Practice Exam 1 Questions
An RDN completes a Nutrition-focused physical exam. He finds that the patient presents with pale conjunctiva, a smooth tongue, and spoon-shaped nails. Which of the following is most likely indicated, considering all the findings? Low iron Vitamin B-12 toxicity Low folate Low vitamin A
Pale conjunctiva and/or a smooth tongue could indicate iron, folate, and/or vitamin B-12 deficiencies. However, spoon-shaped nails indicate low iron and/or malnutrition. Therefore, a patient presenting with all three would most likely point toward low iron.
What are the estimated kcal, protein, and fluid needs of a healthy adult female over age 75? a. 30-35 kcal/kg, 0.8-1.0 g protein/kg, 20-25 mL/kg b. 20-24 kcal/kg, 1.0-1.2 g protein/kg, 25-30 mL/kg c. 25-40 kcal/kg, 1.2-1.5 g protein/kg, 35 mL/kg d. 18-22 kcal/kg, 1.0-1.2 g protein/kg, 25-30 mL/kg
Correct answer: 18-22 kcal/kg, 1.0-1.2 g protein/kg, 25-30 mL/kg Healthy older adults have decreased energy needs as basal metabolic rate decreases with age. Healthy adult females need 18-22 kcal/kg and healthy adult males need 20-24 kcal/kg.
What type of menu pricing takes into account the customers' expectations? Food cost Cost approach Item contribution margin Marketing approach
Correct answer: Marketing approach The marketing approach to menu pricing takes into account the customers' expectations of pricing. For example, a fast-food restaurant would consider that low prices are expected. The cost approach to menu pricing is based on operating and food costs and profit goals. Food cost and item contribution margin are both types of cost approach.
Which of the following lists includes an item that does not affect resting energy expenditure (REE)? Body size, climate, gender Age, digestion, body composition Nicotine, alcohol, lean body mass Hormonal status, temperature, caffeine
Correct answer: Age, digestion, body composition Resting energy expenditure (REE) is affected by: Age Body composition Body size Climate Gender Hormonal status Temperature Caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol Digestion of food is not considered to be at rest, so this is not a factor that affects REE. Digestion is a component of the thermic effect of food (TEF).
A recipe requires 8 lbs of cauliflower florets. If a whole cauliflower has a yield of 68%, how much cauliflower must be purchased to make the recipe? 13 lbs 25 lbs 12 lbs 9 lbs
Correct answer: 12 lbs To get the As Purchased (AP) amount of how much cauliflower is needed to make the recipe, you need to divide the Edible Product (EP) weight (8 lbs) by the yield percentage. AP = EP / Yield % 8 lbs / 68% = .117 or 12 lbs
Calculate the Ideal Body Weight (IBW) for a 5'10" male with his left leg amputated below the knee. 172 lbs 159 lbs 166 lbs 156 lbs
Correct answer: 156 lbs The Ideal Body Weight (IBW) for a 5'10" male: 106 lbs for the first 5 feet and then 6 lbs for each additional inch (10x6) = 106 + 60 = 166 lbs Left leg amputation below the knee subtracts 5.9% from the ideal body weight. Estimated IBW = [(100 - %amputation /100] x IBW for original height Estimated IBW = [(100-5.9) / 100] X 166 = (94.1/100) x 166 = 156.2 (round down to 156 lbs)
At a community health center, 200 newly pregnant women entered a healthy pregnancy program. They were all tested upon admission to the program. Of the 200 women, 15 were found to have pre-eclampsia. During the course of the program, 30 additional women developed pre-eclampsia. What is the incidence rate for women to develop pre-eclampsia during the program? 15% 16% 20% 5%
Correct answer: 16% Incidence Rate (IR) = number of new cases during a specific period, divided by the total number of a defined population at risk at the time of getting the disease. Incidence Rate = [30 new cases / 185 (women who were not initially identified as having pre-eclampsia)] x 100 IR = 16.2% (round down to 16%)
What are the Kcal, protein, and fluid recommendations you would make for a 26-year-old female, 5'2", who has been breastfeeding for the past six months, and who plans to continue breastfeeding for about another six months? Her pregravid weight was 130 lbs. 2000-2300 kcal, 150 grams protein, fluid to thirst 1600-1900 kcal, 80 grams protein, 2 L fluids 2250-2350 kcal, 90 grams protein, 2 L fluids 1800-2100 kcal, 90 grams protein, fluid to thirst
Correct answer: 1800-2100 kcal, 90 grams protein, fluid to thirst The kcal needs for lactation are an additional 330 kcal (during the first six months of breastfeeding), added to the kcal needed for weight maintenance (25-30 kcal/kg) based on the pregravid weight. Protein needs are 25 additional grams per day, with the base being 1.1 g/kg/day based on the pregravid weight. Lactating mothers should drink to thirst. While lactation does require increased amounts of fluids, there is no advantage to drinking in excess of thirst. Calculation: kcal: 130 / 2.2 = 59.09 kg x 25-30 (weight maintenance) = 1477-1772 kcal + 330 = 1807- 2102 kcal (round to 1800 and 2100) protein: 130 / 2.2 = 59.09 kg x 1.1 = 65 grams + 25 = 90g protein A current weight could also be used to calculate the kcal needs, but protein needs are always based on pregravid weight. Calorie intake should not be less than 1800 during lactation.
Hospital food service positions cover a seven-day week. If an employee works five days each week, how many regular employees can be covered by one relief employee? 1.4 2 2.5 3.5
Correct answer: 2.5 Hospital food service positions cover a 7-day week. Employees have 5 work days and 2 days off. A relief worker covers those 2 days off and can also work a 5-day week. So the relief worker can cover the days off of 2.5 full-time workers each week. 5/2 = 2.5
Calculate the food cost percent of the following information: Cost of food sold: $18,000 Food sales: $72,000 FTE (full-time employee) Hourly rate: $14.00 Beverage sales: $6,000 20% 25% 31% 33%
Correct answer: 25% Food cost percent = cost of food sold / food sales 18,000 / 72,000 = 0.25 To get the percent: 0.25 x 100 = 25% Beverage sales are not part of the food cost percent. FTE (full-time employee) hourly rate is irrelevant information.
If a restaurant purchases 20 pounds of fresh broccoli, and after trimming and cleaning, the weight of the broccoli is 15 pounds, what is the percentage of trim loss? 25% 75% 33.33% 133.33%
Correct answer: 25% Trim loss percentage is a calculation used to determine the percentage of food that is lost during preparation, expressed as a percentage of the original weight of the food. To calculate the trim loss percentage, subtract the weight of the broccoli after trimming and cleaning (EP) from the weight of the broccoli before any preparation (AP), then divide the result by the weight of the broccoli before any preparation (AP), and multiply by 100 to convert the answer to a percentage. (AP - EP) ÷ AP x 100 = trim loss percentage (20 lbs - 15 lbs) ÷ 20 lbs x 100 = 25%
Dextrose solutions should not be administered at a rate higher than ______ mg/kg/minute. 5-6 2-3 7-8 4-5
Correct answer: 4-5 Dextrose solutions should not be administered at a rate higher than 4-5 mg/kg of body weight per minute. Excessive administration can lead to hyperglycemia, hepatic abnormalities, or increased ventilatory drive.
