Practice Test

By about ____ months of age, children's babbling narrows to include only sounds and sound combinations that belong to the language they hear every day.

A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 14 9. Typical language development milestones between nine and 12 months include: 1. Babbling in long, repetitive strings. 2. Understanding simple sentences, questions, and requests, such as \"Please give the book to Daddy.\" 3. Taking turns making sounds with you. 4. Copying speech sounds. 5. Responding to her name. 6. Pointing and talking to specific objects.

As described by Vygotsky, private speech is:

A. a means of self-guidance that eventually becomes inner speech. B. a means of self-guidance that interferes with cognitive development. C. due to egocentrism and gradually fades away. D. due to egocentrism and plays an important role in cognitive development. a means of self-guidance that eventually becomes inner speech

A high level of expressed emotion by family members toward patients with schizophrenia has been linked to:

A. caregiver burnout. B. substance use by the patient. C. a better prognosis. D. an increased risk for relapse. an increased risk for relapse. Family members high in expressed emotion cause relapse in psychological disorders such as schizophrenia, alcoholism, children with learning disabilities, and bipolar disorder. The stress from negative criticism and pity becomes a burden on the person with a disorder, and the only way to cope is relapse.

The core symptoms of the Type A behavior pattern include all of the following except:

A. competitiveness. B. time urgency. C. hostility. D. depersonalization. Answer D is correct. As described by Friedman and Rosenman (1959), the Type A behavior pattern is characterized by a chronic sense of time urgency, excessive competitiveness, and hostility.

A researcher conducted a study to assess the effects of cognitive behavior therapy for treating depression in adolescents by comparing it to nondirective supportive therapy. Fifty adolescents who recently received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder were randomly assigned to one of the two therapies. Each participant's level of depression was assessed at the beginning of treatment and one month after treatment ended. The results indicated that adolescents in both groups improved to the same degree in terms of depressive symptoms. Which of the following is the biggest threat to this study's internal validity?

A. differential selection B. reactivity C. maturation D. instrumentation Answer C is correct. The lack of difference in the outcomes for the two groups in this study could be due to the fact that the treatments were equally effective or to maturation since symptoms of major depressive disorder tend to decline in severity or remit over time with or without treatment

Jung referred to the process of developing a unique and unified personality as:

A. differentiation. B. self-actualization. C. individuation. D. introjection. individuation. Carl Jung upheld individuation as an important life goal. In Jungian psychology, individuation describes a process of self-realization—the discovery of one's life purpose or what one believes to be the meaning of life, for example.

Which of the following is NOT one of the types of organizational justice?

A. distributive B. normative C. interactional D. procedural Answer B is correct. A distinction is made between three types of organizational justice - procedural, distributive, and interactional.

For most infants, volitional (versus reflexive) auditory localization begins at about:

A. six weeks of age. B. nine weeks of age. C. four months of age. D. nine months of age. four months of age.

A student receives a score of 85 on a test that has a mean of 75 and standard deviation of 5. What is the z-score equivalent of the student's score?

A. +1.0 B. +2.0 C. +2.5 D. +10 Answer B is correct. You could have calculated the z-score to identify the correct answer to this question using the following formula: z = (X -M/SD) = (85 - 75)/5 = 10/5 = +2.0. Alternatively, you could have noticed that the student's score is two standard deviations above the mean, which means that his/her z-score is +2.0.

A z-score of 0 is equivalent to a T-score of _____ and a stanine of _____.

A. 10; 5 B. 100; 10 C. 50; 10 D. 50; 5 Answer D is correct. A z-score of 0, a T-score of 50, and a stanine of 5 are all equivalent to the mean score obtained by the norm group

As defined by Bowen, the intrapersonal aspect of differentiation refers to a person's ability to separate:

A. needs from desires. B. the past from the present. C. thinking from feeling. D. him/herself from others. thinking from feeling.

Realistic conflict theory focuses on conflicts between groups that are due to:

A. status inequality. B. competition for scarce resources. C. differences in basic values. D. differences in political power. Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory (Pettigrew, 1978), prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between different groups for scarce and valued resources.

When two or more patients are seen in therapy together, it's called...

a. group therapy. b. individual therapy. c. cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. Gestalt therapy Group therapy. Group therapy is when two or more people are seen together for therapeutic intervention. Patients can have similar problems, or it can consist of a problem mix. The group therapy experience allows patients to see that they are not alone in what they are experiencing and allows them to gain feedback from other group members (as well as the therapist). Within the group therapy setting, patients are also able to interact with others and share their feelings in a safe, managed setting. Many patients are good candidates for group therapy, although some are not (e.g., patients with severe symptoms, hostility, or psychosis).

For a sample of middle school students with high IQs, the correlation between IQ scores and achievement test scores is .35. If the correlation between IQ scores and achievement test scores is calculated for a sample of middle school students whose IQs represent the full range of IQ scores, the correlation coefficient is likely to be:

A. .35 B. larger than .35. C. smaller than .35. D. smaller or larger than .35 Answer B is correct. The scores used to obtain the original correlation coefficient had a restriction in range because the sample included only students with high IQs. A restricted range of scores tends to lower the correlation coefficient, so recalculating the coefficient for students with an unrestricted range is likely to produce a larger correlation coefficient.

When a predictor's reliability coefficient is .49, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than:

A. .70. B. .51. C. .49. D. 30 Answer A is correct. The maximum criterion-related validity coefficient for a predictor is equal to the square root of its reliability coefficient: The square root of .49 is .70.

A 21-year-old man is extraverted and talkative and has a history of impulsive and criminal behaviors that began during his pre-adolescent years. He will most likely obtain elevated scores on which of the following MMPI-2 clinical scales?

A. 1(Hs) and 3(Hy) B. 1(Hs) and 6(Pa) C. 0(Si) and 4(Pd) D. 4(Pd) and 9(Ma) Answer D is correct. It makes sense that a person with a history of criminal behaviors will obtain an elevated score on scale 4, which is the Psychopathic Deviate (PD) scale. This narrows the choices to answers C and D: Answer C can be eliminated because scale 0 is the Social Introversion scale. A high score on this scale indicates social discomfort and withdrawal, but this young man is extraverted and talkative. That leaves answer D which is elevated scores on the Psychopathic Deviate and Hypomania scales. Individuals with high scores on these scales have antisocial tendencies and are manipulative, impulsive, and extraverted.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder cannot be assigned to a person who is less than _____ years of age.

A. 12 B. 15 C. 18 D. 21 18. Antisocial personality disorder, sometimes called sociopathy, is a mental condition in which a person consistently shows no regard for right and wrong and ignores the rights and feelings of others. People with antisocial personality disorder tend to antagonize, manipulate or treat others harshly or with callous indifference. They show no guilt or remorse for their behavior.Individuals with antisocial personality disorder often violate the law, becoming criminals. Adults with antisocial personality disorder typically show symptoms of conduct disorder before the age of 15. Signs and symptoms of conduct disorder include serious, persistent behavior problems, such as: Aggression toward people and animals Destruction of property Deceitfulness Theft Serious violation of rules

The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires an onset of symptoms before ____ years of age.

A. 7 B. 9 C. 12 D. 15 12. DSM-5 ADD/ADHD Diagnostic Criteria Diagnostic criteria according to the DSM-5 for Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder are as follows: A. Either (1) or (1) and (2): (1) At least six of the following symptoms of inattention have persisted for at least 6 months to a degree that negatively impacts directly on social and academic/occupational activities, and is inconsistent with developmental level: Inattention: (a) Often fails to give close attention to details or makes careless mistakes in school work, work, or other activities. (b) Often has difficulty sustaining attention in tasks or play activities. (c) Often does not seem to listen when spoken to directly. (d) Often does not follow through on instructions and fails to finish school work, chores, or duties in the workplace (not due to oppositional behavior or failure to understand instructions). (e) Often has difficulty organizing tasks and activities. (f) Often avoids, dislikes, or is reluctant to engage in tasks that require sustained mental effort (such as schoolwork or homework; for older adolescents and adults, preparing reports, completing forms, reviewing lengthy papers). (g) Often loses things necessary for tasks or activities (e.g. toys, school assignments, pencils, books, or tools). (h) Is often easily distracted by stimuli unrelated to the subject or activity being dealt with. For older adolescents and adults, may include unrelated thoughts. (i) Is often forgetful in daily activities, such as doing chores, running errands; for older adolescents and adults, returning calls, paying bills and keeping appointments. (2) At least six of the following symptoms of hyperactivity-Impulsivity have persisted for at least 6 months to a degree that is maladaptive and inconsistent with developmental level: Hyperactivity: (a) Often fidgets with or taps hands or feet or squirms in seat. (b) Often leaves seat in classroom, office meetings or in other situations in which remaining seated is expected. (c)Often runs about or climbs excessively in situations in which it is inappropriate. In adolescents or adults, may be limited to subjective feelings of restlessness. (d) Often has difficulty playing or engaging in leisure activities quietly. (e) Is often "on the go" or often acts as if "driven by a motor." (f) Often talks excessively. Impulsivity: (g) Often blurts out an answer before a question has been completed, or completes people's sentences and cannot wait for turn in conversation. (h) Often has difficulty awaiting turn. (i) Often interrupts or intrudes on others (e.g., butts into conversations, games or activities; may start using other people's things without asking or receiving permission; for adolescents and adults, may intrude into or take over what others are doing). B. Several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12 years. C. Several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms are present in two or more settings (e.g., at home, school, or work; with friends or relatives; in other activities). D. There is clear evidence that the symptoms interfere with, or reduce the quality of, social, academic, or occupational functioning. E. The symptoms do not occur exclusively during the course of schizophrenia or another psychotic disorder and are not better explained by another mental disorder (e.g., mood disorder, anxiety disorder, dissociative disorder, personality disorder, substance intoxication or withdrawal). Attention Deficit Presentations Combined Presentation: if both Criteria (1) and (2) are met for the past 6 months. Predominantly Inattentive Presentation: if Criterion (1) is met but Criterion (2) is not met for the past 6 months. Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive Presentation: if Criterion (2) is met but Criterion (1) is not met for the past 6 months.

Based on the results of their meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies, Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) concluded that the average psychotherapy patient is better off than ____% of patients who do not receive psychotherapy.

A. 90 B. 80 C. 72 D. 44 80%. A primary finding of a landmark meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy efficacy studies (Smith, Glass, & Miller, 1980) was that the average effect size for psychotherapy was .85, indicating that "the average person who receives therapy is better off at the end of it than 80 percent of the persons who do not"

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements for bartering psychological services for goods or services?

A. Bartering is unacceptable except in the "most unusual circumstances." B. Bartering may be acceptable as long as it's unlikely to harm or exploit the client. C. Bartering is acceptable as long as a "fair market value" can be agreed upon for the goods or services. D. Bartering may be acceptable as long as it does not create a conflict of interest. Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 6.05 of the Ethics Code. It states that "psychologists may barter only if (1) it is not clinically contraindicated, and (2) the resulting arrangement is not exploitative."

Empirical criterion keying was used in the development of which of the following Strong Interest Inventory scales?

A. Basic Interest Scales B. Occupational Scales C. Occupational Scales and General Occupational Themes D. Basic Interest Scales and Occupational Scales Answer B is correct. Empirical criterion keying was used to construct the Occupational Scales of the SII. It involved comparing the responses of people employed in various occupations to the responses of a general representative sample of employed adults.

Which of the following best describes obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A. Both disorders involve obsessions and compulsions, but they're more pervasive in obsessive-compulsive disorder. B. Both disorders involve obsessions and compulsions, but they're of a longer duration in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. C. Only obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves mood-incongruent obsessions. D. Only obsessive-compulsive disorder involves true obsessions and compulsions. Only obsessive-compulsive disorder involves true obsessions and compulsions. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) is a serious personality disorder that is often confused with the more commonly known Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). These two disorders sound similar in name, and are often confused with each other, yet they are really two very different and very distinct disorders. The main distinction between the two disorders is that OCD sufferers perform ritualistic behaviors, and those persons with OCPD tend to be perfectionistic in many areas, causing their relationships with others to suffer greatly.

The __________ is a measure of receptive vocabulary that can be used with children, adolescents, and adults who have motor or speech impairments.

A. CAS2 B. CogAT7 C. KABC-II D. PPVT-4 Answer D is correct. The PPVT-4 is a measure of receptive vocabulary for individuals 2:6 to 90+ years of age. Because it does not require reading or writing, it's useful for examines who have speech or motor impairments

According to Sue (2006), White middle-class Americans are most likely to have which of the following worldviews?

A. EC-IR B. EC-ER C. IC-ER D. IC-IR IC-IR. Internal locus of control-internal locus of responsibility (IC-IR), external locus of control-internal locus of responsibility (EC-IR), external locus of control-external locus of responsibility (EC-ER), internal locus of control-external locus of responsibility (IC-ER)

Which of the following best describes the outcomes associated with early and late onset puberty for boys and girls?

A. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes than late onset puberty for both boys and girls. B. Late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes than early onset puberty for both boys and girls. C. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for boys, while late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for girls. D. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for girls, while late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for boys. Early onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for boys, while late onset puberty has more favorable outcomes for girls.

A 10-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder will most likely receive the highest score on the WISC-V's ________ Index and lowest score on the ________ Index.

A. Fluid Reasoning; Processing Speed B. Fluid Reasoning; Working Memory C. Verbal Comprehension; Working Memory D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed Answer A is correct. The WISC-V Technical and Interpretive Manual provides scores obtained by several clinical groups, including individuals with autism spectrum disorder who obtained the highest score on the Fluid Reasoning Index and lowest score on the Processing Speed Index.

According to Marcia (1966), in response to a question about her career goals, a 16-year-old experiencing identity foreclosure is most likely to say which of the following?

