Practice EPPP

A cognitive behavioral therapist treating a client with panic disorder would generally observe: A.an endorsement of the negative triad (negative view of self, the world, and the future). B.a tendency to attend selectively to negative events. C.a tendency to interpret bodily sensations as signs of impending physical or mental catastrophe. D.a tendency to inhibit emotional reactions.

A is correct Beck's cognitive triad, also known as the negative triad, is an irrational and pessimistic view of the three key elements of a person's belief system present in depression. It was proposed by Aaron Beck in 1976. The triad forms part of his cognitive theory of depression and the concept is used as part of CBT. Cognitive-behavioral therapy views anxiety as the result of maladaptive habits of thinking and behavior, usually including the tendency to overestimate the possibility of something negative occurring and to avoid that which produces anxiety. Studies have found that avoidance temporarily eases fear, but tends also to reinforce it so that it continues over time. To counter this, the therapist often will teach new ways of thinking and gradually expose the client to that which causes anxiety. Cognitive behavioral treatment for panic attacks and panic disorder usually involves some combination of the following interventions: Relaxation Training: Relaxation training can be helpful in beginning stages of treatment for panic. Often people have become increasingly anxious over time, so much so that their bodies are overwrought with muscle tension, making them even more susceptible to additional anxiety. Usually relaxation training involves relaxation breathing or progressive muscle relaxation, ways of decreasing physiological anxious arousal. This then helps to reduce future vulnerability to anxiety. Cognitive Restructuring: Cognitive Restructuring is a method of becoming more aware of anxiety-provoking thought patterns, and replacing them with more balanced, less anxious thinking. By reducing the intensity of your reactions to panic symptoms and feared situations, you can further reduce your anxiety, and decrease the frequency, intensity, and duration of panic symptoms.

A child uses the name of the family dog to refer to the neighbor's dog. This illustrates: A.overextension. B.overregularization. C.underextension. D.fundamental attribution error.

A is correct. Children in their second and third years sometimes use words as overextensions; "doggie," for instance, may refer to a variety of four-legged animals as well as to dogs, and the word "daddy" may be used in reference to all men.

Studies comparing patients with left- versus right-hemisphere stroke have shown which of the following? A.Left-hemisphere stroke is associated with depression, and right-hemisphere stroke is associated with indifference. B.Apathy is the most frequent reaction to strokes of either hemisphere. C.Left-hemisphere stroke is associated with indifference, and right-hemisphere stroke is associated with depression. D.Depression and indifference are associated equally with left- and right-hemisphere stroke.

A is correct. People with left-sided strokes may have trouble with skilled movements, depression and speech. In contrast, the right side of the brain has a more big-picture, large-scale processing style. Right Brain If the stroke occurs in the right side of the brain, the left side of the body will be affected, producing some or all of the following: Paralysis on the left side of the body Vision problems Quick, inquisitive behavioral style Memory loss Left Brain If the stroke occurs in the left side of the brain, the right side of the body will be affected, producing some or all of the following: Paralysis on the right side of the body Speech/language problems Slow, cautious behavioral style Memory loss

A third-party payer denies a psychologist's recommendation for extending a client's treatment on the basis of a lack of medical necessity and requests that this disagreement not be disclosed to the client. The psychologist's most ethical course of action would be to: A. disclose the disagreement to the client. B. adhere to the third-party payer's instructions. C. not disclose the disagreement, but appeal the decision of the third-party payer. D. explain to the client that treatment must be terminated due to a lack of medical necessity.

A is correct. According to APA Practice Directorate (12/07) "If a Medicare beneficiary cannot afford the charges for co-payments or deductibles, the practitioner must ask the beneficiary to sign a waiver explaining the financial hardship. If the beneficiary fails to sign the waiver, the practitioner must document that he or she made a good faith effort to collect the charges." In general, collecting the co-payment from a client according to the contract with the insurance company, managed care company, Medicare, Medicaid, etc., is the prudent thing to do. You cannot charge an insured client less (or more) than you have contractually agreed to with his or her managed-care or insurance company unless you get an authorization to do so. Check your contract or agreement with the third party prior to forgiving the co-pay.

Breathing through a narrow straw, spinning in a chair, and aerobic exercise are each capable of creating physiologic symptoms similar to those experienced in a panic attack. Use of these techniques to treat panic disorder would be based on exposure to symptoms leading to: A. extinction. B. integration. C. adaptation. D. association.

A is correct. Because the trigger for panic attacks within the context of Panic Disorder is the body, the exposure exercises center on the anxiety symptoms themselves. ... These are also called interoceptive exposure exercises, which is a fancy way to say exposure to feelings of anxiety and panic in the body.

In the strange-situation paradigm, an infant who displays resistant attachment will most likely do which of the following? A. Exhibit anger toward the caregiver upon reunion B. Avoid the caregiver before separation C. Ignore the caregiver upon reunion D. Exhibit little or no distress when the caregiver leaves the room

A is correct. Children classified as Anxious-Ambivalent/Resistant (C) showed distress even before separation, and were clingy and difficult to comfort on the caregiver's return. Researchers agree that the Anxious-Ambivalent/Resistant strategy is a response to unpredictably responsive caregiving, and that the displays of anger or helplessness towards the caregiver on reunion can be regarded as a conditional strategy for maintaining the availability of the caregiver by preemptively taking control of the interaction.

In developing a new test of sociability, if a researcher correlates scores of individuals on the new test with their scores on a standardized test of sociability, the researcher has assumed that the: A. standardized test is valid. B. new test has items similar to those in the standardized test. C. new test will be more valid than the standardized test. D. standardized test is in need of improvement.

A is correct. Convergent validity, a parameter often used in sociology, psychology, and other behavioral sciences, refers to the degree to which two measures of constructs that theoretically should be related, are in fact related.

Research provides evidence that depression among individuals over age 65 is: A. an important risk factor for failure to recover following illness or injury. B. rarely overlooked in primary care settings. C. not amenable to age-appropriate psychosocial intervention approaches. D. a factor in the decreased use of health-related services.

A is correct. Depression was the most frequent psychiatric diagnosis in the year after minor injury requiring emergency care. Individuals with depression did not return to pre-injury levels of function during the post-injury year. There are many reasons why elderly depression is so often overlooked: You may assume you have good reason to be down or that depression is just part of aging. You may be isolated—which in itself can lead to depression—with few around to notice your distress. You may not realize that your physical complaints are signs of depression. You may be reluctant to talk about your feelings or ask for help.

According to the theory of worldviews proposed by Derald Wing Sue and David Sue, Western society can be characterized in terms of: A.internal locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility. B.internal locus of control and an external locus of responsibility. C.external locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility. D.external locus of control and an external locus of responsibility.

A is correct. Internal Locus of Control (IC)- Internal Locus of Responsibility (IR) High internal personal control (IC) individuals believe they are masters of their fate and their actions affect the outcomes. Likewise, people high in internal locus of responsibility (IR) attribute their status and life conditions to their own unique attributes; success is due to one's own efforts and the lack of success is attributed to one's shortcomings or inadequacies. A high value is placed on personal resources for solving all problems: self-reliance, pragmatism, individualism, status personally achieved, and power or control over others and nature. The individual is held accountable for all that transpires

On measures of sex-role attitudes, comparisons between children whose mothers are employed outside the home and children whose mothers are not employed outside the home have revealed that: A. both the sons and daughters of externally employed mothers are less likely than their counterparts to exhibit traditional sex-role attitudes. B. there is little difference in the sex-role attitudes exhibited by the children in these two types of households. C. only daughters of externally employed mothers are less likely than their counterparts to exhibit traditional sex-role attitudes. D. only sons of externally employed mothers are less likely than their counterparts to exhibit traditional sex-role attitudes.

A is correct. Much of the literature on working mothers' impact on their children's gender role attitude formation has been conducted in contexts where female labor force participation (FLFP) rates have risen substantially over previous decades. Change in FLFP often goes hand-in-hand with attitudinal change, and cross-nationally support for women's employment is one of the strongest predictors of both FLFP and the gender pay gap. The causality between attitude change and FLFP is difficult to establish, however, and is likely reciprocal. Women who have more egalitarian attitudes are more likely to enter the labor force and working women are generally exposed to more egalitarian attitudes. Hence, their employment is associated with more egalitarian attitudes among their children. Their daughters are in turn more likely to work and their sons to be married to women who work. Rising FLFP and broad change in attitudes around women's roles in society, and particularly in the workforce, were thus mutually reinforcing, at least in Western contexts.

All of the following are important components of emotional intelligence except the ability to: A. repress emotions. B. regulate emotions. C. perceive emotions. D. express and understand emotions.

A is correct. The Five Components of Emotional Intelligence at Work. Truly effective leaders are also distinguished by a high degree of emotional intelligence, which includes self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skill.

Which of the following statements about a positively skewed distribution is correct? A. The median value is lower than the mean value. B. Skewness does not influence the relationship between the median value and the mean value. C. The median value is equal to the mean value. D. The median value is higher than the mean value.

A is correct. Unlike the normally distributed data where all measures of the central tendency(mean, median, and mode) equal each other, in a positively skewed data, the measures are dispersed. The general relationship among the central tendency measures in the positively skewed distribution may be expressed using the following inequality: Mean > Median > Mode On a right-skewed histogram, the mean, median, and mode are all different. In this case, the mode is the highest point of the histogram, whereas the median and mean fall to the right of it (or, visually, the right of the peak). Note that the mean will always be to the right of the median.

A client at a community mental health clinic who is receiving lithium for bipolar disorder exhibits an acute fear reaction each time blood must be drawn for dosage monitoring. Of the following, the approach that will be most effective in helping the client control this fear reaction is: A. desensitization. B. cognitive restructuring. C. guided imagery. D. covert sensitization.

A is correct. While there are many treatment options for specific phobias, research routinely supports the behavioral techniques as the most effective treatment strategies. Seeing as the behavioral theory suggests phobias are developed via classical conditioning, the treatment approach revolves around breaking the maladaptive association developed between the object and fear. This is generally accomplished through exposure treatments. As the name implies, the individual is exposed to their feared stimuli. This can be done using several different approaches: systematic desensitization, flooding, and modeling. Systematic desensitization is an exposure technique that utilizes relaxation strategies to help calm the individual as they are presented with the fearful object. The notion behind this technique is that both fear and relaxation cannot exist at the same time; therefore, the individual is taught how to replace their fearful reaction with a calm, relaxing reaction.

