes that need to be controlled in a project: Project changes, deliverable changes, process changes, and baseline changes. The impact of each of these changes must be evaluated, and approved or rejected changes must be communicated to all stakeholders, as and when required. Which of the following helps control these changes? A. Configuration control and Control chart B. Configuration control and Change control C. Control chart and Cost control D. Change control and Control chart

18. B - Configuration control is focused on the specification of both the processes and deliverables, whereas change control is focused on project changes and the product baselines. A configuration control process and change control system must be implemented to handle all those changes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [Project Integration Management]

18. In the earned value management technique, the cost performance baseline is: A. Cost Measurement Baseline (CMB) B. Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) C. Performance Base Value (PBV) D. Actual Baseline (AB)

18. B - The cost performance baseline is an authorized time-phased budget at completion (BAC). It is used to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance on the project. In the earned value management technique, the cost performance baseline is referred to as the performance measurement baseline (PMB). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 254] [Project Cost Management]

18. Which of the following is neither an input nor an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. Approved change requests B. Change requests C. Approved deliverables D. Deliverables

18. C - Approved deliverables are neither an input nor an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Approved or accepted deliverables are outputs of the Validate Scope process and are the inputs of the Close Project or Phase process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 90] [Project Integration Management]

18. The organization's strategy provides a strategic direction and performance parameters for identifying, selecting, and delivering the right mix of projects. If it is determined that some of the CEO's favorite projects do not fully align with the business objective, the PMO manager must: A. Recommendation a realignment of the strategy B. Terminate the project C. Recommend a realignment of the project objectives D. Honor the CEO's desires and execute the project

18. C - Honoring the CEO's desires and executing the project is against the PMI's Code of Ethics since the project manager knows that some of the projects are not fully aligned with the strategy. Terminating the project is an extreme and should not be the first consideration. The project manager must make a recommendation to realign the project objectives with the organizational strategy since value to the business can only be delivered when projects remain aligned with the strategic direction of the organization. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 14] [Project Integration Management]

18. Which of the following processes gives the project management team insights into the health of the project? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Perform Integrated Change Control C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Determine Budget

18. C - It must be a process from the Monitoring and Controlling process group. The correct response is Monitor and Control Project Work. This is the process for collecting, measuring, and disseminating performance information and for assessing measurements and trends to effect process improvements. Monitoring includes status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 105] [Project Integration Management]

18. As a project manager, you are concerned with both prevention and inspection of errors in a work product. The difference between prevention and inspection is: A. Inspection is work the Quality Control (QC) team does; the Q Assurance (QA) team does Prevention. B. Inspection refers to keeping errors out of the process; prevention ref keeping errors out of the customer's hands. C. Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process; inspection ref keeping errors out of the customer's hands. D. Inspection and prevention refer to the same activity depending on stage of the project the activity is done.

18. C - Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process, while inspection refers to keeping errors out of the hands of the customer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274] [Project Quality Management]

18. As part of your resource management plan, you have created a chart indicating the number of hours (Y-axis) that a senior programmer will be working over the months (X-axis) of the project. This is an example of a: A. Pareto Chart B. Ishikawa Diagram C. Resource Histogram D. Staff Acquisition Chart

18. C - Resource histogram is a bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 719] [Project Resource Management]

18. Which of the following best describes the Validate Scope process? A. Validating that the project quality requirements are met B. Controlling changes to the scope of the project C. Obtaining the stakeholders' formal acceptance of the project deliverable D. Validating that all of the project's objectives are met

18. C - Scope Validation involves obtaining the stakeholders' formal acceptance of project deliverables. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 163] [Project Scope Management]

18. Lucy has to brief her key project stakeholders on the recent approved changes to the project scope. Which of the following project documents will provide essential input to Lucy for preparing her presentation? A. Change request form B. Change control procedures C. Change log D. Issue management procedures

18. C - The change control procedure and the issue management procedure are organizational process assets. They do not document the details of the recently approved project changes. Lucy can find all the essential inputs for her presentation in the project change log. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 120]

18. During a weekly status meeting, a team member suggests adding a component to the project. As the project manager, you maintain that all focus should stay on the current scope and not on any enhancements. Focusing on the current scope is an example of: A. Gold-plating B. Scope verification C. Scope management D. Change control

18. C - This is an example of scope management. If the team actually implemented the change, that would be gold plating. Scope verification is done near the closure of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] [Project Scope Management]

18. There are two activities on your schedule: 1) Install server in lab, and 2) Move server into the data center. However, the second task cannot start until the server has run in the lab for five days without failure. This is an example of what? A. Fast Track B. Lead C. Crashing D. Lag

18. D - A Lag is a modification of a logical relationship that directs a delay in a successor activity. In this case, there is a 5-day delay before the server can be moved into the data center. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192] [Project Schedule Management]

18. A buyer and seller set the rates for junior engineers, senior engineers, architects, and other predefined roles. In what type of contract would this be applicable? A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract B. Fixed-price incentive contract C. Fixed-price contract D. Time and material contract

18. D - In time-and-materials contracts, the buyer and seller agree on unit labor rates and the actual cost of materials. Both parties agree on specific hourly rates for such categories as junior or senior engineers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

18. Which of the following should be avoided while applying logical relationships to project activities: A. Applying the SS relationship with a lead B. Applying the SS relationship with a lag C. Applying the SF relationship D. Applying multiple relationships between the same activities

18. D - Multiple relationships between the same activities are not recommended, so a decision has to be made to select the relationship with the highest impact. Closed loops are also not recommended in logical relationships. The other choices are valid approaches. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Quality Management]

18. Which of the following techniques can help clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases so that mutual agreement between a buyer and a seller can be reached prior to signing the contract? A. Independent estimates B. Advertising C. Bidder conferences D. Procurement negotiations

18. D - Procurement negotiations help clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases so that mutual agreement between a buyer and a seller can be reached prior to signing the contract. The bidders' conferences are carried out prior to this stage, and they are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement requirements. Advertising and Independent Estimates cannot help in this case. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 488] [Project Procurement Management]

18. Which of the following is a hierarchical representation of project risks? A. Risk Register B. Risk Mitigation C. Risk Categories D. Risk Breakdown Structure

18. D - The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical presentation of the project risks sorted by risk categories. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 405] [Project Risk Management]

18. 20 percent of the work was completed in a project. At this stage, the project manager determined that the budget at completion (BAC) was no longer viable and developed a forecasted estimate at completion (EAC). What index can the project manager use to look at the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work? A. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) B. Cost Performance Index (CPI) C. Cost Variance (CV) D. To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

18. D - The to-complete performance index (TCPI) is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified goal such as the BAC or EAC. It is defined as the work remaining divided by the funds remaining. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 266] [Project Cost Management]

19. Which of the following is true about risks? A. A risk may have one or more causes, and, if it occurs, may have o more effects. B. A risk usually has a single cause and, if it occurs, may have one or effects. C. A risk usually has a single cause and, if it occurs, usually has a s effect. D. A risk usually has more than one cause, and if it occurs, usually single effect.

19. A - A project risk is an uncertain event or condition whose occurrence may affect the objectives of the project. A risk may have one or many causes, and if it occurs, it may have one or more impacts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 417] [Project Risk Management]

19. A project uses rounding of activity cost estimates data to the nearest $100, uses staff hours as the unit of measure for resources, and has a variance threshold of 10 percent deviation from the baseline plan. These approaches are typically documented in the: A. Cost management plan B. Scope Statement C. WBS D. Project charter

19. A - Cost management processes and their associated tools and techniques are documented in the cost management plan. These include parameters such as the level of accuracy (how much rounding), units of measure (staff hours, weeks, etc.), and control thresholds (percentage deviation from baseline plan). [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 238, 239] [Project Cost Management]

19. If an investment in a project returns 15 percent annually, how much should you invest to get $5 million by the end of the fifth year? A. 2485884 B. 2857143 C. 2501376 D. 2685292

19. A - Present Value = Future Value / (1 + interest rate)^(Period) = 5,000,000 / (1 + 15%)^5 = 2,485,884 [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 34, http://www.investopedia.com/walkthrough/corporate-finance/3/timevalue-money/present-value-discounting.aspx] [Project Integration Management]

19. As a project manager, you are analyzing the costs incurred in a project. Which of the following costs cannot be classified under cost of nonconformance? A. Quality Assurance Costs B. Warranty costs C. Costs due to loss of reputation D. Rework costs

19. A - The Quality Assurance Costs are part of the cost of conformance. The cost of non-conformance includes the failure costs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282] [Project Quality Management]

19. A detailed milestone list is created as an output of what process? A. Sequence Activities B. Define Activities C. Develop Project Charter D. Develop Schedule

19. B - A detailed milestone list is created as an output of the Define Activities process and includes information on whether the milestone is mandatory or optional. Note that the project charter also contains milestone information but at a higher level. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 186] [Project Schedule Management]

19. What type of method uses a weighting ranking system for quantifying qualitative data to minimize the effect of personal bias during the process of selecting a seller? A. Independent estimates B. Source Selection Criteria C. Vendor audits D. Sourcing workshops

19. B - A weighting system is a method for quantifying qualitative data to minimize the effect of personal bias on seller selection. This is a part of the source selection criteria. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 478] [Project Procurement Management]

19. Which of the following is NOT a valid project schedule presentation format: A. Activity list B. Activity attributes C. Bar chart D. Network diagram

19. B - Activity attribute is not a valid project schedule presentation format while the rest of the choices are. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 176] [Project Quality Management]

19. A project manager is estimating project costs and needs to decide whether the estimates will include direct costs only or include indirect costs, as well. In which of the following phases does this decision need to take place? A. Define Scope B. Estimate Costs C. Plan Expenses D. Determine Budget

19. B - This is done in the Estimate Costs process. The project manager works in accordance with the organization's guidelines and decides whether the estimates will be limited to direct project costs only or whether the estimates will also include indirect costs. Indirect costs are those that cannot be traced to one specific project, and are usually allocated equitably over multiple projects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 246] [Project Cost Management]

19. Which of these statements is true? A. The cost of correcting mistakes through an inspection is much less the cost of preventing them. B. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much less than the co correcting them as revealed by inspection. C. It does not matter where a defect is captured as long as the finished product does not have a defect. D. The cost of correcting mistakes through an inspection is more or le same as the cost of preventing them since the same effort goes into activities.

19. B - This is one of the basic tenets of project and quality management. The cost of preventing mistakes is generally much less than the cost of correcting them as revealed by inspection. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274] [Project Quality Management]

19. Organizations evaluate whether to buy products or make the items themselves. Which of the following is not a factor that influences make or-buy decisions: A. Core capabilities of the organization B. Value delivered by vendors meeting the need C. Total duration of the project D. Risk associated with meeting the need in a cost-effective manner

19. C - A make-or-buy analysis results in a decision as to whether particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or needs to be outsourced. The total duration of the project does not (and should not) influence this analysis. The other choices are rational considerations during this analysis. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 479] [Project Procurement Management]

19. Which type of risk analysis ranks risks for future action or analysis by evaluating their probability of occurrence and impact? A. RBS B. Assumptions analysis C. Qualitative analysis D. Quantitative analysis

19. C - Qualitative analysis examines risks from the risk register and analyzes each risk's probability of occurrence and the effect it would have on the project deliverables if it did occur. It ranks risks for future action or analysis by evaluating their probability of occurrence and impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 419] [Project Risk Management]

19. How does time-boxing help minimize scope creep in agile projects? A. It forces the team to create project WBS using the user stories. B. It forces the sponsor to allocate a Scrum master who helps in eliminate scope creep. C. It forces the team to process essential features first, then other feature D. It forces the team to convert the user stories into epics.

19. C - Time-boxed periods are durations during which the team works steadily toward completion of a goal. Time-boxing helps to minimize scope creep as it forces the teams to process essential features first, then other features when time permits. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 182] [Project Risk Management]

19. What should you do as a senior project manager if the PMP certification claimed by a recently recruited project manager does not appear in the PMI website? A. Advise your new recruit to complete his certification B. Report to the PMI C. Report to the sponsor D. Request more information from the new recruit

19. D - A project manager must bring alleged unethical activities or violations of the code of conduct to PMI's attention. False certification claims must be reported to PMI. In this case, it is not yet confirmed that the recruit has made a false claim; try to get clarification from him. If you confirm that he has made a false claim, you can report this to both the PMI and the sponsor. Thus, the best answer in this situation is to request more information. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

19. Which of the following interpersonal skills is of prime importance during the collection and analysis of stakeholders' needs and expectations? A. Trust building B. Conflict resolution C. Overcoming resistance D. Active listening

19. D - Active listening is a communication technique that requires the listeners to feedback what they hear to the speaker, by way of re-stating or paraphrasing what they have heard in their own words, to confirm what they have heard and moreover, to confirm the understanding of both parties. Active listening is of prime importance during the collection and analysis of stakeholders' needs and expectations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 386] [Project Stakeholder Management]

19. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of the Acquire Resources process? A. Negotiation B. Multi-criteria decision analysis C. Pre-assignment D. Conflict management

19. D - Conflict management is not a tool and technique of the Acquire Resources process. The other choices are valid tools and techniques of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 328] [Project Resource Management]

19. A complicated software project was authorized by a project sponsor. However, the users who were intended to use the product found it extremely difficult to articulate their requirements. What technique can be employed to elicit requirements for such a project? A. Job overlaying B. Hidden participant C. Job duplication D. Job shadowing

19. D - Job shadowing is a technique that can be employed in this case. It is done externally by an observer who views the user doing his or her job. This technique is also called observation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 145] [Project Scope Management]

19. Your construction project is in execution, and you require a major change to one of your supplier agreements. Can you directly make this change with mutual consent of the supplier during the Control Procurements process, or do you have to visit the Perform Integrated Change Control process, as well? A. The change request needs to be approved through the Co Procurements process prior to making the change through the Integra Change Control process. B. The change request can be directly processed through the Co Procurements process since the change requests only affects a part supplier agreement. C. The Control Procurements process is about identifying variances supplier contract can directly be altered through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. D. The change request needs to be approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process prior to making the change through the Co Procurements process.

19. D - The change request needs to be approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process prior to making the change through the Control Procurements process. Approved change requests from the Perform Integrated Change control process are inputs of the Control Procurements process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 493] [Project Procurement Management]

19. A seller entered into a contract with a buyer. At the end of the project, the seller was reimbursed for the cost of the project but received a low fee based on certain subjective criteria that were specified in the contract. What type of contract is this likely to be? A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract C. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract D. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract

19. D - This is likely to be a Cost-Plus-Award-Fee (CPAF) contract. In such a contract, the seller is reimbursed for all legitimate costs, but the fee is based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria defined in the contract. It is generally not subject to appeals. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

2. You overlooked a high-level risk in an insurance project and failed to document it in the project charter. If the risk shows up during the planning phase, what should be your response as a project manager? A. Take the responsibility and evaluate the impact B. Call a customer meeting to inform them that risk has occurred C. Refer to the sponsor for advice D. Develop the risk response plan and communicate to the team

2. A - According to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, project managers must take ownership of the decisions they make or fail to make. Thus, you should take responsibility and evaluate the impact first. A risk response plan should be developed only after evaluating the impact. Calling a customer meeting cannot deal with the risk. You should escalate it to the sponsor only if the risk is beyond your control. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

2. When writing the roles and responsibilities for team members, you should document the role, authority, responsibility, and competency for each team member. Where must you document this information? A. Resource management plan B. RACI chart C. Resource calendar D. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

2. A - Information regarding team roles, responsibilities, authorities and competencies is documented in the Resource Management Plan. [PMBOK

2. During which of the following project processes do key stakeholders engage with the project for the first time? A. Develop Project Charter B. Identify Stakeholders C. Collect Requirements D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

2. A - Project stakeholders are involved in each of the project management processes. The Develop Project Charter is the first project management process where the key project stakeholders get engaged for the first time. Stakeholders provide expert judgment and participate in facilitated sessions during the charter development. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 80] [Project Integration Management]

2. You have recently become the project manager for a construction project. You are a new hire in your company and are unaware of the organizational project management standards. Which of the following can help you get a head start on your project? A. Communicate with other project managers in your organization B. Review the PMBOK guide thoroughly C. Develop the project charter and get it approved D. Consult the lessons learned from your previous similar projects

2. A - Reviewing the PMBOK guide or developing the charter will not help you come on board with your organization's work standards. Further, reviewing the lessons learned from you past similar projects won't help since you are a new hire in the company and your past projects are not with this organization. The best way is to talk to other project managers in the company and get their expert opinion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 58] [Project Integration Management]

2. As part of the Estimate Costs process, a project manager obtained access to certain commercially available databases to get resource cost rate information. Such published commercial information is considered what type of input? A. Enterprise environmental factor B. Historical information C. Organizational process asset D. HR Input

2. A - Such published commercial information is considered part of enterprise environmental factors that influence the Estimate Costs process.

2. As a project manager, you are in the process of preparing the project schedule for the project. Which of the following accurately depicts the sequence of your activities before you began to prepare the project schedule? A. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule B. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Activities C. Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule D. Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities

2. A - The correct sequence of processes in the Schedule Management

2. Which of the following tools and techniques are not applicable while communicating project information? A. Communication requirements analysis B. Communication technology C. Communication methods D. Information management systems

2. A - The question is asking for a tool and technique that is not part of the Manage Communications process. Communication requirements analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Communications Management process and not the Manage Communications process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Communications Management]

2. A seller began a project that was contracted on a time-and-materials (T&M) basis. Based on the agreed-upon rates and effort, the initial contract amount was $100,000 over a one-year period. However, when the project was completed, the total contract value turned out to be $350,000 over a two-year period. What mechanism could the buyer have used to prevent this unlimited cost growth and schedule change? A. Use of a not-to-exceed value and a time limit on the contract B. A service level agreement C. A penalty based on the increased cost and timeline D. Use of a fixed price contract

2. A - Use of not-to-exceed values and time limits on T & M contracts help prevent unlimited cost growth or schedule changes. A fixed-price contract is an option, but whether to choose that option is a decision to be made prior to awarding the project and signing the contract. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 78] [Project Procurement Management]

2. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of the Control Procurements process? A. Expert judgment B. Advertising C. Claims administration D. Inspection

2. B - Advertising is a tool and technique of the Conduct Procurements process. The other choices are valid tools or techniques of the Control Procurements process. [PMBOK 6th edition, pages 482, 492] [Project Procurement Management]

2. As part of tracking a project, a project manager is validating the completion of project scope. He or she would measure this against: A. Requirements traceability matrix B. The project management plan C. The project charter D. The requirements management plan

2. B - Completion of project scope is measured against the project management plan. In contrast, the product scope is measured against the product requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131]

2. As part of tracking a project, a project manager is validating the completion of project scope. He or she would measure this against: A. Requirements traceability matrix B. The Project Management Plan C. The Project Charter D. The Requirements Management Plan

2. B - Completion of project scope is measured against the scope baseline which is a part of the project management plan. In contrast, the product scope is measured against the product requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Scope Management]

2. Contingency Reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with: A. Scope creep B. Anticipated but not certain events C. Unanticipated events D. Anticipated and certain events

2. B - Contingency Reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated but not certain events. These events are also called "Known unknowns." [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 245 [Project Cost Management]

2. A project manager calls you in as a consultant to provide input on developing the Project Charter. According to the PMBOK, your contribution to the project could best be termed as: A. Professional Consultant B. Expert Judgment C. Charter Consultant D. Expert Consultancy

2. B - Expert Judgment is judgment provided, based on expertise in an application area, a knowledge area, a discipline, an industry, etc. Expert Judgment is available from many sources including consultants. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 79] [Project Integration Management]

2. A large construction project for a logistics company will require the expenditure of a large amount of capital. The finance group works with the project manager to project set limits when expenses will be incurred in a given project and to determine whether there are ways to smooth out or level the spending to avoid a single large expenditure in one quarter and none in the next. This is an example of: A. Levelized Billing B. Funding Limit Reconciliation C. A financial review D. Rescheduling

2. B - Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are usually undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore, the expenditure of funds is reconciled with the funding limits set by the customer or performing organization on the disbursement of funds for the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 253] [Project Cost Management]

2. Which of these is accurate regarding risk management? A. Organizations are not likely to perceive risk as a threat to project success B. It has its origins in the uncertainty present in all projects. C. The attitudes of individuals and organizations must not be a affecting risk management. D. It is a passive activity in project management.

2. B - Risk management does indeed have its origins in the uncertainty present in all projects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 397-400] [Project Risk Management]

2. A project manager is managing a research project. Typically, research projects are not clearly defined and involve a lot of uncertainty. The project has four phases in which a phase can only start when its previous phase is complete. What project lifecycle and phase-to-phase relationship should the project manager use for this project? A. Predictive lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship B. Iterative lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship C. Predictive lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship D. Iterative lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship

2. B - The project manager should use the Iterative life cycle since project phases and activities will most probably be repeated as the project team's understanding of the project and requirements increases. Further, since any project phase can only start once its previous phase has been completed, the phase-to-phase relationship should be sequential. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 19] [Project Framework]

2. A project manager prepared a composite resource calendar. Which of the following is unlikely to be part of the resource calendar? A. Availability of Resources B. Skills of Human Resources C. Cost of Resources D. Capabilities of Human Resources

2. C - A resource calendar does not usually contain cost information. The other choices are valid constituents of a resource calendar. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 323]

2. As part of a strategy to handle negative risk, a project manager decided to adopt less complex processes, conduct more tests, and choose a more stable supplier. What strategy would this be classified as? A. Acceptance B. Transference C. Mitigation D. Avoidance

2. C - Actions such as adopting less complex processes, more testing, or choosing a more stable supplier would be considered mitigation. These actions reduce the probability and impact of risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

2. Julia is managing a water treatment plant construction project. A new government has recently been sworn in. During the election campaign, the winning candidate made a number of commitments regarding environmental control reforms. Julia is not sure how the new government and its future policies might affect her project. This is an example of: A. Variability risk B. Mitigated risk C. Ambiguity risk D. Opportunity risk

2. C - Ambiguity risks relate to areas of the project where imperfect knowledge might affect the project's ability to achieve its objectives. Examples include: elements of the requirement or technical solution, future developments in regulatory frameworks, or inherent systemic complexity in the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 398] [Project Quality Management]

2. In adaptive lifecycles, such as the agile approach for product development, requirements are documented as user stories that are then __________ just prior to construction. A. Analyzed and curtailed B. Benchmarked and standardized C. Prioritized and refined D. Examined and outsourced

2. C - In adaptive life cycles such as agile approach for product development, requirements are documented as user stories that are then prioritized and refined just prior to construction. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Procurement Management]

2. You are the project manager of a project whose team has interacted with a number of stakeholders. You believe that in order to have an objective project performance appraisal, you would like to obtain feedback for the project team members from all the people they have worked with, including superiors, peers and subordinates. Project performance appraisals are performed during which of the following processes? A. Close Project or Phase B. Acquire Resources C. Manage Team D. Develop Team

2. C - Project performance appraisals are performed during the Manage Team process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 342] [Project Resource Management]

2. Jim is managing a road network design project for a government agency. He is currently performing the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process for the project. Which of the following documents will provide the list of project stakeholders to Jim for this process? A. Organizational process assets B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Stakeholder register D. Project management plan

2. C - The stakeholder register, an output of the Identify Stakeholders process, documents all of the identified project stakeholders and related information. The stakeholder register is an input to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, and it will provide the necessary information to Jim. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 519] [Project Stakeholder Management]

2. For many procurement items, the procuring organization can either prepare its own cost estimates or have an outside professional estimator prepare a cost estimate. This estimate serves as a: A. True estimate B. Expected-cost estimate C. Benchmark estimate D. Accurate estimate

2. C - This serves as a benchmark estimate. Significant differences in estimates can be an indication that either the procurement statement of work was deficient or the prospective sellers misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the procurement statement of work. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 479]

2. James is currently managing a software upgrade project. He has recently identified and analyzed his key project stakeholders. He is now searching his organizational process assets for a template with which he can update the results of this analysis along with the planned strategies required to engage the stakeholders effectively. Which of the following should he search for? A. Risk management plan B. Change request form C. Stakeholder register D. Stakeholder engagement plan

2. D - A change request form is used to initiate a change in the project baselines. The risk management plan does not document the stakeholder engagement strategy. Although the stakeholder register contains stakeholder identification, classification and assessment information, it does not record the stakeholder engagement strategy. James should search for a stakeholder engagement plan template where all this information can be updated. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 522]

2. You have presented a unique and verifiable product to your customers for their approval. Approval of this product may allow you to move on to your next phase. This unique and verifiable product is also known as: A. A plan B. A project C. A portfolio D. A deliverable

2. D - A unique and verifiable product produced in each phase or at the end of the project is known as a deliverable. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 4] [Project Integration Management]

2. Laurence is the PMO manager at ANZ Company. The CEO of the company asked Laurence to review the business requirements and develop the current year's capital management plan. The capital management plan will outline the key business deliverables (capital projects) and will go to the board for final approval. Which of the following organizational artifacts should Laurence review to analyze the business requirements for the current fiscal year? A. Lessons Learned B. Capital budget for the current year C. Organizational Process Assets D. Organizational Strategy

2. D - Capital planning is the process of budgeting resources for the future of an organization's long term plans. Capital planning for a business would include budgeting for new and replacement machinery, research and development and the production of new products, new plants and other major capital projects. Capital projects can only achieve the organizational goals when they are aligned with the organization's strategy. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 12] [Project Integration Management]

2. Which of the following are the tools and techniques used in both the Plan Communications Management and Manage Communications processes? A. Expert judgment B. Project reporting C. Communication requirements analysis D. Communication methods

2. D - Communication methods are the common tools and techniques for Plan Communications Management and Manage Communications processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 360] [Project Communications Management]

2. Communications management plans should include all of the following except: A. Stakeholder communication requirements B. Reasons for information distribution C. Escalation process D. Risk Register

2. D - The Risk Register is part of Risk Management and is not included in the Communications Management Plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 377] [Project Communications Management]

2. You are building a dam for a state government. Your organization is considered a specialist in dam design and overall management of construction activities. However, your organization lacks resources to execute the earth-works involved. You have subcontracted all the project's earth-works to a local subcontractor. The quality of the subcontractor's work is acceptable, but the subcontractor is not conforming to your organization's health and safety standards. You escalated this to the subcontractor's project manager, but he turned down your request. The subcontractor's project manager is of the view that the request is out of the contract's scope and none of the contract provisions require him to conform to your organization's standards. You are agitated since you believe health and safety standards are globally accepted, and the contract does not have to explicitly state them. Further, according to the state law, you cannot terminate the contract since the subcontractor has not violated A. Go for judicial arbitration as stated in the contact's ADR provisions B. Terminate the contract immediately since you will not compromise h and safety standards C. Withhold the subcontractor's payments to force compliance D. Negotiate a contact amendment with the subcontractor require compliance to the standards

2. D - Your actions should be legal and legitimate. Termination and withholding payments are illegal options. Further amicable solution is always preferred over arbitration. The best way to deal with this situation to offer a price for compliance to the required standards and amend the contract accordingly. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 492] [Project Procurement Management]

20. You have just taken over a project from another project manager about six months into a 12-month project. As you get to know the staff on the project, you become aware that five staff members are relatives of the previous project manager. What do you do? A. Notify your project stakeholders there is a possibility that nepotism behind some of the staffing decisions made on your project B. Check recruitment records of all employees C. Report the HR manager to PMI D. Interview these five employees

20. A - Notify your project stakeholders of the situation. Once they are aware of the circumstances, a plan of action can be developed. It is possible the stakeholders may already be aware of the situation and had actually approved the hiring of these resources. Therefore, you should involve your stakeholders to resolve this issue. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. A good project manager knows the value of effective stakeholder management. What is the ultimate goal of effective stakeholder management? A. Stakeholder engagement B. Project success C. Stakeholder satisfaction D. Meeting project objectives

20. B - All of the statements are correct. However, the question is asking for the ultimate goal which is the project's success. Stakeholder management is all about engaging stakeholders to meet their expectations and achieving stakeholder satisfaction. This is one of the key project objectives required to be achieved in order to deliver a successful project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 504] [Project Stakeholder Management]

20. You have just completed a solid waste management project in an underdeveloped country. The contractor you are working for has a strict policy of abiding by local laws and rules although the local resources working on the project have a much more lax approach to following laws and policies. Now at the end of the project, you are handing over the operational equipment to the local operators and disposing of the leftover inventory and other materials that were used during the project. More than 50 percent of the toxic materials used during the project remains in your inventory. There is no law that would prohibit you from disposing of either the type or quantity of remaining materials in the local sewage system. What should you do? A. Give the material to local resources to dispose of by selling it recycling facility B. Do not dispose of the materials improperly C. Dispose of the material in the local sewage system; there is no applicable here D. Abandon the materials in the project facility you are handing over to Local operators

20. B - Although there is no law restricting disposal, the material is still toxic and must not be disposed of improperly. Abandoning it or giving it to local recyclers may also result in improper disposal. PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires project managers to make decisions based on the interests of public safety and the environment. Failing to ensure proper disposal of toxic materials is a violation of this code. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof.

20. After receiving some news about a delay on one of your project tasks, you review the schedule to determine how it will affect the project. While there is a substantial delay on this task, it is not a critical path item and will not affect delivery of any of your milestones. Another project manager advises you to just present the milestone chart during your meeting with the project stakeholders and tell them the project is progressing as planned. What do you do? A. Present the project as a milestone chart and advise that the program tracking according to plan. B. Present the schedule in a milestone chart and disclose full details of delay. C. Present the schedule in a network diagram and advise that the project tracking according to plan. D. Present the schedule as a bar chart and advise that the project is tracked according to plan.

20. B - Present the schedule in a milestone chart and disclose the details of the delay. Concealing delays is a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Project managers must provide accurate and timely information. Providing half-truths about a project's schedule is unacceptable. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. As you examine a list of job candidates for your project, you find that your cousin is one of the three shortlisted candidates. You know that she was desperately looking for a job. After reviewing the three resumes, you will send them to the electronics engineer for a technical interview. From your review of these resumes, you see that all three shortlisted candidates have similar qualifications and experiences. What should you do? A. To avoid conflict of interest, ignore your cousin's resume but forward other two resumes. B. Forward all three resumes. C. Call your cousin and conduct an informal interview yourself b forwarding the resumes. D. Consult your boss before forwarding the resumes for interview.

20. B - Send all three candidates' resumes. Since all the candidates have similar profiles, all three deserve a full chance of evaluation. Because you have not shortlisted the resumes nor will you be the interviewer or make the final decision, there is no question of discrimination, partiality or conflict of interest. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. A storm has damaged the manufacturing facility that is under construction as part of your project. You have just discovered that although the project risk management plan mandated that the facility have insurance against damage and loss, this policy was never acquired, and the project budget must cover the losses. Who is at fault? A. The risk manager B. The project manager C. The facilities manager D. The construction crew

20. B - The project manager is at fault. It is the project manager's responsibility to ensure that all project work, policies, and processes are conducted properly. PMI requires that the project manager take ownership for his or her actions or inactions and the consequences that arise from them. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. In projects where there is a gap between the real business requirements and the stated business requirements, agile methods are extremely helpful. Agile methods provide a solution to this problem by: A. Completing the project quickly so that gap is significantly reduced. B. Replacing the project manager with a Scrum master in order to expedite the project. C. Purposefully building and reviewing prototypes and release version refine requirements. D. Eliminating the documentation altogether from the project manage approach.

20. C - Agile methods purposefully build and review prototypes and release versions in order to refine the requirements. As a result, scope is defined and redefined throughout the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 133] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. Which of the following approaches can assist in managing ambiguity risks? A. Monte Carlo analysis B. Root cause analysis C. Seeking expert external input D. Conducting sprint retrospectives

20. C - Ambiguity risks are managed by defining those areas where there is a deficit of knowledge or understanding, then filling the gap by obtaining expert external input or benchmarking against best practices. [PMBOK

20. Which of the following is a set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design? A. Scope creeping B. Rolling-wave planning C. Design for X D. Scrum master

20. C - Design for X is a set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. Other choices are either invalid or do not relate to product design. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 295] [Project Stakeholder Management]

20. All requested changes to a contract go through Contract Change Control Systems of both parties. The Contract Change Control system documents all requested changes for future reference. However, requested but unresolved changes might not make it up to either party's Change Control Systems. If you are contesting a dispute, where can you find a record of such requested changes? A. Procurement management plan B. Project management plan C. Project correspondence D. Approved change requests log

20. C - If a contract change request is rejected early in the process, it might not make it up to either party's change control system and hence might not get documented as a rejected change request. You can obtain a record of such requested changes in your project's correspondence with the customer in this case. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 496, 499] [Project Procurement Management]

20. Analysis of project spending against project budget and calculation of the percentage complete of tasks currently underway are examples of: A. Control Chart B. PERT analysis C. Performance reviews D. Expert judgment

20. C - Performance reviews compare performance over time and funds needed to complete the work in progress. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 712]

20. A change log is an important input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. Which process provides this input? A. Plan Communications Management B. Manage Communications C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Monitor Communications

20. C - Project change logs are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Stakeholder Management]

20. A business is considering more than a dozen infrastructure upgrade projects. These projects, once delivered, will add to the organization's overall performance but will not contribute to any of the revenue streams. Prior to initiating any such project, the value of the project to the organization must be determined. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider in such a scenario? A. Net Present Value (NPV) of the projects B. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of the projects C. Alignment with the strategic goals D. Investment requirement

20. C - Projects help in achieving organizational goals whey they are aligned with the organization's strategy. If the projects are misaligned with the organizational strategic goals, they are most likely to produce undesirable results either in the short-term or the long-term. NPV and IRR calculations are great measures, however, these are not applicable since these projects will not contribute to any of the revenue streams. Investment requirement is important but is useless on the projects that are not aligned with the strategic goals of the organization. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 34, 35] [Project Integration Management]

20. Your manager is presenting a status report of all projects being run in his division. He reports that all projects are showing a positive CV. However, you know that your status reports for the last several weeks have been reporting a negative CV. What do you do? A. Do nothing. B. Offer to review all your manager's combined status reports before presents them. C. Notify the appropriate management immediately. D. Ask your manager if that information was simply a typographical err

20. C - You should notify the appropriate management immediately that incorrect information has been presented about your project. The PMI Code of Ethics requires that managers report errors of others and provide accurate and truthful information to project stakeholders at all times. [Reference: PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. You have recently taken over a project from a PMP-certified project manager who was removed from the project due to incompetence and lack of skills. When you happen to meet him outside your building, he starts rebuking you for taking his project. He even goes so far as to suggest that your religion played a part in your selection by the management. What should you do first? A. Report to the customer B. Do nothing C. Report to the police D. Report to Project Management Institute (PMI)

20. D - All project managers who are PMP-certified must uphold the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. They must behave well in their profession. All alleged violations should be brought to the PMI's attention. PMI takes disciplinary actions against individuals who knowingly make false allegations against other project managers. Thus, you must report this situation to PMI first. If your life is threatened, then you must report that to the police and the management. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. You are two days late on reporting the status for a project you are managing. The status report indicates that the project is lagging behind schedule. During the current week, you are confident of making up some of the lost time. How should you report project status? A. Since the status report is already due, do nothing. Send out the report next week when the project is back on track. B. Since the status report is already two days overdue, you may communicate to stakeholders that you will send a consolidated status report next w In this manner, you can avoid being untruthful or falsifying reports. C. Send out a status report to all stakeholders indicating that the project track. Once this week goes by, things will be fine, and the status re will be back to normal. You should report project status exactly as it is. You may also me that you expect to make up some of the lost ground but will truth represent current status.

20. D - As practitioners in the global project management community, it is our responsibility to be honest in our communications and conduct. We need to provide accurate information even if it is not favorable to us.

20. You have been offered a position managing a project that will last 12 months. However, you know that in six months, you will be relocating to another state for family reasons. What should you do? A. Turn down the position B. Accept the position and provide four weeks' notice before leaving the C. Accept the position and compress the schedule to complete the project six months D. Disclose your relocation plans to the hiring manager

20. D - Disclose your relocation plans to the hiring manager upfront. The hiring manager can then determine what sort of impact this could have on the project and if it would be appropriate to move ahead with hiring you. Failing to disclose this information upfront with the intention of not completing the project or modifying the project schedule to meet your needs runs counter to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. This code requires project managers to put the needs of the project ahead of their own and to fulfill the commitments they undertake. [Reference: PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. The manager of a project that your company is running in another country is at the corporate headquarters for a company-wide project management meeting. During a break, you overhear the project manager discussing payments made to local municipal governments for construction permits for the project. Your company has a strict policy about paying or taking bribes. What should you do? A. Report him to PMI B. Report him to his manager C. Notify his project stakeholders D. Do nothing

20. D - Do nothing. Paying fees to government organizations to cover the administrative costs associated with issuing various types of permits is a common practice in many parts of the world. These payments are not considered bribes. PMI's code prohibits project managers from engaging in bribery, and it requires project managers to report others who do to the appropriate management. In this case, however, there is nothing to report. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

20. After conducting a bidder conference, you receive an email from one of the bidders requesting additional information. The information was neither included in your request for proposal, nor did anyone ask for it during the bidder conference. You realize the answer to this question is critical to understanding the scope of the project. If the answer is not communicated to bidders, they cannot size their teams accurately or estimate the total duration of the project. The answer also greatly affects cost. However, the answer contains some proprietary information that, if disclosed to a competitor, may reveal the future product strategy of your company. Such a disclosure could be disastrous for a major product launch you are planning next year. You decide to send the answer to all the bidders, but you realize one of the bidders is also working closely with one of your competitors on a similar project. What should you do? A. Don't send this information in writing; instead, telephone each bi company. B. Send this information to all bidders except the bidder working with competitor. C. Send this information to only the supplier who requested it. D. Require all bidders to sign a nondisclosure agreement. You may then the information to each company that signed the NDA.

20. D - The best choice is to require all bidders to sign a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) before sending them this additional information, and then provide the additional information to each bidder that has signed an NDA. Project managers are required to act fairly and provide equal access to information to all authorized parties. Sending the information to only some of the bidding companies would represent a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

21. A project manager wants to proactively monitor a manufacturing process to determine whether the quality level is within acceptable limits for that process. What tool will help with this? A. Control charts B. Ishikawa diagram C. Histogram D. PERT chart

21. A - Control charts can be used to monitor any type of output variable and process performance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 304] [Project Quality Management]

21. You have a schedule activity that can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any subsequent activities. This is an example of: A. Free Float B. Lead Float C. Total Float D. Lag Float

21. A - The question given is the definition of free float. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

21. While the five process groups are usually completed in order, they often overlap with each other throughout the project. Which two process groups usually do not overlap during the course of the project? A. Initiating and Closing B. Initiating and Executing C. Initiating and Monitoring and Control D. Planning and Closing

21. A - Throughout the project, the different process groups are often conducted at the same time except for the initiating and closing groups, which are separated by the other three groups. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 23, 555] [Project Framework]

21. If a project manager believes that a particular subcontract needs to be terminated, which of the following can provide guidance on the contract termination procedure? A. The contract termination procedures in the organizational process ass B. The termination clause of the specific subcontract C. The change control procedures in the project management plan D. The contract termination procedures in the project procurement management plan

21. B - Each contract is unique and so are its obligations, provisions and clauses. Any contract that need to be terminated must be terminated in accordance with the termination clause of that contract. These contract termination provisions are agreed and signed off by both parties at the time of the contract award. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] [Project Procurement Management]

21. A project manager estimates the work to be accomplished in the near term in detail at a low level of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). He estimates work far in the future as WBS components that are at a relatively high level of the WBS. What is this technique called? A. Decomposition B. Rolling wave planning Scope Creep Earned value planning

21. B - In Rolling Wave Planning, the work to be accomplished in the near term is estimated in detail at a low level of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), while the work far in the future is estimated as WBS components that are at a relatively high level of the WBS. The work to be performed within another one or two reporting periods in the near future is planned in detail during the current period. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 185] [Project Schedule Management] 0

21. You are managing a railway track construction project. The construction contract awarded to your company is fixed price and is based on some pre-determined quantities of work to be executed. During the project execution you find out that the actual quantities of work that need to be executed are 20% greater than what has been stated in the contract. What should you do? A. Bill the buyer the additional scope of work separately without amending the contract B. Collect necessary evidence and request the buyer to amend the co with new quantities C. Engage a third-party arbitrator to help resolve the issue D. Sue the buyer for stating wrong quantities in the contract

21. B - In this scenario the scope of works has increased for the contractor. As a first step, the contractor needs to collect necessary evidence and request for the amendment in the contract. If both parties cannot settle this amicably, ADR procedures need to be followed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 492] [Project Procurement Management]

21. Progressive elaboration is least applicable to which of the following processes? A. Create WBS B. Control Schedule C. Develop Schedule D. Estimate Activity Durations

21. B - Progressive elaboration applies when only a certain amount of information is available initially, and additional information is obtained as the project or phase progresses. It is the progressive detailing of the project management plan and relates more closely to the processes from the planning process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 565] [Project Schedule Management]

21. To ensure effective communications throughout a project lifecycle, a project manager should develop a communications plan early in the project. When developing a communications plan, a project manager must consider a number of factors. Which of the following is the least important consideration among the list while developing a communications plan? A. What kind of communication is required? B. Which PMBOK processes are required on the project? C. Where should the information be stored? D. What time zones and language barriers are involved?

21. B - The project manager must tailor the PMBOK processes to meet the needs of the project. However, this is a consideration while developing the overall project management plan for the project. The rest of the choices are more of a concern during the Plan Communications Management process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 366] [Project Communications Management]

21. During a project status meeting, a project manager presented sensitive information related to the project. However, this information was not intended to be available to the audience. Which of the following processes was done incorrectly, resulting in the project manager communicating sensitive information to the wrong audience? A. Monitor Communications B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Plan Communications Management D. Identify Stakeholders

21. C - Deciding what information is relevant to an audience is an activity done in the Plan Communications Management process. Improper communication planning will lead to problems such as delays in message delivery or communication of sensitive information to the wrong audience. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 366] [Project Communications Management]

21. A project manager from a buyer organization is invited to lunch by the manager of a seller organization. The project manager's organization does not permit receipt of gifts from vendors. The project manager should: A. Go out for lunch and refrain from informing his/her managers about lunch B. Avoid going out to lunch with anyone from the seller organization C. Insist on paying for his/her own lunch D. Permit the manager from the seller organization to pay for his/her since it has a very small value

21. C - The correct action is for the project manager to insist on paying for his or her own lunch. Avoiding going out to lunch with anyone from the seller organization is drastic, as such a lunch may be an opportunity to build relationships and to understand the seller's position on a project better. Going out to lunch and not informing his or her managers about the lunch is unethical. Allowing the seller organization to pay for an inexpensive lunch may be acceptable in certain organizations. For example, some organizations have placed a limit on the value of gifts that may be received by their employees, and permit gifts that do not exceed a certain value (e.g., $50). In such a case, a lunch may be within acceptable limits. However, in the current situation, the buyer organization does not permit its employees to receive any gifts from vendors. Therefore, this option is not acceptable. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

21. While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of the Earned Value (EV) to the Actual Costs (AC) and obtained a value of 1.2. The project manager decided this was an unfavorable condition for the project and decided to take corrective action. What is your view? A. The project manager is correct. The ratio of EV to AC is the Performance Index and a ratio greater than 1 is unfavorable to the pro B. The project manager is not correct. The ratio of EV to AC is the Variance and a ratio greater than 1 is favorable to the project. C. The project manager is not correct. The ratio of EV to AC is the Performance Index and a ratio greater than 1 is favorable to the project D. The project manager is correct. The ratio of EV to AC is the Variance and a ratio greater than 1 is unfavorable to the project.

21. C - The project manager is not correct. Cost Performance Index (CPI) is the ratio of EV to AC. A value greater than one represents a favorable condition for the project. The project manager has misinterpreted the situation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

21. Organizational process assets are key inputs to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. The key elements of the organizational process assets that are used during this process are organizational communication requirements, issue management procedures, and the change control procedures. Which of the following is also a key organizational process asset that must be considered during this process? A. Process audit procedures B. Human resource policies C. Project document templates D. Historical information about previous projects

21. D - All of the given choices are organizational process assets. However, the organizational policies and templates are more relevant during the planning phase of the project. For the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, a process from the executing process group, historical information about previous projects is considered a critical input from the organizational process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 526] [Project Stakeholder Management]

21. In a manufacturing project, you have requested bids to procure stainless-steel products. However, your sponsor insists that you conduct bidder conferences before selecting sellers. What mandatory standard in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is met by conducting bidder conferences? A. Honesty B. Respect C. Responsibility D. Fairness

21. D - Bidder conferences or vendor conferences are used to provide a clear understanding of the procurement process to all prospective sellers. This process ensures that the mandatory standard of fairness is followed in the bidding process. Fairness in this case means making opportunities equally available to all qualified candidates. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 487 and PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Project Procurement Management]

21. You are a business development manager at a mid-sized automobile manufacturing company. Recently, you were given a project to assess the feasibility of manufacturing light-duty trucks in a Southeast Asian country. To develop a cost estimate, you visit the country with a team of experts to analyze local resources such as power, labor, and real estate. After the visit, you discuss the findings with an automobile manufacturing consultant. The consultant notes that the local laws and government bureaucracy typically make foreign investors spend more than a year obtaining all necessary permits. To avoid these delays, the consultant advises giving a small amount of company stock to the son of the country's president. In return, the president's son will personally expedite the issuing of all required permits. What should you do? A. Add the opportunity costs associated with the year delay in g permitted without local assistance. B. Notify your company that a bribe is necessary to avoid lengthy delay permitting. C. Facilitate a meeting with the president's son and your managing director to finalize the details of the stock for services arrangement. D. Determine the legality of the proposed exchange of stock for perm assistance.

21. D - Determine the legality of the proposed exchange of stock for assistance with permitting. If this arrangement does not violate the laws of your country, the country where you are hoping to start work, corporate regulations, or industry regulations, the cost of the exchange may well offset the opportunity cost of a yearlong permitting delay. Once the legality has been established, a plan forward can be developed.

21. Nancy can bid on two projects. Project A has a 50 percent return on investment while Project B has a 20 percent return on investment. Project A's scope of work is complex, and Nancy's organization does not have the necessary skills and experience to do this project. However, Project B's scope of work falls within the strengths of Nancy's organization. Which project must Nancy bid on? A. None as this is a conflict of interest situation B. Both since the overall profit will be higher C. Project A since the return on investment is the highest D. Project B since the organization has the required skills

21. D - Nancy must not bid on Project A since her organization lacks the required skills and experience. This leaves her with only Project B to bid on. Project managers are mandated by the PMI's code of ethics and professional conduct to accept only those assignments that are consistent with their background, experience, skills and qualifications. [PMI Code of Ethics & Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

21. In your weekly status reports, you report the earned value for the project. This information is essential for you and the stakeholders to gauge the progress of the project. What process group is the cost and schedule control part of? A. Closing B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and Controlling

21. D - The Control Schedule and the Control Costs processes belong to the Monitoring and Controlling process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Scope Management]

21. The project manager in charge of a new credit card software project has asked the product manager to create a checklist to assist with identifying risks. A project manager can create a risk checklist from which of the following sources? A. Agreement templates B. Earned value measurements C. Project Management Information System D. The lowest level of the Risk Breakdown Structure

21. D - The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a risk checklist. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 416] [Project Risk Management]

21. A seller organization was executing work for a project under a contract. During the course of the project, a number of disputes arose over the scope and quality of the work. Which of the following is the preferred method of resolving these claims? A. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) B. Claims court C. Appeals court D. Negotiation

21. D - When a buyer and seller enter into a dispute over the execution of work under the terms of a contract, negotiation is the preferred method of resolution of all claims and disputes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

21. The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do first? A. Talk to the customer about the impact of the change B. Change the risk management plan C. Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate D. Analyze the change's impact of the change with the team

21. D - Your first step is to assess the impact of the change with the team. Then you can determine possible options, after which you can meet with management. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 115]

22. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a bidders conference? A. Questions from each seller should be handled confidentially an shared with other sellers. B. No bidders should receive preferential treatment, even if they are p the company's existing list of approved suppliers. C. Bidder conferences should not involve individual face-to-face meeting D. All prospective sellers should be allowed to have a com understanding of the procurement.

22. A - A key objective of a bidders conference is to ensure that all bidders have the same level of understanding of the procurements. Hence, to be totally fair, buyers must ensure that all prospective sellers hear every question from any individual prospective seller and every answer from the buyer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 487] [Project Procurement Management]

22. You are planning a storage device migration in a data center. During this phase of the project, who should control the project? A. Project Manager B. SMEs C. Sponsor D. Management

22. A - Once the project manager is assigned to the project, he should be in control. However, it is the sponsor who ultimately has the responsibility of ensuring that the project is completed successfully. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 51] [Project Integration Management]

22. Some tools or techniques can be used across various project processes to plan, execute, or control the characteristics of project elements. Which of the following is used as a tool in both the Control Quality and Plan Quality Management processes? A. Expert Judgment B. Meetings C. Design for X D. Audits

22. B - "Meetings" is a tool and technique common to both the Plan Quality Management and Control Quality processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 272] [Project Quality Management]

22. During a cost performance review with certain senior officers from the finance department, you discover there are certain inconsistencies in the way cost performance reporting is done, and you obtain data that shows these officers are deliberately misleading senior management. What should you do? A. Write an anonymous letter to senior management about these activity B. Bring this to the notice of senior management even though there a formal policies in place for whistleblowers. C. Do nothing but make sure that the data for your project is clean. D. Do nothing. The corrupt behavior of the finance department official nothing to do with your project.