A. I'm going to be a lawyer because that's what my parents want me to do. B. It took me a while to make a choice, but I've finally decided to be a lawyer. C. I'm not really interested in thinking about what I'm going to do after high school. D. I've spent some time considering different occupations, but I haven't made a choice yet. I'm going to be a lawyer because that's what my parents want me to do.

As described by the full-scope evaluation model (Dessinger & Moseley, 2010), which of the following is true about summative evaluation?

A. It's conducted during training program development to determine if any changes are needed to meet the program's goals. B. It's conducted immediately after a training program is delivered to determine if the program has achieved its goals. C. It's conducted several months after a training program is delivered to evaluate its long-term effects on the trainees and the organization. D. It's conducted during training program development and after the program is delivered to evaluate the adequacy of the evaluation process. Answer B is correct. The Dessinger-Moseley full-scope evaluation model distinguishes between four types of training program evaluation - formative, summative, confirmative, and meta. A summative evaluation is conducted soon after a training program is delivered to assess its immediate effects.

Satisfaction and satisfactoriness are key concepts in which of the following theories?

A. Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision-making B. Super's self-concept theory of career development C. Brousseau and Driver's career concept model D. Dawis and Lofquist's theory of work adjustment Answer D is correct. Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) theory of work adjustment identifies tenure as the primary indicator of work adjustment and proposes that it's affected by two factors - satisfaction and satisfactoriness.

______ may develop after long-term use of a first-generation antipsychotic and begins with involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw.

A. Metabolic syndrome B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C. Dystonia D. Tardive dyskinesia Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is caused by long-term use of neuroleptic drugs, which are used to treat psychiatric conditions. Tardive dyskinesia causes repetitive, involuntary movements, such as grimacing and eye blinking.

_____________ are "mental shortcuts" that allow us to make quick judgments about people or events but can lead to inaccurate conclusions.

A. Mnemonic devices B. Prototypes C. Cognitive schemas D. Heuristics Answer D is correct. Heuristics are "mental shortcuts that provide quick estimates about the likelihood of uncertain events" (Baumeister & Bushman, 2013, p. 164). Although heuristics can be useful when it's necessary to make quick judgments, they can produce inaccurate conclusions.

Which of the following is true about the sleep patterns of older (versus younger) adults?

A. Older adults spend more time in Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep. B. Older adults experience more REM sleep in the second half of the sleep period. C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase. D. Older adults often begin a sleep period with REM sleep. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase. Advanced sleep phase disorder (ASPD) is a disorder of circadian timing being early relative to the desired and conventional bedtime. This disorder is more common among older adults. Symptoms include inability to stay awake until the desired bedtime and difficulty maintaining sleep until the desired wake time.

The results of which of the following can be interpreted using the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities?

A. PPVT-4 B. KABC-II C. CAS2 D. Leiter-3 Answer B is correct. Results of the KABC-II can be interpreted using the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities or Luria's neuropsychological processing model

___________ are the standards used in the APA's Ethics Code to define sexual harassment.

A. Quid pro quo and reasonable woman B. Hostile environment and reasonable person C. Quid pro quo and hostile environment D. Tangible detriment and reasonable person Answer B is correct. Standard 3.02 of APA's Ethics Code distinguishes between two types of behavior that constitute sexual harassment: behaviors that create a hostile work environment and behaviors that are sufficiently severe or intense "to be abusive to a reasonable person."

__________ refers to a bystander's decision not to intervene in an emergency situation because the bystander believes the inactivity of other bystanders is due to their conclusion that the situation does not constitute an emergency.

A. The overjustification effect B. The false consensus effect C. Audience inhibition D. Pluralistic ignorance Answer D is correct. Pluralistic ignorance has been identified as a contributor to bystander apathy and refers to a misperception of how others are thinking or feeling.

With regard to ethical requirements, which of the following is true about referral fees?

A. They are unacceptable in any circumstance. B. They are acceptable as long as a referred client's fee is not increased to compensate for the fee paid for the referral. C. They are acceptable as long as both parties agree that the amount of the fee is equitable. D. They are acceptable as long as they're for the actual services provided by the person who made the referral. Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 6.07. It states that, "when psychologists pay, receive payment from, or divide fees with another professional ... the payment to each is based on the services provided (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) and is not based on the referral itself."

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding psychologists' use of client testimonials in brochures and other statements describing their professional services?

A. They may use only unsolicited testimonials from former and current therapy clients. B. They may use solicited or unsolicited testimonials from former and current therapy clients as long as the clients are not compensated for them. C. They may use solicited testimonials from former therapy clients who are not vulnerable to undue influence. D. They may use solicited testimonials from former therapy clients as long as they do not include misleading information. Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 5.04 of the Ethics Code. It prohibits psychologists from soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients and from others "who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence." Of course, psychologists would not want to use testimonials that provide misleading information (answer D) but, even if the information is accurate, they would not use solicited testimonials from former therapy clients if those clients are vulnerable to undue influence.

A 68-year-old woman recently received a diagnosis of mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease. Most likely she will receive the highest score on the WAIS-IV's __________ Index and lowest score on the __________ Index.

A. Verbal Comprehension; Perceptual Reasoning B. Working Memory; Perceptual Reasoning C. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed D. Perceptual Reasoning; Processing Speed Answer C is correct. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the WAIS-IV Indexes that have the lowest and highest scores for individuals in several clinical samples. Note that for many of these samples - including individuals with mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease - the highest index score is on the Verbal Comprehension Index and the lowest score is on the Processing Speed Index.

Which of the following tests would be most useful for confirming a diagnosis of intellectual disability?

A. Vineland-3 B. Stroop Test C. Benton Test D. MMSE Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability requires deficits in intellectual functions and adaptive functioning, and the Vineland-3 is a measure of adaptive functioning.

Inputs, throughputs, and outputs are the key elements of:

A. Weber's bureaucracy, B. Taylor's scientific management, C. Katz and Kahn's open-system theory. D. McGregor's Theory Y. Answer C is correct. Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory describes organizational operations as involving inputs, throughputs, and outputs.

Bill has just received a diagnosis of specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type. The most effective treatment for Bill is likely to be exposure and response prevention and:

A. a beta-blocker. B. an anxiolytic. C. applied relaxation. D. applied tension. applied tension. Applied muscle tension is a special variant of in vivo exposure for the treatment of blood-injection-injury phobia. This treatment uses standard exposure techniques but also incorporates muscle tension exercises to respond to decreases in blood pressure that can lead to fainting. Exposure and response prevention (ERP). This is a specific form of CBT. As the name suggests, you'll be exposed to the things that trigger your anxiety, a little at a time. You'll learn new ways to respond to them in place of your repetitive rituals. ERP is a process you may do one-on-one with your mental health professional or in group therapy, either by yourself or with your family there.

Research on the "pratfall effect" has shown that, when a person makes an embarrassing mistake or blunder, this makes:

A. a competent person less attractive. B. a competent person more attractive. C. an average person more attractive. D. a competent or average person less attractive. Answer B is correct. Aronson, Willerman, and Floyd's (1966) research on the pratfall effect found that the attractiveness of a person who is perceived as being competent increases when that person commits a blunder, while the attractiveness of a person who is perceived as being average decreases when he/she commits a blunder.

A positive halo error occurs when:

A. a rater gives all employees high ratings on a measure of job performance, regardless of their actual performance. B. a rater who just rated a below-average employee gives a subsequent employee higher performance ratings than she deserves. C. a rater consistently rates employees who seem similar to him more favorably than employees who seem dissimilar. D. a rater who views one performance dimension as being most important rates employees who score high on that dimension high on all other dimensions. Answer D is correct. The halo error occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how the rater rates the employee on all other dimensions, even when they're unrelated to that dimension. The halo error can be positive or negative.

When assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability to a child, the level of severity of the disorder is determined by considering the child's:

A. adaptive functioning. B. socioemotional functioning. C. full-scale IQ score. D. adaptive functioning and full-scale IQ score. For the diagnosis of intellectual disability, level of severity (mild, moderate, severe, or profound) is based on adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

The probability of making a Type II error equals which of the following?

A. alpha B. beta C. one minus alpha D. one minus beta Answer B is correct. The probability of making a Type II error is equal to beta which is not set by the researcher but can be reduced by increasing statistical power.

A patient with __________ will deny that her left arm is paralyzed.

A. anosognosia B. asomatognosia C. prosopagnosia D. Gerstmann's syndrome Anosognosia. Anosognosia is a deficit of self-awareness, a condition in which a person with a disability is unaware of its existence. It was first named by the neurologist Joseph Babinski in 1914. Anosognosia results from physiological damage to brain structures, typically to the parietal lobe or a diffuse lesion on the fronto-temporal-parietal area in the right hemisphere, and is thus a neurological disorder.

Although the exact cause of Tourette's disorder is unknown, its symptoms have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?

A. basal ganglia B. suprachiasmatic nucleus C. thalamus D. cingulate cortex basal ganglia. The cause of Tourette's syndrome is unknown, but the pathophysiology most likely involves basal ganglia and frontocortical circuits. Tourette syndrome is a neuropsychiatric disorder characterized by vocal and motor tics. Tics represent a cardinal symptom traditionally associated with a dysfunction of the basal ganglia leading to an excess of the dopamine neurotransmitter.

The elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981) distinguishes between:

A. central and peripheral processing routes. B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment. C. alpha and omega strategies. D. congruent and incongruent states. Answer A is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, a persuasive message can be processed through the central route or the peripheral route.

As described by Janis (1982), the symptoms of groupthink include all of the following except:

A. collective rationalization. B. an illusion of moral superiority. C. low group cohesiveness. D. self-censorship. Answer C is correct. According to Janis, the symptoms of groupthink include illusions of invulnerability and superior morality, use of collective rationalization, excessive stereotyping, self-censorship, and the presence of self-appointed mindguards. A high degree of group cohesiveness increases the risk for groupthink.

As described by Carl Rogers, incongruence between self-concept and experience is caused by which of the following?

A. conditions of worth B. a chronic boundary disturbance C. "bad choices" D. feelings of inferiority conditions of worth. Conditions of Worth are conditions we believe we have to meet to gain acceptance, love or positive regard from others. As children, we quickly learn what behaviors please parents, caregivers, teachers, friendship groups and society in general. Eventually, these become introjected values - internalized ways of behaving based on the expectations of others. These expectations may eventually clash with our individual world views, which may lead to unhappiness, depression or anxiety.

To ensure that job applicants believe that questions in a job selection test are relevant to job performance so they do their best when answering them, the test developer will want to make sure the test has adequate ________ validity.

A. content B. face C. convergent D. divergent Answer B is correct. Face validity refers to the extent to which test items "look valid" to examinees. It's not an actual type of test validity but is often important for ensuring that examinees are motivated to do their best when answering test items. (Because adequate content validity does not necessarily guarantee adequate face validity, answer B is better than answer A.)

During the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the adrenal cortex releases which of the following?

A. cortisol B. norepinephrine C. thyroxine D. glutamate Answer A is correct. Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) consists of three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. During the resistance stage, the adrenal cortex releases the stress hormone cortisol.

Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic of hypothyroidism?

A. decreased libido B. confusion C. heat intolerance D. unexplained weight gain heat intolerance. The signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism vary, depending on the severity of the hormone deficiency. Problems tend to develop slowly, often over a number of years. At first, you may barely notice the symptoms of hypothyroidism, such as fatigue and weight gain. Or you may simply attribute them to getting older. But as your metabolism continues to slow, you may develop more-obvious problems. Hypothyroidism signs and symptoms may include: Fatigue, Increased sensitivity to cold, Constipation, Dry skin, Weight gain, Puffy face, Hoarseness, Muscle weakness, Elevated blood cholesterol level, Muscle aches, tenderness and stiffness Pain, stiffness or swelling in your joints, Heavier than normal or irregular menstrual periods, Thinning hair, Slowed heart rate, Depression, Impaired memory, Enlarged thyroid gland (goiter)

Of Gottman and Levenson's (2002) "Four Horsemen of the Apocalypse," which is the best predictor of divorce?

A. defensiveness B. criticism C. contempt D. stonewalling Contempt. Some of Gottman's most well-known research concerns his development of what he calls "The Four Horsemen of the Apocalypse." Gottman uses the Four Horsemen metaphor to describe patterns of relating to and communicating with one's spouse, especially during times of conflict. Gottman's research found that the presence of the Four Horsemen in a relationship plays a huge factor in the decision to get a divorce, particularly in the earlier stages of a marriage.

According to Beck, negative beliefs about oneself, the world, and the future are characteristic of:

A. depression. B. psychosis. C. hypochondriasis. D. paranoia. Depression. The cognitive triad includes negative beliefs about oneself, the environment or the world at large, and the future. Beck views these negative concepts on the self and the world as mental templates. He termed these cognitions "automatic thoughts".

According to Lazarus's (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, secondary appraisal involves:

A. determining if an event is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful. B. re-evaluating a primary appraisal when additional information is obtained. C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event. D. determining if an emotional response to an event is appropriate. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event. Lazarus specified two major types of appraisal methods which sit at the crux of the appraisal method: 1) primary appraisal, directed at the establishment of the significance or meaning of the event to the organism, and 2) secondary appraisal, directed at the assessment of the ability of the organism to cope with the consequences of the event. These two types go hand in hand as one establishes the importance of the event while the following assesses the coping mechanisms which Lazarus divided up into two parts: direct actions and cognitive reappraisal processes.

The DSM-5 requires the presence of which of the following for a diagnosis of delirium?

A. disorientation to time and place B. impaired attention and awareness C. a perceptual disturbance D. impaired memory impaired attention and awareness. 1. Disturbance in attention (ie, reduced ability to direct, focus, sustain, and shift attention), awareness (reduced orientation to the environment) 2. Change in cognition (eg, memory deficit, disorientation, language disturbance, visual spatial ability, or perception) 3. The disturbance develops over a short period (usually hours to a few days), represents a change from baseline attention and awareness, tends to fluctuate in severity during the course of a day.