A psychologist refers clients to a colleague and receives a fee from the colleague. Consistent with ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the: A.referring psychologist may receive remuneration only if the fee is based on an actual service provided. B.giving or receiving of remuneration for referrals is prohibited under all circumstances. C.payment of referral fees is governed by state or provincial law and is not subject to any specific ethical standard. D.referring psychologist may receive remuneration only if the fee is considered a part of the total fee owed by the client to the second psychologist.

A is correct. 6.07 Referrals and Fees The Services provided (clinical, consultative, administrative, other) and is not based on the Referral itself.STANDARD 6.07: REFERRALS AND FEES When psychologists pay, receive payment from, or divide fees with another professional.

A woman client is upset because her partner wishes to have a child, but she does not. The woman confides to her therapist that she has never felt herself to be nurturing, and does not want to become a mother. However, she is afraid that she will be judged unnatural if she does not give in. This woman is experiencing: A. cognitive dissonance. B. prejudice. C. stereotype threat. D. gender bias.

A is correct. In the field of psychology, cognitive dissonance is the mental discomfort(psychological stress) experienced by a person who holds two or more contradictory beliefs, ideas, or values. This discomfort is triggered by a situation in which a person's belief clashes with new evidence perceived by the person. When confronted with facts that contradict beliefs, ideals, and values, people will try to find a way to resolve the contradiction to reduce their discomfort. Stereotype threat is a situational predicament in which people are or feel themselves to be at risk of conforming to stereotypes about their social group.[1][2] Stereotype threat is purportedly a contributing factor tolong-standing racial and gender gaps in academic performance. It may occur whenever an individual's performance might confirm a negative stereotype because stereotype threat is thought to arise from a particular situation, rather than from an individual's personality traits or characteristics. Since most people have at least one social identitywhich is negatively stereotyped, most people are vulnerable to stereotype threat if they encounter a situation in which the stereotype is relevant. Situational factors that increase stereotype threat can include the difficulty of the task, the belief that the task measures their abilities, and the relevance of the stereotype to the task. Individuals

Among African American clients, cultural paranoia is most often associated with the individual's: A.reaction to racism. B.educational level. C.personal pathology. D.upbringing.

A is correct. The concept of "cultural paranoia" was first introduced by William H. Grier and Price M. Cobbs in their 1968 book Black Rage. These two Black psychiatrists explained that this condition is not a form of psychopathology, but instead is a healthy and adaptive response by African Americans to their historical and contemporary experiences of racial oppression and discrimination in the United States. Charles R. Ridley, an African American psychologist, reintroduced the concept of cultural paranoia more than a decade later to explain why Black clients do not disclose to White psychotherapists.

A research study involves equal numbers of male and female participants, half of whom have had a stroke and half of whom have not. Each participant is tested twice for response speed. One test uses a simple attention task without distractions (task 1); the other uses a complex attentional task with distractions (task 2). The appropriate statistical analysis for examining differences in response speed for task 1 versus task 2 by gender by group is: A. a repeated measures analysis of variance. B. a repeated measures multivariate analysis of variance. C. an analysis of variance with correction for repeated application. D. an analysis of variance

A is correct? Repeated measures analysis of variances (ANOVA) can be used when the same parameter has been measured under different conditions on the same subjects. Subjects can be divided into different groups (Two-factor study with repeated measures on one factor) [ex male and female participants, response speed with or without distractions] or not (Single-factor study).

During ongoing sessions of marital therapy, one spouse indicates a desire for individual psychotherapy with the therapist. What is the most appropriate response to this request? A. Refer the spouse to another qualified therapist. B. Continue therapy with the couple and see each spouse individually as well. C. Continue therapy with the couple and encourage the spouse to defer individual treatment. D. Consent to see the spouse for individual therapy.

A is the correct answer. (a) A multiple relationship occurs when a psychologist is in a professional role with a person and (1) at the same time is in another role with the same person, (2) at the same time is in a relationship with a person closely associated with or related to the person with whom the psychologist has the professional relationship, or (3) promises to enter into another relationship in the future with the person or a person closely associated with or related to the person.

Which of the following groups has the lowest rate of admission to mental health facilities? A. Married women B. Widows C. Married men D. Never-married men

A. Married Women? For a long time, general practitioners have learnt from clinical experience that women receive more services for mental disorder in primary care settings than do men. On the other hand, psychiatrists and clinical psychologists are aware that the difference is less marked for specialist mental health services, and particularly hospital-based services

Which of the following best accounts for the finding that depressed women respond differentially to therapy modality (e.g., interpersonal vs. cognitive behavioral) and men do not? A. Women are more likely to use emotion-focused coping strategies that heighten the importance of a therapeutic alliance. B. Women tend to respond better with female therapists, and more female therapists use interpersonal therapy than cognitive behavioral therapy. C. Men are less likely to establish a therapeutic alliance than women. D. Very few men seek treatment for depression.

A. Women are more likely to use emotion-focused coping strategies that heighten the importance of a therapeutic alliance. Depressed men and women differ in a number of important respects that may alter the course of affective disorder, and as a result, they may also differ in their responses to psychotherapy. This study provides further evidence of gender-specific differences in depressed patients' symptoms and treatment utilization. Cognitive behavior therapy appears to be a comparably useful outpatient treatment for men and women. ex: Crying is a symptom of depression that characterizes women more than men, even when women and men are equally depressed->This item could cause depression to be over diagnosed in women.

In order to remember a grocery list, an individual associates each item with a landmark passed on the way to the store. The individual visualizes bananas as the roof of the bus stop, a carton of milk as the police station, and broccoli florets as the trees in the park. The individual is employing: A. a mnemonic device. B. the von Restorff effect. C. a lexical decision task. D. the hindsight effect.

A. a mnemonic device. The method of loci (loci being Latin for "places") is a method of memory enhancement which uses visualizations with the use of spatial memory, familiar information about one's environment, to quickly and efficiently recall information. The method of loci is also known as the memory journey, memory palace, or mind palace technique. This method is a mnemonic device adopted in ancient Roman and Greek rhetorical treatises

Aggressive individuals have been described as displaying a hostile attributional bias that occurs during the stage of social information processing known as: A. enactment. B. response evaluation. C. mental representation. D. response assessing

A. enactment Hostile attribution bias, or hostile attribution of intent, is the tendency to interpret others' behaviors as having hostile intent, even when the behavior is ambiguous or benign. For example, a person with high levels of hostile attribution bias might see two people laughing and immediately interpret this behavior as two people laughing about him/her, even though the behavior was ambiguous and may have been benign. Since then, hostile attribution bias has been conceptualized as a bias of social information processing (similar to other attribution biases), including the way individuals perceive, interpret, and select responses to situations. While occasional hostile attribution bias is normative (particularly for younger children), researchers have found that individuals who exhibit consistent and high levels of hostile attribution bias across development are much more likely to engage in aggressive behavior (e.g., hitting/fighting, reacting violently, verbal or relational aggression) toward others. Step 1: Accurately encode information in the brain and store it in short term memory. During this step, an individual will pay attention to and code specific stimuli/cues in their environment, including external factors (e.g., someone bumping into you; other people's reactions to the situation) and internal factors (e.g., your affective reaction to the situation). Hostile attribution bias is typically conceptualized within a social information processing framework, in which social information (e.g., during an interaction) is processed in a series of steps that leads to a behavioral reaction. Accurate social information processing requires a person to engage in six steps that occur in order Step 2: Accurately interpret or give meaning to encoded information. During this step, an individual may decide if a behavior or situation was meant to be hostile or benign. Step 3: Decide a goal for the interaction Step 4: Generate potential responses Step 5: Evaluate potential responses and select the "optimal" response Step 6: Enact chosen response

Research on the measurement of anxiety and depression has shown that they are difficult to discriminate because both constructs involve: A. high negative affect. B. low negative affect. C. high positive affect. D. low positive affect.

A. high negative affect. Results indicated that the original two-factor HADS does not appropriately discriminate between symptoms of anxiety and depression, and may instead be measuring a global construct of emotional distress when all items are combined or measuring constructs that underlie depression and anxiety (e.g., negative affect)

In a classical conditioning situation, conditioned Stimulus A has been paired with food. Stimulus B is then repeatedly paired with Stimulus A, without presentation of food. Interspersed with these trials are trials in which Stimulus A is paired with food (but without presentation of Stimulus B). Stimulus B is then presented alone. This procedure is the paradigm for: A. higher-order conditioning. B. stimulus generalization. C. experimental extinction. D. response generalization.

A. higher-order conditioning. Higher Order Conditioning (also known as Second Order Conditioning) is a classical conditioning term that refers to a situation in which a stimulus that was previously neutral (e.g., a light) is paired with a conditioned stimulus (e.g., a tone that has been conditioning with food to produce salivating) to produce the same conditioned response as the conditioned stimulus.

Licensure in psychology protects the public by setting: A. minimum standards for the competence of providers of psychological services. B. national standards for the delivery of psychological services. C. standards for evaluation of the adequacy of services provided by psychologists. D. criteria for the highest (or aspirational) level of services provided by psychologists.

A. minimum standards for the competence of providers of psychological services. Board of Psychology protects the public through licensure, regulation and education to promote access to safe, competent, and ethical psychological services.

All of the following contribute to the relative consistency of children's IQ scores across time except: A. peer associations and interactions in the school environment. B. relative stability of environments for most individuals. C. overlap of abilities measured by intelligence tests at different ages. D. invariance of genetic factors.

A. peer associations and interactions in the school environment. Reliability, or consistency, of scores is vital for tests of intelligence because IQ scores are often used for diagnostic and intervention purposes. Given the importance of reliability, consistency across items (or internal consistency reliability) has been routinely investigated for most intelligence tests. Investigations have found that the internal consistency reliability of omnibus intelligence test scores for standardization samples tends to exceed .90, and internal consistency reliability of subtest scores from those samples tends to exceed .80. Although not frequently investigated, internal consistency reliability estimates of intelligence test scores for clinical or referral samples have generally been found to be equivalent to those found in standardization samples. Importantly, the longitudinal stability of intelligence test scores assumes that the construct measured by those scores (i.e., intelligence) is stable across time. Fortunately, intelligence is assumed to be a stable trait.

In Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy approach to panic disorder, the therapist should first focus on the client's: A. thoughts and interpretations during the panic attack. B. thoughts and interpretations about causes of the attack. C. underlying beliefs concerning health and sanity. D. attributional style for negative events.