22. B - As practitioners in the global project management community, it is our responsibility to report unethical or illegal conduct. Even if reporting such behavior may have negative consequences, we must still do so.

22. In a software development project, you are having joint application development (JAD) sessions to collect product requirements from stakeholders. Which of the following mandatory standards in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is met by having JAD sessions while gathering requirements? A. Honesty B. Fairness C. Responsibility D. Respect

22. B - Fairness is one of the mandatory standards in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Fairness means not showing favoritism or prejudice. The JAD sessions build trust among the customers and reconcile stakeholder differences since they give equal opportunity to all stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 145 and PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Project Scope Management]

22. A project manager created a resource histogram. On the histogram, some bars extended beyond the maximum available hours. What does this usually signify? A. This means that the resources on those bars are being underused. B. This means that a resource optimization strategy needs to be applied. C. This means the resources are producing outputs at a rate faster that average rate. D. This means that resources need to be reduced from the project.

22. B - If the bars in a resource histogram extend beyond the maximum available hours, it means that a resource optimization strategy needs to be applied, such as adding more resources or modifying the schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 220] [Project Resource Management]

22. Tim is the project manager for a shopping mall construction project which is in its fourth month of execution. According to the project contract, Tim can only issue project invoices when the project is 25%, 50%, 75% and 100% complete in terms of the approved project schedule. Recently the 25% milestone has been reached and Tim is ready to issue his first invoice. According to the contract, the project must be completed in 12 months. What is the project's SPI? A. 0.25 B. 0.75 C. 0.33 D. 1.33

22. B - Since the 25% schedule milestone has been achieved, the project's earned schedule (ES) is 25%. Further the project is in its third month of execution so the actual time is 33.33% (i.e. 4 months / 12 months). SPI = ES/AT = 25% / 33.33% = 0.75. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 233] [Project Schedule Management]

22. Negative risks can either be ______, transferred, or mitigated as a countermeasure. A. enhanced B. avoided C. exploited D. ignored

22. B - You can avoid a risk by revising the project plan to eliminate the risk entirely. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 397] [Project Risk Management]

22. Sally, a project manager who is a PMP, discovered an error in the estimation of a project. A certain cost was double calculated; as a result, the budget, which is already approved, was now in excess by $25,000. She knows that publicizing this information may cause her to get a poor performance appraisal, since her company is meticulous about such matters. What should she do? A. She does not need to do anything since this will have a positive impact the project's spend and margins. B. Since the excess funds won't be required, she can now use the fundi make additional investments for the project. C. She should bring this to the notice of the appropriate stakeholder have the necessary steps taken to decrease the budget. D. She does not need to do anything since the budget is already appropriate. This situation is okay as long as the extra funds are not spent.

22. C - She needs to notify management and the appropriate stakeholders of this discrepancy so that corrective action can be taken. She needs to do this even at the cost of receiving a poor performance appraisal. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

22. You are having your project team members record the time they spend on different activities during the day, such as programming, electrical, HVAC, etc. This is an example of a tool and technique in what process? A. Manage Communications B. Direct and Manage Project Work C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Manage Team

22. C - The Monitor and Control Project Work process tracks and reviews the project's progress. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 105] [Project Integration Management]

22. As the project manager of a project, you had estimated certain activity durations before acquiring all project team members. On acquisition, you find that their actual competency levels are much lower than what you anticipated. In such a case, you will: A. Make no changes to the schedule B. Ask the project team members to meet the original schedule by putti overtime, if required C. Make changes to activity duration and schedule incorporating the cha competency levels D. Inform the customer that the project is behind schedule

22. C - The appropriate action is to make changes to the project schedule and activity durations depending on the actual competency of the team. Asking the project team members to work overtime or informing the customer that the project is late are too drastic in nature given the stage of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 222] [Project Schedule Management]

22. Debbie, an IT project manager, is in the planning phase of a shopping website development project. A junior project manager, who has worked under her authority, started developing procedures for maintaining the integrity of cost and schedule performance baselines in the project. Where should the junior project manager store these procedures? A. In the project resource management plan B. In the project scope statement C. In the project management plan D. In the project communications management plan

22. C - The baselines change only when a change request is generated. A project management plan documents the procedures for making changes to performance baselines. These baselines include scope, cost and schedule baselines. Therefore, the junior project manager must store these procedures in the project management plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 88] [Project Integration Management]

22. A planning technique used to provide products, services, and results that truly reflect customer requirements, by translating those customer requirements into the appropriate technical requirements for each phase of project product development, is: A. Six Sigma B. PDCA C. Voice of the Customer D. ISO

22. C - The correct response is Voice of the Customer. This is one of the non-proprietary approaches to quality management. In this planning technique, the customer's requirements are exactly met in the finished product during each phase of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages

22. Some project managers take communication lightly while managing a project. However, a good project manager must take communication very seriously and must be an effective and efficient communicator. Which of the following is not a fundamental attribute of effective communication? A. Clarity on the purpose B. Understanding receiver's communications requirements C. Relying on verbal communications D. Monitoring communications

22. C - The fundamental attributes of effective communication include clarity on the purpose, understanding communication needs and requirements, and monitoring communications. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 363] [Project Communications Management]

22. Which of these is not an established Estimate Activity Durations technique? A. Three Point Estimating B. Parametric Estimating C. Analogous Estimating D. Critical Path Estimation

22. D - Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project. The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluate the whole project schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 200, 201] [Project Schedule Management]

22. Which of the following is an incorrect classification of a feasibility study? A. A feasibility study may be considered a stand-alone project. B. A feasibility study may be considered pre-project work. C. A feasibility study may be considered the first phase of a project. D. A feasibility study may be considered a program.

22. D - Organizations may classify projects differently depending on their internal policies and structures. Hence, a feasibility study can be considered pre-project work, the first phase of a project, or a stand-alone project. However, it cannot be considered a program. A program will have much larger scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 11]

22. Which of these types of precedence relationships is least commonly used in the Precedence Diagramming Method? A. Start to Start B. Finish to Finish C. Finish to Start D. Start to Finish

22. D - Start to Finish relationships indicate that the next task cannot be completed until the one preceding it has started. This type is not commonly used. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Schedule Management]

22. The accuracy of estimates of the cost of a project will _________ over the life of a project. A. Be mitigated B. Remain neutral C. Decrease D. Improve

22. D - The accuracy of a project estimate will improve as the project progresses through the project lifecycle. In the initiation phase, a project could have a rough order of magnitude estimate in the range of -25% to +75%. Later, as more information becomes known, estimates could narrow to a range of -5% to +10%. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 241] [Project Cost Management]

22. Which of the following is the correct logical sequence of the five process groups? A. Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Initiating, Executing, Closing B. Planning, Initiating, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing C. Initiating, Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing, Closing D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing

22. D - The logical sequence of the five process groups is: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 23] [Project Framework]

23. If you are working on a project where there is no definite detailed scope, but there are similar projects in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use? A. Analogous Estimating B. Parametric Estimating C. Critical Path Estimation D. Three Point Estimating

23. A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous projects that were similar in nature. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Schedule Management]

23. The Executive VP of Finance has informed you that you will be the project manager for an energy audit the company is performing in order to save expenses. He has assigned you to identify the stakeholders and to start documenting the high-level assumptions and constraints. Your project is in what stage? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing

23. A - Identifying stakeholders, high-level assumptions and constraints are part of developing the project charter, which is a part of the Initiating Process Group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Integration Management]

23. The WBS represents all product and project work. The total work at the lowest levels should roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is performed. This principle is also the: A. 100 percent rule B. 80/20 rule C. Pareto's rule D. Ground rule

23. A - The WBS represents all product and project work. The total work at the lowest levels should roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is omitted and no extra work is performed. This principle is also called the

23. Which of the following can prove to be effective in addressing variability risks? A. Monte Carlo analysis B. Root cause analysis C. Mitigating opportunities D. Accepting the risk

23. A - Variability risks relate to uncertainty existing about some key characteristic of a planned event or activity or decision. Examples of variability risks include: productivity may be above or below target, the number of errors found during testing may be higher or lower than expected, or unseasonal weather conditions may occur during the construction phase. Variability risks can be addressed using Monte Carlo analysis, with the range of variation reflected in probability distributions, followed by actions to reduce the spread of possible outcomes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 399] [Project Scope Management]

23. A RACI chart is an example of a _________________. A. Network B. Flowchart C. Responsibility assignment matrix D. Hierarchical-type organization chart

23. C - A RACI chart outlines in matrix form, the project tasks and for each task, who is responsible, who is accountable, whom to consult, and whom to inform. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317] [Project Resource Management]

23. To reduce delivery delays and process downtime, your organization has recognized a need to replace their legacy manufacturing system with a modern software application. Your IT director anticipates a project to fulfill this business need; however, he warns that the new project's budget cannot exceed $75,000 due to shortages in the department budget. He also indicates that no additional staff will be allocated to this project other than the existing IT staff. If you become the project manager, you would document these initial project conditions as: A. Project assumptions B. Business case C. Project constraints D. Enterprise environmental factors

23. C - A project constraint is a limiting factor that affects the execution of the project. Budget and staffing restrictions in this case are examples of project constraints. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 701] [Project Integration Management]

23. You are working with your team and are looking at the cost risks in the project. You and your team are currently creating a tornado diagram for the project risks. You do this as a part of which of the following processes? A. Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Risk Response Planning C. Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Monitor Risks

23. C - A tornado diagram is a sensitivity analysis tool. This technique is used during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 434] [Project Risk Management]

23. As project manager, you find you are constantly dealing with conflict among your team members. Everyone argues over sharing available project resources, so you plan to use a conflict resolution method to alleviate the tension among team members. What conflict resolution method is not recognized by the Project Management Institute? A. Forcing B. Withdrawal C. Elaboration D. Smoothing

23. C - Elaboration is not one of the five conflict-resolving methods that are recognized and endorsed by the Project Management Institute (PMI).

23. You are currently managing an urban development project for a municipal authority. You and your team are managing the project and have outsourced most of the project work to specialist contractors. All the contracts awarded were FFP contracts. The project is almost 50 percent complete, and most of the contractors have requested amendments to their contacts. Work specifications were not clear at the time of contract awards, and as a result, new work requirements have come up. What is your lesson learned? A. Never award FFP contracts in the future since they usually resume disputes and contests B. Cost-plus contracts are ideal types of contracts for construction project C. Do not award FFP contracts unless the scope of work and specifics are precisely articulated. D. Good and credible contractors were not selected for the project at the of award

23. C - FFP contracts should not be awarded unless the scope of work and specifications are precisely articulated and documented. In such cases cost-plus or T&M contracts may be used. If work specifications are not precisely documented in a FFP contract, this will usually result in disputes and future claims. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 471] [Project Procurement Management]

23. Conformance to requirements and fitness for use are key concepts in quality management. Which of the following is another name for customer needs? A. Scope creep B. Process mapping C. Voice of the Customer D. Prompt list

23. C - In quality management, customer needs and requirements are also known as voice of the customer (VOC). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 145] [Project Quality Management]

23. A project manager needs team members that report to a functional manager. What technique is the project manager most likely to use to obtain these resources? A. Pre-assignment B. Authority C. Negotiation D. Coercion

23. C - Staff assignments are negotiated on many projects. The project manager will negotiate with functional managers to ensure that the project receives competent staff in the required time frame. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 332] [Project Resource Management]

23. Administrative closure involves all the activities in a step-by-step manner to satisfy various completion and exit criteria for the project. This is part of which Project Management Knowledge Area? A. Project Communications Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Integration Management D. Project Procurement Management

23. C - The Administrative Closure activities are part of the Close Project or Phase process under the Project Integration Management knowledge area. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 123]

23. In an underground highway construction project, the project stakeholders have suggested many changes to the project scope. You had already defined the cost baseline in your project, and you would like to revisit the baseline to see how these changes might affect the overall cost of the project. You start an impact analysis to determine the impact and inform the concerned stakeholders of all approved changes and the corresponding costs. You perform these activities in which process? A. Control Scope B. Monitor Risks C. Control Costs D. Monitor Communications

23. C - The Control Costs process involves many activities, such as influencing the factors that change the cost baseline, managing the changes, and informing stakeholders of approved changes and corresponding costs. Since you are in the process of managing the cost changes and informing the stakeholders about them, you are in the Control Costs process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 257] [Project Cost Management]

23. Which tool is BEST used to display how a company structures itself departmentally? A. WBS B. BOM C. OBS D. RBS

23. C - The Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is a hierarchical organization chart that includes employees, department structures, and associated responsibilities. It is organized by the company's teams or department breakdown. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 316] [Project Resource Management]

23. You find out that a project team member has stolen some material from the workplace. The team member regrets the theft and promises not to repeat it again. You must: A. Get a statement in writing from the project team member saying h not repeat such an activity B. Document the matter for your archives C. Inform your HR department about the matter D. Keep quiet until it repeats for a second time

23. C - The correct option is to inform your company's HR department. This is a disciplinary matter, and the project manager needs to let the company guidelines handle the situation. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

23. Who is primarily responsible for the dissemination of the approved project charter and for ensuring that all key stakeholders have a common understanding of the project's key deliverables and milestones? A. Project sponsor B. Project team C. Project manager D. Project client

23. C - The project manager is responsible for the dissemination of the approved project charter. Although, during the development of the project charter, the participation of the project manager is recommended, once the project charter is approved, it is the project manager's responsibility to distribute it to the key stakeholders and ensure common understanding. This is also mentioned in the PMP examination content outline as one of the project manager's task during project initiation.

23. A functional manager in your organization has recently filed a complaint against a junior project manager regarding his project management certification. The functional manager claims that the PMP certification claimed by the junior project manager is invalid and needs to be checked. What should be your response as a senior project manager? A. Report to PMI B. Suspend the junior project manager C. Ask your project manager to provide evidence for his/her certification Ask your functional manager to provide evidence for his argument

23. D - One of the mandatory standards in the PMI Code of Ethics and

23. Your company is planning to bid on a project in an application area you have never worked before. You are aware your company does not have any resources with the necessary expertise, but you are confident of ramping up the necessary skills and delivering the project successfully. Further, the buyer has not specifically asked for prior experience of completed projects of similar size and scope. Your management is pressuring you to submit a bid. What should you do? A. Refuse to do what your company management asks you to do sin violates the code of ethics and professionalism. B. Do what your management asks you to do. Your loyalty needs to be your company. As long as management has the confidence you can do project, you can go with the plan. C. Do what your management asks you to do, but inform them that y not want to be associated with the project since it violates the co ethics and professionalism. D. Explain the gaps to your management clearly and also explain that will be a stretch assignment. You can further explain to them that it is to reveal to the potential buyer that your company does not possess necessary skills but that you are confident of ramping up the necessary skills and delivering the project successfully, based on your comp track record.

23. D - Since you are aware that your company lacks the necessary skills, you need to be truthful while bidding. Rather than outright refusing to do what your company management asks you to do, you should explain the reasons to them and ensure that all stakeholders involved are aware that this will be a stretch assignment. However, also explain to your management that it is best to tell the potential buyer that you and your company are willing to put in the necessary effort to make the project a success. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

23. The Actual Cost (AC) is the total cost actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing work performed for an activity or work breakdown structure component. What is the upper limit for the AC? A. 50 percent over and above the Planned Value (PV) B. The Actual Cost (AC) is limited to the Planned Value (PV). C. 100 percent over and above the Planned Value (PV) D. There is no upper limit for the Actual Cost (AC).

23. D - There is no limit to the Actual Cost (AC). Whatever is spent to achieve the Earned Value (EV) is measured as the Actual Cost. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 261] [Project Cost Management]

24. As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impact better. Which tool should you use? A. Scatter Diagram B. Run Chart C. Fishbone Diagram D. Pareto Chart

24. A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables (one on each axis). Often a relationship between the two variables can then be determined, based on how closely they fit a geometric model. [PMBOK

24. You have met with your project sponsor who told you that you must complete the project by the end of the year, no exceptions. This should be included in the project scope statement as a: A. Project Constraint B. Project Boundary C. Project Acceptance Criteria D. Project Assumption

24. A - An imposed deadline or milestone is an example of a constraint. Such project constraints are documented in the scope statement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154] [Project Scope Management]

24. What do the buyer and seller have in common with regard to Control Procurements? A. Both parties ensure that they meet their contractual obligations and their own legal rights are protected. B. Both parties have specific resources that can be idle. C. Both parties have a contract change management plan. D. Each party has its own project plan and legal team.

24. A - Both the buyer and the seller administer the contract for similar purposes. Each party ensures that both it and the other party meet their contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected.

24. Stakeholder notifications must be archived for future reference. Whenever the Manage Communications process produces a stakeholder notification, the notification must be: A. Updated to the organizational process assets B. Updated to the project management plan C. Updated to the project communications management plan D. Updated to the stakeholder register

24. A - Stakeholder notifications must be archived for future reference. Whenever the Manage Communications process produces a stakeholder notification, the notification must be updated to the organizational process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 388] [Project Communications Management]

24. Which of the following documents the formal or informal assessments of the project team's effectiveness? A. Team Performance Assessments B. Project Performance Appraisals C. Observations D. Conversations

24. A - Team Performance Assessments document the formal or informal assessments of the project team's effectiveness. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 343] [Project Resource Management]

24. Which of the following processes goes beyond the distribution of relevant information and seeks to ensure that the information being communicated to project stakeholders is appropriately generated, as well as received and understood? A. Manage Communications B. Monitor Communications C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

24. A - The Manage Communications process goes beyond the distribution of relevant information and seeks to ensure that the information being communicated to project stakeholders has been appropriately generated, as well as received and understood. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 381] [Project Communications Management]

24. Which of the following statements about project teams is incorrect? A. The project management team is usually a team external to the p team. B. The project management team is a subset of the project team. C. For smaller projects, the entire team can share the project manage responsibilities. D. For smaller projects, the project manager can solely administer p management responsibilities.

24. A - The project management team is a subset of the project team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 86] [Project Resource Management]

24. Which of the following is an output of the Create WBS process? A. Scope baseline B. Project scope statement C. Decomposition D. Requirements documentation

24. A - The scope baseline is an output of the Create WBS process. The other choices are either inputs or tools and techniques of the process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 156] [Project Scope Management]

24. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. A project can create a capability to perform a service. B. A project cannot be terminated before the deadline. C. A project can involve a single resource. D. Project work can be outsourced.

24. B - Projects can be terminated whenever the project deliverables or results are no longer required by the performing organization. The other choices are correct statements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 5]

24. You manage the construction of a new airport in your home country. Since your organization does not have experience deploying the sophisticated air-traffic control system, you outsourced this to a specialist organization. PMBOK's Procurement Management knowledge will help you successfully administer this deal; however, for the supplier of the system, all the PMBOK processes will apply since this will be a complete project for the supplying organization. Which of the following will be a common denominator between your project and the supplier projects? A. Project management plan B. Supply agreement C. Project's scope of work D. Budget for the air-traffic control system

24. B - The common denominator should be a document that is common between the buyer and the supplier, that is the supply agreement. The rest of the choices are the project artifacts what will be different for each party since supplier's scope of work is limited in comparison to the buyer's scope of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] [Project Procurement Management]

24. If the project's current total earned value (EV) is $100,000 and the actual amount spent (AC) is $95,000, what is the cost variance of the project? A. The cost variance is $1.05 B. The cost variance is $5,000 C. The cost variance is $0.95 D. The cost variance is $-5,000

24. B - The cost variance (CV) equals EV - AC. In this case, the CV = $5,000. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

24. You are a project manager who is in charge of an important project for your company. The project includes producing widgets for your customer. The collected data helps identify the greatest causes of defects in the overall process. Which technique should you use to determine the correlation between two variables being analyzed? A. Statistical sampling B. Pareto chart C. Scatter diagram D. Control chart

24. C - Scatter diagrams are used to determine if a correlation exists between two variables. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

24. As part of the Develop Team process, the project manager has planned for some Team Building activities. Team Building Activities should take place throughout the project lifecycle but will have greater benefit when conducted: A. On a need basis B. At the end of the project lifecycle C. Early in the project lifecycle D. In the middle of the project lifecycle

24. C - Team Building Activities should take place throughout the project life cycle, but have greater benefit when conducted early in the project life cycle. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 341] [Project Resource Management]

24. While conducting a brainstorming session to identify stakeholders, a process manager disagrees with you on a decision you made regarding the influence and impact of each stakeholder on the project. He even makes some comments against you in front of other stakeholders. As a senior project manager, what should be your immediate response? A. Do nothing in the meeting but later escalate this issue to the sponsor B. Take the help of other stakeholders and present your argument C. Propose an immediate meeting between the two of you to resolve differences D. Remove the process manager from the project

24. C - The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires you to conduct yourself in a professional manner even when it is not reciprocated. Therefore, you must not start arguing with the process manager. Removing the process manager will only worsen the situation. You must directly approach those persons with whom you have a conflict or disagreement—the process manager in this case. Propose an immediate meeting with him or her to resolve your differences. Escalating this issue will not resolve your differences. [PMBOK 6th

24. A technical team can begin to edit a large document 15 days after it begins writing it. What kind of dependency would this represent? A. Start-to-start with a 15-day lead B. Finish-to-finish with a 15-day lead C. Start-to-start with a 15-day lag D. Finish-to-start with a 15-day lag

24. C - The relationship between the two tasks would be represented as a start-to-start with a lag of 15 days. A lag directs a delay in the successor activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Schedule Management]

24. In a project that was yet to begin, many of the project team members were known in advance. This is: A. Proactive planning B. Skill matching C. Pre-assignment D. Staffing assignment

24. C - This is known as pre-assignment. This situation can occur if the project is the result of specific persons being promised as part of a competitive proposal, if the project is dependent on the expertise of particular persons, or if some staff assignments are defined within the project charter. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 333] [Project Resource Management]

24. The objective of a transformation project is to move an organization from one state to another state. Before the project begins, the organization is commonly referred to as being in the: A. Hot State B. Ready State C. Historic State D. Current State

24. D - Before the project begins, the organization is commonly referred to as being in the current state. The desired result of the change derived by the project is described as the future state. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 6] [Project Quality Management]

24. At the beginning of the project, a project manager realized that the technical expertise of the team was limited, a risk to the project. Midway through the project, the project manager decided this was no longer a risk and considered it outdated. As part of which process would he do the risk reassessment? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks Monitor Risks

24. D - Risk reassessment is performed as part of the Monitor Risks process. Such project risk reassessments should be regularly scheduled and may result in the closure of outdated risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453]

24. You are the project manager of a project executing work under a contract signed with a buyer organization. Just after the project has started, you notice that the buyer organization had made a mistake in the financial terms, and your organization stands to benefit considerably from this oversight. What should your stance be? A. Do not take any action since a contract is a binding and legal document B. Discuss with your management how you could gain a bonus due to increased revenue your company stands to gain. C. Informally check with your counterpart in the buyer organization t whether he or she noticed this error. D. Bring the error to the notice of the buyer organization and have amendment made to the contract since this was in good faith.

24. D - The ethical thing to do would be to bring this to the notice of the buyer organization and have an amendment made to the contract. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. You have just received notice that the organization you have worked for as a project manager has gone bankrupt. All employees have 72 hours' notice of termination. What is the best course of action for the two projects you are managing? A. Follow company directives B. Conduct a project closeout meeting C. Leave the office today D. Raise a claim for and on behalf of all the employees and contractors were participating in the project

25. A - Follow all company directives. The organization's management is responsible for developing these directives, which may include specific instructions on closing out work in progress. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. Along with the project communications management plan, work performance reports are vital inputs to the Manage Communications process. Where do these work performance reports come from? A. Project integration management process B. All monitoring and controlling processes C. Plan Communications Management processes D. Organizational process assets

25. A - The Monitor and Control Project Work, a process form the project integration management knowledge area, produces work performance reports. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 380] [Project Communications Management]

25. You are just about to present your project's status to your company's executive team. Just as you are leaving your desk for the meeting, one of your resources hands you an updated report on the progress of a critical deliverable. As you are walking to the conference room, you review the report and notice there is an error in it. What do you do? A. Do not report on that part of the project B. Disclose that you have just discovered there is an error in some o information you intended to present and only present the information you know is true C. Cancel the meeting D. Present the information as-it-is and revise it in the meeting min which will be sent after two days

25. B - Disclose that you have just discovered an error in some of the information you had planned to present, and only present information that you know to be accurate. Project managers are obligated to provide accurate and timely project information at all times, in accordance with the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. Due to the scarce nature of organizational resources, several trends have become popular in the past several years. Which of the following is NOT a resource management method: A. Kaizen B. Critical path method C. Total productive maintenance D. Theory of constraints

25. B - Due to scarce nature of critical resources, several trends have become popular in the past several years, including but not limited to, Kaizen, Total Productive Maintenance, and Theory of Constraints etc. Critical Path Method is a project scheduling technique. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 310] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. During the planning phase of your project, your team decided to procure a certain brand of hardware because it had the lowest price and came with free shipping and installation. This approach saved $6,000 over the other brands. Since that purchase, however, you discovered the annual maintenance costs for this hardware are $2,500 per year, and $12,500 over the life of the hardware. These costs were not budgeted in the project, nor were they included in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) analysis that was part of the project business case. What should you do? A. Request a new budget B. Notify the stakeholders immediately C. Revise the business case D. Do nothing. This will not affect the project budget

25. B - Notify the project stakeholders of this situation immediately. Once they have been notified of the lifecycle costing, a path forward can be developed. Project managers are responsible for providing accurate and timely information. Even though this cost will not impact the project budget directly, it is still a critical component of the ongoing operation of the project's product. Failing to communicate this information is a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. You have recently been successful in passing the Project Management Professional exam. Others within the organization you work for are also pursuing the certification and have sought your assistance. They have requested that you provide them with a detailed list of the questions that you had on the exam. What is the FIRST course of action you should take? A. Pretend you do not recall any of the questions B. Indicate that you cannot disclose questions you saw on the exam C. Offer your coworkers a listing of all the questions you recall from exam D. Report the violation to the PMI

25. B - The first course of action is to indicate that you cannot disclose questions you saw on the exam. PMI requires the candidates and those seeking certification to maintain and respect the confidentiality of the contents of the PMP examination. The PMI code of conduct mandates respecting copyrights of others. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. You are managing a project to design microprocessor control systems. The design work was estimated to be complete in 3.5 months with seven milestones. The sixth milestone is the prototype to be transferred to manufacturing. All milestones before prototyping have been completed ahead of schedule, with the sixth one being delayed for four months because the prototype was sent back several times due to conflicts between departments. You are now planning to hold a meeting to review the design specifications and handle conflicts between design and manufacturing. Who is at fault? A. The scheduler B. The project manager C. The manufacturer D. The design engineer

25. B - The project manager is at fault for failing to mediate and resolve conflict and for failing to control the project schedule. The project manager is ultimately responsible for the project, and in accordance with

25. You were just hired by a waste management company to develop a solid waste management program in an underdeveloped country. The project will be on a build-operate-transfer basis and will have a two-year duration. At the close of the project, local authorities will run the program. The World Bank sponsors the project, and a large consortium has received the award. Your company is subcontracted to do this project along with two more contractor companies. After the project scope was finalized, you developed a cost estimate of US$5.5 million. The sponsor reviews your detailed costing sheets and is concerned about the total cost figure. He tells you that the maximum allowable budget he can allocate for this project is US$5 million. What should you do? A. Ask for a reduction in scope. B. Evaluate ways that can result in cost savings and re-estimate the project C. Advise the sponsor that the project cannot be completed within available budget. D. Begin the project with the intent of requesting a budget increase at a point in time.

25. B - You should evaluate approaches that can result in cost savings and re-estimate the project. Requesting a change in budget or scope without fully analyzing the options or simply moving ahead with plans to request additional funds in the future are violations of the PMI Code of Ethics. This code requires project managers to provide accurate, timely, and truthful project information at all times. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. Project managers need to be aware of Student Syndrome, also known as procrastination, which means that people start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline. This concept is similar to Parkinson's Law which states that: A. Work only gets completed during the second half of the allocated time B. Work never gets completed on time even if sufficient time has allocated. C. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion. D. Effort expands to fill the time available for the completion of a package.

25. C - According to the Parkinson's law, work expands to fill the time available for its completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 197] [Project Quality Management]

25. You have found you do not yet have an accurate estimate of the number and skill levels of resources needed for the scheduled activity Build Racks for Data Center. You need this estimate for presentation to your Human Resources department later in the week. You have decided to decompose the Build Racks for Data Center activity into smaller components such as take equipment out of box, review equipment for completeness, build frame, and install rails. Then you plan to estimate the resources for each smaller component and combine those estimates into an aggregate. This is an example of: A. Aggregate Estimating B. Alternative Analysis C. Bottom-up Estimating D. Rolling Wave Estimating

25. C - Breaking down the scheduled activity into smaller components and then combining the estimates for each smaller activity is an example of bottom-up estimating. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 324]

25. A software vendor on your project is hoping to be awarded a contract providing software for another project at your company. You are not the manager of the other project. However, the vendor offers you tickets to an upcoming professional sports event if you will "put in a good word" for his company to the vendor selection team of the other project. What do you do? A. Fire the vendor B. Decline the tickets but provide a recommendation for the vendor C. Decline the tickets and notify appropriate management of the situation D. Accept the tickets if company policy allows it and provide recommendation for that vendor to the other project team

25. C - Do not accept the tickets that are offered and notify the appropriate management of the situation. By offering an incentive to you to help the vendor win more business from your company, the vendor has effectively offered a bribe. PMI's Code of Ethics prohibits project managers from accepting bribes, and further requires project managers to notify the appropriate management of any unethical conduct. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. A contractor is currently constructing a new building for your organization on a cost-plus-incentive contract. You just received the project status report from the contractor's project manager. According to the report, the project's CPI is 1.5. You are shocked because you believe the project costs are out of control. Upon investigation, you learn the $1 million advance payment (20 percent of the estimated project cost) given to the contractor at the start of the project was included in the project's earned value. Further, the cost of the inventory at the project site was excluded from the total actual costs. According to the contract, your company reimburses only the costs for the completed deliverables and not for the supplies in the project's inventory. In this scenario, the reported project's CPI is incorrect because: A. Actual cost is understated. B. Earned value is overstated, and actual cost is understated. C. Earned value is overstated. D. Both the earned value and the actual cost are overstated.

25. C - In this scenario the earned value has been overstated while the reported actual cost is ok. Earned value should be the sum of PVs of all completed activities. The initial 20% advance should not be part of this. Further, since the buyer is not liable for the inventory cost and only reimburses the costs associated with completed deliverables, the cost of the inventory does not become part of the actual cost until that inventory is consumed during the construction process. The inventory is an asset for the contactor until it is consumed on the project and at that time it becomes a cost for the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Communications Management]

25. Communication noise refers to influences on effective communication that influence the interpretation of conversations. Noise affects which components of communication? A. Encoding and decoding B. Decoding and feedback C. Transmission and decoding D. Encoding and feedback

25. C - Noise is anything that compromises the original meaning of a message. It gets either introduced during the transmission itself or during decoding (when the receiver of the message doesn't fully comprehend). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 371] [Project Communications Management]

25. A project manager feels the need of updating one of the project supplier contracts to meet the project's current needs. However, before any change requests, the project manager must know the right process to incorporate a change into this specific contract. What should he do first? A. Issue the change request and get it approved through Integrated Change Control process B. Update the project procurements management plan C. Review the change request handling procedure as documented in contract itself D. Review alternative dispute resolution (ADR) procedures in the contra

25. C - The first step should be to gather enough information so that the right decision and course of action can be determined. The second step should be to issue a change request and follow its approval. The project manager must first review the change request handling procedure specific to the contract and that can be found in the procurement contract itself. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] [Project Procurement Management]

25. At which stage in a project should the project manager begin to develop effective stakeholder engagement strategies throughout the project lifecycle? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Monitoring and Controlling

25. C - The project manager starts developing effective stakeholder engagement strategies early during the project's planning phase. This effort is carried out during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process and the strategies are then documented in the Stakeholder Engagement Plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516] [Project Stakeholder Management]

25. How does the role of a project manager change based on managing projects using a predictive development life cycle then managing projects in adaptive environments? A. The role of the project manager changes to a facilitator in predictive environments. B. The role of the project manager changes to a facilitator in adaptive environments. C. The role of the project manager does not change. D. The role of the project manager is replaced with a scrum mast adaptive environments.

25. C - The role of the project manager does not change bases on managing project using a predictive development life cycle or managing project in adaptive environments. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 178] [Project Procurement Management]

25. Eric, a project manager, is a certified PMP. He is responding to an RFP from a buyer and needs to fill in details on his company's financial performance. His company has performed poorly during the current quarter, and the results will be published in two to three days. However, the company has done very well in the previous quarters. The RFP is due in 10 days, and all the information in the RFP is complete except the financial information. What should Eric do? A. Eric should fill in the information for the previous quarter and ignore current quarter. This is an aberration, and the company will even come out of the bad patch. B. Eric should present the previous quarter's results as the latest results will give his company a better chance to win the project. C. Eric should fill in the financial information for the previous quarter send out the RFP response before the current quarter results are public D. Eric should wait until the current results are out and update the financial information before sending out the RFP response.

25. D - As a PMP, Eric must not behave in a manner that will mislead the buyer. Hence, given that there are still a sufficient number of days remaining before the RFP is due, it is his responsibility to wait for the current quarter results to be published and truthfully provide this information in the RFP. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. You have recently joined a new company as a project manager. While reviewing the procurement plans for a project you will be taking over, you see that the company is considering using one of the most expensive manufacturers to provide certain equipment required for the project. At your previous employer, you had used a different supplier for the same equipment and had paid significantly less. Without telling your boss, you now call that supplier for a quote. Have you violated the rule of keeping proprietary information confidential? A. Maybe. You need to talk to your boss first. B. No. There is no harm in sharing the information with your cu employer, because you are no longer working for your old employer. C. Yes. The supply source is proprietary information, and you should contact the supplier. D. You have not violated any rule.

25. D - No rule has been violated as you have not disclosed any proprietary or confidential information. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

25. You have been managing a construction project in a developing country, and now you are closing the project. The tools and equipment that were used on the project have to be returned to your company's European headquarters. A nongovernmental organization that builds and repairs medical facilities in this country has come to you to request that this equipment be donated to them. What should you do? A. Donate all tools and equipment B. Refuse the request C. Donate only the tools and equipment whose value is below your purchase approval limit D. Notify the appropriate management

25. D - Notify the appropriate management about the donation request. Management can then evaluate the request and make a determination how to proceed. If the request is approved, you can then modify the project plan as needed to accommodate the request. However, making a decision that runs counter to project processes and policies by disposing of these materials in a manner other than what had been previously defined is a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

26. Collect Requirements, Develop Schedule, and Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis are all part of what process group? A. Planning B. Scope Planning C. Monitor and Controlling D. Executing

26. A - All activities listed are planning activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Framework]

26. You are in the execution stage of your project, and you are informed that "corporate" will send in a team of consultants to review whether your project activities comply with your company's and PMI's policies, standards, and procedures. This is an example of: A. Quality Audit B. Organizational Process Assets C. Process Analysis D. Recommended Corrective Actions

26. A - Any activity that is a structured and independent review to examine the project is an example of a Quality Audit. A quality audit is a quality management tool. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 294] [Project Quality Management]

26. An organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity arising from a risk with positive impact is realized. This organization should: A. Exploit the risk B. Mitigate the risk C. Accept the risk D. Avoid the risk

26. A - Five strategies to deal with risks with potentially positive impacts on project objectives are to escalate, exploit, share, enhance, or accept the risk. An exploit strategy ensures that the opportunity is realized. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 444] [Project Risk Management]

26. In a sender-receiver model for communication, information is sent and received between two parties, defined as the sender and the receiver. In such a model, anything that interferes with the transmission and understanding of the message is called: A. Noise B. Constraint C. Medium D. Decode

26. A - In a sender-receiver model, the key components include: Encoding of thoughts or ideas, a message as the output of encoding, a medium to convey the message, and decoding of the message back into meaningful thoughts or ideas. Anything that interferes with the transmission and understanding of the message is termed noise (such as distance, for example). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 372] [Project Communications Management]

26. Melissa is managing a hardware deployment project and is creating a risk management plan. Which of the following would not be included in this plan? A. Templates B. Roles and responsibilities C. Budgeting D. Methodology

26. A - Templates is not a valid response. The other choices are typical components of a Risk Management Plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 405] [Project Risk Management]

26. All of the following are components of an effective change control process, except: A. Variance analysis B. Expert judgment C. Change control tools D. Meetings

26. A - Variance analysis is not a tool and technique of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. The other choices are valid tools and techniques of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Integration Management]

26. You are a senior project management practitioner. You have been given a chemical manufacturing project that could potentially contaminate the groundwater in the neighboring residential community. After detailed analysis, you learn that the impact could be severe in the long run. If the sponsor of the project wants to complete this project as soon as possible, you must: A. Undertake the project but not inform the residents B. Refuse to take up the project C. Support the sponsor D. Undertake the project but inform the residents

26. B - All project management practitioners must follow the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. One of the aspirational standards that a project manager must follow is responsibility. Project managers must make decisions based on the best interests of society, public safety, and the environment. They must not undertake projects that are harmful to the public interest. Therefore, the best option in this situation is to refuse to take on the project, now that you know of its potentially harmful environmental effects. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional

26. Why are the approved change requests input to the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. The project team may reject approved change requests during the D and Manage Project Work process. B. Approved change requests are implemented by the project team during Direct and Manage Project Work process. C. The project team monitors approved change requests during the D And Manage Project Work process. D. The project team reviews approved change requests during the Direct Manage Project Work process.

26. B - Approved change requests are implemented by the project team during the Direct and Manage Project Work process. The other choices are incorrect statements regarding the Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 93] [Project Integration Management]

26. The objective of a transformation project is to move an organization from one state to another state. The desired result of the change driven by the project is described as the: A. Good state B. Future state C. Happy state D. Transition state

26. B - Before the project begins, the organization is commonly referred to as being in the current state. The desired result of the change derived by the project is described as the future state. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 6] [Project Quality Management]

26. Each critical project communication requirement must be carefully analyzed. One good way is to use a communication model to design effective communications. What is the sequence of steps in a basic communication model? A. Encode -> Decode -> Transmit -> Acknowledge -> Feedback B. Encode -> Transmit -> Decode -> Acknowledge -> Feedback C. Decode -> Encode -> Transmit -> Acknowledge -> Feedback D. Encode -> Transmit -> Decode -> Feedback -> Acknowledge

26. B - Encode -> Transmit -> Decode -> Acknowledge -> Feedback is the right sequence. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 371, 372] [Project Communications Management]

26. A certain project was in the Collect Requirements phase. The product's eventual users could not define their requirements. In this scenario, which of the following tools could have helped determine the requirements? A. Interviews B. Prototypes C. Surveys D. Questionnaires

26. B - Prototypes are working models of the expected product before actually building it. The tangible nature of prototypes allows users to experiment with a model of their final product early in the project life cycle and to generate clear feedback. Interviews, questionnaires and surveys were unlikely to help in this case since the users were struggling to define their requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 147]

26. Which of the following statements about the planned value, the earned value, the schedule variance, and the cost variance of a project is false? A. The cost variance is the difference between the earned value an actual cost. B. The schedule variance is the difference between the earned value an planned value. C. The earned value is the value of work to be completed in terms o approved budget. D. The planned value is the budget authorized for the work to be perform

26. C - Earned value is the value of the work already completed. This value is often expressed in terms of the approved budget assigned to the work completed. The earned value is measured against the performance measurement baseline. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 261] [Project Cost Management]

26. On-demand scheduling is one of the techniques used in agile environments. This type of scheduling ______ work from a backlog as resources become available. A. Extrapolates B. Predicts C. Pulls D. Pushes

26. C - On-demand scheduling is one of the techniques used in agile projects. This type of scheduling "pulls" work from a backlog as resources become available. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Integration Management]

26. You are managing a project with more than 130 procurement contracts. Because of the number of contracts, your project team includes a procurement manager and a procurement assistant. Company policy requires that certain types of procurements be advertised to potential bidders by means of newspaper advertisements. The procurement assistant typically reviews the bids received and shortlists the suppliers for further review by the procurement team. During a meeting to review and select a vendor from the shortlisted suppliers, you discover that one of the suppliers is a company your cousin owns. Which of the following is your best course of action? A. Because the procurement assistant prepared the short list, not you, y not need disclose your relationship with the supplier and may continue participate in the selection process B. Disclose your relationship with the provider and continue to participate the selection process C. Ask the procurement manager to lead the vendor selection process for contract and excuse yourself from the review D. Remove the supplier from the short list

26. C - The best choice is asking the procurement manager to lead the selection process and excusing yourself from the review. According to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, project managers must disclose any potential conflict of interest situation to the appropriate stakeholders, who will determine if it is appropriate for the project manager to continue participating in the affected processes. Project managers must also act fairly towards others; removing the supplier from the list because of a possible conflict of interest on the part of the project manager is unfair to the vendor. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

26. Sheila is the project manager of a website development project. After a detailed discussion with the project management team, she decides to create an informal, broadly framed quality management plan. What would your comment on this be? A. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be forma broadly framed. B. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be formal and h detailed. C. This is fine. The project requirements determine the style and detail o quality management plan. D. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be informal highly detailed.

26. C - The quality management plan may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed. Its style and detail are determined by the requirements of the project as defined by the project management team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 286] [Project Quality Management]

26. The project sponsor asks you to increase budget estimates by 25 percent to ensure that the project has enough funds budgeted. What should you do? A. Add 25 percent to your contingency reserves B. Fast track the project C. Add 25 percent to all costs across the board D. Ask for additional information

26. D - Ask for additional information on the risks that would cause the original budget estimates to be too low. Simply increasing the project budget by 25% without identifying the underlying reasons means you are providing inaccurate information. PMI's Code of Ethics requires project managers to provide accurate information at all times. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

26. Which of the following predictive project management techniques resembles an agile approach: A. Developing the WBS B. Developing the project management plan C. Earned value analysis D. Rolling wave planning

26. D - Rolling wave planning resembles agile approaches since it allows the project management team to wait until the deliverables or subcomponents are agreed on, so the details of the WBS can be developed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 160] [Project Framework]

26. Jen works as a project manager for the National Weather Agency. She is managing a project designed to assess the effect of climate change on northern mountains. The initial study established a two months' delay for the testing equipment to reach mountains due to road construction. However, a recent assessment has indicated a significantly shorter delay because of rapid progress in construction. To deal with the shorter delay, which of the following steps should Jen take next? A. Distribute the information B. Conduct a stakeholder meeting C. Create a new project plan D. Update the risk register

26. D - The delays are considered risks to the project. In this scenario, the reassessment indicated a decline in the risk (delay time) compared to the initial risk identification. The risk reassessment is performed in the Monitor Risks process, and the outcome of the risk reassessment updates the risk register. Therefore, Jen must take steps to update the risk register. Other steps can be taken after updating the risk register.

26. The business case documents the business need and the cost benefit analysis that justify the project. The summary of how the project has achieved the business needs identified in the business case is document in the: A. Project charter B. Project WBS C. Project Scope Statement D. Project final report

26. D - The summary of how the project has achieved the business needs identified in the business case is included in a project's final report. The other choices are either project initiating or planning documents.

27. Your vice president asked you what the Estimate at Completion (EAC) will be for a small project you are working on. You were given a budget of $30,000, and to date you have spent $20,000 but only completed $10,000 worth of work. You are sure the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate. What is the EAC? A. $40,000 B. $30,000 C. $60,000 D. $10,000

27. A - If the future work will be accomplished at the planned rate, then the Estimate at Completion (EAC) will be AC+BAC-EV. Budget at Completion (BAC) is $30,000, Earned Value (EV) is $10,000, and Actual Cost (AC) is $20,000. Hence, the EAC is $40,000. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

27. Sheila is a project manager who manages a global project. She has stakeholders located in various parts of the globe. Due to the nature of the project, she also has large volumes of information she needs to share with the recipients. What type of communication method should she prefer for this purpose? A. Pull communication B. Push communication C. Request-based communication D. Interactive communication

27. A - Pull communication is suited for this purpose. It is used for large volumes of information or for large audiences and requires the recipients to access communication content at their own discretion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] [Project Communications Management]

27. Lee is the project manager of a project, and he is planning responses to a set of risks. As a direct result of implementing these risk responses, he anticipates certain other risks to arise. These are: A. Secondary risks B. Primary risks C. Planned risks D. Workaround

27. A - Secondary risks are those that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk response. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 439] [Project Risk Management]

27. The term Progressive Elaboration incorrectly represents which of the following? A. Changes to project scope B. Rolling wave planning C. Detailing out the product requirements developed during the initial process. D. Production of fabrication and construction drawings from the d drawings for a chemical plant.

27. A - The distinction between progressive elaboration and scope creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different. The changes to scope (especially in an uncontrolled manner) are called scope creep. In contrast, progressive elaboration involves building on or elaborating the output of a previous phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 185] [Project Framework]

27. A project manager is managing a project in which there are teams located in remote locations in order to obtain cost savings. This is in accordance with organizational guidelines that require that at least 25 percent of the work should be done from a remote location. This is an example of: A. A constraint B. A necessity C. A choice D. An assumption

27. A - This is an example of a constraint. Constraints are factors that can limit the project management team's options. An organizational mandate requiring that a certain part of the team operate from a different location to obtain cost savings is a constraint that the project management team needs to incorporate into their planning. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 701] [Project Resource Management]

27. What similarity exists between a cost-reimbursable contract and a time and-materials contract? A. They are open-ended. B. The closure date is part of the contract. C. They have fixed bonus rates. D. They can never grow in value.

27. A - Time-and-materials contracts resemble cost-reimbursable contracts in that both are open-ended. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

27. Recently, a junior team member has challenged the project management approach since not all requirements identified during the Collect Requirements process were documented in the project scope statement. You are the project manager, what should you do first? A. Remove the junior team member from the team as this is a discipline issue. B. Analyze the objection and determine if the requirements were deliberately dropped during the Define Scope process. C. Engage the project sponsor to resolve the issue. D. Accept your mistake and include the missed requirements.

27. B - All the requirements identified in Collect Requirements may not be included in the project as the Define Scope process selects the final project requirements from the requirements documentation developed during the Collect Requirement process. Analyzing the objection and determining if the requirements were deliberately dropped during the Define Scope process is the best response. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 151] [Project Risk Management]

27. Which of the following is not an appropriate method for dealing with a negative risk? A. Avoid B. Exploit C. Transfer D. Mitigate

27. B - Exploitative strategies are selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure the opportunity is realized. This strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by making the opportunity happen. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 443, 444] [Project Risk Management]

27. A project manager was involved in preparation of the project charter for an external project. One of the inputs to the project charter was a statement of work (SOW). The SOW may have been received from the customer as part of any of the following except: A. As part of a request for information B. As part of the business case C. As part of a request for proposal D. As part of a contract

27. B - The statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project. For an external project, the SOW may be received as part of a bid document such as the request for proposal, request for information, request for bid or as part of a contract. It is usually not part of the business case. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 477] [Project Integration Management]

27. You are in the initiation phase of your project, and you believe the project can be completed for $100,000. However, you are an experienced project manager and know that many things can happen between the initiation phase and the closure of the project. In the project charter, you have provided an estimate of $75,000 to $175,000. This is an example of: A. Narrow Estimate B. Absolute Estimate C. Rough Order of Magnitude Estimate D. True Estimate

27. C - A ROM estimate is supplied in the beginning of a project and is defined as -25% to +75% of the estimated cost. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 241] [Project Cost Management]

27. You are working on a software development project in which specialized resources are required to perform some tasks. You estimate these resources are necessary during the project's executing phase. However, your estimation fails to account for these resources are available for only limited hours in the executing phase. What should you do to make schedule changes to deal with the limited availability? A. Communicate to customers and update the baseline B. Update the project schedule C. Update the schedule baseline D. Perform an impact analysis

27. D - A project manager must be responsible and must communicate truthful information to customers. However, a project manager must perform an impact analysis before getting approval from the customer and making changes. Thus, the correct choice here is to perform an impact analysis. The schedule and schedule baseline should be updated after analyzing the impact and getting customer approval. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Project Schedule Management]

27. You are the project manager for a project and have just entered the third year of a scheduled four-year project. You need to evaluate new risks that have arisen since the project began. What agenda item do you need to add to your next team meeting? A. Variance and trend analysis B. Process Improvement Plan C. Risk audit D. Risk re-assessment

27. D - A risk reassessment is a technique that involves reevaluating project risks and identifying new risks that arise as the project moves forward. These risks are evaluated and placed in the risk register. The PMBOK recommends conducting risk reassessments during team meetings as a part of the Monitor Risks process.[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 457] [Project Risk Management]

27. The method used in the Manage Quality process to identify the factors that may influence specific characteristics of a product under development is: A. The forecasting technique B. The control chart C. The statistical sampling D. Design for X

27. D - Design for X is a set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. DfX can control or even improve the product's final characteristics. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 295] [Project Quality Management]

27. You are working as a project manager for a wind-powered vehicle manufacturing project which is in its planning phase. You carefully gathered all your requirements from your key stakeholders and prepared a system requirements specification and project requirements specification. While presenting your specifications to the project team, an enthusiastic project team member started talking about the duration estimates for each activity. Which of the following statements indicates your response to your team member? A. WBS creation and Schedule development must be done after estimate durations. B. Schedule development and Costs estimation must be done b estimating durations. C. Scope definition, WBS creation, Quality planning, and Communication planning must be done before estimating durations. D. Scope definition, WBS creation, Activity definition, and Ac sequencing must be done before estimating durations.

