Potter & Perry Ch. 45: Nutrition, Potter-Perry Chapter 46 Urinary Elimination-Questions, Potter-Perry Chapter 47 Bowel Elimination- Questions

A patient is on a full liquid diet. Which food item choice by the patient will cause the nurse to intervene? a. Custard b. Frozen yogurt c. Pureed vegetables d. Mashed potatoes and gravy

ANS: D Mashed potatoes and gravy are on a dysphagia, mechanical soft, soft and regular diet but are not components of a full liquid diet. The nurse will need to provide teaching on what is allowed on the diet. Custard, frozen yogurt, and pureed vegetables are all on a full liquid diet.

A nurse is teaching a patient about proteins that must be obtained through the diet and cannot be synthesized in the body. Which term used by the patient indicates teaching is successful? a. Amino acids b. Triglycerides c. Dispensable amino acids d. Indispensable amino acids

ANS: D The body does not synthesize indispensable amino acids, so these need to be provided in the diet. The simplest form of protein is the amino acid. The body synthesizes dispensable amino acids. Triglycerides are made up of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol.

2. The nurse would expect the least formed stool to be present in which portion of the digestive tract? a. Ascending b. Descending c. Transverse d. Sigmoid

ANS: A The path of digestion goes from the ascending, across the transverse, to the descending and finally passing into the sigmoid; therefore, the least formed stool would be in the ascending.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. Patient receiving total parenteral nutrition of 2-in-1 for 50 hours b. Patient receiving total parenteral nutrition infusing with same tubing for 26 hours c. Patient receiving continuous enteral feeding with same feeding bag for 12 hours d. Patient receiving continuous enteral feeding with same tubing for 24 hours

ANS: B The nurse should see the patient with total parenteral nutrition that has the same tubing for 26 hours. To prevent infection, change the TPN infusion tubing every 24 hours. Change the administration system every 72 hours when infusing a 2-in-1 solution and every 24 hours for a 3-in-1 solution. Change bag and use a new administration set every 24 hours for a continuous enteral feeding. While the patient with the continuous enteral feeding has the same tubing for 24 hours, it has not extended the time like the total parenteral nutrition has.

12. While receiving a shift report on a patient, the nurse is informed that the patient has urinary incontinence. Upon assessment, the nurse would expect to find a. An indwelling Foley catheter. b. Reddened irritated skin on the buttocks. c. Tiny blood clots in the patient's urine. d. Foul-smelling discharge indicative of a UTI.

ANS: B Urinary incontinence is uncontrolled urinary elimination; if the urine has prolonged contact with the skin, skin breakdown can occur. An indwelling Foley catheter is a solution for urine retention. Blood clots and foul-smelling discharge are often signs of infection.

In general, when a patient's energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, which assessment finding will the nurse observe? a. Weight increases. b. Weight decreases. c. Weight does not change. d. Weight fluctuates daily.

ANS: C In general, when energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, weight does not change. When kilocalories ingested exceed a person's energy demands, the individual gains weight. If kilocalories ingested fail to meet a person's energy requirement, the individual loses weight. Fluid, not kilocalories, causes daily weight fluctuations.

In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder? a. Moist lips b. Pink conjunctivae c. Spoon-shaped nails d. Not easily plucked hair

ANS: C Spoon-shaped nails, koilonychia, is an indication of poor nutrition. All the others are normal findings. Lips should be moist, conjunctivae should be pink, and hair should not be easily plucked.

35. An 86-year-old patient asks the nurse what lifestyle changes will reduce the chance of a urinary tract infection. Which response is accurate? a. Urinary tract infections are unavoidable in the elderly because of a weakened immune system. b. Decreasing fluid intake will decrease the amount of urine with bacteria produced. c. Making sure to cleanse the perineal area from back to front after voiding will reduce the chance of infection. d. Increasing consumption of acidic foods such as cranberry juice will reduce the chance of infection.

ANS: D Cranberry juice and other acidic foods decrease adherence of bacteria to the bladder wall. Urinary tract infections are avoidable in the elderly population with proper knowledge and hygiene. Perineal skin should be cleansed from front to back to avoid spreading fecal matter to the urethra. Increasing fluids will help to flush bacteria, thus preventing them from residing in the bladder for prolonged periods of time.

The patient has been diagnosed with cardiovascular disease and placed on a low-fat diet. The patient asks the nurse, "How much fat should I have? I guess the less fat, the better." Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? a. Cholesterol intake needs to be less than 300 mg/day. b. Fats have no significance in health and the incidence of disease. c. All fats come from external sources so this can be easily controlled. d. Deficiencies occur when fat intake falls below 10% of daily nutrition.

ANS: D Deficiency occurs when fat intake falls below 10% of daily nutrition. While keeping cholesterol below 300 mg is correct according to the American Heart Association, it does not answer the patient's question about fat. Various types of fatty acids have significance for health and for the incidence of disease and are referred to in dietary guidelines. Linoleic acid and arachidonic acid are important for metabolic processes but are manufactured by the body when linoleic acid is available from the diet.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action will the nurse take? a. Run lipids for no longer than 24 hours. b. Take down a running bag of TPN after 36 hours. c. Clean injection port with alcohol 5 seconds before and after use. d. Wear a sterile mask when changing the central venous catheter dressing.

ANS: D During central venous catheter dressing changes, always use a sterile mask and gloves, and assess insertion sites for signs and symptoms of infection. To avoid infection, change the TPN infusion tubing every 24 hours, and do not hang a single container of PN for longer than 24 hours or lipids longer than 12 hours.

A nurse is asked how many kcal per gram fats provided. How should the nurse answer? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 9

ANS: D Fats (lipids) are the most calorie-dense nutrient, providing 9 kcal/g. Carbohydrates and protein provide 4 kcal/g.

The nurse is providing home care for a patient diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which dietary intervention will the nurse add to the care plan? a. Provide small, frequent nutrient-dense meals for maximizing kilocalories. b. Prepare hot meals because they are more easily tolerated by the patient. c. Avoid salty foods and limit liquids to preserve electrolytes. d. Encourage intake of fatty foods to increase caloric intake.

ANS: A Small, frequent, nutrient-dense meals that limit fatty foods and overly sweet foods are easier to tolerate. Restorative care of malnutrition resulting from AIDS focuses on maximizing kilocalories and nutrients. Patients benefit from eating cold foods and drier or saltier foods with fluid in between.

When planning care for an adolescent who plays sports, which modification should the nurse include in the care plan? a. Increasing carbohydrates to 55% to 60% of total intake b. Providing vitamin and mineral supplements c. Decreasing protein intake to 0.75 g/kg/day d. Limiting water before and after exercise

ANS: A Sports and regular moderate to intense exercise necessitate dietary modification to meet increased energy needs for adolescents. Carbohydrates, both simple and complex, are the main source of energy, providing 55% to 60% of total daily kilocalories. Protein needs increase to 1 to 1.5 g/kg/day. Fat needs do not increase. Adequate hydration is very important. Adolescents need to ingest water before and after exercise to prevent dehydration, especially in hot, humid environments. Vitamin and mineral supplements are not required, but intake of iron-rich foods is required to prevent anemia.