A. thoughts and interpretations during the panic attack. Cognitive-behavioral therapy has shown strong evidence of effectiveness for treating panic disorder and agoraphobia. One highly effective CBT intervention for panic disorder is Panic Control Treatment, which includes psychoeducation, cognitive restructuring, and exposure interventions that are integrated to alleviate panic disorder and agoraphobic avoidance. You learn to closely monitor your symptoms and record panic attacks in a journal, which includes jotting down triggers, symptoms, thoughts, and behaviors. Your therapist will teach you how to practice relaxation techniques, such as progressive muscle relaxation. You'll examine the validity of your cognitions, and change unhelpful or catastrophic beliefs (e.g., "I'm too weak to handle this"; "What if that horrible thing does happen?"). In addition, your therapist will help you face uncomfortable sensations that normally trigger anxiety and cope with them. That is, you might spin around to trigger dizziness or breathe through a straw to trigger shortness of breath. Then you'll replace thoughts like "I'm going to die" with more helpful, realistic thoughts, such as "It's just a little dizziness. I can handle it." You'll also gradually face anxiety-provoking situations—driving, going to the grocery store—because not facing them is what feeds your fear. You'll reduce your safety behaviors, as well. These might be anything from needing to be with others to having your cell phone or medication with you. Lastly, you and your therapist will develop a plan to manage setbacks and prevent relapse.

Randomization in experimental design has which of the following effects? A.Maximizing internal validity B.Increasing error variance C.Inflating observed differences between experimental groups D.Increasing consequential validity

A.Maximizing internal validity By controlling factors outside of therapy through randomization, an experimental design maximizes internal validity, and thereby helps showing that the documented effects are the result of a particular TP as it was implemented in a particular context.

Which multisystemic therapy (MST) approach entails the following cyclical and overlapping stages: joining with the family, assessing the family's functioning and creating a family map, and altering the family system? A.Structural approach B.Strategic approach C.Social learning approach D.Family of origin approach

A.Structural approach. Structural family therapy (SFT) is a method of psychotherapy developed by Salvador Minuchin which addresses problems in functioning within a family. Structural family therapists strive to enter, or "join", the family system in therapy in order to understand the invisible rules which govern its functioning, map the relationships between family members or between subsets of the family, and ultimately disrupt dysfunctional relationships within the family, causing it to stabilize into healthier patterns. Minuchin contends that pathology rests not in the individual, but within the family system. Strategic therapy closely examines patterns of interaction and conflict between family members and seeks to increase awareness and mindfulness of these patterns. A more direct approach than some other family therapy techniques, each individual family member is assigned work in order to improve how they interact with their other family members, particularly those who may be facing unique challenges or struggling with mental or neurological illnesses or disorders. This therapy technique also subverts the authority of the most dominant family member, allowing communication changes to evolve positively between family members and the symptom sufferer. Social learning theory (Bandura) is a theory of learning process and social behavior which proposes that new behaviors can be acquired by observing and imitating others. It states that learning is a cognitive process that takes place in a social context and can occur purely through observation or direct instruction, even in the absence of motor reproduction or direct reinforcement. In addition to the observation of behavior, learning also occurs through the observation of rewards and punishments, a process known as vicarious reinforcement. Family of Origin therapy is about an exploration of these familial factors and involves the process of tracing back "reverse engineering" to the origins of certain present-day manifestations. Coaching an individual to research their own patterns in their family and to redefine themselves in less anxiety driven ways is aimed at increasing their level of differentiation of self. This is not identical to the concept of individuation (Jung, 1954) or self actualization (Maslow, 1968) which focuses on growing away from family symbiosis through realizing intra-psychically one's separateness. Bowen's concept of differentiation places an equal emphasis on staying meaningfully connected to significant others, as it does on expressing individual thoughts and beliefs

Consistent with ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, authorship of research publications should be attributed to: A.individuals who do the actual writing, have made a substantial scientific contribution to the study, or have contributed to the data collection. B.everyone involved in conducting the study or in the administration of the research work. C.individuals who do the actual writing of the study. D.those individuals who do the actual writing and those who have made a substantial scientific contribution to the study.

A.individuals who do the actual writing, have made a substantial scientific contribution to the study, or have contributed to the data collection. Authorship credit should reflect the individual's contribution to the study. An author is considered anyone involved with initial research design, data collection and analysis, manuscript drafting, and final approval.

When a psychologist's institutional rules are in conflict with ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the psychologist is: A.required to proactively seek resolution of the conflict. B.allowed to choose between the conflicting directives in whatever way the psychologist thinks is reasonable. C.obliged to place adherence to the ethical standards ahead of all other considerations. D.permitted to follow the institutional rules for most cases.

A.required to proactively seek resolution of the conflict. If the demands of an organization with which psychologists are affiliated or for whom they are working are in conflict with this Ethics Code, psychologists clarify the nature of the conflict, make known their commitment to the Ethics Code, and to the extent feasible, resolve the conflict in a way that permits adherence to the Ethics Code.

Meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy outcomes have shown, with respect to particular clinical problems or types of clients, that: A.therapy is better than no therapy. B.some therapies are better than other therapies for all types of problems. C.some theoretical accounts are more valid than others. D.factors common to only some systems engender therapeutic benefits.

A.therapy is better than no therapy. This dataset consists of an arbitrarily selected subset of 74 studies assessing the effectiveness of psychotherapy. Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) published a meta-analysis designed to explore the current state of knowledge about psychotherapy effectiveness. Their original meta-analysis contains more than 1,700 effect sizes from 475 studies with multiple moderators and outcome measures. This subset is vastly simplified and intended solely for the purpose of demonstration. They found that the average psychotherapy client is 80% better off than those that receive no treatment.

In deciding whether more people die from drowning than from electrocution, a person is likely to rely on which type of heuristic? A. Representativeness B. Simulation C. Subjective probability D. Availability

Availability Heuristic First, the availability heuristic is a mental shortcut which helps us make a decision based on how easy it is to bring something to mind. In other words, we often rely on how easy it is to think of examples when making a decision or judgment.For instance, in 2011, what percentage of crimes do you suppose involved violence? Most people are likely to guess a high percentage because of all the violent crimes - murder, rape, robbery, and assault - that are highlighted on the news. Yet the FBI reported that violent crimes made up less than 12% of all crimes in the United States in 2011. Availability Heuristic -Used to judge likelihood or frequency of event, occurrence -People tend to be biased by information that is easier to recall: they are swayed by information that is vivid, well-publicized, or recent -People tend to be biased by examples that they can easily retrieve: they use these search examples to test hypotheses -People tend to correlate events that occur close together Representativeness heuristic is used when making judgments about the probability of an event under uncertainty.[1] It is one of a group of heuristics (simple rules governing judgment or decision-making) proposed by psychologists Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman in the early 1970s. Heuristics are described as "judgmental shortcuts that generally get us where we need to go - and quickly - but at the cost of occasionally sending us off course." Representativeness Heuristic -Used to judge membership in a class -Judge similarity to stereotypes -People are insensitive to prior probability of outcomes -They ignore preexisting distribution of categories or base rate frequencies -People are insensitive to sample size They draw strong inferences from small number of cases -People have a misconception of Chance: Gambler's Fallacy -They see a 'normal' event and think it 'rare': they think chance will 'correct' a series of 'rare' events -People have a misconception of Regression: They see a 'rare' event and think it 'normal': they deny chance as a factor causing extreme outcomes The simulation heuristic is a psychological heuristic, or simplified mental strategy, according to which people determine the likelihood of an event based on how easy it is to picture the event mentally. Partially as a result, people experience more regret over outcomes that are easier to imagine, such as "near misses". The simulation heuristic was first theorized by psychologists Daniel Kahneman and Amos Tversky as a specialized adaptation of the availability heuristic to explain counterfactual thinking and regret.[1] However, it is not the same as the availability heuristic. Specifically the simulation heuristic is defined as "how perceivers tend to substitute normal antecedent events for exceptional ones in psychologically 'undoing' this specific outcome." Kahneman and Tversky also believed that people used this heuristic to understand and predict other's behavior in certain circumstances and to answer questions involving counterfactual propositions.

A statistically significant correlation between mothers' IQ scores on an adult intelligence scale and their children's IQ scores on an intelligence scale for children should be interpreted as: A. proof of the hypothesis that intelligent mothers produce intelligent children. B. a significant association between the two IQ scores. C. a possibly spurious relationship due to the variability of correlation coefficients. D. questionable, because it is based on two different measures of intelligence.

B a significant association between the two IQ scores Family studies: Galton found that the correlation of high intelligence in immediate families runs about .5, whereas the correlation among extended families is .15. However, studies of intact families don't allow us to distinguish between nature and nurture. Twin studies: Identical twins' IQs correlate between .7 and .8. Fraternal twins' IQs correlate between .3 and .4. Adoption studies: how adopted children resemble their adoptive versus biological parents. Confound: selective placement Adopted children's IQ tend to be similar to the IQs of their biological parents, but this resemblence often dissipates once these children become older and approach adolescence. Genes highly correlate with IQs. Among low-SES families, genetic factors have been reported to explain less of the variance in intelligence; the reverse is found for high-SES families. The evidence however is inconsistent. Other studies have reported an effect in the opposite direction (higher heritability in lower SES), or no moderation of the genetic effect on intelligence. C? A spurious correlation is a relationship between two variables that appear to have interdependence or association with each other but actually do not. Spurious correlation is often caused by a third factor that is not apparent at the time of examination. Here are some more examples of common spurious correlations: -Drownings rise when ice cream sales rise. It may seem that increased ice cream sales cause more drowning, but in reality, rising heat may cause more people to swim, as well as buy more ice cream. -The U.S. murder rate from 2006-2011 dropped at the same rate as Microsoft Internet Explorer usage. -Executives who say please and thank you more often enjoy better share performance. -People who wear Oakland Raiders team gear are more likely to commit crimes.

One of a psychologist's undergraduate students reports a desire to terminate therapy with another clinician and begin a therapeutic relationship with the psychologist. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the most appropriate response to this request is to: A. speak to the current therapist about the students concerns. B. encourage the student to discuss the issue with the current therapist. C. accept the student as a client but arrange to have the students course work graded by another instructor. D. obtain the current therapists permission to begin treating the student.

B is correct. A psychologist refrains from entering into or promising another personal, scientific, professional, financial, or other relationship with such persons if it appears likely that such a relationship reasonably might impair the psychologist's objectivity or otherwise interfere with the psychologist's effectively performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or might harm or exploit the other party. (section 1.17a)

Exposure to teratogens is most likely to affect the developing organism during the: A. period of the zygote. B. period of the embryo. C. period of the fetus. D. perinatal period.

