POC 3 Head and Neck Anatomy and Physiology
58. Dental infections can lead to serious complications because veins in the head and neck generally lack valves that prevent the backflow of blood. a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. c. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT. d. NEITHER the statement NOR reason is correct.
. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
5. The articulation between the frontal bone and the parietal bones is the a. coronal suture. b. sagittal suture. c. frontonasal suture. d. lambdoidal suture.
A. A suture is the union of bones connected by fibrous tissue; the coronal suture joins the frontal bone and the parietal bones.
1. All references to body structures are made assuming the body is in anatomical position; anatomical position is the erect position of the body, arms at the sides, with head, eyes, and palms facing forward. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
23. The muscles of mastication consist of four paired muscles inserting on the mandible. The muscles of mastication are innervated by the mandibular division of cranial nerve V. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
30. Intrinsic tongue muscles are located entirely inside the tongue. These muscles act to change the shape of the tongue. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
40. Salivary glands in the soft palate (buccal, labial, and lingual mucosa) secrete mostly mucous fluid. Von Ebner glands located in the circumvallate lingual papillae secrete only serous fluid. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
55. The facial vein communicates with the cavernous venous sinus; this sinus can become fatally infected through the spread of dental infection. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
26. Which of the following occurs when one side of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is contracted? a. The head and neck bend to the same side. b. The head and neck bend to the opposite side. c. The head flexes and extends the neck. d. The head flexes and remains stable.
A. Contraction of one side of the sternocleidomastoid muscle makes the head bend to the same side, turning the face to the opposite side.
75. All of the following cranial nerves are part of the pharyngeal plexus and pass through the skull by way of the jugular foramen EXCEPT a. cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve). b. cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). c. cranial nerve X (vagus nerve). d. cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve).
A. Cranial nerve VI (abducens) exits the skull through the superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone.
49. Pea-like firmness of the facial lymph nodes might indicate a. infection from adjacent teeth. b. infection from the upper lip. c. infection from tonsils. d. normal health.
A. Infections from teeth may cause lymphadenopathy described as being firm like a pea.
15. Infiltration of local anesthetic is more successful in mandibular anterior teeth than mandibular posterior teeth because a. the alveolar process of the mandibular incisors is less dense. b. the alveolar process of the mandibular incisors is denser. c. the alveolar process of the mandibular incisors is absent. d. the body of the mandible is less dense than the alveolar process.
A. The alveolar process of the mandibular incisors is less dense than the body of the mandible and even less dense than the alveolar process of the mandibular posterior teeth, allowing for better infiltration of local anesthesia to the anterior teeth.
51. Which of the following lymph nodes empty into the jugular trunk? a. Deep cervical nodes b. Superficial nodes c. Submandibular nodes d. Facial nodes
A. The deep cervical lymph nodes consist of the superior deep nodes and the inferior deep nodes; the superior deep nodes empty into the inferior deep nodes or directly into the jugular trunk and the inferior deep nodes empty into the jugular trunk.
62. Which of the following nerves is paired correctly with the tissue it innervates? a. Glossopharyngeal nerve, base of tongue b. Buccal nerve, buccinator muscle c. Hypoglossal nerve, extrinsic tongue muscles d. Facial nerve, parotid gland
A. The glossopharyngeal nerve, cranial nerve IX, carries sensory fibers from the back of the oropharynx, providing taste and sensation from the base of the tongue; it also controls gag reflex and swallowing.
18. Infection of the following sinuses can cause discomfort and complications with the maxillary posterior teeth: a. maxillary. b. ethmoid. c. sphenoid. d. frontal.
A. The maxillary sinuses are the largest of the four paired paranasal sinuses; infection, and disease of these sinuses can cause complications of the maxillary posterior teeth.
17. Which of the following is an important landmark to note radiographically to avoid misinterpretation as an oral radiolucent lesion? a. Mental foramen b. Genial tubercles c. Mandibular foramen d. Mental protuberance
A. The mental foramen is located bilaterally on the external surface of the body of the mandible below and between the first and second premolars; it is important not to confuse this radiolucency with periapical or other oral lesions.