What number of productive FTEs do you need for three 7-day-per-week positions, working 7:30 am to 4:00 pm, with a 30-minute lunch break? 2.4 3.4 4.2 4.5
Correct answer: 4.2 3 x 8 hours x 7 days = 168 hours / 40 hours = 4.2 FTEs
In a PN mixture, what volume of the amino acid solutions listed would come closest to providing 185 calories? 850 mL of 5.5% amino acids 1000 mL of 8.5% amino acids 500 mL of 10% amino acids 250 mL of 8.5% amino acids
Correct answer: 850 ml of 5.5% amino acids The amino acid percentage is the number of grams of protein in 1000 mL of solution. To get the answer, you multiply the volume of the mixture by the amino acid percentage and then multiply the grams of protein by 4 to get the total number of calories of protein. 850 mL x 5.5% = 46.75 g x 4 kcal = 187 kcal 1000 mL x 8.5% = 85 g x 4 kcal = 340 kcal 500 mL x 10% = 50 g x 4 kcal = 200 250 mL x 8.5% = 21.25 g x 4 kcal = 85 kcal
Ms. Johan is an 80-year-old female who has been diagnosed as being at risk for osteoporosis. She comes to you because she is interested in decreasing her risk. In your initial session, she reports the following: Consumes 1-2 cups of coffee (8 oz each) per day Has 1 glass of wine, three times per week Vitamin D level tested by her doctor was 18 ng/mL From her diet recall, she consumes around 1,000 mg of calcium most days Which of the following would be the best recommendations you could make based on this information? Add 1-2 servings per day of foods labeled as having "excellent" or "good" levels of calcium; add a daily 800 IU supplement of vitamin D. Add a daily 1,000 mg calcium supplement; add a daily 1,000 IU supplement of vitamin D. Decrease her coffee intake to 1 cup per day; add a daily 1,000 IU supplement of vitamin D. Eliminate her alcohol intake; add 2 servings per day of high vitamin D foods.
Correct answer: Add 1-2 servings per day of foods labeled as having "excellent" or "good" levels of calcium; add a daily 800 IU supplement of vitamin D. Research has shown that up to 400 mg/day of caffeine does not have negative effects on bone density. A typical cup of coffee is around 95 mg of caffeine. Therefore, she does not need to decrease her coffee intake. Alcohol at high levels is a risk factor that negatively impacts bone health. Ms. Johan's intake of 1 glass, 3 times per week, is a low level of alcohol, and therefore she does not need to change that. Normal vitamin D levels are 20-50 ng/mL. The recommendation for low vitamin D is to take 800 IU of a vitamin D supplement. The vitamin D content of foods is generally not high enough to be beneficial. Recommended calcium intake for Ms. Johan's age is 1200 mg/day. She is almost at that level, so adding a bit more food that has calcium is preferable to adding a supplement. Food labeling for "excellent" calcium means the food must provide >200 mg of calcium, and "good" must provide 100-200 mg of calcium. Adding 2 servings would put her usual daily intake at 1200 mg or higher. Adding a 1,000 mg calcium supplement would put her close to the upper limit for calcium intake of 2,000 mg/day in her age group.
Which of the following is an addition to the food label revision that began in January 2020? Servings per container Added sugars Trans fat Vitamin percent daily values
Correct answer: Added sugars The current food labels, since January 2020, include the addition of added sugars. Previous labels included calories from fat, which were removed from the labels as of January 2020. Both versions of labels include trans fats and Percent Daily Values for select vitamins.
Who is responsible for completing the nutrition screening? Admitting physician RDN Nursing staff Admitting health care professional
Correct answer: Admitting health care professional The nutrition screen is completed as part of the admission process. Therefore, whoever is completing the admission should complete the nutrition screen. This is often the admitting nurse, but it varies by facility. The nutrition screen should be quick, easy to administer, and cost-effective.
Which of the following statements related to nutrition screening is false? The nutrition screen identifies patients at nutrition risk. Nutrition screens do not have to be tested and validated. All patients should receive a nutrition assessment, but screening helps prioritize them. The nutrition screen helps to provide cost-effective nutrition services.
Correct answer: All patients should receive a nutrition assessment, but screening helps prioritize them. Not all patients are in need of nutrition assessment. The nutrition screen identifies patients who are at risk for a nutrition-related problem. The screen also helps best allocate the RDN's time and resources to those patients who would benefit from the assessment. This resource allocation helps provide cost-effective nutrition services. There are no tested and validated nutrition screening tools for every population or setting, so an RDN may have to develop one.
You are a registered dietitian working in a community health center. An elderly patient comes to see you and reports having difficulty affording nutritious food. You learn that the patient is 68 years old, lives alone on a fixed income, and has no family support nearby. Which of the following food supplemental programs would you most likely refer the patient to? CSFP TEFAP SNAP FDPIR
Correct answer: CSFP The Commodity Supplemental Food Program (CSFP) is a federal program designed to provide nutritious foods, such as canned or packaged fruits and vegetables, cheese, and cereal, to low-income seniors aged 60 years and above. CSFP helps improve the health and nutrition of vulnerable seniors at risk of malnutrition, food insecurity, and chronic diseases. While TEFAP, SNAP, and FDPIR all provide food assistance, they are not specifically designed to address the unique nutritional needs of low-income seniors.
Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable food temperature? Lettuce stored at 44oF Fruit salad stored at 35oF Casserole cooled to 65oF within 2 hours Casserole on the serving line at 130oF
Correct answer: Casserole on the serving line at 130oF The temperature danger zone is 41 to 135 degrees Fahrenheit (F). Hot food should be held at or above 135oF, so the casserole at 130oF is not held at a high enough temperature. When cooling a potentially hazardous food (such as a casserole), it must be cooled to 70oF within 2 hours and to 41oF or below within 4 hours. Leafy vegetables may be held safely at a maximum temperature of 45oF.
Several hospitals within the same regional organization have a contract with a food vendor through a purchasing department. What type of purchasing is this? a. Cooperative b. Centralized c. Single d. Group
Correct answer: Centralized Centralized purchasing occurs when units within an organization make their purchases through a single purchasing department. Group and cooperative purchasing involve units from more than one organization banding together to make purchases.
