PNE 105 Chapter 45: Caring for Clients with Disorders of the Upper Gastrointestinal Tract. Med-Surg.

A nurse is preparing to place a client's prescribed nasogastric tube. What anticipatory guidance should the nurse provide to the client?

Insertion is likely to cause some gagging.

Which of the following are functions of saliva? Select all that apply.

Lubrication Protection against harmful bacteria Digestion

When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. How is aphthous stomatitis best described by the nurse?

A canker sore of the oral soft tissues

A nurse is caring for a client who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the client about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe it?

Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine

A nurse is preparing to discharge a client after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this client?

Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine.

A client was treated in the emergency department and critical care unit after ingesting bleach. What possible complication of the resulting gastritis should the nurse recognize?

Esophageal or pyloric obstruction related to scarring

An elderly client seeks medical attention for a vague complaint of difficulty swallowing. Which of the following assessment findings is most significant as related to this symptom?

Esophageal tumor

An elderly client states, "I don't understand why I have so many caries in my teeth." The nurse assesses the following as placing the client at risk:

Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2

An elderly client states, "I don't understand why I have so many caries in my teeth." What assessment made by the nurse places the client at risk for dental caries?

Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2

A nurse has obtained an order to remove a client's NG tube that was placed for feeding. What is the nurse's best initial action?

Explain the process clearly to the client. Explanation: The process should be explained to the client before removal. A client should not normally be supine with an NG tube in place and anesthetic is not normally prescribed. Removal is not contingent on the client's appetite.

A client has a new order for metoclopramide. What potential side effects should the nurse educate the client about?

Extrapyramidal

To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?

"Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages." Explanation: To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client need not limit fluid intake with meals as long as the fluids aren't gastric irritants.

A client seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education?

"Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often." Explanation: Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.

A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease has just been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). How should the nurse best describe this medication's therapeutic action?

"This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach."

A patient has had a gastrostomy tube inserted. What does the nurse anticipate the initial fluid nourishment will be after the insertion of the gastrostomy tube?

10% glucose and tap water

A patient is scheduled for removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach and a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. What is the name of this surgical procedure for peptic ulcer disease?

A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum.

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed?

A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. Explanation: A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum. A vagotomy severs the vagus nerve; a Billroth I procedure may be performed in conjunction with a vagotomy. If the remaining part of the stomach is anastomosed to the jejunum, the procedure is a Billroth II.

A nurse is performing an assessment for a client who presents to the clinic with an erythemic, fissuring lip lesion with white hyperkeratosis. What does the nurse suspect that these findings are characteristic of?

Actinic cheilitis

A patient has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and the nurse is reviewing his prescribed medication regimen with him. What is currently the most commonly used drug regimen for peptic ulcers?

Antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts. Explanation: Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. H2 receptor antagonists are used to treat NSAID-induced ulcers and other ulcers not associated with H. pylori infection, but they are not the drug of choice. Bicarbonate salts are not used. ZES is the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and not a drug.

The nurse is examining the mouth of a client who is HIV positive. On the inner side of the lip, the nurse sees a shallow ulcer with a yellow center and red border. The client says the area has been painful for about 5 days or so. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?

Aphthous stomatitis

A client in the emergency department reports that a piece of meat became stuck in the throat while eating. The nurse notes the client is anxious with respirations at 30 breaths/min, frequent swallowing, and little saliva in the mouth. An esophagogastroscopy with removal of foreign body is scheduled for today. What would be the first activity performed by the nurse?

Assess lung sounds bilaterally.

A nurse is providing health promotion education to a client diagnosed with an esophageal reflux disorder. What practice should the nurse encourage the client to implement?

Avoid carbonated drinks. Explanation: For a client diagnosed with esophageal reflux disorder, the nurse should instruct the client to keep the head of the bed elevated. Carbonated drinks, caffeine, and tobacco should be avoided. Protein limitation is not necessary.

The nurse teaches the client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which measure to manage the disease?

Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime.

The nurse is providing care for a client who has recently been diagnosed with chronic gastritis. What health practice should the nurse address when teaching the client to limit exacerbations of the disease?

Avoid taking aspirin to treat pain or fever. Explanation: Aspirin and other NSAIDs are implicated in chronic gastritis because of their irritating effect on the gastric mucosa. Organic foods and vitamins confer no protection. Exercise and a healthy body weight are beneficial to overall health but do not prevent gastritis.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who is not able to tolerate brushing his teeth. The nurse includes which mouth irrigation in the plan of care?

Baking soda and water

The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client who underwent surgery for gastric cancer. Which of the nurse's assessments most directly addresses a major complication of TPN?

Checking the client's capillary blood glucose levels regularly. Explanation: The solution, used as a base for most TPN, consists of a high dextrose concentration and may raise blood glucose levels significantly, resulting in hyperglycemia. This is a more salient threat than hunger, though this should be addressed. Dysrhythmias and decreased LOC are not among the most common complications.

Which is an accurate statement regarding cancer of the esophagus?

Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. Explanation: In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times more often in men than in women. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in European Americans. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Which is the primary symptom of achalasia?

Difficulty swallowing

Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist?

Famotidine. Explanation: Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). Metronidazole is an antibiotic.

The nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. The nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage?

Hematemesis. Explanation: The nurse interprets hematemesis as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage from the ulcer. Other signs that can indicate hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria/anuria.

The nurse is caring for a client during the postoperative period following radical neck dissection. Which finding should be reported to the physician?

High epigastric pain and/or discomfort

A medical nurse who is caring for a client being discharged home after a radical neck dissection has collaborated with the home health nurse to develop a plan of care for this client. What is a priority psychosocial outcome for this client?

