Porth Chapter 14
A client with a diagnosis of sepsis has received intravenous immune globulin (IVIg) as partial treatment. The nurse knows that which client response would best suggest an accurate understanding of IVIg treatment? "These antibodies in the solution have been collected from individuals who have successfully fought off the same infection." "The IVIg should help stimulate fever, inflammation, and tissue repair in the fight against the infection." "A big part of my IVIg treatment is actually stimulating and supplementing my immune system to do the work itself." "The main effect of IVIg is to cause her body to produce more white blood cells to fight infection."
"A big part of my IVIg treatment is actually stimulating and supplementing my immune system to do the work itself." IVIg involves infusion of pooled antibodies which supplement and stimulate the client's immune system to respond above and beyond its own capacities. It is not collected from individuals who have had similar infections. The primary effect of IVIg is not white blood cell production. Stimulation of fever, inflammation, and tissue repair are more closely associated with cytokine therapy.
A nurse is teaching parents of a child with scarlet fever. Which statement indicates that the parents understand the treatment for the child? "Scarlet fever is a gram-negative bacteria that requires no antibiotics to treat." "I will apply antibiotics as a cream to her rash twice a day." "I will give the antibiotic for the full 10 days." "My daughter cannot go to school while she is taking antibiotics."
"I will give the antibiotic for the full 10 days." Streptococcus pyogenes, the agent of scarlet fever, is a gram-positive streptococcal organism. It is spherical, grows in chains, and stains purple by Gram stain. Not all antibiotics are effective against all pathogenic bacteria. Some agents are effective only against gram-negative bacteria, and others are specific for gram-positive organisms. The so-called broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as the newest class of cephalosporins, are active against a wide variety of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
The physician knows the client, G1P0, has correctly understood the prenatal education regarding sexually transmitted infection as evidenced by which statement listed below? "Out of the various infectious agents, gonorrhea and chlamydia pose the greatest risks of transmission from mother to child." "I know that my baby will need observation for HIV signs and symptoms in the weeks following my delivery." "My baby could become infected either across the placenta or during the birth itself." "If I receive prophylactic immunization I will reduce my baby's chance of being born with an illness."
"My baby could become infected either across the placenta or during the birth itself." Vertical transmission may occur across the placenta in utero or during the birth event itself. Cytomegalovirus and HIV are the most common congenital infections; HIV signs and symptoms are not immediately apparent in the infant. Prophylactic immunization is not noted as a proven intervention for preventing vertical transmission.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with shingles. The client states, "I have not been around anyone with this condition. How could I have caught it?" What is the nurse's best response? "This is a latent virus that you likely were exposed to as a child and it has now become active in the form of shingles." "This virus has a long prodromal stage so you could have been exposed over a month ago and not been aware." "Shingles is caused by recent exposure to someone who has active herpes zoster virus or has just been vaccinated." "This virus is the same one that causes cold sores and is manifesting in a different way this time, so it is very common."
"This is a latent virus that you likely were exposed to as a child and it has now become active in the form of shingles." Chickenpox and zoster (varicella-zoster or herpes-zoster, also known as shingles) are caused by the same virus. It has the initial manifestation as chickenpox but the resumption of the latent virus manifests as shingles. The client would not have required recent exposure. Herpes zoster is a latent virus rather than having a long prodromal stage. Cold sores are caused by herpes simplex virus I, not zoster.
A client has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus. The client states that, "modern medicine produces more and more antivirals every year and so the treatment should be simple." Which statement is the best response? "The recent rise of drug resistance has significantly hampered the elimination of viruses." "The cell coat of viruses is particularly resilient to the available synthetic antivirals." "The use of antivirals is severely limited by the unwanted adverse effects that they cause." "Treatment options for viruses are often limited because what destroys viruses often damages your own body cells."
"Treatment options for viruses are often limited because what destroys viruses often damages your own body cells." Viruses are difficult to treat because interference with their replication often requires interference with the body's cell replication processes. Though they do exist with antiviral treatments, drug resistance and side effects are phenomena more closely associated with ANTIBACTERIALS***. Antivirals act upon DNA or RNA synthesis, not the cell wall.
A client tells the health care provider he has heard several myths about viruses. The most appropriate information for the nurse to provide would be: "Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later." "Viruses are capable of replicating outside of a living cell." "Viruses kill cells they come in contact with immediately." "Viruses do not require a host cell to replicate."
"Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later." Viruses can produce symptoms of disease months to years later. Some viruses, such as hepatitis C, can remain latent for long periods of time without causing disease until months to years later. Viruses are incapable of replicating outside of a living cell and are incapable of replication unless in a host cell. Not every virus causes lysis and death of the host cell during replication.
What is a fulminant illness?
An illness or disease that has an abrupt onset with little or no prodrome.
What type of viral hepatitis is not associated with transmission through contact with infected blood? A B C D
A Infections can be transmitted from person to person through shared inanimate objects contaminated with infected body fluids (fomites). An example of this mechanism of transmission would include the spread of the HIV and hepatitis B, C and D virus through the use of shared syringes by intravenous drug users. Hepatitis A is acquired through the injection of contaminated food or fluids.
Sometimes the host's white blood cells are unable to eliminate the microorganism, but the body is able to contain the dissemination of the pathogen. What is this called? Abscess Pimple Lesion Acne
Abscess An abscess is a localized pocket of infection composed of devitalized tissue, microorganisms, and the host's phagocytic white blood cells: in essence, a stalemate in the infectious process. A pimple is a small papule or pustule. A lesion is a pathologic change in body tissue. Acne is a disease of the skin.
Which stage of infectious disease is this?: The period during which the host experiences the maximum impact of the infectious process corresponding to rapid proliferation and dissemination of the pathogen
Acute stage The immune response, microbial metabolism, and cell lysis cause tissue damage and inflammation
How is herpes zoster transmitted?
Airborne. Herpes Zoster is the pathogen responsible for Chicken Pox
Which type of pneumonia is best characterized by an infective agent that produces sputum samples with a peptidoglycan cell wall, expresses endotoxins, replicates readily in broth and on agar, grows in clusters, has pili, and does not stain when exposed to crystal violet?
Although chlamydiae, viruses, and mycoplasmas all can cause pneumonia, only bacteria have all of these characteristics. Chlamydiae and viruses are obligate intracellular organisms and therefore would grow only in cell culture, and mycoplasmas lack the peptidoglycan cell wall typical of bacteria.
A client is taking a vacation in a foreign country. The nurse teaches the client about giardiasis, a common traveler's infection. Which statement should be included in the teaching plan? Avoid eating food and drinking beverages that might be contaminated. Avoid close contact with other passengers while flying on an airplane. Avoid swimming in the coastal waters of the foreign country. Complete the necessary inoculations before traveling out of the country.
Avoid eating food and drinking beverages that might be contaminated. Protozoa are unicellular animals with a complete complement of eukaryotic cellular machinery, including a well-defined nucleus and organelles. Most are saprophytes, but a few have adapted to the accommodations of the human environment and produce a variety of diseases, including malaria, amebic dysentery, and giardiasis. Protozoan infections can be passed directly from host to host as through sexual contact, indirectly through contaminated water or food, or by way of an arthropod vector.
What type of pathogen has both a cell wall AND a cell membrane?
Bacteria
Select the statement that best describes the cause of antibiotic resistance. Bacteria that harbor plasmids increase their resistance to antibiotics. Bacteria are more resistant to antibiotics because they have both DNA and RNA. Due to the lack of organized intracellular organelles, bacteria are more resistant to antibiotics. Bacteria have small and primitive structures that aid them to be antibiotic resistant.
Bacteria that harbor plasmids increase their resistance to antibiotics. Many bacteria transiently harbor smaller extrachromosomal pieces of circular DNA called plasmids. These contribute to the virulence or antibiotic resistance of the organism. The other statements all describe normal characteristics of bacteria.
Staphylococcus aureus commonly found in the skin, nares, and other body sites of clients without any signs and symptoms of infection is known as which condition? An opportunistic infection A parasitic infestation Bacterial colonization A saprophytic infection
Bacterial colonization The ongoing presence in the body of bacteria that do not cause infection is called colonization. Opportunistic infection by ordinarily nonpathogenic organisms can occur in immunosuppressed hosts. Parasitism is a condition in which the organism exists at the expense of, and without benefiting, the host. Saprophytes do not cause infection.
Do bacteria contain DNA or RNA?
Both! And they replicate autonomously
A client is brought to the emergency room with reports of facial muscle paralysis and increasing upper extremity weakness several hours after eating canned peppers. Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection and further testing reveals a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from cholinergic neurons. What is the most likely cause of this illness?