A nurse is teaching a nutrition class about the different daily values. When teaching about the referenced daily intakes (RDIs), which information should the nurse include? a. Have values for protein, vitamins, and minerals b. Are based on percentages of fat, cholesterol, and fiber c. Have replaced recommended daily allowances (RDAs) d. Are used to develop diets for chronic illnesses requiring 1800 cal/day

ANS: A The RDIs are the first set, comprising protein, vitamins, and minerals based on the RDA. The daily reference values (DRVs) make up the second set and consist of nutrients such as total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, carbohydrates, fiber, sodium, and potassium. Combined, both sets make up the daily values used on food labels. Daily values did not replace RDAs but provided a separate, more understandable format for the public. Daily values are based on percentages of a diet consisting of 2000 kcal/day for adults and children 4 years or older.

21. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in a patient with excessive white blood cells present in the urine? a. Fever and chills b. Difficulty holding in urine c. Increased blood pressure d. Abnormal blood sugar

ANS: A The presence of white blood cells in urine indicates a urinary tract infection. Difficulty with urinary elimination indicates blockage or renal damage. Increased blood pressure is associated with renal disease or damage and some medications. Abnormal blood sugars would be seen in someone with ketones in the urine, as this finding indicates diabetes.

The nurse is planning care for a group of patients. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel? a. Measuring capillary blood glucose level b. Measuring nasoenteric tube for insertion c. Measuring pH in gastrointestinal aspirate d. Measuring the patient's risk for aspiration

ANS: A The skill of measuring blood glucose level after skin puncture (capillary puncture) can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel. The other skills cannot be delegated. A nurse must measure a nasoenteric tube for insertion, pH in gastrointestinal aspirate, and patient's risk for aspiration.

The patient is an 80-year-old male who is visiting the clinic today for a routine physical examination. The patient's skin turgor is fair, but the patient reports fatigue and weakness. The skin is warm and dry, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, and urinary sodium level is slightly elevated. Which instruction should the nurse provide? a. Drink more water to prevent further dehydration. b. Drink more calorie-dense fluids to increase caloric intake. c. Drink more milk and dairy products to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. d. Drink more grapefruit juice to enhance vitamin C intake and medication absorption.

ANS: A Thirst sensation diminishes, leading to inadequate fluid intake or dehydration; the patient should be encouraged to drink more water/fluids. Symptoms of dehydration in older adults include confusion, weakness, hot dry skin, furrowed tongue, and high urinary sodium. Milk continues to be an important food for older woman and men, who need adequate calcium to protect against osteoporosis; the patient's problem is dehydration, not osteoporosis. Caution older adults to avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice because these will decrease absorption of many drugs. The patient needs fluids not calories; drinking calorie-dense fluids is unnecessary.

10. Upon palpation, the nurse notices that the bladder is firm and distended; the patient expresses an urge to urinate. The nurse should follow up by asking a. "When was the last time you voided?" b. "Do you lose urine when you cough or sneeze?" c. "Have you noticed any change in your urination patterns?" d. "Do you have a fever or chills?"

ANS: A To obtain an accurate assessment, the nurse should first determine the source of the discomfort. Urinary retention causes the bladder to be firm and distended. Further assessment to determine the pathology of the condition can be performed later. Questions concerning fever and chills, changing urination patterns, and losing urine during coughing or sneezing focus on specific pathological conditions.

39. The nurse anticipates urinary diversion from the kidneys to a site other than the bladder for which patient? a. A 12-year-old female with severe abdominal trauma b. A 24-year-old male with severe genital warts around the urethra c. A 50-year-old male with recent prostatectomy d. A 75-year-old female with end-stage renal disease

ANS: A Urinary diversion would be needed in a patient with abdominal trauma who might have injury to the urinary system. Genital warts are not needed for urinary diversion. Patients with a prostatectomy may require intermittent catheterization after the procedure. End-stage renal disease would not be affected by rerouting the flow of urine.

26. A nurse anticipates urodynamic testing for a patient with which symptom? a. Involuntary urine leakage b. Severe flank pain c. Presence of blood in urine d. Dysuria

ANS: A Urodynamic testing evaluates the muscle function of the bladder and is used to look for the cause of urinary incontinence. Severe flank pain indicates renal calculi; CT scan or IVP would be a more efficient diagnostic test. Blood indicates trauma to the urethral or bladder mucosa. Pain on elimination may warrant cultures to check for infection.

37. To reduce patient discomfort during closed catheter irrigation, the nurse should a. Use room temperature irrigation solution. b. Administer the solution as quickly as possible. c. Allow the solution to sit in the bladder for at least 1 hour. d. Raise the bag of irrigation solution at least 12 inches above the bladder.

ANS: A Using cold solutions, instilling solutions too quickly, and prolonging filling of the bladder can cause discomfort and cramping. To reduce this, ensure that the solution is at room temperature, lower the solution bag so it instills slowly, and drain the bladder fully after an ordered amount of time.

2. The nurse properly obtains a 24-hour urine specimen collection by (Select all that apply.) a. Asking the patient to void and to discard the first sample. b. Keeping the urine collection container on ice. c. Withholding all patient medications for the day. d. Asking the patient to notify the staff before and after every void.

ANS: A, B When obtaining a 24-hour urine specimen, it is important to keep the urine in cool condition. The patient should be asked to void and to discard the urine before the procedure begins. Medications do not need to be held unless indicated by the provider. If properly educated about the collection procedure, the patient can maintain autonomy and perform the procedure alone, taking care to maintain the integrity of the solution.

3. Which of the following are indications for irrigating a urinary catheter? (Select all that apply.) a. Sediment occluding within the tubing b. Blood clots in the bladder following surgery c. Rupture of the catheter balloon d. Bladder infection e. Presence of renal calculi

ANS: A, B, D Catheter irrigation is used to flush and remove blockage that may be impeding the catheter from properly draining the bladder. Irrigation is used to remove blood clots in the bladder following surgery. For patients with bladder infection, an antibiotic irrigation is often ordered. A ruptured catheter balloon will involve extensive follow-up and possible surgery to remove the particles. Renal calculi obstruct the ureters and therefore the flow of urine before it reaches the bladder

A nurse is teaching a health class about the nutritional requirements throughout the life span. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Infants triple weight at 1 year. b. Toddlers become picky eaters. c. School-age children need to avoid hot dogs and grapes. d. Breastfeeding women need an additional 750 kcal/day. e. Older adults have altered food flavor from a decrease in taste cells.

ANS: A, B, E An infant usually doubles birth weight at 4 to 5 months and triples it at 1 year. Toddlers exhibit strong food preferences and become picky eaters. Older adults often experience a decrease in taste cells that alters food flavor and may decrease intake. Toddlers need to avoid hot dogs and grapes, not school-age children. The lactating woman needs 500 kcal/day above the usual allowance because the production of milk increases energy requirements.

The patient is asking the nurse about the best way to stay healthy. The nurse explains to the patient which teaching points? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase physical activity. b. Keep total fat intake to 10% or less. c. Maintain body weight in a healthy range. d. Choose and prepare foods with little salt. e. Increase intake of meat and other high-protein foods.