27. D - Estimating activity durations is done during the planning phase of a project. Since you have just developed the requirements, the scope must be defined and the WBS must be created immediately. Based on the WBS, activities must be defined and sequenced. After sequencing, resources and duration for each activity must be estimated. Therefore, explain to your team member which activities must be done before estimating durations: Scope definition, WBS creation, activity definition, and activity sequencing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 129, 173] [Project Schedule Management]

27. Configuration management tool selection should be based on the needs of the project stakeholders including organizational and environmental considerations and/or constraints. Which of the following is not a key configuration management consideration while selecting an appropriate configuration management tool for a project? A. Identification and selection of configuration items. B. Recording and reporting of configuration item status. C. Configuration item verification and audit. D. Procedures for accepting and rejecting change requests.

27. D - Procedures for accepting and rejecting change requests are related to change management rather than configuration management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 118, 119] [Project Framework]

27. A buyer and seller are looking at getting into a long-term relationship spanning 10 years. Both parties would like to be protected from the unstable financial conditions of their country, which are beyond their control. What type of contract is appropriate for such a relationship? A. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) B. Firm Fixed Price (FPP) C. Time & Material (T&M) D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

27. D - The Fixed-Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA) contract is used whenever the buyer-seller relationship spans across years. It is a fixed-price contract with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to significantly changed economic conditions. It is intended to protect both the buyer and the seller from external conditions beyond their control. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 471] [Project Procurement Management]

27. You have assembled a group of subject matter experts (SMEs) to define risk probability and impact levels. You and your team are still in what process group? A. Risk B. Monitor and Controlling C. Quantitative Analysis D. Planning

27. D - The probability and impact definitions are developed during the Plan Risk Management process which is a part of the Planning process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 407] [Project Risk Management]

27. Linda has been assigned to establish a PMO in her organization. Linda believes this project cannot succeed unless all the key project stakeholders support the project. She also believes she needs to pay special attention to stakeholder management to ensure success of this project. First, she needs to develop her stakeholder register. To produce the project stakeholder register, which of the following processes must Linda start? A. Plan Stakeholder Engagement B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement D. Identify Stakeholders

27. D - The stakeholder register is developed during the Identify Stakeholders process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 507] [Project Stakeholder Management]

28. A team member in your project is constantly providing incomplete deliverables and not performing well. What should you do first? A. Discuss the issue with the team member in private B. Discuss the issue with the team member in the presence of the p sponsor C. Discuss the issue with the team member in the presence of other members D. Discuss the issue with the team member in the presence of the comp HR manager

28. A - Discuss the issue with the team member in private. Conflicts should be first addressed in private, using a direct and collaborative approach.

28. Rosanne is an experienced project manager working on a pharmaceutical project. This project involves two large vendors supplying chemical products with specific compositions for preparing drugs. While reviewing documents to see how a seller is performing, she notices the seller did not meet some of the contractual terms. Since it is a first-time violation, she would like to initiate a corrective action to bring the seller's performance in line with the statement of work. Which of the following are not outputs of Rosanne's effort? A. Work performance data and approved change requests B. Work performance information and change requests C. Change requests and Organizational process assets update D. Change requests and Project management plan updates

28. A - Evaluating the performance of the seller is done during the Control Procurements process. If the contractual terms are not met by the seller, a corrective action can be initiated. If there are severe violations, the contract can be terminated based on the language used in the contract. Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates and organizational process updates are the outputs of this process. Work performance data and approved change requests are inputs to this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 492] [Project Procurement Management]

28. Project knowledge management is concerned with managing which type of project knowledge? A. Both "explicit" and "tacit" knowledge B. "Explicit" knowledge; as this can be readily codified C. "Tacit" knowledge; as this is difficult to express D. "Tacit" knowledge; as this involves beliefs, insights, experience "know-how"

28. A - Knowledge is commonly split into explicit (knowledge that can be readily codified using words, pictures, and numbers) and tacit (knowledge that is personal and difficult to express). Knowledge management is concerned with managing both tacit and explicit knowledge. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 100] [Project Procurement Management]

28. A project manager has completed identification of stakeholders and has started planning for a flow instruments installation project in a hospital. While developing the project management plan, a team member states that a stakeholder in the X-ray department is missing from the stakeholder list. Which of the following would be the best response from the project manager? A. Authenticate the information from the team member B. Include and involve the stakeholder immediately C. It is too late to involve a stakeholder in the planning, so ignore stakeholder D. Wait until the execution phase to involve the new stakeholder

28. A - One aspect of responsibility for a project manager is to take ownership of decisions made. A project manager is responsible for identifying all stakeholders as early as possible in the project. A missing stakeholder could jeopardize the objectives of the project. However, the project manager must first authenticate the information from the team member before involving the stakeholder. Thus, this is the best choice of action for the project manager in this situation. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Pages 504-506 and PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Project Stakeholder Management]

28. A fellow project manager is retiring and moving to the mountains; you will take over his project. Before he leaves, he tells you the project is on schedule but only because he "put the hammer down" on his project team and pushed them relentlessly. Pushing the team to perform activities to accomplish project objectives is a part of: A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Control Quality D. Control Scope

28. A - Performing activities to accomplish project activities is one of the goals of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 92] [Project Integration Management]

28. The senior analyst on a project came up with Activity Duration Estimates as follows: Activity A: 10 days + a lag of two days; Activity B: 1 week + a lead of three days. The project manager who reviewed these estimates raised some objections to them. What would they most likely be? A. The analyst should have included percent variance information mentioning the Activity Duration Estimate. This would indicate a ran possible results. B. Activity Duration Estimates should not include any lag or information. C. It is advisable not to mix up units such as days and weeks while co up with Activity Duration Estimates. D. The Activity Duration Estimate should have also mentioned predecessor or successor activity to which the lag or lead is attached.

28. B - Activity duration estimates are quantitative assessments of the likely work periods to complete an activity. They do not contain any lag or lead information. Lead and lags are determined during the Develop Schedule process when schedule network analysis is performed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 209] [Project Schedule Management]

28. Statistical sampling involves choosing part of a population for inspection. Appropriate sampling can often ___________the cost of quality control. A. Neutralize B. Reduce C. Increase D. Mitigate

28. B - Appropriate sampling can often reduce the cost of quality control as it selects a part of the population for inspection. In some application areas, it may be necessary for the project management team to be familiar with a variety of sampling techniques. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 303] [Project Quality Management]

28. Which of the following quality control tools and techniques may not be used for root cause analysis? A. Fishbone diagram B. Scatter diagram C. Ishikawa diagram D. Cause-and-effect diagram

28. B - Of the tools listed, the scatter diagram is used to study and identify the possible relationship between two variables. The others can be used for root cause analysis. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

28. Which document describes the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables? A. Project authorization document B. Project scope statement C. Project scope management plan D. Project charter

28. B - The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project's deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables. It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project's boundaries. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154] [Project Scope Management]

28. Nancy is carrying out cost-benefit analysis for a project. If undertaken, the project will start in January next year and end by December. The project will incur a constant cost of $10,000 each month (payable by the end of each month) giving a total cost of $120,000 for the project. The revenue from the project is collected on a quarterly basis. The total revenue for the project by the end of December will be $200,000. The opportunity cost of the project is 12 percent which is the bank interest rate Nancy can get if she does not invest in this project. The total present value of all cash outflows is $112,551, while the total present value of all cash inflow is $185,721. What is the benefit-to-cost ratio for the project? A. 1.67 B. 0.6 C. 1.65 D. 0.61

28. C - Benefit-to-cost ratio (BCR) = PV of inflows / PV of outflows = 1.65 The gross BCR can also be calculated as Total Revenue / Total Cost. However, since the total present value of both the inflow and outflow is given, this must be used for a more accurate calculation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 34] [Project Integration Management]

28. What is the BEST tool/technique that provides expected cost of a procurement by a third party and helps identify significant variations from cost estimates prepared in-house? A. Screening system B. Bidder conferences C. Independent estimates D. Buyer-conducted performance review

28. C - Independent estimates provides the expected cost of a procurement by a third party. It helps identify significant variations from cost estimates prepared by the project team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 708] [Project Procurement Management]

28. Linda is currently drafting her project stakeholder management plan. Since she is a new hire, she is not aware of the company's policies and procedures. If she wants to know more about the company's general issues management procedures, where must she look? A. Project charter B. Scope statement C. Organizational process assets D. Issue register

28. C - Linda is looking for company's policies and procedures. These are part of the organizational process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 39] [Project Stakeholder Management]

28. Rina and Gimo are the senior developers in a website development project. They have argued about the best web design product to use in developing the new website. As the project manager, you use a forcing approach to make a decision and reduce the conflict. What is the main characteristic of this approach? A. Forcing to close the project B. Highlighting areas of agreement rather than areas of disagreement C. Asserting one's viewpoint at the expense of others D. Withdrawing from the actual conflict

28. C - Project managers must resolve conflicts as early as possible to improve productivity and generate positive working relationships. Forcing is a conflict resolution technique in which one's viewpoint is asserted at the expense of others. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349]

28. Kate's project is in execution. During an internal project review meeting, Kate learns that the stakeholder engagement plan needs an update. The last update was done two weeks earlier. According to the stakeholder engagement plan, the plan must be reviewed and updated on a monthly basis. The nature of the required update does not require following the formal change control process. What should Kate do? A. Wait for a couple of weeks to do the required update B. Update the plan review procedure first before making the required up C. Go ahead and do the required update D. Seek the project sponsor's guidance

28. C - There is no need to seek the project sponsor's guidance on this issue. Kate is the project manager, and as long as the nature of the needed update does not require following the formal change control process, she can update the plan right away. Although the stakeholder engagement plan requires a monthly review, updates can be done at any time as needed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 530]

28. Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process? A. Communication technology B. Communication models C. Communication standard D. Communication skills

28. D - Communication skills is a tool and technique of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

28. You just sat through an exhausting change control meeting discussing a change in scope to the project you have worked on for the past seven months. After lengthy discussion, the change in scope was approved. As the Project Manager, you should now update all the following documentation, except: A. Scope Baseline B. Requirements documentation C. WBS Dictionary D. Project charter

28. D - It is the project scope statement and not the project charter that should be updated. The project charter contains only the high-level requirements and high-level project description. All of the other documents listed in the other choices should also be updated. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 81] [Project Scope Management]

28. PMBOK recognizes five process groups typical of nearly all projects. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Executing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Pre-Inception

28. D - Pre-Inception is not a PMBOK process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 23] [Project Framework]

28. The project manager controls the interfacing and overlapping areas of the organization's procurement processes, along with the project schedule, with processes from this area: A. Project Resource Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Risk Management D. Project Integration Management

28. D - Project Integration Management includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the project management process groups. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 69] [Project Integration Management]

28. To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, a project manager is determining which ones require a lead or a lag. Which of the following correctly describes leads or lags? A. A lead allows a successor activity to be delayed. B. A lag directs a delay in the predecessor activity. C. A lag allows acceleration of the successor activity. D. A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity.

28. D - To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, the project management team determines which ones require a lead or a lag. A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192] [Project Schedule Management]

29. Which of the following scenarios is likely to occur in a project? A. Cost and staffing levels are low at the start of the project. B. Stakeholders' influence on the project is lowest at the start of the project C. Risk and uncertainty are lowest at the start of the project. D. Cost of changes are the highest at the start of the project.

29. A - Cost and staffing levels are low at the start of the project. The other statements are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Framework]

29. The Project Charter defines the high level scope and objectives of a project. Which of the following is not a correct statement about inputs to the Project Charter? A. Government or industry standards cannot be used as an input to develop project charter. B. The project's business case is an input to the Develop Project C process. C. Organizational process assets are input to the Develop Project Ch process. D. When projects are executed for external customers, a contract o agreement is used as an input to the charter.

29. A - Government or industry standards are part of enterprise environmental factors and are used as inputs to the Develop Project Charter process. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 78] [Project Integration Management]

29. A tool that provides a visual representation of human resource allocation to a project, number of working hours, and availability on the project is a: A. Resource Histogram B. Staff release plan C. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) D. Organization Breakdown Structure (OBS)

29. A - The correct response is Resource Histogram. This bar chart illustrates the number of hours that a project, department or project team will be working each week or month over the course of the project. The chart can include a horizontal line that represents the maximum number of hours available for a particular resource. Bars that extend beyond the maximum available hours indicate the need for a resource leveling strategy. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 220, 719] [Project Resource Management]

29. You work at a software company that authors Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for chemical companies. Prior to releasing the MSDS to the company, you have created a list of items for review to ensure they appear in the document. These items include chemical name, CAS#, protection required, what to do in an emergency, etc. This list is an example of what type of tool? A. Checklist B. Process Improvement Plan C. Quality Management Plan D. Quality Metrics

29. A - The scenario describes a checklist that someone would use to review the document prior to its release. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 292] [Project Quality Management]

29. A team of engineers is reviewing a scatter diagram to determine how the changes in two variables in a new type of automobile tire are related. The closer the points on the diagram are to a diagonal line, _______________. A. The more likely a control group is required B. The more closely they are related C. The less likely they are to be related D. The less likely a control group is required

29. B - A scatter diagram shows the pattern of relationship between two variables. The closer the points are to a diagonal line, the more closely they are related. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

29. The sponsor of a project created a document that included the business need and the cost-benefit analysis. What would this document be termed as? A. The project statement of work B. The business case C. The project management plan D. The contract

29. B - The business case usually provides information from a business standpoint so that any investment in the project can be justified. Typically it would contain both the business need as well as the cost benefit analysis. The business case is an input to the Develop Project Charter process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 77] [Project Integration Management]

29. Dana works for a federal agency that manages mission critical projects. As a project manager, she is responsible for all communication needs in her data center project, which has started recently. This project involves many stakeholders, customers, external vendors, and team members. Since conflicts are inevitable in such a massive project, she has decided to provide her project team the details of the issue escalation process, including the names of the chain of command to refer issues to that cannot be resolved at a lower level. Where must Dana document the escalation process? A. The project charter B. The communications management plan C. The issue log D. The project scope document

29. B - The issue escalation process must be documented during the planning phase of a project. Issues that cannot be resolved at a lower level can be escalated up the chain of command within a stipulated time frame. This information is part of the communications management plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 377] [Project Communications Management]

29. A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas so they can be taken up for further brainstorming is: A. Six thinking hats B. Nominal group technique C. Affinity diagram D. Mind mapping

29. B - The nominal group technique enhances brainstorming with a voting process. This then allows the most useful ideas to be prioritized and taken up for further brainstorming. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144] [Project Scope Management]

29. The methods used to transfer information among project stakeholders may vary significantly. A project team may apply different techniques and communication technologies to ensure effective and efficient communications. Which of the following must not be a factor to consider while choosing a communication technology? A. Urgency of the need for information B. Cheapest available technology C. Availability of technology D. Ease of use of technology

29. B - While cost is always a consideration for any project decision, merely considering the cheapest available technology can compromise the purpose of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 370] [Project Communications Management]

29. During a presentation to management, you want to display the project schedule with only the key deliverables displayed. What is the correct tool for this purpose? A. Project schedule network diagram B. Critical path network C. Milestone chart D. Critical chain diagram

29. C - A milestone chart displays only the key deliverables and is simple and easy to understand. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 218] [Project Schedule Management]

29. While using facilitated sessions to gather high-level business requirements for a software development project, one of your customers proposes a requirement that may not be technologically possible to meet. If the customer insists on the requirement, what should you do first? A. You should not document the requirement B. You should document the requirement and include it as a risk C. You should listen to the customer and understand his viewpoint D. You should document the requirement to meet customer expectations

29. C - A project manager must communicate honestly and openly with the customer. When a customer insists on specific requirements, a project manager should listen to him or her and understand his or her point of view. Then, the project manager must gather facts and explain convincingly to the customer why he or she is right or wrong. Project managers should neither accept nor deny critical requests from the customer until they have sufficient factual information. Thus, in this situation, you should first listen to the customer and understand his viewpoint. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

29. Rick, a project manager, is updating the status of his project. Based on the performance indices, he expects the project to finish a month earlier than the planned finish date. However, he expects the project to exceed the budgeted costs. What can you say about the schedule performance index (SPI) of the project? A. The SPI is less than 1.0. B. The SPI equals the CPI. C. The SPI is greater than 1.0. D. The SPI is equal to 1.0.

29. C - A project that is ahead of schedule will have a SPI value greater than 1.0, since it indicates that more work was completed than was planned. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

29. A risk with a positive outcome is an ___________. A. Unlikely risk B. Objective risk C. Opportunity D. Obsolete risk

29. C - Risks can pose a threat or an opportunity to a project. Positive risks are called opportunities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 444] [Project Risk Management]

29. A technique that calculates multiple project durations with different sets of activity assumptions and variables is: A. Process Analysis B. Theoretical Analysis C. Simulation D. Effect Analysis

29. C - This technique is known as simulation. Project simulations use computer models and estimates of risk (usually expressed as a probability distribution of possible costs or durations at a detailed work level) and are typically performed using Monte Carlo analysis. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 213] [Project Schedule Management]

29. Midway through the Collect Requirements process, a project manager finds there are many unresolved issues regarding product requirements. Which of the following is usually the best way to discover and resolve issues? A. Interviewing B. Use of a stakeholder register C. Questionnaires D. Workshops

29. D - Facilitated workshops bring key cross-functional stakeholders together to define product requirements. Because of their interactive nature, well-facilitated sessions lead to increased stakeholder consensus. This ensures that issues can be discovered and resolved more quickly than in other forums. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 145] [Project Scope Management]

29. To create a quality product, the project management team invested in training the project team members and purchasing high-end equipment. Such costs are: A. Failure costs B. Costs of Nonconformance C. Appraisal costs D. Prevention costs

29. D - Investments in training and equipment are examples of prevention costs. Appraisal costs include the testing, losses due to destructive testing, and inspections. Collectively, these costs are called Cost of Conformance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282]

29. Jane is currently reviewing a list of project proposals. All the proposed projects achieve some of the organizational strategic objectives and their expected costs are known. However, Jane cannot execute all the projects due to the funding limitation. How shall Jane determine which projects she needs to execute this year? A. Select the high-budget projects and drop the low-budget projects B. Select the low-budget projects and drop the high-budget projects C. Select the projects that maximize organizational revenue D. Select the projects that maximize the business value

29. D - Project should never be prioritized based on their budgets. Selecting the projects that maximize organizational revenue or selecting the projects that maximize the business value seem good options. However, adding to business value takes precedence over adding the organizational revenue, since there can be projects that add more to the revenue but add less to the business value. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 7] [Project Integration Management]

29. A Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) breaks down the project by type of resources. The RBS is an example of a: A. Linear chart B. Matrix chart C. Flow chart D. Hierarchical chart

29. D - The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical chart. It is used to break down the project by type of resources. For example, an RBS can depict all of the welders and welding equipment used in different areas of a ship, even though these resources may be scattered among different branches of the Organizational Breakdown Structure and RBS. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 316] [Project Resource Management]

29. Which of the following is not an input to the Develop Project Charter process? A. Agreements B. Business Case C. Benefits management plan D. Stakeholder register

29. D - The stakeholder register is not an input to the Develop Project Charter process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75] [Project Integration Management]

3. Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process? A. Milestone list B. Project schedule activity diagrams C. Resource calendar D. Activity duration estimates

3. A - A milestone list is a valid output of the Define Activities process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 183] [Project Schedule Management]

3. Which process is concerned with providing forecasts to update current cost information? A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Project Management Information System C. Close Project or Phase D. Direct and Manage Project Work

3. A - During the Monitor and Control Project Work process, work performance data is gathered and passed to the controlling processes. The Monitor and Control Project Work process is responsible for keeping track of the all project's measures, including cost. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 109] [Project Integration Management]

3. Marvin has worked for a retail company as a project manager. With his positive thinking and strong managerial skills, he turned many potentially disastrous projects into successes. Because of his expertise, his employer's senior executives offered him a group project manager position for a newly started environmental project. However, Marvin learned that, in his newly assigned project, he might have to offer bribes to obtain government licenses. What should Marvin do in such a situation? A. Reject the offer because project managers should not engage unethical conduct B. Accept the offer because project managers must obey their higher-up C. Accept the position and offer bribes because project managers complete projects on time and within budget D. Investigate to find out if it is customary to offer bribes in that part of country

3. A - Project managers must adhere to the code of ethics and professional conduct. They must maintain fairness and honesty. Since the new job requires some illegal and unethical activities, Marvin must reject the offer. [PMI code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

3. Which of the following tools can enhance the visibility of traditional written project plans and other documents to provide a real-time overview of the project status? A. Visual management tools B. Expert judgement C. Product backlog D. Change control system

3. A - Some project teams use visual management tools, rather than written plans and other documents, to capture and oversee critical project elements. Making key project elements visible to the entire team provides a real-time overview of the project status. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 73] [Project Quality Management]

3. After one year of construction, an office building is scheduled for completion on 30 January. The landscaping work needs to start 15 days prior to the building's completion. Which of the following relationships most likely represents the relationship of the start of landscaping work to the completion of the office building? A. Finish-to-start with a 15-day lead B. Start-to-finish with a 15-day lead C. Finish-to-start with a 15-day lag D. Start-to-finish with a 15-day lag

3. A - The landscaping work needs to start before completion of the office building, so it is a finish-to-start relationship. Since it needs to start 15 days before completion of the building, it requires a lead of 15 days. Hence, the answer is finish-to-start with a 15-day lead. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192] [Project Schedule Management]

3. The transition from one phase to another within a project's lifecycle (e.g., from design to manufacturing) is typically marked by: A. Kill point B. Monte Carlo C. Constraint D. Decision tree

3. A - The transition from one phase to another within a project's lifecycle typically involves, and is usually defined by, some form of technical transfer or handoff. This is also called a kill point. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 21] [Project Framework]

3. Anne is the project manager of a project. She has evaluated certain responses from prospective sellers and wants to select a contract model that will transfer risk to the seller. Which of the following should she select in order to achieve this? A. Time and Material contract B. Fixed price contract C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract D. Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract

3. B - A fixed-price contract enables the buyer to transfer risk to the seller. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 445, 471] [Project Risk Management]

3. Which of the following statements is not accurate about the initial phase of a project? A. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project. B. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest. C. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase. D. Staffing levels are the lowest at this stage.

3. B - At the initial stage of a project, cost is typically not at its highest. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Framework]

3. Maintaining good supplier relationships should be important to all project managers. A good buyer-seller relationship is a partnership that results in a win-win situation that nurtures both parties. Which of the following is both a short- and long-term benefit of treating a supplier with courtesy, honesty, and fairness? A. There is no need to have formal contracts in place B. Delivery of quality products and services at the best price C. The buyer can delay the payments without jeopardizing the relationship D. The supplier can charge a price higher than the market price

3. B - Charging higher than market price or delaying the payment will damage the relationship in the long-run. Further formal contracts should always be in place as it is a good project management practice and it mitigates risk for both parties and avoids conflicts. The benefit of good supplier relationship is delivery of quality products at competitive prices.

3. Which of the following processes is not a part of the Project Scope Management? A. Create WBS B. Control Quality C. Control Scope D. Collect Requirements

3. B - Control Quality is not a part of the Project Scope management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] [Project Scope Management]

3. Bill is the project manager of an external project for a customer. The project is expected to take about a year to complete. Six months into the project, the customer informs Bill that he or she needs to scrap the project. During which of the following processes would procedures be developed to handle early termination of a project? A. Develop Project Charter B. Close Project or Phase C. Define Scope D. Monitor Risks

3. B - The Close Project or Phase process establishes the procedures to investigate and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 123] [Project Integration Management]

3. A project's financial management reserves are determined in which process: A. Estimate Costs B. Determine Budget C. Control Costs D. Estimate Activity Resources

3. B - The Management Contingency Reserve is identified in the Determine Budget process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 254] [Project Cost Management]

3. A project manager presented earned value analysis data in a tabular format in a performance report. Another way the project manager could have presented the earned value analysis data is with: A. A linear graph B. An S-curve C. A logarithmic curve D. An Epsilon graph

3. B - The correct response is S-curve. Both S-curves and tabular formats can be used to represent earned value analysis data. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 263, 264] [Project Cost Management]

3. As a project manager, you are responsible for determining and delivering the required levels of both grade and quality. Select which of the following statements you disagree with. A. Grade relates to the product's characteristics. B. Grade relates to the customer requirements. C. Quality relates to the customer requirements. D. Quality and grade of a product must be carefully managed.

3. B - The grade of a product relates to the technical characteristics of the product. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274] [Project Quality Management]

3. Calculation of late finish dates and late start dates for the uncompleted portion of the project is called ____________. A. Schedule compression B. An arrow diagram C. A backward pass D. A forward pass

3. C - Calculation of late finish dates and late start dates for the uncompleted portion of the project is called a backward pass. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

3. You have received a proposal for an RFP that was sent to vendors. One of the vendors has proposed doing the project for $12,500. The cost for the project is $10,000, and their profit will be $2,500. Which type of contract is most suitable if the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well-defined and not likely to change? A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee B. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost C. Fixed price D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee

3. C - Fixed-price contracts are most suitable if the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well defined and not likely to change. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 476] [Project Procurement Management]

3. A project needed to monitor the technical performance of the project and capture data related to how many errors or defects had been identified and how many remained uncorrected. Which of the following techniques should the project use? A. Scatter diagram B. Flowchart C. Histogram D. Control chart

3. C - Histograms are bar charts that are used to graphically show numeric data. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

3. You have recently started working as a project manager for a public school construction project. Your analysis shows that the cost estimate for the project seems to be unreasonable, and it could take at least 25 percent more funding to complete the project. What should you do if your sponsor wants to undertake the project with another project manager in case you refuse to accept it? A. Conduct a customer focus meeting to explain the facts B. Resign from the project and let the sponsor assign a new project man C. Submit detailed facts to the supervisor supporting your argument D. Continue with the project and document the limited budget as a cons

3. C - Project managers have the responsibility to present truthful and accurate information regarding costs, schedules, and resources. Submit the facts that substantiate your argument. If your argument is valid, then the sponsor might agree with you. Talking to customers is not appropriate. Continuing the project might cause it to fail. It is inappropriate to resign from the project without presenting the facts. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

3. You are a senior project manager working for RETAMART, a retail shopping network that sells various consumer products. As part of the expansion plan approved by the board of directors, you are assigned as a project manager for a new plant. Due to transportation problems, the project has experienced delays; the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is at 0.6 and the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is at 0.7. However, you expect some improvements during the next few weeks, which may increase the SPI to 1.1 and the CPI to 0.9. Which of the following statements will be true if your anticipated changes materialize? A. The project will be overspent and behind schedule. B. The project will be on schedule and under budget. C. The project will be overspent but ahead of schedule. D. The project will be under budget but behind schedule.

3. C - The cost performance index below 1 indicates that the project is over budget, and the schedule performance index above 1 indicates that the project is ahead of schedule. If all of your anticipated changes happen to be true, the project will be overspent but ahead of schedule because the schedule performance index will be greater than 1. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263]

3. Which of the following is NOT a valid statement regarding the critical path method? A. The early start and finish dates and late start and finish date calculated without factoring in resource limitations. B. A forward pass and backward pass are performed through the p network paths. C. The resulting late start and finish dates will be the project schedule baseline. D. The flexibility of the schedule is measured by the difference bet early and late dates.

3. C - The critical path method is a technique that calculates the earliest and latest possible start and finish times for work activities in a project. It uses the estimated duration of activities and the dependencies among them to determine limits for when each activity can be performed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

3. The Budget at Completion (BAC) for a project is $50,000. The Actual Costs (AC) to date are $10,000. The Earned Value (EV) is $7,000. At this stage, the project management team did a manual bottom-up summation of costs and forecast an Estimate to Complete (ETC) of $50,000. What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC) for the project? A. $57,000 B. $40,000 C. $60,000 D. $53,000

3. C - When a bottom-up manual forecasting has been done for the ETC, the calculation for EAC is EAC = AC + bottom-up ETC. Hence, EAC = 10,000 + 50,000 = $60,000. Note that the BAC is no longer viable at this stage. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

3. When one factor used to determine the effort required to produce a unit of work is increased while all other factors remain fixed, a point will eventually be reached at which additions of that one factor start to yield progressively decreased productivity. This is known as: A. The 100 percent rule B. The Pareto Law C. The law of diminishing returns D. The theory of constraints

3. C - When one factor used to determine the effort required to produce a unit of work is increased while all other factors remain fixed, a point will eventually be reached at which additions of that one factor start to yield progressively decreased productivity. This is commonly known as the law of diminishing returns. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 197] [Project Communications Management]

3. Which of the following components of a project scope statement is useful in reducing scope creep? A. Acceptance criteria B. Deliverables C. Scope description D. Exclusions

3. D - Project exclusions identifies what is excluded from the project. Explicitly stating what is out of scope for the project helps manage stakeholders' expectation and can reduce scope creep. Other choices cannot help more in this regard. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154] [Project Framework]

3. Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Plan Resource Management process? A. Organizational theory B. Meetings C. Hierarchical charts D. Rewards and recognition

3. D - Rewards and Recognition is a tool and technique used in the Develop Team process, not in the Plan Resource Management process. [PMBOK

3. Which of the following methods of forecasting EAC and ETC is the most accurate? A. ETC based on CPI B. ETC based on BAC C. ETC based on CPI and SPI D. ETC based on new estimate

3. D - The bottom-up ETC gives the most accurate results. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 264] [Project Cost Management]

3. A project is estimated to cost $50,000 with a timeline of 50 days. After 25 days, the project manager finds that 50 percent of the project is complete and actual costs are $50,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)? A. The CPI is 1 B. The CPI is 1.5 C. The CPI is 2 D. The CPI is 0.5

3. D - The correct answer is 0.5. The Cost performance Index (CPI) is given by the formula CPI = EV/AC where EV is the Earned Value and AC is the Actual Cost. Since 50% of the project is complete, Earned Value = 50% of $50,000 = $25,000. Hence CPI = 25,000/50,000 = 0.5. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

3. As a project manager based at the customer location for a performing organization, you build rapport with a customer manager. As the project progresses, the manager asks you to make certain changes to the project scope and wants this handled on an informal basis. You should: A. Contact your manager in your organization and ask for this work done without payment, as a goodwill gesture. B. Comply with the manager's request. It is important to continue to ma a good relationship with the manager. C. Refuse to take up any changes since the manager has asked you to informally. D. Explain to the manager that you would need to formally document as part of project scope change and put it through the change manage process.

3. D - The correct response is that you would explain to the manager that you would need to formally document these changes as part of project scope change and put them through the change management process. Complying with the manager's request is incorrect and violates the code of ethics and professional responsibility. Refusing to consider changes may be too drastic a step. After you have tried to get these changes formally included in the change management process, you may consider contacting your manager in your organization. However, the decision to do work without payment involves financial considerations and will be a more involved one. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

3. You have just become the project manager of a project already in execution. During your first week on the job, you receive multiple requests from different stakeholders asking for project reports in various formats. These requests overwhelm you. What should you do first? A. Ignore the requests and send the standard project report B. Issue a change request C. Stakeholders are always right, fulfill their requests on top priority D. Review the communications management plan

3. D - The first step should be to determine if the requests are legitimate or not. The ideal place to locate this information is the communications management plan. The communications management plan documents stakeholder communication requirements including the content, language and format. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 377] [Project Stakeholder Management]

3. Gordon is currently developing his project's stakeholder engagement strategy. All enterprise environmental factors should be considered during this process. Which of the following enterprise environmental factors should receive particular attention during this process? A. Project templates B. Lessons learned from past similar projects C. Commercial databases D. The organization's culture and political climate

3. D - The lessons learned and the project templates are not enterprise environmental factors, but organizational process assets. The commercial databases can provide only very limited information to develop the stakeholder engagement plan. During the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, the organization's culture and political climate are of particular importance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 519] [Project Stakeholder Management]

3. A construction project requires that government environmental hearings be held prior to site preparation. What kind of dependency is this? A. Optional dependency B. Discretionary dependency C. Soft logic D. External dependency

3. D - This is called an external dependency. It involves a relationship between project and non-project activities (for example, government environmental hearings). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192] [Project Schedule Management]

30. Dina, the project manager of a hardware project, is performing a structured review of the procurement process. She would like to examine each document from the Plan Procurement Management process through the Control Procurements process to identify failures. What tool should Dina use? A. Procurement audits in the control procurements process B. Performance reports in the conduct procurements process C. Negotiated settlements in the control procurements process D. Procurement audits in the conduct procurements process

30. A - A procurement audit is a tool in the Control Procurements process. Procurement audits are carried out to identify successes and failures that warrant recognition. When this tool is used, all procurement processes are thoroughly checked, and corresponding documents are checked for problems. Therefore, the correct answer is procurement audits in the Control Procurements process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498]

30. You have just started leading a World Bank healthcare development project in a developing country in which it is customary to offer lunch when a project is initiated. Although your team members are willing to accept the offer, you decide to refuse the offer since you know the PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct does not allow you to accept gifts. Which of the following statements about your decision is correct? A. Your decision is wrong because you should obey the norms and customs of others as long as you do not favor them. B. Your decision is correct because you are engaging yourself in unethical behavior by accepting the lunch. C. Your decision is correct because you are following the PMI's Co Ethics and Professional Conduct. D. Your decision is wrong because conduct rules only apply to local pro not international projects.

30. A - Although the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct does not allow gift-taking, project managers should respect the norms and customs of others as long as they do not show favoritism based on those norms. Therefore, in this situation, your decision is incorrect because you should respect the norms and customs of others as long as you do not favor them. The PMI code of conduct applies to both local and

30. Which of the following stakeholder groups, especially if the size of the group is large, is ideal for the success of the project? A. Supportive stakeholders B. Leading stakeholders C. Neutral stakeholders D. Unaware stakeholders

30. A - Neutral and unware stakeholders usually don't pose any serious threat but they are volatile and can sway in any direction as more information becomes available to them. Leading stakeholders are beneficial for the project as long as they are limited in number. If the size of the group is large this can be damaging. The supportive stakeholders are usually low in potential to affect the project but high in potential for collaboration. This is an ideal stakeholder group that supports the project's goals and objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 521] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Project stakeholder management is an integral part of project management. The effectiveness of stakeholder analysis carried out early in a project can decide its fate. Which of the following is the least important consideration during stakeholder analysis, especially when analyzing stakeholders who are also decision-makers? A. Prior experience B. Expectations C. Interests D. Influence

30. A - Stakeholder expectations, interests and influence are the key factors that are considered during stakeholder analysis. Stakeholder prior experience might be a consideration but that is not as important as the rest of the choices given for this question. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

30. A project team is currently focusing on Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process to reassess the project stakeholders' current engagement levels and to review the current stakeholder engagement strategy. Which of the following is an output of this process? A. Project documents updates B. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix C. Work performance data D. Approved change requests

30. A - The Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a tool and technique of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process while the work performance data is the input to this process. Change requests are produced during this process but are not approved during this process. The correct answer is project documents updates, which are the output of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 530] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. You are managing an enterprise solution deployment project. The end users are not happy with the solution. You decide to meet the end users and find out that they haven't received proper training on the new system. What should you do first? A. Update the issue log B. Arrange additional training C. Investigate further into the issue and determine the root-cause D. Update the project management plan with the necessary changes

30. A - The first action you must take upon identification of any issue is to update the issue log. Once this has been done, you need to carry out a root-cause analysis and take appropriate corrective actions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Nancy's project is 80 percent complete. Which of the following project documents is least likely to be updated during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process performed at this stage? A. Project charter B. Risk register C. Stakeholder register D. Issue log

30. A - The project charter is least likely to get updated during the project execution. Rest of the choices are project documents that do get updated during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 536] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. In projects following adaptive lifecycles, what are the two critical components of iterative scheduling with a product backlog? A. User epics and time-bound accepted deliverables B. User stories and time-boxed periods of work C. Work packages and critical path D. Scope management plan and a detailed WBS

30. B - In adaptive life cycles, the requirements are documented in user stories that are then prioritized and refined. The product features are developed using time-boxed periods of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Increasing the number of resources in order to crash a project schedule does not always cut the time by the same factor. In worst cases, too many resources assigned to an activity may actually increase the activity duration. This is because: A. Decrease in cost budget B. Required additional coordination C. Funding limit reconciliation D. Additional risk introduced due to crashing

30. B - Increasing the number of resources in order to crash a project schedule does not always cut the time by the same factor. In worst cases, too many resources to the activity may actually increase the duration due to required additional coordination. Other choices are either not applicable or do not directly influence the project schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 197] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Once a project's business case has been approved, what should be done next? A. Identify and analyze project stakeholders and associated risks B. Create the project charter C. Identify market demand D. Conduct and cost-benefit analysis

30. B - Once a project's business case is approved, the project can be initiated. The Develop Project Charter process launches the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 77] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Agile release planning provides a high-level summary timeline of the release schedule based on the project roadmap. Agile release planning also determines the number of iterations required for the product development. These iterations are also known as: A. Epics B. Kanbans C. Sprints D. Phases

30. C - Agile release planning determines the number of iterations required for the product development known as sprints. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 216] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Henry is the project manager for a process improvement project. Henry is a recently hired Six Sigma expert. David is the process owner of the process Henry must optimize. During the project kick-start meeting with the project sponsor, David said he supports all continuous improvement efforts. However, David is unaware of the Six Sigma technique and feels threatened by the newly hired expert, and as a result, is blocking Henry's ideas. What is David's current engagement level with the project? A. Unaware B. Supportive C. Resistant D. Neutral

30. C - Although David claims that he is supportive of all improvement initiatives, his behavior is not coherent with his claim. Since David is blocking Henry's idea, he is in effect, resistant of the project. [PMBOK

30. During a project update meeting, one of the key stakeholders expressed his displeasure over the project management approach. One percent of the produced deliverables had minor defects which required a rework. This stakeholder has been a resisting stakeholder so far. What must the project manager do to bring the future project performance in line with the approved quality requirements? A. Investigate the root cause and identify the required defect repair. B. Investigate the root cause and identify the required preventive action. C. Investigate the root cause and identify the required corrective action. D. Ignore the complaint from the resisting stakeholder.

30. C - If any stakeholder—resisting or supporting—identifies any issue, it must be addressed. The defects have already been identified and fixed. The scenario is talking about an action that would bring the future project performance in line with the approved quality requirements, this is a corrective action. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. It is not practical, and usually not necessary, to engage with all stakeholders with the same level of intensity at all times. A project manager must prioritize stakeholders depending upon on who they are, what level of influence they have on the project, and what their interests are. Which of the following techniques helps in stakeholder prioritization? A. Stakeholder engagement matrix B. Stakeholder register C. Stakeholder classification models D. Resource histograms

30. C - Stakeholder classification models are used during stakeholder analysis to rank stakeholders based on their power, influence, interest, and impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 512] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Bill is managing a website development project. He has recently received feedback from one of the key project stakeholders. The feedback is positive overall, but it contains some recommendations. After analyzing the recommendations, Bill accepts them, gets them approved, and incorporates them into the project management plan. The recommendations were then implemented and the new ideas were found to be successful. What needs to be done with this feedback now? A. Discard it since it is no longer required B. Publish it on the corporate intranet C. Add it to the organizational process assets D. Send it back to the stakeholder

30. C - The feedback must not be discarded. Successful ideas and implemented recommendations need to be stored in the organizational process assets library during the Manage Project Knowledge process. Sending it back to the stakeholder does not make any sense. There is no restriction in publishing it, but updating the organizational process assets should be the project manager's priority. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 105] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. The Plan Stakeholder Engagement process has many inputs. Which of the following is an input to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process that comes from the Conduct Procurements process? A. Project management plan B. Project charter C. Historic stakeholder engagement plans D. Agreements

30. D - Agreements are inputs to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process that are provided by the Conduct Procurements process [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 517] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Mark is managing a telecom network deployment project. The buyer of the telecom network is an external entity. Recently, the customer requested that all future project updates be posted to their information system automatically. In order to implement this, the project team needs to customize their project management information system so it can be integrated with the customer's information system. This is a new customer requirement that was not a part of the original project's scope. What should the project manager do? A. Request that the customer terminate the current contract and award a contract. B. Ask the project team to customize the project management inform system. C. Ignore the request; this is outside the project's scope. D. Initiate the formal change control process.

30. D - Change requests do come. They are never ignored; they are managed through the integrated change control process. This does not require terminating the contract. Implementing the new requirement without following the change control process is not advisable. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Which of the following is a type of leadership style in which leaders are hands-off and allow group members to make the decisions: A. Transactional B. Servant leader C. Transformational D. Laissez-faire

30. D - Laissez-faire leadership, also known as delegated leadership, is a type of leadership style in which leaders are hands-off and allow group members to make the decisions. Researchers have found that this is generally the leadership style that leads to the lowest productivity among group members. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 65] [Project Stakeholder Management]

30. Which of the following is not a basic input required to develop an effective project stakeholder engagement plan? A. Stakeholder register B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Organizational process assets D. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

30. D - The stakeholder engagement plan is developed during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. The stakeholder register, enterprise environmental factors and the organizational process assets are all basic inputs to this process. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is developed during this process and is not an input to this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516] [Project Stakeholder Management]

31. Which of these items are important to address when determining each person's role in the project team? A. Role, authority, responsibility, and competency B. Role, responsibility, and competency C. Role and responsibility D. Role, authority, and competency

31. A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: Role, authority, responsibility, and competency. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 318, 319] [Project Resource Management]

31. Variance analysis refers to cost performance measurements used to determine the magnitude of variation in comparison to the original cost baseline. What is the trend on the percentage range of acceptable variances as the project progresses? A. The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decrease a project progresses. B. The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to increase a project progresses. C. The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decrease and then increase as the project progresses beyond 50 percent complete D. The percentage range of acceptable variances remain the same a project progresses.

31. A - At the start of the project, larger percentage variances are acceptable. However, as more work is accomplished, the percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decrease. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 262] [Project Cost Management]

31. A process that states how formal validation and acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be achieved is documented in the: A. Scope Management plan B. Procurement Management plan C. Risk Management plan D. Communications Management plan

31. A - The correct response is the Scope Management Plan. This plan provides guidance on how project scope will be defined, documented, validated, managed and controlled by the project management team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 137] [Project Scope Management]

31. Your project team is having a dispute with a vendor about whether a specific task is within the project's scope. The scope statement does not provide implementation-level details that could resolve this dispute. There is no WBS, however, because the project sponsor insisted that the project be started right away without pausing to create standard project planning documentation. Who is at fault? A. The project manager B. The project sponsor C. The project stakeholders D. The project vendor

31. A - The project manager is at fault. The project manager must follow all project processes required for the success of the project, regardless of insistence by others that those processes are unnecessary and time consuming. Failing to do so is a violation of PMI's Code of Conduct and can lead to increased project cost and schedule slips. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

31. A project manager estimated that a project would require 4375 person hours of effort. The project ended up using 6250 person-hours of effort. The difference between these two figures is a: A. Variance B. Control Limit C. Threshold D. Standard Deviation

31. A - Variance is a quantifiable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline of expected value. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 111] [Project Framework]

31. You are a project manager who is in charge of an important project for your company. The project is 40 percent complete after three months and has cost $350,000. The budget for the project is $950,000 and is scheduled to last eight months. How is the project performing? The project is behind schedule and over budget. The project is ahead of schedule and under budget. The project is behind schedule and under budget. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget.

31. B - CPI=EV/AC. CPI = (950000*40%)/350000 = 380000/350000 = 1.09 (under budget). SPI=EV/PV. SPI = 380000/(950000*0.375) = 380000/356,250 = 1.07 (ahead of schedule). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

31. You are managing a complex software development project for an external customer. You are using the waterfall approach to manage the project in line with the contractual requirements. However, you are not comfortable with this approach. You believe that customers don't really know what they want upfront; rather, what they want emerges out of repeated two-way interactions over the course of the project. In your current situation, the waterfall approach has its emphasis on upfront requirements capture and design, followed by product development and finally the system testing. The customer will only be involved during the requirements gathering and system testing stages and will be completely out of touch during the development activities. Which of the following can help you mitigate the risk created by the waterfall approach: A. Adopt an iterative life cycle. B. Divide the project into multiple phases and organize phase gates. C. Adopt an incremental life cycle. D. Adopt a hybrid life cycle.

31. B - In a predictive life cycle, the project planning is completed in the early phases of the project. Although the use of the waterfall life cycle is mandated by the client, the project manager can still customize the approach to obtain benefits offered by the adaptive approaches. In this case, dividing the project into multiple phases and organizing phase gates with the customer can help achieve this. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 19, 21] [Project Framework]

31. The project you are working on has received an invoice from a vendor for US$17,500. However, your team believes the correct total due is US$15,300. When you notify the vendor, the vendor still insists on US$17,500. What is the best course of action now? A. Pay $15,300 B. Negotiate with the vendor C. File a lawsuit D. Pay $17,500

31. B - Negotiate with the vendor. Making a unilateral decision is counter to the PMI Code of Ethics, which mandates good faith negotiations. Failing to negotiate will not be in the best interest of either the project or the vendor. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498; PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

31. A project manager would like to resolve conflicts by a give-and-take attitude rather than by a one-sided approach. Which of these approaches is he likely to use? A. Forcing B. Problem-solving C. Directing D. Withdrawing

31. B - Problem solving involves treating conflict as a problem to be solved by examining alternatives. This requires a give-and-take attitude. In contrast, the other alternatives listed—directing, forcing and withdrawing —are more one-sided. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349] [Project Resource Management]

31. A project manager scheduled a review at the end of a phase, with the objective of obtaining authorization to close the current project phase and initiate the next phase. Which of the following is an incorrect way of describing this review? A. Phase gate B. Phase planning C. Kill point D. Stage gate

31. B - Stage Gates, Phase Gates and Kill Points all refer to a phase end review with the objective of obtaining authorization to close the current phase and start the next one. This is a retrospective review of the current phase. Phase planning, on the other hand, is performed early during the planning phase of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 21] [Project Framework]

31. Variance Analysis is an important tool used in the Control Costs process. Which of the following statements regarding variances is correct? A. The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to increase more work is accomplished. B. The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decree more work is accomplished. C. The percentage range of acceptable variances is high at the start project, tends to decrease in the middle of a project, and then ten increase as the project nears completion. D. The percentage range of acceptable variances is a constant all through project.