When relying on the representativeness heuristic to make judgments, we:

A. distort disconfirming information. B. ignore base rates. C. focus on previous errors. D. focus on socially desirable alternatives. Answer B is correct. When relying on the representativeness heuristic, people ignore base rates and other important information and base their judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on the extent to which the event resembles a prototype (typical case).

Sleepwalking and sleep terrors usually occur:

A. during Stage 1 or 2 sleep in the middle of a major sleep period. B. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period. C. during REM sleep in the middle of a major sleep period. D. during REM sleep in the first third of a major sleep period. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period. Sleepwalking and night terrors are both situations where your brain partially wakes up from deep sleep. They are both types of Non-REM sleep parasomnias. Sleepwalking most often occurs during deep non-REM sleep (stages 3 and 4 sleep) early in the night. It can occur during REM sleep in the early morning. Sleepwalkers are usually children, although the disorder can occur in adults.

Lola has just received text messages from both Alfred and Alphonse, asking her to the junior prom. Lola likes both of them very much and has a hard time deciding which one to choose. After choosing Alphonse, Lola decides that she really doesn't like Alfred all that much. The change in Lola's feelings toward Alfred is best explained by which of the following?

A. elaboration likelihood model B. self-serving bias C. attitude inoculation D. cognitive dissonance theory Answer D is correct. Festinger's (1954) cognitive dissonance theory proposes that, when people have inconsistencies between two attitudes or between an attitude and behavior, they experience a state of mental discomfort ("cognitive dissonance") that they're motivated to relieve by changing an attitude or behavior. To reduce the dissonance Lola experienced by not choosing Alfred, she changed her attitude toward him

A potential side effect of carbamazepine is agranulocytosis, which is a(n) __________ disorder.

A. endocrine B. immune system C. blood D. kidney Blood. Agranulocytosis, also known as agranulosis or granulopenia, is an acute condition involving a severe and dangerous leukopenia (lowered white blood cell count), most commonly of neutrophils, and thus causing a neutropenia in the circulating blood.

As described by Piaget, __________ involves using current schemas to interpret new information.

A. equilibration B. adaptation C. assimilation D. accommodation Assimilation

When two variables are measured on a continuous scale and the relationship between the variables is nonlinear, you would use which of the following to determine the degree of association between the variables?

A. eta coefficient B. contingency coefficient C. biserial coefficient D. Pearson r Answer A is correct. Eta is the alternative to the Pearson r for calculating the correlation between two continuous variables when the variables have a nonlinear relationship.

A solution-focused therapist would most likely ask a client the "miracle question" to:

A. evaluate the client's progress in therapy. B. help the client identify treatment goals. C. identify the client's strengths and resources. D. identify the causes of the client's presenting problem. help the client identify treatment goals. The miracle question, created by Steve de Shazer one of the pioneers of solution-focused therapy in 1988, is a great 'thought experiment' and a creative way to devise good therapeutic goals. The miracle question basically asks people to make believe, however fantastical it may be in their particular circumstances, that their life has already dramatically changed for the better. So instead of focusing exclusively on how insoluble their problem is, and how difficult life is because of it, it switches attention to what will happen after the problem is dealt with - focusing on the desired future rather than the undesired present. One of the pillars of solution focused therapy. It jumps right over the mechanics of how, exactly, the problem will be solved into the mechanics of how will they live when it is solved.

The Solomon four-group design is used to:

A. evaluate the effects of pretesting. B. reduce the effects of multiple treatment interference. C. ensure that groups are similar at the beginning of the study. D. reduce experimenter expectancy effects. Answer A is correct. The Solomon four-group design is used to identify the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity.

As described in the DSM-5, the symptoms of a panic attack include all of the following except:

A. exaggerated startle reaction. B. heart palpitations or an accelerated heart rate. C. derealization or depersonalization. D. fear of losing control. exaggerated startle reaction Panic Disorder Symptoms. Panic attacks often consist of a pounding heart, sweatiness, a feeling of weakness, faintness, or dizziness. The hands may tingle or feel numb, the person may feel flushed or chilled. There can be chest pain or smothering sensations, a sense of unreality, a fear of impending doom, or loss of control.

Interoceptive exposure involves:

A. exposing the individual to bodily sensations associated with a panic attack. B. exposing the individual in virtual reality to stimuli that elicit a panic attack. C. having the individual use applied relaxation during exposure to stimuli that elicit a panic attack. D. having the individual use applied tension during exposure to stimuli that elicit a panic attack Exposing the individual to bodily sensations associated with a panic attack. Interoceptive exposure is a cognitive behavioral therapy technique used in the treatment of panic disorder. It refers to carrying out exercises that bring about the physical sensations of a panic attack, such as hyperventilation and high muscle tension, and in the process removing the patient's conditioned response that the physical sensations will cause an attack to happen.

The intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward is suggestive of which of the following?

A. factitious disorder B. malingering C. malingering and factitious disorder D. factitious disorder and conversion disorder Malingering. The motivations are different for people with factitious disorder versus malingerers. For people with factitious disorder, there's no expectation of an external reward. Their motivations are often unknown even to themselves. Malingerers fake illness for financial or personal gain. Another difference is that people with factitious disorder can't control their behavior. Even if they know the risks, they can't stop themselves. In contrast, the behavior of the malingerer is both intentional and voluntary. They don't feel a compulsion but rather choose to behave this way.

Allport (1954) identified four factors that increase the likelihood that intergroup contact will reduce hostility and conflict between the groups. These factors include all of the following except:

A. fair competition B. equal status C. superordinate goals D. support of authorities Answer A is correct. Allport's contact hypothesis proposes that contact between members of majority and minority groups is most effective for reducing prejudice and discrimination when (a) members of the groups have equal status; (b) members must work together to achieve common (superordinate) goals; (c) there is no competition between members; and (d) the contact is sanctioned by law, custom, or institutional authorities.

An advocate of Hersey and Blanchard's (1988) situational leadership model is most likely to agree that the best leadership style depends on the:

A. favorableness of the situation. B. nature of the leader-employee relationship. C. employee's job maturity. D. congruence between the employee's and the organization's goals. Answer C is correct. Hersey and Blanchard's (1988) situational leadership theory proposes that the optimal leadership style depends on a subordinate's job maturity, which is determined by the subordinate's willingness (motivation) and ability to perform the job.

A poor prognosis for people with schizophrenia is least associated with which of the following?

A. female gender B. anosognosia C. early age of onset D. predominantly negative symptoms female gender There are some particular factors that are associated with a poorer prognosis. These include: 1. Early onset of illness 2. Male 3. Strong negative symptoms 4. Family history of schizophrenia 5. Structural brain abnormalities 6. Prominent cognitive symptoms 7. Cigarette smoking 8. Poor nutrition 9. Sedentary lifestyle 10. Inadequate medical care 11. Poor support system 12. History of substance abuse

Which of the following antidepressants is least likely to have an adverse impact on sexual functioning?

A. fluoxetine B. phenelzine C. paroxetine D. bupropion Bupropion Common bupropion side effects may include: dry mouth, stuffy nose; nausea, constipation; sleep problems (insomnia); feeling anxious; dizziness; or joint pain.

Which of the following types of seizures involves a very brief loss of consciousness with a blank stare?

A. focal onset impaired awareness B. generalized onset non-motor C. tonic D. clonic generalized onset non-motor. An absence seizure is a Generalized Onset Non-Motor Seizure. An absence seizure causes a short period of "blanking out" or staring into space, and are usually so brief that they frequently escape notice. Like other kinds of seizures, they are caused by abnormal activity in a person's brain.

Long-term potentiation has been linked to the:

A. formation of new memories. B. recall of emotional memories. C. maintenance of memories in short-term memory. D. maintenance of memories in remote long-term memory. formation of new memories. Long-term potentiation definition is - a long-lasting strengthening of the response of a postsynaptic nerve cell to stimulation across the synapse that occurs with repeated stimulation and is thought to be related to learning and long-term memory —abbreviation LTP

Kohlberg's cognitive developmental theory identifies which of the following as the first stage in gender identity development?

A. gender constancy B. gender identity C. gender stability D. gender consistency gender identity

Which of the following is not one of the four problem areas that are targeted by practitioners of interpersonal psychotherapy when working with clients who are depressed?

A. grief B. role disputes C. intimacy D. role transitions Intimacy. In IPT, the therapist selects one of four interpersonal problem areas as the focus for treatment. The four IPT problem areas are: Grief or Complicated Bereavement; Role Dispute; Role Transition; Interpersonal Deficits. Grief is chosen as a problem area when the onset or maintenance of the depressive episode is associated with the death of a person close to the patient.

According to McGregor (1960), Theory X managers:

A. have a high need for power and a low need for affiliation. B. match their leadership style to an employee's career maturity. C. believe that workers lack ambition and avoid taking responsibility. D. communicate a positive vision for the future. Answer C is correct. Theory X managers have a pessimistic view of workers and believe that workers dislike work, lack ambition, and avoid taking responsibility.

An advantage of the multiple baseline across behaviors design over the ABAB design is that it:

A. helps the researcher determine if there's a causal relationship between the independent and dependent variables. B. doesn't require the researcher to withdraw a treatment from a behavior during the course of the study once it's been applied to that behavior. C. allows the researcher to compare the effectiveness of two different treatments during the course of the study. D. doesn't require the behavior to exhibit a stable pattern during the baseline phase before the treatment is applied to that behavior. Answer B is correct. The multiple-baseline across behaviors design involves sequentially applying a treatment to two or more behaviors. An advantage of this design is that, once the treatment has been applied to a behavior, it continues being applied to that behavior for the duration of the study.

As described by Marlatt & Gordon (1985), lapses following a period of abstinence are precipitated by which of the following?

A. high-risk situations B. chronic stress C. denial D. lack of impulse control high-risk situations. High risk situations involve repeating circumstances under which you were most likely to use your substance of choice - circumstances similar to, or identical to, those where you may have often used before. It is very difficult to implement effective coping skills to avoid using when you are in these circumstances.

Idris is in a serious car accident that causes a traumatic brain injury. After regaining consciousness in the hospital, Idris has anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that affects memories for the ten months prior to the accident. When Idris's long-term memories begin to return, he's most likely to recall which of the following first?

A. his sister's graduation from college nine months ago B. the fight he had with his parents about his financial situation six months ago C. the birthday dinner he had with a close friend one week before the accident D. where he was going when he was in the accident his sister's graduation from college nine months ago. Retrograde amnesia is when you cannot remember anything before the time of the event that caused you to lose your memory. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to create new memories. In two of the patients, this shrinkage followed a chronological gradient and the most remote events were recovered first.

Yalom and Leszcz's (2005) third formative stage of group therapy is characterized by which of the following?

A. hostility toward the therapist. B. advice giving and seeking. C. the development of group cohesion. D. concerns and anxiety about termination. the development of group cohesion. First: orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, dependency Second: conflict, dominance, rebellion Third: development of cohesiveness

A 14-year-old gets a "bad" haircut and doesn't want to go to school because he thinks everybody will be staring and laughing at him because of his hair. As described by Elkind (1981), this is an example of:

A. identity foreclosure. B. identity moratorium. C. the personal fable. D. the imaginary audience. the imaginary audience.

Frame-of-reference training is useful for which of the following?

A. improving the accuracy of job performance ratings B. improving the accuracy of job selection techniques C. ensuring that trainees apply newly acquired skills to job tasks D. ensuring the accuracy of job analysis results Answer A is correct. Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that involves ensuring that trainees understand the multidimensional nature of job performance and the organization's definition of successful and unsuccessful performance and giving trainees opportunities to practice assigning ratings and receive feedback about their rating accuracy.

Dr. Schneider's new clients are a single mother and her two daughters, ages 13 and 15. The family moved to the United States from Venezuela six years ago and they were referred to therapy by the high school counselor because the girls are having problems with their peers and teachers. Although both daughters are fluent in English, the mother is not, and the oldest daughter has volunteered to translate for her mother since Dr. Schneider does not speak Spanish. Having the daughter act as a translator:

A. is acceptable since she's receiving therapy with her mother. B. is acceptable as long as the daughter is fluent in both Spanish and English. C. is acceptable as long as Dr. Schneider has had experience working with a translator. D. is not acceptable. Answer D is correct. Standard 2.05 requires psychologists to avoid delegating work to others "who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity." Having the daughter act as translator may affect the therapeutic relationship between the therapist and family members, and the daughter's translations may be biased because of her relationship with her mother.

As a fact witness in a legal proceeding, a psychologist:

A. is expected to offer his/her opinion about a defendant's potential for future violence. B. can offer his/her opinion about a defendant's potential for future violence only with authorization from the defendant. C. can offer his/her opinion about a defendant's potential for future violence only if he/she has relevant education, training, and experience to do so. D. cannot offer his/her opinion about a defendant's potential for future violence. Answer D is correct. Fact witnesses testify about the facts - i.e., about what they have observed. It is expert witnesses who offer opinions

To identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that workers must have to perform a job successfully, you would conduct a:

A. job evaluation. B. job analysis. C. needs analysis. D. task analysis. Answer B is correct. A job analysis is a systematic procedure for identifying the tasks required to perform the job successfully and/or the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics of workers that are required to perform those tasks.

Research has found that interest inventories are least predictive of which of the following?

A. job persistence B. job performance C. job satisfaction D. job choice Answer B is correct. Research investigating the predictive validity of interest inventories have generally found that they're good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence but less accurate for predicting job success.

Vestibule training is a type of:

A. job rotation. B. cross-training. C. simulation training. D. mentoring. Answer C is correct. Vestibule training is a type of simulation training that allows trainees to acquire skills using the actual machinery or equipment they'll use on-the-job. It's useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.

The symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder are:

A. largely reversible with early behavioral interventions. B. largely reversible with early nutritional and behavioral interventions. C. largely reversible if exposure to alcohol was limited to the third trimester. D. largely irreversible. largely irreversible. FASDs refer to the whole range of effects that can happen to a person whose mother drank alcohol during pregnancy. These conditions can affect each person in different ways, and can range from mild to severe. A person with an FASD might have: Abnormal facial features, such as a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip (this ridge is called the philtrum) Small head size Shorter-than-average height Low body weight Poor coordination Hyperactive behavior Difficulty with attention Poor memory Difficulty in school (especially with math) Learning disabilities Speech and language delays Intellectual disability or low IQ Poor reasoning and judgment skills Sleep and sucking problems as a baby Vision or hearing problems Problems with the heart, kidneys, or bones

Kohlberg described moral development as depending on which of the following?

A. level of cognitive development B. level of social perspective-taking C. level of cognitive development and level of social perspective-taking D. neither level of cognitive development nor level of social perspective-taking level of cognitive development and level of social perspective-taking

An expectancy table is useful for interpreting an examinee's score in terms of:

A. likely criterion performance. B. a confidence interval. C. mastery of test content. D. norms. Answer A is correct. Expectancy tables provide information on an examinee's expected score on a criterion based on his/her obtained predictor (test) score.

Which of the following is least likely to be prescribed as a treatment for bipolar I disorder?

A. lithium B. donepezil C. risperidone D. valproate Donepezil Bipolar I disorder is a type of bipolar spectrum disorder characterized by the occurrence of at least one manic episode, with or without mixed or psychotic features. Most patients also, at other times, have one or more depressive episodes, and all experience a hypomanic stage before progressing to full mania.

Studies investigating the impact of gender stereotypes on teacher behavior have found that:

A. male and female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students than to female students. B. male and female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to female students than to male students. C. female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to female students but male teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students. D. female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students but male teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to female students. male and female teachers pay more attention to and give more praise to male students than to female students.

According to Fiedler's (1967) contingency theory, a high LPC leader is most effective in:

A. moderately favorable situations. B. very unfavorable situations. C. very favorable situations. D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations: Answer A is correct. As described by Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

A sociologist proposes that the reason why people living below the poverty level have worse outcomes even for relatively minor health problems is because they have little or no access to adequate healthcare. In this situation, lack of access to healthcare is a(n) __________ variable

A. moderator B. mediator C. control D. outcome Answer B is correct. Mediator variables explain the relationship between independent and dependent variables. In the situation described in this question, the psychologist believes that lack of access to adequate healthcare explains the relationship between poverty and health outcomes.

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include which of the following?

A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever B. autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and anxiety C. irritability, impaired concentration, and increased appetite D. pupillary dilation, nausea or vomiting, and weight loss nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. Withdrawal signs and symptoms may start within 6 to 16 hours after you stop using the opioid. Signs and symptoms include: Overwhelming craving for the opioid Anxiety, irritability, depression Trouble sleeping, or being tired during the day Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea Sweating or shaking Muscle aches or cramps Chills or goosebumps Yawning Runny nose or watery eyes

Which of the following theories attributes a worker's job motivation to the worker's social comparisons?

A. need hierarchy theory B. equity theory C. two-factor theory D. expectancy theory Answer B is correct. Equity theory (Adams, 1965) attributes a worker's level of motivation to social comparisons and proposes that workers compare their inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of workers doing the same or a similar job.

An organizational psychologist would conduct a(n) __________ to identify a company's training needs.

A. needs analysis B. competency analysis C. job analysis D. operations analysis Answer A is correct. A needs analysis is also known as a needs assessment and is conducted to identify training needs.

Older adults are most likely to obtain the highest score on which of the following Big Five personality traits?

A. neuroticism B. extraversion C. openness to experience D. agreeableness Agreeableness

Psychology 101 students are assigned ranks based on their total scores on a 50-item midterm exam. The ranks represent a(n) _____ scale of measurement.

A. nominal B. interval C. ratio D. ordinal Answer D is correct. Ranks are a type of ordinal score - i.e., when scores are reported as ranks, it's possible to conclude that one rank is higher or lower than another but it's not possible to conclude that the differences between adjacent ranks are equal. For example, if students with the three highest midterm scores obtained scores of 50, 49, and 45, the student who received the score of 50 would be assigned a rank of 1, the student who received the score of 49 would be assigned a rank of 2, and the student who received the score of 45 would be assigned a rank of 3. In this situation, there's only a one point score difference between the ranks of 1 and 2 but a four point score difference between the ranks of 2 and 3.

Recent data collected by the National Center for Health Statistics indicate that the preterm birthrate is highest for __________ mothers.

A. non-Hispanic Black B. non-Hispanic White C. non-Hispanic Asian D. Hispanic non-Hispanic Black. For example, in 2017, the rate of preterm birth among African-American women (14%) was about 50 percent higher than the rate of preterm birth among white women (9%).

In organizations, decisions that rely on established rules and procedures are referred to as __________ decisions.

A. nonprogrammed B. programmed C. reactive D. proactive Answer B is correct. Programmed decisions are repetitive and routine decisions that are governed by rules, policies, and procedures, while nonprogrammed decisions are non-repetitive and complex, require unique or creative solutions, and rely on the decision-maker's judgment and problem-solving skills.

A score of 23 or lower on the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) indicates:

A. normal functioning. B. cognitive impairment. C. severe depression. D. a lack of responsiveness. Answer B is correct. The maximum score on the MMSE is 30, and a score of 24 is usually used as the cutoff. Scores below 24 indicate cognitive impairment and, the lower the score, the greater the impairment.

Peter Lewinsohn's model of depression is based on the principles of:

A. operant conditioning. B. classical conditioning. C. systems theory. D. psychodynamic theory. operant conditioning In the mid 1970s Peter Lewinsohn developed the behavioral theory of depression. Lewinsohn argued that the essence of depression is a low rate of behavior, and this low rate of behavior causes all the other symptoms of depression. In the mid-1970s, Peter Lewinsohn argued that depression is caused by a combination of stressors in a person's environment and a lack of personal skills. More specifically, the environmental stressors cause a person to receive less positive reinforcement.

You are exhibiting the actor-observer effect when you:

A. overuse base rate information when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people and underuse that information when determining the cause of your own behaviors. B. underuse base rate information when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people and overuse that information when determining the cause of your own behaviors. C. attribute your successful behaviors to dispositional factors and your unsuccessful behaviors to situational factors. D. attribute your own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors. Answer D is correct. The actor-observer effect addresses the attributions we make about ourselves and others and refers to the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors

Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's R/CID Model predicts that African-American clients are most likely to prefer a White therapist and to be uninterested in exploring their cultural identity when they're in which of the following stages?

A. pre-encounter B. conformity C. dissonance D. disintegration Conformity. Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's R/CID Model stages. 1. Conformity, 2. Dissonance, 3. Resistance and Immersion, 4. Introspection, 5. Integrative Awareness

Which of the following is NOT one of the six personality/environment types identified by Holland?

A. realistic B. investigative C. administrative D. social Answer C is correct. Holland's (1985) theory of career choice distinguishes between six personality and work environment types ("RIASEC"): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.

Barton, a 20-year-old college sophomore, has come to therapy at the urging of his parents who are concerned about recent changes in his behavior. Barton tells you that, in the last six months, he's experienced several periods in which he feels tired all the time despite sleeping more than usual, has trouble concentrating while reading for his classes and studying for exams, has low energy, and has no appetite. He says that each of the times he's felt this way lasted for two or three weeks. The presence of which of the following will confirm a diagnosis of major depressive disorder for Barton?

A. recurrent suicidal ideation with a specific plan B. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities C. feelings of guilt about past failures D. slowed speech and thinking a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities A. Five (or more) of the following symptoms have to be present during the same 2 week period and represent a change from previous functioning; at least one of the symptoms is either (1) depressed mood or (2) loss of interest or pleasure. Note: Do not include symptoms that are attributable to another medical condition. 1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day, as indicated by either subjective report (eg., feels sad, empty, hopeless) or observation made by others (eg., appears tearful). (NOTE: in children and adolescence, can be irritable mood). 2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all , or almost all, activities most of the day (as indicated by either subjective account or observation). 3. Significant weight loss when not dieting or weight gain (eg. A change of more than 5% of body weight in a month), or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day. (Note: in children, consider failure to make expected weight gain). 4. Insomnia or hypersonic nearly every day. 5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day (observable by others, not merely subjective feelings of restlessness or being slowed down). 6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day. 7. Feeling of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt (which may be delusional) nearly every day (not merely self-reproach or guilt about being sick). 8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness, nearly every day (either by subjective account or as observed by others). 9. Recurrent thoughts of death (not just fear of dying), recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide. 10. The symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. 11. The episode is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance or to another medical condition. 12. The occurrence of the major depressive episode is not better explained by schizoaffective disorder, schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder, delusional disorder, or other specified and unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders. 13. There has never been a manic episode or a hypo manic episode. Note: this exclusion does not apply if all of the manic-like or hypo manic-like episodes are substance -induced or are attributable to the physiological effects of another medical condition.

Which of the following is NOT one of Kirkpatrick's (1998) four levels of training program evaluation?

A. results B. reaction C. application D. learning Answer C is correct. Kirkpatrick's (1998) evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction, learning, behavior, and results.

A Type I error occurs when a researcher:

A. retains a true null hypothesis. B. retains a false null hypothesis. C. rejects a true null hypothesis. D. rejects a false null hypothesis. Answer C is correct. When a researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, the researcher has concluded that the independent variable has had a significant effect on the dependent variable, but the observed effect is actually due to sampling error or other factors. This type of incorrect decision is known as a Type I error.

A child in the second stage of Kohlberg's first level of moral development will base his moral judgments of behavior on which of the following?

A. rewards that follow the behavior B. social approval or disapproval for behavior C. laws set by an authority that apply to the behavior D. democratically-chosen laws that apply to the behavior rewards that follow the behavior

Which of the following is NOT one of Maslow's five basic needs?

A. safety B. meaningfulness C. esteem D. physiological Answer B is correct. Maslow's need hierarchy theory predicts that people have five basic needs that emerge in a hierarchical order that ranges from most basic to most complex, with behavior being motivated primarily by the lowest unfulfilled need. In order, the five needs are physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization.

According to Herzberg's (1966) two-factor theory, if a worker's job is redesigned so that it provides adequate hygiene (job context) factors, the worker will be:

A. satisfied and motivated. B. satisfied but not motivated. C. motivated but dissatisfied. D. neither satisfied nor motivated. Answer D is correct. Two-factor theory predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, working conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they're inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they're adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they're inadequate but contribute to both satisfaction and motivation when they're adequate.

When discussing some of the topics that were covered in yesterday's social psychology class, Robert tells Renee that he thinks it's true that people learn about their own attitudes and emotions in the same way they draw conclusions about the attitudes and emotions of other people - that is, by observing outward behaviors and the situations in which those behaviors occur. Robert's statement is consistent with which of the following?

A. self-perception theory B. social judgment theory C. cognitive dissonance theory D. balance theory Answer A is correct. Self-perception theory (Bem, 1972) proposes that people infer how they're feeling and thinking by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur.

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), symptoms must have a duration of more than:

A. seven days for adults and adolescents and 14 days for children. B. 14 days for adults, adolescents, and children. C. one month for adults and adolescents and two months for children. D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children. one month for adults, adolescents, and children. Post traumatic stress disorder is an anxiety disorder that develops following frightening, stressful, or distressing life events. Characterized by intense fear, helplessness, and stress, PTSD affects normal life and functioning of the patient. Treatments include medications and psychotherapy, either alone or in combination.

Which of the following is an example of a morpheme?

A. sh B. ba-ba C. oo D. mis Mis. A morpheme is the smallest meaningful unit in a language. A morpheme is not identical to a word. The main difference between them is that a morpheme sometimes does not stand alone, but a word, by definition, always stands alone.

To compare the mean achievement test score obtained by a sample of sixth-grade students in one school district in California to the mean achievement test score of all sixth-grade students in California, you would use which of the following?

A. single-sample chi-square test B. factorial ANOVA C. t-test for related samples D. t-test for a single sample Answer D is correct. The t-test for a single sample is used to compare a sample mean to a known population mean.

A psychologist wants to compare the number of therapy clients who have just received a diagnosis of specific phobia who say they prefer in vivo exposure, imaginal exposure, or virtual reality exposure as part of their treatment. The psychologist will use which of the following to make this comparison?

A. single-sample chi-square test B. multiple-sample chi-square test C. one-way ANOVA D. three-way ANOVA Answer A is correct. This study includes only one variable (type of exposure) which is measured on a nominal scale. Consequently, the appropriate statistical test is the single-sample chi-square test.

In a research study, a baby's willingness to crawl across a "visual cliff" depends on whether his mother, who is standing on the other side of the cliff, is smiling or has a fearful expression on her face. The baby's behavior is best explained by which of the following?

A. social referencing B. observational learning C. separation anxiety D. empathy Social referencing occurs when infants look at the facial expressions of others to help figure out how to proceed in a certain situation. Gibson and Walk (1960)[3] hypothesized that depth perception is inherent as opposed to a learned process. To test this, they placed 36 infants, six to fourteen months of age, on the shallow side of the visual cliff apparatus. Once the infant was placed on the opaque end of the platform, the caregivers (typically a parent) stood on the other side of the transparent plexiglas, calling out for them to come or holding some sort of enticing stimulus such as a toy so that the infant would be motivated to crawl across towards them. It was assumed if the child was reluctant to crawl to their caregiver, he or she was able to perceive depth, believing that the transparent space was an actual cliff.

Which of the following statistical tests is used to control the effects of an extraneous variable on a dependent variable by treating the extraneous variable as an independent variable?

A. split-plot ANOVA B. factorial ANOVA C. ANCOVA D. randomized block ANOVA Answer D is correct. The randomized block ANOVA is used to control the effects of an extraneous variable on a dependent variable by including it as independent variable so that its main and interaction effects on the dependent variable can be determined.