ANS: A, C, D Recommendations include maintaining body weight in a healthy range; increasing physical activity and decreasing sedentary activities; increasing intake of fruits, vegetables, whole grain products, and fat-free or low-fat milk; eating moderate amount of lean meats, poultry, and eggs; keeping fat intake between 20% and 35% of total calories, with most fats coming from polyunsaturated or monounsaturated fatty acids (most meats contain saturated fatty acids); and choosing prepared foods with little salt while at the same time eating potassium-rich foods.

7. A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bed pan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse would assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement? a. Administering laxatives to the patient b. Raising the head of the bed c. Preparing to administer a barium enema d. Withholding narcotic pain medication

ANS: B Lying in bed is an unnatural position; raising the head of the bed assists the patient into a more normal position that allows proper contraction of muscles for elimination. Laxatives would not give the patient control over bowel movements. A barium enema is a diagnostic test, not an intervention to promote defecation. Pain relief measures should be given; however, preventative action should be taken to prevent constipation.

1. The nurse knows that most nutrients are absorbed in which portion of the digestive tract? a. Stomach b. Duodenum c. Ileum d. Cecum

ANS: B Most nutrients are absorbed in the duodenum with the exception of certain vitamins, iron, and salt (which are absorbed in the ileum). Food is broken down in the stomach. The cecum is the beginning of the large intestine.

13. Which nursing diagnosis related to alternations in urinary function in an older adult should be a nurse's first priority? a. Self-care deficit related to decreased mobility b. Risk of infection c. Anxiety related to urinary frequency d. Impaired self-esteem related to lack of independence

ANS: B Older adults often experience poor muscle tone, which leads to an inability of the bladder to fully empty. Residual urine greatly increases the risk of infection. Following Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physical health risks should be addressed before emotional/cognitive risks such as anxiety and self-esteem. Decreased mobility can lead to self-care deficit; the nurse's priority concern for this diagnosis would be infection, because the elderly person must rely on others for basic hygiene.

The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nurse most likely administer the feeding? a. Nasogastric tube b. Jejunostomy tube c. Nasointestinal tube d. Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube

ANS: B Patients with gastroparesis or esophageal reflux or with a history of aspiration pneumonia may require placement of tubes beyond the stomach into the intestine. The jejunostomy tube is the only tube in the list that is beyond the stomach and is not contraindicated by facial trauma. The nasogastric tube and the PEG tube are placed in the stomach, and placement could lead to aspiration. The nasointestinal tube and the nasogastric tube may be contraindicated by facial trauma and the broken nose.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is confined to the bed. The nurse asks the patient if he needs to have a bowel movement 30 minutes after eating a meal because a. The digested food needs to make room for recently ingested food. b. Mastication triggers the digestive system to begin peristalsis. c. The smell of bowel elimination in the room would deter the patient from eating. d. More ancillary staff members are available after meal times.

ANS: B Peristalsis occurs only a few times a day; the strongest peristaltic waves are triggered by mastication of the meal. The intestine can hold a great deal of food. A patient's voiding schedule should not be based on the staff's convenience.

8. Which patient is most at risk for increased peristalsis? a. A 5-year-old child who ignores the urge to defecate owing to embarrassment b. A 21-year-old patient with three final examinations on the same day c. A 40-year-old woman with major depressive disorder d. An 80-year-old man in an assisted-living environment

ANS: B Stress can stimulate digestion and increase peristalsis. Ignoring the urge to defecate, depression, and age-related changes of the elderly are causes of constipation.

10. Which physiological change can cause a paralytic ileus? a. Chronic cathartic abuse b. Surgery for Crohn's disease and anesthesia c. Suppression of hydrochloric acid from medication d. Fecal impaction

ANS: B Surgical manipulation of the bowel can cause a paralytic ileus. The other options are incorrect.

A nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What is the nurse discussing? a. Resting energy expenditure (REE) b. Basal metabolic rate (BMR) c. Nutrient density d. Nutrients

ANS: B The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. The resting energy expenditure (REE), or resting metabolic rate, is the amount of energy an individual needs to consume over a 24-hour period for the body to maintain all of its internal working activities while at rest. Nutrients are the elements necessary for body processes and function. Nutrient density is the proportion of essential nutrients to the number of kilocalories. High-nutrient density foods provide a large number of nutrients in relation to kilocalories.

In providing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient? a. Insulin is the only consideration that must be taken into account. b. Saturated fat should be limited to less than 7% of total calories. c. Nonnutritive sweeteners can be used without restriction. d. Cholesterol intake should be greater than 200 mg/day.

ANS: B The diabetic patient should limit saturated fat to less than 7% of total calories and cholesterol intake to less than 200 mg/day. Type 1 diabetes requires both insulin and dietary restrictions for optimal control. Nonnutritive sweeteners can be eaten as long as the recommended daily intake levels are followed.

11. Which of the following is the primary function of the kidney? a. Metabolizing and excreting medications b. Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance c. Storing and excreting urine d. Filtering blood cells and proteins

ANS: B The main purpose of the kidney is to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance by filtering waste products and regulating pressures. The kidneys filter the byproducts of medication metabolism. The bladder stores and excretes urine. The kidneys help to maintain red blood cell volume by producing erythropoietin.

27. A patient is having difficulty voiding in a bedpan but states that she feels her bladder is full. To stimulation micturition, which nursing intervention should the nurse try first? a. Exiting the room and informing the patient that the nurse will return in 30 minutes to check on the patient's progress b. Utilizing the power of suggestion by turning on the faucet and letting the water run c. Obtaining an order for a Foley catheter d. Administering diuretic medication

ANS: B To stimulate micturition, the nurse should attempt noninvasive procedures first. Running warm water or stroking the inner aspect of the upper thigh promotes sensory perception that leads to urination. A patient should not be left alone on a bedpan for 30 minutes because this could cause skin breakdown. Catheterization places the patient at increased risk of infection and should not be the first intervention attempted. Diuretics are useful if the patient is not producing urine, but they do not stimulate micturition.

A patient develops a foodborne disease from Escherichia coli. When taking a health history, which food item will the nurse most likely find the patient ingested? a. Improperly home-canned food b. Undercooked ground beef c. Soft cheese d. Custard

ANS: B Undercooked ground beef is the usual food source for Escherichia coli. Botulism is associated with improperly home-canned foods. Soft cheese is the usual food source for listeriosis. Custards are associated with salmonellosis and Staphylococcus.

1. If obstructed, which component of the urination system would cause peristaltic waves? a. Kidney b. Ureters c. Bladder d. Urethra

ANS: B Ureters drain urine from the kidneys into the bladder; if they become obstructed, peristaltic waves attempt to push the obstruction into the bladder. The kidney, bladder, and urethra do not produce peristaltic waves. Obstruction of both bladder and urethra typically does not occur.

33. The nurse would question an order to insert a urinary catheter on which patient? a. A 26-year-old patient with a recent spinal cord injury at T2 b. A 30-year-old patient requiring drug screening for employment c. A 40-year-old patient undergoing bladder repair surgery d. An 86-year-old patient requiring monitoring of urinary output for renal failure

ANS: B Urinary catheterization places the patient at increased risk for infection and should be performed only when necessary. Urine can be obtained via clean-catch technique for a drug screening or urinalysis. Spinal cord injury, surgery, and renal failure with critical intake and output monitoring are all appropriate reasons for catheterization.