22. Which one of the following muscles of facial expression encircles the mouth and is responsible for closure of the lips? a. Orbicularis oris b. Buccinator c. Levator anguli oris d. Depressor anguli oris
A. The orbicularis oris muscle encircles the mouth and closes the lips.
36. All the following major salivary glands secrete mixed secretions EXCEPT the a. parotid gland. b. submandibular salivary gland. c. sublingual salivary gland. d. Von Ebner gland.
A. The parotid salivary gland is the largest of the salivary glands but produces only 25% of the total salivary volume, which is mainly serous.
45. Which of the following glands is the largest salivary gland? a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual d. Lacrimal
A. The parotid salivary gland is the largest of the salivary glands but produces only 25% of the total salivary volume, which is mainly serous.
39. A ligament associated with the temporomandibular joint is an important landmark for local anesthesia. Name the landmark and the nerve block. a. Sphenomandibular ligament, inferior alveolar b. Sphenomandibular ligament, long buccal c. Stylomandibular ligament, long buccal d. Temporomandibular joint ligament, inferior alveolar
A. The sphenomandibular ligament is located medially and extends from the spine of the sphenoid bone to the lingula of the mandible; the inferior alveolar nerve is located in the space between the mandibular ramus and the sphenomandibular ligament, making it an important landmark for the administration of the inferior alveolar nerve block.
9. Which part of the temporal bone forms the cranial portion of the temporomandibular joint? a. Squamous part b. Tympanic part c. Zygomatic process d. Petrous part
A. The squamous portion of the temporal bone is the largest of three portions; it forms the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the cranial portion of the temporomandibular joint.
73. What is the purpose of synovial fluid in the synovial joint? a. Lubricates the joint b. Transports nutrients to the joint c. Prevents displacement of the joint d. Stabilizes the joint
A. The synovial membrane lining the joint capsule of the temporomandibular joint produces synovial fluid that fills the cavities and lubricates the joints.
71. Which of the following nerves innervates the four muscles of mastication? a. Mandibular b. Maxillary c. Ophthalmic d. Trigeminal
A. The third nerve division, V3 of the trigeminal nerve, is the mandibular nerve, which contains nerve branches that innervate the muscles of mastication.
66. Damage to this nerve can result in facial paralysis or Bell palsy. a. Trigeminal b. Facial c. Buccal d. Hypoglossal
B. Facial paralysis, a loss of action of the muscles of facial expression, and Bell palsy, a unilateral facial paralysis, occur as a result of damage or pathology of the facial nerve.
19. When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is termed its a. origin. b. insertion. c. antagonist. d. synergist.
B. Insertion refers the structure the muscle attaches to and tends to be moved by the contraction of the muscle; the insertion is the more movable structure.
80. To make sure that tooth #5 is anesthetized, which of the following nerves would be infiltrated during anesthesia? a. Posterior superior alveolar b. Middle superior alveolar c. Anterior superior alveolar d. Nasopalatine
B. Middle superior alveolar is indicated for dental procedures involving the maxillary premolars and mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar.
24. The muscle of facial expression that aids in mastication is the a. risorius. b. buccinator. c. mentalis. d. masseter.
B. The buccinator muscle is a muscle of facial expression sometimes mistaken for a muscle of mastication; it pulls the mouth laterally, shortening the cheek and aiding in keeping food on the chewing surfaces of the teeth.
29. During an oral examination, you ask the client to protrude the tongue. What muscle is necessary for this action? a. Hypoglossus b. Genioglossus c. Palatoglossus d. Styloglossus
B. The genioglossus muscle is an extrinsic tongue muscle that protrudes the tongue.
48. Which of the following lymph nodes is easily palpable in clients with tonsillar lymphadenopathy? a. Submental node b. Jugulodigastric node c. Jugulo-omohyoid node d. Accessory node
B. The jugulodigastric lymph node, superior deep cervical nodes located deep beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle, are easily palpable in clients with tonsillar lymphadenopathy.