Botulism exotoxin Exotoxins are proteins released from the bacterial cell during growth. Bacterial exotoxins enzymatically inactivate or modify key cellular constituents, leading to cell death or dysfunction. Botulism toxin decreases the release of neurotransmitter from cholinergic neurons, causing flaccid paralysis.
A client tells the nurse that the primary care provider prescribed an antibiotic. The client was instructed to take the antibiotic three times a day for 10 days. After the 4th day, the client was feeling much better and decided to stop taking the medication. What complication could result from stopping the antibiotic early? Septicemia Bacteremia Septic shock Chronic infection
Chronic infection Chronic infection can result from stopping antibiotics early because of the increasing prevalence of bacteria resistant to the effects of antibiotics. Septicemia, bacteremia, and septic shock are not the result from stopping antibiotics early.
Which description does the nurse recognize fits a client in the prodromal stage of an infection? Client has been exposed, but is experiencing no apparent symptoms. Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low grade fever. Client's symptoms specific to the disease are evident. Residual symptoms of the disease are present in the client's body.
Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low grade fever. Stages of infection are incubation period, prodromal stage, acute stage, convalescent stage, and the resolution stage. During incubation, there are no recognizable symptoms in the host. The prodromal stage has the initial appearance of vague, non-specific symptoms such as malaise, myalgia, and low grade fever. The acute stage is when the maximal impact on the host is evident through specific symptoms commonly from toxins and inflammation. The convalescent period is when the infection is contained and progressively eliminated from the body. The resolution is when the infection has been cleared from the body.
Which best describes the structure of a virus? Possesses both a cell wall and a cell membrane Consists of a capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core Has a helical cell wall A small prokaryote that lacks a cell wall
Consists of a capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core Viruses consist of a protein capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core (either RNA or DNA). Bacteria have both a cell wall and a cell membrane. Spirochetes have a helical cell wall, and mycoplasma are bacteria that lack a cell wall.
A number of fungi, such as ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch, are incapable of growing at a core body temperature. Hence, their infection is limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces. What are these pathogens known as? Dermatophytes Parasites Systemic mycoses Superficial mycoses
Dermatophytes Fungal pathogens called dermatophytes are incapable of growing at core body temperature (37°C [98.6°F]), and the infection is limited to the cooler cutaneous surfaces. Diseases caused by these organisms, including ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch, are collectively called superficial mycoses.
A woman reports to the nurse that she has developed a yeast infection. The woman does not understand how she could get a yeast infection since she has been on antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. What is the rationale for this client's complaint? Yeast grows well when exposed to sugar, which is found as a carrier substance in most antibiotics. Destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast). Yeast prefers a warm, moist, and dark environment, such as that present in the female perineum. Antibiotics allow yeast to access sterile environments in the body.
Destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast).
A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic? Constipation Leukopenia Fever Vomiting
Fever A small amount of endotoxin in the circulatory system (endotoxemia) can induce clotting, bleeding, inflammation, hypotension, and fever.
The bacteriologist is staining the slides of a client diagnosed with scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. The slide identifies S. pyogenes and stains purple by crystal violet dye. The result would indicate: Gram-positive organism Acid-fast bacilli Gram-negative organism Anaerobic organism
Gram-positive organism All gram-positive organisms stain purple with crystal violet dye. An acid-fast bacillus is a separate classification that does not relate to purple staining. Gram-negative organisms do not stain purple with crystal violet dye. Anaerobic organism refers to an organism that cannot survive in an oxygen-containing environment.
A nurse is interviewing a client with fever, myalgia, headache, and lethargy. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask related to identifying the cause of these symptoms and the possible need for quarantining the client? Are these symptoms similar to an illness you have had in the past? Have you or any family members traveled outside the country recently? Did you receive an influenza vaccine this season? Have you been exposed to anyone who has not been vaccinated recently?
Have you or any family members traveled outside the country recently? The client is presenting with the nonspecific symptoms of viral illness. Due to the global market and the ease of international travel, there is increasing risk for global pandemics. Knowing if the client has recently visited certain countries could help identify the most likely viruses to which the client may have been exposed. Being vaccinated for local influenzas is not a guarantee the client has or does not have this, or another, virus. Being exposed to an unvaccinated person is only relevant if that person is infectious; because many viral illnesses present with similar symptoms, this question is not helpful. Having had a virus in the past reduces the likelihood that the client is ill with that same virus.
