Practice Questions - Chapters 17, 18, 19, and 20 - RESPIRATORY

The nurse is caring for a patient who has returned to the unit following a bronchoscopy. The patient is asking for something to drink. Which criterion will determine when the nurse should allow the patient to drink fluids? A) Presence of a cough and gag reflex B) Absence of nausea C) Ability to demonstrate deep inspiration D) Oxygen saturation of 92%

A (EXPLANATION: After the procedure, it is important that the patient takes nothing by mouth until the cough reflex returns because the preoperative sedation and local anesthesia impair the protective laryngeal reflex and swallowing for several hours. Deep inspiration, adequate oxygen saturation levels, and absence of nausea do not indicate that oral intake is safe from the risk of aspiration.)

The critical care nurse and the other members of the care team are assessing the patient to see if he is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. What are the most important predictors of successful weaning that the nurse should identify? A) Stable vital signs and ABGs B) Pulse oximetry above 80% and stable vital signs C) Stable nutritional status and ABGs D) Normal orientation and level of consciousness

A (EXPLANATION: Among many other predictors, stable vital signs and ABGs are important predictors of successful weaning. Pulse oximetry must greatly exceed 80%. Nutritional status is important, but vital signs and ABGs are even more significant. Patients who are weaned may or may not have full level of consciousness.)

The nurse has assessed a patient's family history for three generations. The presence of which respiratory disease would justify this type of assessment? A) Asthma B) Obstructive sleep apnea C) Community-acquired pneumonia D) Pulmonary edema

A (EXPLANATION: Asthma is a respiratory illness that has genetic factors. Sleep apnea, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema lack genetic risk factors.)

Postural drainage has been ordered for a patient who is having difficulty mobilizing her bronchial secretions. Before repositioning the patient and beginning treatment, the nurse should perform what health assessment? A) Chest auscultation B) Pulmonary function testing C) Chest percussion D) Thoracic palpation

A (EXPLANATION: Chest auscultation should be performed before and after postural drainage in order to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy. Percussion and palpation are less likely to provide clinically meaningful data for the nurse. PFTs are normally beyond the scope of the nurse and are not necessary immediately before postural drainage.)

A patient is exhibiting signs of a pneumothorax following tracheostomy. The surgeon inserts a chest tube into the anterior chest wall. What should the nurse tell the family is the primary purpose of this chest tube? A) To remove air from the pleural space B) To drain copious sputum secretions C) To monitor bleeding around the lungs D) To assist with mechanical ventilation

A (EXPLANATION: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. The primary purpose of a chest tube is not to drain sputum secretions, monitor bleeding, or assist with mechanical ventilation.)

A nurse practitioner has provided care for three different patients with chronic pharyngitis over the past several months. Which patients are at greatest risk for developing chronic pharyngitis? A) Patients who are habitual users of alcohol and tobacco B) Patients who are habitual users of caffeine and other stimulants C) Patients who eat a diet high in spicy foods D) Patients who have gastrointestinal reflux disease (GERD)

A (EXPLANATION: Chronic pharyngitis is common in adults who live and work in dusty surroundings, use the voice to excess, suffer from chronic chough, and habitually use alcohol and tobacco. Caffeine and spicy foods have not been linked to chronic pharyngitis. GERD is not a noted risk factor.)

The ED nurse is assessing a young gymnast who fell from a balance beam. The gymnast presents with a clear fluid leaking from her nose. What should the ED nurse suspect? A) Fracture of the cribriform plate B) Rupture of an ethmoid sinus C) Abrasion of the soft tissue D) Fracture of the nasal septum

A (EXPLANATION: Clear fluid from either nostril suggests a fracture of the cribriform plate with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. The symptoms are not indicative of an abrasion of the soft tissue or rupture of a sinus. Clear fluid leakage from the nose would not be indicative of a fracture of the nasal septum.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who needs education on his medication therapy for allergic rhinitis. The patient is to take cromolyn (Nasalcrom) daily. In providing education for this patient, how should the nurse describe the action of the medication? A) It inhibits the release of histamine and other chemicals. B) It inhibits the action of proton pumps. C) It inhibits the action of the sodium-potassium pump in the nasal epithelium. D) It causes bronchodilation and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchi.

A (EXPLANATION: Cromolyn (Nasalcrom) inhibits the release of histamine and other chemicals. It is prescribed to treat allergic rhinitis. Beta-adrenergic agents lead to bronchodilation and stimulate beta-2adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscle of the bronchi and bronchioles. It does not affect proton pump action or the sodium-potassium pump in the nasal cells.)

A patient on the medical unit has told the nurse that he is experiencing significant dyspnea, despite that he has not recently performed any physical activity. What assessment question should the nurse ask the patient while preparing to perform a physical assessment? A) On a scale from 1 to 10, how bad would rate your shortness of breath? B) When was the last time you ate or drank anything? C) Are you feeling any nausea along with your shortness of breath? D) Do you think that some medication might help you catch your breath?

A (EXPLANATION: Gauging the severity of the patient's dyspnea is an important part of the nursing process. Oral intake and nausea are much less important considerations. The nurse must perform assessment prior to interventions such as providing medication.)

The medical nurse who works on a pulmonology unit is aware that several respiratory conditions can affect lung tissue compliance. The presence of what condition would lead to an increase in lung compliance? A) Emphysema B) Pulmonary fibrosis C) Pleural effusion D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A (EXPLANATION: High or increased compliance occurs if the lungs have lost their elasticity and the thorax is overdistended, in conditions such as emphysema. Conditions associated with decreased compliance include pneumothorax, hemothorax, pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, atelectasis, pulmonary fibrosis, and ARDS.)

The nurse is caring for a patient whose recent unexplained weight loss and history of smoking have prompted diagnostic testing for cancer. What symptom is most closely associated with the early stages of laryngeal cancer? A) Hoarseness B) Dyspnea C) Dysphagia D) Frequent nosebleeds

A (EXPLANATION: Hoarseness is an early symptom of laryngeal cancer. Dyspnea, dysphagia, and lumps are later signs of laryngeal cancer. Alopecia is not associated with a diagnosis of laryngeal cancer.)

A critical care nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube who is on a ventilator. The nurse knows that meticulous airway management of this patient is necessary. What is the main rationale for this? A) Maintaining a patent airway B) Preventing the need for suctioning C) Maintaining the sterility of the patient's airway D) Increasing the patients lung compliance

A (EXPLANATION: Maintaining a patent (open) airway is achieved through meticulous airway management, whether in an emergency situation such as airway obstruction or in long-term management, as in caring for a patient with an endotracheal or a tracheostomy tube. The other answers are incorrect.)

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment of an adult patient and is attempting to distinguish between vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial (tubular) breath sounds. The nurse should distinguish between these normal breath sounds on what basis? A) Their location over a specific area of the lung B) The volume of the sounds C) Whether they are heard on inspiration or expiration D) Whether or not they are continuous breath sounds

A (EXPLANATION: Normal breath sounds are distinguished by their location over a specific area of the lung; they are identified as vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial (tubular) breath sounds. Normal breath sounds are heard on both inspiration and expiration and are continuous. They are not distinguished solely on the basis of volume.)

The clinic nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with emphysema and who has just had a pulmonary function test (PFT) ordered. The patient asks What exactly is this test for? What would be the nurse's best response? A) A PFT measures how much air moves in and out of your lungs when you breathe. B) A PFT measures how much energy you get from the oxygen you breathe. C) A PFT measures how elastic your lungs are. D) A PFT measures whether oxygen and carbon dioxide move between your lungs and your blood.