The studies have found that sensitivity to depth cues develops in infancy in a stage-like sequence, with sensitivity to ________ cues developing first.

A. stereoscopic B. binocular C. pictorial D. kinetic Kinetic. The existing data suggest the hypothesis that infants have rudimentary depth perception abilities bases exclusively on kinetic cues before 3 months of age, that binocular (stereoscopic) depth perception develops between 3 and 4 months, and that sensitivity to the pictorial depth cues first appears between 5 and 7 months.

Severe damage to the ________ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of respiration and cardiovascular functioning.

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus B. medulla oblongata C. caudate nucleus D. mammillary bodies medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata is a long stem-like structure located in the brainstem. It is anterior and partially inferior to the cerebellum. It is a cone-shaped neuronal mass responsible for autonomic functions ranging from vomiting to sneezing. The medulla contains the cardiac, respiratory, vomiting and vasomotor centers and therefore deals with the autonomic functions of breathing, heart rate and blood pressure as well as the sleep wake cycle.

The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories for surprising and shocking events.

A. thalamus B. amygdala C. substantia nigra D. suprachiasmatic nucleus Amygdala. The amygdala is one of two almond-shaped clusters of nuclei located deep and medially within the temporal lobes of the brain in complex vertebrates, including humans. Shown in research to perform a primary role in the processing of memory, decision-making and emotional responses, the amygdalae are considered part of the limbic system.

As defined by Holland (1985), differentiation refers to:

A. the match between a person's personality and the characteristics of his/her work environment. B. the degree to which a person's personality type is clearly defined in terms of the RIASEC types. C. the distinctiveness of the roles the person adopts at any point during his/her lifespan. D. the degree to which a person's vocational identity is consistent with his/her ego identity. Answer B is correct. Holland proposed that a personality/work environment match is most predictive of job outcomes when the person's score profile on the Self-Directed Search indicates a high degree of differentiation - i.e., when the person obtains a high score on one personality type and low scores on the other five types.

One problem with empirically developed biographical information blanks (BIBs) is that:

A. they often provide inaccurate information because supervisors are not adequately trained in their scoring and interpretation. B. they often provide inaccurate information because of the ambiguity of many of the questions. C. applicants often have a negative reaction to them because some of the questions seem to be irrelevant to job performance. D. supervisors dislike them because they resent having to compare job applicants to each other. Answer C is correct. A disadvantage of BIBs is that, while questions address issues that have been found to be job-related, some questions may lack face validity - i.e., they don't "look like" they're related to job performance. As a result, applicants may consider those questions to be irrelevant and an invasion of privacy and refuse to answer them.

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, a person must exhibit characteristic symptoms for at least:

A. three weeks. B. three months. C. six weeks. D. six months. three months. Bulimia nervosa is diagnosed when a number of criteria are met, namely that the sufferer shows the following behaviors and characteristics: Engages in binge eating on a recurrent basis via episodes characterized by eating more food in one sitting than most other people would. The sufferer also experiences a lack of control over how much food they eat, or feels unable to stop eating. Recurrently takes inappropriate steps to prevent weight gain, such as by vomiting, fasting, excessively exercising or misusing laxatives and/or diuretics. Experiences episodes of binge eating and compensatory purging behaviors at least once a week for three months or more. Preoccupied with body shape and weight in self evaluation. For bulimia to be diagnosed, health professionals also need to ensure that the disturbance experienced by the sufferer does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa, that is - that the disorder can be identified as separate.

A graduate student's dissertation research extends an aspect of his advisor's ongoing longitudinal research on treatments for PTSD. When the student submits an article describing the results of his study to a journal, he lists his advisor as second author. With regard to ethical requirements, this is:

A. unacceptable since the advisor should have been listed as the first author because the student's dissertation research extended an aspect of the advisor's ongoing research. B. unacceptable since only the student should be listed as an author on an article that describes his dissertation research. C. acceptable since the student's research was based on his advisor's ongoing research. D. acceptable as long as the listing of the advisor as second author reflects her actual contribution to the student's research. Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 8.12, which requires (a) publication credit to be based on each person's contribution rather than on his/her status and (b) students to be listed as principal author on multiple-authored articles that are substantially based on their doctoral dissertations.

Practitioners of Glasser's reality therapy view the primary motivator of behavior to be which of the following?

A. unconscious instinctual drives B. basic needs C. self-actualization D. striving for superiority basic needs The fact that everyone is constantly striving to meet these basic needs is at the heart of reality therapy. Survival: Basic needs of shelter, survival, food, sexual fulfillment. Power: A sense of winning, achieving, or a sense of self-worth. Love and belonging: To family, to a community, or to other loved ones. Freedom: To be independent, maintain personal space, autonomy. Fun: To achieve satisfaction, enjoyment, and a sense of pleasure.

Dr. Valdez has been seeing Betsy R. in therapy for several months and believes she is no longer making any progress. When Dr. Valdez discusses this with Betsy, she says she thinks "therapy is going really well" and wants to continue. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Valdez should:

A. work with Betsy to identify specific goals for future sessions and, if none can be identified, provide pretermination counseling. B. inform Betsy that he's ethically required to terminate therapy when he feels a client is not benefitting from treatment. C. explain to Betsy that ending therapy is always difficult and agree to see her for a few more sessions to deal with the termination. D. agree to continue seeing Betsy in therapy since she feels she's benefitting from treatment. Answer A is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.10, which requires psychologists to terminate therapy when it becomes clear that a client no longer needs or is benefiting from it. In the situation described in this question, the client is satisfied with therapy, so the best course of action would be to determine if there's a reason for Betsy to continue therapy before deciding that termination of therapy is the best course of action.

"Ego integrity versus despair" is the final crisis in psychosocial development theory according to which theorist?

a. Sigmund Freud b. Karen Horney c. Erik Erikson d. Jean Piaget Erik Erikson. Erik Erikson's "ego integrity versus despair" is the last of his crises, taking place in later adulthood (age 60 +). It's the successful completion of all the previous crises and begins when the individual first begins to experience awareness of his/her mortality. In this crisis, the individual has come to terms with both success and failures, and is ready to accept the inevitability of death. Those who are deeply unhappy with their lives may, at this point, fall into despair.

The creation of a "life structure" (an important factor in adult development) is a theory attributed to...

a. Sigmund Freud. b. Daniel Levinson. c. Erik Erikson. d. Karen Horney. Daniel Levinson. Daniel Levinson theorized that all people—regardless of education, religion, culture, or other issues—go through the same basic age-related stages. Unlike other theorized developmental "stages," Levinson's stages do not build upon each other. Rather, one stage is no more significant than another. Levinson's theorized goal of development is for the individual to create a "life structure," which is something that develops throughout the life course. This life structure consists of all internal and external aspects of the individual's life.

A parent can expect that his or her baby will begin to use two-word sentences (telegraphic speech) when the baby is between ________ months of age.

. 24 and 30 B. 18 and 24 C. 12 and 15 D. 10 and 14 18 and 24. Telegraphic speech, according to linguistics and psychology, is speech during the two-word stage of language acquisition in children, which is laconic and efficient. The name derives from the fact that someone sending a telegram was generally charged by the word.

Murray's system of human needs informed the development of which of the following?

A. 16 PF and TAT B. EPPS and MBTI C. EPPS and TAT D. NEO-PI-3 and EPPS Answer C is correct. The development of both the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) and the TAT (Thematic Apperception Test) was based on Murray's theory of human needs.

Self-conscious emotions ordinarily emerge when a child is ________ months of age.

A. 9 to 12 B. 12 to 18 C. 18 to 24 D. 24 to 32 18 to 24

Research evaluating the validity of general mental ability tests as predictors of job performance has generally found that they are:

A. valid only when used in conjunction with other selection techniques. B. valid only when the performance measure is quantitative (versus qualitative). C. about equally valid for members of all racial/ethnic groups. D. the most valid predictors across different jobs and job performance measures. Answer D is correct. General mental ability tests are among the most frequently used selection techniques and have been found to be the most valid predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs and measures of job performance. A disadvantage of these tests is that they're associated with a greater risk than other valid predictors of job performance for adverse impact for members of some racial/ethnic minority groups.

What is the DSM?

a. A diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders b. A test used in diagnosing mental disorders c. A diagnostic and statistical manual d. A method by which to treat mental disorders A diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders. In 1952, the American Psychiatric Association developed the DSM in an effort to assist practitioners in diagnosing patients with mental disorders. The manual attempts to make diagnostic categories more reliable, eliminate out-dated terminology and provide other useful clinical information. Certain parts of the manual are somewhat controversial, and it has gone through several revisions, but is widely used in a variety of settings.

What is the MMPI?

a. A measure of personality traits b. A diagnostic tool to measure intelligence c. A means by which to treat psychosis d. A book to use in diagnosing mental disorders A measure of personality traits. The MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory) was developed in the 1930s by McKinley and Hathaway. It consists of hundreds of true/false statements and is widely used as a measure of general personality traits. The MMPI is also used to look for indications of mental illness and can aid in identifying treatment issues.

What is the difference threshold?

a. A statistical variance b. A term often used in clarifying psychotic disorders c. The smallest difference between two variables that can be detected d. The smallest difference between two variables that proves statistical significance The smallest difference between two variables that can be detected. It is also often referred to as the "just noticeable difference" (jnd).

A factor analysis yields three factors, and one of the tests included in the analysis has factor loadings of .60, .30, and .10 on Factors I, II, and III, respectively. Assuming that the rotation was orthogonal, the communality for Test A is:

A. .91. B. .54. C. .46. D. .09. Answer C is correct. When factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), you can add the squared factor loadings to determine a test's communality: .60 squared is .36, .30 squared is .09, and .10 squared is .01; .36 plus .09 plus .01 is .46.

A score of _____ on the Halstead Impairment Index indicates severe impairment.

A. 0 B. .5 C. .9 D. -10.0 Answer C is correct. The Halstead Impairment Index is derived by dividing the total number of subtests that indicate impaired performance by the total number of subtests. It ranges from 0 to 1.0, with a score of 0 to 0.2 indicating normal functioning, 0.3 to 0.4 indicating mild impairment, 0.5 to 0.7 indicating moderate impairment, and 0.8 to 1.0 indicating severe impairment.

When a test item has an item discrimination index (D) of _____, this means that the same percentage of examinees in the high-scoring and low-scoring groups answered the item correctly.

A. 0 B. .50 C. -1.0 D. +1.0 Answer A is correct. The item discrimination index (D) indicates the difference between the percentage of examinees with high total test scores who answered the item correctly and the percentage of examinees with low total test scores who answered the item correctly. When the same percentage of examinees in the two groups answered the item correctly, D equals 0.

A new selection test will most likely increase decision-making accuracy when the base rate is:

A. 0. B. .20. C. .50. D. .90. Answer C is correct. The base rate is the percent of employees who are considered successful and were hired using the current selection procedure. Adding a new selection technique to the existing procedure is likely to have the greatest impact on decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) when the base rate is moderate (around .50).

A fetus typically achieves the age of viability between ________ weeks after conception.

A. 16 and 20 B. 18 and 20 C. 20 and 22 D. 22 and 26 22 and 26. Medical viability According to studies between 2003 and 2005, 20 to 35 percent of babies born at 24 weeks of gestation survive, while 50 to 70 percent of babies born at 25 weeks, and more than 90 percent born at 26 to 27 weeks, survive. It is rare for a baby weighing less than 500 g (17.6 ounces) to survive.

In a normal distribution, a T-score of 60 is equivalent to a percentile rank of:

A. 16. B. 50. C. 84. D. 98. Answer C is correct. A T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean and, in a normal distribution, a score that's one standard deviation above the mean is equivalent to a percentile rank of 84.

Babies first exhibit intentional, goal-directed behaviors and imitation of the novel behaviors of others during substage ___ of Piaget's sensorimotor stage.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7 4. Substage 4: Coordination of Secondary Circular Reactions. The infant combines these basic reflexes and uses planning and coordination to achieve a specific goal. Now the infant can engage in behaviors that others perform and anticipate upcoming events. Perhaps because of continued maturation of the prefrontal cortex, the infant become capable of having a thought and carrying out a planned, goal-directed activity. For example, an infant sees a toy car under the kitchen table and then crawls, reaches, and grabs the toy. The infant is coordinating both internal and external activities to achieve a planned goal.

The WAIS-IV is appropriate for individuals ________ years of age.

A. 2 through 90 B. 8 through 85 C. 16 through 90 D. 6 through 95 Answer C is correct. The WAIS-IV is a measure of intelligence for individuals 16 through 90 years of age.

A DSM-5 diagnosis of separation anxiety requires a duration of symptoms of at least __________ for children and adolescents and __________ for adults.

A. 2 weeks; one month B. 4 weeks; three months C. 4 weeks; six months D. 6 weeks; four months 4 weeks; six months The criteria for diagnosis of separation and anxiety disorder include the following: -Developing inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from those to whom the individual is attached, as evidenced by at least three of the following: 1. Recurrent excessive distress when anticipating or experiencing separation from home or from major attachment figures. 2. Persistent and excessive worry about losing major attachment figures or about possible harm to them, such as illness, injury, disasters or death. 3. Persistent and excessive worry about experiencing an untoward event (eg. Getting lost, being kidnapped, having an accident, becoming ill) that causes separation from a major attachment figure. 4. Persistent reluctance or refusal to go out, be away from home, go to school, go to work, or elsewhere because of fear of separation. 5. Persistent and excessive fear or reluctance about being alone or without major attachment figures at home or In other settings. 6. Persistent reluctance or refusal to sleep away from home or to go to sleep without being near a major attachment figure. 7. Repeated nightmares involving the theme of separation. 8. Repeated complaints of physical symptoms (eg.headaches, stomach aches, nausea, vomiting) when separation from major attachment figures occurs or is anticipated. 9. The fear, anxiety, or avoidance is persistent, lasting at least 4 weeks in children and adolescents and typically 6 months or more in adults. 10. The disturbance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, academic, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. 11. The disturbance is not better explained by another mental disorder, such as refusing to leave home because of excessive resistance to change in autism spectrum disorder; delusions or hallucinations concerning separation in psychotic disorders; refusal to go outside without a trusted companion in agoraphobia; worries about ill health or other harm befalling significant others in generalized anxiety disorder; or concerns about having an illness in illness anxiety disorder.