B is correct. A teratogen is any environmental substance or agent—biological, chemical, or physical—that can have a detrimental effect on a developing fetus. Exposure to teratogens during the prenatal stage can significantly raise the risk of birth defects. Most teratogens are harmful only during a critical window of development (e.g., thalidomide is teratogenic only between days 28 and 50 of pregnancy). during the germinal period, the developing organisms are usually not susceptible to teratogens, and if they do have an effect, the effect is more likely miscarriage during the embryonic period the probability of a structural defect is greatest because this is a time of rapid structural development/organogenesis Teratogens are agents that affect normal development and can give rise to congenital birth defects. For the most part, teratogens are considered to be chemical agents, such as thalidomide or alcohol. However, perinatal infections with cytomegalovirus would fall into this broad category as would significant radiation exposure. The minority of fetuses exposed to potential teratogens show effects, even if exposed at the same time with the same dose of the agent (e.g., alcohol, 30%; thalidomide, 20%; hydantoins, 10%; warfarin, 8%; lithium, 7%; and diazepam, 1%). The exact determinants why some fetuses are affected are poorly understood. Embryologic timing is one of the critical elements that define the final outcome. There are broadly 3 periods identified in fetal development (see Fig. 25.2). Implantation Period of fertilization through gastrulation and formation of the embryonic plate (first 2 weeks after fertilization). Significant interference with development during this time usually results in loss of conceptus. Embryonic: This is the period of primary tissue differentiation, and thus, the period at greatest risk for major malformations (weeks 3 through 8). Fetal: At this time, primary organogenesis is complete, but growth and neuronal migration proceed. The central nervous system (CNS) is at risk and many of the minor birth defects arise during this time (9 weeks through birth). Some teratogens may have delayed effects, and these do not result in an overt congenital malformation; diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in a female fetus can predispose to vaginal clear cell carcinoma in puberty. Embryogenesis The developmental timing of the event that results in the final phenotype is one of the critical determinants of the phenotypic outcome. When considering embryologic processes, timing is one element but other important concepts are important to aid understanding of the final outcome. The timing is important because multiple developmental processes are occurring at the same time and thus a number of malformations present concomitantly as a result of interference with everything developing at the same embryonic time; radial ray defects may be seen with cardiac septal defects as in Holt-Oram syndrome. The common embryologic origin of various elements can give rise to overlapping disorders with shared elements: branchial arch developmental field defects in VCFS or disorders caused by abnormal neural crest cell migration. Critical embryologic events can give rise to disorders due to failure of a specific embryologic process: Neural tube defects arise as a result of abnormal neural tube fusion/closure.

Which of the following is the most reliable predictor of a potential adolescent suicide? A. Wide mood swings in which despair alternates with unrealistic optimism B. Withdrawal and social isolation in response to recent stressful events C. The sudden appearance of delinquent or irresponsible behavior D. Growing up in a broken home

B is correct. Community-based studies of adolescents have identified several classes of risk factors, with the most robust set of risk factors being past history of attempts, current suicidal ideation and recent attempt by a friend or family member. Other commonly reported risk factors include psychopathology, specifically depression, externalizing disorders, anxiety disorders, and substance use disorders. Risk factors identified in studies involving adolescent clinical (in-patient) samples include depressed mood, hopelessness, persistent depression, suicidal thoughts, family dysfunction, dysthymia, poor social adjustment, mood disorders, particularly major depressive disorder (MDD), dysthymic disorder and co-morbidity with either conduct and/or SUD, multiple previous suicide attempts, more severe suicidal ideation, and more severe functional impairment

Which of the following treatment recommendations regarding smoking cessation is accurate? A. Counseling is optimal when delivered by a mental health provider rather than a medical provider. B. Aversive smoking techniques are effective and may be used with smokers who desire this treatment. C. Self-hypnosis is effective and may be used with smokers who desire this treatment. D. Ethnic and racial minorities have superior cessation rates when tailored treatments are used.

B is correct. Interestingly, many smokers have never even heard of the most effective quitting approach - aversion therapy. If smoking persists because it is pleasurable, associating puffing with mild electric shock, and nausea, takes the pleasure out of it in a procedure known as counter conditioning. By using nicotinereplacement (whether patch, gum, lozenges, nasal spray, or inhaler) a person trebles their chance of quitting - to 15 percent, or approximately one person in seven. Combining the nicotine patch and inhaler boosts the success rate to one in five (19.5 percent). Substantially better results are produced by using Zyban, a prescription antidepressantthat has a success rate of 30 percent. This provides an interesting insight into why people smoke. Combining the antidepressant with nicotine replacement boosts success to 35.5 percent. Another prescription drug, Chantix, acts on nicotine receptors in the brain and has received adverse publicity as a possible suicide risk. Its one-year success rate is 22 percent.

Which of the following is the least effective way to memorize a word list? A. Relate the words meaningfully to oneself B. Repeat the words out loud C. Create a story to link the words D. Form mental images of the words

B is correct. Most effective ways -Chunking -Mnemonic -Method of Loci -Repitition

James Prochaska, Carlo DiClemente, and John Norcross's Transtheoretical Model of health behavior change, often used to match interventions with client's readiness to change, involves which of the following stages? A. Low importance, low confidence, high importance, high confidence, action B. Precontemplation, contemplation, plan, action, maintenance C. Ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange D. Empathy, advice, feedback, responsibility, self-efficacy

B is correct. Precontemplation ("not ready") - "People are not intending to take action in the foreseeable future, and can be unaware that their behaviour is problematic" Contemplation ("getting ready") - "People are beginning to recognize that their behaviour is problematic, and start to look at the pros and cons of their continued actions" Preparation ("ready") - "People are intending to take action in the immediate future, and may begin taking small steps toward behaviour change" Action - "People have made specific overt modifications in modifying their problem behaviour or in acquiring new healthy behaviours" Maintenance - "People have been able to sustain action for at least six months and are working to prevent relapse" Termination - "Individuals have zero temptation and they are sure they will not return to their old unhealthy habit as a way of coping"

An accurate statement about prescribing psychotropic medications for Asian American clients is that: A. the medications may not be useful until after the fifth therapy session. B. the effective dosages for these clients may differ from those for European American clients. C. the medications should be offered immediately to reduce client anxiety.

B is correct. Start with half the usual recommended starting dose because of possible side effects Explain that medications exert their full effects in weeks and not days and that adherence is important in achieving and maintaining positive results Minimize the use of benzodiazepines as monotherapy; if they are used jointly with another agent, taper dosage completely after several weeks or taper to the lowest effective dose

The encounter stage of the Black Racial Identity Development Model is characterized by: A. a resolution of conflict whereby the individual achieves inner security and self-confidence about being African American. B. the individual's cautious and then definite choice to develop an African American identity. C. the individual's self-identification as human or American rather than as a member of the African American racial/cultural group. D. withdrawal from interactions with other ethnic groups, particularly European Americans.

B is correct. The encounter stage is marked by two processes: (1) an experience that challenges the pre-encounter individual's pro-White/anti-Black world-view, and (2) a reinterpretation of one's racial identity as a result of this experience. At this stage, a Black person finds support in the search for a Black identity and makes the conscious decision to identify with being Black

A psychologist's personal conduct outside a professional setting is subject to the scrutiny of the profession: A. only if the conduct reflects impairment. B. when such conduct compromises the psychologists professional responsibilities or reduces public trust in the profession. C. at all times, because the code of ethics applies equally to professional and personal conduct. D. at no time, because only professional conduct falls under the legitimate authority of professional regulatory bodies and/or ethics committees.

B is correct. When such conduct compromises the psychologists professional responsibilities or reduces public trust in the profession. Psychologists' moral standards and conduct are personal matters to the same degree as is true for any other person, except as psychologists' conduct may compromise their professional responsibilities or reduce the public's trust in psychology and psychologists

The endorphins are: A. naturally occurring plant alkaloids. B. a class of neuropeptides. C. a class of neurotransmitters. D. stimulants produced by the pineal gland in response to stress.

B is correct. Endorphins are a group of hormones secreted within the brain and nervous system and having a number of physiological functions. They are peptides which activate the body's opiate receptors, causing an analgesic effect. Endorphins are chemicals that help to relieve pain or stress, and boost happiness. Endorphins are chemicals produced by the body to relieve stress and pain. They work similarly to a class of drugs called opioids. Opioids relieve pain and can produce a feeling of euphoria. Endorphins (contracted from "endogenous morphine" are endogenous opioid neuropeptides and peptide hormones in humans and other animals. They are produced by the central nervous system and the pituitary gland. The term "endorphins" implies a pharmacological activity (analogous to the activity of the corticosteroid category of biochemicals) as opposed to a specific chemical formulation.

According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, which of the following actions is unethical under all circumstances when conducting research? A.Temporarily deceiving participants about how results will be used B.Temporarily deceiving participants about information that would affect their willingness to participate C.Conducting research that utilizes any form of temporary deception D.Temporarily deceiving participants as to the true purpose of the experiment

B is correct. Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress. Potential of deception to facilitate unwanted and inappropriate invasion of privacy Potential coercion of participants into acting against their own will Potential for participants to change their mind about the use of their data after the deception is revealed Damage to a participant's self-esteem through feeling ashamed, guilty, stressed, embarrassed, feeling manipulated, or lacking control over their own experience Feeling forced to have knowledge about one's self that otherwise one might not want to know (sometimes called inflicted insight)[8] Creation of suspicion and/or distrust in the investigator and/or a generalized distrust of the broader research enterprise.

A depressed person encounters a former acquaintance who walks right by without saying hello. According to attributional models of depression, which of the following statements about the acquaintance's behavior would have the least negative influence on mood? A.I cant get anyone to notice me. B.Boy, he was in a hurry! C.I wonder what I did to make him angry. D.Boy, what a jerk!

B is correct. Specifically, these models propose thatdepression-prone individuals have a depressogenic inferential style that predisposes them to view the causes of negative life events as being internal ("my fault"), global ("affects everything in my life"), and stable ("always going to happen").

All of the following are elements of Alan Baddeley's construct of working memory except: A. executive functions. B. limited resources. C. separate auditory and phonological loops. D. long-term storage of information.

B is correct. The original model of Baddeley & Hitch was composed of three main components; the central executive which acts as supervisory system and controls the flow of information from and to its slave systems: the phonological loop and the visuo-spatial sketchpad. The phonological loop stores verbal content, whereas the visuo-spatial sketchpad caters to visuo-spatial data. Both the slave systems only function as short-term storage centers. In 2000 Baddeley added a third slave system to his model, the episodic buffer.

As part of a quality assurance initiative, an outpatient clinic specializing in eating disorders tracks the session-by-session improvement of clients. A well-regarded symptom-based outcome measure is used that has a high internal consistency reliability estimate (> .90). Each client is asked to complete a satisfaction measure at the end of treatment regarding receptionist and billing staff, office decor, therapist timeliness, etc. Each measure uses the same five-point Likert scale. To best profile this quality assurance data, the psychologist should recommend that the clinic calculate and examine: A. the single summative scale score for the outcome measure and individual item means on the satisfaction survey. B.all individual item means for both the outcome and satisfaction measures. C.two summative scores, one each for the outcome and satisfaction measures. D.a single summative score totaling items from both measures.