Which of the following is false as it relates to childhood obesity? Childhood obesity is defined as BMI-for-age at or above the 95th percentile. A goal for an obese child may include decreasing their rate of weight gain. Childhood obesity is not a major concern since most children will outgrow it. Eating evening meals with their family can help children avoid obesity.
Correct answer: Childhood obesity is not a major concern since most children will outgrow it. Childhood obesity puts a child at higher risk of being overweight or obese as an adolescent and adult. It also puts them at higher risk of Type 2 diabetes and can cause cardiovascular problems. Therefore, it is a concern that should be taken seriously.
Which of the following is not a function or characteristic of a master menu? Collection of main menus for the food service operation Used to manage the back of the house Collection of all menus for the food service operation Used to manage the front of the house
Correct answer: Collection of main menus for the food service operation A master menu is the collection of all menus for a specific food service operation. It is used to manage both the front and back of the house.
Which type of food service has centralized procurement and production facilities with distribution of prepared menu items to several remote areas for final preparation and service? Ready-prepared Conventional Commissary Assembly/serve
Correct answer: Commissary A commissary system is when the food is all prepared in one location and then transported to satellite units located in separate, remote areas for final preparation and service. Assembly/serve is a type of food service where foods are purchased fully prepared and then stored, assembled, heated, and served. Ready-prepared is when food is prepared on-site, then chilled or frozen, and stored for reheating at a later time. Conventional food service is when all of the production and service takes place in the same facility.
Which of the following skills is more important to upper-level managers? Reporting Conceptual Technical Human
Correct answer: Conceptual Conceptual skills involve understanding how the various parts of the organization fit together to move towards the goal or objective of the organization. Upper-level management is responsible for policies and actions that involve the need to understand the workings of the entire organization. Technical skills (lower management) and human skills (less important for upper level, but needed by all levels) are other types of management skills. Reporting is a function of management but is not a skill.
Which of the following ovens is the most energy efficient? Deck oven Microwave oven Convection oven Rotary oven
Correct answer: Convection oven The convection oven is versatile and performs most baking/roasting operations in the shortest amount of time. Currents of air are circulated within the cooking chamber, reducing cooking time by 30 percent.
Using the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), which of the following is not one of the parts of the motivational phase? Coping self-efficacy Risk perceptions Outcome expectations Behavioral intention
Correct answer: Coping self-efficacy The motivational phase includes risk perceptions, outcome expectations, perceived self-efficacy, and behavioral intention. The action phase includes maintaining action and self-efficacy throughout the change process: planning and initiating action, maintaining behavior change (coping self-efficacy), and recovery.
Which of the following is an acute phase reactant, and what happens to it during inflammation? Ferritin; increases Albumin; increases C-reactive protein; decreases Fibrinogen; no change
Correct answer: Ferritin; increases Ferritin is a positive acute-phase reactant, which means it increases during inflammation. C-reactive protein is also a positive acute-phase reactant, so it also increases. Albumin is a negative acute-phase reactant, so it decreases during inflammation. Fibrinogen is a positive acute-phase reactant, so it increases.
As a food service manager, you are creating a HACCP plan for receiving food. As part of that plan, frozen chicken breasts must be received at 0oF or below. Which part of the HACCP plan is this requirement for receiving the chicken breasts? Hazard Critical control point Critical limit Biological hazard
Correct answer: Critical limit Defining the critical limits in the HACCP plan is done for each CCP (critical control point). In this case, the hazard is potential spoilage from receiving the frozen chicken, not at a freezing temperature. The critical limit for defining that hazard is that the frozen chicken breasts are not received above 0oF. Critical limits are defined as a specific criterion (temperature, time, etc.) that must be met for each preventive measure identified for a critical control point. Critical control points are any point or procedure in a specific food system where the loss of control may result in an unacceptable health risk.
Which type of inflammatory bowel disease includes inflammation of the intestine, the potential involvement of the small intestine, and malabsorption? Ulcerative colitis Diverticulitis Celiac disease Crohn's disease
Correct answer: Crohn's disease Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis are the two types of inflammatory bowel disease. Ulcerative colitis never includes the small intestine and does not cause malabsorption. Celiac disease and diverticulitis are other types of conditions that cause inflammation in the bowel, but they are not classified as inflammatory bowel diseases.
Which type of menu is often based on the length of stay in healthcare settings? Static Cycle Selective Single-use
Correct answer: Cycle A cycle menu is a set of meal patterns rotating regularly. Healthcare facilities often use their length of stay as the basis for how often to change the rotation of the menu items. Healthcare facilities also use selective menus, often in the "room service" style of meal service. However, these are not changed based on the average length of stay. A cycle menu could be selective, but being selective alone does not define the type of menu. Static menus are often used in restaurants. Single-use menus are often used for special events or one-time events.
Which of the following is best used to create and structure specific educational plans? Intervention Mapping DESIGN Procedure Behavior Change Wheel PRECEDE-PROCEED
Correct answer: DESIGN Procedure The DESIGN Procedure is a step-by-step guide for creating and structuring specific educational plans. The other design processes do not lead to developing specific educational plans, even though they address behavior change. The steps of the DESIGN Procedure include: 1.Decide behaviors 2.Explore determinants 3.Select the theory-based model 4.Indicate objectives 5.Generate educational plans 6.Nail down evaluation
What type of ingredient combination is mayonnaise? Gel Foam Sol Emulsion
Correct answer: Emulsion An emulsion is a mixture of two liquids that results in the dispersion of one of the liquids into the other. Mayonnaise is a classic example of a permanent emulsion. It is an oil-in-water permanent emulsion. A foam is a dispersion of gas in another medium. A gel is a liquid dispersed in a solid. A sol is a solid dispersed in a liquid.
What is added to or removed from water to change its state between a solid, liquid, or gas? Polarity Water quality Water activity Energy
Correct answer: Energy Changes in energy occur when water changes between solid, liquid, and gas forms. The lowest energy state is a solid, while the highest energy state is a gas (steam). In other words, energy is removed from liquid water to make it a solid (ice), and energy is added to water to make it a gas (steam). Water always has polarity-one side of the molecule is slightly positively charged, and one side is slightly negatively charged. This does not change depending on the state of the water. Water activity is the water vapor pressure in a food relative to plain water. This is a measurement, not something that is added or removed from water. Water quality refers to a measure of water contaminants (or lack thereof). Changes in water quality do not lead to changes in its state.
Which of the following is a common effect of increased ethylene gas exposure in fruits and vegetables? Delayed ripening Decreased sweetness Enhanced color development Increased firmness
Correct answer: Enhanced color development Ethylene gas is a natural plant hormone that promotes ripening and the resultant color changes of fruit. Exposure to ethylene gas can accelerate ripening, resulting in softer texture, increased sweetness, and enhanced color development in fruits and vegetables.