Indicates acceptance of altered appearance and demonstrates positive self-image. Explanation: Since radical neck dissection involves removal of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, spinal accessory muscles, and cervical lymph nodes on one side of the neck, the client's appearance is visibly altered. The face generally appears asymmetric, with a visible neck depression; shoulder drop also occurs frequently. These changes have the potential to negatively affect self-concept and body image. Facilitating adaptation to these changes is a crucial component of nursing intervention. Clients who have had head and neck surgery generally report less pain as compared with other postoperative clients; however, the nurse must assess each individual client's level of pain and response to analgesics. Clients may experience transient hoarseness following a radical neck dissection; however, their ability to communicate is not permanently altered. Stress management is beneficial but would not be considered the priority in this clinical situation.

A nurse is providing care for a client whose neck dissection surgery involved the use of a graft. When assessing the graft, the nurse should prioritize data related to what nursing diagnosis?

Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

Which mouth condition is most associated with HIV infection?

Kaposi sarcoma

Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? Select all that apply.

Lansoprazole (Prevacid) Rabeprazole (AcipHex) Esomeprazole (Nexium)

For a client with salivary calculi, which procedure uses shock waves to disintegrate the stone?

Lithotripsy

A client who underwent a gastric resection 3 weeks ago is having her diet progressed on a daily basis. Following her latest meal, the client reports dizziness and palpitations. Inspection reveals that the client is diaphoretic. What is the nurse's best action?

Monitor the client closely for further signs of dumping syndrome. Explanation: The client's symptoms are characteristic of dumping syndrome, which results in a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. Aspiration is a less likely cause for the client's symptoms. Supine positioning will likely exacerbate the symptoms and insertion of an NG tube is contraindicated due to the nature of the client's surgery.

Which is a true statement regarding gastric cancer?

Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease.

A client's physician has determined that for the next 3 to 4 weeks the client will require parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should anticipate the placement of what type of venous access device?

Nontunneled central catheter

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of GI bleed. During shift assessment, the nurse finds the client to be tachycardic and hypotensive, and the client has an episode of hematemesis while the nurse is in the room. In addition to monitoring the client's vital signs and level of conscious, what would be a priority nursing action for this client?

Notify the health care provider. Explanation: The nurse must always be alert for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis, which include hematemesis (vomiting of blood), tachycardia, and hypotension. If these occur, the physician is notified and the client's vital signs are monitored as the client's condition warrants. Putting the client in a prone position could lead to aspiration. Giving ice water is contraindicated as it would stimulate more vomiting.

The nurse working in the recovery room is caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. The nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate?

Notify the physician. Explanation: The presence of stridor, a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration, in the immediate postoperative period following radical neck dissection, indicates obstruction of the airway, and the nurse must report it immediately to the physician.

A patient has been taking a 10-day course of antibiotics for pneumonia. The patient has been having white patches that look like milk curds in the mouth. What treatment will the nurse educate the patient about?

Nystatin (Mycostatin)

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor?

Omeprazole. Explanation: Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

The nurse is preparing to check for tube placement in the client's stomach as well as measure the residual volume. What is the main purpose of these nursing actions?

Prevent aspiration. Explanation: Protecting the client from aspirating is essential because aspiration can cause pneumonia, a potentially life-threatening disorder. Gastric ulcers are not a common complication of tube feeding in clients with ET tubes. Abdominal distention and diarrhea can both be associated with tube feeding, but prevention of these problems is not the primary rationale for confirming placement.

A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone neck resection with a radial forearm free flap. The nurse's most recent assessment of the graft reveals that it has a bluish color and that mottling is visible. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Promptly report these indications of venous congestion.

A nurse practitioner, who is treating a patient with GERD, knows that responsiveness to this drug classification is validation of the disease. The drug classification is:

Proton pump inhibitors.

Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer?

Removal of the tumor

A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube for feeding. During shift assessment, the nurse auscultates a new onset of bilateral lung crackles and notes a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. The client's oxygen saturation is 89% by pulse oximetry. After ensuring the client's immediate safety, what is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Report possible signs of aspiration pneumonia to the primary provider.

A client with cancer of the tongue has had a radical neck dissection. What nursing assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Respiratory status and airway clearance. Explanation: Postoperatively, the client is assessed for complications such as altered respiratory status, wound infection, and hemorrhage. The other assessments are part of the plan of care for a client who has had a radical neck dissection, but are not the nurse's chief priority because of the immediacy of consequences if the client's respiratory status is compromised.

Which term describes an inflammation of the salivary glands?

Sialadenitis

A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with an exacerbation of chronic gastritis. What health promotion topic should the nurse emphasize?

Strategies for avoiding irritating foods and beverages

Select the assessment finding that the nurse should immediately report, post radical neck dissection.

Stridor

The nurse confirms placement of a client's nasogastric (NG) tube using a combination of visual and pH assessment of the aspirate. The nurse determines that the NG tube remains properly placed when the pH of the aspirate is:

acidic Explanation: The pH of gastric aspirate is acidic (1 to 5).

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is

dysphagia.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a slightly overweight client seen in the Emergency Department with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse notes in the client's record that the client is taking carbidopa/levodopa. Which order for the client by the health care provider should the nurse question?

metoclopramide. Explanation: The instructions are appropriate for the client experiencing gastroesophageal reflux disease. The client is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet), which is used for Parkinson's disease. Metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal effects, and these effects can be increased in clients with Parkinson's disease.

Which term refers to the first portion of the small intestine?

Duodenum

The nurse is conducting a health instruction program on oral cancer. The nurse determines that the participants understand the instructions when they state

"Many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages." Explanation: The most frequent symptom of oral cancer is a painless sore that does not heal. The client may complain of tenderness and difficulty chewing, swallowing, or speaking as the cancer progresses. Biopsy is used to diagnose oral cancer. A typical lesion in oral cancer is a painless, hardened ulcer with raised edges.

A client comes to the clinic reporting pain in the epigastric region. What statement by the client suggests the presence of a duodenal ulcer?

"My pain resolves when I have something to eat."

A client is postoperative following a graft reconstruction of the neck. What intervention is the most important for the nurse to complete with the client?