A (EXPLANATION: PFTs are routinely used in patients with chronic respiratory disorders. They are performed to assess respiratory function and to determine the extent of dysfunction. Such tests include measurements of lung volumes, ventilatory function, and the mechanics of breathing, diffusion, and gas exchange. Lung elasticity and diffusion can often be implied from PFTs, but they are not directly assessed. Energy obtained from respiration is not measured directly.)

The nurse has admitted a patient who is scheduled for a thoracic resection. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching and is discussing several diagnostic studies that will be required prior to surgery. Which study will be performed to determine whether the planned resection will leave sufficient functioning lung tissue? A) Pulmonary function studies B) Exercise tolerance tests C) Arterial blood gas values D) Chest x-ray

A (EXPLANATION: Pulmonary function studies are performed to determine whether the planned resection will leave sufficient functioning lung tissue. ABG values are assessed to provide a more complete picture of the functional capacity of the lung. Exercise tolerance tests are useful to determine if the patient who is a candidate for pneumonectomy can tolerate removal of one of the lungs. Preoperative studies, such as a chest x-ray, are performed to provide a baseline for comparison during the postoperative period and to detect any unsuspected abnormalities.)

The OR nurse is setting up a water-seal chest drainage system for a patient who has just had a thoracotomy. The nurse knows that the amount of suction in the system is determined by the water level. At what suction level should the nurse set the system? A) 20 cm H2O B) 15 cm H2O C) 10 cm H2O D) 5 cm H2O

A (EXPLANATION: The amount of suction is determined by the water level. It is usually set at 20 cm H2O; adding more fluid results in more suction.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with a lower respiratory tract infection. When planning a focused respiratory assessment, the nurse should know that this type of infection most often causes what? A) Impaired gas exchange B) Collapsed bronchial structures C) Necrosis of the alveoli D) Closed bronchial tree

A (EXPLANATION: The lower respiratory tract consists of the lungs, which contain the bronchial and alveolar structures needed for gas exchange. A lower respiratory tract infection does not collapse bronchial structures or close the bronchial tree. An infection does not cause necrosis of lung tissues.)

The home care nurse is assessing the home environment of a patient who will be discharged from the hospital shortly after his laryngectomy. The nurse should inform the patient that he may need to arrange for the installation of which system in his home? A) A humidification system B) An air conditioning system C) A water purification system D) A radiant heating system

A (EXPLANATION: The nurse stresses the importance of humidification at home and instructs the family to obtain and set up a humidification system before the patient returns home. Air-conditioning may be too cool and too drying for the patient. A water purification system or a radiant heating system is not necessary.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. In preparing to assist in the collaborative process of weaning the patient from a ventilator, the nurse is aware that the weaning of the patient will progress in what order? A) Removal from the ventilator, tube, and then oxygen B) Removal from oxygen, ventilator, and then tube C) Removal of the tube, oxygen, and then ventilator D) Removal from oxygen, tube, and then ventilator

A (EXPLANATION: The process of withdrawing the patient from dependence on the ventilator takes place in three stages: the patient is gradually removed from the ventilator, then from the tube, and, finally, oxygen.)

A patient has been discharged home after thoracic surgery. The home care nurse performs the initial visit and finds the patient discouraged and saddened. The client states, I am recovering so slowly. I really thought I would be better by now. What nursing action should the nurse prioritize? A) Provide emotional support to the patient and family. B) Schedule a visit to the patient's primary physician within 24 hours. C) Notify the physician that the patient needs a referral to a psychiatrist. D) Place a referral for a social worker to visit the patient.

A (EXPLANATION: The recovery process may take longer than the patient had expected, and providing support to the patient is an important task for the home care nurse. It is not necessary, based on this scenario, to schedule a visit with the physician within 24 hours, or to get a referral to a psychiatrist or a social worker.)

The ED nurse is assessing a patient complaining of dyspnea. The nurse auscultates the patient's chest and hears wheezing throughout the lung fields. What might this indicate? A) The patient has a narrowed airway. B) The patient has pneumonia. C) The patient needs physiotherapy. D) The patient has a hemothorax.

A (EXPLANATION: Wheezing is a high-pitched, musical sound that is often the major finding in a patient with bronchoconstriction or airway narrowing. Wheezing is not normally indicative of pneumonia or hemothorax. Wheezing does not indicate the need for physiotherapy.)

A nurse educator is reviewing the implications of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve with regard to the case of a current patient. The patient currently has normal hemoglobin levels, but significantly decreased SaO2 and PaO2 levels. What is an implication of this physiological state? A) The patients tissue demands may be met, but she will be unable to respond to physiological stressors. B) The patient's short-term oxygen needs will be met, but she will be unable to expel sufficient CO2 C) The patient will experience tissue hypoxia with no sensation of shortness of breath or labored breathing. D) The patient will experience respiratory alkalosis with no ability to compensate.

A (EXPLANATION: With a normal hemoglobin level of 15 mg/dL and a PaO2 level of 40 mm Hg (SaO2 75%), there is adequate oxygen available for the tissues, but no reserve for physiological stresses that increase tissue oxygen demand. If a serious incident occurs (e.g., bronchospasm, aspiration, hypotension, or cardiac dysrhythmias) that reduces the intake of oxygen from the lungs, tissue hypoxia results.)

30. A nurse educator is reviewing the indications for chest drainage systems with a group of medical nurses. What indications should the nurses identify? Select all that apply. A) Post thoracotomy B) Spontaneous pneumothorax C) Need for postural drainage D) Chest trauma resulting in pneumothorax E) Pleurisy

A, B, D (EXPLANATION: Chest drainage systems are used in treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax and trauma resulting in pneumothorax. Postural drainage and pleurisy are not criteria for use of a chest drainage system.)

The nurse doing rounds at the beginning of a shift notices a sputum specimen in a container sitting on the bedside table in a patient's room. The nurse asks the patient when he produced the sputum specimen and he states that the specimen is about 4 hours old. What action should the nurse take? A) Immediately take the sputum specimen to the laboratory. B) Discard the specimen and assist the patient in obtaining another specimen. C) Refrigerate the sputum specimen and submit it once it is chilled. D) Add a small amount of normal saline to moisten the specimen.

B (EXPLANATION) Sputum samples should be submitted to the laboratory as soon as possible. Allowing the specimen to stand for several hours in a warm room results in the overgrowth of contaminated organisms and may make it difficult to identify the pathogenic organisms. Refrigeration of the sputum specimen and the addition of normal saline are not appropriate actions.)

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted medical patient and notes there is a depression in the lower portion of the patient's sternum. This patient's health record should note the presence of what chest deformity? A) A barrel chest B) A funnel chest C) A pigeon chest D) Kyphoscoliosis

B (EXPLANATION: A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum, and this may lead to compression of the heart and great vessels, resulting in murmurs. A barrel chest is characterized by an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the thorax and is a result of overinflation of the lungs. A pigeon chest occurs as a result of displacement of the sternum and includes an increase in the anteroposterior diameter. Kyphoscoliosis, which is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine, limits lung expansion within the thorax.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing mild shortness of breath during the immediate postoperative period, with oxygen saturation readings between 89% and 91%. What method of oxygen delivery is most appropriate for the patient's needs? A) Non-rebreathing mask B) Nasal cannula C) Simple mask D) Partial-rebreathing mask

B (EXPLANATION: A nasal cannula is used when the patient requires a low to medium concentration of oxygen for which precise accuracy is not essential. The Venturi mask is used primarily for patients with COPD because it can accurately provide an appropriate level of supplemental oxygen, thus avoiding the risk of suppressing the hypoxic drive. The patient's respiratory status does not require a partial- or nonrebreathing mask.)