Which of the following is not one of the "three Es" used to create programs related to workplace safety? Enforcement Engineering Environment Education
Correct answer: Environment The "three Es" of safety are engineering, education, and enforcement.
Which of the following contains the correct terms, in sequential order, for the 4-Es of organizing a group education session? Excite, Educate, Explain, End Excite, Explain, Expand, Exit Engage, Educate, Explain, Expand Enter, Evidence, Experiment, Exam
Correct answer: Excite, Explain, Expand, Exit The 4-Es are a framework used to organize and sequence the events of instruction for an effective group education session. The four Es include: -Excite: This stage is all about grabbing the participants' attention and getting them excited about the topic being discussed. The goal is to create an emotional connection and gain their interest in the subject matter. -Explain: In this stage, the facilitator provides information about the topic being discussed. The goal is to provide a clear understanding of the subject matter and ensure that participants are equipped with the necessary knowledge to make informed decisions. This can involve providing definitions, explaining concepts, or providing examples to illustrate key points. -Expand: In this stage, the participants are encouraged to apply what they have learned in a practical way. The goal is to help them develop skills and strategies that they can use to implement the information they have learned. This can involve engaging in role-playing, problem-solving exercises, or other interactive activities that allow participants to practice and refine their skills. -Exit: The final stage is about wrapping up the session and ensuring that participants leave with a clear understanding of what they have learned. This can involve summarizing key points, providing take-home messages, or asking participants to reflect on what they have learned. The goal is to ensure that the participants feel confident in their understanding of the topic and are motivated to take action based on what they have learned.
Which of the following legislation created the minimum wage in the United States? Civil Rights Act Social Security Act Fair Labor Standards Act Landrum-Griffin Act
Correct answer: Fair Labor Standards Act The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), also known as the Minimum Wage or Wage Hour Law, set the minimum wage and regulations for overtime work.
In a systems approach to management, which of the following is an example of an output? Facilities Raw materials Financial accountability Resources
Correct answer: Financial accountability Inputs to a system are resources (raw materials, information, energy, people, facilities, money, and time). Outputs of a system are products, services, ideas, enhanced quality of life for customers, and financial accountability. Outputs are finished products and services of an organization. The outputs should align with the organization's mission, goals, and objectives.
What is the most important aspect of care in the first 24 to 48 hours after burn trauma? Increased protein Fluid resuscitation Decreased electrolytes Increased calories
Correct answer: Fluid resuscitation Fluid resuscitation is the first priority after burn trauma because the body loses massive amounts of fluid. Fluid needs are about 2-4 mL/kg body weight during this time. The patient has increased energy and nutrient needs for healing.
A nutritionist is planning a Community Nutrition Assessment. She already has some data available from previous research over a larger region that includes the community she is interested in. She has a limited budget and staff for the next step in the assessment. Which of the following types of Community Nutrition Assessments would be most valuable to use next, and why? Community Forum, because everyone in the community has an equal voice. Key Informant, because it is a targeted approach that still represents the entire community. Survey, because it does not require a large staff or budget. Focus Group Interview, because it can be used to expand on the available data.
Correct answer: Focus Group Interview, because it can be used to expand on the available data. Survey: This approach would be good, but it requires a large amount of staff to administer and is likely to be expensive. Community Forum: This approach provides an opportunity for all those in the community to participate. However, it is limited to only those who choose to participate and respond to questions. Therefore, it will be biased towards those who attend and also choose to speak. Key Informant: This approach requires the identification of leaders and decision-makers in the community who can identify the needs and concerns of the community. It then uses a questionnaire or interview with the identified individuals to assess the community's needs.
A menu is what type of record for control? Standardized recipe Purchasing and receiving Food production Storage and storeroom
Correct answer: Food production Examples of records for control within the category of food production are menus, standardized recipes, leftovers reports, and production schedules. The other types of records for control are: Purchasing and receiving records Storage and storeroom records Service records Income and expense records Sales and cash receipts
Which planning team member for a food service facility is responsible for providing information about the location of electrical outlets and voltage needs? Food service design consultant Food service manager Administrator Architect
Correct answer: Food service manager The food service manager uses the menu to plan which equipment is needed and then uses specifications given for that equipment to provide information about where electrical outlets will be needed and the voltages required for the equipment. The planning team includes the owner (or administrator), food service manager, architect, food service design consultant, equipment representative, business manager, builder/contractor, and maintenance engineer (all may not be included, depending on the project's size).
Which type of bariatric surgery involves changing the configuration of the small intestine? Gastric bypass Gastric banding Sleeve gastrectomy Intragastric balloon
Correct answer: Gastric bypass The gastric bypass involves reducing the size of the stomach and changing the position of the small intestine. Gastric banding and sleeve gastrectomy are types of bariatric surgery that do not change the position of the small intestine. Intragastric balloon is a non-surgical weight loss procedure.
The hormone ______ stimulates hunger, while the hormone ______ promotes gastric emptying. GLP-1, Ghrelin GLP-1, Secretin Ghrelin, Motilin Ghrelin, Secretin
Correct answer: Ghrelin, Motilin Ghrelin is secreted by the stomach and sends a chemical signal to the brain to stimulate hunger. Motilin is a hormone that promotes stomach emptying and GI motility. GLP-1 is a hormone that sends a signal to decrease hunger and prolongs gastric emptying. Secretin decreases motility and increases mucus output.
Which of the following is the highest USDA grade for poultry? Grade AA Grade A Prime Fancy
Correct answer: Grade A Consumer grades for poultry are U.S. Grades A, B, and C, based on conformation, fleshing, fat covering, and freedom from defects. The highest grades for each food type are listed below: Meat: Prime Poultry: Grade A Eggs: Grade AA Cheddar cheese: Grade AA Fresh produce: Fancy
Which of the following should be avoided in the diet when a patient is taking Atorvastatin? Grapefuit Tyramine Purines Spicy foods
Correct answer: Grapefruit Atorvastatin (Lipitor) has an interaction with grapefruit, which increases the absorption of the drug and can result in too much of the drug in the bloodstream. Tyramine should be avoided with some antidepressants. Purines should be avoided for patients with gout.
What is calculated by subtracting the cost of food sold from the sales? Net loss Income Net profit Gross profit
Correct answer: Gross profit Income (sales) - cost of the food sold = gross profit Income (sales) - labor, overhead, and operating costs = Net profit (or net loss)
Which of the following snacks is the least cariogenic? Banana Crackers Hard-boiled egg Ice cream
Correct answer: Hard-boiled egg Cariogenic foods contain fermentable carbohydrates, which cause the pH of saliva to decrease and stimulate dental caries. These are fruits, crackers, chips, pretzels, cereals, breads, sweetened dairy products, and sugars. Cariostatic foods do not contribute to tooth decay. These are high-protein foods (eggs, meat, etc.), most vegetables, fats, and sugarless gums.