B. I think?

Physical dependence on a drug is: A. revealed when administration of a placebo produces withdrawal. B. always associated with drug tolerance. C. said to occur when it is required for normal functioning. D. said to occur when a larger dose of a drug is required to achieve the desired effect.

B. always associated with drug tolerance. Physical dependence is a physical condition caused by chronic use of a tolerance-forming drug, in which abrupt or gradual drug withdrawal causes unpleasant physical symptoms. Physical dependence can develop from low-dose therapeutic use of certain medications such as benzodiazepines, opioids, antiepileptics and antidepressants, as well as the recreational misuse of drugs such as alcohol, opioids, amphetamines and benzodiazepines. The higher the dose used, the greater the duration of use, and the earlier age use began are predictive of worsened physical dependence and thus more severe withdrawal syndromes. Acute withdrawal syndromes can last days, weeks or months. Protracted withdrawal syndrome, also known as post-acute-withdrawal syndrome or "PAWS", is a low-grade continuation of some of the symptoms of acute withdrawal, typically in a remitting-relapsing pattern, often resulting in relapse and prolonged disability of a degree to preclude the possibility of lawful employment. Protracted withdrawal syndrome can last for months, years, or depending on individual factors, indefinitely. Protracted withdrawal syndrome is noted to be most often caused by benzodiazepines. To dispel the popular misassociation with addiction, physical dependence to medications is sometimes compared to dependence on insulin by persons with diabetes.

Holding study time constant, the most effective strategy for remembering specific information in preparation for a test is to study: A. right before the test, so that retroactive interference does not affect test performance. B. well in advance of the test, so that proactive interference does not affect test performance. C. early and prepare completely several hours before the test, to maximize semantic consolidation. D. related concepts, to maximize proactive enhancement.

B. well in advance of the test, so that proactive interference does not affect test performance. 1. The development of a long-lasting memory during the period of time subsequent to an educational event. 2. the biological activities through which permanent memory is created. CONSOLIDATION: "The consolidation of memories occurs almost immediately upon the occurrence of an event or recollection of it

In the treatment of specific phobia, which of the following treatment strategies has been shown to be the most effective? A.Imaginal exposure B.Exposure in vivo C.Response prevention D.Cognitive restructuring.

B.Exposure in vivo The treatment of choice for a specific phobia is exposure therapy. "Exposure-based techniques, including virtual exposure, are highly effective, and are the foundation of treatment for specific phobias.

Self-report inventories of adult interests, values, and preferences assume that: A.values and preferences are stable dispositions, while interests are highly subject to change. B.interests, values, and preferences are stable dispositions. C.interests and preferences are stable dispositions, while values are highly subject to change. D.interests, values, and preferences are highly subject to change.

B.interests, values, and preferences are stable dispositions. Many personality tests, such as the MMPI or the MBTI add questions that are designed to make it difficult for a person to exaggerate traits and symptoms. However, these tests suffer from the inherent problems associated with personality theory and testing, in that personality is a fluid concept that can be difficult to define.

All of the following are true with respect to suicide except: A. people who commit suicide often do not do so while in an episode of depression. B. among the elderly, suicide rates are higher when a chronic physical disorder is present. C. suicide attempts are more frequent among men than women. D. suicide rates are much higher among separated or divorced persons

C is correct. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), men are more likely to die by suicide than women, but women are more likely to attempt suicide. Men are more likely to use more lethal methods, such as firearms or suffocation. Women are more likely than men to attempt suicide by poisoning.

The ABC model, in which A is the activating event, B is the belief about A, and C is the emotional consequence, would most likely be used by someone practicing an approach influenced by: A. Arnold Lazarus. B. William Glasser. C. Albert Ellis. D. Aaron Beck.

C is correct. Albert Ellis's REBT . Specifically, REBT is "the original form and one of the main pillars of cognitive-behavioral therapies(CBT)"(David et al., 2018). REBT along with Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy (CT) (1976), served as the basis for the development of CBT. •A: Activating Event (something happens to or around someone) B: Belief (the event causes someone to have a belief, either rational or irrational) C: Consequence (the belief has led to a consequence, with rational beliefs leading to healthy consequences and irrational beliefs leading to unhealthy consequences) D: Disputation (if one has held an irrational belief which has caused unhealthy consequences, they must dispute that belief and turn it into a rational belief) E: New Effect (the disputation has turned the irrational belief into a rational belief, and the person now has healthier consequences of their belief as a result)

According to the current DSM, which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? A.Disorganized speech B.Hallucinations C.Avolition D.Delusions

C is correct. Avolition, as a symptom of various forms of psychopathology, is the decrease in the motivation to initiate and perform self-directed purposeful activities. Such activities that appear to be neglected usually include routine activities, including hobbies, going to work and/or school, and most notably, engaging in social activities. In 2006, avolition was identified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), and has been observed in patients with bipolar disorder as well as resulting from trauma.

To minimize risk of toxic drug interaction, an individual who is taking MAO inhibitors must avoid ingestion of: A. dopamine. B.L-tryptophan. C. tyramine. D. acetylcholine

C is correct. If you take an MAOI and you eat high-tyraminefoods, tyramine can quickly reach dangerous levels. This can cause a serious spike in blood pressure and require emergency treatment. Avoid consuming foods that are high in tyramine if you take an MAOI. Tyramine occurs naturally in small amounts in protein-containing foods.

Policy at a school where a psychologist is employed requires that all incidents of suspected child abuse be reported to the principal. The psychologist observes and reports a parent who is repeatedly slapping a youngster after school, but the principal declines to take action, stating that this is a traditional parenting technique. The psychologist should: A. take no further action. B. encourage the principal to report the incident. C. report the incident to the appropriate agency. D. counsel the parents

C is correct. Mandatory reporting laws often state that apsychologist must report when there is "reasonable cause to suspect" that a child is the victim of abuse or neglect. While many laws define what constitutes "abuse" and "neglect," few indicate in their language how far into the past the mandate to reportextends

On which of the following tasks do individuals with autism perform well with respect to their mental age? A. False-belief task B. Wisconsin card-sorting task C. Embedded-figures task D. Tower of Hanoi task

C is correct. Previous work suggests children with autism show superior performance (in relation to their general mental age) on the Embedded Figures Test (EFT).

Clients who are recent Asian immigrants are most likely to expect therapists to play a/an: A. passive role. B. authoritarian role. C. insight-oriented role. D. objective and investigative role.

C is correct. The academic literature often suggests that Chinese people prefer directive approaches in therapy. However, studies on this topic are often based on therapists' self-reports: clients' perceptions are rarely considered. In addition to acculturation, writers have pointed out that enculturation (i.e., the degree to which persons retain the norms of their culture of origin) may influence client factors that play out in counseling, such as emotional expressiveness, attitude toward seeking psychological help, and beliefs regarding relationships (e.g., Sue & Sue, 2003; U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2001). These authors have posited that one's adherence to traditional Asian cultural values, which include hierarchical relationships, collectivism, and achievement orientation, could have an important role in the counseling process with Asian American clients

The Minority Identity Development Model is best described as a: A.schema to help psychologists understand minority client attitudes and behaviors within existing personality theories. B.theoretical model with strong empirical verification. C.four-stage identity developmental model that pertains specifically to the African American experience. D.comprehensive theory of personality development.

C is correct. The earliest model of minority identity development was introduced by Dr. William Cross in the 1970s. His Model of Nigrescence is a theory of identity development that offers an explanation of the individual, dynamic process of transformation of African Americans.

Research indicates that as infants get older, they prefer to look at stimuli that: A.are two dimensional (as opposed to three dimensional). B.have larger patterns. C.are of greater complexity. D.have darker patterns.

C is correct. Those that indicate an increase in look duration have been based on older (i.e., greater than about 6 months) infants and toddlers examining more complex (e.g., dynamic, chromatic) stimulus material.

The concept of validity generalization was developed through research employing which type of statistical analysis? A.Multiple regression B.Logistic regression C.Meta-analysis D.Item response theory

C is correct. Validity generalization refers to the demonstration that the validities of various selection devices generalize across different settings. The degree of validity generalization is typically established through the use of meta‐analysis.

Research testing components of Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) indicates that: A. eye movements contribute to the relaxation process. B. eye movements lead to brain changes. C. eye movements do not add to the efficacy of the treatment. D. the desensitization component is more effective when combined with other components.

C is correct. A key component of EMDR therapy is bilateral stimulation, usually therapist-guided eye movements, which initiate information processing on the targeted memory. This component has been found to significantly contribute to positive treatment effects (Lee and Cuijpers 2013). Some studies are suggestive of a unique contribution of the EMs to successful treatment (Andrade et al., 1997; Kavanagh et al., 2001; van den Hout et al., 2001; Lee and Drummond, 2008), while others have not find clear differences in the outcome comparing EMDR with and without EMs (Cahill et al., 1999; Davidson and Parker, 2001). Head-to-head comparison between the results of these early studies is not possible as they differ considerably in terms of design, samples and outcome measures. Therefore, some authors argue that the claims of no significant effect of the EMs on treatment outcome are unwarranted (Jeffries and Davis, 2013).

Which of the following issues contributes most significantly to the difficulty of assessment of a client with anorexia nervosa? A. Families of clients with anorexia nervosa often deny that their family member has a problem, and will not encourage the member to seek treatment. B. Clients with anorexia nervosa frequently become violent due to biochemical changes in the brain resulting from starvation. C. The client is likely to be uncooperative with assessment, due to the fact that the client is pleased with the low weight, and may not even present for assessment or therapy. D. Due to physical effects of anorexia nervosa, the client may exhibit cognitive dysfunction that may make interviewing difficult.

C is correct. Patients with eating disorders are typically terrified of weight gain and will go to great lengths to avoid this outcome. To decrease anxiety about weight gain, patients sometimes adopt behaviors that they believe will "protect" them from gaining weight—eg, scrutinizing body parts, daily weighing, following strict rules about when and how much to eat, and overexercising. Patients become highly invested in these safety behaviors, which results in decreased willingness to change them and increases therapeutic resistance.

During a therapy session, a client discusses a family member she intends to harm. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, which of the following best represents what is expected of the psychologist regarding the duty to protect the family member? A. The psychologist may not breach confidentiality. B. The psychologist must breach confidentiality and tell the intended victim of the danger. C. The psychologist may breach confidentiality and tell law enforcement personnel of the danger to the intended victim. D. The psychologist must hospitalize the patient.