64. The only trigeminal nerve division carrying both afferent and efferent nerves is the a. ophthalmic. b. mandibular. c. maxillary. d. facial.
B. The mandibular nerve, third division of the trigeminal nerve, cranial nerve V, is the only division containing both afferent and efferent nerve types.
54. Which of the following arteries supplies the muscles of mastication? a. Occipital artery b. Maxillary artery c. Facial artery d. Lingual artery
B. The maxillary artery consists of three parts; the second portion of the maxillary artery also has muscle branches to the temporalis, masseter, and lateral and medial pterygoid muscles.
81. Infiltration of all the following nerves would help anesthetize quadrant I EXCEPT the a. greater palatine. b. mental. c. posterior superior alveolar. d. nasopalatine.
B. The mental block is used to anesthetize the anterior teeth on one side of the mandible.
21. When contracted, which of the following muscles tightens and narrows the vestibule, making access to the facial aspect of the mandibular incisors difficult? a. Buccinator b. Mentalis c. Levator labii superioris d. Depressor labii inferioris
B. The mentalis muscle raises the chin and narrows the vestibule near the mandibular incisors.
8. Which of the following bones has paired canals that transmit cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal? a. Sphenoid bone b. Occipital bone c. Maxilla d. Mandible
B. The occipital bone is a single bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull; it has paired hypoglossal canals that are the openings for cranial nerve XII or the hypoglossal nerve.
4. Each of the following bones of the skull is considered a facial bone EXCEPT the a. maxillae. b. occipital bone. c. zygomatic bone. d. lacrimal bone.
B. The occipital bone is a singular bone of the neurocranium or cranial bones.
47. The palatine tonsil is commonly enlarged in children. This tonsil is also referred to as the adenoids. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
B. The pharyngeal tonsils, located on the midline of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx, are commonly referred to as "adenoids," are enlarged in children.
44. The salivary gland most often associated with salivary stone formation is the a. parotid. b. submandibular. c. sublingual. d. lacrimal.
B. The submandibular gland contains a long duct in the floor of the mouth that requires upward travel of mucous secretion, which may lead to salivary stone formation.
50. Which of the following lymph nodes drain the cheek, hard palate, tongue, and anterior nasal cavity? a. Submental nodes b. Submandibular nodes c. Facial nodes d. Occipital nodes
B. The submandibular nodes drain the cheek, upper lip, anterior portion of the hard palate, body of the tongue, and all teeth except the maxillary third molars and mandibular incisors.
56. Which of the following facial arteries supplies the submandibular salivary gland? a. Ascending palatine artery b. Submental artery c. Inferior labial artery d. Superior labial artery
B. The submental artery is a branch of the facial artery that supplies the submandibular lymph nodes, submandibular salivary gland, and mylohyoid and digastric muscles.
33. Which of the following describes the type of movement achieved by the temporomandibular joint? a. Gliding only b. Gliding and rotation c. Rotation only d. Gliding, rotation, and extension
B. The temporomandibular joint is a synovial joint by structure with gliding movement in the upper synovial cavities and rotating movement in the lower synovial cavities; action allows for functions of speech and mastication.
35. The temporomandibular joint is innervated by the a. hypoglossal nerve. b. trigeminal nerve. c. facial nerve. d. accessory nerve.
B. The temporomandibular joint is innervated by the mandibular division of the fifth cranial nerve, trigeminal.
78. Which of the following premolars are often extracted before orthodontic treatment? a. Tooth #1 and tooth #16 b. Tooth #5 and tooth #12 c. Tooth #6 and tooth #11 d. Tooth #20 and tooth #29
B. Tooth #5 and tooth #12, The first premolars, are most often extracted for orthodontic reasons when extractions are indicated.