A nurse, educating a client about disease transmission, learns that the client has received weekly manicures and pedicures in various commercial salons for many years. Which diseases is the client at risk for due to improper sterilization of equipment used in the salons? Hepatitis B Staphylococcus infection Candidiasis infection Herpes simplex infection
Hepatitis B Infections can be transmitted from person to person through shared inanimate objects contaminated with infected body fluids (fomites). An example of this mechanism of transmission would include the spread of the HIV and hepatitis B virus.
Which stage of infectious disease is this?: The phase during which the pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms
Incubation Period
A client with a history of cancer and recent chemotherapy was hospitalized with fever, weakness, shortness of breath and productive cough. A bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy showed granulomas containing the fungus Histoplasma. Based on client history and the biopsy results, a nurse can conclude that the most likely cause of this infection was due to which reason? A dormant enveloped virus, shed from an infected cell surface, mutated and caused an active infection. Ingestion of fungi led to the development of pneumonia. Cancer cell mutations allowed for the overgrowth of fungi in the respiratory system. Inhalation of fungi and decreased host defenses permitting an opportunistic infection.
Inhalation of fungi and decreased host defenses permitting an opportunistic infection. Few fungi are capable of causing diseases in humans, and most of these are incidental, self-limited infections of skin and subcutaneous tissue. Serious fungal infections are rare and usually initiated through puncture wounds or inhalation. Despite their normally harmless nature, fungi can cause life-threatening opportunistic diseases when host defense capabilities have been disabled. Disease states or antibiotic therapy can upset the balance of normal body flora, permitting fungal overgrowth and setting the stage for opportunistic infections.
What is a disease called if the prodromal phase is protracted?
Insidious
A client presents with sudden, violent diarrhea and vomiting after consuming chicken and potato salad 8 hours prior at the beach on a hot day. The nurse knows which statement best matches the phase of the infectious process of food poisoning? Maximum impact of infectious process Insidious prodromal phase Sudden incubation of active replication Subacute prodromal phase
Maximum impact of infectious process The lack of prodrome and intense symptom onset typify a fulminant illness. The onset described does not characterize a prodromal phase or incubation.
Which pathogen replicates through production of long, hollow-branching filaments called hyphae?
Molds
The nurse in the emergency department knows clients exposed to Clostridium botulinum, an agent of bioterrorism, would likely be exhibiting which clinical manifestation listed below? Blindness and respiratory distress Hemorrhage from all orifices resulting in signs of shock and coma Frothy, odiferous diarrhea and dehydration Muscle weakness in extremities eventually leading to paralysis of respiratory muscles
Muscle weakness in extremities eventually leading to paralysis of respiratory muscles Clostridium botulinum causes neuromuscular paralysis and is listed as a category A agent. Page 309
A entry on a client's health record documents that she has a subclinical infection. Which assessment would the nurse expect to find? Minimal clinical manifestations Fever with no elevation in the neutrophil count No systemic manifestations of disease Reports of fatigue and chills
No systemic manifestations of disease A subclinical or subacute illness progresses from infection to resolution without clinically apparent symptoms.
A client newly diagnosed with the neurodegenerative disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) asks why antibiotics are not part of the treatment plan. How should the nurse respond? Antifungals are needed to kill CJD. Prions are not affected by antibiotics. CJD is only susceptible to antiretrovirals. Anaerobic parasites are destroyed by oxygen.
Prions are not affected by antibiotics. Transmissible neurodegenerative diseases such as kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, and bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in cows are caused by prions. Prions are proteins that do not contain genetic material, but are believed to replicate by binding to the cell surface and using cellular materials. Because prions are very stable and lack nuclear material or metabolic processes they are not vulnerable to any current antimicrobial therapy.
Which stage of infectious disease is this?: This phase is defined by the initial appearance of symptoms in the host. Often, the symptoms could be quite general, such as malaise, headache, muscle aches, and fever.
Prodromal Stage
A client complains of general malaise and fatigue and has a mild fever. The nurse would evaluate this stage of disease as the: Incubation stage Prodromal stage Convalescent stage Resolution stage
Prodromal stage The hallmark of the prodromal stage is the initial appearance of symptoms in the host that are mild and nonspecific. The other stages/symptoms would not be present.