Which of the following questions would be most motivating for a client to have answered during an educational session? What skills do I need to make this change? How can I make this change? Where do I start to make this change? How will this change benefit me?
Correct answer: How will this change benefit me? A client is more likely to be motivated when they find what about the change will benefit them. Therefore, answering a question like "What's in it for me?" or "How will this change benefit me?" are the types of questions MOST likely to lead to motivation for the client. The other questions do not address this primary drive, even though they may come up in the change-making session.
A 46-year-old male patient is admitted to the ICU after cardiac surgery. The patient is 5'11" tall and weighs 180 lbs. In reviewing the chart, you see that the patient's pre-op weight upon admission was 190 lbs. The patient is three days post-op and has not begun any diet or nutrition support. Which of the following diagnoses can be made? Mild malnutrition Inadequate energy intake Severe malnutrition Moderate malnutrition
Correct answer: Inadequate energy intake The main characteristic of malnutrition is inadequate food and nutrient intake, with diagnostic criteria beginning at a minimum of five days. The information provided does not give adequate information for any malnutrition diagnosis. The patient is post-op, so there could be fluid shifts to account for the weight change. The weight change is 5% of his pre-op weight (10 lbs lost, divided by 190 x 100), which indicates malnutrition, but the absence of any further information about usual body weight or food intake before admission rules out the diagnosis of malnutrition from the information provided. Only enough information is provided to diagnose inadequate energy intake, since we only know the patient has not had any intake (oral or otherwise) in the three days since surgery.
Which of the following is not a security measure as it relates to receiving an order for a foodservice operation? Check orders immediately upon delivery Inspect the delivery against the invoice After accepting an order, move it to the storage area immediately Allow only authorized employees in the receiving area
Correct answer: Inspect the delivery against the invoice Increasing security involves the following: Checking orders immediately upon delivery Move orders into storage or a secure area as soon as the order is accepted Keep doors to the receiving area locked Allow only authorized employees into the receiving area Inspecting the delivery against the invoice is done to check the accuracy of the order being received, and it should be done for every delivery received. However, it does not impact the security of the order.
What is the managerial role of a figurehead and of a spokesperson, respectively? Informational and Interpersonal Decisional and Informational Interpersonal and Decisional Interpersonal and Informational
Correct answer: Interpersonal and Informational A figurehead has an interpersonal managerial role since they have symbolic, legal, or social duties within the organization. A spokesperson has an informational role since he or she conveys information from the organization to outside sources.
Which part of the Nutrition Care Process (NCP) includes discharge planning, and when should discharge planning begin? Intervention; at assessment Monitoring and evaluation; at assessment Assessment; once discharge is scheduled Monitoring and evaluation; once discharge is scheduled
Correct answer: Intervention; at assessment Discharge planning, which should begin at the time of nutrition assessment, falls into the Intervention section of the NCP. Monitoring and evaluation of the nutrition intervention follow up on the interventions from the nutrition assessment. So, there could be monitoring and evaluation of the discharge plan, but the plan itself is an intervention.
Which of the following organs is not impacted by the secretions produced as a result of cystic fibrosis? Pancreas Liver Lungs Kidneys
Correct answer: Kidneys Cystic fibrosis creates changes in the CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) protein. This change causes fluid secretions to be thick and viscous. These fluids occur in the lungs, pancreas, liver, intestines, and reproductive tract and cause increased sodium in sweat (skin), impacting these organs' functioning.
Which of the following contributes the most to an individual's resting metabolic rate (RMR)? Water Fat-free mass Essential fat Lean body mass
Correct answer: Lean body mass Lean body mass (LBM) includes the organs and skeletal muscle, the most metabolically active body parts. Therefore, the LBM is where the majority of the calorie-burning at rest (RMR) comes from. Fat-free mass is made up of water, protein, and minerals and is distinct from LBM. Essential fats are those in the body necessary for normal functioning. In men, around 3% of fat mass is essential, and in women, around 12% of fat is essential. Fats are not very metabolically active since they are storage forms of energy. Water is a part of LBM, although it is not the part that contributes to RMR.
In which type of organizational structure are departments created to deal with increased responsibilities? Coordinating Directing Line and staff Line
Correct answer: Line When a line organization has growth that requires delegation, responsibilities are delegated until enough new positions are added that departmentalization must occur. When a line and staff organization has growth that creates too much responsibility for top positions, staff are added to assist them. Directing and coordinating are functions of staffing, not organizing.
Which of the following is a type of enzyme secreted into the stomach, mouth, and small intestine? Amylase Lipase Intrinsic factor Hydrochloric acid
Correct answer: Lipase Lipase is secreted into the mouth (salivary), small intestine (pancreatic), and stomach (gastric). The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen, gastric lipase, mucus, intrinsic factor, and gastrin. The enzymes in the mouth are amylase and salivary lipase. The enzymes in the small intestine are pancreatic amylase, pancreatic lipase, colipase, and proteolytic enzymes.
A client presents to a dietitian with HIV and HIV-associated Lipodystrophy Syndrome (HALS). Which of the following could the client present with directly related to the HALS diagnosis? Increased infections and metabolic syndrome Lipoatrophy and high HDL cholesterol Muscle wasting and low LDL cholesterol Lipohypertrophy and elevated triglycerides
Correct answer: Lipohypertrophy and elevated triglycerides Lipohypertrophy is the buildup of body fat in a distinctive way that changes the body shape. For example, patients with this syndrome may get fat deposits on the back of their neck, called cervicodorsal lipodystrophy. HALS can also include loss of body fat in a similar way, called lipoatrophy. Metabolic abnormalities can also occur, most commonly related to blood lipids: high triglycerides, high LDL cholesterol, and low HDL cholesterol. Insulin resistance can also occur. HALS relates to fat distribution, so muscle wasting is not a part of HALS.
Which of the following is not true for the breastmilk produced by a mother with a premature infant compared with the breastmilk of the mother of a full-term infant? Lower in lactose content Higher in protein content Higher in energy content Lower in sodium content
Correct answer: Lower in sodium content Breastmilk from a woman with a premature infant is higher in protein, higher in sodium, slightly lower in lactose, and higher in energy content.
Paralytic shellfish poisoning, which can be fatal, is caused by what type of microbiological hazard? Parasite Virus Bacteria Microalgae
Correct answer: Microalgae Paralytic shellfish poisoning is caused by the consumption of shellfish that has been contaminated with certain species of microalgae that produce toxins known as saxitoxins. Bacteria, viruses, and parasites are also types of microbiological hazards that can cause food-borne illnesses. However, paralytic shellfish poisoning is caused by microalgae.