14. An important landmark for local anesthesia lies posterior to the most distal maxillary molar. Identify the landmark and the nerve that passes through its foramina. a. Infraorbital foramen, infraorbital nerve b. Greater palatine foramen, greater palatine nerve c. Maxillary tuberosity, posterior superior alveolar nerve d. Incisive foramen, nasopalatine nerves
C. A landmark for local anesthesia that lies distal to the last maxillary molar is the maxillary tuberosity, which contains foramina for the passage of the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
46. When examining a healthy client, this exocrine gland moves with its associated cartilage. a. Parotid gland b. Thymus gland c. Thyroid gland d. Parathyroid gland
C. In a healthy client, the thyroid gland moves with the thyroid cartilage when the client swallows.
3. Which of the following results in the formation of the flat bones of the skull? a. Osteoclasts b. Osteocytes c. Intramembranous ossification d. Endochondral ossification
C. Intramembranous ossification is one of two processes resulting in bone formation, no cartilage is present; the flat bones of the skull are an example of bone formed by this process.
76. Which of the following is mostly likely the swollen lymph node identified by the dental hygienist during an extraoral examination? a. Occipital b. Posterior auricular c. Preauricular d. Submental
C. Preauricular nodes lie immediately in front of the tragus part of the ear. The occipital lymph nodes are located in the back of the head near the occipital bone of the skull.
38. The sublingual caruncle a. receives the parotid duct. b. receives the sublingual duct. c. receives the submandibular duct. d. receives the Bartholin duct.
C. The associated duct for the submandibular salivary gland is the submandibular duct or Wharton duct, which opens at the sublingual caruncle on the floor of the mouth.
63. All the following are branches of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve EXCEPT the a. infraorbital nerve. b. anterior superior alveolar nerve. c. auriculotemporal nerve. d. nasopalatine nerve.
C. The auriculotemporal nerve is a branch of the mandibular nerve, third division of the trigeminal nerve.
53. The most reliable arterial pulse in the body is located in the a. internal carotid artery. b. external carotid artery. c. carotid sinus. d. lingual artery.
C. The carotid sinus is found before the common carotid artery bifurcates and is the most reliable arterial pulse in the body.
59. The central nervous system consists of the following: a. sympathetic nervous system. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. brain and spinal cord. d. nerves, receptors, muscles, and glands of the body.
C. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord.
32. Taste sensations for the body of the tongue are provided by which of the following nerves? a. Maxillary division of the trigeminal b. Mandibular division of the trigeminal c. Chorda tympani branch of the facial d. Greater petrosal branch of the facial
C. The chorda tympani nerve is a branch of cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve; it has both efferent and afferent components; the efferent component carries taste sensations for the body of the tongue.
16. Which of the following landmarks on the ramus of the mandible serves as a landmark for determining the height of injection for the inferior alveolar nerve block? a. Coronoid process b. Mandibular notch c. Coronoid notch d. Lingula
C. The coronoid notch is the greatest concavity on the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible and is the landmark for determining the height of injection for the inferior alveolar nerve block.
12. Which of the following structures is perforated by foramina for the passage of olfactory nerves for the sense of smell? a. Sphenoid bone b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Cribriform plate d. Ethmoidal sinuses
C. The cribriform plate is a horizontal plate in the ethmoid bone that has numerous openings for passage of the olfactory nerve, cranial nerve I.
67. The facial nerve travels through the parotid gland; innervation of the parotid gland is provided by the facial nerve. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
C. The facial nerve travels through the parotid gland but does not innervate it; innervation of the parotid gland is by way of the glossopharyngeal nerve, cranial nerve IX.
74. The four muscles of mastication are the masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid; these muscles of mastication are innervated by the cranial nerve VI. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.
C. The four muscles of mastication—masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid—are innervated by the third division, V3 of the trigeminal nerve.
70. Which of the following nerves is NOT part of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve? a. Buccal b. Mental c. Lacrimal d. Incisive
C. The lacrimal nerve is a branch of the ophthalmic nerve, V1 of the trigeminal nerve.
68. Which of the following nerves enters the skull through the foramen ovale? a. Ophthalmic b. Maxillary c. Mandibular d. Zygomatic
C. The mandibular nerve enters the skull through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone.
65. Which of the following nerves is not always present in the oral cavity? a. Greater palatine b. Mental c. Middle superior alveolar d. Anterior superior alveolar
C. The middle superior alveolar nerve (MSA), is a branch of the maxillary nerve, second division of the trigeminal nerve, cranial nerve V; the MSA is not present in all clients.