What would the critical care nurse recognize as a condition that may indicate a patients need to have a tracheostomy? A) A patient has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. B) A patient requires permanent ventilation. C) A patient exhibits symptoms of dyspnea. D) A patient has respiratory acidosis.

B (EXPLANATION: A tracheostomy permits long-term use of mechanical ventilation to prevent aspiration of oral and gastric secretions in the unconscious or paralyzed patient. Indications for a tracheostomy do not include a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute, symptoms of dyspnea, or respiratory acidosis.

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment of a patient who has been experiencing episodes of hypoxia. The nurse is aware that this is ultimately attributable to impaired gas exchange. On what factor does adequate gas exchange primarily depend? A) An appropriate perfusion-diffusion ratio B) An adequate ventilation-perfusion ratio C) Adequate diffusion of gas in shunted blood D) Appropriate blood nitrogen concentration

B (EXPLANATION: Adequate gas exchange depends on an adequate ventilation-perfusion ratio. There is no perfusion-diffusion ratio. Adequate gas exchange does not depend on the diffusion of gas in shunted blood or a particular concentration of nitrogen.)

A patient with a decreased level of consciousness is in a recumbent position. How should the nurse best assess the lung fields for a patient in this position? A) Inform that physician that the patient is in a recumbent position and anticipate an order for a portable chest x-ray. B) Turn the patient to enable assessment of all the patient's lung fields. C) Avoid turning the patient, and assess the accessible breath sounds from the anterior chest wall. D) Obtain a pulse oximetry reading, and, if the reading is low, reposition the patient and auscultate breath sounds.

B (EXPLANATION: Assessment of the anterior and posterior lung fields is part of the nurse's routine evaluation. If the patient is recumbent, it is essential to turn the patient to assess all lung fields so that dependent areas can be assessed for breath sounds, including the presence of normal breath sounds and adventitious sounds. Failure to examine the dependent areas of the lungs can result in missing significant findings. This makes the other given options unacceptable.)

The acute medical nurse is preparing to wean a patient from the ventilator. Which assessment parameter is most important for the nurse to assess? A) Fluid intake for the last 24 hours B) Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels C) Prior outcomes of weaning D) Electrocardiogram (ECG) results

B (EXPLANATION: Before weaning a patient from mechanical ventilation, it is most important to have baseline ABG levels. During the weaning process, ABG levels will be checked to assess how the patient is tolerating the procedure. Other assessment parameters are relevant, but less critical. Measuring fluid volume intake and output is always important when a patient is being mechanically ventilated. Prior attempts at weaning and ECG results are documented on the patients record, and the nurse can refer to them before the weaning process begins.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with lung metastases who just underwent a mediastinotomy. What should be the focus of the nurse's post-procedure care? A) Assisting with pulmonary function testing (PFT) B) Maintaining the patient's chest tube C) Administering oral suction as needed D) Performing chest physiotherapy

B (EXPLANATION: Chest tube drainage is required after mediastinotomy. PFT, chest physiotherapy, and oral suctioning would all be contraindicated because of the patient's unstable health status.)

The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube who is on a ventilator. When assessing the client, the nurse knows to maintain what cuff pressure to maintain appropriate pressure on the tracheal wall? A) Between 10 and 15 mm Hg B) Between 15 and 20 mm C) Between 20 and 25 mm Hg D) Between 25 and 30 mm Hg

B (EXPLANATION: Complications can occur from pressure exerted by the cuff on the tracheal wall. Cuff pressures should be maintained between 15 and 20 mm Hg.)

The nurse is conducting a presurgical interview for a patient with laryngeal cancer. The patient states that he drinks approximately six to eight shots of vodka per day. It is imperative that the nurse inform the surgical team so the patient can be assessed for what? A) Increased risk for infection B) Delirium tremens C) Depression D) Nonadherence to postoperative care

B (EXPLANATION: Considering the known risk factors for cancer of the larynx, it is essential to assess the patient's history of alcohol intake. Infection is a risk in the postoperative period, but not an appropriate answer based on the patient's history. Depression and nonadherence are risks in the postoperative phase, but would not be critical short-term assessments.)

The nurse is assessing a patient who frequently coughs after eating or drinking. How should the nurse best follow up this assessment finding? A) Obtain a sputum sample. B) Perform a swallowing assessment. C) Inspect the patient's tongue and mouth. D) Assess the patient's nutritional status.

B (EXPLANATION: Coughing after food intake may indicate aspiration of material into the tracheobronchial tree; a swallowing assessment is thus indicated. Obtaining a sputum sample is relevant in cases of suspected infection. The status of the patient's tongue, mouth, and nutrition is not directly relevant to the problem of aspiration.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a pleural effusion and who underwent a thoracoscopic procedure earlier in the morning. The nurse should prioritize assessment for which of the following? A) Sputum production B) Shortness of breath C) Throat discomfort D) Epistaxis

B (EXPLANATION: Follow-up care in the health care facility and at home involves monitoring the patient for shortness of breath (which might indicate a pneumothorax). All of the listed options are relevant assessment findings, but shortness of breath is the most serious complication.)

The perioperative nurse has admitted a patient who has just underwent a tonsillectomy. The nurse's postoperative assessment should prioritize which of the following potential complications of this surgery? A) Difficulty ambulating B) Hemorrhage C) Infrequent swallowing D) Bradycardia

B (EXPLANATION: Hemorrhage is a potential complication of a tonsillectomy. Increased pulse, fever, and restlessness may indicate a postoperative hemorrhage. Difficulty ambulating and bradycardia are not common complications in a patient after a tonsillectomy. Infrequent swallowing does not indicate hemorrhage; frequent swallowing does.)

A patient is being admitted to the preoperative holding area for a thoracotomy. Preoperative teaching includes what? A) Correct use of a ventilator B) Correct use of incentive spirometry C) Correct use of a mini-nebulizer D) Correct technique for rhythmic breathing

B (EXPLANATION: Instruction in the use of incentive spirometry begins before surgery to familiarize the patient with its correct use. You do not teach a patient the use of a ventilator; you explain that he may be on a ventilator to help him breathe. Rhythmic breathing and mini-nebulizers are unnecessary.)

While caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube, the nurses recognizes that suctioning is required how often? A) Every 2 hours when the patient is awake B) When adventitious breath sounds are auscultated C) When there is a need to prevent the patient from coughing D) When the nurse needs to stimulate the cough reflex

B (EXPLANATION: It is usually necessary to suction the patient's secretions because of the decreased effectiveness of the cough mechanism. Tracheal suctioning is performed when adventitious breath sounds are detected or whenever secretions are present. Unnecessary suctioning, such as scheduling every 2 hours, can initiate bronchospasm and cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient has been receiving high-flow oxygen therapy for an extended time. What symptoms should the nurse anticipate if the patient were experiencing oxygen toxicity? A) Bradycardia and frontal headache B) Dyspnea and substernal pain C) Peripheral cyanosis and restlessness D) Hypotension and tachycardia

B (EXPLANATION: Oxygen toxicity can occur when patients receive too high a concentration of oxygen for an extended period. Symptoms of oxygen toxicity include dyspnea, substernal pain, restlessness, fatigue, and progressive respiratory difficulty. Bradycardia, frontal headache, cyanosis, hypotension, and tachycardia are not symptoms of oxygen toxicity.)