When developing an education program to be delivered online to a wide audience, which of the following should be addressed first in the program in relation to the Health Access Process Approach (HAPA)? Psychological skills Motivation Food skills Behavior change
Correct answer: Motivation The Health Access Process Approach (HAPA) emphasizes that change happens as a process. Because this program will be offered to a wide audience, they are likely to have different levels of motivation. Therefore, it has been found to be most effective to address motivation first, before moving on to behavior change skills (food and psychological) and then to initiation of behavior change.
Which of the following is not a location where protein digestion occurs? Mouth Large intestine Stomach Small intestine
Correct answer: Mouth Protein digestion begins in the stomach and continues throughout the rest of the GI tract, including the final phase of protein digestion that occurs in the brush border of the small and large intestines.
How does the metabolic response to critical illness differ from that of uncomplicated starvation? Gluconeogenesis is decreased Energy needs are lower Muscle loss is faster Hormones are not a factor
Correct answer: Muscle loss is faster During critical illness, the change in metabolism leads to faster muscle loss, increased energy expenditure, and increased gluconeogenesis and is activated by hormonal responses. During uncomplicated starvation, energy expenditure decreases, leading to a slower rate of muscle loss. It is not activated by hormones.
Which of the following is the term used in ethics for "do no harm?" Principle of autonomy Nonmaleficence Justice Beneficence
Correct answer: Nonmaleficence Nonmaleficence means "do no harm." Beneficence means taking the right action to help. The principle of autonomy is the freedom an individual has to choose what actions to take. Justice in ethics refers to fairness.
Which type of anemia is most commonly occurring related to autoimmune diseases? Macrocytic Iron-deficiency Microcytic Normocytic
Correct answer: Normocytic Normocytic anemia is associated with chronic and inflammatory diseases, such as autoimmune diseases, rheumatic diseases, chronic heart failure, chronic infection, Hodgkin's disease, kidney disease, severe tissue injury, and multiple fractures. Normocytic anemia does not respond to iron supplementation. The types of anemia can be classified as microcytic, normocytic, and macrocytic. These terms relate to the size of red blood cells, with "micro" associated with smaller than normal, "normo" associated with normal size, and "macro" associated with larger than normal.
What is the position of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics (AND) regarding the best nutritional strategy for promoting overall health and reducing chronic disease risk? A vegetarian diet is recommended as optimal for overall health Nutrient-rich foods should be optimized before fortified foods and supplements All adults should take a comprehensive multivitamin to prevent deficiencies Most children ages 5-12 should take calcium supplements
Correct answer: Nutrient-rich foods should be optimized before fortified foods and supplements The policy of the AND is that nutrient-rich foods should be optimized before adding any type of supplement. This approach is referred to in the common vernacular as "food first." Supplements should be taken at the recommendation and supervision of an RDN and/or other health professionals.
Recommending an athlete use an LCHF diet for two weeks leading up to a competition and then consume a higher carbohydrate diet when they decrease their exercise levels just prior to the event is an example of what type of nutrition strategy? Training fuel Fat adaptation strategy Oxidative loading Nutrition periodization
Correct answer: Nutrition periodization Nutrition periodization is the type of strategy in which nutrient intake is timed with specific training patterns. Reducing carbohydrates and then increasing them is a type of carbohydrate/glycogen loading. Fat adaptation is a type of nutrition periodization strategy where well-trained endurance athletes consume a high-fat, low-cholesterol diet for up to 2 weeks during their normal training, immediately followed by a high-carbohydrate diet and tapering of exercise 1-3 days before an endurance event. Training fuel is food/nutrients that are consumed during exercise. Oxidative loading is a distractor.
Which type of budget, at minimum, includes revenues and expenses? Capital Operating Master Zero-based
Correct answer: Operating The operating budget includes at least revenues and expenses. It is a plan for sales, expenses, and profits for a fixed period of time. Master budgets at least include operating and capital budgets. Capital budgets estimate the costs of capital items (like equipment purchasing, construction costs for a new building, etc). Zero-based budgeting is a type of budget used within a larger budget plan.
Review of policies and practices, setting employee expectations, and completion of employment documents. Which part of the employment process do those tasks belong? Orientation Hiring Training Performance evaluation
Correct answer: Orientation There are ten items that should be part of new employee orientation: Introduction to the company; Review of policies and practices; Review of benefits and services; Benefit plan enrollment; Completion of employment documents; Review of employer expectations; Setting of employee expectations; Introduction to fellow employees; Introduction to facilities; and Introduction to the job.
Which of the following is not among the top five most common risk factors the CDC has identified causing foodborne illnesses? Serving foods with inherent pathological hazards Cooking food improperly Poor personal hygiene Purchasing food from unsafe vendors
Correct answer: Serving foods with inherent pathological hazards The top five most common risk factors for foodborne illnesses (identified by the CDC) are: Food purchased from unsafe vendors Cooking food improperly Food held at improper temperature Contaminated equipment Poor personal hygiene Even foods with inherent pathological hazards can be served, provided they are handled/prepared to address and mitigate those hazards.
You own a bakery and are interested in finding out if the cookie you developed is more tender than the previous recipe. To test this, you select a panel of customers and present them with the new and original cookies. The panel is then asked to choose which cookie is more tender. What type of difference testing is this? Paired comparison Duo-trio test Rank order Triangle test
Correct answer: Paired comparison A paired comparison has the evaluator compare two samples to identify which sample has more of whatever characteristic is being tested. In this example, the evaluator is comparing the two recipes of cookies and deciding which is more tender. A duo-trio test involves three sample items. The control is evaluated first, and then two samples are provided. One of those is the same as the control. The evaluator is tasked with determining which sample is different from the control. A triangle test also involves three samples. However, the evaluator is given all three samples at one time and asked to determine which one is different. A rank order test is when a number of samples are given to the evaluator, and the evaluator is then asked to rank them in terms of a single characteristic (e.g., flakiness).
Which type of food preservation uses moderate heat to kill microorganisms but is not a long-term storage method? Pickling Pasteurization High-pressure processing Canning
Correct answer: Pasteurization Pasteurization is a moderate heat treatment method that has enough heat to kill harmful microorganisms, but it is not hot enough to eliminate all harmful bacteria, so spoilage can still occur. Canning is a high-heat method of food preservation. Pickling does not incorporate heat; it uses low pH to slow microorganism growth. High-pressure processing does not use heat; it uses high pressure and water.
Which type of system uses DRG and ICD codes? Case management Staffing Payment Standards of care
Correct answer: Payment DRG codes identify payment for a patient's admission based on diagnosis, surgical procedure (if applicable), gender, and age. ICD codes classify the medical diagnosis which is used in payment systems.