31. The muscle that unites with its counterpart to form the floor of the mouth is the a. stylohyoid b. digastric c. mylohyoid d. geniohyoid
C. The mylohyoid muscle originates from the inner surface of the mandible and unites with its counterpart to form the floor of the mouth; insertion is on the body of the hyoid bone.
10. In which of the following pairs is a moveable articulation formed? a. Frontal bone with parietal bones b. Coronoid process with mandibular fossa c. Occipital condyles with first cervical vertebrae (atlas) d. Coronoid notch with mandibular fossa
C. The occipital condyles on each side of the occipital bone form a movable articulation with the first cervical vertebrae of the neck, the atlas.
41. Which of the following glands secrete hormones to regulate calcium metabolism and phosphorus uptake? a. Thymus b. Thyroid c. Parathyroid d. Adrenal
C. The parathyroid glands are located behind or within the thyroid gland and secrete parathyroid hormone, which regulates calcium metabolism and phosphorus uptake.
37. The parotid gland produces the least volume of saliva because it is the smallest salivary gland. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct. d. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
C. The parotid salivary gland is the largest of the salivary glands but produces only 25% of the total salivary volume, which is mainly serous.
6. The petrous portion of the temporal bone contains the mastoid process. This process serves as an attachment for the trapezius muscle. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE, and the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE, and the second statement is TRUE.
C. The petrous portion of the temporal bone is one of three portions; it is located inferiorly and contains the mastoid process that serves as an attachment for the sternoceidomastoid muscle.
27. Which of the following muscle groups elevate the hyoid bone? a. Intrinsic tongue muscles b. Extrinsic tongue muscles c. Suprahyoid muscles d. Infrahyoid muscles
C. The suprahyoid muscle group is located superior to the hyoid; this muscle group acts to raise the hyoid bone and larynx during swallowing and depress the mandible during mastication.
20. All the following are muscles of facial expression EXCEPT the a. orbicularis oculi. b. buccinator. c. temporalis. d. mentalis.
C. The temporalis muscle is one of four paired muscles of mastication; it elevates the mandible, raising the jaw.
43. The thymus gland is an endocrine gland because it has an associated duct. a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. c. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT. d. NEITHER the statement NOR reason is correct.
C. The thymus gland is an endocrine gland because it has no associated duct.
25. Lateral deviation of the mandible occurs when a. the medial pterygoid muscle is contracted. b. the digastric muscle is contracted. c. one head of the lateral pterygoid muscle is contracted. d. both heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle are contracted.
C. When only one side of the lateral pterygoid muscle is contracted, the jaw shifts to the other side, causing lateral deviation of the mandible; contraction of both heads of the muscle causes the mandible to protrude, which occurs during opening.
77. Which of the following American Academy of Periodontology classifications would Ms. Thomas's periodontal condition be documented as? a. AAP type I b. AAP type II c. AAP type III d. AAP type IV
D. AAP case type IV is advanced periodontitis with severe attachment loss with pocket depths or attachment loss greater than 6 mm.
7. All three branches of which one of the following nerves passes through foramina on the sphenoid bone? a. Facial nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Trigeminal nerve
D. Cranial nerve V, or the trigeminal nerve, is the largest cranial nerve and has three divisions that pass through foramina on the sphenoid bone: ophthalmic division (superior orbital fissure), maxillary division (foramen rotundum), and mandibular division (foramen ovale).
69. Knowledge of the trigeminal nerve is critical for the successful administration of a local anesthetic agent. Which of the following cranial nerves is the trigeminal nerve? a. I b. III c. IV d. V
D. Cranial nerve V, or trigeminal nerve is the largest cranial nerve; knowledge of cranial nerve V, trigeminal, is important in dentistry for pain control and assessment and evaluation.
2. The anatomical term that best describes the top surface of the tongue is a. superior. b. inferior. c. ventral. d. dorsal.