31. B - Variances assess the magnitude of variation from the original cost baseline. The percentage range of acceptable variances will tend to decrease as more work is accomplished and the project nears completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 262] [Project Cost Management]

31. Lucy is managing a high-tech software development project. She has luckily acquired the organization's best performing employees. However, the project team is not communicating effectively, causing delays. The project communications plan is in place, but it seems as if the employees are not following it. The communications plan lays out the communications requirements but does not explicitly assign responsibilities. What should Lucy do first? (Assume that all the following actions need to be taken at some stage.) A. Persuade the team to follow the plan B. Motivate the team to effectively communicate C. Set and manage expectations D. Resolve conflicts to prevent disruptive behavior

31. C - Assuming that none of the given actions have been undertaken in the past, the first thing to do is to set expectations. Once the expectations are set, the behavior need to be managed. Persuasion, motivation and conflict resolution should follow this. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 319, 320] [Project Communications Management]

31. You manage an airport construction project. Since sophisticated technology and systems are involved, your project procurements require significant lead times. Your procurement specialist has recently proposed a new procurements management process that will significantly reduce these lead times and result in cost savings for the project. Besides implementing this new process, what else should you do? A. Resell your current inventory at the purchase price B. Shut down the project warehouse C. Update the lessons-learned database D. Do not include the over-processing costs

31. C - Sharing lessons learned information on mistakes, innovations and outcomes from projects can have a positive impact on your next project. The procurement specialist came up with a cost- and time-saving technique and this will prove to be valuable for future projects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 484] [Project Integration Management]

31. Anne is a project manager. She has evaluated certain responses from prospective sellers and wants to select a contract model that will transfer risk to the seller. Which of the following should she select in order to achieve this? A. Time and Material contract B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract C. Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract D. Fixed-price contract

31. D - A fixed-price contract enables the buyer to transfer risk to the seller by setting a fixed total price for a defined service, or result to be provided. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 471]

31. Close Project or Phase is the process of completing and concluding all activities across all process groups to officially close the project. Which of the following activities is not performed during this process? A. Actions required to transfer completed products to operations B. Actions required to archive project information C. Actions required to audit project success or failure D. Actions required to accept the deliverables

31. D - Actions required to transfer completed products to operations, actions required to archive project information, and actions required to audit project success or failure are carried out in the Close Project or Phase process. However, actions required to accept the completed deliverables are executed in the Validate Scope process. The completed deliverables are then transferred to the Close Project or Phase process. Therefore, actions required to accept the deliverables are not done in the Close Project or Phase process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 123, 163] [Project Integration Management]

31. Three strategies that typically deal with negative risks or threats are: A. Enhance, Share, and Accept B. Transfer, Exploit, and Accept C. Avoid, Transfer, and Exploit D. Avoid, Transfer, and Mitigate

31. D - Five negative risk management strategies are: Escalate, Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, and Accept. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 442, 443] [Project Risk Management]

31. You are the project manager for GeoThermal Systems. Which of the following must be done FIRST before proceeding with a new project? A. Create the Project Scope Statement B. Stakeholder analysis C. Product analysis D. Obtain Project Charter approval

31. D - When managing a project, you must first ensure that the project charter is signed and approved before proceeding. The Project Charter is the document that formalizes the project. It gives the project manager the authority to lead the project. The project charter is created first during the Initiating process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75] [Project Integration Management]

32. Analogous Estimating is an estimation technique that uses the values of parameters such as scope, cost, budget, and duration from a previous similar activity as the basis of activity. It is frequently used for estimation when there is a limited amount of information about the project. This is a form of: A. Gross value estimation B. Function point estimation C. Fixed point estimation D. Precision Estimation

32. A - Analogous estimating is a gross value estimating technique. It is most reliable when the previous activities are similar in fact and not just in appearance, and the project team members preparing the estimates have the needed expertise. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Schedule Management]

32. You are a project manager for an automotive parts company. Your organization was hired to produce clutches for an exotic car company. This will involve the design and production of custom clutches. During the course of the project, as you review a quality control statistics chart that examines every clutch produced for the month, you notice several cases where the spring component of the clutch is expanding with too much force and is falling outside the upper control limit. Which type of Quality Control tool are you most likely using? A. Control charts B. Statistical Sampling C. Cause-and-Effect diagram D. Precedence Diagramming Method

32. A - Control charts graphically display the interaction of process variables on a process. Control charts have three lines: a center line which gives the average of the process, an upper line designating the upper control limit (UCL) and showing the upper range of acceptable values, and a lower line designating the lower control limit (LCL) and showing the lower range of acceptable values. Points that fall outside of this range are evidence that the process may be out of control. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 304] [Project Quality Management]

32. The term ________ indicates the degree to which a particular product or service meets requirements, while _____________ indicates a category or rank used to distinguish that item from other similar items. A. Quality, grade B. Grade, standard C. Grade, quality D. Quality, standard

32. A - Grade is a category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use; Quality indicates the degree to which items have meet requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274] [Project Quality Management]

32. For a project following a predictive life cycle, which of the following statements is most accurate? A. Collect Requirements, Define Scope and Create WBS processes performed toward the beginning of the project and updated as necessary using the integrated change control process. B. Collect Requirements, Define Scope and Create WBS processes performed toward the beginning of the project and updated as necessary using the executing process. C. Collect Requirements, Define Scope and Create WBS processes performed toward the beginning of the project and rarely updated. D. Collect Requirements, Define Scope and Create WBS processes performed for each project iteration.

32. A - In a predictive project, the Collect Requirements, Define Scope and Create WBS processes are performed toward the beginning of the project and updated as necessary, using the integrated change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Stakeholder Management]

32. Which of the following is least likely to be a project? A. Regular updates of the company website B. Responding to a contract solicitation C. Running a campaign for a political office D. An endeavor that lasts for 10 years

32. A - Regular updates of the company website constitute an operational activity and are clearly not a project. Responding to a contract solicitation and running a campaign are clearly projects. The endeavor lasting for ten years cannot be ruled out as a project just because of its duration. Projects can last from a few weeks to many years. [PMBOK

32. Sandra is managing an ERP system deployment project. Due to the complexity of the project and the number of project stakeholders involved, she decides to use a multi-criteria decision analysis for reviewing all change requests. What should be her first step in establishing this? A. Develop a decision matrix B. Develop a decision tree C. Develop a fishbone diagram D. Develop a control chart

32. A - The Multi-criteria decision analysis uses a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach to evaluate the requested change according to a set of predefined criteria. The other choices are either quality or risk management tools. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 119] [Project Quality Management]

32. Which of the following tools and techniques is useful to process work performance data to identify sources of project defects during the Control Quality process? A. Data analysis B. Salience model C. Schedule model D. Communication model

32. A - The question is asking for a tool and technique used during the Control Quality process. Data Analysis is a tool and technique of the Control Quality process used to identify source of defects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 303] [Project Quality Management]

32. You are working in Lab-X, a laboratory experimental project to research the effect of a virus on human male bodies. This project needs local government approval for carrying out tests on living people. However, the local authorities informed you were informed it would take at least three weeks to obtain authorization for such approval because of the documents involved in the review and approval process. You consider this a risk to the project and would like to send the paperwork in advance to reduce the approval time to one week. Which of the following describes the risk response techniques being employed in this scenario? A. Risk mitigation B. Risk transfer C. Risk accept D. Risk avoid

32. A - You want to reduce the delay in the approval process because delay in the approval process is likely to delay the project. Because this is a negative risk, the valid risk response strategies are avoid, transfer, mitigate or accept. Risk mitigation techniques can be used to reduce the probability and impact of negative risks rather than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred. In this case, you are reducing the approval time by sending paperwork early to avoid delays in the project. Hence, risk mitigation is the correct answer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443]

32. A small project with a limited budget is trying to curtail costs. Which of the following processes may be eliminated in such a project? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks D. Plan Risk Management

32. B - Availability of budget and time is a key factor that determines the need for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. A small project with a limited budget may decide to do away with this process if the project management team decides that quantitative statements about risk and impacts are not needed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 429] [Project Risk Management]

32. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work the project team must execute to accomplish the project objectives. This is created as part of: A. Project Integration Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Procurement Management D. Project Schedule Management

32. B - Creating the WBS is an important process in a project, and it is done as a part of Project Scope Management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] [Project Scope Management]

32. Predicting future performance based on historical events is called ___________. A. Historical analysis B. Trend analysis C. Parametric analysis D. Pareto analysis

32. B - Trend analysis is an analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results. It is a method of determining the variance from a baseline of a parameter. It uses prior progress reporting periods' data to project how much that parameter's variance from baseline might be at some future point in the project if no changes are made in executing the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 111] [Project Schedule Management]

32. You have completed a milestone in your software development project, and you are now verifying that the product meets the specifications outlined in the project management plan. In which process group is this process? A. Closing B. Monitor and Controlling C. Executing D. Planning

32. B - Verifying that a product meets specifications relates to the Validate Scope process, which belongs to the monitoring and controlling process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 163] [Project Scope Management]

32. Erica is managing a kitchen tools manufacturing project, which is intended to produce modern cooking ovens. This project is hugely important for the company as well as for Erica's career. Although the project scope statement was well-defined and requirements were gathered from stakeholders in the planning phase, many design change requests have come in from customers during project execution. Which of the following tasks must Erica perform to avoid scope creep caused by uncontrollable changes? A. Perform validate scope process and process all changes through the risk responses process B. Perform integrated change control process and process all changes through the control quality process C. Perform scope control and process all changes through the integrated change control process D. Perform scope control and process all changes through the validate process

32. C - All scope changes must be controlled in a project through the Control Scope process. However, scope control must also ensure that all changes requested by customers go through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. This way, scope creep can be avoided, and project changes can be managed. Hence, Erica must perform scope control and process all changes through the Integrated Change Control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168]

32. Many organizations consider contract administration to be an administrative function separate from the project organization. Who carries out the function of contract administration in such organizations? A. The Project Manager B. The Procurement Advisor C. The Procurement Administrator D. The Contract Advisor

32. C - In many organizations, a procurement administrator is responsible for ensuring that the procurement relationship is properly managed. The procurement administrator may be on the project team but typically reports to a supervisor from a different department. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 494] [Project Procurement Management]

32. If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and reduce the cost of quality control for your project, which technique should you use? A. Run Chart B. Defect Repair Review C. Statistical Sampling D. Pareto Chart

32. C - Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product while saving money for the project.

32. Project costs are estimated for all project activities and are aggregated to establish a cost baseline. Which of the following statements about the cost baseline is not true? A. The project cost performance is measured against the cost baseline. B. The cost baseline is an output of the determine budget process. C. The cost baseline includes all authorized budgets, including manage reserves. D. The cost baseline is in the form of an 'S' curve.

32. C - The project cost baseline includes all authorized budgets excluding management reserves. Management reserves are not included to measure the cost performance of a project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 248] [Project Cost Management]

32. Which of the following activities fall under the planning process group but not under project schedule management? A. Estimating activity durations B. Developing the Schedule Management Plan C. Identification of various activities to produce the project deliverables D. Developing a detailed description of the project and product developed

32. D - Developing a detailed description of the project and of the product being developed is done during the Define Scope process. This is a planning activity; however, it falls under project scope management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 150, 173] [Project Scope Management]

32. Sarah is about to start developing her project stakeholder engagement plan. She is currently gathering all the required inputs for this process. She has already created the stakeholder register and has gotten access to the organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following inputs is also critical for the process? A. Expert Judgment B. Benchmarking C. Root cause analysis D. Project management plan

32. D - Sarah is about to start the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. The project management plan is one of the inputs of the process. The rest of the choices are tools and techniques of the process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516]

33. An experienced project manager was assigned a project of small scope. Which of the following could be true of the project? A. Defining Activities, sequencing activities, estimating activity dura and developing the schedule could be viewed as a single process. B. Estimating activity durations may be skipped for the project. C. Developing and Controlling the schedule could be viewed as a s process. D. Defining Activities, estimating activity durations, developing schedule, and controlling the schedule could be viewed as a s process.

33. A - On projects with small scope, defining activities, sequencing activities, estimating activity durations, and developing the schedule are tightly linked and are often viewed as a single process. The other choices are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 175]

33. You are the project manager for Wicked Fast Cars Corp. You are working on a project for the Human Resources department that is scheduled to take one year. After three months into the project, you calculate the EV at $35,000 and the PV at $45,000. Which option below represents the value for the SV? A. ($10,000) B. 1.29 C. 0.78 D. $10,000

33. A - SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV). SV = $35,000$45,000 SV = -$10,000. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

33. Which of the Project Schedule Management processes involves identifying and documenting dependencies among schedule activities? A. Sequence Activities B. Define Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Control Schedule

33. A - Sequence Activities is the process of identifying and documenting dependencies among schedule activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 187] [Project Schedule Management]

33. The RACI chart is an example of a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM). The letters R and C in "RACI" stand for: A. Responsible and consult B. Resource and consultant C. Responsible and categorize D. Resource and consult

33. A - The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) describes the relationship between resources and work packages. An RACI chart is an example of a RAM. The letters in "RACI" stand for Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317]

33. Stakeholder analysis is an important technique in the Identify Stakeholders process. One of the steps involved is to identify the potential impact of each stakeholder and classify him or her appropriately. Which of the following is not a valid stakeholder categorization method? A. Salience model B. Tolerance model C. Power/interest grid D. Influence/impact grid

33. B - A tolerance model is not a valid classification model. The other three models are valid approaches, and classify stakeholders based on power/interest, influence/impact, or power/urgency and legitimacy as in the case of the salience model. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 512, 513] [Project Stakeholder Management]

33. Which of the following approaches encourages plan definition but also acknowledges that once work starts, the priorities may change and the plan needs to be updated to reflect this change? A. Waterfall approach B. Adaptive planning C. Predictive life cycle D. Upfront planning

33. B - Adaptive planning defines a plan but acknowledges that once work starts, the priorities may change and the plan might need to be updated. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Resource Management]

33. Which of the following estimating techniques will cost less but is also typically less accurate? A. Parametric Estimating B. Analogous Estimating C. Resource Cost-based Estimating D. Bottom-up Estimating

33. B - Analogous cost estimating is typically less costly but also less accurate than other cost estimating techniques. It uses the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. It is more reliable when the previous projects are similar in fact and not just in appearance, and the persons estimating have the needed expertise. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Cost Management]

33. Visiting a construction site to ensure the completed work is the same work specified in the requirements is: A. Milestone B. Scope validation C. Variance Analysis D. Requirements traceability

33. B - Inspection is a scope validation technique that includes activities (such as measuring, examining, and verifying) to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 163] [Project Scope Management]

33. Product scope is measured against the product requirements, while project scope is measured against: A. The WBS and WBS dictionary B. The project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS diction C. The project requirements and WBS D. The acceptance criteria

33. B - The project scope is measured against the project scope baseline, which consists of the project scope statement, its associated WBS and the WBS dictionary. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Scope Management]

33. Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment and that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement? A. Use of weighted criteria B. Use of screening techniques C. Use of bidder conferences D. Use of expert judgment

33. C - Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 487] [Project Procurement Management]

33. Which of the following is one of the most prominent features of a project following agile approach for product development? A. Produce defect-free deliverables B. Zero tolerance for rework C. Deliver incremental value to the customer D. Delivery of the product in a single sprint

33. C - In adaptive life cycles, the requirements are documented in user stories that are then prioritized and refined. The product features are developed using time-boxed periods of work. This approach is often used to deliver incremental value to the customer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Resource Management]

33. Performance reports are produced during the Control Procurements process by evaluating work performance data against the agreement requirements. Which of the following is the prime objective of producing such reports? A. Performance reporting is a good project management practice and mu carried out on all projects. B. Performance reports are produced so they can be added to lessons-le database, and the future project might benefit. C. Performance reports document the analysis of the project manage does not require supplier's participation. D. Providing management with information about how effectively the is achieving the contractual objectives.

33. D - All of the choices are valid but the question is asking for the prime/main reason for conducting this exercise. The prime objective of this exercise is to provide management with information about how effectively the sellers are achieving the contractual objectives and obligations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 499] [Project Procurement Management]

33. James has been managing a hotel construction project on a busy street. He is in the process of estimating activity durations for building walls, and he calculates the most likely estimate as 15 days. If prefabricated material is used, it would take no more than 12 days to finish the work. The work may be delayed and could take up to 18 days if less experienced construction workers build the walls. What is the expected duration of building walls using the three-point estimate? A. 12 days B. 11 days C. 16 days D. 15 days

33. D - If the engineer is correct, the optimistic estimate can be taken as 12 days. The pessimistic estimate is still 18 days and the most likely estimate is 15 days. Using the PERT or the three-point technique, the expected activity duration is calculated using the formula Te = (To + Tm + Tp)/3, where Te is the estimated duration, To is the optimistic duration, Tm is the most likely duration and Tp is the pessimistic duration. Hence, Te = (12 + 15 +18)/3 = 15 days. [PMBOK 6th edition,

33. A project manager is considering risk in a project. When does risk come into play in a project? A. During the SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and the analysis B. During the Identify Risks phase C. As soon as the Plan Risk Management phase begins D. As soon as a project is conceived

33. D - Project risk exists in a project from the moment the project is conceived. The risks are identified as part of specific processes, but the risks always exist. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 397] [Project Risk Management]

33. The Requirements Traceability Matrix helps in tracing all the following except: A. Requirements to project objectives B. Requirements to project scope C. Requirements to test strategy D. Requirements to project risk

33. D - Requirements Traceability Matrix is an output of the Collect Requirements process. It is used for tracing requirements to project scope, objectives, and test strategy. Tracing requirements to project risk is not a valid use. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 149] [Project Scope Management]

33. Which of the following processes produces a Risk Register? A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Plan Risk Management C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Identify Risks

33. D - The risk register is an output of the Identify Risks process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] [Project Risk Management]

33. A number of deliverables were submitted to the buyer as part of a project. Where would the project manager find documentation on the requirements for formal deliverable acceptance and on how nonconforming deliverables can be addressed? A. In the SOW B. In the lessons-learned document C. In the deliverable release note D. In the agreement

33. D - When projects are performed for external customers, requirements for formal deliverable acceptance and how to address non-conforming deliverables are usually defined in the project agreements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] [Project Procurement Management]

34. Rodney is in the process of preparing the project performance report for the team meeting. He is expecting many questions from his stakeholders on the budget and schedule. He calculates the following values: Budget at Completion (BAC) = $22,000, Earned Value (EV) = $13,000, Planned Value (PV) = $14,000, Actual cost (AC) = $15,000. What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC) for the project, if the work is performed at the budgeted rate? A. $24,000 B. $36,000 C. $22,500 D. $37,000

34. A - If the project work is performed at the budgeted rate, the Estimate at Completion can be computed using the formula EAC = AC + (BAC EV). Substituting all these values in the expression, EAC = $15,000 +

34. _______________ is the authorized budget for the work scheduled to be completed on an activity or WBS component. A. Planned Value B. Earned Value C. Midpoint cost D. Interim cost

34. A - Planned Value is the budgeted cost of the work scheduled to be completed on an activity or WBS component up to a given point in time. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 261]

34. Which of the following should you not use as an input into creating the WBS structure? A. Bill of Material (BOM) B. Project scope statement C. Organizational process assets D. Requirements documentation

34. A - The Bill of Material (BOM) is not used as an input in the Create WBS process. The other three are valid inputs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 156] [Project Scope Management]

34. On any project, the configuration control should be focused on the specification of: A. Deliverables and processes B. Scope and cost C. Risk and resources D. Schedule and quality

34. A - The focus of configuration control is on specification of both the deliverables and the processes. The rest of the choices are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 118] [Project Quality Management]

34. Late in the project cycle, it was discovered that some of the project's human resources should have trained in a specific methodology. Where should these training strategies have first been documented? A. Resource management plan B. In the procurement contract C. In the project scope statement D. In the company HR policy

34. A - Training needs and strategies are captured and documented in the project's resource management plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 319] [Project Resource Management]

34. A project manager is using a Risk Diagramming technique that is a graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes. This would be: A. A system flow chart B. An Influence Diagram C. A Pareto chart D. Histogram

34. B - A Risk Diagramming technique that is a graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time-ordering of events and other relationships among variables and outcomes is known as an Influence Diagram. The Cause-and-Effect diagram also identifies the causes of risk but does not have the time-ordering of events. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 436] [Project Risk Management]

34. The X in the DfX can be: A. Competing project constraints B. Different aspects of product development C. Design assumptions D. Discretionary dependencies

34. B - The X in DfX can be different aspect of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 295] [Project Risk Management]

34. You are a project manager creating the final project report. Which information would you NOT include in this report? A. Scope objectives B. Lessons learned from previous similar projects C. Risk summaries D. Cost objectives

34. B - The lessons learned from the previous similar projects are used throughout the project. These are already part of the organizational process assets and are not recorded in the final project report. The rest of the choices are valid sections of a final project report. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 127] [Project Integration Management]

34. The scope of work in a project could not be clearly defined. There was also a strong possibility that the scope would change during the course of the project. Which type of contract would suit this type of situation? A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract B. Fixed-price contract C. Cost-reimbursable contract D. Fixed-price incentive contract

34. C - A cost-reimbursable contract gives the project flexibility to redirect a seller whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely determined at the start of the project and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

34. Once the project charter is authorized, it is the project manager's duty to distribute the charter to all key stakeholders and ensure common understanding of the key deliverables, milestones, and their roles and responsibilities. During which of the following processes is the project charter distributed to the project stakeholders? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Develop Project Charter D. Manage Communications

34. C - Although the Manage Communications and Manage Stakeholder Engagement are processes involving stakeholder communication, these processes are from the executing process group. Project charter is developed during the project initiating and must be communicated to all key stakeholders as soon as it is authorized. The Develop Project Charter process produces the project charter and this output must be shared with the stakeholders at the end of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75] [Project Integration Management]

34. You are the project manager for a Fortune 100 IT company, and you are currently engaged in an important project. You want to choose the best contractor for a specialized task. What should you do to evaluate potential contractors? A. Create a lessons-learned document B. Conduct a performance review C. Evaluate proposals D. Perform a Make-or-Buy analysis

34. C - An input to the Conduct Procurements process, seller proposals are prepared by sellers in response to a procurement document package. These are then evaluated by the buyer to perform source selection. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 487] [Project Procurement Management]

34. What does it mean if the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost? A. Schedule Variance Index is 1 B. Project is on budget and on schedule C. There is no cost variance D. There is no schedule variance

34. C - CV = EV - AC. If the EV is equal to the AC, then there is no cost variance on the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 262] [Project Cost Management]

34. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix illustrates the connections between the work that needs to be done and the project team members. A RACI chart is a type of Responsibility Assignment matrix in which the names of the roles being documented are: A. Responsible, Administration, Check, and Inform B. Reportable, Actionable, Check, and Inform C. Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform D. Reportable, Actionable, Consult, and Implement

34. C - In a RACI chart, the names of roles are Responsible, Accountable, Consult and Inform. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317] [Project Resource Management]

34. Project managers need to be aware of Student Syndrome. What does that mean? A. People go through a learning curve whenever they are engaged project. B. People who consider themselves students of project management the apply PMBOK principles better. C. People start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline. D. People who undertake studies during their professional careers tend better project managers.

34. C - Student Syndrome - or procrastination - refers to the phenomena where people start to apply themselves only at the latest possible moment before the deadline. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 197] [Project Scope Management]

34. A project was randomly selected for a quality audit, and the external auditor found various issues and nonconformance. The project manager lodged a complaint with the quality department that this was improper procedure, and he should have received notice since an external auditor was involved. What is your view? A. The project manager is correct. Quality audits need to be scheduled an external auditor is involved so that the project manager has time prepare for them. B. The project manager is correct. The project team must perform all q audits. C. The project manager has no case. Quality audits may be random performed by internal or external auditors. D. The project manager has no case. Quality audits are always carried on external auditors.

34. C - The project manager has no case. Quality audits may be scheduled or random and may be conducted by internal or external auditors. It is the responsibility of the project manager and the project management to ensure that the project documentation is kept up to date and available for any quality audit. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 294] [Project Quality Management]

34. In the procurement process, the seller may be viewed initially as a bidder, then as the selected source, and then as the contracted supplier. The seller will typically manage the work as a project. In such an instance, which of the following is not true? A. The buyer becomes the customer and is then a key project stakeholder the seller. B. Terms and conditions of the contract become key inputs to many o seller's management processes (ex: major deliverables, key milestone, cost objectives). C. There need not be a contractual relationship between the buyer and seller. D. The seller's project management team is concerned with all the proc of project management and not just procurement management.

34. C - The statement that there need not be a contractual relationship between the buyer and the seller is incorrect. Whenever the seller is external to the organization, there needs to be a contractual relationship between the buyer and the seller. The other statements are correct. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 460] [Project Procurement Management]

34. A key project in an organization has been ignored, due to high travel expenses associated with the movement of subject matter experts and other specialists across various project locations. Which of the following might allow such a project to be undertaken in a cost-efficient manner? A. Management sign-off B. Negotiation C. Virtual teams D. Co-location

34. C - Virtual teams overcome the hurdle of high travel expenses by forming teams of people based in different geographical areas. It might appear that management sign-off or co-location may also permit the project to move forward. However, those approaches will not be as costefficient as virtual teams. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 340] [Project Resource Management]

34. The Risk Register contains details of all identified risks and their current status. It is a document containing the results of: A. Plan Risk Responses B. Identify Risks C. Monitor Risks D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Ana and Plan Risk Responses

34. D - The Risk Register contains the results of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, and Plan Risk Responses processes. It details all identified risks, including description, category, cause, probability of occurring, impact(s) on objectives, proposed responses, owners, and current status. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 419, 428, 449] [Project Risk Management]

35. A project manager must stress the importance of collecting and documenting lessons learned through the project lifecycle. One good way to collect this information is during weekly status meetings. Usually, weekly status meetings, if not managed properly, end up in firefighting since most of the time, attention goes to the burning issues. How can you ensure that the lessons-learned gathering does not get missed in such a situation? A. Add a lessons-learned agenda item. B. Record the minutes of the meeting. C. Do not discuss burning issues in weekly status meetings. D. Replace status update meetings with one-on-one meetings with the members.

35. A - A good approach is to add a lessons-learned agenda item to the meeting. As the meeting progresses to the point where you're ready to collect lessons-learned information, ask each team member about his or her positive and negative experiences for the week. Don't mention the words "lessons learned" to them; just capture what went right and wrong from every team member. Do your best to prevent this part of the meeting from devolving into a complaint session. [PMI best practice; not explicitly stated in PMBOK] [Project Integration Management]

35. You are managing a project with a large multinational staff. Susan, one of the engineers, was originally asked to deliver her part of the work on October 19. Due to a change in the critical path, her deliverable will be needed two days sooner. However, as the new deadline is still two weeks away and she is ahead of schedule, you are confident her delivery will be on time. During a staff meeting, you learn from John, her functional manager, that Susan celebrates a religious holiday on October 17. However, he also tells you that Susan is not particularly religious; if pushed a bit and offered some incentive, she may forego celebrating this holiday and come to work. What should you do? A. Check whether one of her colleagues can share some of her workload week B. Increase her project incentive if she agrees to deliver her presentation the 17th C. Let the critical path remain the same D. Ask her boss to ask her to skip the holiday

35. A - Checking to see if one of her colleagues could share some of her workload this week is the best choice. If another resource can assist with the completion of this task, Susan may celebrate the holiday without affecting the delivery of her work item. PMI's Code of Ethics and

35. The sponsor of your facilities upgrade project has left the company to join another organization. Several weeks later, you are reviewing the business case for the project, and you find that there are several inconsistencies between what is stated in the business case and what is described in the project scope. Further research shows that the business case as a whole is based on inaccurate information. What do you do? A. Notify your project stakeholders immediately B. Add this to the risk log C. Update the requirements D. Call the sponsor for clarification

35. A - Notify your project stakeholders immediately. They can determine the best path forward. An incorrect business case could have a serious impact on the usability of the final output of your project, or it could even impact the company's strategic goals. Failure to point out this error

35. Which of the following processes are usually performed once or at predefined points in the project: A. "Develop Project Charter" and "Close Project or Phase" B. "Develop Project Charter" and "Develop Project Management Plan" C. "Develop Project Management Plan" and "Direct and Manage P Work" D. "Direct and Manage Project Work" and "Monitor and Control Project Work

35. A - The "Develop Project Charter" and the "Close Project or Phase" process are used once or at predefined points in the project. The other choices have at least one process that is either performed continuously or periodically as needed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 22] [Project Integration Management]

35. Your company took over the management of a project from another company that went out of business. To minimize disruptions related to the transition, your company hired a number of the employees from the other company. One of these employees has delivered a 300-page document a week ahead of schedule. However, while walking past his desk, you notice that his computer is displaying a document with the logo of his former employer. You suspect that some of his work may have been based on documentation that is the property of the other company. What do you do? A. Report this to your project stakeholders immediately. B. Determine if any materials belonging to the other company have copied. C. The copyright material is owned by the client, for whom you are wo so this is not a copyright issue. D. Do nothing. Because the company is now out of business, no one owns the copyright on that material.

35. B - Determine if any materials belonging to the other company have been copied. The fact that the other company has gone out of business does not necessarily mean that it no longer owns intellectual property. Once you know if materials from the other company have been used, you can develop a plan to move forward. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. Although it is highly recommended that lessons learned are captured and documented throughout the project lifecycle, lessons learned are finalized during project closure. At this stage, responses to high-level questions may be gathered and documented. Which of the following is not an appropriate question to ask at this stage? A. What were the top significant project successes? B. How relevant the historic lessons learned were to this project d execution? C. What obstacles or unanticipated circumstances made it difficult complete the project? D. What should have been done differently in this project?

35. B - Lessons learned are extremely useful as they can save a lot of rework and mitigate a number of risks on future projects. However, validating the relevance to historic lessons learned to the project being closed do not add any value. [PMI best practice; not explicitly stated in PMBOK]

35. You are managing an electronic chip design project for a customer. There are a number of engineers and subject matter experts from the customer's organization that have been assigned as resources to the project plus several additional design engineers that your company has supplied. All the engineers were involved in the development of a prototype chip, an extremely time-consuming and expensive process. Upon the completion of the prototype, you submit it for review to ensure there are no patent infringement issues with the design. However, the review determines there are several issues that could result in an intellectual property dispute with the patent owners should the prototype design be released commercially. Resources from your company developed the affected prototype elements, as well as from your customer's organization. What should you do? A. Ask the engineers to revise the design and resubmit it B. Notify the project stakeholders immediately C. Request permission to use the copyright material D. Submit the prototype as is since the budget and schedule do accommodate rework

35. B - Notifying the project stakeholders immediately is the best choice. Unauthorized use of the intellectual property of others is unethical and is prohibited by the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Once the project stakeholders are notified of the situation, a plan forward can be developed. This plan could involve licensing the previously patented technology from the patent owner or reworking the design. However, this mitigation plan must involve input from the appropriate project stakeholders. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof.

35. You are reviewing the responses to an RFP your company issued. You realize that a key requirement was not included in the RFP. However, one of the bidders included that requirement in the response. What is the best course of action? A. Award the contract to that bidder B. Revise and reissue the RFP C. Select the bid that included the requirement D. Cancel the RFP

35. B - Revise and reissue the RFP. It is in the best interest of both the bidders and the project to use an accurate requirements list to develop procurement plans. Moreover, PMI's Code of Ethics prohibits project managers from intentionally providing incorrect information. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. You are authorized to approve expenditures above $15,000. For the last several weeks, you have been negotiating the terms and pricing of a contract with a vendor, and you want to keep costs as low as possible. This has been an exceedingly difficult negotiation process. A colleague suggests you tell the vendor you can only approve expenses below $10,000 as a way to keep the price low. What do you do? A. Ask for binding arbitration B. Tell the vendor you are only authorized to approve expenses $10,000 C. Do not follow the colleague's advice D. Put a deadline on the negotiation completion

35. C - Do not follow your colleague's advice. Providing false or misleading information for any reason is a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. While reviewing project procurement and accounting records for your project, you discover there is a pattern of unauthorized expenses by a specific resource. These expenses are not within the scope of the project and were somewhat camouflaged within a number of large and complicated expense reports. What do you do? A. If the total expenses are less than 1 percent of the project budge nothing B. Fire the resource C. Notify the appropriate management immediately D. Confront the resource

35. C - Notify the appropriate management of the unauthorized expenses. Project managers are required by PMI's Code of Ethics to report any unethical or illegal behaviors or activities to the appropriate management. Not doing so violates the PMI code. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. Complex projects usually demand preparation and distribution of periodic project performance reports. The contents of performance reports are usually determined early and documented in the project communications management plan. Which of the following is least likely to be a section on a work performance report? A. Analysis of project forecasts B. Current status of risks and issues C. Stakeholder engagement strategy D. Reserve burn down charts

35. C - Stakeholder engagement strategy is a component of the stakeholder engagement plan and is usually considered confidential. Due to this reason, this section is least likely to be included in a work performance report. Other choices are more likely to be components of a work performance report. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 112] [Project Communications Management]

35. The product design your project team developed was extremely well received by the customer. There were two key contributors to this design. The customer calls you to tell you how pleased he is with the design. What do you tell him? A. Ask to negotiate a bonus payment. B. Thank the customer. C. Thank him on behalf of the team and call out the contributions two o team members made. D. Tell the customer you worked very hard on the design, and you are h he is pleased.

35. C - Thank the customer on behalf of the team and cite the contributions made by two of the team members. PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires project managers to act fairly and truthfully. Accepting the credit due to another person or failing to denote where credit is actually due is dishonest and a violation of this code. [Reference: PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. You are managing a project for a customer that has just gone bankrupt and is subject to liquidation proceedings. There are several outstanding invoices this customer has not paid to your company. What should you do now? A. Go into alternate dispute resolution B. Do nothing C. Contact the appropriate management at your company for advice ho proceed D. Send the invoices to the bankruptcy attorneys

35. C - You are responsible for finding the right way to handle this situation. Contact your management for advice on how to proceed. Your company may already have plans in place for this scenario; if not, they will develop a path forward. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. Ben is the project manager for a mobile application development project. Due to a recent technological development, a significant change in the product design is required. This change would require a 25 percent increase in the project budget. Ben prepares a detailed report and emails it to the project sponsor, and the sponsor acknowledges the receipt of the report. What should Ben do next? A. Update the cost management plan B. Update the project budget C. Update the project schedule D. Wait for the formal approval of the new budget

35. D - Acknowledgement of a message does not necessarily mean agreement with or comprehension of the message. Ben should wait for a formal approval of the budget before taking any action. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Communications Management]

35. Adam has just taken over a construction project. The project is currently in the planning phase of the project lifecycle. Adam's next deliverable is to produce an effective stakeholder engagement strategy. Which of the following is the most important component of an effective stakeholder engagement plan? A. Management style B. Risk tolerance C. Construction know-how D. Communications

35. D - An effective stakeholder engagement plan recognizes the diverse information needs of the project's stakeholders. Stakeholder engagement relies on continuous communication with stakeholders to understand their needs and expectations, addressing issues as they occur, managing conflicts and fostering stakeholder engagement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 518] [Project Stakeholder Management]

35. You have recently finished an advanced project management training course your project budget paid for. Because the budget for your project is not large enough to train any other resources on the project, your manager has asked you to make copies of the course materials and distribute them to the rest of the staff. What do you do? A. Make the copies B. Provide a single copy of the materials C. Scan the materials and place them on the corporate intranet for access D. Refuse the request

35. D - Refuse the request. If training the staff is a requirement, it should be adequately budgeted and scheduled. Making unauthorized copies of the intellectual property of others is unethical and may also be illegal. PMI's Code of Conduct and Processional Responsibility demands that project managers protect the intellectual property rights of others. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. Which of the following statements regarding Resource Leveling and Resource Smoothing is correct: A. Resource Smoothing can cause the original critical path to change, Resource Leveling doesn't alter the project's critical path. B. Both Resource Leveling and Resource Smoothing can alter the pro critical path. C. Neither Resource Leveling nor Resource Smoothing alters the pro critical path. D. Resource Leveling can cause the projects' critical path to change, Resource Smoothing doesn't alter the project's critical path.

35. D - Resource Leveling can cause the projects' critical path to change, while Resource Smoothing doesn't alter the project's critical path. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 211] [Prof. Responsibility]

35. You are reviewing the response to an RFP issued by your company for a project that will last a year and exceed US$5 million. Three vendors have been shortlisted. The first, Nosteltec, Inc., is a relatively new company in this industry. It has assembled a team of industry experts with vast industry experience and qualifications. The second company, Xen Contractor, has been in business for 20 years. You and your company have a long and positive history working with this vendor. The third company is SonoNet LLC. It has been in business for 10 years and has a reputation for extensive expertise and superior delivery. They are also well-known for being one of the more expensive providers in the market. You have many relationships with the Xen Contractor staff, which you established during prior procurement contracts with this company. As a result, a project manager from Xen Contractor, with whom you are friendly both personally and professionally, calls you for clarification on a point A. Clarify via email B. Clarify via phone call C. Advise the vendor that the RFP is self-explanatory D. Send the clarification to all three vendors

35. D - Send the clarification to all three vendors. PMI's Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct mandates that project managers provide fair and equal access to information and apply the rules of the organization without favoritism. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

36. Robert is managing a construction project. The project's client is responsible for the design, while Robert's organization is responsible for the construction. There has been a 45-day delay on a couple of major structure designs. This delay can only be recovered through crashing and will cost $2 million in addition to the approved budget. Robert prepares a detailed report and emails it to the client. In this scenario, Robert's email to the client is an example of: A. Informal unofficial communication B. Formal unofficial communication C. Informal official communication D. Formal official communication

36. A - According to the PMBOK guide, all email correspondence is informal. Although the communication was between two officials, it cannot be considered official unless the information is transmitted formally. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 361] [Project Communications Management]

36. While managing a large project, the project manager decided to include indirect costs as part of his cost estimate. If indirect costs are included in an estimate, which of the following is true? A. Include indirect costs at the activity level or higher levels B. Include indirect costs at the activity level only C. Include indirect costs only in earned value measurements and not in estimates D. Exclude indirect costs in cost estimates

36. A - Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to finish project work. If included in project estimates, indirect costs should be included at the activity level or higher levels. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 246] [Project Cost Management]

36. A first-time project manager is trying to understand the difference between configuration control and change control. The difference is: A. Configuration control is focused on the specification of both deliverables and the process, but change control is focused on identify documenting, and controlling changes to the project. B. Configuration control is focused on ensuring that all change documented whereas change control is focused on the approval process C. Change control is focused on the specification of both the deliverable the process whereas configuration control is focused on identify documenting and controlling changes to the project. D. Change control is focused on ensuring that approved change documented and controlled whereas configuration control is focus ensuring that changes are properly identified and approved by the change control board.

36. A - Configuration control is focused on the specification of both the deliverables and the process, whereas change control is focused on identifying, documenting, and controlling changes to the project. A configuration management system with integrated change control provides a standardized and effective way to centrally manage approved changes within the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 118]

36. In an agile approach to project management, requirements classified as "epics" are decomposed into: A. User stories B. Work packages C. WBS elements D. WBS dictionary

36. A - In an agile approach, epics are decomposed into smaller components called user stories. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 160] [Project Framework]

36. Jackie is the project manager of a large project. During the Determine Budget process, she identifies that contingency reserves need to be set up for unplanned but potentially necessary changes that could result from realized risks identified in the risk register. Which of the following is true about reserves? A. Management Reserves are not a part of project cost baseline, but w included in the total budget for the project B. Contingency Reserves are not a part of project cost baseline, but w included in the total budget for the project C. Both the Management Reserves and the Contingency Reserves are part of project cost baseline, and they are also not included in the budget for the project D. Both the Management Reserves and the Contingency Reserves are part of project cost baseline, but they are included in the total budget the project

36. A - Management Reserves are not a part of the project cost baseline but will be included in the total budget for the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 252] [Project Cost Management]

36. Due to the unexpected release of a similar product from a competitor, the Widgets International executive team has stepped up the pressure on the product team to release the Widget product three months earlier. The project manager uses what technique to shorten the schedule but maintain the project scope? A. Schedule compression B. Rolling wave planning C. Schedule network analysis D. Schedule management planning

36. A - Schedule compression is the technique of shortening the project schedule duration without reducing scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

36. Many organizations favor fixed-price contracts because the buyer's risk is minimized by such contracts. However, to minimize the seller's risk, which of the following is crucial for a fixed price contract? A. The buyer must precisely specify the number of resources to be use procurement. B. The buyer must precisely specify the service or product to be procure C. The buyer must precisely specify the time for completing the contract D. The buyer must precisely specify the price of the contract.

36. B - In a fixed-price contract, the buyer must precisely specify the product or service to be procured. Any changes in the contract may involve additional cost to the buyer. Therefore, buyers must be careful while preparing the statement of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 471] [Project Procurement Management]

36. The banks in the Ukraine have raised the annual interest rates sharply to 30 percent. You have the option to invest your money either in Ukrainian banks or to build a small factory for a client. The total cost of building the factory will be $12 million but it will spread evenly over one year ($1 million payable by the end of each month for the next 12 months). The client will make a payment of $3.9 million at the end of each quarter from the start of the project. Which of the following is the best option (if you are only considering the return on investment)? A. Build the factory for the client B. Invest the money in the bank for a year C. Both options offer the same payoff D. Information given is insufficient to determine the best option

36. B - In this scenario you are considering investing your money in the bank or building a factory. Since all transactions are not happening at the same point in time, we need to discount the cash flows and then determine the return on investment. Since the bank is offering a 30% annual interest rate (the opportunity cost if you decide to build the factory), you need to discount all the cash flows for the factory project by 2.5% (30% / 12) on a monthly basis. The discount formula is: Present Value (PV) = Future Value / (1 + interest rate)^period. Let's use this formula to determine the net present value of all cash outflows: Month 1:

36. Andy's project stakeholders are not happy as the project is lagging behind schedule. During the executive committee meeting, Andy requests all stakeholders to keep their calm as most of the project deliverables have been completed and only quality inspections of these deliverables is pending. He assures the stakeholders that he is planning to crash the project to meet the completion deadline. What should be the stakeholders' biggest concern now? A. Crashing at this stage might result in an exponential cost increase more time will be required to recover that cost. B. Crashing at this stage might result in undetected errors, decreased presence and increased post-implementation risks. C. Why Andy hasn't chosen to fast-track the project instead of crashing project. D. Stakeholders do not know the PMBOK jargon; crashing is a schedule compression technique.

36. B - Meeting project schedule objectives by rushing planned quality inspections may result in undetected errors, decreased profits, and increased post-implementation risks. The other choices are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 273] [Project Procurement Management]

36. Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific project assumptions associated with the project? A. Project charter B. Project scope statement C. Project configuration document D. Change management plan

36. B - The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false. The assumptions listed in the detailed project scope statement are typically more numerous and detailed than the project assumptions listed in the project charter.

36. You are in a meeting with your senior manager, who is helping you to organize and manage a team of IT people from diverse backgrounds. While you are discussing the creativity and breakthrough performance your team is demonstrating now, your senior manager indicates that your team has moved from the storming to the performing stage. Which of the following describes the characteristics of the performing stage? A. In the performing stage, the team completes the work and disbands project team. B. In the performing stage, the team function as a well-organized units resolve issues effectively. C. In the performing stage, the team members are not collaborative. D. In the performing stage, the team starts to work together and adjust behavior.

36. B - There are five stages of team development: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing and Adjourning. In the Forming stage, the team members work independently. In the Storming stage, the team begins to understand the project work. In the Norming stage, the team begins to learn from one another. In the Performing stage, they work as a well organized unit and reach maximum performance. In the Adjourning stage, the team completes the work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 338] [Project Resource Management]

36. During the procurement process, a contractual relationship is established between a buyer and a seller. During the contract lifecycle, what is the correct sequence in which the following terminology is applied to a seller: Vendor, selected source, and bidder? A. The seller is viewed first as a selected source, then as a bidder and the a vendor. B. The seller is viewed first as a vendor, then as a bidder and then selected source. C. The seller is viewed first as a bidder, then as a selected source and the a vendor. D. The seller is viewed first as a bidder, then as a vendor, then as a selection source.

36. C - During the contract life cycle, the seller can be viewed first as a bidder, then as a selected source, and then as the contracted supplier or vendor. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 461] [Project Procurement Management]

36. A project manager is performing Reserve Analysis as a technique in one of the project management processes he is currently working on. Which of the following is likely to be that process? A. Estimate Reserves B. Report Costs C. Estimate Costs D. Plan Costs

36. C - Many cost estimators include reserves (also called contingency allowances) as costs in their schedule activity cost estimates. Contingency reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated but not certain events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 245] [Project Cost Management]

36. Which term best describes the Identify Risks process? A. Finite B. Redundant C. Iterative D. Inconsequential

36. C - The Identify Risks process is an ongoing, iterative process as risks are often identified throughout the project's life cycle. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] [Project Risk Management]

36. A project manager is performing a set of processes in the Initiating Process Group. Which of the following is likely to be part of the Initiating Process Group? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Define Scope C. Develop Project Charter D. Plan Quality Management

36. C - The Initiating Process Group consists of those processes performed to define a new project or phase. The Develop Project Charter process is part of this group, and it creates the project charter that formally authorizes a project or a phase. The other choices listed are part of the Planning Process Group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Integration Management]

36. Lucy is managing a complex design-and-build project. Stakeholder involvement and influence have been significant since the project's inception. Under such circumstances, the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process should be: Performed by a person external to the project A discrete process repeated at monthly intervals Performed by the project sponsor A continuous process

36. D - Monitoring stakeholder engagement is the responsibility of the project manager. Project stakeholder engagement, especially in complex projects, should be continuously monitored. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 530]

36. A project was estimated to cost $100,000 with a timeline of five months. Due to some unusual causes, the schedule was delayed. At the end of the third month, the project manager reviews the project and finds that the project is 40 percent complete and Actual Costs are $60,000. Assuming that the cost variations observed to date would not continue going forward, the Estimate to Complete (ETC) for the project are: A. 40000 B. 120000 C. 90000 D. 60000

36. D - The budget at completion (BAC) = $100,000 (given). The Actual Cost (AC) = $60,000 (given). The Earned value (EV) =

36. You are the project manager responsible for building a 100,000-squarefoot data center. One of the scheduled activities in your plan is to install the Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units. However, before beginning the installation of the units, a raised floor must be installed for the units to bolt to. This is an example of what type of dependency? A. External B. Optional C. Discretionary D. Mandatory

36. D - This is an example of a mandatory dependency, since the units will be bolted to the raised floor. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 191] [Project Schedule Management]

37. A change request that is issued to bring the performance of the project back in line with the project management plan is related to: A. Corrective action B. Defect repair C. Proactive action D. Preventive action

37. A - A change request that is issued to bring the performance of a project back in line with the project management plan relates to a required corrective action. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Integration Management]

37. Megawatt is estimating the expected cost of a new ERP system deployment project using the actual costs of an earlier similar ERP system deployment project as the basis for the cost. This is what type of estimating? A. Analogous B. Bottom-up C. Expert Judgment D. Parametric

37. A - Analogous cost estimating involves using the actual cost of previous similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Analogous cost estimating is frequently used to estimate costs when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project (e.g., in the early phases). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 244] [Project Cost Management]

37. A number of teams are developing an enterprise system using the agile approach for product development. Which of the following is a major risk item for such a complex project being performed in an agile environment? A. Number of interconnected dependencies between the features developed by different teams. B. Number and size of teams developing the larger features. C. Scope definition and freezing early during the planning phase. D. Emphasis on schedule control over risk management.

37. A - In adaptive life cycles, when multiple teams are concurrently developing a large number of features, the interconnected dependencies between the features become a major risk item. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Communications Management]

37. During the course of the project, the project management team developed a forecast for the estimate at completion (EAC) based on the project performance. Which of the following statements about EAC is correct? A. The EAC forecast based on the Bottom-up estimate to complete ( requires a new estimate. B. The EAC forecast is best estimated using the estimate to complete ( work performed considering both SPI and CPI factors. C. The EAC forecast is best estimated using the estimate to complete ( work performed at the present CPI. D. The EAC forecast is best estimated using the estimate to complete ( work performed at the budgeted rate.