5. The nurse understands that peritoneal dialysis and hemodialysis use which processes to clean the patient's blood? (Select all that apply.) a. Gravity b. Osmosis c. Diffusion d. Filtration

ANS: B, C Osmosis and diffusion are the two processes used to clean the patient's blood in both types of dialysis. In peritoneal dialysis, osmosis and dialysis occur across the semi-permeable peritoneal membrane. In hemodialysis, osmosis and dialysis occur through the filter membrane on the artificial kidney. In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate flows by gravity out of the abdomen. Gravity has no effect on cleansing of the blood. Filtration is the process that occurs in the glomerulus as blood flows through the kidney.

4. Which of the following symptoms are most closely associated with uremic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Nausea and vomiting c. Headache d. Altered mental status e. Dysuria

ANS: B, C, D Uremic syndrome is associated with end-stage renal disease. Signs and symptoms include headache, altered mental status, coma, seizures, nausea, vomiting, and pericarditis.

1. Which nursing actions are acceptable when collecting a urine specimen? (Select all that apply.) a. Growing urine cultures for up to 12 hours b. Labeling all specimens with date, time, and initials c. Wearing gown, gloves, and mask for all specimen handling d. Allowing the patient adequate time and privacy to void e. Squeezing urine from diapers into a urine specimen cup f. Transporting specimens to the laboratory in a timely fashion g. Placing a plastic bag over the child's urethra to catch urine

ANS: B, D, F, G All specimens should be labeled appropriately and processed in a timely fashion. Allow patients time and privacy to void. Children may have difficulty voiding; attaching a plastic bag gives the child more time and freedom to void. Urine cultures can take up to 48 hours to develop. Gown, gloves, and mask are not necessary for specimen handling unless otherwise indicated. Urine should not be squeezed from diapers.

30. The nurse would anticipate inserting a Coudé catheter for which patient? a. An 8-year-old male undergoing anesthesia for a tonsillectomy b. A 24-year-old female who is going into labor c. A 56-year-old male admitted for bladder irrigation d. An 86-year-old female admitted for a urinary tract infection.

ANS: C A Coudé catheter has a curved tip that is used for patients with enlarged prostates. This would be indicated for a middle-aged male who needs bladder irrigation. Coudé catheters are not indicated for children or women.

The patient with cardiovascular disease is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse. Which information from the patient indicates teaching is successful? a. Maintain a prescribed carbohydrate intake. b. Eat fish at least 5 times per week. c. Limit trans fat to less than 1%. d. Avoid high-fiber foods.

ANS: C American Heart Association guidelines recommend limiting saturated fat to less than 7%, trans fat to less than 1%, and cholesterol to less than 300 mg/day. Diet therapy includes eating fish at least 2 times per week and eating whole grain high-fiber foods. Maintaining a prescribed carbohydrate intake is necessary for diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is providing nutrition education to a Korean patient using the five food groups. In doing so, what should be the focus of the teaching? a. Discouraging the patient's ethnic food choices b. Changing the patient's diet to a more conventional American diet c. Including racial and ethnic practices with food preferences of the patient d. Comparing the patient's ethnic preferences with American dietary choices

ANS: C As a nurse, consider the food preferences of patients from different racial and ethnic groups, vegetarians, and others when planning diets. Initiation of a balanced diet is more important than conversion to what may be considered an American diet. Ethnic food choices may be just as nutritious as American choices. Foods should be chosen for their nutritive value and should not be compared with the American diet.

Before giving the patient an intermittent gastric tube feeding, what should the nurse do? a. Make sure that the tube is secured to the gown with a safety pin. b. Inject air into the stomach via the tube and auscultate. c. Have the tube feeding at room temperature. d. Check to make sure pH is at least 5.

ANS: C Be sure that the formula is at room temperature. Cold formula causes gastric cramping and discomfort because the mouth and the esophagus do not warm the liquid. Do not use safety pins. Safety pins can become unfastened and may cause harm to the patient. Auscultation is no longer considered a reliable method for verification of tube placement because a tube inadvertently placed in the lungs, pharynx, or esophagus transmits sound similar to that of air entering the stomach. Gastric fluid of patient who has fasted for at least 4 hours usually has a pH of 1 to 4, especially when the patient is not receiving gastric-acid inhibitor.

15. The nurse suspects that a urinary tract infection has progressed to cystitis when the patient complains of which symptom? a. Dysuria b. Flank pain c. Frequency d. Fever and chills

ANS: C Cystitis is inflammation of the bladder; associated symptoms include hematuria and urgency/frequency. Dysuria is a common symptom of a lower urinary tract infection. Flank pain, fever, and chills are all signs of pyelonephritis.

In providing prenatal care to a pregnant patient, what does the nurse teach the expectant mother? a. Calcium intake is especially important in the first trimester. b. Protein intake needs to decrease to preserve kidney function. c. Folic acid is needed to help prevent birth defects and anemia. d. Extra vitamins and minerals should be taken as much as possible.

ANS: C Folic acid intake is particularly important for DNA synthesis and growth of red blood cells. Inadequate intake may lead to fetal neural tube defects, anencephaly, or maternal megaloblastic anemia. Protein intake throughout pregnancy needs to increase to 60 grams daily. Calcium intake is especially critical in the third trimester, when fetal bones mineralize. Prenatal care usually includes vitamin and mineral supplementation to ensure daily intakes; however, pregnant women should not take additional supplements beyond prescribed amounts.

The patient has H. pylori. Which action should the nurse take? a. Encourage avoidance of wheat and oats. b. Encourage milkshakes as a nutritious snack. c. Encourage completion of antibiotic therapy. d. Encourage nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

ANS: C H. pylori, a bacterium that causes up to 85% of peptic ulcers, is confirmed by laboratory tests or a biopsy during endoscopy. Antibiotics treat and control the bacterial infection. Avoidance of wheat and oats are required for patients with celiac disease who must follow a gluten-free diet. Encourage patients to avoid foods that increase stomach acidity and pain such as caffeine, decaffeinated coffee, frequent milk intake, citric acid juices, and certain seasonings (hot chili peppers, chili powder, black pepper). Discourage smoking, alcohol, aspirin, and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

The patient has just been started on an enteral feeding and has developed diarrhea after being on the feeding for 2 hours. What does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of the diarrhea? a. Antibiotic therapy b. Clostridium difficile c. Formula intolerance d. Bacterial contamination

ANS: C Hyperosmolar formulas can cause diarrhea or formula intolerance. If that is the case, the solution is to lower the rate, dilute the formula, or change to an isotonic formula. Antibiotics destroy normal intestinal flora and disturb the internal ecology, allowing for Clostridium difficile toxin buildup. However, this takes time (more than 2 hours), and no indication suggests that this patient is on antibiotics. Bacterial contamination of the feeding usually occurs when feedings are left hanging for longer than 8 hours.

32. A nurse notifies the provider immediately if a patient with an indwelling catheter a. Complains of discomfort upon insertion of the catheter. b. Places the drainage bag higher than the waist while ambulating. c. Has not collected any urine in the drainage bag for 2 hours. d. Is incontinent of stool and contaminates the external portion of the catheter.