A patient has been diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension, in which the capillaries in the alveoli are squeezed excessively. The nurse should recognize a disturbance in what aspect of normal respiratory function? A) Acid/base balance B) Perfusion C) Diffusion D) Ventilation

B (EXPLANATION: Perfusion is influenced by alveolar pressure. The pulmonary capillaries are sandwiched between adjacent alveoli and, if the alveolar pressure is sufficiently high, the capillaries are squeezed. This does not constitute a disturbance in ventilation (air movement), diffusion (gas exchange), or acid/base balance.)

1The physician has ordered continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) with the delivery of a patients high-flow oxygen therapy. The patient asks the nurse what the benefit of CPAP is. What would be the nurse's best response? A) CPAP allows a higher percentage of oxygen to be safely used. B) CPAP allows a lower percentage of oxygen to be used with a similar effect. C) CPAP allows for greater humidification of the oxygen that is administered. D) CPAP allows for the elimination of bacterial growth in oxygen delivery systems.

B (EXPLANATION: Prevention of oxygen toxicity is achieved by using oxygen only as prescribed. Often, positive end- expiratory pressure (PEEP) or CPAP is used with oxygen therapy to reverse or prevent microatelectasis, thus allowing a lower percentage of oxygen to be used. Oxygen is moistened by passing through a humidification system. Changing the tubing on the oxygen therapy equipment is the best technique for controlling bacterial growth.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy. When planning preoperative teaching, what information should the nurse communicate to the patient? A) How to milk the chest tubing B) How to splint the incision when coughing C) How to take prophylactic antibiotics correctly D) How to manage the need for fluid restriction

B (EXPLANATION: Prior to thoracotomy, the nurse educates the patient about how to splint the incision with the hands, a pillow, or a folded towel. The patient is not taught how to milk the chest tubing because this is performed by the nurse. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally used and fluid restriction is not indicated following thoracotomy.)

A sputum study has been ordered for a patient who has developed coarse chest crackles and a fever. At what time should the nurse best collect the sample? A) Immediately after a meal B) First thing in the morning C) At bedtime D) After a period of exercise

B (EXPLANATION: Sputum samples ideally are obtained early in the morning before the patient has had anything to eat or drink.)

A gerontologic nurse is analyzing the data from a patients focused respiratory assessment. The nurse is aware that the amount of respiratory dead space increases with age. What is the effect of this physiological change? A) Increased diffusion of gases B) Decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen C) Decreased shunting of blood D) Increased ventilation

B (EXPLANATION: The amount of respiratory dead space increases with age. Combined with other changes, this results in a decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen with increasing age, producing lower oxygen levels in the arterial circulation. Decreased shunting and increased ventilation do not occur with age.)

The nurse has explained to the patient that after his thoracotomy, it will be important to adhere to a coughing schedule. The patient is concerned about being in too much pain to be able to cough. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this client? A) Teach him postural drainage. B) Teach him how to perform huffing. C) Teach him to use a mini-nebulizer. D) Teach him how to use a metered dose inhaler.

B (EXPLANATION: The technique of huffing may be helpful for the patient with diminished expiratory flow rates or for the patient who refuses to cough because of severe pain. Huffing is the expulsion of air through an open glottis. Inhalers, nebulizers, and postural drainage are not substitutes for performing coughing exercises.)

A patient is having her tonsils removed. The patient asks the nurse what function the tonsils normally serve. Which of the following would be the most accurate response? A) The tonsils separate your windpipe from your throat when you swallow. B) The tonsils help to guard the body from invasion of organisms. C) The tonsils make enzymes that you swallow and which aid with digestion. D) The tonsils help with regulating the airflow down into your lungs.

B (EXPLANATION: The tonsils, the adenoids, and other lymphoid tissue encircle the throat. These structures are important links in the chain of lymph nodes guarding the body from invasion of organisms entering the nose and throat. The tonsils do not aid digestion, separate the trachea from the esophagus, or regulate airflow to the bronchi.)

While assessing a patient who has pneumonia, the nurse has the patient repeat the letter E while the nurse auscultates. The nurse notes that the patients voice sounds are distorted and that the letter A is audible instead of the letter E. How should this finding be documented? A) Bronchophony B) Egophony C) Whispered pectoriloquy D) Sonorous wheezes

B (EXPLANATION: This finding would be documented as egophony, which can be best assessed by instructing the patient to repeat the letter E. The distortion produced by consolidation transforms the sound into a clearly heard A rather than E. Bronchophony describes vocal resonance that is more intense and clearer than normal. Whispered pectoriloquy is a very subtle finding that is heard only in the presence of rather dense consolidation of the lungs. Sound is so enhanced by the consolidated tissue that even whispered words are heard. Sonorous wheezes are not defined as a voice sound, but rather as a breath sound.)

A medical patient rings her call bell and expresses alarm to the nurse, stating, I've just coughed up this blood. That can't be good, can it? How can the nurse best determine whether the source of the blood was the patient's lungs? A) Obtain a sample and test the pH of the blood, if possible. B) Try to see if the blood is frothy or mixed with mucus. C) Perform oral suctioning to see if blood is obtained. D) Swab the back of the patients throat to see if blood is present.

B (EXPLANATION: Though not definitive, blood from the lung is usually bright red, frothy, and mixed with sputum. Testing the pH of nonarterial blood samples is not common practice and would not provide important data. Similarly, oral suctioning and swabbing the patient's mouth would not reveal the source.)

A patient asks the nurse why an infection in his upper respiratory system is affecting the clarity of his speech. Which structure serves as the patients resonating chamber in speech? A) Trachea B) Pharynx C) Paranasal sinuses D) Larynx

C (EXPLANATION: A prominent function of the sinuses is to serve as a resonating chamber in speech. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, serves as the passage between the larynx and the bronchi. The pharynx is a tubelike structure that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx. The pharynx also functions as a passage for the respiratory and digestive tracts. The major function of the larynx is vocalization through the function of the vocal cords. The vocal cords are ligaments controlled by muscular movements that produce sound.)

The nurse is preparing to suction a patient with an endotracheal tube. What should be the nurses first step in the suctioning process? A) Explain the suctioning procedure to the patient and reposition the patient. B) Turn on suction source at a pressure not exceeding 120 mm Hg. C) Assess the patient's lung sounds and SAO2 via pulse oximeter. D) Perform hand hygiene and don nonsterile gloves, goggles, gown, and mask.

C (EXPLANATION: Assessment data indicate the need for suctioning and allow the nurse to monitor the effect of suction on the patient's level of oxygenation. Explaining the procedure would be the second step; performing hand hygiene is the third step, and turning on the suction source is the fourth step.)

A patient is undergoing testing to see if he has a pleural effusion. Which of the nurse's respiratory assessment findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and a dull sound upon percussion of the chest wall B) Decreased tactile fremitus, wheezing, and a hyper-resonant sound upon percussion of the chest wall C) Lung fields dull to percussion, absent breath sounds, and a pleural friction rub D) Normal tactile fremitus, decreased breath sounds, and a resonant sound upon percussion of the chest wall.