37. A - The EAC forecast that is based on the bottom-up estimate to complete (ETC) requires a new estimate. There is no best method for EAC calculation as it varies from situation to situation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 264] [Project Cost Management]

37. Which of the following indicates the required cost performance in order to complete the project on budget? A. TCPI B. CPI C. EAC D. SPI

37. A - The To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) indicates the required cost performance in order to complete the project on budget. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 266] [Project Cost Management]

37. Which of the following is not an effective influencing technique? A. Withdrawing from conflicts B. Using a flexible interpersonal style C. Leading by example D. Clarifying how decisions will be made

37. A - Withdrawing from a conflict may temporarily alleviate the conflict, but it cannot influence the team members. The other choices are effective team influencing techniques. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349]

37. Tom is a project manager who is assigned to a foreign country to manage a project. The project is a large one and comprises smaller sub-teams contributing to the entire project. As part of rewards and recognition within the project, Tom plans for a team award for the best sub-team. Recognition and Rewards is associated with which of the following processes? A. Close Project or Phase B. Develop Team C. Control Quality D. Manage Team

37. B - Recognition and Rewards is a tool of the Develop Team process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 341] [Project Resource Management]

37. Robert wants to assign a risk owner for every project risk for which a risk response action is planned. Where must he update this information? A. Resource management plan B. Risk register C. Stakeholder register D. Project charter

37. B - The assigned risk owners are documented in the risk register. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 413] [Project Risk Management]

37. You are the project manager managing a project to design a print head for dot matrix printers. In order to determine ideal settings for print quality, the quality manager of the company suggests trying out various scenarios for printing by varying certain parameters on the print head. Identifying such variables which influence the product or process under development is called: A. Benchmarking B. Design of Experiments C. Statistical Sampling D. Brainstorming

37. B - The correct response is Design of Experiments. DOE aims at predicting the outcome by introducing a change of the inputs/preconditions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 290] [Project Quality Management]

37. No matter how good you are in communicating, information distribution to stakeholders as planned is a challenging task. Many tools and techniques are used during the Manage Communications process except: A. Project reporting B. Work performance reports C. Communication technologies D. Communication skills

37. B - The work performance reports are inputs to the Manage Communications process. The other choices are the valid tools and techniques of the Manage Communications process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Communications Management]

37. Which of the following are short, textual descriptions of required functionality often developed during a requirements gathering workshop: A. Fishbone diagrams B. User stories C. Histograms D. Decision trees

37. B - User stories are short, textual descriptions of required functionality often developed during a requirements gathering workshop. The rest of the choices are graphical formats. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 145] [Project Framework]

37. You are meeting with your stakeholders to gather requirements for your project. You are well aware that requirements to be gathered include both product and project requirements. All the following tools can be used to gather, define, and analyze project requirements from stakeholders except: A. Surveys B. Focus Groups C. Decomposition D. Prototypes

37. C - Both product and project requirements are gathered from stakeholders during the Collect Requirements process. This effort is undertaken during project planning. Focus groups, surveys, and prototypes are some of the tools used to define and analyze requirements. Decomposition is used only to break down the work and not to gather requirements. Therefore, decomposition is the correct answer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 138, 158]

37. A project manager is analyzing the relationship between the consumption of project funds and the work being accomplished for such expenditures. In which project management process would this be done? A. Determine Budget B. Estimate Costs C. Control Costs D. Manage Costs

37. C - Control Costs is the process of monitoring the status of a project to update the project budget and manage changes to the cost baseline. Much of the effort of cost control involves analyzing the relationship between the consumption of project funds and the work being accomplished for such expenditures. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 257]

37. Which of these is not a legitimate model used to analyze stakeholders? A. Influence/impact grid B. Power/influence grid C. Sufficiency model D. Salience model

37. C - The sufficiency model is not a valid model. The other choices are valid models used to analyze stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 512, 513] [Project Stakeholder Management]

37. You are a project manager for Enormous Co. and are currently engaged in a highly visible project. The company is about to implement an independent review to ensure that the project work is continuing to comply with the project's policies, processes, and procedures. During which process would this review occur? A. Close Project or Phase B. Control Quality C. Monitor Risks D. Manage Quality

37. D - Quality audits are performed during the Manage Quality process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 294] [Project Quality Management]

37. During the Plan Risk Management process, assigning ___________ will help you and the project team identify all important risks and work more effectively during the identification process. A. Risk factors B. Blame C. Risk mitigation plans D. Risk categories

37. D - Risk categories provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process of systematically identifying risks and that contributes to the effectiveness and quality of the process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 405] [Project Risk Management]

37. The two key processes that happen early in the project lifecycle are: A. Define Scope and Identify Stakeholders B. Define Scope and Manage Stakeholder Engagement C. Develop Project Charter and Plan Communications Management D. Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders

37. D - The two initiating processes are Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders. The chances of success of the project are enhanced if the project charter is well written and the appropriate stakeholders are identified early, as part of the initiating process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25]

37. You are forming a virtual project team that includes members from four different countries around the world. What is NOT an obstacle you must overcome to build an effective team? A. Different time zones B. Communication issues C. Cultural differences D. Members wanting to work from home

37. D - Virtual teams share a common project goal but share little time in a traditional, face-to-face business environment. The virtual team concept is made possible with electronic communication; one of the benefits of such teams is the ability of members to work from home. The other choices are potential issues that can occur as a result of forming a virtual team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 311] [Project Resource Management]

38. Which of these processes is not a Project Schedule Management process? A. Create WBS B. Develop Schedule C. Define Activities D. Sequence Activities

38. A - Create WBS is a process in the Project Scope Management area. The other options are all Project Schedule Management processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Schedule Management]

38. Although the business value is unique to each organization, each organization strives to attain business value for its activities. Which of the following does NOT create value for an organization? A. Escalation of commitment on projects involving significant sunk cos B. Effective management of ongoing operations C. Strategic alignment of project objectives D. Successful management of nonprofit business-related activities

38. A - Effective management of ongoing operations, strategic alignment of project objectives, and, successful management of nonprofit business-related activities can all create value for an organization. However, escalation of commitment on projects involving significant sunk cost does not create any value for an organization. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 7] {The term 'escalation of commitment' refers to the phenomenon where managers justify increased investment in a decision, based on the cumulative prior investment, despite new evidence suggesting that the cost of continuing the decision outweighs the expected benefit}. [Project Integration Management]

38. One of the stakeholders of a project initiated a change request, which was then documented in the change control system. Who would typically be responsible for approving or rejecting the change request? A. An authority within the project management team or external organize B. The sponsor C. The stakeholder who raised the change request D. The project manager

38. A - Typically, some authority within the project management team or an external organization would approve or reject the change request. However, on many projects the project manager is given authority to approve certain types of change requests. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [Project Integration Management]

38. A project employs a virtual team with team members located in different offices in the same city as well as across different cities. The project manager wishes to build trust and good working relationships. One of the best ways to do this is: A. To use team-building strategies B. Write a memo to the team detailing the need for good wo relationships C. Plan for job-rotation on a weekly basis D. To encourage the use of telephonic conversations as much as possible

38. A - Use of team-building activities helps in building trust and establishing good working relationships. As for the other choices: Encouraging the use of telephone calls can also help in building relationships, especially in distributed teams. However, this cannot be an alternative to email communication. Job-rotation within the team may also help team morale; however, doing it on a weekly basis may be counterproductive and inefficient. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 341] [Project Resource Management]

38. A project manager analyzed the project's communication requirements and decided that 10 out of the 30 stakeholders in the project would only need voicemail updates of certain information. This type of communication is: A. Push communication B. Pull communication C. Interactive communication D. On-demand communication

38. A - Use of voicemail is push communication. In this type of communication, information is distributed to specific recipients who need to know the information. However, this method does not certify that the information actually reached, or was received by, the intended audience. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] [Project Communications Management]

38. All of the following statements are true about the cause-and-effect diagram except: A. A maximum of six causes are listed on the cause-and-effect diagram. B. Ishikawa is another name for the cause-and-effect diagram. C. The effect being studied is normally stated at the head of the diagram D. The cause-and-effect diagram is one tool that can be used for pro solving.

38. A - While listing six causes is possible, there is no rule that states a maximum of six causes can be listed. You could list four or eight, for example. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

38. A first-time project manager was assigned to a project that had a duration of three months. In order to get a head start on the project, the manager took an older, completed the project and incorporated all the tools, techniques, and checklists in their entirety from that project into the current one. The older project was completed in 14 months' time and was remarkably similar in nature. The most appropriate comment on this would be: A. This is an excellent example of re-use of artifacts from prior projects B. This may be unnecessary. The project management team needs to do what is appropriate for the project. C. This is not the correct procedure. The project manager should always create processes and documents afresh for new projects. D. This is not correct. The project manager is violating copyright intellectual property rights of the organization's prior customers.

38. B - The correct response is that this may be unnecessary. The project management team needs to decide what is appropriate for the project. Since the prior project had a duration of 14 months and the current one is of 3 months' duration, it is unlikely that the current project will have exactly the same processes applied. Some amount of tailoring will be required. The other responses are not valid. It cannot be said with certainty that the project manager will not be violating copyright and intellectual property rights of prior customers. Most organizations have clear guidelines on what information can go into their organizational assets' database. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 28] [Project Framework]

38. Mary is a project manager for an infrastructure upgrade project in a government agency. She realized recently that a critical scheduled task exceeded its deadline, and the stakeholders are aware of it. The resource manager has permitted Mary to use three more resources to work on and complete the delayed task. Although the three additional resources prove helpful, Mary is still concerned about the task because: A. Allocating more resources may result in rework B. Allocating more resources may shorten the duration but result increased risk or cost C. Resources may need training to complete the task D. Allocating more resources needs stakeholders approval

38. B - To meet schedule constraints, schedule compression techniques are used to reduce the schedule's duration. Crashing and fast tracking are two such techniques. Crashing involves allocation of more resources to reduce the duration. Crashing always does not produce a desirable result and may result in increased risk. Providing training is not a problem from the project manager's point of view. Stakeholders' approval is not required when resources are not allocated. Therefore, Mary's concern is only about increased risk or cost due to allocation of more resources to

38. Costs incurred in one area of a project can offset costs in another area of the same project. However, it is not enough to consider only the costs of project execution when making project decisions. What other costs external to the project must also be considered? A. Costs of conformance B. Planning costs C. Operating costs D. Initiating costs

38. C - Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources needed to complete schedule activities. However, Project Cost Management should also consider the effect of project decisions on the costs of using, maintaining, and supporting the product, service, or result of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 233] [Project Cost Management]

38. Which of these is not a data analysis technique used during quantitative risk analysis? A. Tornado diagram B. Decision tree C. RACI chart D. Influence diagrams

38. C - RACI chart is not a data analysis technique used during quantitative risk analysis. Rest of the choices are valid techniques for data analysis. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 434, 435, 436] [Project Risk Management]

38. You are analyzing the risk in a project. You decide to do a sensitivity analysis to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. You consider using a tool to help compare the relative importance of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty with those variables that are more stable. One such tool is: A. Beta Distribution B. S-Curve C. Control Chart D. Tornado Diagram

38. D - A tornado diagram is useful for comparing the relative importance of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty with those that are more stable. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 434] [Project Risk Management]

38. The project manager of a long-term project to develop a new medical device waits until the later phase where the deliverables are more clearly defined before adding those details to the WBS. This is an example of: A. Poor planning B. Balanced planning C. Deferred planning D. Rolling Wave planning

38. D - Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be accomplished far into the future. The project management team usually waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified before adding those details to the WBS. This technique is referred to as rolling wave planning. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 185]

38. Joe is attempting to calculate the probable financial impact of some future uncertain scenarios. What method could he use? A. Pareto analysis B. Earned value analysis C. Variance analysis D. Expected monetary value analysis

38. D - Expected monetary value (EMV) analysis is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. The EMV of opportunities will usually be positive values while risks will result in negative values. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

38. A project to design and build a new aircraft is cancelled after the project has been underway for some time. What process is employed to document what work was done and to what extent it was completed? A. Validate Scope B. Control Scope C. Control Quality D. Close Project or Phase

38. D - If the project is terminated early, the Close Project or Phase process should establish and document the level and extent of completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 121] [Project Integration Management]

38. Which of the following is an example of rolling wave planning in a project following an adaptive life cycle? A. Iterative scheduling with a just-in-time log B. Predictive scheduling with no backlog C. Inflexible scheduling without leads and lags D. Iterative scheduling with a backlog

38. D - Iterative scheduling with a backlog is a form of rolling wave planning based on adaptive life cycles. The rest of choices are made up responses. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Scope Management]

38. Which of the following tools give a visual representation of an organization's data, described in business language that is independent of any specific technology? A. Matrix diagrams B. Mind maps C. Flowcharts D. Logical data model

38. D - Logical data models give a visual representation of an organization's data, described in business language and independent of any specific technology. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 284] [Project Resource Management]

38. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The buyer-seller relationship exists only between organizations ex to the acquiring organization. B. The buyer-seller relationship exists only between organizations inter the acquiring organization. C. The buyer-seller relationship exists at the top level on any one project between organizations internal to and external to the acquire organization. D. The buyer-seller relationship may exist at many levels on any one PR and between organizations internal to and external to the acquire organization.

38. D - The buyer-seller relationship may exist at many levels on any one project, and between organizations internal to and external to the acquiring organization. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 461] [Project Procurement Management]

38. A project manager is looking at a make-or-buy analysis as part of the Procurement Management process. What type of costs should the project manager consider for this analysis? A. Direct costs B. Indirect costs C. Out-of-pocket costs D. Both direct as well as indirect costs

38. D - The make-or-buy analysis needs to be as comprehensive as possible. Hence, it should consider all possible costs, both direct and indirect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 473] [Project Procurement Management]

39. Tracey is managing an ERP system implementation project. Which of the following tools can help her uncover a number of hidden process requirements during the Collect Requirements process? A. Observation B. Questionnaires C. Surveys D. Nominal group technique

39. A - A hidden requirement is the one that the user or the customer fails to communicate or takes for granted. Hidden requirements can be identified by a "participant observer" who actually performs a process or procedure to experience how it is done. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 145] [Project Scope Management]

39. All the following are tools of the Control Schedule process except: A. Parametric estimating B. Critical Path Method C. Schedule compression D. Leads and lags

39. A - Leads and lags, schedule compression and critical path method are tools in the Control Schedule process. Parametric estimating is not a tool of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 222] [Project Schedule Management]

39. Which of the following is not an input to the Conduct Procurements process? A. Proposal evaluation techniques B. Seller proposals C. Cost baseline D. Procurement management plan

39. A - Proposal evaluation techniques are the tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurement process. The other choices are the valid inputs to this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 482] [Project Procurement Management]

39. The technique most commonly used by project management software packages to construct a project schedule model is: A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) B. Finish-to-Start (FS) C. Activity-In-Node (AIN) D. Node-On-Activity (NOA)

39. A - The method used by most project management software packages to construct a project schedule model is Precedence diagramming method. This method uses boxes or rectangles, called nodes, to represent activities. It connects the nodes with arrows showing the logical relationships among them. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 189] [Project Schedule Management]

39. A project involved development of a high-speed, hard disk drive. As part of its testing, the hard disk was subjected to continuous operation at a high speed and an elevated temperature. At the end of the test, the hard disk was destroyed beyond use. The cost of such testing is usually classified as: A. Appraisal costs B. Internal failure costs C. Cost of nonconformance D. Prevention costs

39. A - This type of testing is called destructive testing, and it is classified under appraisal costs. Along with other tests and inspections, it helps in assessing the quality of the product. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282] [Project Quality Management]

39. You are managing a complex submarine causeway construction project. When you started the project, the scope of work was not clear and was based on a rather high-level estimate. Now that you are in the middle of the project, more information has become available. As a result, you now need to change some of the key subcontracts on the project. Which of the following will guide you through the change process? A. Change control terms of the individual subcontracts B. Project management plan's change control procedures C. Organizational process assets D. Supplier's contract administrator

39. A - Your project's change control procedures are internal to your project, that is, the scope of work directly under your project's control. Specific contract change control procedures can be found in the individual subcontracts that can be different for each subcontract. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] [Project Procurement Management]

39. Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Develop Team process? A. Organizational charts B. Co-location C. Acquisition D. Influence diagrams

39. B - Colocation is a tool and technique of the Develop Team process. The other choices are not valid responses. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 336] [Project Resource Management]

39. Which process group corresponds to the "act" component of the plan-do check-act cycle? A. Monitoring & Controlling B. Executing C. Planning D. Initiating

39. B - The "act" component of the plan-do-check-act cycle relates to the Executing process group. The plan-do-check-act cycle was created by Shewhart and modified by Deming to illustrate how different results from one cycle become an input to another cycle. [PMBOK 6th edition,

39. Which of these is accurate regarding the Develop Schedule process? A. Schedules are optimized such that all noncritical activities have a total float. B. The critical path method is a schedule network analysis technique t performed using the schedule model. C. Schedule compression shortens the project schedule while changing project scope. D. Schedule network analysis is a technique carried out once the scheduled approved.

39. B - The accurate statement regarding the Develop Schedule process is that the critical path method is a schedule network analysis technique that is performed using the schedule model. The other statements are not accurate. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 209] [Project Schedule Management]

39. Control charts are used to determine the stability of a process. Which of the following best describes the range of the control limits applied on a control chart? A. The control limits are determined using design for X. B. The control limits are determined using statistical calculations. C. The control limits are provided by the customer. D. The control limits are based on cost tolerance.

39. B - The control limits are determined using statistical calculations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 304] [Project Quality Management]

39. A first-time project manager wanted to have a "perfect project." This manager informed the customer that this project would not accept change requests of any kind and that the scope would need to be defined precisely at the very start of the project. The customer agreed to this request. What would your comment on this situation be? A. The is a good example of how the project management team can d What is and what is not necessary for the project. Not allowing change a good way of ensuring that the project meets requirements as detail the project scope. B. This is unrealistic and impractical. Change is inevitable and rather look at a 'no change' project, it would be more in the project interest plan for a robust change control process. C. This indicates that the project manager is very aggressive and is like take the project to successful completion. Since he has announced the change requests' policy, the customer manager can no longer re changes. D. This is unrealistic and impractical. The project manager should not announced his intentions to the customer. He should have ha unofficial policy of rejecting all change requests.

39. B - The correct response is that this is unrealistic and impractical. Change is inevitable. Rather than insist on a "no change" project, it would be more in the project's interest to plan for a robust change control process capable of handling any new changes. Mandating that there will be no changes will be ineffective. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168] [Project Scope Management]

39. You are the project manager for Commodities, Inc. You are involved in a new project to create an internal website for the employees that will allow them to view events within the company. All of the following options listed are project constraints except: A. The project must be completed by December 31 of the current year. B. There is a budget of $75,000 for the project. C. The navigation menu for the website must be on the top of the page. D. Only three employees are available to work on the project.

39. C - Constraints limit the project team's options. Predefined budgets, limits on the number of resources available, and imposed dates are project constraints. Positioning of the menu for the website is one of the requirements for the project, and so this is not considered a constraint. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 28] [Project Scope Management]

39. Your company is way behind schedule in the deployment of a government-mandated change to a health care processing system that must be in production by the end of the year. To meet the due date, you and your team have met and decided to hire an additional 50 programmers to work with the existing staff. This is an example of what? A. Resource Leveling B. Fast Tracking C. Crashing D. Risk Transference

39. C - Crashing is a specific type of project schedule compression technique performed by taking action to decrease the total project schedule duration. Typical approaches to crashing a schedule include reducing activity durations and increasing the assignment of resources. [PMBOK

39. A project manager first creates an assumption log during the Develop Project Charter process and records all project assumptions and constraints. During which of the following processes is the assumptions log updated and/or new assumptions and constraints added during the project execution? A. Monitor and Control Project Work B. Close Project or Phase C. Direct and Manage Project Work D. Collect Requirements

39. C - During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, new assumptions and constraints are added to the assumption log, and the status of existing assumptions and constraints may be updated and closed out. The other process do not directly update the assumptions log as an output of the process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 81, 97] [Project Stakeholder Management]

39. The project manager of a large construction project is responsible for ensuring that all changes to the building plans are approved and tracked before they are implemented. These activities form part of which process? A. Validate Scope B. Perform Configuration Management C. Perform Integrated change control D. Control Quality

39. C - Integrated change control includes maintaining the integrity of baselines by releasing only approved changes for incorporation into project products or services and by maintaining their related configuration and planning documentation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

39. A critical project rollout was delayed because one of the stakeholders did not receive necessary communication on time. On further analysis, the project manager discovered that the communication was sent to the wrong teams. This could have happened because: A. Communication broke down between the project team and stakeholder. B. The project manager failed to manage stakeholder expectations. C. The stakeholder communications requirements were not pro analyzed during the Plan Communications Management process. D. The stakeholder did not proactively ask for updates.

39. C - It is likely that stakeholder communications requirements were not properly analyzed during the Plan Communications Management process and the Project Communications Management Plan was not accurate. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 377] [Project Stakeholder Management]

39. A RAM diagram shows the relationship between ______________ and _____________ in a tabular format. A. Cause and effect B. Risks and mitigation plans C. Deliverables and costs D. Work packages and project team members

39. D - A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) chart is used to illustrate the connections between work packages and project team members. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317] [Project Resource Management]

39. You are running one week behind on a project due to a late delivery by a vendor. You are forced to compress your project schedule due to a government-mandated end date that constrains your project. After meeting with your team, the decision is to work several tasks in parallel that were scheduled to be run consecutively. This is an example of: A. Risk Acceptance B. Crashing C. Resource Leveling D. Fast Tracking

39. D - The example provided is the definition of fast tracking. An example of crashing the schedule is doubling the amount of resources so the task(s) can be done in half the originally scheduled time. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 215] [Project Schedule Management]

4. Projects, portfolios, and programs are different entities in an organization. Which of the following choices states a correct relationship between them? A. A portfolio consists of a collection of projects or programs that grouped together to achieve strategic business objectives. The project programs need not be directly related. B. A project is a collection of programs and portfolios that are grow together to achieve the project objectives. C. A program consists of a collection of projects or portfolios that grouped together to achieve strategic business objectives. D. A program is a collection of projects that are grouped together convenience. It may include unrelated work if the work is under the business division.

4. A - A portfolio is a collection of projects or programs that are grouped together to achieve a strategic business objective. Portfolio management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation and that the management of the portfolio is aligned with organizational strategies. The projects or programs need not be directly related. A program is a collection of projects with common objectives, so unrelated work cannot be grouped together under a program. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 11] [Project Framework]

4. Your company requires that before you purchase any routers or switches for the data center you are building, you need to solicit quotes from three separate suppliers prior to submitting the purchase request to the finance department. This policy belongs to: A. Organizational Process Assets B. Enterprise Environmental Factors C. Procurement Management Knowledge Area D. Make-or-Buy Decision

4. A - Any type of corporate policy or formal procurement procedure is an organizational process asset. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 39] [Project Procurement Management]

4. Your team has built an exotic sports car for a wealthy client. The project team verified every deliverable against the quality requirements, and the client accepted. Now the project manager is arranging for the car delivery. This is part of which process group? A. Closing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Execution

4. A - It must be noted that the car has been built, and the Control Quality and Validate Scope processes have been performed for every deliverable. The question is asking about PRODUCT delivery, which occurs during the closing process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 123] [Project Integration Management]

4. A large network hardware upgrade project was scheduled to take place over a weekend. During the course of the implementation, several previously unidentified dependencies on additional materials were discovered. The project manager gave approval for the tech staff doing the implementation to procure with corporate credit cards several hundred dollars' worth of additional equipment required to complete the implementation. However, these additional expenses caused the project to exceed its budget. How should the project manager handle this? A. Notify the project stakeholders immediately of the additional expense incurred and follow project and company procedures for b variances. B. Ask the IT Director to cover those expenses from his budget. C. Advise the staff to submit expense reports for the purchases. Because cost is relatively small, it can be categorized as miscellaneous purchase that are not associated with the project. D. Do nothing; that's what reserves are for.

4. A - Notifying project stakeholders and following proper procedures for dealing with budget variances is the best response. Attempting to pass off or hide an unexpected expense in another budget or in expense reports rather than following proper procedures is dishonest and unprofessional. The PMI code of ethics requires project managers to be honest, take responsibility for errors, and follow all organizational rules and policies. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

4. Which of the following processes produces a work breakdown structure as an output? A. Create WBS B. Define Scope C. Develop Project Management Plan D. Define Activities

4. A - The Create WBS process produces the work breakdown structure of the project as an output. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Scope Management]

4. As you create the Activity List, which technique is recommended for subdividing the project into smaller components called activities? A. Decomposition B. Rolling Wave Planning C. Expert Judgment D. Deconstruction

4. A - The decomposition technique allows the project manager to create smaller and more manageable pieces of work from the larger work packages. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 185] [Project Schedule Management]

4. During a discussion with the quality department, Dave, a project manager, was told that as applied to projects, the terms "prevention" and "inspection" are synonymous. However, his understanding of the terms is different. What would you comment on this situation? A. The project manager is correct. Prevention is about keeping errors o the process; inspection is about keeping errors out of the customer's hands. B. The project manager is correct. Inspection is about keeping errors o the process; prevention is about keeping errors out of the customer's hands. C. The project manager is wrong. Both inspection and prevention are keeping errors out of the customer's hands. They are used in diff contexts. D. The project manager is wrong. Both inspection and prevention are keeping errors out of the process. They are used in different contexts

4. A - The project manager is correct. Prevention is about keeping errors out of the process, whereas inspection is about keeping errors out of the hands of the customer. This is an important distinction, which the project management team needs to be aware of. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274] [Project Quality Management]

4. Which of the following would not be considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor during the Develop Project Charter process? A. Scope Statement B. Organizational infrastructure C. Governmental standards D. Marketplace conditions

4. A - The scope statement is clearly not an enterprise environmental factor, whereas the other three choices—governmental standards, organizational infrastructure, and marketplace conditions—are enterprise environmental factors. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 78] [Project Integration Management]

4. A control chart is used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance. When a process is within acceptable limits, the process does not need adjustment. How are these upper and lower control limits determined? A. Statistical calculations B. Variance analysis C. Pareto chart D. ROM estimate

4. A - The upper / lower control limits are statistically calculated (normally set at + / - 3 sigma). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 304] [Project Quality Management]

4. The technique of comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a basis by which to measure performance is known as: A. Workbench B. Benchmarking C. Quality control D. Dependency

4. B - Benchmarking is the technique of comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a basis by which to measure performance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 281] [Project Quality Management]

4. David was required to investigate a business problem and describe the higher-level needs of the business as a whole. David's final reports describes in detail the features, functions and characteristics of the product that will meet the business and stakeholder requirements. What is wrong with David's report? A. David was asked to analyze the solution requirements, but he focus the business requirements. B. David was asked to analyze the business requirements, but he focus the solution requirements. C. David was asked to analyze the functional requirements, but he focus on the non-functional requirements. D. David was asked to analyze the non-functional requirements, b focused on the functional requirements.

4. B - David was asked to analyze the business requirements but he focused on the solution requirements. Business requirements describe the higher-level needs of the organization as a whole, such as the business issues or opportunities. While the solution requirements describes in detail the features, functions and characteristics of the product that will meet the business and stakeholder requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 148] [Project Framework]

4. You are the project manager of a project. As part of the planning process, you use a planning technique to subdivide the project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. What is this technique called? A. Unit task analysis B. Decomposition C. Rolling wave planning D. Arrow Diagramming Method

4. B - Decomposition is the process of subdividing the project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 158] [Project Schedule Management]

4. You have recently started working as a project manager for a health insurance portal development project. The project sponsor tells you that due to the critical nature of the project, the work must start immediately and complete in two weeks. Based on the instructions, you have started documenting significant constraints and assumptions to perform the project feasibility study. What should you do if you can prepare only the high-level feasibility study in the given time frame? A. Conduct the stakeholder meeting to evaluate other options B. Refer this issue to the sponsor and explain the need for more de study C. Submit the high level study and start making plans to prepare the cha D. Submit the high level study and schedule a detailed study in the plan phase

4. B - Developing a detailed feasibility study is essential to initiate a project. If efforts are not made initially to determine whether the project is worth the required investment, it could result in project failure. It is also the responsibility of the project manager to provide accurate and complete information about the feasibility of any project. Thus, you must escalate the issue to the sponsor and explain the need for a more detailed study. Since the project initiation depends on the feasibility of the project, the report cannot be prepared in the project planning phase. Conducting stakeholder meeting is an invalid choice because the stakeholders have not yet been selected to conduct a meeting. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

4. Which of the following is not an example of soft skills? A. Team skills B. Intelligence quotient C. Influencing D. Negotiation

4. B - Intelligence quotient (IQ) is an assessment of an individual's intelligence. This is not a soft skill. Soft skills are an individual's interpersonal skills. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 357] [Project Resource Management]

4. Which of these is not an Enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Plan Resource Management process? A. Organizational culture B. Lessons learned on organizational structures C. Marketplace conditions D. Facilities and resources

4. B - Lessons learned are important inputs to the Plan Resource Management process. However, these are organizational process assets and not enterprise environmental factors. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 315] [Project Resource Management]

4. Which of these is not a component of the scope baseline that is contained in the project management plan? A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) B. Requirements documentation C. WBS Dictionary D. Project Scope Statement

4. B - Project requirements documentation is used as an input to define the project's scope baseline. However, the requirements documentation is not a part of the scope baseline. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Scope Management]

4. The resource optimization technique during the Control Schedule process allows a project manager to: A. Schedule training sessions for the project team members to optimize performance. B. Schedule activities considering both the resource availability and project time. C. Provide monetary incentives to project team members to boost performance. D. Allow overtime so that team members get motivated to work during working hours.

4. B - Resource optimization technique during the Control Schedule process allows a project manager to schedule activities considering both the resource availability and the project time. Other choices are invalid. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 227] [Project Framework]

4. Chris is managing a construction project. The project team is currently developing the "as built" construction drawings to be supplied to the client as required by the contract. Which of the following phases is Chris' project most likely in? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Closing D. Executing

4. C - "As built" drawings suggest that the construction has been completed. It is most likely that the project is in the closing phase and the project manager is preparing the final procurement documentation to be supplied to the client as required by the contract. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 125] [Project Scope Management]

4. Your project sponsor has asked you to present your project's high-level risk register to him in the next project update meeting. To create your high-level risk register, which of the following processes must be performed? A. Plan Risk Management B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks D. Monitor Risks

4. C - A high-level risk register contains the identified risks only. The risk register is created during the Identify Risks process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] [Project Risk Management]

4. Which of the following approaches deliberately spends less time trying to define and lock project scope early during the project and spends more time establishing the process for requirements gathering, scope definition and refinement? A. Waterfall methods B. Predictive methods C. Agile methods D. Kanban methods

4. C - Agile methods deliberately spend less time trying to define and lock project scope early during the project and spend more time establishing the process for requirements gathering, scope definition and refinement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 133] [Project Communications Management]

4. Your project is midway through a delivery schedule. As the project manager, you want to determine how much work remains. Which is the most accurate way to determine the remaining work the project team must carry out? A. Rolling wave method B. Earned Value Technique C. A Manual forecast D. Future analysis

4. C - Although the Earned Value technique of determining the balance work in the project is quick and straightforward, it is not as valuable or accurate as the manual forecasting of the remaining work by the project team. However, manual forecasting is more time-consuming. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 264] [Project Cost Management]

4. You are in the middle of a risk assessment meeting with key stakeholders, customers and project team leaders. While identifying and assessing risks, you realize that two key stakeholders are overemphasizing the impact of a risk. What is the best step to take to avoid unfairness or bias when assessing risks? A. Implement assumptions analysis to explore the validity of assumption B. Develop a risk response strategy to eliminate threats C. Engage a neutral facilitator to support the Perform Qualitative Analysis process. D. Perform sensitivity analysis to establish which risks have the most impact on the project

4. C - Engaging a neutral facilitator to support the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process should help address bias. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 420] [Project Risk Management]

4. You are the project manager of a large IT project. A manager from a company contracted to work on the project offers you free tickets to a local sporting event. The tickets are expensive, but your organization has no formal policy regarding gifts. What is the best way to handle the offer? A. Refuse the tickets and report the offer to your employer B. Accept the tickets but notify your employer C. Politely refuse the tickets D. Accept the tickets since there is no policy

4. C - The best way to handle this type of offer is to politely reject the offer. Taking gifts can be viewed as personal gain and may affect your integrity as a Project Manager. It may leave you and your organization open to allegations of improper conduct. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

4. Daniel is the project manager for a factory construction project. Daniel has recently joined this organization and is not fully aware of the organization's culture and structure. In order to manage his project stakeholders, Daniel has to understand them better. Which of the following can provide Daniel some historical information regarding stakeholder engagement on previous projects? A. Project management plan B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Organizational process assets D. Project charter

4. C - The project charter and the project management plan do not document lessons learned from previous similar projects. Lessons learned are stored in the organization's process assets library. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 520] [Project Stakeholder Management]

4. James is managing a shopping mall construction project. During the project execution, he learns the project communications management plan is not effective and requires a major update. Which of the following processes will issue a change request for the required update? A. Plan Communications Management B. Manage Communications C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Monitor Communications

4. D - Change request is an output of the Monitor Communications process. The Monitor Communications process will produce the change request, the Perform Integrated Change Control process will get that approved, and then the Plan Communications Management process will make the necessary updates. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 389] [Project Communications Management]

4. Which of the following is not an example of parametric estimating? A. Activity duration estimated based on the number of drawings multiplied by the number of labor hours per drawing. B. Activity duration estimated based on the number of labor hours per for cable installation. C. Activity duration estimated based on the square footage in construction D. Activity duration estimated based on the actual duration of a sim previous project.

4. D - Estimated activity duration based on the actual duration of a previous similar project is an instance of analogous estimating. The other three choices are examples of parametric estimating. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Schedule Management]

4. Which of the following PMBOK processes is about using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning? A. Use Project Knowledge B. Create Project Knowledge C. Contribute Project Knowledge D. Manage Project Knowledge

4. D - Manage Project Knowledge is the PMBOK process about using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning. The rest of the choices are not PMBOK processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 98] [Project Scope Management]

4. Establishing control accounts for the work packages and a unique identifier from a code of accounts finalizes the WBS. This provides a structure for hierarchical summation of: A. Schedule and requirements information B. Cost and requirements information C. Cost and resource information D. Scope, budget and schedule information

4. D - The WBS is finalized by establishing control accounts for the work packages and a unique identifier from a code of accounts. This provides a management control point for integrated scope, schedule and cost information.[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Scope Management]

4. A manager asked to see a list of milestones in the project. This would be available as an output from the: A. Sequence Activities process B. Define Scope process C. Estimate Activity Durations process D. Define Activities process

4. D - The milestone list is available as an output from the Define Activities process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 183] [Project Schedule Management]

4. A project was awarded based on a competitive proposal. Management made a commitment that a few key team members would work on the project. When such assignments happen, they are: A. Bargaining agreements B. Schedule constraints C. Assignment risk D. Pre-assignments

4. D - When team members are assigned to projects in advance of the start of the project, they are termed as pre-assignments. Such assignments can happen when resources are promised as part of a competitive proposal, when projects are dependent on critical resources, or if some staff assignments have been defined in the project charter. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 333] [Project Resource Management]

40. You are working as the project manager on a mega-construction project. You need to prepare a quarterly report for the project investors. You need to collect work performance data and convert that into work performance information. Which of the following processes produces work performance data? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Control Schedule C. Control Costs D. Manage Communications

40. A - Although the scenario of the question is broad, the question specifically asks about the process which produces work performance data. In other words, what is being asked is "work performance data" is output of which of the given processes. The correct answer is Direct &

40. While developing your project schedule, you have asked everyone to provide a list of planned vacations over the next three months, and you have applied this information to the tasks that each person is responsible for. What also needs updating? A. Resource Calendars B. Leads C. Schedule Variances D. Lags

40. A - Resource calendars indicate when resources can work on the project. This project document must be updated to reflect the working and nonworking time of the project resources. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 323] [Project Schedule Management]

40. Identification of new risks, reassessment of old risks, and closing of outdated risks are part of the Monitor Risks process. How often should project risk reassessment be scheduled? A. It depends on how the project progresses relative to its objectives. B. Reassessment is necessary at the 50 percent and 75 percent stag project completion. C. Reassessment is necessary at the 25 percent, 50 percent, and 75 per stages of project completion. D. Reassessment is necessary at the 20 percent, 40 percent, 60 percent 80 percent stages of project completion.

40. A - The Monitor Risks process is performed throughout the project. The number of project risk reassessments scheduled depends on the progress of the project relative to its objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453] [Project Risk Management]

40. Which of the following defines the total scope of the project and represents the work specified in the current approved project scope statement? A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) B. Bill of Material (BOM) C. Project Charter D. Requirements Breakdown Structure (RBS)

40. A - The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be performed by the project team. It defines the total scope of the project. It represents the work specified in the currently approved project scope statement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 157] [Project Scope Management]

40. A project was estimated to cost $200,000 with a timeline of 10 months. Due to a shipment delay, the schedule was slightly delayed. However, this was made up by shipping the first batch of materials for the project by air. The net result was that there was some additional cost in the project. At the end of the second month, the Project Manager reviews the project and finds that the project is 20% complete and Actual Costs are $50,000. The Estimate to Complete (ETC) for the project would now be: A. $160,000 B. $210,000 C. $250,000 D. $200,000

40. A - The budget at completion (BAC) = $200,000 (given). The Actual Cost (AC) = $50,000 (given). The Earned value (EV) = (2/10) * 200,000 since 20% of the project is complete; i.e., 2 months out of 10. Hence, Earned Value (EV) = $40,000. This is an instance of an atypical situation in the project. Late arrival of materials does not mean that all subsequent material will arrive late. Hence, the calculation used for EAC is EAC = AC + BAC - EV = 50,000 + 200,000 - 40,000 = $210,000. Since ETC = EAC - AC = 210,000 - 50,000 = $160,000. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

40. Stakeholder identification is a continuous process. Which of the following statements about stakeholders is incorrect? A. Positive stakeholders benefit from the outcome of a project. B. A project manager needs to focus on the positive stakeholders since needs are best served by the project. C. Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in an increased likelihood failure. D. Stakeholders can have conflicting or differing objectives.

40. B - A project manager needs to take into consideration all types of stakeholders, positive and negative. Focusing only on positive stakeholders will increase the probability of failure of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 504-506] [Project Stakeholder Management]

40. You are just starting on a project as project manager. The project sponsor asks you for weekly status updates by email and monthly project status meetings to review the project's progress. These requirements are documented in the: A. Scope statement B. Communications management plan C. Project charter D. Organizational plan

40. B - As part of communications planning, stakeholder communication requirements are gathered and documented in the communications management plan. This forms part of the project management plan.

40. While sequencing activities for a project, the project management team applied certain discretionary dependencies. This was based on their knowledge of best practices within the project application area. What is the potential risk involved in using such dependencies? A. They can create fixed float values and create external dependencies. B. They can create arbitrary float values and limit later scheduling option C. They can create arbitrary float values and create external dependency D. They can create arbitrary float values and create mandatory dependent

40. B - Discretionary dependencies are established based on the knowledge of best practices within a specific application area. This is done to achieve a specific sequence even though there are other options. The risk is that they may cause arbitrary float values and later limit scheduling options because of the specific sequencing chosen. [PMBOK 6th edition,

40. The key difference between Validate Scope and Control Quality is: A. Validate Scope is concerned with meeting the quality standards specifications B. Validate Scope is concerned with the acceptance of deliverables. C. Validate Scope does not apply in projects that have been cancelled. D. Validate Scope can never be performed in parallel with Control Quality

40. B - Validate Scope differs from Control Quality in that Validate Scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of the deliverables, whereas Control Quality is primarily concerned with meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Scope Management]

40. You took over a project from an individual who was fired. You are reading the project documentation and find that five managers signed the project charter. What should be your primary concern at this time? A. Determining reporting structure B. Communicating in a matrix organization C. Getting a single sponsor D. Identifying who can represent the project for change control

40. C - A charter should be issued, signed and updated by the project sponsor. Your immediate concern should be to find a single sponsor for the project. Note, though, that the sponsor can be either a person or a group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 77] [Project Integration Management]

40. If you had an experience with a particularly well or poorly performing vendor, what is the correct way to document this experience for future projects? A. Call the vendor and talk to them about the experience B. Tell all your friends about it C. Create a seller performance evaluation D. Vow to only work with that vendor from now on

40. C - A seller performance evaluation is created by the buyer and provides information about the seller's performance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 501] [Project Procurement Management]

40. Cause-and-Effect diagrams are used to illustrate how various factors might link to potential problems or effects. They are also called: A. Taguchi diagrams B. Pareto diagrams C. Ishikawa diagrams D. Process diagrams

40. C - Cause and Effect diagrams are also called Ishikawa diagrams. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [Project Quality Management]

40. Vendor selection, vendor management, and documentation of lessons learned are tasks that fall under this process: A. Procurement management B. Deliverable management C. Conduct Procurements D. Scope management

40. C - The Conduct Procurements process involves collecting sellers' responses, selecting the seller, and awarding the contract. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 482] [Project Procurement Management]

40. A project manager has scheduled technical training for his or her project team members to increase their skills. During which of the following processes will the team member receive this training? Manage Quality Acquire Resources Develop Team Plan Resource Management

40. C - Training is part of the Develop Team process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 342] [Project Resource Management]

40. Which option is not representative of the inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. PMIS, Project Management Plan, and Deliverables B. Deliverables, Approved Change Requests, and Project Manage Information System C. Approved Change Requests, Validated Changes, and PMIS D. Approved Change Requests, Project Management Plan, and Performance Data

40. C - Validated Changes are not inputs, tools and techniques, or outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 90] [Project Integration Management]

40. During the execution of a project, a large number of defects were discovered. The project manager ensured that the issues, defect resolution, and action item results were logged into a defects database. What would the defect database be considered a part of? A. Expert Judgment B. Deliverables C. Change Requests D. Organizational Process Assets

40. D - Issue and defect management databases are considered part of the organizational process assets. These databases typically contain historical issue and defect status, control information, issue and defect resolution, and action item results. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 39] [Project Framework]

40. A hierarchical structure of project resources organized by category and resource type, used in planning, managing and controlling project work, is: A. Team structure B. Resource Pool C. Organization Breakdown Structure D. Resource Breakdown Structure

40. D - The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of team and physical resources related by category and resource type. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 316] [Project Schedule Management]

40. You are working with your customers on completing deliverables in your electronic parts manufacturing project. Since these parts will be exported to other countries, they will need more testing before your customers accept them. In this scenario, which of the following statements about the completed deliverables is correct? A. Completed deliverables not accepted by customers must be forward the close project or phase process. B. Deliverables formally accepted by customers must be move organizational process assets. C. Deliverables formally accepted by customers are forwarded to the valid scope process. D. Completed deliverables not accepted by customers must require a change request for defect repair.

40. D - Validate Scope is the process of formalizing the acceptance of finished deliverables. In this process, stakeholders or customers give formal acceptance of the completed deliverables. The accepted deliverables are forwarded to the Close Project or Phase process. If there are any completed deliverables that they do not accept, a change request for defect repair must be initiated. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 166] [Project Scope Management]

41. You have a team of engineers working on your project. Two of the engineers have frequent disagreements. You ask them to resolve their differences through a discussion. However, that does not yield any results. Subsequently, you intervene, and based on your analysis of the situation, you suggest some changes in the way they work with each other. This still does not yield results, and you find that the project schedule is beginning to suffer. What is your next course of action? A. Take disciplinary action, if required, since the needs of the project are being met. B. Don't do anything. Differences of opinion among the team members healthy situation. C. Speak to the two team members and ask them to resolve their co amicably. D. Ensure that they work in different shifts so that they don't clash with other.

41. A - After the project manager has tried intervening, it is time to employ more formal conflict resolution mechanisms, such as disciplinary action.

41. Cindy has been working in a manufacturing project as a project manager. This project is intended to produce high-quality semiconductors to use in computers. Since semiconductors are produced from silicon wafers, she contracted a company to provide silicon wafers to the project on an ongoing basis. For unknown reasons, the contractor provided low-quality wafers to the project, compromising the electrical performance of the semiconductors. Overwhelmed by complaints from the computer division, Cindy is now obligated to correct the manufacturing defects to avoid future liabilities. In this scenario, the costs Cindy incurred are: A. External failure costs or Cost of nonconformance B. Appraisal costs or Cost of nonconformance C. Prevention costs or Cost of conformance D. Internal failure costs or Cost of conformance

41. A - In this scenario, Cindy is performing warranty work to correct manufacturing defects. These defects are identified by external customers, and the costs are known as external failure costs. These costs are also known as costs of nonconformance because the product did not meet the quality requirements. The cost of nonconformance is a part of the cost of quality. Therefore, Cindy is incurring external failure costs or costs of nonconformance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 283] [Project Quality Management]

41. As part of Define Activities, you are looking at dependencies used to define the sequence among the activities. Which of these is not a valid type of dependency? A. Linked dependency B. External dependency C. Discretionary dependency D. Mandatory dependency

41. A - Linked dependency is not a valid type of dependency. The other three choices are valid types of dependencies. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 191, 192] [Project Schedule Management]

41. The Conduct Procurements process receives bids or proposals and applies criteria to select one or more sellers who are both qualified and acceptable as a seller. Which of the following techniques is not a valid technique for this process? A. Make-or-buy analysis B. Proposal Evaluation Techniques C. Advertising D. Bidder Conference

41. A - Make-or-buy analysis is not a valid technique in the Conduct Procurements process. The other three choices are valid techniques.

41. Which of the following is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement? A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement C. Manage Communications D. Monitor Communications

41. A - Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523] [Project Stakeholder Management]

41. What BEST describes the role of the project team members? A. To perform the project's work B. To approve the change requests C. To accept ultimate responsibility for the project's success D. To authorize the project

41. A - Project team members are responsible for performing the actual project work. They work with the project manager to complete project activities and achieve the goals of the project. The project manager is assigned by an organization to achieve specific project objectives. While the sponsor authorizes the project, ultimate responsibility for the project's success lies with the project manager and the project sponsor. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 51] [Project Framework]

41. A project has gone out of control, and the project manager is trying to bring it back under control. There have been a number of changes to the project scope. Some of these changes resulted in further changes, causing project cost to spiral upward and causing the project to go out of schedule. This is known as: A. Scope creep B. Scope jump C. Project creep D. Scope control

41. A - Scope creep is the term used to refer to uncontrolled changes in a project's scope. Scope creep can be a project manager's nightmare if not properly managed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168] [Project Scope Management]

41. You are managing a heavy equipment manufacturing project that involves many mechanical, electrical, and IT staff. Your team prepared a schedule network diagram using duration estimates with dependencies and constraints. Your team also calculated the critical path for the project using late and early values. Today, your project office has indicated to you that some of the resources you had planned for the project will be unavailable. To deal with this, you explore the possibility of modifying the schedule to account for limited resources. What is your best possible step in such a situation? A. Recalculate critical path after applying the resource constraints B. Perform Resource Leveling to account for limited resources C. Use crashing or fast tracking to level resources across the project D. Apply leads and lags to develop a viable schedule

41. A - The critical path method is used to prepare a schedule network diagram. A network diagram is prepared initially, and the critical path is then calculated. Availability of resources is entered, and a resource limited schedule is prepared. Hence, recalculating the critical path using the critical path method after applying the resource constraints is the next best step. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

41. The WBS structure can be created in a number of forms except which of the following? A. Using work packages as the second level of decomposition, wit project deliverables inserted at the third level B. Using major deliverables as the second level of decomposition C. Using phases of the project lifecycle as the second level of decompose with the product and project deliverables inserted at the third level D. Using subcomponents, which may be developed by organizations out the project team, such as contracted work

41. A - The work packages are at the lowest level of a WBS. The other statements are correct regarding the structure of the WBS. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 159] [Project Scope Management]

41. When a project is executed under contract, the contractual provisions will generally be considered as _____________ for the project. A. Constraints B. Exclusions C. Deliverables D. Provisions

41. A - When a project is performed under contract, the contractual provisions are generally considered as constraints for the project as they are the limiting factors. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 42] [Project Scope Management]

41. Activity attributes extend the description of the activity by identifying various components associated with the activity. Typically, how many attributes are associated with each activity? A. They should be between five and ten. B. The number of attributes varies by application area. C. They should be fewer than five. D. The number of attributes depends on the activity duration.

41. B - Activity attributes can vary by application area. Components for each activity change over time. Initially they may include activity ID, WBS ID, and activity name. Later, they may include activity codes, activity description, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads, lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 186] [Project Schedule Management]

41. If you are creating a new WBS for your project, what should you do to save time during the creation process? A. Delegate the WBS creation since it is not an important process. B. Skip the WBS process. C. Use a previous WBS from a similar project as a template. D. Create a less detailed WBS.

41. C - Creating the WBS is a very important process, but often a previous WBS can be used as a template to save time and avoid the risk of forgetting something important. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 157] [Project Scope Management]

41. A project post-mortem is an activity, usually performed at the project's conclusion, to determine and analyze a project's outcome which also includes a lessons-learned gathering exercise. Project post-mortems help to mitigate future risks and are often a key component of, and ongoing precursor to, effective risk management. Which of the following is a terrible mistake when collecting lessons learned? A. Documenting both the success stories and the failed attempts B. Calculating project's final statistics C. Focusing purely on the negatives and analyzing failures D. Conducting a comprehensive performance review

41. C - Documenting both the success stories and the failed attempts are important as these can be very important inputs for future projects. Only focusing on the negatives and analyzing failures will paint half of the picture. The best practice is to ask "What went right" when asking "What went wrong?". [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 104] [Project Integration Management]

41. You have identified a risk that will negatively affect your security project. You and your team have decided to use an older encryption technology because of the high risk associated with the new technology. What type of risk strategy are you using? A. Mitigation B. Exploitation C. Avoidance D. Transfer

41. C - In this scenario, you decided to avoid the risk by using an older technology, because the risk of using the new technology is too high. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

41. Which of the following is not an enterprise environmental factor influencing the Develop Project Management Plan process? A. Project management body of knowledge B. Governmental or industry standards C. Project Management Plan template D. Legal and regulatory requirements

41. C - The project management plan template is an organizational process asset. The other choices are valid enterprise environmental factors that influence the Develop Project Management Plan process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 84] [Project Integration Management]

41. You are managing a fund-raising golf tournament that has a hole-in-one contest. However, your company cannot afford to pay the $1,000,000 award if someone does get a hole in one, so it has elected to take out an insurance policy in the event someone does get lucky. This is an example of: A. Sharing B. Mitigation C. Transference D. Avoidance

41. C - The use of insurance to shift the negative impact of a risk—in this case, the payment of $1,000,000—is an example of risk transference. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

41. As part of the Risk Response planning for your project, you are trying to come up with a strategy to deal with negative risks or threats. In order to eliminate the impact of a particular risk, you relax the objective that is in jeopardy by extending the project schedule. This is an example of: A. Transference B. Mitigation C. Avoidance D. Postponement

41. C - This is an example of avoidance. It involves changing the project management plan to "eliminate" the threat posed by an adverse risk, isolating the project objectives from the risk's impacts, or relaxing the objective that is in jeopardy, such as by extending the schedule or reducing scope. Transference involves shifting the negative impact of a threat along with the ownership of the response. Mitigation implies a reduction in the probability and impact of an adverse risk. Postponement is not a valid strategy since it does not address the risk. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

41. The purpose of lessons learned is to bring together any insights gained during a project that can be usefully applied on future projects. When should a project manager ideally commence this activity? A. At the start of project planning B. At the start of project execution C. During the project closure D. From project kickoff meeting

41. D - Manage Project Knowledge is the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning. This process is performed throughout the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 98] [Project Integration Management]

42. Which of these precedence relationships is most commonly used in the Precedence Diagramming Method? A. Finish-to-Start B. Start-to-Finish C. Start-to-Start D. Finish-to-Finish

42. A - Finish-to-Start relationships indicate that the next task is not able to start until the one preceding it is completed. This is the most commonly used type of activity relationship. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Schedule Management]

42. A company is looking for an experienced project manager to manage a large construction project. You meet all the requirements for the position except for one: The organization is looking for a certified PMP with five years of experience, but you have just four years of experience managing similar projects. What is the best way to fill out your application? A. Show how you meet the requirements but include your actual yea experience B. Do not fill out that particular section. C. Explain why years of experience should not matter. D. Since you have plenty of experience, embellish your actual yea experience.