Based on his score on a selection test, a job applicant obtains a predicted job performance score of 70. The job performance measure's standard error of estimate is 5, which means that there's a 95% chance that his true job performance score is between:

A. 65 and 75. B. 60 and 80. C. 55 and 85. D. 50 and 90. Answer B is correct. The 95% confidence interval for a predicted criterion score is calculated by adding plus and minus two standard errors of estimate to the obtained criterion score: 70 + 5(2) = 60 to 80.

You would use which of the following to evaluate the internal consistency of a test when all of its items are scored as correct or incorrect?

A. Kendall's coefficient of concordance B. Cohen's kappa coefficient C. Kuder-Richardson 20 D. Spearman-Brown Answer C is correct. Kuder-Richardson 20 (KR-20) can be used to assess a test's internal consistency reliability when test items are dichotomously scored (e.g., as correct or incorrect).

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of pedophilic disorder to a client, the client must be at least _____ years old.

A. 20 B. 18 C. 16 D. 14 16. Pedophilic Disorder is a DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition), diagnosis assigned to adults ( defined as age 16 and up) who have sexual desire for prepubescent children (American Psychiatric Association, 2013a).Any behavioral expression of Pedophilic Disorder is a criminal offense in the United States, Canada, and Europe, as well as most other places in the world. According to the DSM-5, there are three criterion, with six specifiers: An individual who has had arousing fantasies about, urges for, or behaviors with a prepubescent child or children. The individual has acted out these sexual desires, or is experiencing significant distress or difficulty as a result of these desires. The Individual is 16 years of age, and at least five years older than the child or children noted in Criterion A. The Specifiers are: Exclusive type- sexual attraction to children only. Non-exclusive type- sexual attraction to adults and children. Attraction to boys. Attraction to girls. Incestuous only. (American Psychiatric Association, 2013a).

A school psychologist designs a study to determine if student gender and grade level are related to the number of interactions male and female teachers have with their students. This study has ___ independent variables and ___ dependent variable(s).

A. 2; 1 B. 2; 2 C. 3; 1 D. 3; 2 Answer C is correct. If you're having trouble distinguishing between a study's independent and dependent variables, remember that the independent variable is believed to have an effect on the dependent variable and that, for questions like this one, anything that varies will be either an independent or dependent variable. Converting the information given in the description of the study to the following question might be helpful: "What are the effects of the [independent variable(s)] on the [dependent variable(s)]?" For this study, the question is, "What are the effects of the student gender, student grade level, and teacher gender on number of teacher-student interactions? In other words, this study has three independent variables (student gender, student grade level, and teacher gender) and one dependent variable (number of teacher-student interactions).

When a predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient is .40, this means that:

A. 40% of variability in predictor scores is true score variability. B. 16% of variability in predictor scores is true score variability. C. 40% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores. D. 16% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores. Answer D is correct. Like other correlation coefficients for two different measures, the criterion-related validity coefficient can be squared to determine the amount of variability in one measure that's explained by or shared with the other measure: .40 squared is .16. When a predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient is .40, this means that 16% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores.

A person whose biological mother and father have both received a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about _____ times more likely to receive the same diagnosis as a person whose only biological relative with schizophrenia is his or her non-twin sibling.

A. 50 B. 16 C. 5 D. 2 5. You need to know that the risk for receiving a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about 46% for a person whose biological mother and father have received the diagnosis, while about 9% for a person whose biological non-twin sibling has received the diagnosis. Forty-six divided by 9 is 5.1, which means that a person whose biological mother and father have received the diagnosis of schizophrenia is about 5 time more likely to receive the diagnosis

A distribution of scores has a mean of 60 and standard deviation of 5 and scores are normally distributed. Based on this information, you can conclude that about ___% of scores fall between the scores of 50 and 70.

A. 50 B. 68 C. 95 D. 99 Answer C is correct. In this distribution, the scores of 50 and 70 are minus and plus two standard deviations from the mean. In a normal distribution, about 95% of scores fall between the scores that are minus and plus two standard deviations from the mean.

As reported by I. I. Gottesman (1991), the concordance rate for schizophrenia is about ___% for monozygotic twins and ____% for dizygotic twins.

A. 50; 30 B. 50; 25 C. 48; 24 D. 48; 17 48; 17 Schizophrenia - Twin studies. There have been a large number of studies of varying quality that have looked at the incidence of schizophrenia in twins. Gottesman and Shields (1976)reviewed the results of 5 twin studies. They found that in monozygotic (MZ) twins there was a concordance rate of 35-58% compared with 9-26% amongst dizygotic (DZ) twins. Concordance rates between monozygotic twins vary in different studies, approximately 50%; whereas dizygotic twins was 17%

Your new client, a 29-year-old physician's assistant, describes experiencing alternating periods of hypomania that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and periods of depression that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. To assign the diagnosis of cyclothymia, the client must have experienced these symptoms for at least:

A. 6 months. B. 1 year. C. 18 months. D. 2 years. 2 years For a diagnosis of cyclothymia, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), published by the American Psychiatric Association, lists these points: -You've had many periods of elevated mood (hypomanic symptoms) and periods of depressive symptoms for at least two years (one year for children and teenagers) — with these highs and lows occurring during at least half that time. -Periods of stable moods usually last less than two months. -Your symptoms significantly affect you socially, at work, at school or in other important areas. -Your symptoms don't meet the criteria for bipolar disorder, major depression or another mental disorder. -Your symptoms aren't caused by substance use or a medical condition.

A psychologist finds that the relationship between physiological arousal and motor performance for a sample of athletes is .40. This means that ___% of variability in motor performance is explained by variability in physiological arousal.

A. 60 B. 40 C. 36 D. 16 Answer D is correct. A correlation coefficient between two different variables can be squared to calculate the coefficient of determination, which indicates the amount of variability in one variable that's explained by variability in the other variable. The psychologist obtained a correlation of .40 between arousal and motor performance, and .40 squared is .16. This means that 16% of variability in motor performance is explained by variability in arousal.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the last _____ months and at least one symptom in the last _____ months.

A. 6; 3 B. 12; 3 C. 12; 6 D. 18; 6 12; 6 According to the DSM-5, to diagnose Conduct Disorder, least four of the following have to be present Aggressive behavior toward others and animals. Frequent physical altercations with others. Use of a weapon to harm others. Deliberately physically cruel to other people. Deliberately physically cruel to animals. Involvement in confrontational economic order crime- e.g., mugging. Has perpetrated a forcible sex act on another. Property destruction by arson. Property destruction by other means. Has engaged in non-confrontational economic order crime- e.g., breaking and entering. Has engaged in non-confrontational retail theft, e.g., shoplifting. Disregarded parent's curfew prior to age 13. Has run away from home at least two times. Has been truant before age 13.

Based on the results of their study of twins separated shortly after birth, Arvey, Bouchard, Segal, and Abraham (1989) concluded that genetic factors explain about _____ of observed variability in job satisfaction scores.

A. 70% B. 50% C. 30% D. 10% Answer C is correct. The data collected by Arvey, Bouchard, Segal, and Abraham indicated that about 30% of observed variability in job satisfaction scores was attributable to genetic factors

The results of a factor analysis indicate that the factor loading for Test A and Factor I is .70. This means that:

A. 70% of variability in Test A scores is explained by the factor analysis. B. 49% of variability in Test A scores is explained by the factor analysis. C. 70% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factor I. D. 49% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factor I. Answer D is correct. A factor loading indicates the correlation between a test and an identified factor. It can be squared to determine the amount of variability in test scores that's explained by the identified factor: .70 squared is .49 (49%).

An achievement test has a test-retest reliability coefficient of .90. This means that ____ of variability in test scores is due to true score variability.

A. 90% B. 84% C. 16% D. 10% Answer A is correct. A reliability coefficient is interpreted directly as the amount of variability in test scores that's due to true score variability. When a test's reliability coefficient is .90, this means that 90% of variability in test scores is due to true score variability and the remaining 10% is due to measurement error.

A cognitive ability test has a mean of 100, standard deviation of 15, and standard error of measurement of 4. The 95% confidence interval for an obtained score of 110 on this test is:

A. 92 to 108. B. 106 to 116. C. 102 to 118. D. 98 to 122. Answer C is correct. The 95% confidence interval for an obtained test score is calculated by adding and subtracting two standard errors of measurement to and from the score. For the situation described in this question, the 95% confidence interval is 110 minus and plus 8 (two standard errors), which is 102 to 118.

Which of the following best describes the prediction of goal-setting theory about the relationship between a supervisee's participation in goal setting and his or her commitment to goals?

A. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is always necessary to ensure his/her commitment to goals. B. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is likely to affect his/her commitment to goals only when the supervisor has a task-oriented leadership style. C. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when the supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals. D. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is not necessary for his/her commitment to goals unless the supervisee is low in both self-esteem and need for achievement. Answer C is correct. Goal-setting theory predicts that (a) a supervisee's acceptance of goals is most important for ensuring that the supervisee will be committed to achieving them and (b) participation in goal-setting is not always necessary for ensuring a supervisee's acceptance of and commitment to goals but is useful when the supervisee is high in need for achievement or is not likely to accept goals assigned by the supervisor.

A person who abuses an amphetamine or other ________-enhancing drug may develop symptoms similar to those associated with schizophrenia.

A. ACh B. dopamine C. serotonin D. GABA Dopamine. Dopamine gets a lot of attention in brain research because it's been linked to addiction. It also plays a role in other psychiatric and movement disorders, like Parkinson's disease. In schizophrenia, dopamine is tied to hallucinations and delusions. That's because brain areas that "run" on dopamine may become overactive.

Which of the following is true about REM sleep and dreaming?

A. All dreams occur during REM sleep. B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep. C. Most dreams occur during REM sleep but are similar in content to those that occur during non-REM sleep. D. Dreams are equally common during REM and slow-wave sleep but are more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep. Dreams can occur anytime during sleep. But most vivid dreams occur during deep, REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, when the brain is most active.

Which of the following evaluates the selective attention and recognition memory of infants three to 12 months of age?

A. Bayley Scales B. Fagan Test C. Kaufman Assessment Battery D. Leiter-3 Answer B is correct. The Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence (FTII) evaluates an infant's selective attention and recognition memory, and the infant's score is determined by the amount of time he/she spends looking at novel stimuli.

A psychologist conducts a study to evaluate the effects of type of workshop (face-to-face and online) and level of motivation (high, average, and low) on mock EPPP scores. The results indicate that there are statistically significant main effects of both independent variables and a statistically significant interaction. When interpreting these results, the psychologist will conclude which of the following?

A. Both types of workshop are effective regardless of a person's level of motivation. B. Both types of workshop are ineffective regardless of a person's level of motivation. C. The most effective type of workshop is the same regardless of a person's level of motivation. D. The most effective type of workshop depends on the person's level of motivation. Answer D is correct. The interaction between type of workshop and motivation is statistically significant, which means that the effects of type of workshop differ for different levels of motivation. For example, the face-to-face workshop might be more effective for people with low motivation, while the online workshop is more effective for people with moderate or high motivation.

A psychology undergraduate tells his roommate who's depressed that, if he smiles more often, he'll feel a lot better. The student's suggestion is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?

A. Cannon-Bard theory B. two-factor theory C. James-Lange theory D. cognitive appraisal theory James-Lange theory. The James-Lange theory is a hypothesis on the origin and nature of emotions and is one of the earliest theories of emotion within modern psychology. It was developed independently by two 19th-century scholars, William James and Carl Lange. The basic premise of the theory is that physiological arousal instigates the experience of emotion.

To evaluate the general mental ability of job applicants to assist with hiring decisions, you would use which of the following?

A. CogAT7 B. WPT-R C. Bayley-III D. Leiter-3 Answer B is correct. The WPT-R (Wonderlic Personnel Test - Revised) is a 12-minute test of general intelligence for adults and is used primarily to assist with hiring decisions.

____________ is occurring when ratings on a measure of job performance are affected by non-performance factors.

A. Criterion contamination B. Criterion deficiency C. The contrast error D. The halo effect Answer A is correct. Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance - for example, when a supervisor's performance ratings of employees are affected by an employee's gender or race or by the supervisor's knowledge of how well an employee did on the predictors that were used to hire him or her.

Which the following best describes ethical requirements for the use of deception in research?

A. Deception may be acceptable when alternative nondeceptive procedures are unavailable. B. Deception may be acceptable as long as subjects can participate in the study anonymously. C. Deception is acceptable as long as subjects are told about the general nature of the study during the informed consent process. D. The use of deception is always unacceptable. Answer A is correct. Ethical guidelines require that deception be used in research only when several criteria have been met. Of the answers given, this is the only one that accurately describes one of those criteria - i.e., deception may be acceptable when alternative nondeceptive methods for conducting the study are unavailable.

_______ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and low levels have been linked to chronic insomnia and anxiety disorders.

A. Dopamine B. Acetylcholine C. GABA D. Glutamate GABA. The role of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA has long been regarded as central to the regulation of anxiety and this neurotransmitter system is the target of benzodiazepines and related drugs used to treat anxiety disorders. It should nevertheless be recognized that GABA is not the only neurotransmitter important in the modulation of anxiety responses in the amygdala

Which of the following is true about efficacy and effectiveness research?