Your hospital cafeteria has decided to install touchscreen ordering stations for customers to help make ordering faster and more convenient. Which part of the marketing mix does this plan fall into? Placement Place Product Promotion
Correct answer: Place The marketing mix has four different elements of marketing: product, place, price, and promotion. Place includes anything related to how products are sold and distributed. Product is the unique combination of goods and services that satisfies a want or need. It is what is produced based on knowledge of the market and what is ultimately sold. Promotion involves all communication with the customer. Placement is not one of the elements of the marking mix.
Policies and procedures are part of which function of management? Organizing Reporting Directing Planning
Correct answer: Planning Planning involves the groundwork for an organization, including its mission statement, policies, and procedures. The other functions of management are organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting, and budgeting.
During a counseling session about reducing salt in the diet, the client stated, "I have begun reading labels to identify sodium contents of food." Which stage of change is this client in? Preparation Contemplation Pre-contemplation Action
Correct answer: Preparation The stages of change are defined in terms of time. Preparation is when the client intends to make a change in the next month. This client is in the preparation stage because they are starting to get ready to lower their salt intake, but has not actually begun to do so. Pre-contemplation is when individuals are not thinking about making a change. Contemplation is when individuals intend to make a change in the next six months. Action is when they have just started to make the change.
Which of the following is not a goal of sales promotion? Provide the best price possible to the customer Stimulate new business Present information to the customer Stimulate repeat business
Correct answer: Provide the best price possible to the customer Sales promotion is aimed at making new and repeat customers. Promotional goals include: Present information to the customer; Reinforce purchasing behavior to stimulate repeat purchases; Stimulate new purchases by increasing curiosity; and Enhance the organization's image.
Six Sigma improves quality by: Removing defects and their causes Encouraging self-improvement in employees Reducing waste Eliminating numerical quotas
Correct answer: Removing defects and their causes The idea behind the Six Sigma approach is that you can systematically determine how to eliminate errors by measuring how many errors occur in a process. Reducing waste is a component of Lean Six Sigma. Eliminating numerical quotas and encouraging self-improvement are principles of the TQM process.
What type of law prevents employers from excluding non-union workers? Right-to-Work Wagner Act Collective bargaining Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
Correct answer: Right-to-Work States can enact Right-to-Work laws that prevent employers from excluding non-union workers or requiring employees to pay union fees. Collective bargaining refers to an obligation to meet and discuss terms with an open mind. Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act contains a bill of rights for union members that requires financial disclosures, prescribes union officer election procedures, and provides civil and criminal remedies for financial abuses. Wagner Act, also referred to as National Labor Relations Act, regulates the right of employees to join a union, and provides for collective bargaining.
Which of the following is not a common nutritional problem associated with cerebral palsy? Inadequate energy intake Self-feeding challenges Selective eating habits Constipation
Correct answer: Selective eating habits Cerebral palsy is a group of motor control or coordination disorders occurring due to brain injury early in development. Common problems related to nutrition with this condition are: Altered growth Inadequate energy intake Drug-nutrient interactions Constipation Self-feeding challenges Selective eating habits are a common nutrition problem with autism.
If increased intestinal permeability occurs in the development of an allergy, which phase of allergy development does it occur within? Sensitization Anaphylaxis Breakdown of oral tolerance Reaction
Correct answer: Sensitization Sensitization is the second phase of allergy development. In this phase, some component of the GI system breaks down, allowing the allergen to cause a sensitivity. This can occur because the gut microbiome has an imbalance that allows proteins in the GI tract to travel through the intestinal lining and into areas that can cause allergy development. The other two phases are: Breakdown of oral tolerance Reaction Anaphylaxis is a serious reaction that can occur in response to an allergen, but it is not one of the phases of allergy development. It occurs after the allergy has been established in the body.
What component of dough creates flakiness? Liquid fat Sugar Gluten Solid fat
Correct answer: Solid fat The solid fat in a dough begins by taking up space between gluten layers in the dough. When the solid fat melts, it leaves an empty pocket between the gluten layers. This results in a flaky texture. In products where flakiness is desired, the use of a hard fat is important. A liquid fat will not create a space, because it starts as a liquid, so there is no pocket created between the gluten layers. Gluten surrounds the pocket, and is the solid flake; however, it does not create flakiness. The flakiness could not occur without the solid fat. Sugar is hygroscopic, which can help dough retain moisture during baking. It also contributes to the browning (caramelization) of dough when it is heated.
Which function of management involves matching tasks with the skills people have? Organizing Directing Staffing Controlling
Correct answer: Staffing Staffing involves matching the tasks the organization requires with people with skills that match those needed within the task. Directing is the continuous process of delegating tasks, making decisions, conveying them, and ensuring appropriate actions. Controlling measures present performance against standard performance. Organizing involves the development of a formal structure through which work is divided, defined, and coordinated.
A manager's ability to perform a specialized activity is what type of skill? Conceptual Advanced Technical Human
Correct answer: Technical The three skills of managers are technical, human, and conceptual. The ability to perform a specialized activity is a technical skill. Human skills include understanding and motivating individuals and groups. Conceptual skills include understanding and integrating all the activities and interests of the organization toward a common objective.
You are developing a nutrition class for cancer patients. The first topic of the class will be how to select foods and meals to reduce taste and smell aversions during treatment. Which level of prevention is represented by this topic? Secondary Quaternary Tertiary Primary
Correct answer: Tertiary The levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary prevention is activities designed to prevent a problem or disease before it occurs. Secondary prevention would be activities related to early diagnosis and treatment, such as screening for diabetes. Tertiary prevention addresses a health condition that has already been diagnosed. It aims to reduce the severity or give relief from symptoms.
Which of the following is a difference between the Maillard reaction and caramelization? The Maillard reaction results in browning. The Maillard reaction is a non-enzymatic browning. The Maillard reaction requires less energy. The Maillard reaction requires more sugar.
Correct answer: The Maillard reaction requires less energy. The Maillard reaction occurs between a protein and a sugar. It results in a browning of the product. This process can either require an input of energy or occur at room temperature. It is classified as a non-enzymatic browning. The Maillard reaction requires less energy compared to caramelization because it occurs at lower temperatures. Caramelization is a result of the heating of sugar. The temperature of caramelizing sugar is very high, requiring more energy input than the Maillard reaction. It also results in a browning effect and is a non-enzymatic browning.
How does the RDA for calcium of a 17-year-old female compare to that of a 20-year-old pregnant female? The RDAs are the same The RDA is higher The RDA is lower The RDA for the pregnant female has not been determined
Correct answer: The RDA is higher The RDA for females aged 14-18 is 1300 mg/d. The RDA for pregnant females aged 19-30 is 1000 mg/d.