C (EXPLANATION: Assessment findings consistent with a pleural effusion include affected lung fields being dull to percussion and absence of breath sounds. A pleural friction rub may also be present. The other listed signs are not typically associated with a pleural effusion.)

While assessing the patient, the nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the patients closed chest-drainage system. What should the nurse conclude? A) The system is functioning normally. B) The patient has a pneumothorax. C) The system has an air leak. D) The chest tube is obstructed.

C (EXPLANATION: Constant bubbling in the chamber often indicates an air leak and requires immediate assessment and intervention. The patient with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the nurse should notice that the fluid has stopped fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.)

The critical care nurse is precepting a new nurse on the unit. Together they are caring for a patient who has a tracheostomy tube and is receiving mechanical ventilation. What action should the critical care nurse recommend when caring for the cuff? A) Deflate the cuff overnight to prevent tracheal tissue trauma. B) Inflate the cuff to the highest possible pressure in order to prevent aspiration. C) Monitor the pressure in the cuff at least every 8 hours D) Keep the tracheostomy tube plugged at all times.

C (EXPLANATION: Cuff pressure must be monitored by the respiratory therapist or nurse at least every 8 hours by attaching a handheld pressure gauge to the pilot balloon of the tube or by using the minimal leak volume or minimal occlusion volume technique. Plugging is only used when weaning the patient from tracheal support. Deflating the cuff overnight would be unsafe and inappropriate. High cuff pressure can cause tissue trauma.)

The nurse is caring for a patient in the ED for epistaxis. What information should the nurse include in patient discharge teaching as a way to prevent epistaxis? A) Keep nasal passages clear. B) Use decongestants regularly. C) Humidify the indoor environment. D) Use a tissue when blowing the nose.

C (EXPLANATION: Discharge teaching for prevention of epistaxis should include the following: avoid forceful nose bleeding, straining, high altitudes, and nasal trauma (nose picking). Adequate humidification may prevent drying of the nasal passages. Keeping nasal passages clear and using a tissue when blowing the nose are not included in discharge teaching for the prevention of epistaxis. Decongestants are not indicated.)

The nurse is planning the care of a patient who is scheduled for a laryngectomy. The nurse should assign the highest priority to which postoperative nursing diagnosis? A) Anxiety related to diagnosis of cancer B) Altered nutrition related to swallowing difficulties C) Ineffective airway clearance related to airway alterations D) Impaired verbal communication related to removal of the larynx

C (EXPLANATION: Each of the listed diagnoses is valid, but ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for all conditions.)

A patient in the ICU has had an endotracheal tube in place for 3 weeks. The physician has ordered that a tracheostomy tube be placed. The patient's family wants to know why the endotracheal tube cannot be left in place. What would be the nurse's best response? A) The physician may feel that mechanical ventilation will have to be used long-term. B) Long-term use of an endotracheal tube diminishes the normal breathing reflex. C) When an endotracheal tube is left in too long it can damage the lining of the windpipe. D) It is much harder to breathe through an endotracheal tube than a tracheostomy.

C (EXPLANATION: Endotracheal intubation may be used for no longer than 2 to 3 weeks, by which time a tracheostomy must be considered to decrease irritation of and, trauma to, the tracheal lining, to reduce the incidence of vocal cord paralysis (secondary to laryngeal nerve damage), and to decrease the work of breathing. The need for long-term ventilation would not be the primary rationale for this change in treatment. Endotracheal tubes do not diminish the breathing reflex.)

The occupational health nurse is obtaining a patient history during a pre-employment physical. During the history, the patient states that he has hereditary angioedema. The nurse should identify what implication of this health condition? A) It will result in increased loss of work days. B) It may cause episodes of weakness due to reduced cardiac output. C) It can cause life-threatening airway obstruction. D) It is unlikely to interfere with the individual's health.

C (EXPLANATION: Hereditary angioedema is an inherited condition that is characterized by episodes of life-threatening laryngeal edema. No information supports lost days of work or reduced cardiac function.)

The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning on a medical patient and obtains copious amounts of secretions from the patient's airway, even after inserting and withdrawing the catheter several times. How should the nurse proceed? A) Continue suctioning the patient until no more secretions are obtained. B) Perform chest physiotherapy rather than nasotracheal suctioning. C) Wait several minutes and then repeat suctioning. D) Perform postural drainage and then repeat suctioning.

C (EXPLANATION: If additional suctioning is needed, the nurse should withdraw the catheter to the back of the pharynx, reassure the patient, and oxygenate for several minutes before resuming suctioning. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage are not necessarily indicated.)

The nurse is caring for an elderly patient in the PACU. The patient has had a bronchoscopy, and the nurse is monitoring for complications related to the administration of lidocaine. For what complication related to the administration of large doses of lidocaine in the elderly should the nurse assess? A) Decreased urine output and hypertension B) Headache and vision change C) Confusion and lethargy D) Jaundice and elevated liver enzymes

C (EXPLANATION: Lidocaine may be sprayed on the pharynx or dropped on the epiglottis and vocal cords and into the trachea to suppress the cough reflex and minimize discomfort during a bronchoscopy. After the procedure, the nurse will assess for confusion and lethargy in the elderly, which may be due to the large doses of lidocaine administered during the procedure. The other listed signs and symptoms are not specific to this problem.)

The nurse is creating a plan of car for a patient diagnosed with acute laryngitis. What intervention should be included in the patients plan of care? A) Place warm cloths on the patient's throat, as needed. B) Have the patient inhale warm steam three times daily. C) Encourage the patient to limit speech whenever possible. D) Limit the patient's fluid intake to 1.5 L/day.

C (EXPLANATION: Management of acute laryngitis includes resting the voice, avoiding irritants (including smoking), resting, and inhaling cool steam or an aerosol. Fluid intake should be increased. Warm cloths on the throat will not help relieve the symptoms of acute laryngitis.)

A 45-year-old obese man arrives in a clinic with complaints of daytime sleepiness, difficulty going to sleep at night, and snoring. The nurse should recognize the manifestations of what health problem? A) Adenoiditis B) Chronic tonsillitis C) Obstructive sleep apnea D) Laryngeal cancer

C (EXPLANATION: Obstructive sleep apnea occurs in men, especially those who are older and overweight. Symptoms include excessive daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and snoring. Daytime sleepiness and difficulty going to sleep at night are not indications of tonsillitis or adenoiditis. This patient's symptoms are not suggestive of laryngeal cancer.)

The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after thoracotomy. The patient is going home on oxygen therapy and requires wound care. As a result, he will receive home care nursing. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching for this patient? A) Safe technique for self-suctioning of secretions B) Technique for performing postural drainage C) Correct and safe use of oxygen therapy equipment D) How to provide safe and effective tracheostomy care

C (EXPLANATION: Respiratory care and other treatment modalities (oxygen, incentive spirometry, chest physiotherapy [CPT], and oral, inhaled, or IV medications) may be continued at home. Therefore, the nurse needs to instruct the patient and family in their correct and safe use. The scenario does not indicate the patient needs help with suctioning, postural drainage, or tracheostomy care.)

The ED nurse is assessing the respiratory function of a teenage girl who presented with acute shortness of breath. Auscultation reveals continuous wheezes during inspiration and expiration. This finding is most suggestive what? A) Pleurisy B) Emphysema C) Asthma D) Pneumonia

C (EXPLANATION: Sibilant wheezes are commonly associated with asthma. They do not normally accompany pleurisy, emphysema, or pneumonia.)