A client was diagnosed with HIV and the nurse is teaching about the types of drug therapy. Which antiviral agent was developed solely for the treatment of HIV infections and works by inhibiting an HIV-specific enzyme that is necessary for late maturation events in the virus life cycle? Reverse transcriptase inhibitors Protease inhibitors Entrance inhibitors Highly active antiretroviral therapy
Protease inhibitors Antiviral agents developed solely for the treatment of HIV infections are the protease inhibitors (e.g., indinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir, tipranavir, atazanavir, nelfinavir). These drugs inhibit an HIV-specific enzyme that is necessary for late maturation events in the virus life cycle.
Which agent is the cause of malaria? Protozoan parasite Spirochete Filarial roundworm Hansen bacillus
Protozoan parasite Malaria is caused by a microscopic, unicellular protozoa, common in water supplies of developing countries.
What is the primary target of antiviral compounds (i.e. What is the pharmacologic mechanism of action of antiviral compounds)?
RNA or DNA synthesis
Which stage of the infectious disease is this?: The total elimination of the pathogen without residual signs or symptoms
Resolution
The infectious agents that cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus are transmitted to the human body via vector such as a tick. What are these infectious agents? Viruses Rickettsia Chlamydiae Ehrlichieae
Rickettsia The Rickettsia are accidentally transmitted to humans through the bite of the arthropod (i.e., vector) and produce a number of potentially lethal diseases, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus. Viruses, Chlamydiae, and Ehrlichieae do not cause either epidemic typhus or Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
What is the most prominent human ectoparasite?
Scabies (mites), chiggers, lice, and flease.
A pregnant female client in her third trimester visits her gynecologist for a prenatal checkup. The physician is concerned that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which test can be used to diagnose the infection in the neonate at birth? Serum measurement of IgG Serum measurement of IgA Serum measurement of IgM Serum measurement of IgD
Serum measurement of IgM Measurements of class-specific antibodies are also useful in the diagnosis of congenital infections. IgM antibodies do not cross the placenta, but certain IgG antibodies are transferred passively from mother to child during the final trimester of gestation. Consequently, an elevated level of pathogen-specific IgM antibodies in the serum of a neonate must have originated from the child and therefore indicates congenital infection. A similarly increased IgG titer in the neonate does not differentiate congenital from maternal infection.
A client is suspected of having a parasitic infection with roundworms. For what laboratory testing will the nurse prepare the client to most rapidly identify this infection? Cell culture Antibody titer Stool exam for ova Gene sequencing
Stool exam for ova Cultures of microorganisms are commonly used to grow bacteria, fungi, and yeasts. Some protozoa and helminths can be cultured; however, the fastest and most common method for identifying parasitic worms is visible identification of the organisms, cysts, or ova from a client specimen. Cell cultures are grown on a specific type of media used for Chlamydiaceae, Rickettsiaceae, and human viruses. Antibody titers are useful for indirectly diagnosing diseases that cannot be cultured, such as hepatitis B. Gene sequencing is commonly used for identifying viruses such as HIV and hepatitis
Which organism causes peptic ulcers? Helicobacter pylori Salmonella typhimurium Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus
The bacterium Helicobacter pylori is an extreme example of a site-specific pathogen. Helicobacter pylori is a significant cause of gastric ulcers.
Which stage of the infectious disease is this? This phase is characterized by the containment of the infection, progressive elimination of the pathogen, repair of damaged tissue, and resolution of associated symptoms
The convalescent period
Which condition is a complication of infection in which pathogens gain access to the blood? Septicemia Bacteremia Septic shock Chronic infection
The term sepsis, or septicemia, refers to the presence of microbial toxins in the blood.
The clinical picture, or presentation of a disease in the body, is called: Virulence of the disease Source of the disease Diagnosis of the disease Symptomatology of the disease
The term symptomatology refers to the collection of signs and symptoms expressed by the host during the disease course. This is also known as the clinical picture or disease presentation.
A client with otitis media is ordered to receive amoxicillin. The client questions the nurse on how the drug works. Which statement describes how penicillin works? This drug causes interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis. This drug causes the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis. This drug causes the interruption of nucleic acid synthesis. This drug causes the interference with normal cell metabolism.
This drug causes interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis. The four basic mechanisms of the antibiotic action are interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis (e.g., penicillins, cephalosporins, glycopeptides, monobactams, carbapenems); inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis (e.g., aminoglycosides, macrolides, ketolides, tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, oxazolidinones, streptogramins, and rifampin); interruption of nucleic acid synthesis (e.g., fluoroquinolones, nalidixic acid); and interference with normal metabolism (e.g., sulfonamides, trimethoprim).