ANS: C If the patient has not produced urine in 2 hours, the physician needs to be notified immediately because this could indicate renal failure. Discomfort upon catheter insertion is unpleasant but unavoidable. The nurse is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the catheter by ensuring that the drainage bag is below the patient's bladder. Stool left on the catheter can cause infection and should be removed as soon as it is noticed. The nurse should ensure that frequent perineal care is being provided.

20. The nurse would expect the urine of a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus to be a. Cloudy. b. Discolored. c. Sweet smelling. d. Painful.

ANS: C Incomplete fat metabolism and buildup of ketones give urine a sweet or fruity odor. Cloudy urine may indicate infection or renal failure. Discolored urine may result from various medications. Painful urination indicates an alteration in urinary elimination.

24. Which statement by the patient about an upcoming computed tomography (CT) scan indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I'm allergic to shrimp, so I should monitor myself for an allergic reaction." b. "I will complete my bowel prep program the night before the scan." c. "I will be anesthetized so that I lie perfectly still during the procedure." d. "I will ask the technician to play music to ease my anxiety."

ANS: C Patients are not put under anesthesia for a CT scan; instead the nurse should educate patients about the need to lie perfectly still and about possible methods of overcoming feelings of claustrophobia. The other options are correct. Patients need to be assessed for an allergy to shellfish if receiving contrast for the CT. Bowel cleansing is often performed before CT. Listening to music will help the patient relax and remain still during the examination.

31. The nurse knows that which indwelling catheter procedure places the patient at greatest risk for acquiring a urinary tract infection? a. Emptying the drainage bag every 8 hours or when half full b. Kinking the catheter tubing to obtain a urine specimen c. Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the patient's bed d. Failing to secure the catheter tubing to the patient's thigh

ANS: C Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the bed could allow the bag to be raised above the level of the bladder and urine to flow back into the bladder. The urine in the drainage bag is a medium for bacteria; allowing it to reenter the bladder can cause infection. The drainage bag should be emptied and output recorded every 8 hours or when needed. Urine specimens are obtained by temporarily kinking the tubing; a prolonged kink could lead to bladder distention. Failure to secure the catheter to the patient's thigh places the patient at risk for tissue injury from catheter dislodgment.

8. A patient has fallen several times in the past week when attempting to get to the bathroom. The patient informs the nurse that he gets up 3 or 4 times a night to urinate. Which recommendation by the nurse is most appropriate in correcting this urinary problem? a. Clear the path to the bathroom of all obstacles before bed. b. Leave the bathroom light on to illuminate a pathway. c. Limit fluid and caffeine intake before bed. d. Practice Kegel exercises to strengthen bladder muscles.

ANS: C Reducing fluids, especially caffeine and alcohol, before bedtime can reduce nocturia. Clearing a path to the restroom or illuminating the path, or shortening the distance to the restroom, may reduce falls but will not correct the urination problem. Kegel exercises are useful if a patient is experiencing incontinence.

36. A nurse is providing education to a patient being treated for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates an understanding? a. "Since I'm taking medication, I do not need to worry about proper hygiene." b. "I should drink 15 to 20 glasses of fluid a day to help flush the bacteria out." c. "My medication may discolor my urine; this should resolve once the medication is stopped." d. "I should not have sexual intercourse until the infection has resolved."

ANS: C Some anti-infective medications turn urine colors; this is normal and will dissipate as the medication leaves the system. Even if the patient is on medication, hygiene is important to prevent spread or reinfection. Fluid intake should be increased to help flush out bacteria; however, 15 to 20 glasses is too much. Sexual intercourse is allowed with a urinary tract infection, as long as good hygiene and safe practices are used.

5. The nurse knows that indwelling catheters are placed before a cesarean because a. The patient may void uncontrollably during the procedure. b. A full bladder can cause the mother's heart rate to drop. c. Spinal anesthetics can temporarily disable urethral sphincters. d. The patient will not interrupt the procedure by asking to go to the bathroom.

ANS: C Spinal anesthetics may cause urinary retention due to the inability to sense or carry out the need to void. The patient is more likely to retain urine, rather than experience uncontrollable voiding. With spinal anesthesia, the patient will not be able to ambulate during the procedure. A full bladder has no impact on the pulse rate of the mother.

16. Which assessment question should the nurse ask if stress incontinence is suspected? a. "Does your bladder feel distended?" b. "Do you empty your bladder completely when you void?" c. "Do you experience urine leakage when you cough or sneeze?" d. "Do your symptoms increase with consumption of alcohol or caffeine?"

ANS: C Stress incontinence can be related to intra-abdominal pressure causing urine leakage, as would happen during coughing or sneezing. Asking the patient about the fullness of his bladder would rule out retention and overflow. An inability to void completely can refer to urge incontinence. Physiological causes and medications can effect elimination, but this is not related to stress incontinence.

The patient is having at least 75% of nutritional needs met by enteral feeding, so the health care provider has ordered the parenteral nutrition (PN) to be discontinued. However, the nurse notices that the PN infusion has fallen behind. What should the nurse do? a. Increase the rate to get the volume caught up before discontinuing. b. Stop the infusion as ordered. c. Taper infusion gradually. d. Hang 5% dextrose.

ANS: C Sudden discontinuation of PN can cause hypoglycemia. PN must be tapered off. Usually, 10% dextrose is infused when PN solution is suddenly discontinued. Too rapid administration of hypertonic dextrose (PN) can result in an osmotic diuresis and dehydration. If an infusion falls behind schedule, the nurse should not increase the rate in an attempt to catch up.

3. A patient is experiencing oliguria. Which action should the nurse perform first? a. Increase the patient's intravenous fluid rate. b. Encourage the patient to drink caffeinated beverages. c. Assess for bladder distention. d. Request an order for diuretics.

ANS: C The nurse first should gather all assessment data to determine the potential cause of oliguria. It could be that the patient does not have adequate intake, or it could be that the bladder sphincter is not functioning and the patient is retaining water. Increasing fluids is effective if the patient does not have adequate intake, or if dehydration occurs. Caffeine can work as a diuretic but is not helpful if an underlying pathology is present. An order for diuretics can be obtained if the patient was retaining water, but this should not be the first action.

18. To obtain a clean-voided urine specimen for a female patient, the nurse should teach the patient to a. Cleanse the urethral meatus from the area of most contamination to least. b. Initiate the first part of the urine stream directly into the collection cup. c. Hold the labia apart while voiding into the specimen cup. d. Drink fluids 5 minutes before collecting the urine specimen.

ANS: C The patient should hold the labia apart to reduce bacterial levels in the specimen. The urethral meatus should be cleansed from the area of least contamination to greatest contamination (or front-to-back). The initial steam flushes out microorganisms in the urethra and prevents bacterial transmission in the specimen. Drink fluids 30 to 60 minutes before giving a specimen.

A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding. In which order will the nurse implement the steps, starting with the first one? 1. Elevate head of bed to at least 30 degrees. 2. Check for gastric residual volume. 3. Flush tubing with 30 mL of water. 4. Verify tube placement. 5. Initiate feeding. a. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 b. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 c. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 d. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

ANS: C The steps for an enteral feeding are as follows: Place patient in high-Fowler's position or elevate head of bed to at least 30 (preferably 45) degrees; verify tube placement; check for gastric residual volume; flush tubing with 30 mL of water; and initiate feeding.