42. A - For project management professionals, honesty is the best policy. You should never mislead others about your experience in the field or your knowledge of the project management processes. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

42. A project manager in a seller organization discovered that certain deliverables had been delivered to the buyer without undergoing proper testing. Recalling the deliverables will result in a cost overrun on the project. What should the project manager do in such a case? A. Recall the deliverables even though there will be a cost overrun. B. Terminate the project. C. Approach management to obtain additional funding to handle the pot cost overrun. D. Wait for the procuring organization to get back with their list of defe the deliverables.

42. A - It is the project manager's primary responsibility to ensure that deliverables are tested and have gone through the process outlined in the project management plan. Hence, the project manager should recall the deliverables, even it involves a cost overrun. Approaching management may be the next step. Terminating the project is not called for, and it will

42. Due to a tight project schedule, a project manager did not document lessons learned throughout the project cycle. However, at the end of the project, he finally documented the lessons learned. Your comment on this is: A. This is not OK. Lessons learned must be documented throughout project as well as at the end of the project. B. This is OK. Lessons learned should be documented at the end of project. C. This is not OK. Lessons learned need to be documented throughout project and must not be done at the project's end. D. This is correct. Lessons learned are intended to be documented only project's end.

42. A - Lessons learned should be documented throughout the project cycle. The Manage Project Knowledge process is an executing process that stresses on this requirement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 98] [Project Integration Management]

42. Which of the following analytical techniques evaluates investment potential considering time-value of money? A. Pareto analysis B. Discounted cash flow C. Earned value management D. Monte Carlo technique

42. B - Discounted cash flow analysis uses future free cash flow projections and discounts them to arrive at a present value estimate, which is used to evaluate the potential for investment. Rest of the choices are incorrect because Pareto analysis is carried out to identify the most significant factors out of many; earned value management is carried out to monitor and control cost of an ongoing project; while the Monte Carlo is a simulation technique used to analyze project risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 473] [Project Integration Management]

42. As an independent consultant, you are working with a project manager of a spacecraft parts manufacturing project to ensure that the team complies with organizational quality policies and procedures. Since parts made in this project must be of high precision and accuracy, you are documenting shortcomings within the processes and procedures to improve the quality for customer acceptance. Which of the following best represents the project management activity you are doing? A. Statistical sampling B. Quality audits C. Quality control D. Inspection

42. B - Ensuring that the project team complies with organizational quality policies and procedures is done in the Manage Quality process. Quality audits are one such technique. A structured review is performed by independent consultants or contractors to identify all shortcomings in carrying out quality policies and procedures. These efforts should be used later to improve product quality and reduce the cost of quality.

42. Rick has just been assigned as the project manager of a project to develop a complex product. The project is in the Define Scope phase. Which of these tools and techniques will Rick not use in this phase? A. Systems analysis B. Process analysis C. Product breakdown D. Value engineering

42. B - Process Analysis is a tool and technique used in the Manage Quality process and not in the Define Scope process. The other choices are valid Product Analysis techniques used during the Define Scope process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 153] [Project Scope Management]

42. You are the Project Manager for the production of an exotic car. You have completed the Define Scope process for your project. Which of the following may be generated through this process? A. Project scope statement, project charter B. Project scope statement, updates to requirements traceability matrix C. WBS, updates to requirements traceability matrix D. Project scope statement, WBS

42. B - The Define Scope process will result in development of the Project Scope statement and updates to project documents such as stakeholder register, requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 150] [Project Scope Management]

42. The Make-or-Buy analysis is a technique used as part of the Plan Procurement Management process. It can determine whether the project team can produce a particular product or service, or if it should be purchased. The analysis to arrive at a decision should include: A. Indirect costs only B. Direct as well as Indirect costs C. Direct costs only D. Staffing costs only

42. B - The analysis should include both indirect as well as direct costs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 473] [Project Procurement Management]

42. You are managing a project that requires an environmental permit to do work. The approval is in the final stages when a confidential, reliable report is brought to your notice. The report indicates there is a high risk of an environmental hazard due to the project. Your manager tells you it is better to keep quiet at this stage since losses from terminating the project might be very high. You must: A. Send an email to your manager documenting the matter and disown ownership of the project B. Inform the necessary authorities of the hazard, even if it means cancel the project C. Wait for the project to start and see if the information in the report is D. Keep quiet about the matter since you will follow your man instructions

42. B - The best option is to inform the necessary authorities about the report so that the right decision can be made, even if it means the project will be cancelled. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

42. A project is contracted on a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) basis. The targeted cost is US$200,000 with a fee of US$30,000. If the project comes in at US$170,000, what would be the total cost of the contract? A. US$ 195,500 B. US$230,000 C. US$ 200,000 D. US$170,000

42. C - In a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) type of contract, the seller is reimbursed for allowable costs and receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the estimated project costs. The fixed fee does not vary with actual costs unless the project scope changes. In the current scenario, the fixed fee is US$30,000. Although the actual project comes in at US$170,000, the fixed fee remains the same. Hence, the total cost of the contract will be 170,000 + 30,000 = 200,000. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

42. What does a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of more than 1.0 indicate? A. The project is over budget. B. The project is right on budget. C. The project is under budget. D. The project is ahead of schedule.

42. C - The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost. An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

42. You are working as a project manager for a high-yield crop development project. Data from the weather agency shows an unfavorable weather pattern for the next few months. As a senior project manager, you want to assess the schedule's feasibility under adverse conditions and provide some insights to your team. That way, your team can prepare some reserves and plan risk responses if unfavorable conditions exist during execution. Which of the following techniques should you use to simulate risks and other sources of uncertainty to calculate possible schedule outcomes? A. Pareto charts B. Variance analysis C. Crashing D. Monte Carlo analysis

42. D - Modeling techniques are used to prepare a schedule under various scenarios. These techniques help assess the feasibility of the project schedule if adverse conditions exist. The Monte Carlo technique employs simulation to calculate multiple project durations, each with a different set of activity assumptions using a probability distribution. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 213] [Project Schedule Management]

42. Nate is the project manager for a research and development project. According to the project communication management plan, Nate has to call in weekly project progress update meetings. The last few meetings were a disaster since more time was spent in arguments and less on decisions. Which of the following techniques does Nate need to quickly acquire? A. Presentation techniques B. Listening techniques C. Writing style D. Meeting management techniques

42. D - Nate needs to acquire meeting management skills that includes preparing agenda, timekeeping, dealing with conflicts, and recording and distributing minutes etc. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 386] [Project Communications Management]

42. Mary is managing an organizational transformation project. The nature of the project would require responding to high levels of change and would also require continuous stakeholder engagement. Which of the project lifecycles should be chosen for this project? A. Predictive life cycle B. Plan-driven life cycle C. Waterfall life cycle D. Adaptive life cycle

42. D - Projects with adaptive life cycles are intended to respond to high levels of change and require ongoing stakeholder engagement. All other choices are predictive life cycles which are designed to be plan driven rather than being change driven. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Risk Management]

42. A project manager is currently ensuring that the stakeholders clearly understand the project goals, objectives, benefits, and risks. This relates to which of the following processes? A. Control Stakeholder B. Identify Stakeholders C. Plan Communications Management D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

42. D - The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process involves ensuring that the stakeholders clearly understand the project goals, objectives, benefits and risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 524] [Project Stakeholder Management]

42. What is the MAIN reason for controlling the project scope? A. To enable scope creep B. To prevent changes from affecting the project C. To ensure timely closure of the project D. Preventing scope creep

42. D - The main reason for controlling the project scope is to deal with the impact of changes on the project. This is done by managing approved changes and disregarding rejected changes. This reduces the risk of scope creep on the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168] [Project Scope Management]

42. You are the project manager responsible for building a 100,000-squarefoot data center. One of the scheduled activities in your plan is to install the Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units. However, a raised floor must be installed in the data center before installation of the units can begin. This is an example of what type of precedence relationship? A. Finish to Finish B. Start to Finish C. Start to Start D. Finish to Start

42. D - The successor activity, in this case the installation of the CRAC units, cannot begin until the raised floor in the data center is completed (because the units need to sit on the raised floor). Therefore, this is an example of a finish-to-start relationship. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190]

43. Which of the following statements is correct? A. A collection of unrelated programs can constitute a portfolio. B. The scope of a portfolio is typically smaller than that of a program. C. A program is a group of unrelated projects. D. A program need not consist of projects.

43. A - A portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs that are grouped together to facilitate their effective management. The projects or programs need not be directly related or interdependent. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 13] [Project Framework]

43. Joe has been managing a project for Exton Oil Corp. This project involves redesigning filling stations across the state. The redesign involves new gas pumps, security cameras, convenience stores, and use of environmentally friendly materials in the construction. While the redesigning work proceeds, Joe's design engineer suggests a secondary alarm system for gas pumps to alert the attendant in case of a spill. Although this suggestion is not in the project requirements, Joe is impressed with the engineer's recommendation. What should be the next step for Joe with regard to the engineer's suggestion? A. Initiate the formal change control process to find the impact of recommendation B. Approve his recommendation and allocate resources and funds C. Create an issue log to document the engineer's suggestion for future D. Reject his recommendation as it requires additional funding

43. A - Change requests should always be recorded in written form and entered in the change management system to determine the impact of the change on the scope, budget, schedule and quality. Thus, Joe must initiate the formal change control process. After approval from the change control board, Joe can allocate resources and funds to implementing the change. Hence, Joe must initiate the change first. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113]

43. You have been managing a research project to create genetically modified fruits using genetic engineering techniques. Since many legal issues are involved in this process, you created contingency allowances by using various quantitative analysis methods to account for cost uncertainty. You have just concluded a brainstorming session with your team in the execution phase to monitor risks that have developed in the project over the past few weeks and to establish new risk response plans. What should you do if you want to allocate more contingency reserves to account for new risks? A. Perform the reserve analysis to compare the amount of contingent reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining B. Perform Monte Carlo analysis to compare the amount of contingent reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining C. Perform the variance and trend analysis to compare planned results actual results D. Perform the quantitative risk analysis to determine the outstanding risks

43. A - Many risks may develop over the course of any project. Project managers must monitor those risks and plan risk responses. The reserve analysis is used as a tool in the Monitor Risks process. This technique is used to compare the amount of contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining throughout the execution of the project. Hence, you must conduct a reserve analysis first to decide on the contingency allowances. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 456] [Project Risk Management]

43. A project manager is trying to budget time for the various processes in the Project Schedule Management Knowledge Area. As project activities are performed, in which of these processes will the majority of effort occur? A. Control Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Define Activities D. Develop Schedule

43. A - Project Schedule Management has five planning processes and one monitoring and controlling process. As project activities are being performed (the project is in execution), the majority of effort in the Project Schedule Management Knowledge Area will occur in the Control Schedule process to ensure completion of project work in a timely manner. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25]

43. The output of the Validate Scope process is accepted deliverables that are formally signed off by the stakeholders. The stakeholders, on some projects, can get involved with the project as early as: A. During the project initiation B. During the project planning C. During the project execution D. During the project monitoring & controlling

43. A - The stakeholders may get involved as early as project initiation to provide inputs about required quality of deliverables so that Control Quality can assess the performance and recommend necessary changes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Resource Management]

43. A project is contracted on a Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF) basis. The contract states that if the final costs are less than expected costs, the sharing formula for cost savings is 80:20. The targeted cost is US$500,000 with a 10 percent fee. If the project comes in at US$450,000, what would be the total cost of the contract? A. US$495,000 B. US$510,000 C. US$505,000 D. US$550,000

43. B - In a Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF) type of contract, the seller is reimbursed for allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a predetermined fee. In some cases, if the final costs are less than the expected costs, then both the buyer and the seller benefit from the cost saving based on a pre-negotiated sharing formula. In the current situation, the predetermined fee is 10% of US$500,000 = US$50,000. Since the project came in at US$450,000, the cost saving is 500,000 450,000 = 50,000. The sharing formula is 80:20, hence the additional payout to the seller = (20/100)*50,000 = 10,000. Therefore, the total cost of the contract = 450,000 + 50,000 + 10,000 = US$510,000. [PMBOK

43. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is a quick way to prioritize how a project team will respond to risks. It is based on risk _________________ and _________________. A. Probability, exposure B. Probability, impact C. Probability, focus D. Exposure, cost

43. B - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is usually a rapid and cost effective means of establishing priorities for the Plan Risk Responses process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 419] [Project Risk Management]

43. All the following activities are performed in the Close Project or Phase process except: A. Activities that fulfill the exit criteria of the project B. Sending the deliverables to the customer for acceptance C. Activities that are needed to transfer the completed products to opera D. Documenting the reasons for terminating the projects early

43. B - Sending the deliverables to the customer for acceptance is an activity of the Validate Scope process. The other choices are activities related to the Close Project or Phase process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 123] [Project Integration Management]

43. The Manage Team process is part of what process group? A. Planning B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Closing

43. B - The Manage Team process is part of the Executing process group. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Resource Management]

43. Teams go through various stages of development. According to the Tuckman ladder of development, the stage during which the least amount of work gets done is usually the: A. Storming phase B. Forming phase C. Norming phase D. Performing phase

43. B - The forming phase is the phase where the team gets to know each other and learns about the project. Teams are usually on their "best behavior" and little tangible work gets accomplished. The project manager needs to guide the team and move them through this phase into the performing phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 338] [Project Resource Management]

43. The source selection criteria for all procurements in a project is developed during which of the following processes? A. Control Procurements B. Plan Procurement Management C. Conduct Procurements D. Monitor and Control Project Work

43. B - The source selection criteria is an output of the Plan Procurement Management process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 466] [Project Procurement Management]

43. A project manager is preparing the WBS for a software project. The WBS includes all the product and project work but excludes the project management work. From the following choices, choose a statement that correctly describes this situation. A. This is incorrect. Include product work and project management as p the WBS but exclude project work. B. This is incorrect. Project work and project management are part of WBS, but product work is not. C. This is incorrect. Include product work, project work, and p management work. D. This is correct. Include product and project work as part of the WB exclude project management work.

43. C - The WBS is a deliverable-oriented decomposition of all the work to be done by the project team to achieve project objectives. It organizes and defines the total scope of the project. Thus, it includes product work, project work and the project management work required to complete the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 159] [Project Scope Management]

43. Which of the following is not true about the WBS? A. The project team must be involved in developing the WBS. B. The WBS must represent all product and project work. C. WBS should focus on activities rather than deliverables. D. WBS is usually represented in a hierarchical fashion.

43. C - The WBS puts a greater focus on deliverables than on actual activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 156] [Project Scope Management]

43. What is the logical sequence of the Project Scope Management processes? A. Create WBS, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Validate Scope Control Scope B. Define Scope, Collect Requirements, Create WBS, Validate Scope Control Scope C. Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, C WBS, Validate Scope, and Control Scope D. Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Validate Scope, Create WBS, and Control Scope

43. C - The logical sequence of the six scope management processes is: Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Validate Scope and Control Scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] [Project Scope Management]

43. Crashing is an effective schedule compression technique at times when a project is struggling behind schedule. However, increasing the number of resources to twice the original number of the resources does not always cut the time by half. This is due to: A. Fast tracking the project B. Risk mitigation due to crashing the project C. The law of diminishing returns D. Critical path analysis

43. C - When one factor used to determine the effort required to produce a unit of work is increased while all other factors remain fixed, a point will eventually be reached at which additions of that one factor start to yield progressively decreased productivity. This is commonly known as the law of diminishing returns. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 197] [Project Procurement Management]

43. While developing the project schedule, you find that the completion of a successor activity depends on the completion of its predecessor activity. What is this dependency called? A. Start-to-Finish B. Start-to-Start C. Finish-to-Start D. Finish-to-Finish

43. D - In a Finish-to-Finish dependency, the completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of its predecessor activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Schedule Management]

43. Which of the following techniques used in adaptive lifecycles helps in minimizing scope creep? A. User stories B. User epics C. Iterations D. Time-boxing

43. D - Time-boxed periods are durations during which the team works steadily toward completion of a goal. Time-boxing helps to minimize scope creep as it forces the teams to process essential features first, then other features when time permits. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 182] [Project Framework]

43. A Work Breakdown Structure is a hierarchical illustration of all the work to be done in a project. A WBS component does not represent: A. Products B. Results C. Services D. Project activities

43. D - Upper level WBS components are decomposed into more easily managed elements and can be process- or product-oriented. The lowest level of the WBS is the work packages. The project activities are obtained by further decomposing the work packages. The activities become a part of the project schedule and not the WBS. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 156] [Project Scope Management]

44. A project manager is estimating the project duration and finds that the only information available to him is a previous project that was quite different from the current one. However, some portions of the previous project were similar to the current one. Which of the following tools is the project manager likely to use to compare current project's activity durations with the similar previous activities? A. Analogous estimating B. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) C. Three-point estimates D. Parametric estimating

44. A - Analogous duration estimating is used when there is limited information available about a project. This is especially true in the early phases of a project. In such instances, a previous similar project is used as a basis for estimating. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Schedule Management]

44. Which strategy attempts to reduce the probability and the impact of a risk to the point where the risk is acceptable? A. Mitigation B. Avoidance C. Acceptance D. Transfer

44. A - Risk mitigation is a strategy that seeks to reduce the risk to a level that the risk becomes acceptable. A Project Manager may add specific project tasks to the work of a project to reduce the level of risk. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

44. An effective quality audit should be: A. Structured and independent B. Informal and independent C. Informal and internal D. Structured and internal

44. A - To provide the best results, a quality audit should be a structured process performed by an independent entity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

44. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Developing a project team is the responsibility of the project manage B. A project manager must not acquire resources needed to develop effect project teams. C. High team performance can be achieved using open and effect communications. D. Teamwork is a critical success factor for a project.

44. B - Although project team development is the responsibility of the project manager, the project manager may acquire experts needed to develop effective project teams. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 328] [Project Resource Management]

44. Analysis of the scope performance resulted in a change request to the scope baseline. Change requests can include all the following except: A. Defect repair B. Supportive action C. Corrective action D. Preventive action

44. B - Change requests can include preventive or corrective actions and defect repairs. Supportive action is not a valid choice. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96]

44. A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is designing appears too gaudy and decides to change it to a mellowed down color scheme. The customer approved the original color scheme and the color palette. The independent testing team flags this as a defect, and a heated discussion ensues between the team member and the testing team. What is your view? A. The testing team is incorrect in flagging this as a defect. This example of expert judgment when historical expertise is brought in project. B. The testing team is correct. Even though the new color scheme is pleasing than the old one, the appropriate change management process was not followed, and the work product is not as per design. C. The testing team is not right in flagging this. The color scheme is a s matter, and the new colors are definitely more pleasing than the old o D. The testing team is correct in flagging this. The team member should sent a note along with the work product indicating he or she mad color scheme change.

44. B - The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [Project Scope Management]

44. A project manager was assigned to a project when the project charter was in development. Which of the following is an input that the project manager will use to develop the project charter? A. Make-or-Buy analysis B. Organizational Process Assets C. Project Acceptance Criteria D. Project Scope Statement

44. B - When developing the project charter, the project manager can draw on the assets that are part of the organizational process assets. There may be formal or informal policies, procedures, plans, and guidelines whose effects must be considered. Organizational process assets also represent the organization's learning from previous projects such as completed schedules, risk data, and earned value data. These are invaluable in developing the project charter. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75] [Project Integration Management]

44. Work Performance Information is not an output of which of the following processes? A. Validate Scope B. Manage Communications C. Monitor Risks D. Control Scope

44. B - Work Performance information is not an output of the Manage Communications Process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Risk Management]

44. In a small office construction project, the following activities are scheduled in sequence. is) Digging and pouring footings: five days. ii) Working on the slab and pouring: three days. iii) Framing the floor: five days. iv) Wall framing: four days. v) Roof framing: six days. vi) Insulation and drywall: seven days. vii) Interior doors and trim: three days. viii) Hardware and fixtures: two days. What is the minimum time to complete the project if all activities are on a critical path except activity viii, and activity iii is delayed by one day? A. 32 days B. 33 days C. 34 days D. 35 days

44. C - A critical path has a zero total float. This means that any delay in the critical path activity delays the project finish date. In other words, the critical path gives the minimum time required to complete a project. In this case, adding the durations for all critical path activities gives the minimum time required as 33 days. If activity iii is delayed by one day, then the minimum time required to complete the project will also be delayed by one day, so the minimum time becomes 34 days. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

44. As part of earned value management (EVM), a project manager is calculating the to-complete performance index (TCPI) based on EAC. The data he has is as follows: The budget at completion for the project is $100,000. The earned value for the project is $25,000. The actual costs to date are $40,000, and the estimate at completion is $115,000. What is the TCPI that he will get? A. 1.1 B. 0.9 C. 1 D. 0

44. C - TCPI based on EAC = (BAC - EV)/(EAC - AC) = (100000 25000)/(115000 - 40000) = 75000/75000 = 1. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

44. Which of the following structures helps track project costs and can align with the organization's accounting system? A. Project breakdown structure (PBS) B. Matrix breakdown structure (MBS) C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) D. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

44. C - The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) provides the framework for the cost management plan. The WBS contains control accounts, which link directly to the performing organization's accounting system. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 239] [Project Cost Management]

44. You have a project in which you are responsible for building a condo complex in a resort town. The project is expected to take two years to complete. During your work breakdown structure meeting, you have decomposed many deliverables into work packages and schedule activities. However, there are some work packages that will occur a year from now, so you have elected not to decompose those deliverables and work packages at this time. This is an example of what tool or technique? A. Scope Creep B. Poor Planning C. Rolling Wave Planning D. Time-delayed Decomposition

44. C - The correct answer is rolling wave planning. Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration and is used when the project management team does not have enough information for a phase or deliverable that will occur far into the future. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 160] [Project Scope Management]

44. When are risk identification activities performed? A. During the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process B. During the Plan Risk Management process C. During the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process D. Ongoing throughout the project

44. D - Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks can affect the project. Many different stakeholders usually participate in the Identify Risks process. The process of Identify Risks is iterative because unknown risks can be discovered throughout the life cycle of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] [Project Risk Management]

44. A project is contracted on a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) basis with a fee of 10 percent of estimated costs. The estimated cost is US$50,000. If the project comes in at US$75,000 with no changes in project scope, what would be the total cost of the contract? A. US$55,000 B. US$125,000 C. US$75,000 D. US$80,000

44. D - In the Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) type of contract, the seller is reimbursed for allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a fee calculated as an agreed-upon percentage of the costs. The costs vary depending on the actual cost. The fee is based on estimated costs unless the scope of the project changes. For the current project, the agreed-upon percentage of costs is 10%. The actual cost is US$75,000 even though the initial estimate was US$50,000. However, the fee is calculated as 10% of 50,000 = (10/100)*50,000 = 5,000. The total cost of

44. Which of the following is accurate regarding the Estimate Activity Resources process? A. It produces project resource calendars as the output. B. It determines dependencies that may require a lead or lag to define relationship. C. This process is coordinated independent of the Estimate Cost process D. It involves determining what and how many resources to use.

44. D - The Estimate Activity Resources process determines what and how many resources will be used. This process is closely coordinated with the Estimate Costs process. Activity leads and lags are not determined during this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 320] [Project Schedule Management]

44. Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process? A. Mind mapping B. Interviews C. Questionnaires D. Traceability matrix

44. D - The requirements traceability matrix is an output of the Collect Requirements process and not one of its tools and techniques. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 138] [Project Scope Management]

44. Breaking down project activities into smaller components in order to obtain a more accurate cost estimate and then aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components is: A. Work breakdown structure B. Analogous estimating C. Decomposition D. Bottom-up estimating

44. D - This is an example of bottom-up estimating. When an activity is complex and cannot be accurately estimated, it is broken down into smaller components for estimation. These individual component estimates are then summed up to obtain the cost estimate of the activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 202] [Project Cost Management]

44. Your project team has recently identified a risk in the software development project and decided not to change the project management plan to deal with the risk. The risk response strategy that your team used in this scenario is an example of: A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Avoid D. Acceptance

44. D - When risks cannot be handled or managed in a project, it is advisable to accept them. In this scenario, your team is unable to devise a suitable response strategy. Hence, risk acceptance is the correct strategy to employ. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

45. Lucy has recently been assigned as the project manager for a new shopping mall construction project. Since the project will span well over five years, Lucy is a bit hesitant to use the current market rates for estimating construction materials cost. The prices have been steadily increasing and the current market rates might not remain valid in the future. Which of the following techniques can Lucy apply to determine her project budget? A. Conduct a trend analysis on the cost of materials and use the extrapolate the cost of materials in the future. B. Determine the cost of the project using current market rates and include the total budget by some factor. C. Compute the Net Present Value of the cost of materials and use the determine the project budget. D. Use Rolling Wave Planning to determine the budget as the p progresses.

45. A - Conduct a trend analysis on the cost of materials and using that to extrapolate the cost of materials in the future is the best response. Trend analysis is used to forecast future based on past results. This is most probably the only choice available to Lucy if she is required to determine the project budget today. Other choices are incorrect as they can't produce better results. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 111]

45. How can changes be made to a project management plan once the project manager baselines it? A. By generating a change request and having it approved through Perform Integrated Change Control process. B. This is typically done by using a version control system. The p manager creates a new version with the changes and baselines it a new baseline. C. This is done by maintaining a revision history or log. The project ma documents the changes in detail and then baselines it. D. A project management plan cannot be changed once it is baselined addendum has to be created to incorporate the changes.

45. A - Once the project management plan has been baselined, it may be changed only when a change request is generated and approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. To keep track of changes, a version control system or a revision log will also be maintained. However, the changed version can be baselined only after approval. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Integration Management]

45. Bill is the project manager of a software project that was originally estimated to be completed in 12 months. Two months into the project, it is A. EAC = AC + Bottom-up ETC B. EAC = BAC/CPI C. EAC = AC + [BAC - EV]/CPI D. EAC = AC + BAC - EV

45. A - The correct response is: EAC = AC + Bottom-up ETC, where AC stands for the Actual Cost and ETC stands for the Estimate to Complete. ETC based on a new estimate must be used because the original assumptions were fundamentally flawed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

45. Which of the following is neither an input to nor an output of the Develop Project Charter process? A. A project charter B. Expert Judgment C. A business case D. Benefits management plan

45. B - A project statement of work and a business case are inputs to the Develop Project Charter process. A project charter is an output of the Develop Project Charter process. Expert judgement is a tool and technique of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75] [Project Integration Management]

45. A senior project manager advises a first-time project manager that identifying risks is just one step. On a continuing basis, new risks need to be identified, and existing risks need to be analyzed and tracked, and their status reported. All this is done as part of what process? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Plan Risk Management

45. B - Identifying new risks and analyzing, tracking, and monitoring existing project risks are done in the Monitor and Control Project Work process. This process also makes sure that the status of the risks is properly reported, and appropriate risk response plans are executed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 107] [Project Integration Management]

45. The business case to justify a project typically contains: A. The project's BAC and ETC B. Identification of alternatives C. Project WBS D. Variance Analysis

45. B - The business case for any project includes the analysis of the situation, recommended solution and Identification of alternative solutions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 31] [Project Integration Management]

45. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists? A. They are biased. B. They are not exhaustive. C. They are often inaccurate. D. They are easy to prepare.

45. B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios in one checklist. [PMBOK 5th edition, Page 414] [Project Risk Management]

45. What is the traditional way to display a reporting structure among project team members? A. Text-oriented role description B. Flowchart C. Project organization charts D. Matrix-based responsibility chart

45. C - A hierarchical-type organization chart can clearly show roles and reporting relationships within a team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 319] [Project Resource Management]

45. You are an experienced project manager and have managed several data center migration projects. You are currently conducting training on the databases, spreadsheets, and management plans you will use during the lifecycle of the project. This training is a tool and technique in what process? A. Manage Team B. Acquire Resources C. Develop Team D. Control Quality

45. C - Any type of training that is conducted—formal, on the job, computer-based, etc.—is a tool and technique in the Develop Team process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 336] [Project Resource Management]

45. Creating a sense of community is a benefit of what type of strategy? A. Group-based management B. Hoteling C. Co-location D. Virtual teams

45. C - Co-location involves placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to improve their ability to perform as a team. Co-location strategy can include a team meeting room, places to post schedules, and other conveniences that enhance communication and a sense of community. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 340] [Project Resource Management]

45. During the Conduct Procurements process, the procuring organization found that there were significant differences in pricing by different sellers. What is the best course of action in such a scenario? A. Award the project to a supplier who is already on the proc organization's preferred supplier list. B. Cancel the procurement activity. C. Investigate whether the procurement statement of work was defective ambiguous. D. Award the project to the highest bidder.

45. C - If there are significant differences in pricing by sellers, it usually indicates that either the procurement statement of work was defective or ambiguous or that the sellers misunderstood or failed to respond completely to the procurement statement of work. In such instances, an investigation needs to be launched to understand the reasons for the differences in pricing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 479] [Project Procurement Management]

45. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work the project team will execute to accomplish the project objectives and create required deliverables. The Create WBS process falls under which knowledge area? A. Project Schedule Management B. Project Integration Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Cost Management

45. C - The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create required deliverables. The Create WBS process falls under the Project Scope Management knowledge area. The WBS subdivides the project into smaller, more manageable pieces of work, with each descending level of the WBS representing an increasingly detailed definition of the project work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Scope Management]

45. You are a project manager for Groceries 'R' Us, a supermarket chain, and are currently working on a project to build a new outlet. The planned values (PV) for the foundation and the frame were $150,000 and $500,000. After five months, you do a performance measurement analysis. You are currently not ahead of schedule. The actual costs for the foundation and frame were $175,000 and $650,000. At this point, 100 percent of the foundation is complete, and only 80 percent of the frame is complete. Which value represents the cost performance index (CPI) to two decimal places at this point in the project? A. 0.84 B. 1.5 C. 0.67 D. 1.19

45. C - We calculate the total actual cost by adding the $175,000 and $650,000 for the foundation and frame. The total actual cost is $825,000. Now we calculate earned value (EV). We need to identify all of the activities that have been completed or partially completed as of the measurement date. If partially completed, we calculate the fractional value of the budgeted cost for the activity by the percent completed. Add up the budgeted costs for completed or partially completed work activities including any work that has been performed ahead of schedule. We are told that we are not ahead of schedule, so there is no budgeted cost to include for that. 100% of the foundation is complete, and only 80% of the frame is complete. Therefore, we add 100% of $150,000 and 80% of 500,000 (which is $400,000) to get a total EV of $550,000. Now find the CPI by dividing the total EV by the total actual cost for the same time period. The result for CPI is $550,000/$825,000 or 0.67. [PMBOK

45. One key characteristic of adaptive lifecycles, such as the agile approach for product development, is that product features are developed using: A. Sandwiched periods of effort B. Squeezed periods of zero-error sprints C. Reverse engineered products D. Time-boxed periods of work

45. D - In adaptive life cycles, the requirements are documented in user stories that are then prioritized and refined. The product features are developed using time-boxed periods of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Communications Management]

45. Daniel is managing the development of an e-commerce website for his organization. Daniel enjoys coercive powers. He has assigned Julie, a project team member, to facilitate the team meetings. During any team meeting, Julie must: A. Influence team members to support the project manager's decisions B. Support the team members to challenge the project manager's decision C. Negotiate with team members to achieve the project objectives D. Remain neutral and conduct the meetings

45. D - Since the project manager enjoys coercive powers, it seems likely that he has assigned a neutral facilitator to facilitate the team meetings. Facilitation is a management skill. A good facilitator should always remain neutral in a meeting and help facilitate consensus when required. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 80] [Project Stakeholder Management]

45. During the execution of a project, the project manager discovers the project's stakeholder register is no longer accurate. What should the project manager do? A. The project is in execution, the stakeholder register cannot be updated this stage. B. A change request should be issued. C. The project is in execution, the Identify Stakeholders process cannot carried out at this stage. D. Review the stakeholder register and carry out the Identify Stakeholding process.

45. D - The Identify Stakeholders process is an iterative process. During any stage of the project, if the stakeholder register is found to be out of date, it must be updated. The stakeholder register is not a part of any of the project's baselines. Updating the stakeholder register does not require issuing a change request. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 507]

46. Projects are often started as a result of an external factor such as market demand for a new product, a new legislative or regulatory mandate, or a change in technology. This results in the creation of ______ by an entity or organization external to the project. A. The project charter B. The WBS C. The project budget D. The RACI chart

46. A - A project initiator or sponsor external to the project, at a level that is appropriate to funding the project, issues the project charter in response

46. In a ship design project, a project manager is in the process of negotiating with a consulting company to ensure that the project receives certified and specialized consultants for creating the hull design. The project manager wants to make certain that the consultants will be able to work until their assignments are completed. He is using all his negotiation skills and interpersonal skills to get competent staff on time. Based on the scenario described above, the project manager is engaged in: A. Acquire Resources process B. Resource Leveling process C. Plan Resource Management process D. Manage Team process

46. A - Negotiation skills are used by project managers throughout the project. In this scenario, the project manager is negotiating with vendors to get talented consultants in sufficient number within the scheduled time. This process ensures the availability of scarce resources during critical phases of the project. This effort is done during the Acquire Resources process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 328] [Project Resource Management]

46. A project manager wishes to illustrate the connections between the work that needs to be done and the project team members. According to the PMBOK, the resulting document is a: A. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) B. Resource Planning Chart (RPC) C. Task Assignment Model (TAM) D. Resource Assignment Chart (RAC)

46. A - The correct response is Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM). This illustrates the connections between the work that needs to be done and the various team members. On larger projects, RAMs can be developed at various levels. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317] [Project Resource Management]

46. A project manager has decided to use a decision tree to do a build or upgrade analysis. The build requires an investment of $200M. On the build decision branch, there is a 60 percent probability of strong demand (yielding a revenue of $400M) and a 40 percent probability of weak demand (yielding a revenue of $150M). What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of the build? A. $100M B. $300M C. $140M D. $200M

46. A - The payoff for the strong demand scenario is $400M - $200M = $200M (since the initial investment is $200M). The payoff for the weak demand scenario is $150M - $200M = - $50M. Therefore, the EMV is computed as: (0.6 * 200) + (0.4 * -50), where 0.6 represents the 60% probability of the strong demand scenario and 0.4 represents the 40% probability of the weak demand scenario. 120 - 20 = 100. Therefore, the expected monetary value is $100M. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

46. Dave, a first-time project manager, was of the opinion that all training activities need to be planned. He discussed this with an experienced project manager who understood that some training was necessarily unplanned. Which of the following are good candidates for unplanned training? A. Training by observation, conversation, and project management appr B. Training by mentoring, on-the-job training, and online courses C. Training by conversation, coaching, and classroom training D. Training by mentoring, observation, and coaching

46. A - Unplanned training takes place in a number of ways that include observation, conversation, and project management appraisals conducted during the controlling process of managing the project's team. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 342] [Project Resource Management]

46. Analogous Cost Estimating is which of the following? A. Uses statistical relationship between historical data and other variable B. Generally less accurate C. Bottom-up estimating D. Generally accurate

46. B - Analogous cost estimating is usually deemed less accurate than other methods of estimation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Cost Management]

46. The morale of the team members of a project is very low. The team members feel they were not given opportunities to participate in the organizational team development activities due to over-allocation to project tasks, and so, they missed opportunities to develop. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation? A. Use of zero-sum rewards in the project B. A poorly defined resource calendar C. Too many senior team members D. Poor interpersonal skills in the team

46. B - Resource calendars identify times when the project team members can participate in team development activities. If the team members are unable to find time for such activities because they are over allocated, it is likely that the calendar has been poorly planned. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 323] [Project Resource Management]

46. Which of the following is not a Risk Diagramming technique? A. Influence diagrams B. Control charts C. Decision trees D. Tornado diagram

46. B - The business case for any project includes the analysis of the situation, recommended solution and Identification of alternative solutions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 31] [Project Risk Management]

46. As an external vendor, you are managing a complex software project on a time-and-materials (T&M) contract. One of your team members reports a breakthrough in automating some of the testing activities. This may result in cost savings to the project and completion of the project one month ahead of schedule. Which of the following actions would you take? A. This is confidential information within your project team and there need to share with the customer. The savings will be additional prof the project. B. Communicate the current status and inform the customer you incorporate some additional features to use up the savings in cost and since it was budgeted. C. Communicate the current status to the customer and indicate the pot changes to cost and schedule. D. Communicate the savings in cost and time to the customer. At the e the project, notify your billing department that they need to prepare invoice for 50 percent of the cost saved.

46. C - A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to determine how the savings could be best put to use, whether there could be any cost sharing, etc.—but these would need to be done following the appropriate procedure. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Project Framework]

46. How would you calculate your EAC if the ETC work is performed at the budgeted rate? A. EAC = BAC/CPI B. EAC= BAC-EV C. EAC = AC + BAC - EV D. EAC=(BAC-EV)*CPI

46. C - If the remaining project work is expected to be performed at the budgeted rate, then the formula for EAC is AC + (BAC - EV), where AC is the Actual Cost, BAC is the Budget at Completion, and EV is the

46. You are attempting to estimate the resources required to assemble the server racks in the new data center you are building. It has occurred to you that you may be able to compress the schedule if you use power tools instead of hand tools to build the racks and if you employ individuals who have worked on this brand of rack in the past. According to PMBOK, considering multiple options for estimating is an example of what type of resource estimating technique? A. Top Down Estimating B. Bottom Up Estimating C. Alternative Analysis D. Robust estimating

46. C - In this scenario, you are looking for alternative ways to compress the schedule by using experienced resources and power tools instead of hand tools. This is an example of alternative analysis. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 699] [Project Schedule Management]

46. Gene is the project manager of a large highway expansion project. He has a number of stakeholders with competing priorities and agendas, and he often has to resolve conflicts among stakeholders. Which knowledge area manages communications with the project stakeholders? A. Project Quality Management B. Project Stakeholder Management C. Project Communications Management D. Project Resource Management

46. C - Manage Communications is the process of producing and distributing project information to the project stakeholders. This process is a part of the Project Communications Management knowledge area. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 25] [Project Communications Management]

46. You are new to project management, but you have been managing a small project successfully. Now, management has given you another project to manage, something you are excited about. However, the new project is growing exponentially every day. You have also learned that a project manager you work with managed a similar project last year. What should you do? A. Wait to see if the scope of the project continues to grow B. Get the project assigned to the PM who managed the similar project C. Obtain historical records and get guidance from the project manager D. Speak to the other project manager to develop your project plans

46. C - The historical records will give you an understanding of the prior project; however, you should also obtain guidance from the project manager. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 58] [Project Integration Management]

46. You are managing an oil-drilling project. With oil at $143 per barrel, this could be a highly lucrative project. However, there is a chance that the price of oil will drop below $105 per barrel, which would eliminate the profit in the project. This is an example of: A. Requirement B. Assumption C. Risk D. Constraint

46. C - The uncertainty of the oil price is a project risk, which can positively or negatively affect the project. The rest of the choices are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 397] [Project Risk Management]

46. A project manager prepared quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete a project and produced activity cost estimates. He or she also prepared some supporting detail for these estimates. Which of the following would not be a supporting detail for cost estimates? A. Indication of the range of possible estimates (ex: $5,000 +/- 5%) B. Indication of the confidence level of the final estimate (ex: 90 percent C. Documentation of the basis of the estimates D. Indication of the profit margin that can be expected on the project

46. D - Indication of the profit margin that can be achieved on the project is not a supporting detail for cost estimates. The focus of the Estimate Costs process is to perform a quantitative assessment of all costs that are probably required to accomplish the project work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 247]

46. Miranda is an experienced project manager. As part of the Collect Requirements phase, she decides to use a group creativity technique. This technique is intended to enhance brainstorming with a voting process and can be used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or prioritization. Which of the following will she likely use? A. Normal group technique B. Minimal group technique C. Unanimous group technique D. Nominal group technique

46. D - Miranda likely intends to use the Nominal group technique. This enhances brainstorming with a voting process to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or prioritization. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144] [Project Scope Management]

46. Kevin is assigned to a software development project that will start in the near future and is currently tailoring the PMBOK processes to satisfy the project's specific needs. Kevin wants to introduce a new process, "Identify Key Deliverables", to the existing six project scope management processes. Although he understands that project deliverables identification is already in the PMBOK scope management processes, he believes that having a dedicated process will stress the importance of determining and agreeing to key project deliverables. The best position for the new "Identify Key Deliverables" process should be between which of the following two processes? A. Define Scope and Create WBS B. Create WBS and Validate Scope C. Plan Scope Management and Collect Requirements D. Collect Requirements and Define Scope

46. D - The identification of key project deliverables can only be done once the project requirements are collected, analyzed and documented. This is done during the Collect Requirements process. Further, the key project deliverables are documented in the project scope statement which is an output of the Define Scope process. The best position of the newly proposed "Identify Key Deliverables" process should be between the Collect Requirement and Define Scope processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 129, 130] [Project Integration Management]

46. Which document defines how the project is to be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed? A. Project scope B. Project charter C. Project management information system D. Project management plan

46. D - The project management plan defines how the project is executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 83]

47. The Cost of Quality principle includes: A. The costs of ensuring conformance to requirements B. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements C. The cost of deploying a project Configuration Management System D. The costs associated with eliminating requirements

47. A - Quality costs are the total costs incurred by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failing to meet requirements (rework). [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 282, 283] [Project Quality Management]

47. Quality metrics used during the Control Quality process are defined during which process? A. Plan Quality Management B. Define Scope C. Collect Requirements D. Manage Quality

47. A - Quality metrics are operational definitions that describe a project or product attribute in very specific terms. They also define how the quality control process will measure it. These metrics are outputs of the Plan Quality Management process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 287] [Project Quality Management]

47. During which stages of a project should the project manager be most active in managing project stakeholders' needs and expectations? A. Initiating and planning B. Planning and executing C. Executing and controlling D. Controlling and closing

47. A - The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically highest during the initial stages and gets progressively lower as the project progresses. The project manager should more actively manage the project stakeholders during the project initiation and planning phases in comparison to the later stages of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Stakeholder Management]

47. In which of the following situations would it be better to avoid using Analogous Estimating? A. When the project team members have the needed expertise B. When an accurate estimate is required C. When a low value estimate is required D. When the previous activities are similar in fact and not just appearance

47. B - Analogous estimating is typically less costly than other estimation techniques but also less accurate. It is most reliable when previous activities are similar in fact and the project team members have the needed expertise. This method should not be used when an accurate estimate is required. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Schedule Management]

47. Many project managers have seen a graph that shows "Influence of Stakeholders" starting out high and declining as the project progresses. In contrast, it also shows the "Cost of Changes" starting out low and increasing as the project progresses. What is the key insight a project manager should gain from this graph? A. Stakeholder influence is not important at the end of the project. B. Make changes as early in the project as possible. C. Set aside money for expected changes at the end of the project. D. Place the project on hold until all changes are made.

47. B - Changes should be made as early as possible in the project to avoid additional cost and delays. The influence of stakeholders is high at the start of the project and low towards the end. In contrast, the cost of making changes in a project is low at the start of a project and high towards the end. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Framework]

47. Which of the following is not an input to the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. Approved Change Requests B. Consultants C. Project Management Plan D. Project files from prior projects

47. B - Project files from prior projects are a part of organizational process assets. Organizational process assets, the project management plan, and approved change requests are inputs to the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Consultants are used (to obtain Expert Judgement) as tools to manage the project work and are not an input to the process.

47. During the weekly change control board meeting, you invited the facilities manager to speak about the change request to increase the BTUs of the air conditioning system in the new data center. This is an example of what type of tool and technique in the Perform Integrated Change Control process? A. Variance Analysis B. Expert Judgment C. Project Management Methodology D. Project Management Information System

47. B - The facilities manager would be considered an expert on the A/C system; thus, this is an example of Expert Judgment. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 118] [Project Integration Management]

47. You have just received an invoice from your supplier that contains some uncertified items. Payments to the supplier are processed through your corporate accounts payable system only after certification of satisfactory work by the project quality control specialist. What should you do? A. Process the supplier's invoice since this is your liability B. Call the supplier and obtain more information C. Ask the supplier to stop all deliveries until the matter has a resolution D. Seek judicial arbitration

47. B - The supplier could have sent the invoice by mistake or some other reason. The first step is to clarify the matter with the supplier. You must call the supplier and obtain more information before you take any other step. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

47. Given multiple alternatives, the group decision method that allows the largest block in a group to decide (even if more than 50 percent of the members of the group do not support the decision) is: A. Dictatorship B. Plurality C. Unanimity D. Majority

47. B - This group decision-making technique is called Plurality. Even if a majority (where more than 50% of the members support the decision) is not achieved, the largest block in the group makes the decision. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144] [Project Scope Management]

47. A project consists of multiple phases. Which of the following is a valid statement and applies to each phase of the project? A. Each phase is generally concluded with a review of the Accomplished but is only closed if the next phase has already started. B. Each phase of the project is considered complete when the project sp signs off on that phase of the project. C. Each phase of the project is generally concluded with a review of work accomplished and deliverables to determine acceptance and where the phase should be considered closed. D. Each phase is generally concluded with a review of the accomplished. A phase is never considered complete until the end of project when the entire project is complete.

47. C - A project phase is usually concluded with a review of the work accomplished and the deliverables to determine acceptance, whether extra work is still required and to decide whether the phase should be considered closed. The other options are not valid. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 121] [Project Framework]

47. What is the best way to make an accurate forecast of ETC? A. EAC - AC B. BAC - EV C. Manual forecasting of cost of the remaining work. D. (BAC - EV)/CPI

47. C - Manual forecasting of costs of remaining work is the most common forecasting approach. It is generally considered the best means of generating an accurate forecast of ETC. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 264] {For any project, the estimate to complete (ETC) is the money required to finish the project. The most accurate way to figure this value out is to do a bottom-up estimate for the remaining project work under the light of current project conditions. However, this approach is time-consuming and cannot be carried out frequently during the project. This technique is only used when we think that either significant scope of work has been changed, or there has been significant changes in the project conditions, and hence, we cannot accurately predict the future based on project performance to date. If such extreme conditions are not present, usually we try to predict ETC quickly using formulas based on current performance. All ETC/EAC formulas are rooted in current project perform

47. The Stakeholder Committee has a report that shows zero schedule variance. However, the first milestone in the project was missed, which will cause a delay in the project. Which of the following was not reported correctly? A. Resource management plan B. Risk analysis C. Critical path status D. Communications plan variance

47. C - The critical path is the sequence of schedule activities that determines the duration of the project. A project can have zero or positive schedule variance and yet still risk missing its deadline for completion. For example, this could happen if some of the future noncritical tasks have been completed ahead of schedule, but some of the tasks on the critical path have been delayed. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 210]

47. A seller was notified they were one of the selected sellers based on their proposal. The seller immediately circulated an internal newsletter stating they had just been awarded a large contract for a period of five years. Would the newsletter be factually correct? A. The newsletter is likely factually incorrect. A selected seller is one w proposal has been accepted, and a contract has been completed per signatures of the authorized parties. B. It is likely that the newsletter is factually incorrect. While the seller been selected for the work, it is unlikely that the term of the project w have been five years. C. It is likely that the newsletter is factually incorrect. A selected seller is whose proposal is judged to be in a competitive range. It does not they have the work. D. The newsletter is likely factually correct. A selected seller is one who a contract based on the procurement process.

47. C - The newsletter will probably be factually incorrect. A selected seller is one whose proposal has been judged to be in the competitive range based on bid evaluation. The seller would have negotiated a draft contract that could become the actual contract when the award is made. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 488]

47. A project manager is estimating activity durations for a project. Which of the following should he or she consider while performing this activity? A. While calculating the duration of schedule activities, differences is capabilities of staff assigned should not be taken into consideration senior and junior staff should be given equal weight. B. While calculating the duration of schedule activities, differences in capabilities should be taken into consideration. A senior staff member generally be expected to finish an activity in 80 percent of the time junior member. C. While calculating the duration of schedule activities, differences in capabilities should be taken into consideration. A senior staff member generally be expected to finish an activity in less time than a j member. D. While calculating the duration of schedule activities, an average should used and the actual differences in the capabilities of staff assigned s not be taken into consideration.