C. The psychologist may breach confidentiality and tell law enforcement personnel of the danger to the intended victim. Duty to warn refers to the responsibility of a counselor or therapist to inform third parties or authorities if a client poses a threat to himself or herself or another identifiable individual. It is one of just a few instances where a therapist can breach client confidentiality. The duty to warn and protect has been upheld in other states and has become the standard of practice for mental health professionals. The duty to protect continues, however, to be open for interpretation throughout the United States. In deciding whether duty to protect is present under the law, judges generally consider whether (a) there was a special relationship and the client communicated an intended threat directly to the therapist, (b) harmful action (such as severe injury, death, or psychological harm) was foreseeable and imminent, and (c) the victim was identifiable. Different interpretations in various jurisdictions can result in apparent inconsistencies. Although many cases have issued rulings consistent with Tarasoff, others have resulted in rulings that allow a cause of action to a "foreseeable" victim who may or may not have been identifiable by a therapist.

In an organizational development intervention, survey methods generally are used to: A. determine whether or not an intervention was successful. B. examine whether there is employee support for a planned intervention. C. collect information from employees about areas of concern. D. assess whether an intervention is feasible, given the time and/or costs.

C. collect information from employees about areas of concern Organizational Development techniques An organization will work together with a team of change agents in order to draft up the intervention plan and agree on the changes and techniques that are to be implemented. The following activities aim to help both organizations and employees get closer to and fulfill their potential. The survey technique involves data be collected via a questionnaire. The collected information is meant to help managers make decisions. The answers to the survey feedback will range from quality of work, working condition, working hours, salaries, and employees' attitude in relation to all of the above. The team of managers proceeds to analyze and interpret the gathered data. They pinpoint problems, assess the results and start drafting plans for solutions. All the members of the organization are expected to submit this data. Manager meetings are meant to bring subordinates and superiors together in order to discuss the information and interpret it. All levels of management play an active role in this technique whose end result is implementing necessary changes.

Contemporary sexual identity development models suggest that a psychologically healthy 21-year-old experiencing sexual identity confusion would most likely benefit from: A. group psychotherapy.. B. information and community resources. C. encouragement to commit to his/her sexual identity. D. reading about famous gay men and lesbians.

C. encouragement to commit to his/her sexual identity. Developing a personal lesbian/gay/bisexual identity status- A "sense of personal socio-affectional stability that effectively summarizes thoughts, feelings, and desires" (D'Augelli 1994). One must also challenge internalized myths about what it means to be gay, lesbian, or bisexual. Developing a personal identity status must be done in relationship with others who can confirm ideas about what it means to be non-heterosexual. Developing a lesbian/gay/bisexual social identity- Creating a support network of people who know and accept one's sexual orientation. Determining people's true reactions can take time. Reactions may also change over time and with changing circumstances.

Research suggests that gender-based differences in social behavior are: A. most pronounced with regard to motor development. B. most pronounced during interactions in mixed-sex groups. C. most pronounced during interactions in same-sex groups. D. not discernible until children reach puberty.

C. most pronounced during interactions in same-sex groups. While both genders participate in many kinds of social inter-actions, ranging from dyadic friendships to large groups, large-scale cooperation is a distinctive attribute of male sociality across the life span. Males are more likely to engage in cooperative group activities, form larger groups than females,and engage in frequent and intense between-group competition against other male groups. Male groups are characterized by stable internal hierarchies of status and dominance; within groups, competition tends to be individualistic or one-on-one. The dynamics of cooperation and competition in females are more complex and nuanced than their male counterparts.Female friendship tends to be more complex and less focused on shared activities than male friendships. Starting from middle childhood, females are more likely to form dyadic relationships characterized by high levels of intimacy,emotional support, exclusivity, and reciprocity. In turn,dyads are embedded in larger social networks in which hierarchies tend to be more fluid than those of male groups(Ellis et al., 2008;Geary, 2010;Geary et al., 2003). Peer relations in females are strongly influenced by norms of caring and equality. Superiority and overt competition are discouraged, and -unlike in male groups -high-status peers are often the target of dislike and denigration. Accordingly,female competition is often indirect and balanced by egalitarian concerns; displays of overt competitiveness are usually restricted to high-status females. A prominent feature of female social relationships is social exclusion, an indirect aggression tactic in which a target individual is ostracized by the others. Both threats of social exclusion and actual episodes of ostracism are more common in female groups, especially in childhood and adolescence. Across cultures, girls engage more frequently in cooperative, non aggressive social play,whereas boys show a higher frequency of play fighting and'rough-and-tumble'play (about 3-6 times as much as girls;Geary, 2010), as well as higher levels of between-group competition. Both genders engage in socio-dramatic play, in which social episodes are enacted based on everyday or fantastic themes. However, boys'themes more frequently involve power, dominance, and aggression, whereas girls'themes tend to involve interpersonal and family relationships(including play parenting). Gender differences in play behavior peak in middle childhood, around 8-10 years of age. Males tend to form larger, activity-oriented, competitive groups in which hierarchies tend to be stable and individual relationships require comparatively little emotional investment. Competition often involves direct forms of aggression. Intimate, high-intensity dyadic relationships play a bigger role in female social networks. Female groups are more emotion-focused and are characterized by unstable hierarchies and strong egalitarian norms; competition is often indirect and less openly confrontational. Aggression shows robust patterns of gender differences. Direct aggression -especially physical aggression -is higher in males; indirect forms of aggression are higher in females, though the size of the effect is considerably smaller.Gender differences in play behavior peak in middle childhood and mirror the broader pattern of gendered social dynamics:males engage in more play fighting and between-group competition, while females engage in more cooperative play centered around relational theme

Boys are most likely to show adverse effects from their parent's divorce through: A. withdrawal. B. increased reliance on siblings for emotional support. C. poor academic achievement. D. problems with peers.

C. poor academic achievement. Boys are more likely to react to parents' divorce with anger, academic problems, truancy or aggressive behavior than girls, who may try to please adults by suppressing feelings. Boys are more likely to suffer from depression when one parent leaves the home, especially when a boy is not able to spend time with them consistently.

In order to increase the probability that a client will achieve a particular goal, the psychologist should make the goal: A. relatively difficult and general. B. relatively easy and general. C. relatively easy and specific. D. relatively difficult and specific

C. relatively easy and specific. Clear goal setting is vital when helping people in therapy. The mind needs a clear orientation (especially when it's all emotional) and a compelling 'blueprint' fixed within consciousness of how things can be better in the future. Your goal setting needs to be: -positively orientated -specific (and if necessary broken down into manageable steps) -compelling (remember the sizzle!) -made more compelling through maximizing curiosity.

One of the three client characteristics that must be present for adequate informed consent to treatment is: A.an adequate understanding of the therapeutic process. B.a willingness to be open with the therapist. C.the capacity to make rational decisions. D.the consent of a guardian

C. the capacity to make rational decisions (a) When conducting research or providing assessment, therapy, counseling, or consulting services, obtain the informed consent of the individual(s) using language that is reasonably understandable expect when conducting such activities without consent is mandated by law or as otherwise provided in the Code (b) For people who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, you nevertheless (1) provide an appropriate explanation, (2) seek the individual's assent, (3) consider their preferences and best interests, and (4) obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person (c) When psychological services are court ordered or otherwise mandated, inform the individual of the nature of anticipated services, including any limits of confidentiality (d) Appropriately document written or oral consent, permission, and assent

Rotating a factor analysis solution is useful because it: A.allows for the use of significance testing. B.improves the mathematical fit of the solution. C.aids in interpreting the solution. D.eliminates nonsignificant eigenvalues.

C.aids in interpreting the solution. This rotation can be calculated more quickly than a direct oblimin rotation, so it is useful for large datasets. Display. Allows you to include output on the rotated solution, as well as loading plots for the first two or three factors. Rotated Solution. A rotation method must be selected to obtain a rotated solution.

Military-style boot camps are promoted as an effective "get tough" approach for adolescents with conduct disorder. These programs emphasize discipline, obedience to authority, and the acquisition of social skills. Meta-analyses reveal that boot camp interventions for conduct disorder: A.are more effective than individual psychotherapy. B.lead to increased obedience and decreased recidivism. C.are possibly harmful, making behaviors worse. D.decrease externalizing behaviors, but increase internalizing problems.

C.are possibly harmful, making behaviors worse. Youth diagnosed with "conduct disorder" are often placed in programs using forced compliance and coercive control. One type of intervention used to treat conduct disorder is the boot camp. The basic idea is that disruptive behaviors can be corrected by strict behavioral regulation and an emphasis on skills training (Weis & Toolis 2009; Weis, Whitemarsh, & Wilson, 2005). The intention of boot camps is to shock juveniles into complying and exhibiting more prosocial behaviors. Unfortunately, this method of rehabilitation is not based on empirical evidence nor supported by research (Garascia, 2005). This article highlights the confusion surrounding the diagnosis of "conduct disorder," and the lack of evidence for punitive interventions in popular use. A review from 2007 lists some psychological interventions that are potentially harmful, such as critical incidence stress debriefing, grief counselling for normal bereavement, and boot camp interventions for conduct disorder

Aphasia is to speech as apraxia is to: A.posture. B.touch. C.skilled movement. D.comprehension

C.skilled movement. Apraxia is a motor disorder caused by damage to the brain in which the individual has difficulty with the motor planning to perform tasks or movements when asked, provided that the request or command is understood and the individual is willing to perform the task.

An individual with chronic mental illness and alcohol dependence is advised to avoid people, places, and things that may trigger use of alcohol. According to learning theory, this suggested strategy is an example of: A.aversive conditioning. B.negative reinforcement. C.stimulus control. D.intermittent reinforcement.

C.stimulus control. Psychologists say an operant behavior is under stimulus control if it is triggered (or suppressed) by certain stimuli. Because an organism must discriminate between controlling stimuli to respond appropriately, they are called discriminative stimuli. Stimulus control is a term used to describe situations in which a behavior is triggered by the presence or absence of some stimulus. If a person always eats when watching TV, then (in the operant conditioning use of the term) eating behavior is controlled by the stimulus of watching TV.

Maximizing the cognitive potential of an infant is best aided by an environment that: A. provides situations that are always within the infant's range of cognitive abilities. B. fulfills all the infant's emotional and physical needs. C. provides daily problem-solving tasks. D. presents problem-solving situations together with opportunities for success and praise.