.A nurse is caring for a patient with a postsurgical wound. When planning care, which goal will be the priority? a. Reduce dependent nitrogen balance. b. Maintain negative nitrogen balance. c. Promote positive nitrogen balance. d. Facilitate neutral nitrogen balance.

ANS: C When intake of nitrogen is greater than output, the body is in positive nitrogen balance. Positive nitrogen balance is required for growth, normal pregnancy, maintenance of lean muscle mass and vital organs, and wound healing. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when the body loses more nitrogen than the body gains. Neutral nitrogen balance occurs when gain equals loss and is not optimal for tissue healing. There is no such term as dependent nitrogen balance.

11. Fecal impactions occur in which portion of the colon? a. Ascending b. Descending c. Transverse d. Rectum

ANS: D A fecal impaction is a collection of hardened feces wedged in the rectum that cannot be expelled. It results from unrelieved constipation. Feces at this point in the colon contain the least amount of moisture. Feces found in the ascending, transverse, and descending colon still consist mostly of liquid and do not form a hardened mass.

7. An 86-year-old patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing uncontrollable leakage of urine. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? a. Urinary retention b. Hesitancy c. Urgency d. Urinary incontinence

ANS: D Age-related changes such as loss of pelvic muscle tone can cause involuntary loss of urine known as Urinary incontinence. Urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder. Hesitancy occurs as difficulty initiating urination. Urgency is the feeling of the need to void immediately.

The patient has a calculated body mass index (BMI) of 34. How will the nurse classify this finding? a. Normal weight b. Underweight c. Overweight d. Obese

ANS: D BMI greater than 30 is defined as obesity. BMI between 25 and 30 is classified as overweight. BMI from 18.5 to 24.9 is normal. BMI under 18.5 is underweight.

25. The nurse anticipates preparing a patient who is allergic to shellfish for an arteriogram by a. Obtaining baseline vital signs after the start of the procedure. b. Monitoring the extremity for neurocirculatory function. c. Keeping the patient on bed rest for the prescribed time. d. Administering an antihistamine medication to the patient.

ANS: D Before the procedure is begun, the nurse should assess the patient for food and other allergies and should administer an antihistamine, because a contrast iodine-based dye is used for the procedure. Baseline vitals should be obtained before the start of the procedure and frequently thereafter. The procedure site is monitored and the patient kept on bed rest after the procedure is complete

In teaching mothers-to-be about infant nutrition, which instruction should the nurse provide? a. Supplement breast milk with corn syrup. b. Give cow's milk during the first year of life. c. Add honey to infant formulas for increased energy. d. Provide breast milk or formula for the first 4 to 6 months.

ANS: D Breast milk or formula provides sufficient nutrition for the first 4 to 6 months of life. Infants should not have regular cow's milk during the first year of life. It is too concentrated for an infant's kidneys to manage, increases the risk of milk product allergies, and is a poor source of iron and vitamins C and E. Furthermore, children under 1 year of age should never ingest honey and corn syrup products because they are potential sources of the botulism toxin, which increases the risk of infant death.

The nurse is assessing a patient for nutritional status. Which action will the nurse take? a. Forego the assessment in the presence of chronic disease. b. Use the Mini Nutritional Assessment for pediatric patients. c. Choose a single objective tool that fits the patient's condition. d. Combine multiple objective measures with subjective measures.

ANS: D Combine multiple objective measures with subjective measures related to nutrition to adequately screen for nutritional problems. Using a single objective measure is ineffective in predicting risk of nutritional problems. Chronic disease and increased metabolic requirements are risk factors for the development of nutritional problems; these patients may be in critical need of this assessment. The Mini Nutritional Assessment is used for screening older adults in home care programs, nursing homes, and hospitals.

22. The nurse would anticipate an order for which diagnostic test for a patient who has severe flank pain and calcium phosphate crystals revealed on urinalysis? a. Renal ultrasound b. Bladder scan c. KUB x-ray d. Intravenous pyelogram

ANS: D Flank pain and calcium phosphate crystals are associated with renal calculi. An intravenous pyelogram allows the provider to observe pathological problems such as obstruction of the ureter. A renal ultrasound is performed to identify gross structures. A bladder scan measures the amount of urine in the bladder. A KUB x-ray shows size, shape, symmetry, and location of the kidneys.

23. A nurse is caring for a patient who just underwent intravenous pyelography that revealed a renal calculus obstructing the left ureter. What is the nurse's first priority in caring for this patient? a. Turn the patient on the right side to alleviate pressure on the left kidney. b. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake to flush the obstruction. c. Administer narcotic medications to alleviate pain. d. Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing.

ANS: D Intravenous pyelography is performed by administering iodine-based dye to view functionality of the urinary system. Many individuals are allergic to shellfish; therefore, the first nursing priority is to assess the patient for an allergic reaction that could be life threatening. The nurse should then encourage the patient to drink fluids to flush dye resulting from the procedure. Narcotics can be administered but are not the first priority. Turning the patient on the side will not affect patient safety.

The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in a patient who is semiconscious. To determine the length of the tube needed to be inserted, how should the nurse measure the tube? a. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe b. From the tip of the earlobe to the xiphoid process c. From the tip of the earlobe to the nose to the xiphoid process d. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process

ANS: D Measure distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process of the sternum. This approximates the distance from the nose to the stomach in 98% of patients. For duodenal or jejunal placement, an additional 20 to 30 cm is required.

In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share? a. Polyunsaturated fats should be less than 7% of the total calories. b. Trans fat should be less than 7% of the total calories. c. Unsaturated fats are found mostly in animal sources. d. Saturated fats are found mostly in animal sources.

ANS: D Most animal fats have high proportions of saturated fatty acids, whereas vegetable fats have higher amounts of unsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids. Linoleic acid, an unsaturated fatty acid, is the only essential fatty acid in humans. Diet recommendations include limiting saturated fat to less than 7% and trans fat to less than 1%.

A nurse is caring for patients with dysphagia. Which patient has neurogenic dysphagia? a. A patient with benign peptic stricture b. A patient with muscular dystrophy c. A patient with myasthenia gravis d. A patient with stroke

ANS: D Stroke is the only cause of dysphagia in this list that is considered neurogenic. Myasthenia gravis and muscular dystrophy are considered myogenic in origin, whereas benign peptic stricture is considered obstructive.

The nurse is teaching a health class about the ChooseMyPlate program. Which guidelines will the nurse include in the teaching session? a. Balancing sodium and potassium b. Decreasing water consumption c. Increasing portion size d. Balancing calories

ANS: D The ChooseMyPlate program includes guidelines for balancing calories; decreasing portion size; increasing healthy foods; increasing water consumption; and decreasing fats, sodium, and sugars. It does not balance sodium and potassium.

17. When establishing a diagnosis of altered urinary elimination, the nurse should first a. Establish normal voiding patterns for the patient. b. Encourage the patient to flush kidneys by drinking excessive fluids. c. Monitor patients' voiding attempts by assisting them with every attempt. d. Discuss causes and solutions to problems related to micturition.