47. C - When calculating the duration of schedule activities, differences in the capabilities of assigned staff should be taken into consideration. Hence, a senior staff member will typically be expected to finish an activity in less time than a junior member. There is no generic rule that a senior resource can finish an activity in 80% of the time that a junior resource could. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 196]

47. You just completed the first phase of a multi-phase project. You have calculated earned value measurements and found that the current CPI is 0.79 and the current SPI is 0.98. Your next phase plan should focus first on which element of the project: A. Quality B. Resources C. Schedule D. Cost

47. D - A Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of less than one indicates that less work has completed than planned, and a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of less than one indicates a cost overrun for the work completed. In this scenario, the cost overrun is more severe than the schedule delay. Therefore, you should focus on reducing the cost of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

47. Bottom-up Cost estimating is typically motivated by the size and complexity of: A. The project management software B. The statistical relationship between historical data and other variables C. The project budget D. The individual schedule activity or work package

47. D - Bottom-up estimating involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities at the lowest level of detail. Activities with smaller associated effort usually increase the accuracy of the schedule activity cost estimates. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 202] [Project Cost Management]

47. A company manages SBG contracting bids for government tenders and all successful bids as a separate project. The structure of the company is mainly projectized for a dedicated project team to manage each project. However, to realize economies of scale, there are some central departments that serve all projects. Which of the following role is most likely to be working in a central department instead of directly working with a project team? A. Quality control inspector B. Construction manager C. Project planner D. Procurement administrator

47. D - In order to realize economies of scope, many organizations treat contract administration as an administrative function separate from the project organization. This is usually true if the performing organization is also the seller of the project to an external customer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 494] [Project Procurement Management]

47. Which of the following statements regarding team-building is correct? A. Team-building is essential during the middle of a project, and from it is an ongoing process. B. Team-building is essential during the end of a project, and it is a one process. C. Team-building is essential during the end of a project, but it is an on process. D. Team-building is essential during the front end of a project, but it ongoing process.

47. D - Team building is essential during the front end of a project, but it is an ongoing process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 341]

48. The most recent analysis of Microcorp's new fabrication facility renovation project shows a CPI value of less than 1.0. What does this indicate? A. The cost has overrun estimates. B. The cost has underrun estimates. C. The project is running ahead of schedule. D. The schedule has slipped.

48. A - A CPI value of less than 1.0 indicates a cost overrun of the estimates. A CPI value greater than 1.0 indicates a cost underrun of the estimates. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

48. Which of the following is not a valid instance of risk transference? A. Use of a Cost Reimbursable contract B. Warranties C. Fixed Price contracts D. Performance bonds

48. A - A cost-reimbursable contract does not transfer risk to the seller; rather, the risk is with the buyer. Risk transference involves shifting the negative impact of a risk, along with the ownership of the response, to a third party. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a premium to the party taking on the risk. Examples include performance bonds, warranties, and fixed price contracts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

48. The organization's safety and health policy, ethics policy, project policy, and quality policy can be used by a project to influence its success. All these policies are a part of: A. Organizational process assets B. The project management plan C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Historical databases

48. A - Organizational process assets can be used to influence a project's success. Organizational standards and policies such as safety and health policy, ethics policy, quality policy, and project management policy are a part of the organizational process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 39] [Project Framework]

48. Which of the following is NOT considered a method in the Manage Communications process? A. Change control systems B. Communication technology C. Project reporting D. Project Management Information System

48. A - The change control system is not a tool and technique of the Manage Communications process. The other choices are valid tools and techniques of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Communications Management]

48. You have been asked by your project manager to help create a chart that illustrates the project resources that will be working on each work package. What would be the best type of chart to use? A. Milestone chart B. RACI chart C. Project organization chart D. WBS

48. B - RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform. This is a type of responsibility assignment matrix that is used to illustrate the relationship between team members and work that needs to be completed. In a RACI chart, a matrix is created with work packages in the rows and team member roles in the columns. Typically, a RACI chart assumes that one person will be accountable for a work package, and more than one person may be responsible for completing the work package. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 317] [Project Resource Management]

48. In order to keep costs low, a project management team decided to apply statistical sampling while inspecting some of the work products. They decided to select 10 out of 50 engineering drawings for inspection. During which process should the sample be collected? A. Collect Requirements B. Control Quality C. Plan Quality Management D. Manage Quality

48. B - Samples are collected for inspection during the Control Quality process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 303] [Project Quality Management]

48. Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process? A. Advertising B. Selected Sellers C. Bidder conferences D. Expert Judgment

48. B - Selected seller is the output of the Conduct Procurements process. The other choices are the tools and techniques of this process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 482] [Project Procurement Management]

48. You have recently joined an organization as the procurements manager. You have just received an invoice from a contractor. Some of the items from the invoice are as follows: EV of work completed to date: $50,000. AC of work completed to date: $40,000. Total costs reimbursed by the buyer to date: $35,000. If the contract between the buyer and the contractor is a CPIF contract, what is the total value payable to this contractor? (Assume that the contract allows for a 10 percent fee over net payable whenever CPI > 1). A. $500 B. $5,500 C. $44,000 D. $55,000

48. B - Since this is a CPIF (Cost plus incentive fee) contract, the fee is calculated as a percentage of the actual cost provided that the CPI is greater than 1. In this case CPI is greater than one (i.e. CPI = 1.25) and hence 10% fee is applicable on the total cost reimbursable. AC is $40k out of which $35k has already been reimbursed. Hence total cost reimbursable is $5k. The total payable in this case is $5k x 1.1 = $5,500. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

48. During the Collect Requirements process, a group of people were discussing multiple alternatives. One of the individuals in the group made the decision for the group. This method of reaching a group decision is termed: A. One Thinking Hat B. Autocratic C. Plurality D. Autonomy

48. B - The method where a single individual makes the decision on behalf of a group is termed autocratic. Other group decision-making techniques are unanimity (everyone agrees on a course of action), majority (support from more than 50% of members), and plurality (the largest block decides even if a majority is not achieved). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144] [Project Scope Management]

48. The Control Procurements process receives a very important input from the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Which one is it? A. Approved change requests B. Work performance data C. Procurement documents D. Agreements

48. B - Work performance data is provided to the Control Procurements process by the Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 493] [Project Procurement Management]

48. While analyzing the risks in a project, a project manager updated the risk register with risk urgency assessment ratings. In which process would this be done? A. Identify Risks B. Monitor Risks C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Plan Risk Management

48. C - Risk urgency information is updated to the Risk register during the Perform Qualitative Risks Analysis process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 427] [Project Risk Management]

48. You are managing a project that has a task to translate several pages of a document into Spanish. This is similar to a project done last year when a document was translated into German. You are not sure how long it will take to translate into Spanish, so you look at the project plan from the German translation and use that activity duration for your current project. What type of estimating is this an example of? A. Hypothesis B. Parametric Estimating C. Analogous Estimating D. What-if Scenario Analysis

48. C - This is an example of analogous estimating, because you went back to an old schedule of a similar project to get the estimate. Parametric estimating would be correct if you used the number of words translated

48. A project manager has just started planning his project. If he has only limited information about the project, he should use the following technique to estimate the duration for each activity using historical data from a similar project: A. Four-point estimating B. Three-point estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Parametric estimating

48. C - When there is a limited amount of information available about a project, analogous estimating is used to estimate the activity durations. This estimating technique uses parameters such as budget, complexity and size from previous projects to estimate the duration. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Schedule Management]

48. In a multi-phase project, the procurement team decided to close the procurements applicable to a particular phase of the project. What happens to unresolved claims? A. Unresolved claims are usually resolved at the end of all phases of project. B. Unresolved claims are also closed when the procurements for that are closed. C. Unresolved claims remain open for a period of one year from closure procurements. D. Unresolved claims may still be subject to litigation after closure.

48. D - Even after the procurements for a particular phase are closed, unresolved claims are still subject to litigation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

48. Which of the following techniques can help a project manager review a supplier's internal work processes to ensure compliance to standards during the production of the deliverables? (Assume that all of the given choices are available to the project manager.) A. Audits B. Performance reporting C. Contract change control D. Inspections

48. D - Inspections required by the buyer and supported by the supplier, if specified in the procurement contract, can be conducted during execution of the project to verify compliance in the seller's work processes or deliverables. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

48. Which of the following is not an example of data that may be presented in a performance report? A. Earned value B. Quality metrics C. Schedule variance D. Project charter

48. D - The project charter is not a valid response. The other choices are data that can be presented in a work performance report. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 112] [Project Integration Management]

48. The Quality Policy is the intended direction of a performing organization with regard to quality. However, as a project manager in a performing organization, you find the organization lacks a formal quality policy. What should you do in such a case? A. The project management team does not need to develop a quality p since the performing organization does not have one. B. The project management team needs to obtain the quality policy from customer. C. A quality policy is nice to have but is not required for every project. D. The project management team will need to develop a quality policy the project.

48. D - The project management team will need to develop a quality policy for the project if the performing organization does not have a formal policy. It is also the responsibility of the project management team to ensure that the project stakeholders are fully aware of the policy. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 271] [Project Quality Management]

48. Project risks should be identified by: A. Those invited to the risk identification process only B. Key project stakeholders only C. The project manager only D. All project personnel

48. D - While it is not feasible to invite everyone to the risk identification meetings, everyone should be encouraged to identify risks as they encounter them. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 411] [Project Risk Management]

49. Kate has been asked to conduct the feasibility of a new CRM system. So far, the business has been relying on its traditional manual customer relationship management processes, but now it is struggling to keep up with the competition. In this scenario, the business' requirement of acquiring a state-of-the-art CRM system to boost its customer relations management capabilities is an example of: A. Business requirements B. Functional requirements C. Non-functional requirements D. Project requirements

49. A - Business requirements describe the higher-level needs of the organization as a whole, such as the business issues or opportunities. Other choices are much lower level requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 148] [Project Framework]

49. Which technique is NOT commonly used to align the timing of activities with available resources? A. Critical Path Method B. Resource Leveling C. Resource optimization D. Resource Smoothing

49. A - The critical path method is not a technique commonly used to align the timing of activities with available resources. The critical path method is a technique used to establish a rough timeline fitting the project's work activities within the deadlines defined in the scope statement. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 210, 211] [Project Schedule Management]

49. You are in the Validate Scope process of your electronic goods manufacturing project. While reviewing some products, you have noticed that the tolerance for one product is 0.01 percent less than what was listed in the requirements documentation. This deviation may not be a problem for the customers, and it may not impair the product's operation. What is your best immediate action in such a situation? A. Notify the stakeholders about the deviation B. Change the project management plan to allow for small deviation C. Reject all products and restart the project D. Discuss with your team about the quality testing

49. A - When you find a defective product, you must notify stakeholders immediately even if the deviation may not affect customers. As a project manager, you must maintain honesty and should not hide facts. After notifying the stakeholders, the project manager must discuss the issue with the team and change the project management plan based on the stakeholders' inputs. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

49. A project manager prepared a presentation that included data on the project's use of resources, improvements in staff efficiency, and the cost savings. These activities are part of what process? A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Control Schedule D. Control Quality

49. B - Activities such as project performance analysis and tracking are done as part of the Monitor and Control Project Work process. This process involves tracking, reviewing and reporting progress to meet performance objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 107] [Project Integration Management]

49. During the Control Scope process, analysis of the scope performance resulted in a change request to the scope baseline. This change request will be processed for review and disposition in the: A. Control Quality B. Perform Integrated Change Control C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Validate Scope

49. B - Analysis of Scope performance is done as part of the Control Scope phase. Determining the cause and degree of variance relative to the scope baseline is an important aspect of this activity (called Variance Analysis). Change requests that result from this activity are processed in the Perform Integrated Change Control phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] [Project Integration Management]

49. Robert is managing a road construction project. Due to unseasonal weather conditions, the team productivity might be above or below target. This is an example of: A. Ambiguity risk B. Variability risk C. Mitigated risk D. Opportunity risk

49. B - Examples of variability risks include: productivity may be above or below target, the number of errors found during testing may be higher or lower than expected, or unseasonal weather conditions may occur during the construction phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 398] [Project Risk Management]

49. Robert's project is a high-priority project for his organization. Project stakeholder engagement is crucial for the project's success. Robert needs to discuss the project stakeholder engagement levels with his project team on a regular basis. Which of the following is the best platform where Robert can review this with his team? A. Phase gates B. Project status review meetings C. Kill points D. Information management system

49. B - The phase gates and the kill points are the project reviews that are done at the closure of each phase of the project. Managing stakeholder engagement levels should be a continuous process that does not wait for a project phase to complete. Information management systems can be used for the exchange of project information, but project status review meetings are interactive communication sessions among the project team members. A project status review meeting provides the best platform to discuss the current engagement levels of the project stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 535]

49. Lucy is managing a website development project in an agile environment. She wants to create a burndown chart to present the project's progress to the stakeholders. She adds a diagonal line representing the ideal burndown and a line for daily actual remaining work. She now needs to show the likely variance at the iteration completion. What should she do? A. Add a forecast trend line to the ideal burndown line B. Add a correlation line between the daily actual remaining work an ideal burndown C. Add a forecast trend line to the daily actual remaining work D. Add a median line between the daily actual remaining work and the burndown

49. C - A trend line should be added to the daily actual remaining work to forecast the completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 226] [Project Risk Management]

49. Which of the following processes will determine the correctness of deliverables? A. Plan Deliverables B. Plan Quality Management C. Control Quality D. Manage Quality

49. C - An important goal of quality control is to determine the correctness of deliverables. The results of the execution of quality control processes are verified deliverables. These are then input to the Validate Scope process for formalized acceptance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 298] [Project Quality Management]

49. Julia is currently recruiting her project team. She has carried out various interviews and has shortlisted potential candidates. Now, according to the project communication management plan, she has to submit the shortlisted profiles to the project client (customer) for approval. Only then, can she formally hire the approved candidates for the project. The submission of the profiles to the client will go through which of the following processes? A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Acquire Resources C. Manage Communications D. Plan Resource Management

49. C - Manage Communications is the process of distributing project information in accordance to the communications management plan. The interviews and shortlisting was carried out during the Acquire Resources and so will be the hiring once the approvals come in. However, the profiles submission to the client will be done through the Manage Communications process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Communications Management]

49. The best practice to gather and document lessons learned is during weekly progress meetings. The agenda can have a lessons-learned brainstorming item at the end of these meetings. You can ask team members to put forward their recommendations, but it is always better to adopt a more structured way to gather lessons learned. Which of the following approaches will ensure you capture important lessons learned on your project? A. Planning risk responses B. Determining estimate to complete C. Review of project variances D. Signing off on the minutes of the meeting

49. C - Signing off minutes of the meeting is a good meeting management technique specially in highly bureaucratic environments. However, this doesn't help at all in gathering lessons learned. Planning risk responses and determining estimates to complete are forward look-ahead of the project. Lessons learned can be captured through the review of project variances. You review the variances again and focus on how to avoid them in the future. You also identify other tasks or people who are likely to encounter the same issue so it can be avoided. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 108] [Project Integration Management]

49. A control chart should always contain: A. Upper and lower warning limits B. The moving average C. Upper and lower control limits D. Upper and lower specification limits

49. C - Upper and lower control limits allow the control chart to serve its purpose of indicating when a process is in or out of control. [PMBOK

49. Under which of the following scenarios would you not use a decision tree? A. When some future scenarios are unknown B. When you need to look at the implications of not choosing c alternatives C. When the future scenarios are known D. When the outcomes of some of the actions are uncertain

49. C - You would use a decision tree when uncertainty and unknowns exist regarding future scenarios and their outcomes, not when future scenarios are known. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

49. As the project manager of a development project, you are aware that there is a slight defect in the developed product; as a result, it will fail to meet certain regulatory standards. This was due to faulty requirements. You are also aware that the product will continue to function properly even though it fails to meet those standards. Your customer manager asks you to certify that the product meets the necessary regulatory standards, stating that this will not be verified when the report is submitted to the necessary authorities. Your stance is that: A. You certify the product. Regulations are only guidelines in the ind Not meeting a regulation does not mean anything. B. As a one-off instance, you will certify the product to make sure the p goes through successfully. C. You will not certify that a product meets certain regulations when it not, even though the product continues to function well. D. You certify the product, but you document your conversation with customer manager for future purposes.

49. C - Your stance will be that you will not certify that a product meets required standards when it does not, even though the product continues to function well. The customer manager might not be pleased with your stance. As a Project Manager, however, you have an obligation to uphold ethical practices, and so you cannot certify a product that fails to meet required standards. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct] [Prof. Responsibility]

49. A project manager is considering various classification methods to share information among project stakeholders. Which of the following correctly classifies the different methods used? A. Pull communication—Meetings; Push communication—Newsle Interactive communication—E-learning repository B. Interactive communication—Meetings; Push communication—E-lea repository; Pull communication—Newsletters C. Push communication—Meetings; Pull communication—Newsle Interactive communication—E-learning repository D. Interactive

49. D - Examples of interactive communication are meetings, phone calls, and video conferences. Examples of push communication are newsletters, memos, emails, and faxes. Examples of pull communication are intranet sites, and e-learning and knowledge repositories. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] [Project Communications Management] Newsletters; Pull communication—E-learning repository

49. Risks may be identified during the entire lifecycle of a project. Identify Risks is what type of process? A. Qualitative B. Effort-driven C. Discrete D. Iterative

49. D - Identify Risks is an iterative process, because new risks may become known as the project progresses through its lifecycle. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] [Project Risk Management]

49. Velvet is working for a chemical industry, and her management proposed two different projects to manufacture benzene for commercial use. After doing financial analysis, the financial advisor provided her with the following statistics about the projects: Project 1: 60 percent probability of success with a profit of $500,000 and 20 percent probability of failure with a loss of $200,000. Project 2: 30 percent probability of success with a profit of $300,000 and 30 percent probability of failure with a loss of $400,000. Based on the information above, Velvet should choose: A. Either project 1 or project 2 B. Neither project 1 nor project 2 C. Project 2 D. Project 1

49. D - Profit or loss from a project = (Expected profit * probability of profit) - (Expected loss * probability of loss). For Project 1, the profit or loss = (500000*0.6 - 200000*0.2) = 300000 - 40000 = $260,000 profit. For Project 2, the profit or loss = (300000*0.3 - 400000*0.3) = 90000 120000 = ($30,000) = $30,000 loss. Hence, Velvet should select Project 1, which can yield a profit. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

49. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. This is done by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of flexibility. What technique is being used? A. Leads and lags B. Work Breakdown Structure C. Flowchart D. Critical Path Method

49. D - The critical path of a project is the series of activities that have the least amount of float - usually zero (flexibility). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

5. Julia is currently assessing her project stakeholders' engagement levels. During this exercise, she finds she also needs to document an escalation process, which will come in handy in the future. Where does she need to document the project's escalation process? A. Communications management plan B. Stakeholder engagement plan C. Either the stakeholder engagement plan or the communication management plan D. Both the stakeholder engagement plan and the communication management plan

5. A - Although there is a lot of overlap of information between the project communication management and stakeholder engagement plans, the project escalation process is only documented in the communications management plan. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 377] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. With a growing awareness of so-called unknowable-unknowns, the existence of emergent risk is becoming clear. These are risks that can only be recognized after they have occurred. Emergent risks can be tackled through developing: A. Project resilience B. Project charter C. Project management plan D. Project risk management plan

5. A - Emergent risks can be tackled through developing project resilience. This requires each project to have right level of budget and schedule contingencies, flexible project processes, empowered project team and frequent review of early warning signs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 399] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. You are in the process of collecting and disseminating performance information to the stakeholders in the project. You want to predict the future performance of the project based on the current information. This performance information includes status reports, current status of risks, and summary of changes approved in the period. Which of the following methods will help you in predicting the future performance of the project? A. Forecasts B. A Pareto chart C. A run chart D. A Work Breakdown Structure

5. A - Forecasts are estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project's future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 264]

5. Project Stakeholder Management is focused on engaging project stakeholders with the project. What is the objective of keeping the project stakeholders engaged with the project? A. To manage their expectations so that the project objectives are achieve B. Using consistent project management methodology across organizations projects C. To motivate the project team members D. To demotivate the negative stakeholders

5. A - The core objective for stakeholder engagement management is to ensure that the project stakeholders are kept satisfied and that their expectations are being met throughout the course of the project. Keeping the project team members motivated and using a consistent project management methodology are generic objectives of project management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 504] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. You are the Project Manager and are responsible for the development of a mall. As with any construction project, there will be multiple iterations of blueprints and engineering drawings. Therefore, you have decided to create an online database that can be used to query the documents by name, type, date, etc. This is an example of what type of communication tool? A. Project Management Information System B. Lessons Learned C. Project Records D. Configuration Management System

5. A - The online database is an example of a Project Management Information System. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 95] [Project Communications Management]

5. An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables (such as square footage in construction or lines of code in software development) is known as: A. Parametric Estimating B. Analogous Estimating C. Bottom-up Estimating D. Historical Analysis

5. A - This technique is known as Parametric Estimating. It can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending on the sophistication as well as on the underlying resource quantity and cost data built into the model. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200] [Project Cost Management]

5. Uncontrolled project scope changes are often referred to as ________ . A. Scope creep B. Scope verification C. Value Added Scope D. Scope control

5. A - Uncontrolled project scope changes are often referred to as scope creep. Scope creep is often viewed negatively, but can be managed using a change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168] [Project Scope Management]

5. Mark is managing an airport construction project. He is currently identifying his project stakeholders, and he has compiled a long list of stakeholders already. Managing expectations of every project stakeholder is not practical. What should he do in this situation? A. Project stakeholders should be prioritized based on their influence interest. B. Stakeholder analysis should be outsourced. C. Non-key stakeholders should be dropped from the stakeholder register D. Stakeholder management processes should not be followed for complex projects.

5. A - When the stakeholders list becomes unmanageable, the project stakeholders should be prioritized to ensure the efficient use of effort and time to manage their expectations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 512] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. If you are working on a project with constantly changing scope, which type of contract would work best when hiring an outside vendor to complete a portion of the work? A. Lump sum B. Cost-reimbursable C. Time and material D. Fixed price

5. B - Cost plus contracts are suitable when the work is evolving, likely to change, or not well defined.. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 476] [Project Procurement Management]

5. Nancy's project has a large number of key positive and negative stakeholders. To ensure the project's success, it is essential to manage the influential negative stakeholders closely. Do the key positive stakeholders need to be managed, too? A. No; more attention needs to be given to the key negative stakeholder B. The positive stakeholders need to be closely managed, as well, stakeholders' needs and expectations change over time. C. Project stakeholders should not be classified as positive and negative stakeholders. D. Yes; positive stakeholders should be more closely managed that negative stakeholders.

5. B - It is just as important to manage the positive stakeholders as it is to manage the negative stakeholders. Stakeholders' expectations and interests change over time. In order to ensure the success of the project, the positive stakeholders should be managed closely to retain their support and commitment to the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 504-506] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. You have recently been assigned to a research project. Although there is a limited number of key stakeholders, there is a big number of other stakeholders involved in this project, especially the ones who will be using the research's outcome. You have some specific questions. Which of the following is the best way to quickly obtain responses from a big group of stakeholders? A. Focus groups B. Questionnaires C. Interviews D. Phone calls

5. B - Questionnaires offer a quick way of obtaining responses from a big group of people especially when the specific questions are known in advance. Interviews, phone conversations and focus groups are more time consuming techniques. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 143] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. The on-demand scheduling approach used in agile environments is based on the theory-of-constraints and pull-based scheduling concepts from lean manufacturing to limit a team's work in progress. This is also called: A. 5S B. Kanban C. Andon D. Gemba

5. B - The on-demand scheduling approach used in agile environments is based on the theory-of-constraints and pull-based scheduling concepts from lean manufacturing to limit a team's work in progress. This is also called Kanban system. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. Carole is managing a hotel refurbishment project. She has identified her project's key stakeholders. Carole now wants to expand this list of stakeholders and convert it to a comprehensive list of project stakeholders. What should Carole do? A. Do not spend more time on identifying the non-key stakeholders B. Seek expert judgment from the identified key stakeholders C. Request that the project sponsor provide the details of the remaining stakeholders D. Carry out a stakeholder analysis with the identified key stakeholders

5. B - The project manager is responsible for stakeholder identification; this cannot be delegated to the project sponsor. Identifying and analyzing the key stakeholders is not enough to ensure the success of the project. Other project stakeholders can be identified by interviewing the stakeholders who are already identified. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 511] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. Which of the following PMBOK processes produces a project stakeholder engagement plan? A. Identify Stakeholders B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement C. Plan Communications Management D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

5. B - The stakeholder engagement plan is produced during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. A planning package is a work breakdown structure component below the control account and above the work package with known work content but without: A. Work packages B. User stories C. Schedule activities D. Requirements

5. C - A planning package is a work breakdown structure component below the control account and above the work package with known work content but without detailed schedule activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. The project sponsor has asked you to prepare a summary level description of each phase of the project, and also include a summary of the validation information for the final project deliverables. Which document is the sponsor asking you to prepare? A. Project charter B. Project management plan C. Project final report D. Project scope statement

5. C - Most probably the project sponsor is asking you to prepare the project's final report as all of the mentioned sections are part of a final report. The rest of the choices are project documents that do not have these sections, especially the validation information for the final project deliverables. This also implies that the project is in the closing phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 127] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. During the development of the project stakeholder engagement plan, the project manager is usually dependent on the expert judgment of senior stakeholders to identify and plan effective stakeholder management strategies. Which of the following stakeholders cannot guide the project manager in developing effective strategies for internal stakeholders? A. Sponsor B. Identified key stakeholders C. Customers D. Project team members

5. C - Only internal stakeholders can provide expert judgment on effective management strategies for internal stakeholders. Project customers are important stakeholders but usually they lack the knowledge on internal stakeholders, and hence cannot provide accurate feedback. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 550] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. Which of the following techniques can ensure that the stakeholders are engaged at appropriate project phases and to obtain or confirm their continued commitment to the success of the project? A. Performance audits B. Setting ground rules C. Stage gate meetings D. Managing project team

5. C - Stage gate or phase review meetings give project stakeholders a chance to review project progress and planned future actions. This gives them a chance to have their voice heard and recorded. The rest of the choices are techniques that are internal to a project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 21] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. The project management processes communicate with each other through their inputs and outputs. Which of the following outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is a prime input of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process? A. Change requests B. Work performance information C. Work performance data D. Expert judgment

5. C - Work performance data is provided to the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process as an output from Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 531] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor? A. Configuration management knowledge base B. Change control procedures C. Historical information D. Commercial databases

5. D - Commercial databases are considered enterprise environmental factors. The other choices are organizational process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 39-41] [Project Framework]

5. A project involved team members situated in Arizona, Nebraska, New York, and Ireland. Which of the following activities becomes crucial in such a team environment? A. Team-building B. Status reporting C. Conflict resolution D. Communication planning

5. D - Communication planning is critical when virtual teams are involved. Lack of face-to-face interaction can cause misunderstandings and conflict.

5. The agile technique of on-demand scheduling is not suitable when: A. Product deliverables can be incrementally developed. B. Project requirements can be decomposed into smaller chunks that relatively similar in size and scope. C. Project tasks can be bundled by size and scope. D. The use of a predictive lifecycle is mandated by the customer.

5. D - If the use of a predictive lifecycle is mandated by the customer, no other project life cycles can be selected. Hence most of the agile techniques will be inapplicable in those scenarios. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. In predictive projects, the scope baseline for the project is used to analyze a project's scope performance. On the other hand, projects with adaptive lifecycles use: A. WBS B. WBS dictionary C. Scope statement D. Backlogs

5. D - In projects with adaptive life cycles, the overall scope of the project will be decomposed into a set of requirements and work to be performed, referred to as a product backlog. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. How can a project manager ensure continued active support of the project supporters and at the same time minimize negative impacts from the negative stakeholders? A. By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the communication management plan B. By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the stakeholder management strategy C. By ensuring that stakeholders are kept disengaged throughout the p lifecycle D. By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand project goals, object benefits, and risks

5. D - Managing stakeholder engagement helps to increase the probability of project success by ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the project goals, objectives, benefits, and risks. This enables them to be active supporters of the project and to help guide activities and project decisions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 524] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. Danny is working as a project manager for a company that provides outsourcing services to banks. Recently, he sent a proposal to a local bank in response to a bid for a data warehouse project for which his company lacks expertise. Although his company lacks expertise, it has had a good working relationship with the bank in all its other projects. Which of the following statements is correct considering the proposal Danny submitted? A. Danny has not violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Con B. Danny has violated the company policy but not the PMI code C. Danny has violated the procurement code but not the PMI code D. Danny has violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

5. D - One of the mandatory standards for a project manager is to behave responsibly and bid on only those projects for which the project manager's employer has expertise and skills. Since Danny bid on a project for which his company lacks expertise, he violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. There is no procurement code in project management. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

5. The Close Project or Phase process is not performed when: A. Cancelling projects B. Closing projects C. Closing project phases D. Reactivating projects

5. D - The Close Project or Phase process allows the project manager to close or finish a specific phase of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 121] [Project Integration Management]

5. The accuracy of Activity Duration estimates can be improved by considering the amount of risk in the original estimate. The three types of estimates on which three-point estimates are based are: A. Budgetary, ballpark, and Order of Magnitude B. Best case scenario, expected scenario, and current scenario C. Most likely, likely, and unlikely D. Most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic

5. D - The accuracy of Activity Duration estimates can be improved by considering the amount of risk in the original estimate. The three types of estimates on which three-point estimates are based are: Most likely, Optimistic, and Pessimistic. An Activity Duration can be estimated using values derived from these three estimated durations. [PMBOK 6th edition,

5. There is a serious defect in the finished product of a project that was completed a few months ago, resulting in a recall campaign to recall the defective products. What would be the best classification for these types of costs? A. To complete performance index (TCP) B. Cost variance C. Cost of conformance D. Cost of nonconformance

5. D - The correct response is Cost of Non-Conformance. This includes all costs incurred due to internal and external failures. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282] [Project Quality Management]

5. Julia is managing a complex industrial process reengineering project. She has identified all her key project stakeholders and has conducted individual interviews with them to identify other project stakeholders, as well. However, Julia is still not satisfied with her project's stakeholders list; she believes there may be more key external stakeholders missing from the list. What can help Julia in this situation? A. Use stakeholder register templates from the organizational process as B. Conduct more meetings with the key stakeholders C. Get over her fear and finalize the project stakeholder register D. Seek expert judgment from subject matter experts

5. D - The stakeholder register template does not contain stakeholders information; it only helps the project manager produce the project's stakeholder register. If Julia is not satisfied with the list, she needs to identify more stakeholders until she is satisfied. Interviewing the identified key stakeholders again might not resolve the issue. The best option is to seek an expert's opinion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 511] [Project Stakeholder Management]

5. Which of these is an input to the Monitor Risks process? A. Risk audits B. Change requests C. Work performance information D. Work Performance Reports

5. D - Work Performance Reports are inputs to the Monitor Risks process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453] [Project Risk Management]

50. Which of the following is NOT a valid WBS creation approach: A. Parametric approach B. Top-down approach C. Use of organizational guidelines D. Use of WBS templates

50. A - A WBS structure may be created through various approaches. Some of the popular methods include the top-down approach, the use of organization-specific guidelines, and the use of WBS templates. Parametric approach is an estimation technique and not a valid WBS creation technique. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 159] [Project Risk Management]

50. Reporting performance about scope to stakeholders is a part of which knowledge area? A. Project Communications Management B. Project Scope Management C. Project Quality Management D. Project Integration Management

50. A - Project Reporting is a tool and technique of the Manage Communications Process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 379] [Project Communications Management]

50. When is Rolling Wave Planning useful in a project? A. You should use Rolling Wave Planning to help you achieve appropriate level of detail in each work package at the right time. B. You should use Rolling Wave Planning to determine the co sequencing for long-term items. C. You should use Rolling Wave Planning to help you organize members' activities within a large project group. D. You should use Rolling Wave Planning to help you determine w activities are more important and to do them first.

50. A - Rolling Wave Planning is a technique used to create a more detailed work plan while keeping the right level of detail for each activity: Activities happening sooner have more detail than those further in the future. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 185] [Project Schedule Management]

50. The cost estimates for a project are in the range of +/- 5 %. What phase is the project likely to be in? A. A. Closing phase B. B. Preliminary phase C. C. Initial phase D. D. Intermediate phase

50. A - The project is likely to be in a closing phase since the range of estimates is quite narrow. Early in the project, there is less cost information available and the range of estimates is much higher. As the project progresses, the degree of accuracy improves. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 241] [Project Cost Management]

50. Which of the following roles in a project is most likely to be involved in negotiations on procurements during the Conduct Procurements phase? A. Procurement administrator B. Project coordinator C. Project manager D. Project sponsor

50. A - The project manager, a team member or the project sponsor do not typically perform the role of lead negotiator on procurements. Due to the legal nature of the contractual relationship involved, a legal representative or a procurement administrator is involved. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 494] [Project Procurement Management]

50. The quality cost of a project rose significantly during the course of the project. A post-mortem analysis of the increased cost revealed that this was due to poorly defined acceptance criteria. During which phase should the acceptance criteria have been properly captured? A. Develop Project Charter process B. Define Scope process C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement process D. Plan Quality Management process

50. B - Acceptance criteria are documented in the project scope statement, developed during the Define Scope process. Poorly defined acceptance criteria would then propagate to the Plan Quality Management process used for planning quality. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154]

50. During a work breakdown structure meeting, you have decomposed the deliverables into work packages and created your WBS dictionary. However, you now want to decompose the work packages to assist you in estimating, executing, and controlling the project. These decomposed work packages are: A. Work packages can't be decomposed into smaller units B. Activities C. Milestones D. Control Accounts

50. B - Activities represent the effort needed to complete a work package and are an output of the Define Activities process. During this process, the work packages are further decomposed into project activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 185] [Project Schedule Management]

50. A critical resource is on another project team. It is essential that you get his time for your project. You have contacted the resource's team manager several times but have received a poor response. What should you consider doing next? A. Plan for an alternate resource since this resource is not available. B. Try to use management influence to obtain the resource's time. C. Contact the manager once again to see if he can help. D. Train another resource within your project.

50. B - Contacting the manager once again will not help since you have already had a poor response. The best option is to try using management influence to obtain the resource's time for your project. Should all efforts to obtain the resource prove unsuccessful, alternatives include planning for an alternate resource or training another resource. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 330] [Project Resource Management]

50. Work Performance Data is an important input to the Control Procurements process. Which of the following is not a component of Work Performance Data? A. Data regarding supplier's conformance to quality standards B. Data on completed deliverables C. Data regarding incurred or committed costs on each supplier contract D. Data on supplier invoices and respective payments

50. B - Data on status of deliverables progress is part of Work Performance Information and not Work Performance Data. The subtle difference between Work Performance Data and Work Performance Information confuses many people, however it is very important to clearly distinguish between these two concepts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 496, 499] [Project Procurement Management]

50. The selection of lifecycle for the project, the processes to be applied to each phase, and the results of the tailoring by the project management team are usually found in the: A. Project scope statement B. Project management plan C. Project schedule D. Project charter

50. B - Details of the life cycle, processes selected, and results of tailoring by the project management team are found in the project management plan. This plan integrates and consolidates all the subsidiary management plans from the planning processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 82, 83] [Project Integration Management]

50. You are managing a highly complex drug manufacturing project, and your sponsor is highly motivated and influential. You are optimistic about the outcome of the project; however, you are unsure about the project approval requirements that measure the project's success. You would like to document the name of the person who signs off on the project and the criteria that constitute the project's success. Which of the following documents should you use first to incorporate project approval requirements? A. The scope document B. The project charter C. The approval requirement plan D. The project management plan

50. B - Project approval requirements must be documented early in the project during the initiation phase. These requirements show the requisites for project success, the names of persons signing off on the project and deliverable requirements. Since the project charter is created in the initiation phase of the project, the project manager must include these requirements in the charter. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 81] [Project Integration Management]

50. You have been asked to determine the early start and finish dates for the activities that make up a project. What would be the BEST technique to use? A. Resource Smoothing B. Critical Path Method C. What-If scenario analysis D. Resource Leveling

50. B - The critical path method is a technique that calculates the earliest and latest possible start and finish times for work activities in a project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

50. You have been assigned as a project manager of a new project to be executed out of New York. However, you determine the project requires a Global Positioning Systems expert who is not available within the company in New York. After doing a little checking, you determine that the company has an expert based in London who is suitable for the project. However, the London-based employee is not willing to relocate to New York for the project. In such a case: A. Write to the manager of the London-based employee and inform him the employee needs to be convinced to relocate to New York d project requirements. B. You look at the option of moving ahead with the project by using a v team. C. Manage the project without the key resource and flag this as a risk. D. Co-location of resources is a key factor for the success of projects. A PMI guidelines, you cannot proceed with the project since the rest are not available in New York.

50. B - The use of virtual teams has created possibilities of having teams in different global locations who are working towards a common goal. The availability of email and videoconferencing has made such teams possible. Virtual teams do present additional challenges, but these can be managed in most cases. The other choices are not valid. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 311] [Project Resource Management]

50. A project manager creates a component-specific tool to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. This tool is called a: A. Risk Register B. Assumptions log C. Checklist D. Plan-Do-Act-Check

50. C - Checklists are structured tools used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed. Checklists can be either simple or complex. Many organizations have standardized checklists to ensure consistency in frequently performed tasks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 292] [Project Quality Management]

50. The most effective method of resolving conflict or other issues with stakeholders is _________. A. Ignore B. Arbitrate C. Collaborate D. Avoid

50. C - Collaboration requires incorporating multiple viewpoints from different perspectives. It requires a cooperative attitude and open dialogue, and typically leads to consensus and commitment. [PMBOK

50. You have recently taken over a troubled automobile project, which has gone out of control. The project team missed many deadlines, and stakeholders were displeased with the project's progress. As an experienced project manager, your first priority is to align the schedule with the project plan. You would like to use what-if scenario analysis to see how various factors affected the project schedule so you can develop a plan to reduce the impact of adverse conditions on the project schedule in the future. What would be your next course of action be, once you determine the factors that created schedule overruns? A. Prepare a resource breakdown structure to identify resources used B. Update activity lists to incorporate new activities into the schedule C. Generate change requests for a corrective action D. Develop project schedule network diagrams to determine the total sla

50. C - You are in the process of determining the status of the project schedule and investigating the factors that caused schedule changes. From this scenario, you are currently in the Control Schedule process. What-if analysis is used in the Control Schedule process to see how various factors influence the schedule. One output of this process is to generate change requests to correct the schedule. Hence, you should generate a change request for the required corrective action. [PMBOK

50. All the monitoring and controlling processes and many of the executing processes can produce change requests as an output. Change requests may require corrective actions and preventive actions. Which of the following are normally affected by corrective and preventive actions? A. Defect repair B. Regressive baselines C. The project baselines D. The performance against baselines

50. D - Corrective and preventive actions do not normally affect the project baselines, only the performance against the baselines. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] [Project Integration Management]

50. Mark is in the middle of a software development project. So far, the project has incurred a total cost of $50,000. If it is determined the project is no longer required, what would we call the cost incurred to date? A. Opportunity cost B. Return on investment C. Breakeven cost D. Sunk cost

50. D - Sunk cost is defined as a cost that has already been incurred and which cannot be recovered. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 671] [Project Integration Management]

51. You are setting up your project team, and you are looking at a chart that shows that Systems Development will perform programming, Infrastructure Systems will implement the infrastructure, and the Call Center will handle the customer communication. This is an example of what type of chart? A. RACI B. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) C. Work Breakdown Structure D. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

51. B - A hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization arranged to relate the work packages to performing organizational units is an example of Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS). [PMBOK

51. The complexity of the information flow in any project depends upon the complexity of the project itself. Information flows through various channels in complex projects. The project management team is responsible for gathering, compiling, analyzing, and reporting this information. Which of the following processes finally releases the project information to the project stakeholders? A. Plan Communications Management B. Monitor Communications C. Manage Communications D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

51. C - Manage communications is the process of ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval and management of project information. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 359]

51. Upon obtaining the project charter, the Project Manager of a project starts acquiring the project team immediately. Is this correct? A. Yes. Acquisition of the project team is primarily an Initiating Project Group activity. B. Yes. The project manager needs to get the team together as soon a project starts. C. No. It is the responsibility of the project sponsor to provide the tea execution. D. No. Acquisition of the project team is primarily an Executing Project Group activity.

51. D - No, the project team is not acquired immediately after signing of the project charter. Acquisition of a project team starts with resource management planning in the planning process group, followed by the acquisition of the resources in the execution phase. The other choices are wrong, because the acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 328] [Project Resource Management]

51. Project performance measurements assess the magnitude of variation from the original cost baseline. Once the degree of cost variation is known, what step is performed next? A. Audit the project team B. Upgrade the configuration management database with new controls. C. Replanning D. Perform root cause analysis of the variance's cause relative to the baseline

51. D - Project performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of variation. Important aspects of project cost control include determining the cause of variance relative to the cost baseline. [PMBOK

6. There is a heavy demand for new houses in your city's expensive neighborhood. RECON, a construction company, has employed you as a project manager to assess the benefit of building new energy-efficient houses in that neighborhood, even though it takes more expensive technology to build such houses. You have started gathering data to perform a detailed payback analysis to submit a report to your management. Since the full financial impact of building energy-efficient houses is difficult to estimate, you would like to prepare a rough cost benefit analysis and include it with the report. Which of the following describes the effort you are undertaking in this scenario? A. You are developing a business case to provide as an input to the De Project Charter process. B. You are developing a cost management plan to provide as an input Estimate Costs process. C. You are developing a risk management plan to provide as an input Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. D. You are developing a cost-benefit analysis to provide as an input t Plan Risk Management process.

6. A - An organization's business need may arise due to advances in technology, a demand from the market or a legal requirement. The business need and cost-benefit analysis are documented in a business case. A business case determines whether the project is worth the investment. Payback analysis is also part of a business case. The business case and other documents are used as an input to the Develop Project Charter process. Hence, you are making efforts to build a business case to input to the Develop Project Charter process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 77] [Project Integration Management]

6. Your project team members have just started to work together and are now adjusting their work habits and behaviors to support each other. Which stage of the Tuckman ladder has your team just entered? A. Norming B. Performing C. Forming D. Storming

6. A - During the norming stage, the project team members start to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support each other. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 338] [Project Resource Management]

6. You have decided to apply Resource Leveling to a project because of a critically required resource being available only at certain times. Which of the following will likely be true? A. Resource Leveling can often cause the original critical path to change B. Resource Leveling will over-allocate resources to schedule the p before the deadline. C. Resource Leveling will require additional resources to complete project. D. Resource Leveling will never alter the original critical path.

6. A - Resource levelling can often cause the original critical path to change. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 211] [Project Schedule Management]

6. As project manager, you scheduled a status update meeting. During the meeting, a problem developed, and the group discussed it. The day after the meeting, Kevin approached you and expressed his concern that the problem was not truly resolved. After thinking about it, he felt that his concerns were still valid and should be addressed. What conflict resolution method was likely used at the status meeting? A. Smoothing B. Forcing C. Withdrawal D. Collaboration

6. A - Smoothing is the method that was most likely used to resolve the conflict that arose at the status meeting. Smoothing is a temporary way to resolve conflict. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349] [Project Resource Management]

6. The Create WBS process identifies the deliverables at the __________ level in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). A. Lowest B. Any C. Tenth D. Highest

6. A - The Create WBS process identifies the deliverables at the lowest level in the WBS, the work package. Project work packages are typically decomposed into smaller components called activities, which represent the work that is necessary to complete the work package. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 157] [Project Schedule Management]

6. Which of the following is true about risks? A. The risk register documents all the identified risks in detail. B. Risk impact should be considered, but probability of occurrence is important. C. Risks always have negative impact and not positive. D. Risk Response Plan is another name for Risk Management Plan.

6. A - The risk register contains details of the identified risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 417] [Project Risk Management]

6. Change control tool selection should be based on the needs of the project stakeholders, including organizational and environmental considerations and/or constraints. Which of the following is not a key change management consideration while selecting an appropriate change control tool for a project? A. Identifying and selecting a change item B. Configuration item verification and audit C. Documenting the change into a proper change request D. Tracking change requests

6. B - Configuration item verification and audit is related to configuration management instead of change management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 118, 119] [Project Integration Management]

6. Projects with adaptive life cycles use product backlogs to define a project's scope. The product backlog is a set of: A. Voice of the customer B. User stories C. Client lullabies D. Non-functional requirements

6. B - In projects with adaptive life cycles, the overall scope of the project will be decomposed into a set of requirements and work to be performed, referred to as product backlog. Backlogs include product requirements and user stories. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] [Project Quality Management]

6. Most project management software packages use a method of constructing a project schedule network diagram known as: A. Waterfall Method B. Precedence Diagramming Method C. Agile Method D. Just-in-time Method

6. B - PDM uses Nodes to represent Activities and connects the activities with Arrows to show dependencies. The rest of the choices are not valid schedule network diagraming techniques. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 189] [Project Schedule Management]

6. You are in the final phase of a low-cost car manufacturing project. This project has successfully delivered a low-cost car that runs on batteries. However, to close this project and avoid auditing from government authorities, it must demonstrably comply with many administrative standards. Since your organization possesses experts who know closing procedures and standards, you want to use them to close this project. This effort is an instance of: A. Using enterprise environmental factors in closing the project B. Using expert judgment in closing the project C. Using organizational process assets in closing the project D. Poor project management practice

6. B - Projects are closed during the Close Project or Phase process. One of the tools which can be used in this process is expert judgment. Expert judgment can be obtained from consultants or industry experts. These experts can help ensure compliance with all project standards when projects are closed. In this scenario, you would want to use experts from your own organization in closing the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

6. Janice, a project manager, wanted to obtain early feedback on the project requirements. However, she was concerned that the abstract representations of the requirements might not elicit useful feedback. Which of the following tools and techniques might help her overcome this hurdle? A. Histograms B. Prototypes C. Ishikawa diagram D. Control charts

6. B - Prototypes are working models of the expected product before actually building it. The tangible nature of prototypes allows stakeholders to experiment with a model of their final product early in the project life cycle and to generate clear feedback. The other choices are incorrect as they are quality management tools. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 147]

6. The project management team performed activities such as measuring, examining, and verifying to determine whether work and deliverables met requirements and product acceptance criteria. Which of the following choices refers to a different set of activities than the ones just mentioned? A. Walkthroughs B. Prevention C. Inspection D. Reviews

6. B - The activities such as measuring, examining, and verifying to determine whether work and deliverables met requirements and product acceptance criteria are variously referred to as inspections, audits, reviews, product reviews, and walkthroughs. Prevention is not a valid term to describe these activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 675] [Project Quality Management]

6. Which of the following is not an example of a work performance report? A. Status report B. Project charter C. Progress report D. Project dashboard

6. B - The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes a project. It is not a work performance report. The other choices are valid examples of work performance reports. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 112] [Project Integration Management]

6. Different stakeholders might require dissimilar outcomes from a project. An integral component of stakeholder management is managing these competing expectations throughout the project from initiation to closure. Which of the following management techniques can help in this situation? A. Stakeholder engagement analysis B. Facilitation C. Questionnaires D. Expert judgment

6. B - The project manager must use facilitation skills to arrive at a consensus toward project objectives. Scheduling regular stakeholder update meetings and engaging them throughout the project lifecycle is the ideal way to manage stakeholders' varying expectations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 80] [Project Stakeholder Management]

6. While rating a proposal, one of the requirements was: "The proposed project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional, PMP®" This is an example of: A. Constraints B. Source Selection Criteria C. Assumptions D. Good practice

6. B - This is an example of source selection criteria used to rate or score proposals. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 478] [Project Procurement Management]

6. While preparing a resource management plan, a project manager designated one of the senior programmers on the team to make decisions on whether the quality of deliverables met the project's documented standards. Which of the following aspects of a resource management plan does this address? A. Competency B. Responsibility C. Authority D. Role

6. C - Authority is the best choice. Authority is the right to apply project resources and make decisions within the project. These decisions could include quality acceptance, selection of the method for completing an activity, and how to respond to project variances. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 318] [Project Resource Management]

6. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the PMBOK processes that collects work performance data, converts it to work performance information, formats it into work performance reports, and distributes these reports? A. Direct & Manage Project Work -> Monitor & Control Project Wo Monitor Communications -> Manage Communications B. Monitor Communications -> Direct & Manage Project Work -> Mo & Control Project Work -> Manage Communications C. Direct & Manage Project Work -> Monitor Communications -> Mo & Control Project Work -> Manage Communications D. Direct & Manage Project Work -> Monitor & Control Project Wo Manage Communications -> Monitor Communications

6. C - Direct & Manage Project Work -> Monitor Communications -> Monitor & Control Project Work -> Manage Communications is the correct response. The Direct & Manage Project Work process produces the work performance data. This work performance data is converted to work performance information by the Monitor Communications process. The Monitor & Control Project Work process uses this information and produces work performance reports which are then distributed to the stakeholders by the Manage Communications process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 90, 105, 379, 388] [Project Communications Management]

6. Christine is managing a healthcare software development project. At a PMI conference, she met George, who is the project manager at a competing organization. George, a PMP, has managed many successful healthcare-related software development projects. If George shares his stakeholder management experience with Christine, will that be considered expert judgment? A. No! George is a project manager at a competitor organization. B. Yes! All participants at a PMI conference are experts. C. Yes! George is an expert in managing such projects. D. No! This would be an example of expert opinion and not expert judgement

6. C - George is giving an expert opinion; this is analogous to expert judgment. A PMP-certified project manager from a competitor would not normally give false information. This can be considered expert judgment since George has managed many similar projects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 79] [Project Stakeholder Management]

6. In a software development project, Debby, the project manager, completed development of a charter and identification of stakeholders. Debby has collected proprietary information from vendors during the planning process. What should Debby do when a functional manager from the same organization wants to see this information? A. Deny the request as the manager is not part of the project B. Accept the request as the manager belongs to the same organization C. Deny the request to protect the confidentiality of the information D. Accept the request but caution the manager to maintain confidentiality

6. C - It is the responsibility of the project manager to maintain confidentiality of protected or proprietary information. A project manager should provide such confidential information only to the sponsor and to the vendor evaluation committee or whoever is involved in the evaluation. He or she must not provide this information to any other employees within the organization or within the project. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

6. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations who are actively involved in the project or who have an interest in it. Which of the following is not an internal stakeholder? A. Program Manager B. Project Sponsor C. Competitor D. Project Manager

6. C - The competitors are affected by the project but are not actively involved in the project. Competitors are external project stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 550] [Project Framework]

6. You are managing a project. An audit team wants to know where they can find information on training plans for the project team members and certification requirements. This are in the: A. Resource Breakdown Structure B. Staff Release Plan C. Resource Management Plan D. Communications Management Plan

6. C - The correct response is the Resource Management Plan. This documents information such as training plans, certification requirements and compliance issues. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 318, 319] [Project Resource Management]

6. While managing a project, you have included the product acceptance criteria in the Quality Management Plan. While reviewing your plan, a senior manager asks you to reconsider this. You then realize that what you did is incorrect. Where should you place the product acceptance criteria? A. Project Charter B. Change control process C. Project Scope Statement D. Scope Verification Plan

6. C - The project scope statement documents and addresses the characteristics and boundaries of the project and its associated products and services, as well as product acceptance criteria and scope control. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 154] [Project Scope Management]

6. Which of the following is accurate regarding agreements in Project Procurement Management? A. Agreements can never be terminated. B. Terms and conditions never include the seller's proposal. C. Agreements are informal documents. D. Agreements are legal documents between a buyer and a seller.