A. Efficacy research has better internal validity but poorer external validity than effectiveness research does. B. Efficacy research has better external validity but poorer internal validity than effectiveness research does. C. Efficacy research has better internal and external validity than effectiveness research does. D. Efficacy research has poorer internal and external validity than effectiveness research does. Efficacy research has better internal validity but poorer external validity than effectiveness research does. Efficacy pertains to the desired effect created by a procedure, or service. It is based on the extent to which that intervention results in the effect researchers want to see, assuming the ideal conditions (like a controlled environment in a lab). Efficacy is easily proven in the laboratory, but translating that to real life can be more difficult. Effectiveness is about real-world scenarios. It focuses on uncontrolled circumstances, such as those that occur outside the laboratory. It is based on the extent to which goals are achieved as a result of the intervention, whatever that might be. Effectiveness might be less promising than efficacy was in the same situation.

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates enhance the effects of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A. GABA B. serotonin C. ACh D. norepinephrine GABA. Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) at the GABAA receptor, resulting in sedative, hypnotic (sleep-inducing), anxiolytic (anti-anxiety), anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties

Which of the following is true about privilege?

A. It can be claimed and waived only by the client. B. It can be claimed by the client and the client's legal representative but waived only by the court. C. It can be claimed and waived by the client, the client's legal representative, and the therapist. D. It can be claimed and waived by the client and the client's legal representative and claimed by the therapist on behalf of the client Answer D is correct. The client or the client's legal representative is the holder of the privilege, which means that the client or his/her representative decides when to claim or waive the privilege. However, psychologists may claim the privilege on behalf of a client when asked to disclose confidential client information in a legal proceeding.

Motivational interviewing incorporates concepts and procedures from which of the following?

A. Jung's analytical psychotherapy B. Adler's individual psychology C. Skinner's operant conditioning D. Rogers's person-centered therapy Rogers's person-centered therapy. Motivational interviewing is a counseling approach developed in part by clinical psychologists William R. Miller and Stephen Rollnick. It is a directive, client-centered counseling style for eliciting behavior change by helping clients to explore and resolve ambivalence. Compared with non-directive counseling, it is more focused and goal-directed, and departs from traditional Rogerian client-centered therapy through this use of direction, in which therapists attempt to influence clients to consider making changes, rather than engaging in non-directive therapeutic exploration. The examination and resolution of ambivalence is a central purpose, and the counselor is intentionally directive in pursuing this goal.

To evaluate the general intellectual ability of a 26-year-old with limited English proficiency, you would use which of the following?

A. KABC-II B. WPT-R C. Raven's SPM D. Bayley-III Answer C is correct. Raven's SPM is a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g) for individuals ages 6:0 and older. Because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed, it's useful for examinees who have hearing or speech impairments, physical disabilities, or limited English proficiency.

Which of the following would be used to assess the inter-rater reliability of a rating scale designed to help clinicians distinguish between children who either do or do not meet the DSM criteria for a diagnosis of ADHD?

A. Kuder-Richardson 20 B. Spearman-Brown C. Cronbach's coefficient alpha D. Cohen's kappa coefficient Answer D is correct. The kappa coefficient is used to assess the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when the ratings represent a nominal scale (e.g., when a rating scale classifies children as either meeting or not meeting the diagnostic criteria for ADHD).

Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are stages of which of the following?

A. Ludema, Cooperrider, and Barrett's appreciative inquiry B. Lewin's model of planned change C. Schein's process consultation D. Herzberg's job enrichment Answer B is correct. Lewin (1951) described planned change as involving three stages: unfreezing the present level of functioning, changing to a new level, and refreezing at the new level.

Jung's personality theory was the basis for which of the following tests?

A. MBTI B. EPPS C. NEO-PI-3 D. 16 PF Answer A is correct. The MBTI (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator) is based on Jung's personality typology.

The lexical strategy was used in the development of which of the following tests?

A. MBTI and EPPS B. 16 PF and NEO-PI-3 C. TAT and MBTI D. 16 PF and EPPS Answer B is correct. The lexical strategy is based on the assumption that important personality traits are encoded in language. It was used in the development of the 16 PF and the NEO-PI-3.

The numerator of the F-ratio produced by a one-way ANOVA is referred to as ______ and is a measure of __________.

A. MSW; treatment effects plus error B. MSB; treatment effects plus error C. MSW; error only D. MSB; error only Answer B is correct. The F-ratio is calculated by dividing MSB (mean square between) by MSW (mean square within). MSB is a measure of variability in dependent variable scores that's due to treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only.

Identifying the temporal sequence of the onset of motor and cognitive symptoms is most useful for distinguishing between NCD due to Parkinson's disease and:

A. NCD due to HIV infection. B. NCD with Lewy bodies. C. NCD due to prion disease. D. vascular NCD. NCD with Lewy bodies. Lewy body dementia, also known as dementia with Lewy bodies, is the second most common type of progressive dementia after Alzheimer's disease dementia. Protein deposits, called Lewy bodies, develop in nerve cells in the brain regions involved in thinking, memory and movement (motor control).Lewy body dementia causes a progressive decline in mental abilities. People with Lewy body dementia may experience visual hallucinations and changes in alertness and attention. Other effects include Parkinson's disease-like signs and symptoms such as rigid muscles, slow movement and tremors. It is frequently underdiagnosed and misdiagnosed as other NCDs, Parkinson disease-related NCD, or major depressive disorder

Which of the following SB5 subtests are used to determine the starting point for the other subtests?

A. Object Series/Matrices and Verbal Analogies B. Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary C. Procedural Knowledge and Vocabulary D. Procedural Knowledge and Verbal Analogies Answer B is correct. Administration of the SB5 begins with two routing subtests: Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary. Administration of the other subtests then begins at a level slightly below the level indicated by the routing subtests.

Which of the following is NOT one of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) scales?

A. Occupational Scales B. Vocational Interest Estimates C. Personal Styles Scales D. College Major Scales Answer C is correct. The KOIS provides scores on Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, and Vocational Interest Estimates.

To determine the relationship between cigarette smoking and absence from work, Dr. Nunez obtains a sample of employees who are either smokers or nonsmokers and determines the number of days each employee was absent from work the previous year. Dr. Nunez will use which of the following to calculate the correlation between these two variables?

A. Pearson r B. Spearman rho C. point biserial coefficient D. contingency coefficient Answer C is correct. The point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is a true dichotomy (smokers versus nonsmokers) and the other is continuous (number of days absent from work). (A useful mnemonic for distinguishing between the point biserial and biserial coefficients is to use the "t" in point as a reminder that the point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is a true dichotomy.)

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding sexual relationships with students and supervisees?

A. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students or supervisees under any circumstances. B. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with current (but not former) students or supervisees. C. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students and supervisees over whom they have or are likely to have evaluative authority. D. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students and supervisees except in the "most unusual circumstance Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.07, which states that "psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority." Answer B is not the best answer because it's not possible to conclude that psychologists will not have evaluative authority over a former student or supervisee in the future.

Which of the following attributes the experience of emotion to physiological arousal followed by assigning a cognitive label to that arousal?

A. Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Lazarus's cognitive appraisal theory D. Hering's opponent process theory Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory. The Schachter and Singer two factor theory of emotion was presented by researchers Stanley Schachter and Jerome E. Singer in 1962. The theory suggest that emotional states contain two components, one physiological and one cognitive. According to the theory, "people search the immediate environment for emotionally relevant cues to label and interpret unexplained physiological arousal."

According to Donald Super, career development involves five stages that occur over the lifespan. These stages include all of the following except:

A. establishment. B. exploration. C. maintenance. D. anticipation. Answer D is correct. Super's (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996) life-space, life-span theory of career development distinguishes between five stages of career development: growth (birth to 14), exploration (15 to 24), establishment (25 to 44), maintenance (45 to 64), and disengagement (65+).

Like the AB single-subject design, the __________ group design involves measuring the dependent variable measure multiple times before and after applying the independent variable.

A. Solomon four-group B. factorial C. counterbalanced D. time-series Answer D is correct. The AB single-subject design has a single baseline (no treatment) phase that is followed by a single treatment phase. Like the time-series group design, it involves measuring the dependent variable multiple times before and after the independent variable (treatment) is applied.

A psychologist interested in the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations finds that doubling the weight of an object doubles the sensation of heaviness but that doubling the brightness of a light more than doubles the sensation of brightness. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?

A. Stevens's power law B. Fechner's law C. Weber's law D. Gerstmann's law Stevens's power law. Stevens's power law is an empirical relationship in psychophysics between an increased intensity or strength in a physical stimulus and the perceived magnitude increase in the sensation created by the stimulus. It is often considered to supersede the Weber-Fechner law, based on a logarithmic relationship between stimulus and sensation, because the power law describes a wider range of sensory comparisons. The theory is named after psychophysicist Stanley Smith Stevens

An advocate of which of the following is most likely to recommend that time-and-motion studies be used to identify the most efficient way to perform a job?

A. Taylor's scientific management B. McGregor's Theory Y C. Katz and Kahn's open-system theory D. Herzberg's two-factor theory Answer A is correct. Taylor (1911), the founder of scientific management, identified several management practices that he believed would maximize organizational efficiency and productivity. One of these is using scientific methods (e.g., time-and-motion studies) to determine the best way to do a job.

Which of the following is true about the SSRIs and TCAs?

A. The SSRIs are more cardiotoxic than the TCAs. B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs. C. The SSRIs and the TCAs are similar in terms of cardiotoxicity. D. The SSRIs and the TCAs are not cardiotoxic. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs. n contrast to TCAs, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), including fluoxetine and citalopram, are considered to cause less effect on cardiac impulse conduction. In addition, these compounds induced significantly less anticholinergic, antihistaminergic and cardiotoxic side-effects than TCAs.

Which of the following would be most helpful for confirming that the correct DSM-5 diagnosis for a client is agoraphobia?

A. The client's anxiety occurs in situations that remind him of the traumatic event that preceded the onset of his symptoms. B. The client's anxiety occurs only in unfamiliar situations or with unfamiliar people. C. The client's anxiety is related to a fear of being negatively evaluated by others. D. The client's anxiety is related to a fear of being unable to get help if he develops panic-like symptoms. The client's anxiety is related to a fear of being unable to get help if he develops panic-like symptoms. All of the below features must be present in order to make a proper diagnosis of agoraphobia: -Marked and disproportionate fear when confronted with at least two different situations, such as open spaces, public transport or crowded areas -An immediate anxiety response such as a panic attack when exposed to the phobic stimulus -Recognition of the fear as disproportionate -Avoidance behaviors, distress or anticipatory anxiety that significantly disrupts normal routine, relationships, occupational or social activities -Symptoms recorded for at least six months across all age groups -No other underlying condition that may explain the symptoms

Research on the effects of divorce on parents and children has identified a "sleeper effect" which refers to which of the following?

A. The gradual increase in the problematic behaviors of boys and girls after the divorce. B. The gradual decrease in the problematic behaviors of boys after the divorce. C. The delay in the onset of problematic behavior in girls following the divorce. D. The gradual increase in conflict in the parent-child relationship following the divorce. The delay in the onset of problematic behavior in girls following the divorce.The sleeper effect of divorce refers to the phenomenon whereby individuals who previously showed positive recovery following childhood parental divorce later exhibit adjustment difficulties in young adulthood stemming from the earlier experience of parental divorce. Studies show that some children and adolescents who appear to recover and cope well after parental divorce have long-term effects in young adulthood that were not expected based on previous adjustment. Longitudinal research suggests that as children of divorce enter adulthood, they may be more likely than the general population to experience concerns about not being loved, have difficulties in relationship formation and maintenance, and have fears regarding betrayal and abandonment in romantic relationships

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding the use of automated scoring and interpretation services?

A. Use of automated services is acceptable as long as they have been developed by licensed mental health professionals. B. Use of automated services is acceptable as long as they have adequate evidence of their validity and other psychometric properties. C. Use of automated services is acceptable only when they are provided by the test publisher. D. Use of automated services is unacceptable. Answer B is correct. The use of test scoring and interpretation services is addressed by Standard 9.09(b), which states that "psychologists select scoring and interpretation services (including automated services) on the basis of the validity of the program and procedures as well as on other appropriate considerations."

The research has found that child custody litigants often respond to MMPI-2 items in a defensive way that's indicated by

A. a higher than normal score on the F scale and lower scores on the L and K scales. B. a higher than normal score on the S scale and lower scores on the F and L scales. C. higher than normal scores on the L and K scales and a lower score on the F scale. D. higher than normal scores on the S and K scales and a lower score on the L scale. Answer C is correct. Even if you're unfamiliar with research on the MMPI-2 scores of child custody litigants, you would have been able to identify answer C as the correct answer as long as you noticed that the question states that these individuals often respond to items in a defensive way and know that high scores on the L and K scales suggest defensiveness - i.e., an attempt to "fake good" by minimizing or denying psychological problems.

According to Moffitt (1993), which of the following explains the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior?

A. a maturity gap B. developmental delays C. an adverse child-rearing environment D. adolescent egocentrism a maturity gap A small group engages in antisocial behavior of 1 sort or another at every life stage, whereas a larger group is antisocial only during adolescence. According to the theory of life-course-persistent antisocial behavior, children's neuropsychological problems interact cumulatively with their criminogenic environments across development, culminating in a pathological personality. According to the theory of adolescence-limited antisocial behavior, a contemporary maturity gap encourages teens to mimic antisocial behavior in ways that are normative and adjustive.

An organizational psychologist was hired by a large mental health clinic to develop a structured interview that will be used to hire clinical psychologists. Questions included in the interview ask job applicants to describe how they would respond to hypothetical job-related situations that are similar to those they're likely to encounter on-the-job. The psychologist has developed which of the following? :

A. a situational interview B. a behavioral interview C. a case interview D. an informational interview Answer A is correct. Situational interviews are future-oriented and consist of questions that ask interviewees how they would respond to hypothetical job-related situations.