ANS: D The nurse should assess first to determine cause, then should discuss and create goals with the patient, so nurse and patient can work in tandem to normalize voiding. The nurse should incorporate the patient's input into creating a plan of care for the patient. Drinking excessive fluid will not help and may worsen alterations in urinary elimination. The nurse does not need to monitor every void attempt by the patient; instead the nurse should provide patient education. The nurse asks the patient about normal voiding patterns, but establishing voiding patterns is a later intervention.

The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Instill nonliquid medications without diluting. b. Irrigate the tube with 60 mL of water after all medications are given. c. Mix all medications together to decrease the number of administrations. d. Check with the pharmacy for availability of the liquid forms of medications.

ANS: D Use liquid medications when available to prevent tube occlusion. Irrigate with 30 mL of water before and after each medication per tube. Completely dissolve crushed medications in liquid if liquid medication is not available. Read pharmacological information on compatibility of drugs and formula before mixing medications.

A patient has a decreased gag reflex, left-sided weakness, and drooling. Which action will the nurse take when feeding this patient? a. Position in semi-Fowler's. b. Flex head with chin tuck. c. Place food on left side. d. Offer fruit juice.

ANS: B Have the patient flex the head slightly to a chin-down position to help prevent aspiration. If the patient has unilateral weakness, teach him or her and the caregiver to place food in the stronger side of the mouth. Provide a 30-minute rest period before eating and position the patient in an upright, seated position in a chair or raise the head of the bed to 90 degrees. Thin liquids such as water and fruit juice are difficult to control in the mouth and are more easily aspirated.

3. Which of the following is not a function of the large intestine? a. Absorbing nutrients b. Absorbing water c. Secreting bicarbonate d. Eliminating waste

ANS: A Nutrient absorption is done in the small intestine. The other options are all functions of the large intestine.

The patient has just started on enteral feedings, and the patient is reporting abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Slow the rate of tube feeding. b. Instill cold formula to "numb" the stomach. c. Change the tube feeding to a high-fat formula. d. Consult with the health care provider about prokinetic medication.

ANS: A One possible cause of abdominal cramping is a rapid increase in rate or volume. Lowering the rate of delivery may increase tolerance. Another possible cause of abdominal cramping is the use of cold formula. The nurse should warm the formula to room temperature. High-fat formulas are also a cause of abdominal cramping. Consult with the health care provider regarding prokinetic medication for increasing gastric motility for delayed gastric emptying.

14. A patient asks about treatment for urge urinary incontinence. The nurse's best response is to advise the patient to a. Perform pelvic floor exercises. b. Drink cranberry juice. c. Avoid voiding frequently. d. Wear an adult diaper.

ANS: A Poor muscle tone leads to an inability to control urine flow. The nurse should recommend pelvic muscle strengthening exercises such as Kegel exercises; this solution best addresses the patient's problem. Drinking cranberry juice is a preventative measure for urinary tract infection. The nurse should not encourage the patient to reduce voiding; residual urine in the bladder increases the risk of infection. Wearing an adult diaper could be considered if attempts to correct the root of the problem fail.

38. Which observation by the nurse best indicates that bladder irrigation for urinary retention has been effective? a. Recording an output that is larger than the amount instilled b. Presence of blood clots or sediment in the drainage bag c. Reduction in discomfort from bladder distention d. Visualizing clear urinary catheter tubing

ANS: A Recording an output that is greater than what was irrigated into the bladder shows progress that the bladder is draining urine. The other observations do not objectively measure the increase in urine output.

The patient is on parenteral nutrition and is lethargic. The patient reports thirst and headache and has had increased urination. Which problem does the nurse prepare to address? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypercapnia d. Hypocapnia

ANS: A Signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia are thirst, headache, lethargy, and increased urination. Hypocapnia is not associated with parenteral nutrition. Hypercapnia increases oxygen consumption and increases CO2 levels. Ventilator-dependent patients are at greatest risk for this. Hypoglycemia is characterized by diaphoresis, shakiness, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

5. A nurse is assisting a patient in making dietary choices that promote healthy bowel elimination. Which menu option should the nurse recommend? a. Grape and walnut chicken salad sandwich on whole wheat bread b. Broccoli and cheese soup with potato bread c. Dinner salad topped with hard-boiled eggs, cheese, and fat-free dressing d. Turkey and mashed potatoes with brown gravy

ANS: A A healthy diet for the bowel should include foods high in bulk-forming fiber. Whole grains, fresh fruit, and fresh vegetables are excellent sources. Foods without much fiber and with high levels of fat can slow down peristalsis, causing constipation.

28. A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old patient who is embarrassed about urinating in his bed at night. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to reduce the frequency of this occurrence? a. "Drink your nightly glass of milk earlier in the evening." b. "Set your alarm clock to wake you every 2 hours, so you can get up to void." c. "Line your bedding with plastic sheets to protect your mattress." d. "Empty your bladder completely before going to bed."

ANS: A ANS: A Nightly incontinence and nocturia are often resolved by limiting fluid intake 2 hours before bedtime. Setting the alarm clock to wake does not correct the physiological problem, nor does lining the bedding with plastic sheets. Emptying the bladder may help with early nighttime urination, but will not affect urine produced throughout the night from late-night fluid intake.

A small-bore feeding tube is placed. Which technique will the nurse use to best verify tube placement? a. X-ray b. pH testing c. Auscultation d. Aspiration of contents

ANS: A At present, the most reliable method for verification of placement of small-bore feeding tubes is x-ray examination. Aspiration of contents and pH testing are not infallible. The nurse would need a more precise indicator to help differentiate the source of tube feeding aspirate. Auscultation is no longer considered a reliable method for verification of tube placement because a tube inadvertently placed in the lungs, pharynx, or esophagus transmits sound similar to that of air entering the stomach.

4. A patient requests the nurse's assistance to the bedside commode and becomes frustrated when unable to void in front of the nurse. The nurse understands the patient's inability to void because a. Anxiety can make it difficult for abdominal and perineal muscles to relax enough to void. b. The patient does not recognize the physiological signals that indicate a need to void. c. The patient is lonely, and calling the nurse in under false pretenses is a way to get attention. d. The patient is not drinking enough fluids to produce adequate urine output.

ANS: A Attempting to void in the presence of another can cause anxiety and tension in the muscles that make voiding difficult. The nurse should give the patient privacy and adequate time if appropriate. No evidence suggests that an underlying physiological or psychological condition exists.

19. When viewing a urine specimen under a microscope, what would the nurse expect to see in a patient with a urinary tract infection? a. Bacteria b. Casts c. Crystals d. Protein

ANS: A Bacteria indicate a urinary tract infection. Crystals would be seen with renal stone formation. Casts indicate renal alterations. Protein is not visible under a microscope and indicates renal disease.

The nurse is describing the ChooseMyPlate program to a patient. Which statement from the patient indicates successful learning? a. "I can use this to make healthy lifestyle food choices." b. "I can use this to count specific calories of food." c. "I can use this for my baby girl." d. "I can use this when I am sick."

ANS: A ChooseMyPlate serves as a basic guide for making food choices for a healthy lifestyle. The ChooseMyPlate program was developed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture to replace the MyFoodPyramid program. It helps balance calories but does not provide specific calories of food. These guidelines are for Americans over the age of 2 years. These guidelines are provided for health, not sickness.