6. D - Agreements are legal and formal documents between buyers and sellers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] [Project Procurement Management]

6. Which of these tools and techniques is common to all seven Project Integration Management processes? A. Meetings B. Data analysis C. Data gathering D. Expert Judgment

6. D - All seven processes of Project Integration Management use Expert Judgment as a tool and technique. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 71] [Project Integration Management]

6. You are working on a project with all the team members located in geographically different areas, and all communication is by email and chat. It is sometimes hard to infer the true meaning of these messages because you cannot see facial expressions or hear tones of voice. This is an example of: A. Encoding B. Medium C. Decoding D. Noise

6. D - Anything that interferes with the meaning of a message is considered noise. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 372] [Project Communications Management]

6. Lucy is currently preparing a high-level cost estimate for her project in the initiation phase. With the limited detail available to her, what would you expect the range of her estimate to be, and what would you call such an estimate? A. -25 to +25%, Absolute Cost B. -5 to +10%, Narrow C. -1 to +1%, Definitive D. -25 to +75%, Rough Order of Magnitude

6. D - During the initial stages of the project, the amount of information available will be limited. Therefore, a Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate is usually prepared, and it should have an accuracy range of -25% to +75%. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 241] [Project Cost Management]

6. Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment, and supplies required to perform each activity is: A. Estimate Activity Workload B. Estimate Activity Input C. Resource calendars D. Estimate Activity Resources

6. D - Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment and supplies required to perform each activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 320] [Project Framework]

6. Skills such as empathy, influence, creativity, and group encouragement are valuable assets when managing the project team. These skills are often referred to as ______________. A. Effort-based management B. Feedback-based skills C. Ad hoc skills D. Soft skills

6. D - Interpersonal skills, sometimes known as "soft skills," are particularly important to team development. By understanding the sentiments of project team members, anticipating their actions, acknowledging their concerns, and following up on their issues, the project management team can significantly reduce problems and increase cooperation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 357] [Project Resource Management]

6. Which process group corresponds to the "do" part of the plan-do-check-act cycle? A. Closing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Planning D. Executing

6. D - The Executing process group corresponds with the "do" portion of the

6. As part of a new project you just started on as project manager, you are assembling your team and discovering that one of the critical pieces of work requires a specialist from one of the functional departments. However, you are aware the functional manager may be reluctant to assign that resource to your project since your project is not a high-profile one. Which of the following techniques will you need to apply? A. Acquisition B. Coercion C. Politics D. Negotiation

6. D - The correct response is Negotiation. This is done on many projects. The project management team may need to negotiate with functional managers to ensure that the team receives appropriately competent staff in the required time frame. The project management team may also need to negotiate with other project management teams. [PMBOK 6th edition,

7. As the project manager of a large project, you have just completed the Estimate Costs process. As you begin the Determine Budget process, which of the following would you require as inputs to the process from the Estimate Costs process? A. Activity cost estimates, basis of estimates B. Activity cost estimates, activity resource estimates C. Resource breakdown structure, agreements D. Activity cost estimates, staff management plan

7. A - Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work. The basis of estimates consists of additional details supporting the cost estimate. These include documentation of the basis for the estimate, documentation of all assumptions, documentation of any known constraints and indication of the range of possible estimates. These are produced during the Estimate Costs process and form inputs to the Develop Budget process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 240, 248] [Project Cost Management]

7. You are beginning a new project. When should you use the Perform Integrated Change Control process? A. Throughout the entire project B. Only when closing out the project C. Only after the project is completely funded D. Only after the project scope is clearly defined

7. A - Changes can occur in the project at any time. The Perform Integrated Change Control process is valuable for managing and tracking those changes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [Project Integration Management]

7. Projects operating in agile environments where a high degree of uncertainty exists and where the scope is not yet fully defined, may not benefit from detailed cost calculations due to frequent changes. Instead, lightweight estimation methods can be used to generate a fast, high-level forecast of project labor costs, which can then be easily adjusted as changes arise. Detailed estimates are: A. Reserved for short-term planning horizons in a just-in-time fashion. B. Never developed in an agile project. C. Only developed if the project stakeholders allow the project manage do so. D. Developed early during the project but are never updated due to frequent changes.

7. A - In agile/adaptive environments, detailed estimates are reserved for short-term planning horizons in a just-in-time fashion. The rest of the choices are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 234] [Project Framework]

7. Funding requirements for a project are usually in incremental amounts that are not continuous. These increments appear as a step function in the graph depicting Cash flow, Cost baseline and Funding. Any gap at the end of the project between the funds allocated and the cost baseline represents: A. Management reserves B. Contingency reserves C. Cost variance D. Charting error

7. A - Management reserves are included in the project's total funds, but they are not included in the project's cost performance baseline. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 252] [Project Cost Management]

7. During which stage of risk planning are risks prioritized based on their relative probability and impact? A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis B. Identify Risks C. Perform Quantitative risk analysis D. Plan Risk Responses

7. A - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses the impact and likelihood of identified risks. During this process, the risks are prioritized based on their relative probability and impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 419] [Project Risk Management]

7. A project manager had scheduled a number of training programs for his team. However, he was aware that apart from planned training, unplanned training also took place in a number of ways. Which of these is not one of the ways in which unplanned training can take place? A. Classroom B. Observation C. Project performance appraisals D. Conversation

7. A - Scheduled training occurs as stated in the Human Resource plan and can include online, classroom, on-the-job, etc. Unplanned training can take place through conversation, observation, and project performance appraisals. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 342] [Project Resource Management]

7. You are the project manager of a project and are about to conduct a risk identification exercise in a few days' time. You want to remind the participants in the exercise beforehand of the various sources from which risk may arise in the project. What could you use to help you do this? A. A Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) B. A Risk Simulation Structure (RSS) C. A Risk Register D. An Impact Matrix

7. A - The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchically organized depiction of identified project risks arranged by risk category and subcategory. This may be based on a previously prepared categorization framework. The RBS serves to remind participants in the risk identification exercise of the different sources from which project risk may arise. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 405] [Project Risk Management]

7. The Cost Management Plan is an output of the Plan Cost Management process. This plan is then integrated with other project plans in which of these processes? A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Direct and Manage Project Work

7. A - The cost management plan is a component of the project management plan. Once the cost management plan is developed, it is integrated with the project management plan during the Develop Project Management Plan process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 82] [Project Cost Management]

7. Jared is in the execution phase of a residential housing construction project. He has been informed of major scope changes from stakeholders in the middle of the project. These changes involve regulatory requirements from local authorities that may affect not only the scope but also the cost and duration of the project. What is the first step that Jared should take in considering these changes? A. Meet with the change control board to solicit some ideas on the project plan B. Create a report detailing the impact of scope changes on p parameters such as cost, quality, and schedule C. Add new tasks to the project plan and assign resources to account regulatory changes D. Escalate the scope changes to the sponsor and steering committee for decision

7. B - Any scope changes in a project must go through the Integrated Change Control process to determine the impact on project parameters such as cost, quality and schedule. The changes must then be presented to the Change Control Board for their review. Then, all approved changes must be planned, and resources must be allocated. Therefore, the first step for Jared is to create a report detailing the impact of scope changes on project parameters such as cost, quality and schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [Project Integration Management]

7. Which of the following is Deming's method for continuous improvement? A. Plan-Act-Check-Do B. Plan-Do-Check-Act C. Check-Plan-Do-Act D. Plan-Check-Do-Act

7. B - Deming's model is Plan-Do-Check-Act. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 275] [Project Quality Management]

7. The Project Scope Management Knowledge Area is primarily concerned with: A. Defining the scope of work that included in the project B. Ensuring that the project includes all the work required, and only the required, to complete the project C. The scope of work required during the initiation phase D. Defining the specifications and functionality of the work product

7. B - Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required to complete the project successfully. It is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is included and what is not included in the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] [Project Scope Management]

7. There are a number of risks that have been identified in your project. The team has decided not to change the project plan to deal with the risks, but they have established a contingency reserve of money in the event something triggers these risks. This is an example of what type of risk mitigation technique? A. Contingent Response Strategy B. Active acceptance C. Passive acceptance D. Avoidance

7. B - Recognizing the risk and not changing the plan but making some contingencies in the event the risk is triggered is an example of active acceptance. Passive acceptance would recognize the risk but not put contingencies in place, and avoidance would be correct if the project plan were modified. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] [Project Risk Management]

7. You are a project manager for your company. Part of the project requires producing 10,000 widgets, which your company will outsource. The company has agreed to pay all related costs and 5 percent of the estimated project costs. What type of contract has been negotiated? A. Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract C. Time and Material contract D. Fixed-price contract

7. B - This is an example of a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract. This type of contract determines the profit element as a fixed percentage of the estimated project cost. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472] [Project Procurement Management]

7. The fundamental lesson from the Theory of Constraints by Goldratt is: A. The project's critical path is limited by the non-critical activities. B. Managers who choose to lead from the front are more successful. C. A system's throughput is limited by at least one constraint. D. Managers who delegate more are more successful.

7. C - According to the theory of constraints, a system's throughput is limited by at least one constraint. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 310] [Project Risk Management]

7. You are responsible for developing high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints for your project. You meet with experts in your organization and document various risks in the project. However, in reviewing historical data from a previous project, you notice a significant additional risk to your project, one that no one else is aware of. What should you do to continue the project? A. Do not document the risk since it is based on past data B. Document it but make it a low-level risk C. Document it and make it a high-level risk D. Do not document the risk since nobody knows about it

7. C - As a project manager, you have a responsibility to disclose accurate information to all project stakeholders honestly. Project managers must not disseminate false or misleading information. Thus, you must document it as a high-level risk. Even though the risk is based on past data, it must be documented because the risks could also be identified from the past data. Documenting it as a low-level risk would be a misleading act, and a project manager must not do that. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

7. What is the purpose of a bidder conference? A. Awarding a contract to the most suitable vendor B. Pre-qualifying the potential sellers C. Ensuring all vendors have a clear understanding of the procurement D. Developing a comprehensive seller's list

7. C - Bidder conferences are also called contractor conferences or vendor conferences. Their purpose is to provide all vendors with an understanding of the project requirements and to give all vendors equal time to get their questions answered. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 487] [Project Procurement Management]

7. What is the primary risk when including reserves, or contingency allowances, in your cost estimate? A. Cancelling your project B. Understating the cost estimate C. Overstating the cost estimate D. Tracking the funds

7. C - Contingency funds are used to handle cost uncertainty due to unforeseen events during a project. These funds are generally used for items that are likely to occur but are not certain to occur. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 245] [Project Cost Management]

7. For projects where a business analyst collaborates with the project managers in managing the project scope, which of the following task is most likely to be performed by the business analyst? A. Acquire project resources B. Monitor the change control process C. Elicit, document, and manage stakeholder requirements D. Control project costs

7. C - Eliciting, documenting and managing stakeholder requirements is a responsibility of a business analyst in projects where business analysts collaborate with project managers to manage the project scope. [PMBOK

7. ___________________ is performed on risks that have been prioritized by the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process as potentially and substantially impacting the project's competing demands. A. Perform Risk Cost Analysis B. Perform Risk Exposure Analysis C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Perform Risk Outcome Analysis

7. C - Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized by the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process as potentially and substantially impacting the project's competing demands. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis analyzes the effect of those risk events and assigns a numerical rating to those risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 429] [Project Risk Management]

7. What is the process of random selection and inspection of a work product? A. Control Charting B. Flow Charting C. Statistical Sampling D. Benchmarking

7. C - Statistical sampling is the process of random selection and inspection of a work product. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 303] [Project Quality Management]

7. You are managing a project and find you need to apply resource leveling. Which of the following tools can help you identify resources that are over allocated? A. Resource Assignment Matrix B. Network diagram C. Resource Histogram D. Resource Breakdown Structure

7. C - The Resource Histogram is a tool for charting human resources. It illustrates the number of hours that a person, department or entire project team will be needed each week or month over the course of the project.

7. A project charter that formally authorized a project was created. The project charter documented the initial requirements to satisfy stakeholders' needs and expectations. How often should the project charter be revised? A. At the beginning, middle, and end of a project B. Once a month C. Project charter is usually not updated during the course of the project D. As required by the PMO

7. C - The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes a project. It documents a broad understanding of the project and does not need to be updated during the course of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75] [Project Integration Management]

7. You have recently taken over a project as the project manager. The project is midway through execution, and most of the project work has been subcontracted. You have just found out that one of the subcontractors, who was responsible for all demolitions, has been paid 50 percent of the subcontracted value, but he has delivered only 25 percent of the required works. Upon investigation, you learned that all the payments are in line with the signed contract between the two parties and the subcontractor's work is compliant with the contract specifications. You are annoyed because this does not give you enough control over the subcontracted works. Which of the following is not an appropriate thing to do at this stage? A. Document the story as a lesson learned B. Continue with the arrangement C. Discuss your concerns with appropriate stakeholders so that this mi is not repeated D. Terminate the contract unless there is a violation of the contract

7. D - According to the scenario the subcontractor is conforming to the contract's requirements. However, the project manager is not happy since the contractual terms and conditions do not give him enough control over the subcontracted work. The contract should not be terminated unless there is any violation of the contract, but appropriate steps need to be taken to avoid such mistakes in the future. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 492] [Project Procurement Management]

7. A project manager uses the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for constructing a project schedule network and creates a network diagram for the purpose. He decides to use the most common type of precedence relationship for all activities. Which of the following relationships would he use? A. Start-to-finish (SF) B. Finish-to-finish (FF) C. Start-to-start (SS) D. Finish-to-start (FS)

7. D - Finish-to-start (FS) is the most common type of precedence relationship. In contrast, the start-to-finish (SF) relationship is rarely used. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190]

7. The cost of running a project management office is an example of what type of cost? A. Reimbursable B. Fixed C. Direct D. Indirect

7. D - Indirect costs are those costs that cannot be directly traced to a specific project. These costs are accumulated and allocated equitably over multiple projects by an approved and documented accounting procedure. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 246] [Project Cost Management]

7. Caitlin's project is behind schedule. She is planning to crash the project by allowing overtime to the project team. This approach can bring additional risks to the project. Which of the following is not a valid risk in this scenario: A. The profit margin might decrease. B. Risk of employee attrition might increase. C. Risk of errors and/or rework might increase. D. The project's acceptance criteria might get updated.

7. D - Meeting customer requirements by overworking the project team may result in decreased profits, increased levels of overall project risks, employee attrition, errors, or rework. The project's acceptance criteria should not get updated as a result of crashing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 273] [Project Quality Management]

7. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is: A. Not often completed B. Complete and 100 percent accurate C. In-depth and thorough D. focused on high-priority risks

7. D - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is quicker than Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis as it focuses on high-priority risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 419] [Project Risk Management]

7. Nancy is engaged in the construction of three office buildings. Although the construction sites are in various places, she has managed each team efficiently to complete the work on time and within budget. Which of the following statements describes the effort Nancy is doing? A. Construction of each building is an operational work because repetitive in nature. B. The building construction is considered neither a project nor opera work. C. Construction of all three buildings is considered one project. D. Construction of each building is a project because each building separate in nature.

7. D - Projects are temporary and unique, whereas operational work is repetitive. Since Nancy is working to construct three unique buildings, and each has a definite beginning and a definite end, each effort is considered as a project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 4] [Project Framework]

7. In complex and high value projects, which of the following activities will typically be performed by a business analyst prior to the project initiation? A. Define project scope and develop WBS B. Finalize the project scope statement and the WBS dictionary C. Establish the project's scope baseline D. Determine problems, identify business needs and viable solutions

7. D - Typical business analyst's responsibilities would include determining problems, identifying business needs, and recommending viable solutions for meeting those needs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 132] [Project Communications Management]

8. If a project has a 60 percent chance of a $100,000 profit and a 40 percent chance of a $100,000 loss, the expected monetary value of the project is: A. $20,000 profit B. $40,000 loss C. $100,000 profit D. $60,000 loss

8. A - EMV = Probability * Impact. 0.6 * $100,000 = $60,000. 0.4 * ($100,000) = ($40,000). $60,000 - $40,000 = $20,000 profit. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

8. A technique that iterates the project schedule many times to calculate a distribution of possible project completion dates is: A. Monte Carlo Analysis B. Montford analysis C. Pareto Cost chart D. Deming Analysis

8. A - Monte Carlo Analysis is a technique that computes or iterates the project cost or the project schedule many times, using input values selected at random from probability distributions of possible costs or durations. In this way, one can calculate a distribution of possible total project costs or completion dates. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 213] [Project Schedule Management]

8. Your company is considering buying a building worth $1 million. If the company buys this building and rents it out for the next five years, it will get $100,000 per year as rent (receivable by the end of each year). At the end of the fifth year, the company will resell the building at $1.1 million. What is the NPV of this investment at 10 percent per annum discount rate? A. 62092 B. 600000 C. 1600000 D. 2200000

8. A - NPV = discounted inflows - discounted outflows Since the full investment, i.e. $1 million, needs to be made now, we don't have to discount the outflows. However, we need to discount all the inflows by 10% per annum. The discount formula is: Present Value (PV) = Future Value / (1 + discount rate)^period For year 1: PV1 = 100,000 / 1.1^1 = 90,909 For year 2: PV1 = 100,000 / 1.1^2 = 82,645 For year 3: PV1 = 100,000 / 1.1^3 = 75,131 For year 4: PV1 = 100,000 / 1.1^4 = 68,301 For year 5: PV1 = 1,200,000 / 1.1^5 = 745,106 Hence the total PV of the inflows = 1,062,092 NPV = 1,062,092 - 1,000,000 = $62,092 [PMBOK 5th edition, Pages 34, 473] [Project Integration Management]

8. There are several communication methods used to share and distribute information to stakeholders, team members, and management. Which of the following communication methods is used when you notify the public about environmental effects from your project after implementation by posting reports on the project's website? A. Pull communication B. Interactive communication C. Informal communication D. Push communication

8. A - Push communication is used to send information to specific recipients who need to know. Push communication is done using letters, faxes, memos, etc. Pull communication is used for large volumes of information. The methods for this type of communication include internet sites and blogs. Since you want to notify the general public about environmental effects by posting reports on the project's website, this is an example of pull communication methods. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] [Project Communications Management]

8. Which of the following processes are usually not performed continuously, but rather, performed periodically as needed: A. Acquire Resources B. Monitor Risks C. Monitor Communications D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

8. A - The Acquire Resources is performed as project resources are needed. This is an example of a process that is performed periodically as needed. The other choices are example of processes that are continuously performed. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 22] [Project Quality Management]

8. The project management team has determined that there are some changes to the scope of the project. According to the PMBOK, who is responsible for reviewing, evaluating, and approving documented changes to the project? A. Change Control Board (CCB) B. Change Configuration Board (CCB) C. Scope Control Board (SCB) D. Configuration Control Board (CCB)

8. A - The Change Control Board is a group of formally constituted stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying or rejecting changes to the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [Project Integration Management]

8. Which of the following tools will help trace the requirements to product design? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Design traceability matrix C. Project scope statement D. Product traceability matrix

8. A - The requirements traceability matrix provides a structure to trace requirements to product design. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 148] [Project Scope Management]

8. Your project calls for communication with an extremely large audience. What communication method would be appropriate under such circumstances? A. Pull communication B. Interactive communication C. Two-way communication D. Verbal communication

8. A - The situation in the project would call for pull communication. This is suitable for a large audience, and it allows them to access information at their own discretion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] [Project Communications Management]

8. Sally, a project manager, was reconciling expenditure of funds with funding limits on the commitment of funds for the project. She found a large variance between the funding limits and planned expenditures. As a result, she decided to reschedule work to level out the rate of expenditures. This is: A. Funding limit reconciliation B. Funding limit constraints C. Funding limit expenditure D. Funding limit appropriation

8. A - This is known as funding limit reconciliation. It can be accomplished by placing imposed date constraints for work into the project schedule.

8. As part of the procurement process, the procuring organization elected to have an estimate of costs prepared by an outside professional estimator. The estimator came up with an estimate of $500,000. However, the cost estimates prepared by prospective sellers were in the range of $200,000. How can this be best interpreted? A. The procurement statement of work was deficient and ambiguous. B. The professional estimator has inflated the estimate of costs. C. The prospective sellers do not have the required skills to do the project D. Prospective sellers are trying to underbid and win the project.

8. A - When prospective bids are significantly different from the estimates prepared by a professional estimator, it likely means that the procurement statement of work (SOW) was deficient or that the prospective sellers have misunderstood the procurement SOW. The other choices jump to conclusions without relevant data. It is possible that some prospective sellers do not have the skills or are trying to underbid; but in this case, all of them are off by a large percentage. Hence, it points to a deficient statement of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 479] [Project Procurement Management]

8. Sandra is managing a complex ERP design and implementation project. The project team has recently been hired. It is an enterprise-wide project affecting many stakeholders. It is very important for each team member to properly understand and follow the project communication requirements in order to keep the stakeholders engaged and informed. Which of the following tools and techniques can Sandra use to ensure that team members properly understand the project's communications requirements? A. Ground rules B. Training C. Co-location D. Recognition and rewards

8. B - All of the choices look correct at the first glance. However, the question is specifically asking for a technique that will raise the awareness of the communication requirements. Training is the ideal tool for increasing the awareness of the team members. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 342] [Project Communications Management]

8. Ron is a project manager handling an alternate water-supply project. During a project performance review, he notices the following: (is) Activity A, on the critical path, is delayed by four days. (ii) Activity B, not on the critical path, is delayed by nine days. (iii) Activity C, on the critical path, is delayed by two days. (iv) Activity D, not on the critical path, is delayed by five days. In what sequence should Ron prioritize his efforts in addressing these delays? A. First Activities A and B, and then Activities C and D B. First Activities A and C, and then Activities B and D C. First Activities C and D, and then Activities A and B D. First Activities A and D, and then Activities B and C

8. B - An important part of schedule control is deciding if schedule variation requires corrective action. Activities on the critical path get first priority for immediate action. Larger delays on activities not on the critical path may not require immediate attention since they may not affect the overall project schedule. Hence, Ron will first deal with the delays on the critical path and then tackle the delays on the other paths. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]

8. Andrew was working as a senior project manager at a company when he resigned from his position. This company recently hired Jack to replace Andrew. Jack had worked with Andrew in the past, and he knows him personally. Jack is now in charge of a project that Andrew left in the middle. If Jack calls Andrew for an opinion on this project, this constitutes: A. Jack's incompetence since he is dependent on Andrew's opinion B. An example of obtaining expert judgment from a senior C. Unethical behavior by Jack since Andrew has already resigned from company D. A conflict of interest situation as Jack knows Andrew

8. B - Asking a senior for an opinion is an example of obtaining expert judgment. Andrew knows the project better than Jack since he had managed it in the past. If Jack seeks an expert opinion from Andrew, this is neither unethical nor a conflict of interest situation; neither does it suggest that Jack is an incompetent project manager. Rather, Jack is employing expert judgment, a good project management practice. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 79]

8. Martin is the project manager of a project that is in an early phase. He needs to estimate costs but finds that he has a limited amount of detailed information about the project. Which of the following estimation techniques is least suited to his requirements? A. Top-down Estimating B. Bottom-up Estimating C. Analogous Estimating D. Budgetary Estimating

8. B - Bottom-up estimating is a technique that can be applied only when there is a sufficient amount of detail available to the project manager. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 244] [Project Cost Management]

8. Which of the following techniques focuses on identifying non-value-added activities in a project? A. Pareto charting B. Process analysis C. Root cause analysis D. Affinity diagrams

8. B - Process analysis examines problems experienced, constraints experienced, and non-value-added activities identified during process operation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 292]

8. Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use promotes and reinforces desired behaviors in the project. Creating a recognition plan with established times for rewards ensures that recognition takes place and is not forgotten. This is usually part of the: A. Project Dashboard B. Resource Management Plan C. Company HR plan D. Communications Management Plan

8. B - The plan for rewards and recognition is part of the Resource Management plan. The recognition and rewards are developed as part of the Plan Resource Management process. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Pages 318, 319] [Project Resource Management]

8. Apart from the difference in the overall governance approach used for the projects performed under the predictive and adaptive lifecycles, the project manager should also be familiar with: A. The difference in the cost/benefit analysis techniques in both approac B. The tools and techniques used in both approaches. C. The difference in the quality standards in both approaches. D. The risk management processes used in both approaches.

8. B - The role of the project manager does not change bases on managing project using a predictive development life cycle or managing project in adaptive environments. However, to be successful in used adaptive approaches, the project manager will need to be familiar with the tools and techniques to understand and how to apply them effectively. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 178] [Project Procurement Management]

8. As a project manager, you perform various project performance measurements to assess the magnitude of variation. You then attempt to determine the cause and decide whether corrective action is necessary. This is: A. Scope Analysis B. Variance Analysis C. Performance Reporting D. Configuration Management

8. B - This is known as Variance Analysis. As project manager, you would then attempt to determine the cause of the variance relative to the scope baseline, and then decide whether corrective action is required. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 111] [Project Scope Management]

8. You are using the one-on-one interview technique to gather high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints in an infrastructure development project to set up a bank. During the interview process, a key stakeholder tells you that the project might fail due to lack of support from local people. What should you do in this situation? A. Escalate the stakeholder's comments to the sponsor for his advice B. Investigate the reasons behind the stakeholder's comments C. Document the stakeholder's comments and continue with the project D. Ignore the stakeholder's comments and continue with the project

8. B - You must document the comments from the stakeholder. However, you should not continue the project until you also understand his or her rationale. The sponsor might ask you to look into it, so escalating the stakeholder's comments to the sponsor may not yield anything. Ignoring the stakeholder's comments is not advisable. Thus, the correct step is to investigate the reasons behind the stakeholder's comments. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

8. You are building a mile-long bridge on a T&M contract. During the excavation activity, you learned some telephone cables are crossing the alignment where you have to construct the bridge. You need to relocate these telephone cables, but there is no provision of such an activity in the contract. Further, the relocation of the cables is a costly task, and you need to do a lot of government paperwork, as well. You requested an amendment in the contract, but the buyer rejected it. Despite many efforts, you both could not resolve this issue. What should you do next? A. Terminate the contract following the termination procedures mention the contract. B. File a judicial petition in accordance with the state's law. C. Seek arbitration following the ADR procedures in the contract. D. Relocate the cables at your own expense since the contract does not this activity.

8. C - In this scenario there has been an increase in the scope of works. Since the contract doesn't accommodate this, the contractor rightfully requested for an amendment. However, since both parties cannot settle this amicably, the next step is to seek arbitration. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

8. Which of the following statements most accurately describes a project scenario? A. Changes in project scope during the initial phases of the project are expensive. B. The influence of the stakeholders is the same all through the project. C. Staffing peaks during the execution phase of a project. D. The next phase of a project should never start until the deliverables f previous phase are completely reviewed and approved.

8. C - Staffing is typically highest during the execution phase of the project. The other three responses may not hold true. Projects can move forward into subsequent phases without the deliverables of the prior phase being completely approved; this is known as fast tracking. Changes during the initial phases of the project are the least expensive. The influence of the stakeholders is highest during the start of the project and declines as the project moves to completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 549] [Project Framework]

8. A project manager approaches you to understand the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in better detail. You tell her that: A. The WBS is a detailed project plan and includes the effort, resources dates on which the tasks for the project are complete. B. The WBS is a task-oriented decomposition of work that identifies task and the resource required to accomplish the task. C. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the the project team must accomplish to meet project objectives. D. The WBS is a Gantt chart that contains details about the p deliverables the project team must do.

8. C - The WBS is a deliverable oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be accomplished by the project team to accomplish project objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 157] [Project Scope Management]

8. A decision tree is a Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis technique. A decision tree is represented by a Decision Tree Diagram. The decision tree describes a situation under consideration, the implications of each of the available choices, and the possible scenarios. A Decision Tree Diagram shows how to make a decision among alternative capital strategies known as: A. Alternative nodes B. Question points C. Decision nodes D. Checkpoints

8. C - The decision points are known as Decision nodes. The decision tree incorporates the cost of each available choice, the possibilities of each of the available choices, and possible scenarios. It shows how to make a decision among alternative capital strategies (decision nodes) when the environment is not known with certainty. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] [Project Risk Management]

8. The Direct and Manage Project Work process has three tools and techniques. Two of them are Expert Judgment and Meetings. What is the third one? A. Scheduling System B. Configuration Management System C. Project Management Information System D. Change Control System

8. C - The three tools and techniques of the Direct and Manage Project Work process are: Expert Judgment, Project Management Information System, and Meetings. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 90] [Project Integration Management]

8. You are working on an information technology project as a project manager to develop a shopping website for your customers. Some key stakeholders in the project suggested scope changes to improve the website's look and feel. Your team has analyzed the impact of these changes and presented the analysis to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval. What should be your next step if the CCB accepts all proposed changes? A. Implement the change request and update stakeholders B. Review change control board decisions and inform stakeholders for input C. Conduct a team status meeting to update the progress on change requests D. Revise cost estimates, schedule dates, resource requirements, planning documents

8. D - Approved change requests require changes to cost estimates, resource requirements, schedule dates and activity sequences. You should incorporate these revisions first before asking your team to implement the changes. Stakeholders can be updated after making the changes.

8. Jennifer has recently been asked to manage an office refurbishment project. She finds out that the chief financial officer of the company is resisting the project. The chief financial officer is a key project stakeholder. What must Jennifer do first? A. Seek expert judgment from the project initiator B. Seek support from the project sponsor to force project decisions C. Conduct a team meeting to discuss this issue D. Analyze options that might change or influence the chief finance officer's perception

8. D - In this scenario, the chief financial officer is a resistant key stakeholder. The chief financial officer must be turned into a project supporter in order to ensure success. Any of the given choices could be the solution to this problem. However, Jennifer should first identify all of the available options and analyze them before selecting the best option. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 521] [Project Stakeholder Management]

8. Fill in the blank. _______________ indicates that planning and documentation are iterative or ongoing activities. A. Progressive management B. Iterative elaboration C. Waterfall development D. Progressive elaboration

8. D - Progressive elaboration is a characteristic of projects. It allows a project management team to manage the project to a greater level as the project evolves. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 565] [Project Framework]

8. You are aware that cost and schedule risks are prevalent in your project. You want to compare the planned project performance with its actual performance during the Monitor Risks process. What should you perform to provide this information? A. Reserve analysis B. Risk audit C. Risk reassessment D. Technical Performance Analysis

8. D - Technical performance analysis, a tool and technique of the Monitor Risks process, is used to evaluate the differentials between planned and actual costs, schedules, and performance criteria. Several statistical techniques, such as Earned Value (EV) technique, are used to analyze these variances. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 456] [Project Cost Management]

8. You are the Project Manager for JT's Lumber Yard. You are trying to forecast estimates for the final phase of the project you are currently working on. Based on the performance of the project to date, which formula can be used to estimate the total value of the project when completed, assuming similar variances will not occur? A. ETC = (BAC - EV)/CPI B. SV = EV - PV C. CPI = EV/AC D. EAC = AC + BAC - EV

8. D - The formula EAC = AC + BAC - EV is used to determine the total value of the project when completed, assuming similar variances will not occur for the uncompleted project activities. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 267] [Project Cost Management]

8. Large variations in the periodic expenditure of funds are undesirable for organizational operations. Therefore, the expenditure of funds is frequently reconciled with the disbursement of funds for the project. According to the PMBOK, this is known as: A. Disbursement Reconciliation B. Expenditure Reconciliation C. Budget Reconciliation D. Funding Limit Reconciliation

8. D - This is known as funding limit reconciliation. This will necessitate the scheduling of work to be adjusted to smooth or regulate those expenditures. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 253] [Project Cost Management]

9. The performance reports produced during the Control Procurements process are then provided to which project management process for further processing? A. Monitor & Control Project Work in the form of work perform information B. Direct & Manage Project Work in the form of work performance data C. Perform Integrated Change Control in the form of a change request D. Performance report is not an output of the Control Procurement process

9. A - Although, PMBOK does not explicitly mentions performance reports as an output of the Control Procurements process, these reports are produced during this process. The performance reports are then provided to the Monitor & Control Project Work in the form of work performance information. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 493] [Project Procurement Management]

9. Andrew is a project management guru hired by a retail giant in your country. Andrew finds out there is a wide array of projects that need to be managed from a central PMO; from a number of small projects to large initiatives requiring long-term roadmaps to manage the development of these programs. What project management approach should be recommended for such projects? A. A predictive approach, adaptive approach, or a hybrid of both, may to be adopted. B. A predictive approach may need to be adopted. C. An adaptive approach may need to be adopted. D. Setting up PMOs for such a wide range of projects is not recommend

9. A - In large organizations, there may be a mixture of small projects and large initiatives requiring long-term commitments to manage these programs using scaling factors (e.g. team size, geographical distribution, regulatory compliance, organizational complexity, and technical complexity). To address the full delivery life cycle, a range of techniques utilizing a predictive approach, adaptive approach, or a hybrid of both, may need to be adopted. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 178] [Project Integration Management]

9. A project manager is trying to plan for a contingency reserve as part of the cost estimates for the project. Which of these would be an incorrect way to plan for contingency reserves? A. Start the project with a zero value for contingency reserve. B. Plan for contingency reserve as a fixed number. C. Plan for contingency reserve as a percentage of the estimated cost. D. Use quantitative analysis methods to arrive at the contingency reserve

9. A - It would be incorrect to start the project with a zero value for contingency reserves. One of the three other methods listed could be used to arrive at a contingency reserve number. As more precise information about the project becomes available, the contingency reserve may be used, reduced, or eliminated. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 245] [Project Cost Management]

9. While applying the logical relationships to the project activities, a project manager must be careful not to: A. Have closed loops relationships between activities B. Have FF relationships for the critical activities C. Have FS relationships for the non-critical activities D. Select the relationship with the highest impact

9. A - Multiple relationships between the same activities are not recommended, so a decision has to be made to select the relationship with the highest impact. Closed loops are also not recommended in logical relationships. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] [Project Procurement Management]

9. Robert has recently joined an automobile manufacturer. He now has a project that was already in the execution phase. Recently, one of the key stakeholders has raised serious concerns over the project's scope. Robert now wants to review the previous project communications to understand how the current project scope was agreed to by all key stakeholders in the past. Where can he find this information? A. Organizational process assets B. Project management plan C. Stakeholder register D. Enterprise environmental factors

9. A - Neither the project management plan nor the stakeholder register documents the stakeholder communication records. These records are incorporated in the project records folder, which is an organizational process asset during the Manage Communications process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 388]

9. The Earned Value Management methodology can be used to: A. Forecast future performance based on current performance B. Calculate the number of days left in the project C. Calculate the value provided to the customer D. Calculate the profitability of the project

9. A - The Earned Value Management methodology can be used to forecast future performance based on current performance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 261 - 265] [Project Cost Management]

9. A single point of failure (SPOF) is the part of a system that, upon failure, stops the entire system from working or makes the system useless. Which of the following events can render a knowledge management system ineffective? A. If project team is not motivated. B. Project team is geographically distributed. C. When project knowledge cannot be classified as explicit or tacit. D. Knowledge is shared using a mixture of knowledge management and techniques.

9. A - The most important part of knowledge management is creating an atmosphere of trust so that people are motivated to share their knowledge. Even the best knowledge management tools and techniques will not work if people are not motivated to share what they know or don't pay attention to what others know. None of the other choices pose a more serious threat than this. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 100] [Project Framework]

9. The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle as the basis for quality improvement is usually attributed to: A. Deming B. Crosby C. Juran D. Pareto

9. A - The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle was defined by Shewhart and later modified by Deming. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 275] [Project Quality Management]

9. Procurement statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of the products or services to be delivered by the vendor. It usually references all the following except: A. The business case B. Product specifications C. Work location D. Performance requirements

9. A - The procurement statement of work (SOW) does not usually reference the business case. The business case may contain cost sensitive information that may not be made available to a wider audience. The rest of the choices are valid components of a procurement statement of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 477] [Project Integration Management]

9. Which of the following allows a project management team to communicate all approved and rejected changes to the stakeholders consistently? A. Configuration management system B. Verification management system C. Configuration status accounting D. Change management board

9. A- A configuration/change management system, including change control processes, provides a mechanism for the project management team to communicate all approved and rejected changes to the stakeholders consistently. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115]

9. Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by the project team members. Whose responsibility is it to enforce ground rules? A. The project manager B. All project team members share the responsibility for enforcing the once they are established in the Team Charter C. The HR team D. The project manager and senior team members

9. B - All project team members share responsibility for enforcing the rules once they are established in the Team Charter. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 319, 320] [Project Resource Management]

9. You are managing a construction project. Your company does not specialize in construction design so you outsourced the construction design to a third party. You are conducting regular procurement performance reviews and are dissatisfied. You want to carry out a detailed audit of the design supplier's work processes to determine the root cause. Can you do that? A. Yes, it is a good project management technique advocated by PMBOK guide. B. Yes, if there is a provision in the contract allowing work process audit C. No, you are only authorized to perform quality audits on the deli products and not the supplier's internal work processes. D. No, a detailed procurement audit cannot be performed until you term the contract.

9. B - Inspections and audits required by the buyer and supported by the supplier, if specified in the procurement contract, can be conducted during execution of the project to verify compliance in the seller's work processes or deliverables. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498] [Project Procurement Management]

9. Lesley is managing a software development project for the World Climate Control Organization. Since her team members are dispersed across the globe, she would like to set up online conferences in the next two months to let everyone in her project know what is going on and what their roles are within the project. She wants to use these conferences as team development activities to learn and exchange information in the project. To schedule such activities, which of the following should she use to keep track of the availability of team members? A. Project charter B. Resource calendars C. Responsibility assignment matrix D. Project staff assignments

9. B - Resource calendars track the availability of team members for team development activities. The responsibility assignment matrix describes the responsibilities assigned to various team members. Project staff assignments give details of individual assignments, and project organization charts display team members and their reporting relationships. The project charter does not supply any of that information. Hence, Lesley must use resource calendars to know that information. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 323] [Project Resource Management]

9. If you are writing a proposal for additional funding, which communication style should you choose? A. Formal and horizontal B. Formal and upward C. Informal and downward D. Informal and horizontal

9. B - Since this will be an official project document, it should be formal. Additionally, since you are requesting money from someone higher up in the organization, you are creating an upward communication. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 361] [Project Communications Management]

9. Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of a project are: A. Cost Projection Index (CPI) and Schedule Projection Index (SPI) B. Cost Performance Index (CPI) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI C. Actual Cost (AC) and Planned Value (PV) D. Cost Pricing Index (CPI) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

9. B - The Cost Performance Index (CPI) and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) are two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

9. What is the difference between the Monitor and Control Project Work process and the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. The Monitor and Control Project Work and the Direct and Ma Project Work processes are the same. B. The Monitor and Control Project Work process monitors the p performance while the Direct and Manage Project Work process concerned with performing the activities to accomplish p requirements. C. The Monitor and Control Project Work process is a sub-process of Direct and Manage Project Work process. D. There is no such thing as the Monitor and Control Project Work proc

9. B - The Monitor and Control Project Work process monitors the other project processes including the Direct and Manage Project Work process, while the Direct and Manage Project Work Process completes the project scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 70] [Project Integration Management]

9. You are a senior project manager working for RETAMART, a retail shopping network that sells various consumer products. As part of the expansion plan approved by the board of directors, you are a project manager for a new plant. Due to transportation problems, the project has experienced delays; the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is at 0.6 and the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is at 0.7. However, you expect some improvements over the next few weeks, which may increase the SPI to 1.1 and the CPI to 0.9. Which of the following statements is true if your anticipated changes materialize? A. The project is overspent and behind schedule B. The project is overspent but ahead of schedule C. The project is on schedule and under budget D. The project is under budget but behind schedule

9. B - The cost performance index below 1 indicates that the project is over budget, and the schedule performance index above 1 indicates that the project is ahead of schedule. If all of your anticipated changes happen to be true, the project will be overspent but ahead of schedule because the schedule performance index will be greater than 1. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] [Project Cost Management]

9. Jane is worried about her project because many of her tasks are moving slowly, and two critical tasks may slip. She conducts a thorough resource analysis and finds out that there are five people who will be free next week. She would like to assign those people to finish her tasks early and prevent the project completion date from slipping. This is an example of: A. Management reserves B. Resource Leveling C. Crashing D. Fast tracking

9. C - Adding more resources to scheduled tasks in order to compress the task durations is called crashing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 215] [Project Schedule Management]

9. You have a contract to build a manufacturing plant in Kuala Lumpur. However, you are not familiar with the building codes in Kuala Lumpur or Malaysia, so you are reviewing all their building codes prior to "turning a shovelful of earth." This is an example of: A. Project initiation B. Quality assurance C. Quality planning D. Quality control

9. C - All types of quality plans, such as building codes, OSHA guidelines, ISO 9000, or company quality plans are examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors and Organizational Process Assets which are inputs to the Plan Quality Management process. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Pages 280, 281] [Project Quality Management]

9. Greg's project is in the initiating stage. The sponsor of the project has asked Greg to present a list of the identified project stakeholders at the next project update meeting. The sponsor has also asked Greg to present the project stakeholders' current and desired engagement levels so they can brainstorm on the stakeholder engagement strategy. Which of the following is a presentation tool that can help Greg summarize all this information in a tabular format? A. Communications management plan B. Stakeholder register C. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix D. Stakeholder engagement plan

9. C - Both the communications and stakeholder management plans are detailed textual documents. They are not presentation tools. On the other hand, both the stakeholder register and the stakeholders engagement assessment matrix contain the required information. However, the stakeholders engagement assessment is the best tool to be selected in this situation since it presents the information required by the project sponsor in a tabular format. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 521] [Project Stakeholder Management]

9. As the Project Manager for Midway Carnival Rides, you are beginning the Define Scope process. Which of the following is a key input to this process? A. Project Scope Statement B. Expert Judgment C. Project Charter D. WBS

9. C - The Project Charter is the document that formalizes the project. It gives the Project Manager the authority to lead the project. It is a key input to the Define Scope process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 150] [Project Scope Management]

9. Why must the Validate Scope process be completed in a project? A. To obtain scope documents from recent similar projects for benchmark B. To determine whether the scope is at the correct complexity level C. To obtain formal acceptance of deliverables by the customer or sponsor D. To ensure the project team is all aware of the scope

9. C - Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables by the customer or sponsor of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 163] [Project Scope Management]

9. With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced and highly competitive global marketplace, where long-term scope is difficult to define, it is becoming even more important to have a __________ for effective adoption and tailoring of development practices to respond to the changing needs of the environment. A. Rigid management approach B. Predefined detailed scope C. Contextual framework D. Blackbox approach

9. C - With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced, highly competitive global marketplace where long term scope is difficult to define, it is becoming even more important to have a contextual framework for effective adoption and tailoring of development practices to respond to the changing needs of the environment. Traditional, predictive and rigid methods are not suitable for projects operating in an environment with a high degree of uncertainty. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] [Project Risk Management]

9. Different types of contracts are appropriate for different types of purchases. Which of these is not one of the three broad categories of contracts? A. Cost-reimbursable B. Time and Material C. Fixed-price or lump sum D. Fixed assessment

9. D - Fixed-assessment is not a category of contracts. Other choices are valid contract types. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 471, 472] [Project Procurement Management]

9. A project manager used the services of a trained moderator during the Collect Requirements process. Which of the following is likely to have required the services of a trained moderator? A. Interviews B. Prototypes C. Questionnaires D. Focus groups

9. D - Focus groups bring together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations for, and attitudes toward, a proposed product, service or result. Typically, a trained moderator is employed to guide the group through an interactive discussion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 142] [Project Scope Management]

9. You work as an engineer for a large engineering firm. During this past week, you have corresponded with your department supervisor about the horizontal stabilizers required for the wings on a new aircraft you are designing. Which communication dimension does this represent? A. Horizontal B. Formal C. External D. Upward

9. D - In this case, your communication is with your supervisor who has a different level of responsibility and authority. This is an example of an upward dimension of communications. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 361] [Project Communications Management]

9. You have started a project to establish a railroad between two neighboring cities. The state agency that sponsors this project is heavily committed to completing this project on time and within budget. In support of the agency's commitment, you have completed the charter and started identifying stakeholders who would support the project. You would like to gather as many stakeholders as possible and move on to the planning phase. What should a project manager do while identifying stakeholders in a project? A. Notify the negative stakeholders to talk to the sponsor B. Identify positive stakeholders and eliminate negative stakeholder gather maximum support for the project C. Identify positive stakeholders and ask negative stakeholders to leave project D. Identify both the positive and negative stakeholders and address concerns

9. D - Project stakeholders are people, organizations, or groups whose interests are positively or negatively impacted by the project. A project manager must identify both the positive and negative stakeholders for successful completion of the project. Eliminating the negative stakeholders or keeping them away from the project will jeopardize the objectives of the project and may cause the project to fail. One of the mandatory standards for a project manager is to show fairness and disclose potential conflicts of interest to stakeholders. He or she should escalate issues to the sponsor only when he or she fails in influencing negative stakeholders. Thus, the correct answer is to identify both the positive and negative stakeholders and address their concerns. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] [Prof. Responsibility]

9. Many quality problems plagued a project. The quality of the work products deviated considerably from specifications. The project manager decided to do a root cause analysis. What activities does a root cause analysis include? A. Discovery of the underlying causes of a problem B. Problem Identification and discovery of the underlying causes problem C. Identification of a problem D. Problem identification, discovery of the underlying causes of a pro and development of preventive actions

9. D - Root cause analysis includes all of the following: Problem identification, discovery of the underlying causes of a problem, and development of preventive actions. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 292]

9. Which of the following is not an organizational process asset used during the Plan Resource Management process? A. Template for resource management plan B. Resource management policies and procedures C. Historical information about previous projects D. Standardized stakeholder list

9. D - Standardized stakeholder list is not a valid organizational process asset used in the Plan Resource Management process. The other choices are valid assets. Other assets include historical information on organizational structures that have worked in previous projects and organizational processes and policies. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 315] [Project Resource Management]

9. The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates. The difference between the late and early start of a task is a: A. Free float B. Feeding buffer C. Danger zone D. Total float

9. D - The difference between the early and late finish of a task is called the total float for that task. Total float is the amount of time that a scheduled activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 210] [Project Schedule Management]