Assess the graft for color and temperature.

The client is postoperative following a graft reconstruction of the neck. It is most important for the nurse to

Assess the graft for color and temperature.

A client with achalasia recently underwent pneumatic dilation. The nurse intervenes after the procedure by

Assessing lung sounds

A health care provider has written an order for ranitidine 300 mg once daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which time?

At bedtime

The nurse instructs the client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) regarding dietary measures. Which action by the client demonstrates that the client has understood the recommended dietary changes?

Avoiding chocolate and coffee.

Which of the following appears to be a significant factor in the development of gastric cancer?

Diet

The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. For which mouth conditions associated with HIV infection should the nurse assess? Select all that apply.

Kaposi sarcoma Stomatitis

A client has a new order for metoclopramide. What extrapyramidal side effect should the nurse assess for in the client?

Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs

A client is in the initial stages of oral cancer diagnosis and is frightened about the side effects of treatment and subsequent prognosis. The client has many questions regarding this type of cancer and asks where oral cancer typically occurs. What is the nurse's response?

floor of the mouth

The nurse is assessing the skin graft site of a client who has undergone a radical neck dissection. The skin graft site is pink. The nurse documents which result?

healthy graft

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:

maintaining a patent airway.

A nurse is providing education to a client with GERD. The client asks what measures can be taken independently to help reduce the symptoms. Which interventions would the nurse recommend? Select all that apply.

maintaining an upright position following meals avoiding foods that intensify symptoms

The nurse provides health teaching to inform the client with oral cancer that

many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages.

A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) comes to the physician's office reporting a burning sensation in the esophagus. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing

pyrosis

A client with hiatal hernia reports heartburn and belching that increases when bending at the waist. Which measures would help ease the client's discomfort?

avoidance of activities that involve the Valsalva maneuver

A client with gastric cancer is having a resection. What is the nursing management priority for this client?

Correcting nutritional deficits

A client has been taking famotidine at home. What teaching should the nurse include with the client?

Famotidine will inhibit gastric acid secretions. Explanation: Famotidine is useful for treating and preventing ulcers and managing gastroesophageal reflux disease. It functions by inhibiting the action of histamine at the H-2 receptor site located in the gastric parietal cells, thus inhibiting gastric acid secretion. Famotidine will not neutralize acid in the stomach, but inhibits acid secretion. Famotidine will not shorten digestion time and will not improve food mixing with gastric secretions.

The nurse assesses a patient who recently had a nasoenteric intubation. Symptoms of oliguria, lethargy, and tachycardia in the patient would indicate to the nurse what common complication?

Fluid volume deficit Explanation: Symptoms of fluid volume deficit include dry skin and mucous membranes, decreased urinary output, lethargy, lightheadedness, hypotension, and increased heart rate.

The nurse is creating a discharge teaching plan for a client after surgery for oral cancer. Which should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.

Follow-up medical appointment Follow-up dental appointment Oral hygiene Use of humidification

Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position?

Fowler

The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs?

6 Explanation: Determining the pH of the tube aspirate is a more accurate method of confirming tube placement than is maintaining tube length or visually assessing tube aspirate. The pH method can also be used to monitor the advancement of the tube into the small intestine. The pH of gastric aspirate is acidic (1 to 5), typically less than 4. The pH of intestinal aspirate is approximately 6 or higher, and the pH of respiratory aspirate is more alkaline.

A client sustained second- and third-degree burns over 30% of the body surface area approximately 72 hours ago. What type of ulcer should the nurse be alert for while caring for this client?

Curling's ulcer Explanation: Curling's ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum. Peptic, esophageal, and Meckel's ulcers are not related to burn injuries.

A client is receiving education about his upcoming Billroth I procedure (gastroduodenostomy). This client should be informed that he may experience which of the following adverse effects associated with this procedure?

Diarrhea and feelings of fullness

The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports xerostomia. The nurse evaluates for use of which medication?

Diuretics

The nurse reviews dietary guidelines with a client who had a gastric banding. Which teaching points are included? Select all that apply.

Do not eat and drink at the same time. Drink plenty of water, from 90 minutes after each meal to 15 minutes before each meal. Avoid fruit drinks and soda.

The nurse advises the patient who has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis to:

Refrain from food until the GI symptoms subside.

A client who can't tolerate oral feedings begins receiving intermittent enteral feedings. When monitoring for evidence of intolerance to these feedings, what must the nurse remain alert for?

diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea. Explanation: The nurse must monitor for diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea because these signs suggest an intolerance to the ordered enteral feeding solution. Other signs and symptoms of feeding intolerance include abdominal cramps, nausea, aspiration, and glycosuria. Electrolyte disturbances, constipation, dehydration, and hypercapnia are complications of enteral feedings, not signs of intolerance. Hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, is a potential complication of enteral feedings.

Which term is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland?

Sialolithiasis

A client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge?

The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.

Rebound hypoglycemia is a complication of parenteral nutrition caused by

feedings stopped too abruptly.

A client has undergone a radical neck dissection. His skin graft site is pale. This indicates which condition?

Arterial thrombosis

Which of the following is one of the first clinical manifestations of esophageal cancer?

Increasing difficulty in swallowing

A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours the nurse would notify the physician immediately for what finding?

60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage. Explanation: Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours. Milky drainage is indicative of a chyle fistula, which requires prompt treatment.

A client is recovering from a neck dissection. What volume of serosanguineous secretions would the nurse expect to drain over the first 24 hours?

80-120 ml

A client reports to the clinic, stating that she rapidly developed headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccupping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. For dinner, she ate buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which of the following medical conditions is most consistent with the client's presenting problems?

Acute gastritis Explanation: A client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccupping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. A client with a duodenal ulcer will present with heartburn, nausea, excessive gas and vomiting. A client with gastric cancer will have persistent symptoms of nausea and vomiting, not sudden symptoms. A client with a gastric ulcer will have bloating, nausea, and vomiting, but not necessarily hiccups.