6. A patient informs the nurse that she was using laxatives three times daily to lose weight. After stopping use of the laxative, the patient had difficulty with constipation and wonders if she needs to take laxatives again. The nurse educates the patient that a. Long-term laxative use causes the bowel to become less responsive to stimuli, and constipation may occur. b. Laxatives can cause trauma to the intestinal lining and scarring may result, leading to decreased peristalsis. c. Natural laxatives such as mineral oil are safer than chemical laxatives for relieving constipation. d. Laxatives cause the body to become malnourished, so when the patient begins eating again, the body absorbs all of the food, and no waste products are produced.

ANS: A Long-term laxative use can lead to constipation. Increasing fluid and fiber intake can help with this problem. Laxatives do not cause scarring. Natural laxatives like mineral oil come with their own set of risks, such as inability to absorb fat-soluble vitamins. Even if malnourished, the body will produce waste if substance is consumed.

2. When reviewing laboratory results, the nurse should immediately notify the health care provider about which finding? a. Glomerular filtration rate of 20 mL/min b. Urine output of 80 mL/hr c. pH of 6.4 d. Protein level of 2 mg/100 mL

ANS: A Normal glomerular filtration rate should be around 125 mL/min

When assessing patient with nutritional needs, which patients will require follow-up from the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk b. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome increasing fiber c. A patient with diverticulitis following a high-fiber diet daily d. A patient with an enteral feeding and 500 mL of gastric residual e. A patient with dysphagia being referred to a speech-language pathologist

ANS: A, C, D The nurse should follow up with the tetracycline, diverticulitis, and enteral feeding. Tetracycline has decreased drug absorption with milk and antacids and has decreased nutrient absorption of calcium from binding. Nutritional treatment for diverticulitis includes a moderate- or low-residue diet until the infection subsides. Afterward, prescribing a high-fiber diet for chronic diverticula problems ensues. A patient with a gastric residual volume of 500 mL needs to have the feeding withheld and reassessed for tolerance to feedings. All the rest are normal and expected and do not require follow-up. Patients manage irritable bowel syndrome by increasing fiber, reducing fat, avoiding large meals, and avoiding lactose or sorbitol-containing foods for susceptible individuals. Initiate consultation with a speech-language pathologist for swallowing exercises and techniques to improve swallowing and reduce risk of aspiration for a patient with dysphagia.

To honor cultural values of patients from different ethnic/religious groups, which actions demonstrate culturally sensitive care by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Allows fasting on Yom Kippur for a Jewish patient b. Allows caffeine drinks for a Mormon patient c. Serves no ham products to a Muslim patient d. Serves kosher foods to a Christian patient e. Serves no meat or fish to a Hindu patient

ANS: A, C, E The Jewish religion fasts 24 hours on Yom Kippur and must adhere to kosher food preparation methods. Hinduism requires no meats or fish. Muslims do not eat pork. Mormons do not drink caffeinated or alcoholic drinks.

The nurse is concerned about pulmonary aspiration when providing the patient with an intermittent tube feeding. Which action is the priority? a. Observe the color of gastric contents. b. Verify tube placement before feeding. c. Add blue food coloring to the enteral formula. d. Run the formula over 12 hours to decrease overload.

ANS: B A major cause of pulmonary aspiration is regurgitation of formula. The nurse needs to verify tube placement and elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees during feedings and for 2 hours afterward. While observing the color of gastric contents is a component, it is not the priority component; pH is the primary component. The addition of blue food coloring to enteral formula to assist with detection of aspirate is no longer used. Do not hang formula longer than 4 to 8 hours. Formula becomes a medium for bacterial growth after that length of time.

9. When caring for a patient with urinary retention, the nurse would anticipate an order for a. Limited fluid intake. b. A urinary catheter. c. Diuretic medication. d. A renal angiogram.

ANS: B A urinary catheter would relieve urinary retention. Reducing fluids would reduce the amount of urine produced but would not alleviate the urine retention. Diuretic medication would increase urine production and may worsen the discomfort caused by urine retention. A renal angiogram is an inappropriate diagnostic test for urinary retention.

29. Many individuals have difficulty voiding in a bedpan or urinal while lying in bed because they a. Are embarrassed that they will urinate on the bedding. b. Would feel more comfortable assuming a normal voiding position. c. Feel they are losing their independence by asking the nursing staff to help. d. Are worried about acquiring a urinary tract infection.

ANS: B Assuming a normal voiding position helps patients relax and be able to void; lying in bed is not the typical position in which people void. Men usually are most comfortable when standing; women are more comfortable when sitting and squatting. Embarrassment at using the bedpan and worrying about a urinary tract infection are not related to the lying-in-bed position. Fear of loss of independence is not related to use of the bedpan or urinal.

9. A patient expresses concerns over having black stool. The fecal occult test is negative. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "This is probably a false negative; we should rerun the test." b. "Do you take iron supplements?" c. "You should schedule a colonoscopy as soon as possible." d. "Sometimes severe stress can alter stool color."

ANS: B Certain medications and supplements, such as iron, can alter the color of stool. The fecal occult test takes three separate samples over a period of time and is a fairly reliable test. A colonoscopy is health prevention screening that should be done every 5 to 10 years; it is not the nurse's initial priority. Stress alters GI motility and stool consistency, not color.

The nurse is preparing to check the gastric aspirate for pH. Which equipment will the nurse obtain? a. 10-mL Luer-Lok syringe b. Asepto syringe c. Sterile gloves d. Double gloves

ANS: B Cone-tipped or Asepto syringe is needed for testing of gastric aspirate for pH; these syringes are better than a Luer-Lok syringe. Clean gloves are needed, not sterile or double.

6. The nurse knows that urinary tract infection (UTI) is the most common health care-associated infection because a. Catheterization procedures are performed more frequently than indicated. b. Escherichia coli pathogens are transmitted during surgical or catheterization procedures. c. Perineal care is often neglected by nursing staff. d. Bedpans and urinals are not stored properly and transmit infection.

ANS: B E. coli is the leading pathogen causing UTIs; this pathogen enters during procedures. Sterile technique is imperative to prevent the spread of infection. Frequent catheterizations can place a patient at high risk for UTI; however, infection is caused by bacteria, not by the procedure itself. Perineal care is important, and buildup of bacteria can lead to infection, but this is not the greatest cause. Bedpans and urinals may become bacteria ridden and should be cleaned frequently. Bedpans and urinals are not inserted into the urinary tract, so they are unlikely to be the primary cause of UTI.

34. When caring for a hospitalized patient with a urinary catheter, which nursing action best prevents the patient from acquiring an infection? a. Inserting the catheter using strict clean technique b. Performing hand hygiene before and after providing perineal care c. Fully inflating the catheter's balloon according to the manufacturer's recommendation d. Disconnecting and replacing the catheter drainage bag once per shift

ANS: B Hand hygiene helps prevent infection in patients with a urinary catheter. A catheter should be inserted in the hospital setting using sterile technique. Inflating the balloon fully prevents dislodgement and trauma, not infection. Disconnecting the drainage bag from the catheter creates a break in the system and an open portal of entry and increases risk of infection.