The nurse is completing a patient's health history with regard to potential risk factors for lung disease. What interview question addresses the most significant risk factor for respiratory diseases? A) Have you ever been employed in a factory, smelter, or mill? B) Does anyone in your family have any form of lung disease? C) Do you currently smoke, or have you ever smoked? D) Have you ever lived in an area that has high levels of air pollution?

C (EXPLANATION: Smoking the single most important contributor to lung disease, exceeds the significance of environmental, occupational, and genetic factors.)

A patient with a severe exacerbation of COPD requires reliable and precise oxygen delivery. Which mask will the nurse expect the physician to order? A) Non-rebreather air mask B) Tracheostomy collar C) Venturi mask D) Face tent

C (EXPLANATION: The Venturi mask provides the most accurate method of oxygen delivery. Other methods of oxygen delivery include the aerosol mask, tracheostomy collar, and face tents, but these do not match the precision of a Venturi mask.)

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. During assessment, the nurse finds that the patient is experiencing increased dyspnea. What is the most accurate measurement of the concentration of oxygen in the patient's blood? A) A capillary blood sample B) Pulse oximetry C) An arterial blood gas (ABG) study D) A complete blood count (CBC)

C (EXPLANATION: The arterial oxygen tension (partial pressure or PaO2) indicates the degree of oxygenation of the blood, and the arterial carbon dioxide tension (partial pressure or PaCO2) indicates the adequacy of alveolar ventilation. ABG studies aid in assessing the ability of the lungs to provide adequate oxygen and remove carbon dioxide and the ability of the kidneys to reabsorb or excrete bicarbonate ions to maintain normal body pH. Capillary blood samples are venous blood, not arterial blood, so they are not as accurate as an ABG. Pulse oximetry is a useful clinical tool but does not replace ABG measurement, because it is not as accurate. A CBC does not indicate the concentration of oxygen.)

The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a patient who is experiencing an exacerbation of her emphysema symptoms. When preparing to auscultate, what breath sounds should the nurse anticipate? A) Absence of breath sounds B) Wheezing with discontinuous breath sounds C) Faint breath sounds with prolonged expiration D) Faint breath sounds with fine crackles

C (EXPLANATION: The breath sounds of the patient with emphysema are faint or often completely inaudible. When they are heard, the expiratory phase is prolonged.)

A medical nurse has admitted a patient to the unit with a diagnosis of failure to thrive. The patient has developed a fever and cough, so a sputum specimen has been obtained. The nurse notes that the sputum is greenish and that there is a large quantity of it. The nurse notifies the patient's physician because these symptoms are suggestive of what? A) Pneumothorax B) Lung tumors C) Infection D) Pulmonary edema

C (EXPLANATION: The nature of the sputum is often indicative of its cause. A profuse amount of purulent sputum (thick and yellow, green, or rust-colored) or a change in color of the sputum is a common sign of a bacterial infection. Pink-tinged mucoid sputum suggests a lung tumor. Profuse, frothy, pink material, often welling up into the throat, may indicate pulmonary edema. A pneumothorax does not result in copious, green sputum.)

While assessing an acutely ill patient's respiratory rate, the nurse assesses four normal breaths followed by an episode of apnea lasting 20 seconds. How should the nurse document this finding? A) Eupnea B) Apnea C) Biot's respiration D) Cheyne-Stokes

C (EXPLANATION: The nurse will document that the patient is demonstrating a Biot's respiration pattern. Biot's respiration is characterized by periods of normal breathing (three to four breaths) followed by varying periods of apnea (usually 10 seconds to 1 minute). Cheyne-Stokes is a similar respiratory pattern, but it involves a regular cycle where the rate and depth of breathing increase and then decrease until apnea occurs. Biot's respiration is not characterized by the increase and decrease in the rate and depth, as characterized by Cheyne-Stokes. Eupnea is a normal breathing pattern of 12 to 18 breaths per minute. Bradypnea is a slower-than-normal rate (<10 breaths per minute), with normal depth and regular rhythm, and no apnea.)

A nurse has performed tracheal suctioning on a patient who experienced increasing dyspnea prior to a procedure. When applying the nursing process, how can the nurse best evaluate the outcomes of this intervention? A) Determine whether the patient can now perform forced expiratory technique (FET). B) Percuss the patient's lungs and thorax. C) Measure the patient's oxygen saturation. D) Have the patient perform incentive spirometry.

C (EXPLANATION: The patient's response to suctioning is usually determined by performing chest auscultation and by measuring the patient's oxygen saturation. FET, incentive spirometry, and percussion are not normally used as evaluative techniques.)

The home care nurse is assessing a patient who requires home oxygen therapy. What criterion indicates that an oxygen concentrator will best meet the needs of the patient in the home environment? A) The patient desires a low-maintenance oxygen delivery system that delivers oxygen flow rates up to 6 L/min. B) The patient requires a high-flow system for use with a tracheostomy collar. C) The patient desires a portable oxygen delivery system that can deliver 2 L/min. D) The patient's respiratory status requires a system that provides an FiO2 of 65%.

C (EXPLANATION: The use of oxygen concentrators is another means of providing varying amounts of oxygen, especially in the home setting. They can deliver oxygen flows from 1 to 10 L/min and provide an FiO2 of about 40%. They require regular maintenance and are not used for high-flow applications. The patient desiring a portable oxygen delivery system of 2L/min will benefit from the use of an oxygen concentrator.)

A patient with chronic lung disease is undergoing lung function testing. What test result denotes the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath? A) Total lung capacity B) Forced vital capacity C) Tidal volume D) Residual volume

C (EXPLANATION: Tidal volume refers to the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath. Total lung capacity is the maximal amount of air the lungs and respiratory passages can hold after a forced inspiration. Forced vital capacity is vital capacity performed with a maximally forced expiration. Residual volume is the maximal amount of air left in the lung after a maximal expiration.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day 2 following a total laryngectomy for supraglottic cancer. The nurse should prioritize what assessment? A) Assessment of body image B) Assessment of jugular venous pressure C) Assessment of carotid pulse D) Assessment of swallowing ability

D (EXPLANATION: A common postoperative complication from this type of surgery is difficulty in swallowing, which creates a potential for aspiration. Cardiovascular complications are less likely at this stage of recovery. The patients body image should be assessed, but dysphagia has the potential to affect the patients airway, and is a consequent priority.)

The campus nurse at a university is assessing a 21-year-old student who presents with a severe nosebleed. The site of bleeding appears to be the anterior portion of the nasal septum. The nurse instructs the student to tilt her head forward and the nurse applies pressure to the nose, but the students nose continues to bleed. Which intervention should the nurse next implement? A) Apply ice to the bridge of her nose B) Lay the patient down on a cot C) Arrange for transfer to the local ED D) Insert a tampon in the affected nare

D (EXPLANATION: A cotton tampon may be used to try to stop the bleeding. The use of ice on the bridge of the nose has no scientific rationale for care. Laying the client down on the cot could block the client's airway. Hospital admission is necessary only if the bleeding becomes serious.)

The home care nurse is planning to begin breathing retraining exercises with a client newly admitted to the home health service. The home care nurse knows that breathing retraining is especially indicated if the patient has what diagnosis? A) Asthma B) Pneumonia C) Lung cancer D) COPD

D (EXPLANATION: Breathing retraining is especially indicated in patients with COPD and dyspnea. Breathing retraining may be indicated in patients with other lung pathologies, but not to the extent indicated in patients with COPD.)