The nurse determines that a client who has undergone skin, tissue, and muscle grafting following a modified radical neck dissection requires suctioning. What is the nurse's priority when suctioning this client?

Avoid applying suction on or near the suture line. Explanation: The nurse should avoid positioning the suction catheter on or near the graft suture lines. Application of suction in these areas could damage the graft. Self-sectioning may be unsafe because the client may damage the suture line. Following a modified radical neck dissection with graft, the client is usually positioned with the head of the bed elevated to promote drainage and reduce edema. Assessing viability of the graft is important but is not part of the suctioning procedure and may delay initiating suctioning. Maintenance of a patent airway is a nursing priority. Similarly, the client's ability to swallow is an important assessment for the nurse to make; however, it is not directly linked to the client's need for suctioning.

The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who comes to the clinic. What symptom described by the patient is one of the first symptoms associated with esophageal disease?

Dysphagia. Explanation: Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the most common symptom of esophageal disease, may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute odynophagia (pain on swallowing).

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) comes to the clinic and is experiencing white patches on the lateral border of the tongue. What type of lesions does the nurse document?

Hairy leukoplakia Explanation: Hairy leukoplakia is a condition often seen in people who are HIV positive in which white patches with rough, hairlike projections form, typically on lateral border of the tongue. Aphthous stomatitis is typically a recurrent round or oval sore or ulcer on the inside of the lips and cheeks or underneath the tongue and is not associated with HIV. Erythroplakia describes a red area or red spots on the lining of the mouth and is not associated with HIV. Nicotine stomatitis is a white patch in the mouth caused by extreme heat from smoking.

A client presents to the clinic reporting vomiting and burning in her mid-epigastria. The nurse knows that in the process of confirming peptic ulcer disease, the health care provider is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the presence of what?

Infection with Helicobacter pylori. Explanation: H. pylori infection may be determined by endoscopy and histologic examination of a tissue specimen obtained by biopsy, or a rapid urease test of the biopsy specimen. Excessive stomach acid secretion leads to gastritis; however, peptic ulcers are caused by colonization of the stomach by H. pylori. Sphincter dysfunction and acid-base imbalances do not cause peptic ulcer disease.

A client has a cheesy white plaque in the mouth. The plaque looks like milk curds and can be rubbed off. The best nursing intervention is to

Instruct the client to swish prescribed nystatin (Mycostatin) solution for 1 minute.

A client who suffered a stroke had an NG tube inserted to facilitate feeding shortly after admission. The client has since become comatose and the client's family asks the nurse why the physician is recommending the removal of the client's NG tube and the insertion of a gastrostomy tube. What is the nurse's best response?

Regurgitation and aspiration are less likely.

A client has been diagnosed with achalasia based on his history and diagnostic imaging results. The nurse should identify what risk diagnosis when planning the client's care?

Risk for Aspiration Related to Inhalation of Gastric Contents. Explanation: Achalasia can result in the aspiration of gastric contents. It is not normally an acute risk to the client's nutritional status and does not affect cardiac output or communication.

An older adult patient who has been living at home alone is diagnosed with parotitis. What causative bacteria does the nurse suspect is the cause of the parotitis?

Staphylococcus aureus

The healthcare provider of a client with oral cancer has ordered the placement of a GI tube to provide nutrition and to deliver medications. What would be the preferred route?

nasogastric intubation. Explanation: The nasal route is the preferred route for passing a tube when the client's nose is intact and free from injury.

The school nurse is planning a health fair for a group elementary school students and dental health is one topic that the nurse plans to address. When teaching the children about the risk of tooth decay, the nurse should caution them against consuming large quantities of

organic fruit juice.

The nurse recognizes that the client diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience.

pain 2 to 3 hours after a meal. Explanation: The client with a duodenal ulcer often awakens between 1 and 2 with pain, and ingestion of food brings relief. Vomiting is uncommon in the client with duodenal ulcer. Hemorrhage is less likely in the client with duodenal ulcer than in the client with gastric ulcer. The client with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

The most significant complication related to continuous tube feedings is

the increased potential for aspiration. Explanation: Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the client receiving continuous tube feedings. Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

A client has received a diagnosis of oral cancer. During client education, the client expresses dismay at not having recognized any early signs or symptoms of the disease. The nurse tells the client that in early stages of this disease:

there are usually no symptoms.

A client who had oral cancer has had extensive surgery to excise the malignancy. Although surgery was deemed successful, it was quite disfiguring and incapacitating. What is essential to this client and family?

time to mourn, accept, and adjust to the loss

Cardiac complications, which may occur following resection of an esophageal tumor, are associated with irritation of which nerve at the time of surgery?

Vagus

A nurse who provides care in an ambulatory clinic integrates basic cancer screening into admission assessments. What client most likely faces the highest immediate risk of oral cancer?

A 65-year-old man with alcoholism who smokes

A patient tells the nurse that it feels like food is "sticking" in the lower portion of the esophagus. What motility disorder does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate?

Achalasia Explanation: Achalasia is absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophagus accompanied by failure of the esophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing. Narrowing of the esophagus just above the stomach results in a gradually increasing dilation of the esophagus in the upper chest. The main symptom is difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. The patient has a sensation of food sticking in the lower portion of the esophagus.

The nurse is conducting a community education session on the prevention of oral cancers. The nurse includes which cancer as being a type of premalignant squamous cell skin cancer?

Actinic cheilitis

A nurse is completing an assessment on a client with a postoperative neck dissection. The nurse notices excessive bleeding from the dressing site and suspects possible carotid artery rupture. What action should the nurse take first?

Apply pressure to the bleeding site

During postoperative neck dissection assessment, the nurse notices excessive bleeding from the dressing site. She suspects possible carotid artery rupture and takes the immediate first step to:

Apply pressure to the bleeding site or major associated vessel.