D is correct Early mental development has been linked to preschool cognitive and behavioural outcomes (Hsiao & Richter 2014), and the intellectual stimulation of infants and young children by means of early childhood development programmes has been shown to correlate with achievement in school and in life (Frede et al. 2009). Furthermore, early interventions that focus on the development of skills in infants and young children could increase the effectiveness of later interventions. During this period, vulnerability to negative influences is high, but there are also great opportunities for unlocking potential with the assistance of intervention programmes (Allen & Duncan Smith 2008). The impact of the social environment and the caregiver relationship on cognitive and social-emotional development is supported by theory and practice (e.g. Murray et al. 2016). Vygotsky (1978) distinguished between lower mental functions present at birth and complex mental activities that require mediation to develop. Developmental opportunities are created in the way the caregiver communicates and stimulates the child. In the early days of an infant's life, he or she can recognise the mother's voice and prefers it over other sounds (Cooper & Aslin 1994). Studies with infants and toddlers show that reduced verbal interaction could cause delays in language development (Christakis et al. 2009), whereas regular reading to young children improves their language ability (Richert et al. 2010). Given the value of personal interaction in early stimulation and infant learning, this was used as the medium for presenting the present program. The program promotes bonding between the parent and the baby. The program avoids the use of technology and the stimulation is presented through direct communication in a positive learning environment. Emphasis is placed on the infant's comfort and the need for affection and encouragement from the parent. The findings indicate that appropriate intervention taps into the cognitive processing potential of infants, thus increasing their cognitive ability and enhancing their social-emotional functioning. The stimulation provided by parents and primary caregivers is essential in enhancing this experience-dependent development.

A mother and her infant are alone in a room. A stranger enters and the mother leaves the room. When the mother returns to the room, the infant immediately begins playing, apparently happily, with the toys provided. Which attachment classification is most likely to be appropriate for this infant? A. Disorganized B. Anxious resistant C. Avoidant D. Secure

D is correct • Mother is present: o The child demonstrates secure attachment by feeling safe enough to explore the world and engage in play. o The mother's proximity creates what is called 'secure base' - a space of security from which the child feels to free to explore the world. • Mother leaves: o The child protests - e.g. by crying or trying regain closeness. o The distress is not desperate as the child trusts his or her mother to return. • Mother returns: o The child shows signs of being pleased or is quickly comforted if he or she is upset. o The child will soon re-enter 'secure base' and feel safe enough to play again.

For an individual with alcoholism who is not in recovery, which of the following drug classes is potentially the most dangerous? A. Tricyclic antidepressants B. Serotonin uptake inhibitors C. Neuroleptics D. MAO inhibitors

D is correct (MAOI). Monoamine-oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) A substance called tyramine, found in some alcoholic drinks, such as wine,beer and sherry, can cause serious side effects if taken with MAOIs, including a sudden and dangerous rise in blood pressure.

Studies by both Jean Piaget and information-processing researchers have shown that a child's long-term recall of things he or she has seen: A. cannot be influenced by adult's leading questions. B. is permanent and unchanging. C. is represented verbally beginning at the age of 18 months - two years. D. can change with development and subsequent experience.

D is correct. The accuracy of recalled childhood memories in adulthood is the subject of extensive research and debate. Controversies exist surrounding the authenticity of recovered memories, particularly in the context of child abuse or trauma, such as the debatable accuracy of the spontaneous recovery of distressing memories that were previously forgotten due to inhibitory control. Because memory is reconstructive, false memoriesmay be recalled. Errors might be made even with authentic memories when the adult has to infer missing details, is given inadequate retrieval cues, or recalls inaccurate details due to the power of suggestion from a therapist.

The attachment of infants to their mothers and fathers, which depends on appropriate parental response during a brief sensitive period of the infant's life, is suggestive of:A. internalization. B. contact conditioning. C. habituation. D. imprinting

D is correct. The idea of imprinting was discovered by the English biologist Douglas Spalding, who, whilst observing the behavior of chicks and adult chickens, noted the "stamping in" of the impression left by the first moving object that a chick saw. Across many birds and mammals, the first movement seen by newborns is the mother, and as Spalding observed, the chicks would follow their mother around as a result

Research on computerized adaptive testing (CAT) indicates that examinations administered in this framework: A.function best with relatively homogeneous item difficulties. B.function efficiently only when the item pool contains over 1000 items. C.are less dependent on the quality of the item pool than a traditionally administered examination. D.use fewer items to achieve precision greater than or equal to that of traditionally administered tests.

D is correct. An adaptive test can typically be shortened by 50% and still maintain a higher level of precision than a fixed version. This translates into a time savings for the test-taker. Test-takers do not waste their time attempting items that are too hard or trivially easy. Additionally, the testing organization benefits from the time savings; the cost of examinee seat time is substantially reduced. However, because the development of a CAT involves much more expense than a standard fixed-form test, a large population is necessary for a CAT testing program to be financially fruitful.

Depressed individuals, compared with non-depressed individuals, are more likely to make which kinds of attributions for negative life events? A. External, unstable, and specific B. External, stable, and global C. Internal, stable, and global D. Internal, stable, and specific

D is correct. Beck's cognitive triad, also known as the negative triad, is a cognitive-therapeutic view of the three key elements of a person's belief system present in depression. It was proposed by Aaron Beck in 1976. The three attributional dimensions are - Internal vs. External; -Global v. Specific -Stable vs. Unstable If negative events are interpreted as internal, global, and stable then clinical depression becomes a significant probability For example if someone loses a job, and they attribute it to some failing on their part (internal), see things as similarly not working out for them in other areas (global), and see a long term pattern of failure and disappointment in the future (stable) they are likely to become depressed.

The concept of multifinality in child psychopathology means that: A. similar emotional and behavioral disturbances stem from different early experiences. B. children express features of emotional and behavioral disturbances in different ways. C. there is a sequence and timing of specific behaviors in the development of behavioral and emotional disturbances. D. different emotional and behavioral disturbances may stem from the same early experiences.

D is correct. Multifinality literally means "many ends." This refers to people having similar histories (e.g., child sexual abuse, death of a parent, or a secure attachment history) yet their developmental outcomes can vary widely.

The determination of sample size needed for a given level of confidence depends in part on the: A.variance of the scores. B.importance of the decisions to be based on the results. C.results of Monte Carlo studies. D.size of the population

D is correct. The Cochran formula allows you to calculate an ideal sample size given a desired level of precision, desired confidence level, and the estimated proportion of the attribute present in the population. Cochran's formula is considered especially appropriate in situations with large populations. A sample of any given size provides more information about a smaller population than a larger one, so there's a 'correction' through which the number given by Cochran's formula can be reduced if the whole population is relatively small.

According to Paul Hersey and Ken Blanchard's situational leadership model, a leader's style is most influenced by: A.task orientation and relationship orientation. B.decision effectiveness and position power. C.participation and decision effectiveness. D.task orientation and subordinate orientation.

D is correct. The Situational Leadership Model has two fundamental concepts: leadership style and the individual or group's performance readiness level, also referred to as maturity level or development level.

Determination of competency to stand trial is a: A. decision made by a jury. B. legal issue decided by the court. C. clinical issue decided by the evaluator. D. decision made by the court and the evaluator.

D is correct. The determination of whether a defendant is competent is left to the judge. The judge must decide competency before trial, as soon as reasonably possible after it comes into question. The prosecution, defense counsel, and even the court can raise the issue at any time. Competency usually comes into doubt when the defendant's behavior indicates a lack of understanding. In some states, if defense attorneys believe there is any question about competency they must ask the court to have the defendant evaluated.When a legitimate question arises as to competency, the defendant has a right to a hearing to determine fitness to stand trial. All trial courts have authority to order psychological evaluations of defendants, and in many states, an evaluation is automatic once a party raises the competency issue. Judges are to give great weight to the results of an evaluation, but can consider other factors, too, like the defendant's demeanor in court. Among the points a court should consider are whether the defendant can: -adequately communicate with defense counsel -understand and process information -make decisions regarding the case, and understand the elements of the charges, the gravity of the charges, and the possible penalties. A defendant's unintelligence, education level, language difficulties, and challenges communicating are generally insufficient to support a finding of incompetency.

In individuals with chronic alcoholism, Wernicke's encephalopathy may develop as a result of: A.liver failure. B.malabsorption. C.the neurotoxic effects of alcohol. D.thiamine deficiency

D is correct. An important cause of acute or subacute delirium, Wernicke encephalopathy (WE) is a neurological disorder induced by thiamine, vitamin B1, deficiency.

The correlation between two observed scores is attenuated by: A.large sample size. B.high variability in the scores. C.small standard error of measurement. D.unreliability of the measures.

D is correct. Attenuation is a statistical concept that refers to underestimating thecorrelation between two different measures because of measurement error. ... Hence, when correlatingscores from two survey instruments, the obtained correlation may be substantively lower if the scorereliabilities from both instruments are suspect

An advantage of the classical test theory over the item response theory model is that classical test theory: A.requires relatively smaller sample sizes for stable item statistics. B.provides an estimate of how an item performs at different levels of the construct being tested. C.explicitly models the likelihood of guessing behavior. D.provides item statistics that are independent of the distribution of ability in the sample.

D is correct. Classical test theory (CTT) is all about reliability, in psychology, reliability refers to how consistent a test or measure is. In other words, if you took the same test several times, you should get about the same score each time. Traditionally, methods of analysis based on classical test theory have been used to evaluate tests. The focus of the analysis is on the total test score; frequency of correct responses (to indicate question difficulty); frequency of responses (to examine distracters); reliability of the test and item-total correlation (to evaluate discrimination at the item level) (Impara & Plake, 1997). Although these statistics have been widely used, one limitation is that they relate to the sample under scrutiny and thus all the statistics that describe items and questions are sample dependent (Hambelton, 2000). This critique may not be particularly relevant where successive samples are reasonably representative and do not vary across time, but this will need to be confirmed and complex strategies have been proposed to overcome this limitation.... Item response theory(IRT) is a bit more complicated than CTT. Rather than looking at the reliability of the test as a whole, IRTlooks at each item. Basically, IRTsuggests a test taker's ability is independent from the item or question on a test. The benefit of the item response theory is that its treatment of reliability and error of measurement through item information function are computed for each item (Lord, 1980). These functions provide a sound basis for choosing items in test construction. The item information function takes all items parameters into account and shows the measurement efficiency of the item at different ability levels. Another advantage of the item response theory is the invariance of item parameters which pertains to the sample-free nature of its results. In the theory the item parameters are invariant when computed in groups of different abilities. This means that a uniform scale of measurement can be provided for use in different groups. It also means that groups as well as individuals can be tested with a different set of items, appropriate to their ability levels and their scores will be directly comparable (Anastasi & Urbina, 2002)

Which of the following are characteristic of Western counseling theories? A. Abstraction, linear thinking, cause-and-effect relationships B. Context-bound, linear thinking, group emphasis C. Concrete reference, circular reasoning, nonlinear relationships D. Context-bound, nonlinear relationships, abstraction

D is correct. Cultures that value structure and linear thinking might have difficulty with cognitive therapy. Generally, Western approaches place more focus on psychopathology and rely on a medical model of alleviating symptoms, Thompson says. Although Eastern approaches can also be applied to psychopathology and the alleviation of symptoms, their primary focus tends to be on flourishing and achieving optimal human development through leading an ethical life. Western approaches place more emphasis on correction and on mitigating feelings and symptoms. Eastern approaches, on the other hand, are more aimed at liberation and "setting [people] truly free so they can be in charge of their feeling states and so they can control their thoughts. In traditional Western thought, emotional problems aren't viewed as affecting the body, Del Vecchio-Scully says, whereas in traditional Eastern thought, it is all interactive. "Everything that happens in the body affects the mind and emotions, and vice versa. With many Eastern approaches, it is assumed that people will fix themselves, often by paying close attention to themselves and their surroundings, he says. In the West, that control tends to be externally located, he says, with the expectation being that the "right" technique or intervention will fix the client.