A nurse is educating a patient in anticipation of a procedure that will require a water-sealed chest drainage system. What should the nurse tell the patient and the family that this drainage system is used for? A) Maintaining positive chest-wall pressure B) Monitoring pleural fluid osmolarity C) Providing positive intrathoracic pressure D) Removing excess air and fluid

D (EXPLANATION: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. They are not used to maintain positive chest-wall pressure, monitor pleural fluid, or provide positive intrathoracic pressure.)

A patient has been diagnosed with heart failure that has not yet responded to treatment. What breath sound should the nurse expect to assess on auscultation? A) Expiratory wheezes B) Inspiratory wheezes C) Rhonchi D) Crackles

D (EXPLANATION: Crackles reflect underlying inflammation or congestion and are often present in such conditions as pneumonia, bronchitis, and congestive heart failure. Rhonchi and wheezes are associated with airway obstruction, which is not a part of the pathophysiology of heart failure.)

The nurse is performing patient education for a patient who is being discharged on mini-nebulizer treatments. What information should the nurse prioritize in the patients discharge teaching? A) How to count her respirations accurately B) How to collect serial sputum samples C) How to independently wean herself from treatment D) How to perform diaphragmatic breathing

D (EXPLANATION: Diaphragmatic breathing is a helpful technique to prepare for proper use of the small-volume nebulizer. Patient teaching would not include counting respirations and the patient should not wean herself from treatment without the involvement of her primary care provider. Serial sputum samples are not normally necessary.)

The nurse is assessing a patient who has a chest tube in place for the treatment of a pneumothorax. The nurse observes that the water level in the water seal rises and falls in rhythm with the patients' respirations. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Gently reinsert the chest tube 1 to 2 cm and observe if the water level stabilizes. B) Inform the physician promptly that there is in imminent leak in the drainage system. C) Encourage the patient to do deep breathing and coughing exercises. D) Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended.

D (EXPLANATION: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent. No further action is needed.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for a bronchoscopy. How should the nurse prepare the patient for this procedure? A) Administer a bolus of IV fluids. B) Arrange for the insertion of a peripherally inserted central catheter. C) Administer nebulized bronchodilators every 2 hours until the test. D) Withhold food and fluids for several hours before the test.

D (EXPLANATION: Food and fluids are withheld for 4 to 8 hours before the test to reduce the risk of aspiration when the cough reflex is blocked by anesthesia. IV fluids, bronchodilators, and a central line are unnecessary.)

A patient visiting the clinic is diagnosed with acute sinusitis. To promote sinus drainage, the nurse should instruct the patient to perform which of the following? A) Apply a cold pack to the affected area. B) Apply a mustard poultice to the forehead. C) Perform postural drainage. D) Increase fluid intake.

D (EXPLANATION: For a patient diagnosed with acute sinusitis, the nurse should instruct the patient that hot packs, increasing fluid intake, and elevating the head of the bed can promote drainage. Applying a mustard poultice will not promote sinus drainage. Postural drainage is used to remove bronchial secretions.)

The nurse is providing patient teaching to a young mother who has brought her 3-month-old infant to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. What action should the nurse recommend to the woman to prevent the transmission of organisms to her infant during the cold season? A) Take preventative antibiotics, as ordered. B) Gargle with warm salt water regularly. C) Dress herself and her infant warmly. D) Wash her hands frequently.

D (EXPLANATION: Handwashing remains the most effective preventive measure to reduce the transmission of organisms. Taking prescribed antibiotics, using warm salt-water gargles, and dressing warmly do not suppress transmission. Antibiotics are not prescribed for a cold.)

A patient comes to the ED and is admitted with epistaxis. Pressure has been applied to the patient's midline septum for 10 minutes, but the bleeding continues. The nurse should anticipate using what treatment to control the bleeding? A) Irrigation with a hypertonic solution B) Nasopharyngeal suction C) Normal saline application D) Silver nitrate application

D (EXPLANATION: If pressure to the midline septum does not stop the bleeding for epistaxis, additional treatment of silver nitrate application, Gelfoam, electrocautery, or vasoconstrictors may be used. Suction may be used to visualize the nasal septum, but it does not alleviate the bleeding. Irrigation with a hypertonic solution is not used to treat epistaxis.)

A patient recovering from thoracic surgery is on long-term mechanical ventilation and becomes very frustrated when he tries to communicate. What intervention should the nurse perform to assist the patient? A) Assure the patient that everything will be all right and that remaining calm is the best strategy. B) Ask a family member to interpret what the patient is trying to communicate. C) Ask the physician to wean the patient off the mechanical ventilator to allow the patient to speak freely. D) Express empathy and then encourage the patient to write, use a picture board, or spell words with an alphabet board.

D (EXPLANATION: If the patient uses an alternative method of communication, he will feel in better control and likely be less frustrated. Assuring the patient that everything will be all right offers false reassurance, and telling him not to be upset minimizes his feelings. Neither of these methods helps the patient to communicate. In a patient with an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, the family members are also likely to encounter difficulty interpreting the patient's wishes. Making them responsible for interpreting the patient's gestures may frustrate the family. The patient may be weaned off a mechanical ventilator only when the physiologic parameters for weaning have been met.)

A 42-year-old patient is admitted to the ED after an assault. The patient received blunt trauma to the face and has a suspected nasal fracture. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform? A) Administer nasal spray and apply an occlusive dressing to the patients face. B) Position the patients head in a dependent position. C) Irrigate the patients nose with warm tap water. D) Apply ice and keep the patients head elevated.

D (EXPLANATION: Immediately after the fracture, the nurse applies ice and encourages the patient to keep the head elevated. The nurse instructs the patient to apply ice packs to the nose to decrease swelling. Dependent positioning would exacerbate bleeding and the nose is not irrigated. Occlusive dressings are not used.)

The patient has just had an MRI ordered because a routine chest x-ray showed suspicious areas in the right lung. The physician suspects bronchogenic carcinoma. An MRI would most likely be ordered to assess for what in this patient? A) Alveolar dysfunction B) Forced vital capacity C) Tidal volume D) Chest wall invasion

D (EXPLANATION: MRI is used to characterize pulmonary nodules; to help stage bronchogenic carcinoma (assessment of chest wall invasion); and to evaluate inflammatory activity in interstitial lung disease, acute pulmonary embolism, and chronic thrombolytic pulmonary hypertension. Imaging would not focus on the alveoli since the problem in the bronchi. A static image such as MRI cannot inform PFT.)

A patients plan of care specifies postural drainage. What action should the nurse perform when providing this noninvasive therapy? A) Administer the treatment with the patient in a high Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position. B) Perform the procedure immediately following the patient's meals. C) Apply percussion firmly to bare skin to facilitate drainage. D) Assist the patient into a position that will allow gravity to move secretions.

D (EXPLANATION: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times per day. The patient uses gravity to facilitate postural draining. The skin should be covered with a cloth or a towel during percussion to protect the skin. Postural drainage is not administered in an upright position or directly following a meal.)

A patient is being treated for a pulmonary embolism and the medical nurse is aware that the patient suffered an acute disturbance in pulmonary perfusion. This involved an alteration in what aspect of normal physiology? A) Maintenance of constant osmotic pressure in the alveoli B) Maintenance of muscle tone in the diaphragm C) pH balance in the pulmonary veins and arteries D) Adequate flow of blood through the pulmonary circulation.