While caring for a patient who has had radical neck surgery, the nurse notices an abnormal amount of serosanguineous secretions in the wound suction unit during the first postoperative day. What does the nurse know is an expected amount of drainage in the wound unit?

Approximately 80 to 120 mL Explanation: Wound drainage tubes are usually inserted during surgery to prevent the collection of fluid subcutaneously. The drainage tubes are connected to a portable suction device (e.g., Jackson-Pratt), and the container is emptied periodically. Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours.

A nurse caring for a patient who has had radical neck surgery notices an abnormal amount of serosanguineous secretions in the wound suction unit during the first postoperative day. An expected normal amount of drainage is:

Approximately 80 to 120 mL.

Health teaching for a patient with GERD is directed toward decreasing lower esophageal sphincter pressure and irritation. The nurse instructs the patient to do which of the following? Select all that apply.

Avoid beer, especially in the evening. Elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. Elevate the upper body on pillows.

A nurse is providing care for a client who is postoperative day 2 following gastric surgery. The nurse's assessment should be planned in light of the possibility of what potential complications? Select all that apply. A) Malignant hyperthermia B) Atelectasis C) Pneumonia D) Hemorrhage E) Chronic gastritis

B) Atelectasis C) Pneumonia D) Hemorrhage. Explanation: After surgery, the nurse assesses the client for complications secondary to the surgical intervention, such as pneumonia, atelectasis, or metabolic imbalances resulting from the GI disruption. Malignant hyperthermia is an intraoperative complication. Chronic gastritis is not a surgical complication.

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of bulimia. The client complains of retrosternal pain and dysphagia after forcibly causing herself to vomit after a large meal. The nurse suspects which condition?

Boerhaave syndrome

Which clinical manifestation is not associated with hemorrhage?

Bradycardia. Explanation: Hemorrhage may occur from carotid artery rupture as a result of necrosis of the graft or damage to the artery itself from tumor or infection. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension may indicate hemorrhage and impending hypovolemic shock.

Which term describes a reddened, circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis?

Chancre. Explanation: A chancre is a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis. Lichen planus is a white papule at the intersection of a network of interlacing lesions. Actinic cheilitis is an irritation of the lips associated with a scaling, crusting fissure. Leukoplakias are white patches usually found in the buccal mucosa.

A nurse is creating a care plan for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition. The client's care plan should include nursing actions relevant to what potential complications? Select all that apply.

Clotted or displaced catheter Pneumothorax Hyperglycemia Line sepsis

A client's new onset of dysphagia has required insertion of an NG tube for feeding. What intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Confirm placement of the tube prior to each scheduled feeding.

An emergency department nurse is admitting a 3-year-old brought in after swallowing a piece from a wooden puzzle. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication in order to relax the esophagus to facilitate removal of the foreign body?

Glucagon Explanation: Glucagon is given prior to removal of a foreign body because it relaxes the smooth muscle of the esophagus, facilitating insertion of the endoscope. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug and is not indicated. Prostigmine is prescribed for clients with myasthenia gravis. It increases muscular contraction, an effect opposite that which is desired to facilitate removal of the foreign body. Epinephrine is indicated in asthma attack and bronchospasm.

A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. The nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. The nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as

Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus

A client is diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which statement indicates effective client teaching about hiatal hernia and its treatment?

"I'll eat frequent, small, bland meals that are high in fiber." Explanation: In hiatal hernia, the upper portion of the stomach protrudes into the chest when intra-abdominal pressure increases. To minimize intra-abdominal pressure and decrease gastric reflux, the client should eat frequent, small, bland meals that can pass easily through the esophagus. Meals should be high in fiber to prevent constipation and minimize straining on defecation (which may increase intra-abdominal pressure from the Valsalva maneuver). Eating three large meals daily would increase intra-abdominal pressure, possibly worsening the hiatal hernia. The client should avoid spicy foods, alcohol, and tobacco because they increase gastric acidity and promote gastric reflux. To minimize intra-abdominal pressure, the client shouldn't recline after meals, lift heavy objects, or bend.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has dumping syndrome from high-carbohydrate foods being administered over a period of fewer than 20 minutes. What is a nursing measure to prevent or minimize the dumping syndrome?

Administer the feeding with the patient in semi-Fowler's position to decrease the effect of gravity on transit time. Explanation: The following strategies may help prevent some of the uncomfortable signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome related to tube feeding: 1.. Advise the patient to remain in semi-Fowler's position for 1 hour after the feeding; this position prolongs intestinal transit time by decreasing the effect of gravity. 2. Slow the formula instillation rate to provide time for carbohydrates and electrolytes to be diluted. 3. Administer feedings at room temperature, not at a warm temperature, because temperature extremes stimulate peristalsis. 4. Administer feeding by continuous drip (if tolerated), rather than by bolus, to prevent sudden distention of the intestine. 5. Instill the minimal amount of water needed to flush the tubing before and after a feeding, not to dilute the formula but because fluid given with a feeding increases intestinal transit time.

The nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube for a patient with pancreatitis. What intervention can the nurse provide to allow facilitation of the tube insertion?

Allow the patient to sip water as the tube is being inserted.

A nurse is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the postsurgical unit following surgical resection for the treatment of oropharyngeal cancer. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Assess for a patent airway.

A client has been receiving radiation therapy to the lungs and now has erythema, edema, and pain of the mouth. What instruction will the nurse give to the client?

Brush and floss daily.

A nurse is providing oral care to a client who is comatose. What action best addresses the client's risk of tooth decay and plaque accumulation?

Brushing the client's teeth with a toothbrush and small amount of toothpaste

A nurse inspects the Stensen duct of the parotid gland to determine inflammation and possible obstruction. What area in the oral cavity would the nurse examine?

Buccal mucosa next to the upper molars

A client is postoperative day 1 following gastrostomy. The nurse is planning interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection Related to Presence of Wound and Tube. What intervention is most appropriate?