What two things are required to identify whether a nutrient is transported via active or passive transportation? Whether or not there are transportation proteins and the amount of ATP available The concentration gradient and if energy is required The pH of the absorption site and if energy is required The concentration gradient and the location in the GI tract
Correct answer: The concentration gradient and if energy is required Active transportation moves against the concentration gradient (high to low concentration) and requires energy. This requires transporter proteins. Passive transportation moves with the concentration gradient (low to high concentration) and does not require energy. This may or may not involve transporter proteins.
Which of the following is false in regard to the nutrition diagnosis? Nutrition assessment always occurs before nutrition diagnosis The nutrition diagnosis always guides the nutrition intervention A nutrition assessment may not lead to a nutrition diagnosis The nutrition diagnosis must reflect the medical diagnosis
Correct answer: The nutrition diagnosis must reflect the medical diagnosis The nutrition diagnosis occurs after the nutrition assessment. While the nutrition assessment should include the medical diagnosis, the nutrition diagnosis may or may not reflect the medical diagnosis. For example, a patient could be referred due to a nutrition screen indicating difficulty chewing and swallowing. The medical diagnosis might be hypertension and syncope, but the nutrition diagnosis may end up as inadequate nutrition intake (related to ill-fitting dentures, as evidenced by unintentional weight loss). The nutrition assessment leads to determining the nutrition diagnosis, which guides the nutrition intervention. However, not every nutrition assessment will lead to a nutrition diagnosis. Sometimes, the assessment determines there is no nutrition diagnosis (even when there is a medical diagnosis).
Which of the following statements is true of behavior change goals and the outcome evaluation? The outcome evaluation measures the behavior change goal The outcome evaluation statement takes into account all behavior change goals within the program The behavior change goal and the statement of desired outcome to be evaluated must be different The behavior change goal measures the outcome evaluation
Correct answer: The outcome evaluation measures the behavior change goal The behavior change goal and the statement of desired outcome to be evaluated may be the same statement. For example, a behavior change goal could be to increase fiber intake. The statement of desired outcome would be that participants increase fiber intake. There is an outcome evaluation statement for each behavior change goal within a program.
Epidemiology uses research and statistics to determine all of the following, except which one? The prevalence of the health issue The relationship between the individual with the health issue and the community The likelihood of identifying the risk factors of the health issue The population affected by the health issue
Correct answer: The relationship between the individual with the health issue and the community Epidemiology uses research and statistics to determine: 1. Population affected by a disease or disorder 2. Prevalence of the health problem in a community 3. How likely is it to determine the causes and risk factors of the health problem Epidemiology involves looking at the community with the health issue but does not assess any relationship between an individual and a community.
Which management theory includes the belief that employees are self-directed and involves them in decision-making about how to complete their work? Path-goal Theory X Theory Y Situational management
Correct answer: Theory Y Theory X and Theory Y are contradictory theories by D. McGregor. In Theory X, people must be managed closely and supervised in carrying out tasks. In Theory Y, people are self-directed and should be allowed autonomy in completing tasks. Path-goal and situational management are other theories of leadership that do not address these beliefs.
Which of the following statements about obesity is not true? Abdominal fat is a risk factor for cancer. There are legal protections for weight discrimination in healthcare. Obesity is classified as a disease only in the United States. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with obesity.
Correct answer: There are legal protections for weight discrimination in healthcare. There is widespread discrimination based on weight, including in healthcare settings. There is no legal protection for weight discrimination. Obesity is classified as a disease in the United States (and only in the U.S.) for insurance coverage for treating obesity. Abdominal fat is a risk factor for cancer, and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with obesity.
Which of the following is false with respect to diabetes? Type 1 diabetes is less common than Type 2 diabetes High levels of C-peptide occur in Type 2 diabetes All pregnant women should be screened for gestational diabetes Type 1 diabetes develops only in childhood
Correct answer: Type 1 diabetes develops only in childhood Type 1 diabetes can occur at any age, although it used to be thought of as occurring only in children. Type 1 diabetes is less common (5% of cases) than Type 2 diabetes (90-95% of cases). Type 1 diabetes always requires exogenous insulin injection since the body is not producing insulin. Type 2 diabetes may or may not require insulin for blood sugar control. Obesity is common in Type 2 diabetes, and C-peptide levels are normal or high in this type of diabetes. All pregnant women should be screened for gestational diabetes.
Which of the following are two recommendations you should make to a patient undergoing breast cancer treatment via chemotherapy and experiencing mucositis? Avoid tobacco and add citrus fruits Avoid undercooked and high fat foods Use mouth rinses and supplement with L-glutamine Brush teeth less often and avoid spicy foods
Correct answer: Use mouth rinses and supplement with L-glutamine Mucositis is an inflammation of the mucous membranes in the mouth and esophagus. It is a common side-effect of chemotherapy. Treatment includes the following recommendations: Mouth rinses Avoid tobacco, alcohol, and spicy/acidic foods Choose bland, soft foods 5 grams of L-glutamine, taken TID (three times per day) Good oral hygiene
Which of the following is not likely to be effective in creating written materials for a nutrition education program? Writing in the passive voice for instructions Include white space on the handout Write at a 5th-grade reading level Start with a surprising fact about the topic
Correct answer: Writing in the passive voice for instructions Writing in the active voice is more effective than the passive voice in written educational materials. The other choices are likely to be effective in creating written materials for a nutrition education program.
What two items are sent to a vendor in an invitation for a competitive bid? Written product specifications, estimated quantities Required pricing, standing orders Desired prices, delivery timeframe Fixed pricing limits, monthly budget
Correct answer: Written product specifications, estimated quantities The facility provides a potential vendor with written specifications for items and how much of each item they estimate they will purchase. The vendor then provides the facility with quotes on prices for each item.
Which of the following is best used to assess a population's nutrient adequacy? UL RDA EAR AI
EAR (estimated average requirement): The average daily requirement for healthy individuals based on age and gender. This amount would be enough to meet the needs of 50% of the population. It is used to assess adequacy for a population, but not an individual. AI (adequate intake): The average daily intake observed in a healthy population. Calculated when the scientific evidence to calculate the RDA is not available. RDA (recommended daily allowance): The amount of a nutrient that would meet the needs of 97-98% of the healthy population it is based on. This can be used to set a goal for an individual. UL (tolerable upper limit): This was developed to reduce the risk of negative effects from overconsumption of a nutrient. It is the highest daily amount that is unlikely to have a negative impact.
Which of the following is not true regarding culture and food? Culture can dictate that a nutritious food is inedible Culture is biologically determined Culture impacts which nutrition practices are considered important to health Culture influences food preparation methods
Explanation Details Correct answer: Culture is biologically determined Culture is learned; it is not biological. Culture influences many aspects of food and nutrition, including beliefs, preparation methods, meal structure, food preferences, and values about what is important to health.