The complex nucleic acids RNA and DNA have been identified as the vehicles that carry the genetic code. Studies suggest that these nucleic acids may play a role in adaptive behavior as well, and evidence has been cited for their function in: A. consciousness. B. memory. C. social motivation. D. creativity.

D is correct. Genome-wide copy number variation analysis in extended families and unrelated individuals characterized for musical aptitude and creativity in music. One study found that an increased presence of a particular cluster of genes (associated with plasticity in the brain) could heighten someone's chance of harboring creative thought - this is because these particular genes are associated with the brain's ability to break and form new connections between cells. In human terms, this genetic makeup can make you a faster learner. Something which is generally considered to be an asset to creativity, but not a sure-fire root to achieving it.

The concept of groupthink suggests that high group cohesiveness: A. results in a greater degree of individual creativity. B. leads to conservative decisions. C. is more frequent when the group is composed of relative strangers. D. refers to the tendency for cohesive groups to avoid evaluating their own decisions.

D is correct. Groupthink is a psychological phenomenonthat occurs within a group of people in which the desire for harmony or conformity in the group results in an irrational or dysfunctional decision-making outcome. Group members try to minimize conflict and reach a consensus decision without critical evaluationof alternative viewpoints by actively suppressing dissenting viewpoints, and by isolating themselves from outside influences

A psychologist is asked to administer a test to an individual whose special needs (age, disability, etc.) fall outside the psychologist's experience. According to the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, the psychologist must: Administer the test and then consult with another professional who has relevant experience in order to properly score and interpret it. B. consult with another professional who has relevant experience before selecting, modifying, or administering the test. C. not administer the test; instead, the psychologist should base recommendations on an interview with the individual. D. complete a supervised practicum of sufficient length and rigor to allow the psychologist to obtain competency in the testing of such individuals.

D is the correct answer. Psychologists strive to maintain high standards of competence in their work. They recognize the boundaries of their particular competencies and the limitations of their expertise. They provide only those services and use only those techniques for which they are qualified by education, training, or experience. Psychologists are cognizant of the fact that the competencies required in serving, teaching, and/or studying groups of people vary with the distinctive characteristics of those groups. In those areas in which recognized professional standards do not yet exist, psychologists exercise careful judgment and take appropriate precautions to protect the welfare of those with whom they work. They maintain knowledge of relevant scientific and professional information related to the services they render...

Which part of the brain is particularly important in the consolidation of short-term and long-term memory? A. Reticular formation B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Hippocampus

D. Hippocampus The hippocampus is a major component of the brain of humans and other vertebrates. Humans and other mammals have two hippocampi, one in each side of the brain. The hippocampus is part of the limbic system, and plays important roles in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory, and in spatial memory that enables navigation. The hippocampus is located under the cerebral cortex in the allocortex, and in primates it is in the medial temporal lobe. It contains two main interlocking parts: the hippocampus proper and the dentate gyrus.

A psychologist is asked to determine whether a nine-year-old with a hearing impairment and cerebral palsy also has an intellectual developmental disorder. Which of the following combinations of tests would be best to include in the evaluation? A. Leiter International Performance Scale and Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales B. Stanford Binet Intelligence Scale and Behavior Assessment System for Children C. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children and Achenbach Child Behavior Checklist D. Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test administered in American Sign Language (ASL) and Goodenough Draw-A-Man Test

D. Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test administered in American Sign Language (ASL) and Goodenough Draw-A-Man Test. -Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test—Second Edition (KBIT-2; Kaufman & Kaufman, 2004) to characterize participants' intellectual abilities. The KBIT-2 assesses verbal and nonverbal intelligence independently, providing a Verbal SS, Nonverbal SS, and an IQ Composite. Unlike full-scale IQ tests, the KBIT-2 does not assess visuospatial construction. The KBIT-2 is the intellectual ability test of choice for many researchers studying WS for two primary reasons. First, the KBIT-2 takes less than half the time to administer than a full-scale IQ test (e.g., DAS-II, WISC, WAIS). Second, administration requires considerably less training; the authors note that the KBIT-2 can be administered by properly trained paraprofessionals or technicians. The Draw-a-Person test (DAP, DAP test, or Goodenough-Harris Draw-a-Person test) is a psychological projective personality or cognitive test used to evaluate children and adolescents for a variety of purposes.

A client is seeking career counseling. The psychologist asks questions about the client's siblings, childhood illnesses, and high school achievement. The psychologist is most likely a proponent of: A. decision-making processes. B. client-centered perspectives. C. trait-and-factor theory. D. developmental models.

D. developmental models. Strengths-based Approach This approach changes the focus from the problem and deficits to the resources and strengths (Schutt, 2007). This approach is client-led, empowerment focused, and future-orientation. Career Construction Theory & Life Design The career construction theory (Savickas, 2005) is built on Super's theoretical framework with an additional focus on making meaning through a narrative approach. This theory goes beyond scores on assessments and encourages counselors to consider an individual's story including their context, with whom they interact, and how they derive meaning. Key concepts around this theory include: Self-construction: individuals develop from childhood where they first begin as actors, then agents, and finally authors of their lives and careers. Career adaptability: evolved from Super's concept of career maturity; it involves assessing the concern, identifying the developmental tasks, and exploring skills, and resources needed to resolve the tasks. Four dimensions of career adaptability include: Concern: acknowledging planning and optimism for future career options; this is opposite of indifference, apathy, or pessimism. Control: ability to take control over one's own career choices; this differs from indecision, confusion, procrastination, and impulsivity. Curiosity: process of becoming inquisitive about interests and alternatives rather than unrealistic beliefs about self and the environment. Confidence: increased self-efficacy or belief in career success; the alternative is career inhibition. Life themes that guide career choices address why people make their career choice, what personality types might fit with a particular career, and how the individual can adapt to their career choice (Swanson & Fouad, 2015).

As Type I (alpha) error increases, power: A. decreases; and as Type II error (beta) increases, power increases. B. increases; and as Type II error (beta) increases, power increases. C. decreases; and as Type II error (beta) increases, power decreases. D. increases; and as Type II error (beta) increases, power decreases.

D. is correct. The practical result of this is that if we require stronger evidence to reject the null hypothesis (smaller significance level = probability of a Type I error), we will increase the chance that we will be unable to reject the null hypothesis when in fact Ho is false (increases the probability of a Type II error). Decreasing the alpha reduces the risk of a Type I error Decreasing the alpha increases the risk of a Type II error Increasing sample size decreases beta/ increases power Increasing power decreases potential for Type II error

A divorced mother and three daughters (aged 12, 14, and 16) enter therapy. The daughters express rebellion and hostility over the marriage breakup. After much progress, the improved relationship yields a disclosure by the eldest daughter of ongoing incest with the father. The mother vows to seek immediate legal action to keep the father from further visitations. The therapist should: A. affirm the mother's intentions and maintain confidentiality. B. attempt to get the father into therapy to confront him with the disclosure and strongly urge him to seek treatment. C. explain that the therapist will be required to report the alleged incest if the mother does not follow through with her vow. D. report the alleged incest to the authorities, breaking confidentiality if necessary.

D. report the alleged incest to the authorities, breaking confidentiality if necessary. All psychologists are mandated reporters of child abuse and neglect. As such, psychologists are legally required to report any information concerning child abuse and neglect to the appropriate authorities.

A common neuropsychological deficit associated with the early stages of a neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is: A.dyscalculia. B.deteriorated intellectual functions. C.dyspraxia. D.memory impairment

D.memory impairment Early symptoms include: -Memory loss -Misplacing items -Forgetting the names of places and objects -Repeating themselves regularly, such as asking the same question several times -Becoming less flexible and more hesitant to try new things

Which of the following best explains the significant differences between mean IQ scores of European American and African American undergraduates? D. An inherent bias in IQ tests toward the majority group A. The difference in the quality of secondary education for European American and African American students B. Inherent brain differences between European American and African American students C. Differences between urban and suburban experiences

Further, there is little consensus regarding the definition of intelligence, the definition of test bias, the existence of test bias, the types of test biases, the impact of test bias on diverse students, and the nature and extent of test bias in contemporary or newly re-normed tests. These two educational fields rely extensively on tests to make educational and placement decisions. In gifted education, low test scores often prevent diverse students from being identified as gifted and receiving services; in special education, low test scores often result in identifications such as learning disabled, mentally retarded, and so forth. Racially and linguistically diverse students (African Americans, Hispanic Americans, and Native Americans) are under-represented in gifted education and over-represented in special education. In one camp, scholars argue that the low test performance of minority students can be attributed to cultural deprivation or disadvantage(s); connotatively, this refers to the notion of diverse students being inferior to other students (see Rushton, 2003). Unfortunately, deficit thinking orientations are present even today (e.g., Ford, Harris, Tyson, & Frazier Trotman, 2002). For instance, Frasier, García, and Passow (1995), and Harmon (2002) argued that teachers tend not to refer racially and culturally diverse students to gifted programs because of their deficit thinking and stereotypes about diverse students. When the focus is on what diverse students cannot do rather than what they can do, then they are not likely to be referred for gifted education services. In a different camp, scholars argue that minority students are culturally different, but not culturally disadvantaged or deficient (e.g., Boykin, 1986; Delpit, 1995; Erickson, 2004; Nieto, 1999; Rodriguez & Bellanca, 1996; Shade, Kelly, & Oberg, 1997). These individuals acknowledge that culture impacts test performance, but they do not equate or associate low performance with inferiority.