The nurse is teaching a group of clients how to avoid transmission of bacterial infection by spirochetes. Which information is correct? Select all that apply. Use a barrier method during sexual intercourse. Cover mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing. Avoid raw foods in areas with infestation. Use bleach solution to disinfect hands.
Use a barrier method during sexual intercourse. The spirochete is a type of bacteria with a corkscrew shape. It can be transmitted through direct sexual contact, or through broken-skin contact with the urine of an infected animal, or a tick bite. It is not transmitted through inhalation or ingestion.
An HIV-positive mother passes the virus to her infant during delivery. This type of transmission is known as: Horizontal transmission Vertical transmission Heterozygous transmission Vesicle transmission
Vertical transmission The transmission of STIs is not limited to sexual contact. Vertical transmission of these agents, from the mother to child, can occur across the placenta or during birth when the mucous membranes of the child come in contact with infected vaginal secretions of the mother. The other options are not modes of transmission.
Which statement is an accurate descriptor of the role of viruses in human infections? Viruses have no genetic material of their own. Some viruses are capable of transforming normal host cells into malignant cells. Viruses are often implicated in cases of transmissible neurodegenerative disease. Viruses require stimulation after a latent period before they are able to produce symptoms.
Viruses have no genetic material of their own. Some viruses are capable of transforming normal host cells into malignant cells.
What type of precautions should the nurse take when caring for a client with Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Wearing an N-95 respiratory mask in the room Wearing gloves for contact with secretions Wearing gown, gloves, and face shield during care Wearing double gloves and mask with linen changes
Wearing gloves for contact with secretions Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is caused by the organism Rickettsia rickettsii, which is transmitted by tick bite. Therefore, the universal precautions of handwashing and wearing personal protective equipment when coming into contact with blood and body fluids are appropriate.
Global infectious diseases are now being recognized. These diseases, once known as endemic to one part of the world, are now being found in other parts of the world because of international travel and a global marketplace. Which disease is considered a global infectious disease? Coxsackie disease Respiratory syncytial disease West Nile virus Hand, foot, and mouth disease
West Nile virus Aided by a global market and the ease of international travel, the past 5 years have witnessed the importation or emergence of a host of novel infectious diseases. During the late summer and early fall of 1999, West Nile virus (WNV) was identified as the cause of an epidemic involving 56 clients in the New York City area. This outbreak, which led to seven deaths (primarily in the elderly), marked the first time that WNV had been recognized in the Western hemisphere since its discovery in Uganda nearly 60 years earlier. Coxsackie diseases, caused by the coxsackie virus; respiratory syncytial disease, better known as RSV; and hand, foot, and mouth disease are not considered global diseases.
Which single-celled pathogen reproduces by a budding process?
Yeast
The spirochete Leptospira is primarily transmitted to farmers by: an airborne mechanism. exposure to spores in the environment. direct contact with infected animals. a mosquito bite.
direct contact with infected animals. The pathogenic leptospires infect a wide variety of wild and domestic animals. Infected animals release the organisms into the environment through the urinary tract. Transmission to humans occurs by contact with infected animals or urine-contaminated surroundings. This spirochete is not transmitted by airborne, spores, or a fomite.
Select the assessment data that place a client most at risk for the development of an opportunistic infection. A client who: Select all that apply. has a compromised immune system. is currently receiving chemotherapy. just completed 6 weeks of radiation therapy. has a diagnosis of malnutrition. has normal nutrition and body weight.
has a compromised immune system. is currently receiving chemotherapy. just completed 6 weeks of radiation therapy. has a diagnosis of malnutrition.
The nurse knows which statement best describes a characteristic trait of Rickettsiae related to Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Rickettsiae: are eukaryotic. have both RNA and DNA. have a distinct spiral-shaped morphology. are neither gram-negative nor gram-positive.
have both RNA and DNA. Rickettsiae combine characteristics of bacteria and viruses. Rickettsiae are prokaryotic but not spiral shaped. Rickettsiae are able to be classified by Gram stain like other microorganisms.
The bacteria that line the gut of a human help maintain normal gut health and provide essential nutrients. This type of relationship is: commensal. parasitic. saprophytic. mutualistic.
mutualistic. The term mutualism is applied to an interaction in which the microorganism and the host both derive benefits from the interaction. Commensalism is a relationship where the organism receives benefit at no harm to the host. A parasite is an organism that derives benefits from its biologic relationship with another organism with the potential of causing harm.