Wash the area around the tube with soap and water daily. Explanation: Infection can be prevented by keeping the skin near the insertion site clean using soap and water. Hydrogen peroxide is not used, due to associated skin irritation. The skin around the site is not irrigated with normal saline and antibiotics are not given to prevent site infection.

A client who had a Roux-en-Y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. After ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. After having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event?

Dumping syndrome. Explanation: Dumping syndrome is an unpleasant set of vasomotor and GI symptoms that occur in up to 76% of patients who have had bariatric surgery. Early symptoms include a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. These symptoms resolve once the intestine has been evacuated (i.e., with defecation).

A nurse is caring for a client who has had surgery for oral cancer. When addressing the client's long-term needs, the nurse should prioritize interventions and referrals with what goal?

Enhancement of verbal communication

A client has a new order for metoclorpramide. What potential side effects should the nurse educate the client about?

Extrapyramidal

A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin. Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

"The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." Explanation: Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton-pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (e.g., metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton-pump inhibitor (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton-pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol). Research is being conducted to develop a vaccine against H. pylori.

A nurse is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of late-stage Alzheimer disease. The client has just returned to the medical unit to begin supplemental feedings through an NG tube. Which of the nurse's assessments addresses this client's most significant potential complication of feeding?

Frequent lung auscultation. Explanation: Aspiration is a risk associated with tube feeding; this risk may be exacerbated by the client's cognitive deficits. Consequently, the nurse should auscultate the client's lungs and monitor oxygen saturation closely. Bowel function is important, but the risk for aspiration is a priority. Hemorrhage is highly unlikely and the client's abdominal girth is not a main focus of assessment.

A patient describes a burning sensation in the esophagus, pain when swallowing, and frequent indigestion. What does the nurse suspect that these clinical manifestations indicate?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

The nurse is caring for a comatose patient and administering gastrostomy feedings. What does the nurse understand is the reason that gastrostomy feedings are preferred to nasogastric (NG) feedings in the comatose patient?

Gastroesophageal sphincter is intact, lessening the possibility of regurgitation. Explanation: Gastrostomy is preferred over NG feedings in the patient who is comatose because the gastroesophageal sphincter remains intact, making regurgitation and aspiration less likely

A nurse is performing health education with a client who has a history of frequent, serious dental caries. When planning educational interventions, the nurse should identify a risk for what nursing diagnosis?

Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. Explanation: Because digestion normally begins in the mouth, adequate nutrition is related to good dental health and the general condition of the mouth. Any discomfort or adverse condition in the oral cavity can affect a person's nutritional status. Dental caries do not typically affect the client's tissue perfusion or skin integrity. Aspiration is not a likely consequence of dental caries.

A nurse is caring for a client who is acutely ill and has included vigilant oral care in the client's plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?

Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can cause cavities. Explanation: Many ill clients do not eat adequate amounts of food and therefore produce less saliva, which in turn reduces the natural cleaning of the teeth. Stress response is not a factor, infections generally do not attack the enamel of the teeth, and the fluoride level of the client is not significant in the development of dental caries in the ill client.

A client is being evaluated for esophageal cancer. What initial manifestation of esophageal cancer should the nurse assess?

Increasing difficulty in swallowing. Explanation: The client first becomes aware of intermittent and increasing difficulty in swallowing with esophageal cancer. As the tumor grows and the obstruction becomes nearly complete, even liquids cannot pass into the stomach. Other clinical manifestations may include the sensation of a mass in the throat, foul breath, and hiccups, but these are not the most common initial clinical manifestation with clients with esophageal cancer.

A nurse is assessing a client who has peptic ulcer disease. The client requests more information about the typical causes of Helicobacter pylori infection. What would it be appropriate for the nurse to instruct the client?

Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water.

A client has been admitted to the hospital after diagnostic imaging revealed the presence of a gastric outlet obstruction (GOO). What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Insertion of an NG tube for decompression. Explanation: In treating the client with gastric outlet obstruction, the first consideration is to insert an NG tube to decompress the stomach. This is a priority over fluid or medication administration.

A client receiving tube feedings is experiencing diarrhea. The nurse and the health care provider suspects that the client is experiencing dumping syndrome. What intervention is most appropriate?

Keep the client in semi-Fowler position for 1 hour after feedings. Explanation: To minimize dumping syndrome, the client should remain in semi-Fowler position for 1 hour after the feeding. Fluid replacement may be necessary but does not prevent or treat dumping syndrome. There is no need to aspirate stomach contents. Increasing the rate will exacerbate the problem.

A client is concerned about leakage of gastric contents out of the gastric sump tube the nurse has just inserted. What would the nurse do to prevent reflux gastric contents from coming through the blue vent of a gastric sump tube?

Keep the vent lumen above the client's waist.

The nurse is managing a gastric (Salem) sump tube for a patient who has an intestinal obstruction and will be going to surgery. What interventions should the nurse perform to make sure the tube is functioning properly?

Keep the vent lumen above the patient's waist to prevent gastric content reflux. Explanation: The blue vent lumen should be kept above the patient's waist to prevent reflux of gastric contents through it; otherwise, it acts as a siphon.

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, what should the nurse assign highest priority to?

Maintaining a patent airway

A client with cancer has a neck dissection and laryngectomy. An intervention that the nurse will do is:

Make a notation on the call light system that the client cannot speak.

A client is recovering in the hospital following gastrectomy. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly difficult to engage and has had several angry outbursts at staff members in recent days. The nurse's attempts at therapeutic dialogue have been rebuffed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Make appropriate referrals to services that provide psychosocial support. Explanation: The nurse should enlist the services of clergy, psychiatric clinical nurse specialists, psychologists, social workers, and psychiatrists, if needed. This is preferable to delegating care, since the client has become angry with other care providers as well. It is impractical and inappropriate to expect the primary provider to act as a liaison. It would be inappropriate and unsafe to simply limit contact with the client.