D (EXPLANATION: Pulmonary perfusion is the actual blood flow through the pulmonary circulation. Perfusion is not defined in terms of pH balance, muscle tone, or osmotic pressure.)

In addition to heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature, the nurse needs to assess a patients arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2). What procedure will best accomplish this? A) Incentive spirometry B) Arterial blood gas (ABG) measurement C) Peak flow measurement D) Pulse oximetry

D (EXPLANATION: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive procedure in which a small sensor is positioned over a pulsating vascular bed. It can be used during transport and causes the patient no discomfort. An incentive spirometer is used to assist the patient with deep breathing after surgery. ABG measurement can measure SaO2, but this is an invasive procedure that can be painful. Some patients with asthma use peak flow meters to measure levels of expired air.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the unit after a colon resection. The patient is showing signs of hypoxia. The nurse knows that this is probably caused by what? A) Nitrogen narcosis B) Infection C) Impaired diffusion D) Shunting

D (EXPLANATION: Shunting appears to be the main cause of hypoxia after thoracic or abdominal surgery and most types of respiratory failure. Impairment of normal diffusion is a less common cause. Infection would not likely be present at this early stage of recovery and nitrogen narcosis only occurs from breathing compressed air.)

The medical nurse is creating the care plan of an adult patient requiring mechanical ventilation. What nursing action is most appropriate? A) Keep the patient in a low Fowler's position. B) Perform tracheostomy care at least once per day. C) Maintain continuous bedrest. D) Monitor cuff pressure every 8 hours.

D (EXPLANATION: The cuff pressure should be monitored every 8 hours. It is important to perform tracheostomy care at least every 8 hours because of the risk of infection. The patient should be encouraged to ambulate, if possible, and a low Fowler's position is not indicated.)

The home care nurse is visiting a patient newly discharged home after a lobectomy. What would be most important for the home care nurse to assess? A) Resumption of the patients ADLs B) The family's willingness to care for the patient C) Nutritional status and fluid balance D) Signs and symptoms of respiratory complications

D (EXPLANATION: The nurse assesses the patient's adherence to the postoperative treatment plan and identifies acute or late postoperative complications. All options presented need assessment, but respiratory complications are the highest priority because they affect the patient's airway and breathing.)

The nurse is discussing activity management with a patient who is postoperative following thoracotomy. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding activity immediately following discharge? A) Walk 1 mile 3 to 4 times a week. B) Use weights daily to increase arm strength. C) Walk on a treadmill 30 minutes daily. D) Perform shoulder exercises five times daily.

D (EXPLANATION: The nurse emphasizes the importance of progressively increased activity. The nurse also instructs the patient on the importance of performing shoulder exercises five times daily. The patient should ambulate with limits and realize that the return of strength will likely be gradual and likely will not include weight lifting or lengthy walks.)

As a clinic nurse, you are caring for a patient who has been prescribed an antibiotic for tonsillitis and has been instructed to take the antibiotic for 10 days. When you do a follow-up call with this patient, you are informed that the patient is feeling better and is stopping the medication after taking it for 4 days. What information should you provide to this patient? A) Keep the remaining tablets for an infection at a later time. B) Discontinue the medications if the fever is gone. C) Dispose of the remaining medication in a biohazard receptacle. D) Finish all the antibiotics to eliminate the organism completely.

D (EXPLANATION: The nurse informs the patient about the need to take the full course of any prescribed antibiotic. Antibiotics should be taken for the entire 10-day period to eliminate the microorganisms. A patient should never be instructed to keep leftover antibiotics for use at a later time. Even if the fever or other symptoms are gone, the medications should be continued. Antibiotics do not need to be disposed of in a biohazard receptacle, though they should be discarded appropriately.)

The decision has been made to discharge a ventilator-dependent patient home. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for this patient and his family. What would be most important to include in this teaching plan? A) Administration of inhaled corticosteroids B) Assessment of neurologic status C) Turning and coughing D) Signs of pulmonary infection

D (EXPLANATION: The nurse teaches the patient and family about the ventilator, suctioning, tracheostomy care, signs of pulmonary infection, cuff inflation and deflation, and assessment of vital signs. Neurologic assessment and turning and coughing are less important than signs and symptoms of infection. Inhaled corticosteroids may or may not be prescribed.)

A nurse is teaching a patient how to perform flow type incentive spirometry prior to his scheduled thoracic surgery. What instruction should the nurse provide to the patient? A) Hold the spirometer at your lips and breathe in and out like you normally would. B) When you're ready, blow hard into the spirometer for as long as you can. C) Take a deep breath and then blow short, forceful breaths into the spirometer. D) Breathe in deeply through the spirometer, hold your breath briefly, and then exhale.

D (EXPLANATION: The patient should be taught to lace the mouthpiece of the spirometer firmly in the mouth, breathe air in through the mouth, and hold the breath at the end of inspiration for about 3 seconds. The patient should then exhale slowly through the mouthpiece.)

The nurse is explaining the safe and effective administration of nasal spray to a patient with seasonal allergies. What information is most important to include in this teaching? A) Finish the bottle of nasal spray to clear the infection effectively. B) Nasal spray can only be shared between immediate family members. C) Nasal spray should be administered in a prone position. D) Overuse of nasal spray may cause rebound congestion.

D (EXPLANATION: The use of topical decongestants is controversial because of the potential for a rebound effect. The patient should hold his or her head back for maximal distribution of the spray. Only the patient should use the bottle.)

A patient is scheduled to have excess pleural fluid aspirated with a needle in order to relieve her dyspnea. The patient inquires about the normal function of pleural fluid. What should the nurse describe? A) It allows for full expansion of the lungs within the thoracic cavity. B) It prevents the lungs from collapsing within the thoracic cavity. C) It limits lung expansion within the thoracic cavity. D) It lubricates the movement of the thorax and lungs.

D (EXPLANATION: The visceral pleura cover the lungs; the parietal pleura line the thorax. The visceral and parietal pleura and the small amount of pleural fluid between these two membranes serve to lubricate the thorax and lungs and permit smooth motion of the lungs within the thoracic cavity with each breath. The pleura do not allow full expansion of the lungs, prevent the lungs from collapsing, or limit lung expansion within the thoracic cavity.)

The nurse caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube recognizes several disadvantages of an endotracheal tube. What would the nurse recognize as a disadvantage of endotracheal tubes? A) Cognition is decreased. B) Daily arterial blood gases (ABGs) are necessary. C) Slight tracheal bleeding is anticipated. D) The cough reflex is depressed.

D (EXPLANATION: There are several disadvantages of an endotracheal tube. Disadvantages include suppression of the patients cough reflex, thickening of secretions, and depressed swallowing reflexes. Ulceration and stricture of the larynx or trachea may develop, but bleeding is not an expected finding. The tube should not influence cognition and daily ABGs are not always required.)

A patient has a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. The nurse is aware that neuromuscular disorders such as multiple sclerosis may lead to a decreased vital capacity. What does vital capacity measure? A) The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath B) The volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration C) The maximal volume of air inhaled after normal expiration D) The maximal volume of air exhaled from the point of maximal inspiration

D (EXPLANATION: Vital capacity is measured by having the patient take in a maximal breath and exhale fully through a spirometer. Vital lung capacity is the maximal volume of air exhaled from the point of maximal inspiration, and neuromuscular disorders such as multiple sclerosis may lead to a decreased vital capacity. Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath. The volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration is the total lung capacity. Inspiratory capacity is the maximal volume of air inhaled after normal expiration.)