D. Dorsal refers to structures toward or at the back of the body; the dorsal surface of the tongue is the top surface, toward the back when the tongue is upright in the mouth with the tip of the tongue touching the palate.
60. Nerves that carry impulses away from the brain or spinal cord to a body structure are known as a. synapse. b. ganglion. c. afferent. d. efferent.
D. Efferent, or motor neurons transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS toward a body structure such as information sent to a muscle for activation.
52. Leukocytes are white blood cells that protect the body against infection. All the following are leukocytes EXCEPT a. neutrophils. b. eosinophils. c. basophils. d. erythrocytes.
D. Erythrocytes are red blood cells lacking nuclei that produce hemoglobin which functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues in exchange for carbon dioxide.
42. Which of the following is NOT an exocrine gland of the head? a. Parotid gland b. Lacrimal gland c. Von Ebner glands d. Thyroid gland
D. Exocrine glands have ducts, endocrine glands have no ducts; the thyroid gland is an endocrine gland with no duct; it empties directly into the circulatory system and transports secretions to the region to be used.
79. Which of the following local anesthetic agents would be a better choice for Ms. Thomas because of her hypertension? a. Lidocaine hydrochloride with epinephrine b. Mepivacaine hydrochloride c. Benzocaine topical anesthetic d. Lidocaine without epinephrine
D. Lidocaine without epinephrine would be best. Clinicians believe the use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine may cause a rapid raise in blood pressure and heart rate.
82. Which of the following would the dental hygienist NOT do during the reevaluation appointment? a. Assess bleeding on probing. b. Assess the gingival health. c. Remove residual calculus. d. Take four horizontal bitewings.
D. Take four horizontal bitewings. The dental hygienist should take vertical bitewings as indicated by the patient's periodontal status.
34. The articular fossa of the temporal bone articulates with the mandible at the temporomandibular joint at which landmark? a. Articular eminence b. Articular fossa c. Zygomatic process of the temporal bone d. Condyle
D. The condyle of the mandible articulates with the articular fossa of the temporal bone forming the movable part of the temporomandibular joint.
28. All the following muscles of mastication elevate the mandible EXCEPT the a. masseter. b. medial pterygoid. c. temporalis. d. lateral pterygoid.
D. The lateral pterygoid muscle lies within the infratemporal fossa, originates from two heads; the heads act together to protrude the mandible or act individually to shift the jaw to the opposite side.
57. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the pterygoid plexus? a. Drains portions of the face into the maxillary vein b. Can be involved in the spread of dental infections by improper administration of local anesthesia c. Protects the maxillary artery d. Has valves that prevent backflow of blood
D. The pterygoid plexus of veins is a collection of vessels that form anastomoses with the facial and retromandibular veins; veins in the head and neck have no valves to control the flow of blood, allowing dental infections to spread easily.
11. Which of the following is a landmark on the sphenoid bone for the attachment of many of the muscles of mastication? a. Body of the sphenoid b. Lesser wing c. Greater wing d. Pterygoid process
D. The pterygoid process is a long process projecting down from the junction of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone; the medial and lateral pterygoid plates serve as attachments for the pterygoid muscles of mastication.
61. The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for stressful situations, or "fight-or-flight" Response. Which of the following symptoms might a client with severe dental anxiety exhibit during the dental appointment? a. Decrease in blood pressure b. Increase in salivary flow c. Dental caries d. Increase in heart rate
D. The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for stressful situations by increasing the heart rate, dilating airways, and slowing body processes that are less important in emergencies, such as digestion and urination.
72. Which of the following nerves is the largest of the trigeminal branches? a. Maxillary b. Facial c. Ophthalmic d. Mandibular
D. The third nerve division, V3 of the trigeminal nerve, is the mandibular nerve; it is the largest of the three nerve divisions that form the trigeminal nerve.
13. All the following are paired facial bones EXCEPT the a. nasal bone. b. maxilla bone. c. zygomatic bone. d. vomer.
D. The vomer is a single bone of the viserocranium or facial bones; it forms the posterior portion of the nasal septum.