A client has a gastrostomy tube that has been placed to drain stomach contents by low intermittent suction. What is the nurse's priority during this aspect of the client's care?

Measure and record drainage. Explanation: This drainage should be measured and recorded because it is a significant indicator of GI function. The nurse should indeed monitor the color of the output, but fluid balance is normally the priority. Frequent titration of the suction should not be necessary and feeding is contraindicated if the G tube is in place for drainage.

Which of the following medications, used in the treatment of GERD, accelerate gastric emptying?

Metoclopramide (Reglan). Explanation: Prokinetic agents which accelerate gastric emptying, used in the treatment of GERD, include bethanechol (Urecholine), domperidone (Motilium), and metoclopramide (Reglan). If reflux persists, the patient may be given antacids or H2 receptor antagonists, such as famotidine (Pepcid) or nizatidine (Axid). Proton pump inhibitors (medications that decrease the release of gastric acid, such as esomeprazole (Nexium) may be used, also.

A client has been taking a 10-day course of antibiotics for pneumonia. The client has been having white patches that look like milk curds in the mouth. What treatment will the nurse educate the client about?

Nystatin. Explanation: Candidiasis is a fungal infection that results in a cheesy white plaque in the mouth that looks like milk curds. It commonly occurs in antibiotic therapy. Antifungal medications such as nystatin (Mycostatin), amphotericin B, clotrimazole, or ketoconazole may be prescribed.

An elderly client comes into the emergency department reporting an earache. The client and has an oral temperature of 37.9° (100.2ºF) and otoscopic assessment of the ear reveals a pearly gray tympanic membrane with no evidence of discharge or inflammation. Which action should the triage nurse take next?

Palpate the client's parotid glands to detect swelling and tenderness. Explanation: Older adults and debilitated clients of any age who are dehydrated or taking medications that reduce saliva production are at risk for parotitis. Symptoms include fever and tenderness, as well as swelling of the parotid glands. Pain radiates to the ear. Pain associated with malocclusion of the temporomandibular joint may also radiate to the ears; however, a temperature elevation would not be associated with malocclusion. The 12th cranial nerve is not associated with the auditory system. Bleeding and hyperpigmented gums may be caused by pyorrhea or gingivitis. These conditions do not cause earache; fever would not be present unless the teeth were abscessed.

A patient reports an inflamed salivary gland below the right ear. The nurse documents probable inflammation of which gland?

Parotid

When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. Aphthous stomatitis is best described as:

a canker sore of the oral soft tissues.

The nurse is preparing to assess the donor site of a client who underwent a myocutaneous flap after a radical neck dissection. The nurse prepares to assess the most commonly used muscle for this surgery. Which muscle should the nurse assess?

Pectoralis major

The nurse is conducting a community education class on gastritis. The nurse includes that chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in which disease/condition?

Peptic ulcers

A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate?

Perforation of the peptic ulcer

Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a client with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication?

Peritonitis. Explanation: Perforation is the erosion of the ulcer through the gastric serosa into the peritoneal cavity without warning. Chemical peritonitis develops within a few hours of perforation and is followed by bacterial peritonitis. Gastritis, reflux, and pancreatitis are not acute complications of a perforated ulcer.

The client has returned to the floor following a radical neck dissection. Anesthesia has worn off. What is the nurse's priority action?

Place the client in the Fowler's position.

A client has undergone surgery for oral cancer and has just been extubated in postanesthetic recovery. What nursing action best promotes comfort and facilitates spontaneous breathing for this client?

Placing the client in Fowler position,

A client who underwent surgery for esophageal cancer is admitted to the critical care unit following postanesthetic recovery. What should the nurse include in the client's immediate postoperative plan of care?

Positioning the client to prevent gastric reflux. Explanation: After recovering from the effects of anesthesia, the client is placed in a low Fowler position, and later in a Fowler position, to help prevent reflux of gastric secretions. The client is observed carefully for regurgitation and dyspnea because a common postoperative complication is aspiration pneumonia. In this period of recovery, self-suctioning is also not likely realistic or safe. Chest physiotherapy is contraindicated because of the risk of aspiration. Nutrition is prioritized, but a regular diet is contraindicated in the immediate recovery from esophageal surgery.

The nurse's comprehensive assessment of a client includes inspection for signs of oral cancer. What assessment finding is most characteristic of oral cancer in its early stages?

Presence of a painless sore with raised edges

A client has undergone rigid fixation for the correction of a mandibular fracture suffered in a fight. What area of care should the nurse prioritize when planning this client's discharge education?

Promotion of adequate nutrition. Explanation: The client who has had rigid fixation should be instructed not to chew food in the first 1 to 4 weeks after surgery. A liquid diet is recommended, and dietary counseling should be obtained to ensure optimal caloric and protein intake. The nature of this surgery threatens the client's nutritional status; this physiologic need would likely supersede the resumption of ADLs. Pain should be under control prior to discharge and communication is not precluded by this surgery.

A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hernia is a (an):

Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. Explanation: It is important for the patient and his family to understand the altered association between the esophagus and the stomach. The diaphragm opening, through which the esophagus passes, becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax. The abnormality is not an involuntary, protruding, or twisted segment.

A client with a disorder of the oral cavity cannot tolerate tooth brushing or flossing. Which strategy should the nurse use to assist the client?

Provide the client with an irrigating solution of baking soda and warm water

A nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube for feeding a client. Place in order the steps from 1 to 6 for correctly inserting the tube.

Sit the client in an upright position Apply gloves to the nurse's hands Measure the length of the tube that will be inserted Apply water-soluble lubricant to the tip of the tube Tilt the client's nose upward Instruct the client to lower the head and swallow Rationale: To safely insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse sits the client upright first. The nurse then applies gloves, measures the tube length, and applies lubricant to the tip of the nasogastric tube. Next, the nurse tilts the client's nose upward while inserting the tube. When the tube is at the nasopharynx area, the nurse instructs the client to lower the head and swallow.

An older client is diagnosed with parotitis. What bacterial infection does the nurse suspect caused the client's parotitis?

Staphylococcus aureus

A client has been diagnosed with Zenker's diverticulum. What treatment does the nurse include in the client education?

Surgical removal of the diverticulum

Which are accurate clinical manifestations associated with hemorrhage? Select all that apply.

Tachycardia

A client who experienced an upper GI bleed due to gastritis has had the bleeding controlled and the client's condition is now stable. For the next several hours, the nurse caring for this client should assess for what signs and symptoms of recurrence?

Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea Explanation: Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of recurrent bleeding. Clients who have had one GI bleed are at risk for recurrence. Tarry stools are expected short-term findings after a hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is not normally associated with sudden thirst or diaphoresis.

A client with an esophageal stricture is about to undergo esophageal dilatation. As the bougies are passed down the esophagus, the nurse should instruct the client to do which action to minimize the vomiting urge?

Take long, slow breaths

The client has a chancre on his lips. The nurse instructs the client to

Take measures to prevent spreading the lesion to other people.

The client has a chancre on the lips. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Take measures to prevent spreading the lesion to other people.

A client has recently received a diagnosis of gastric cancer; the nurse is aware of the importance of assessing the client's level of anxiety. Which of the following actions is most likely to accomplish this?

The client is encouraged to express fears openly. Explanation: Encouraging the client to discuss his or her fears and anxieties is usually the best way to assess a client's anxiety. Presenting hypothetical situations is a surreptitious and possibly inaccurate way of assessing anxiety. Observing body language is part of assessment, but it is not the complete assessment. Presenting information may alleviate anxiety for some clients, but it is not an assessment.

A nurse enters the room of a client who has returned to the unit after having a radical neck dissection. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

The client lying in a lateral position, with the head of bed flat

A nurse is preparing to discharge a client after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this client? The client maintains or gains weight. The client consumes a diet high in calcium. The client is able to tolerate three large meals a day. The client's bowel movements maintain a loose consistency.

The client maintains or gains weight. Explanation: Expected outcomes for the client following gastric surgery include ensuring that the client is maintaining or gaining weight (client should be weighed daily), experiencing no excessive diarrhea, and tolerating six small meals a day. Clients may require vitamin B12 supplementation by the intramuscular route and do not require a diet excessively rich in calcium.

A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett esophagus with minor cell changes. What principle should be integrated into the client's subsequent care?

The client will be monitored closely to detect malignant changes. Explanation: In the client with Barrett esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer, necessitating close monitoring. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for clients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or that are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for clients with GERD, they should be taken as prescribed whether or not the client is symptomatic.

The nurse is inserting a Levin tube for a patient for gastric decompression. The tube should be inserted to 6 to 10 cm beyond what length?

The distance measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and from the earlobe to the xiphoid process

Diagnostic testing of a client with a history of dyspepsia and abdominal pain has resulted in a diagnosis of gastric cancer. The nurse's anticipatory guidance should include what information?

The possibility of surgery, chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Explanation: Treatment of gastric cancer is usually multimodal, but does not necessitate a colostomy. Weight loss is not a goal during recovery; exercise is not a high priority and may be unrealistic. The prognosis for clients with gastric cancer is generally poor.

A client has a new order for metoclorpramide (Reglan). The nurse knows that this medication should not be used long term and only in cases where all other options have been exhausted. This is because this medication has the potential for extrapyramidal side effects. Extrapyramidal side effects include which of the following?

Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs

A nurse is creating a care plan for a client with a nasogastric tube. How should the nurse direct other members of the care team to check correct placement of the tube?

Use a combination of at least two accepted methods for confirming placement.

A client receives tube feedings after an oral surgery. The nurse manages tube feedings to minimize the risk of aspiration. Which measure should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce the risk of aspiration?

Use semi-Fowler position during, and 60 minutes after, an intermittent feeding.

A nurse in an oral surgery practice is working with a client scheduled for removal of an abscessed tooth. When providing discharge education, the nurse should recommend what action?

Use warm saline to rinse the mouth as needed.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is at risk for which vitamin deficiency?

Vitamin B12

Which of the following assessment findings would be most important for indicating dumping syndrome in a postgastrectomy client?

Weakness, diaphoresis, diarrhea 90 minutes after eating

The nurse checks residual content before each intermittent tube feeding. When should the patient be reassessed?

When the residual is greater than 200 mL Explanation: Although a residual volume of 200 mL or greater is generally considered a cause for concern in patients at high risk for aspiration, feedings do not necessarily need to be withheld in all patients.

Which of the following is the most common type of diverticulum?

Zenker's diverticulum Explanation: The most common type of diverticulum, which is found three times more frequently in men than women, is Zenker's diverticulum (also known as pharyngoesophageal pulsion diverticulum or a pharyngeal pouch).

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a.) "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." b.) "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." c.) "It is a hereditary disease." d.) "It is probably your nerves." e.) "You may have ingested some irritating foods."

a.) "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." b.) "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." e.) "You may have ingested some irritating foods." Explanation: Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—the person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a.) "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." b.) "You may have ingested some irritating foods." c.) "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." d.) "It is probably your nerves." e.) "It is a hereditary disease."

a.) "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." b.) "You may have ingested some irritating foods." c.) "It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." Explanation: Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—the person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate.

A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:

alcohol abuse and smoking. Explanation: The nurse should mention that risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of hemorrhoids aren't risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.

A patient has been NPO for two days anticipating surgery which has been repeatedly delayed. In addition to risks of nutritional and fluid deficits, the nurse determines that this patient is at the greatest risk for:

altered oral mucous membranes.

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

drink liquids only between meals. Explanation: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in the prevention of rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.