The "forced distribution" is a(n):

A. absolute measure of job performance. B. relative measure of job performance. C. worker-oriented method of job analysis. D. work-oriented method of job analysis. Answer B is correct. The forced distribution is a relative rating scale that requires the rater to assign a certain percent of employees to prespecified performance categories for each performance dimension.

A person will experience nausea, shortness of breath, and other unpleasant symptoms when he drinks alcohol after taking which of the following?

A. acamprosate B. disulfiram C. valproic acid D. naltrexone Disulfiram. Disulfiram (sold under the trade names Antabuse and Antabus) is a drug used to support the treatment of chronic alcoholism by producing an acute sensitivity to ethanol (drinking alcohol).

A DSM-5 diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are:

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. B. being intentionally produced, faked, or exaggerated in terms of severity. C. related to exposure to a traumatic event. D. incompatible with any known medical condition. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by an extreme focus on physical symptoms — such as pain or fatigue — that causes major emotional distress and problems functioning. You may or may not have another diagnosed medical condition associated with these symptoms, but your reaction to the symptoms is not normal.You often think the worst about your symptoms and frequently seek medical care, continuing to search for an explanation even when other serious conditions have been excluded. Specific sensations, such as pain or shortness of breath, or more general symptoms, such as fatigue or weakness Unrelated to any medical cause that can be identified, or related to a medical condition such as cancer or heart disease, but more significant than what's usually expected. A single symptom, multiple symptoms or varying symptoms. Mild, moderate or severe Pain is the most common symptom, but whatever your symptoms, you have excessive thoughts, feelings or behaviors related to those symptoms, which cause significant problems, make it difficult to function and sometimes can be disabling.

A DSM-5 diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are:

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. B. being intentionally produced, faked, or exaggerated in terms of severity. C. related to exposure to a traumatic event. D. incompatible with any known medical condition. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. Under DSM-5, a diagnosis is based on the degree to which a person's thoughts, feelings and behavior about their somatic symptoms are disproportionate or excessive. Specifically, one must experience six months of one distressing or disrupting somatic symptom that causes disproportionate and persistent thoughts, feelings and behavior or that takes up extra time and energy (APA, 2013). The symptoms must be clinically significant, meaning that they require medical intervention and impair areas of functioning The somatic symptoms cannot be intentionally produced or feigned If the somatic symptoms are medically unexplained, all other criteria for somatic symptom disorder must be met.

Patients with lesions in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex are most likely to exhibit:

A. acquired sociopathy. B. perseverative responses. C. decreased initiative and motivation. D. behavioral disinhibition. perseverative responses. Monkeys with lesions of dorsolateral prefrontal cortex perform poorly in delay tasks. They seem unable to keep the working memory of the stimulus for each trial. In a normal animal performing a delay task, neurons of that cortex fire persistently—and often in stimulus-specific manner—during the delay (memory period) of every trial. The prefrontal cortex is located in the frontal lobes of the brain. Functionally, the frontal lobes are involved in inhibiting inappropriate behavior, decision making, and planning. For this reason, prefrontal cortex damage commonly leads to an inability to plan or to behave in ways that are socially acceptable. If the damage occurs in childhood, individuals may never develop any understanding of moral behavior. When an injury happens in adulthood, the person may realize what is socially required but may still be unable to behave in an acceptable way. Damage to the prefrontal cortex is relatively common, since this area is right behind the forehead. The function of this part of the cerebral cortex invovles organizing and carrying out complex tasks. Judgments and decisions could be impaired following its injury, as these are the parts of the brain which enable a person to consider possible future actions in the light of what happened in the past, allowing the probable best course of action to be chosen. As the impairments caused by damage are relatively specific, and most of the brain can still function normally, the condition may not be recognized as brain damage at first.

Expectancy theory (Vroom, 1964) predicts that worker motivation is affected by three beliefs. One of these is "expectancy," which refers to the belief that:

A. adequate effort leads to successful performance. B. adequate performance leads to certain outcomes. C. job outcomes are desirable. D. job outcomes are equitable. Answer A is correct. Expectancy theory describes job motivation as the result of three beliefs: (a) the worker's belief that effort will lead to successful performance (expectancy); (b) the worker's belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes (instrumentality); and (c) the worker's belief about the value of those outcomes (valence).

A person who takes an SSRI concomitantly with an MAOI may develop serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by:

A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability. B. substantial weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. C. throbbing headache, stiff neck, and light sensitivity. D. parkinsonism, akathisia, and dystonia. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability. Serotonin syndrome (SS) is a group of symptoms that may occur with the use of certain serotonergic medications or drugs. The degree of symptoms can range from mild to severe. Symptoms include high body temperature, agitation, increased reflexes, tremor, sweating, dilated pupils, and diarrhea.

You have been hired by a large online auction site to assist with its hiring procedure for tech support jobs by administering and scoring psychological tests and using their results to make hiring recommendations. The human resource manager has told you that he wants you to include an online self-report measure of borderline personality disorder that he's familiar with because the company has had trouble with employees who have "borderline tendencies" in the past and wants to eliminate them from consideration. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

A. agree to include the test and give its results to the manager but base your recommendations on the other tests that you choose. B. agree to include the test only if it has been validated as a measure of borderline personality disorder. C. tell the manager you will include the test only if it has evidence of validity as a measure of borderline personality disorder and as a predictor of tech support job performance. D. tell the manager you can't include the test because there's no evidence that measures of personality predict job performance. Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.02, which requires psychologists to use tests only for purposes for which they have been validated. Note that answer D is not the best answer because there is evidence that certain personality traits (e.g., conscientiousness) are fairly good predictors of job performance across different types of jobs.

You receive a letter from a former client's attorney requesting that you provide her with information from the client's file, including the actual items from two projective tests, the client's responses to those items, and the client's test scores. The letter is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by the client who is being represented by the attorney in a criminal case. As an ethical psychologist, you will send the attorney:

A. all of the requested test information. B. the client's responses to the test items and test scores only. C. the client's test scores only. D. only a summary of the client's performance on each test. Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 9.04 and 9.11, which distinguish between test data and test material. Standard 9.11 requires psychologists to "make reasonable efforts" to protect the integrity and security of test materials. As defined in this standard, test material includes test items, which means that providing items to the attorney would breach test security. In contrast, Standard 9.04 describes test data as including an examinee's responses to test items and his/her test scores, which can be released with appropriate authorization.

Schizoaffective disorder is likely to be the appropriate diagnosis for a client if her psychotic symptoms have:

A. always occurred with concurrent mood symptoms. B. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her psychotic symptoms were absent. C. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent. D. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least one month when her mood symptoms were absent. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent. The American Psychiatric Association explains schizoaffective disorder in the DSM-5, the book that is the accepted authority on mental illness and personality disorders. Someone with schizoaffective disorder meets the primary criteria (Criterion A) for schizophrenia, which includes two or more of the following: -Delusions -Hallucinations -Disorganized speech (speech that is easily derailed or is incoherent) -Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior -Negative symptoms (flat expressions, loss of pleasure/anhedonia, lack of motivation/avolition, and other experiences that are "taken away" from the person) -Schizoaffective disorder includes at least two of the above symptoms related to psychotic disorders and these DSM-5 criteria: -A major mood episode (either major depression or mania) that lasts for an uninterrupted period of time -Delusions or hallucinations for two or more consecutive weeks without mood symptoms sometime during the life of the illness -Mood symptoms are present for the majority of the illness -The symptoms aren't caused by substance use Mood symptoms are present for most of the illness Social dysfunction isn't as pronounced as it is in schizophrenia Negative symptoms such as the inability to perform self-care aren't as severe as they are in schizophrenia It's possible to have autism spectrum disorder or another developmental disorder starting in childhood (schizophrenia isn't diagnosed if such disorders are present, but schizoaffective disorder can be)

The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories.

A. amygdala B. hippocampus C. thalamus D. cingulate gyrus Amygdala. The amygdala (Latin, corpus amygdaloideum) is an almond-shape set of neurons located deep in the brain's medial temporal lobe. Shown to play a key role in the processsing of emotions, the amygdala forms part of the limbic system. In humans and other animals, this subcortical brain structure is linked to both fear responses and pleasure.

Damage to which of the following is likely to have the greatest adverse impact on event-based prospective memory?

A. amygdala B. mammillary bodies C. cerebellum D. prefrontal cortex prefrontal cortex. In general, however, damage to the frontal lobe due to a blow to the head, a stroke, growths, and diseases, can cause the following symptoms: speech problems. changes in personality. poor coordination. difficulties with impulse control. trouble planning or sticking to a schedule.

Parkinson's disease has been linked to a degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:

A. amygdala. B. suprachiasmatic nucleus. C. pons. D. substantia nigra. substantia nigra. Parkinson disease is a slowly progressive disorder that affects movement, muscle control, and balance. Part of the disease process develops as cells are destroyed in certain parts of the brain stem, particularly the crescent-shaped cell mass known as the substantia nigra.

Which of the following is most associated with a better prognosis for autism spectrum disorder?

A. an IQ over 55 B. a sudden onset of symptoms C. functional language skills by age five D. brief duration of active-phase symptoms Functional language skills by age five. Acquiring language before age six, having IQ above 50, and having a marketable skill all predict better outcomes;

Which of the following is most likely to be an effective pharmacological treatment for premature ejaculation?

A. an MAOI B. an SSRI C. a beta-blocker D. an anti-seizure medication an SSRI. The Most Effective SSRI for Premature Ejaculation Paroxetine, sertraline, fluoxetine, citalopram, and fluvoxamine are the most common type of SSRI. While most of them delay ejaculation, they aren't all as effective. Paroxetine is the most effective one with a mean IELT fold increase of 8.8 for a dose that ranges from 10 to 40mg per day 1.

The presence of which of the following is required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

A. an apparent lack of interest in eating and food B. recurrent episodes of binge-eating and purging C. an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat D. extreme sensitivity to the sensory characteristics of food an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat o be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa according to the DSM-5, the following criteria must be met: Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight. Disturbance in the way in which one's body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight. Even if all the DSM-5 criteria for anorexia are not met, a serious eating disorder can still be present. Atypical anorexia includes those individuals who meet the criteria for anorexia but who are not underweight despite significant weight loss. Research studies have not found a difference in the medical and psychological impacts of anorexia and atypical anorexia.

Adler's individual psychology is based on the assumption that neurotic behavior is attributable to which of the following?

A. an unresolved unconscious conflict B. a boundary disturbance C. a failure to satisfy innate needs D. a mistaken style of life a mistaken style of life. Adler felt he could distinguish four primary types of style. Three of them he said to be "mistaken styles". These include: 1.the ruling type: aggressive, dominating people who don't have much social interest or cultural perception; 2. the getting type: dependent people who take rather than give; 3. the avoiding type: people who try to escape life's problems and take little part in socially constructive activity. 4*The fourth life style considered by Adler is the socially useful type: people with a great deal of social interest and activity

As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged man exhibits ________, which means he cannot recognize family members by their faces.

A. anosognosia B. asomatognosia C. prosopagnosia D. Gerstmann's syndrome prosopagnosia. Prosopagnosia, also called face blindness, is a cognitive disorder of face perception in which the ability to recognize familiar faces, including one's own face (self-recognition), is impaired, while other aspects of visual processing (e.g., object discrimination) and intellectual functioning (e.g., decision-making) remain intact.

Whenever Corky looks at numbers, each number elicits a different color (1 elicits red, 2 elicits blue, etc.). This is referred to as:

A. anosognosia B. prosopagnosia C. achromatopsia D. synesthesia Synesthesia. Synesthesia is a neurological condition in which two or more senses are attached, stimulation of one sensory or cognitive pathway leads to automatic, involuntary experiences in a second sensory or cognitive pathway. People with synesthesia have a relationship between the senses. The excitement of one sense stimulates the experiencing of another.

A drug that has the same effects as a neurotransmitter or that increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n):

A. antagonist. B. inverse agonist. C. partial agonist. D. agonist. agonist. If the drug increases the effect of the neurotransmitter it is called an agonist. If it decreases the effect of the neurotransmitter it is called an antagonist. So, if a neurotransmitter is inhibitory, an agonist will increase the inhibitory effect of the neurotransmitter, whereas an antagonist will decrease the inhibitory effect.

According to Tiedeman's career decision-making model, career development involves two major phases. These are:

A. anticipation and implementation. B. induction and implementation. C. exploration and commitment. D. anticipation and maintenance. Answer A is correct. Tiedeman's (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O'Hara, 1963) career decision-making model distinguishes between two phases: anticipation and implementation.

You receive a subpoena requesting you to appear in court from the attorney to provide information about a former client. Assuming that the subpoena is valid and that you do not have authorization from the client to release confidential information, you should:

A. appear in court as requested and provide only information you believe is relevant to the court case. B. appear in court as requested and provide only information that you believe is in the best interests of the client. C. appear in court as requested but assert the privilege on behalf of the client. D. refuse to appear in court as requested without authorization from the client. Answer C is correct. There are several things you would want to do in this situation but, of the answers given, this is the best one. You need to respond to the subpoena (you can't just refuse to appear in court) but, since you don't have the client's authorization to release confidential information, you would want to assert the privilege on behalf of the client.

An advantage of behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is that they:

A. are easy to develop. B. are aligned with organizational values and goals. C. provide an objective (versus subjective) measure of job performance. D. provide information that's useful for performance feedback. Answer D is correct. Advantages of BARS are that the behavioral anchors help reduce rater biases and provide useful information for employee feedback. Disadvantages are that they're time-consuming to develop and they're job specific, which means that different scales must be developed for different jobs.

The studies have found that children in high-quality daycare:

A. are indistinguishable from children who do not attend daycare. B. have higher rates of disobedience and other behavioral problems than children who do not attend daycare. C. are more likely to have cognitive and language deficits than children who do not attend daycare. D. have higher rates of behavioral problems and lower cognitive and language skills than children who do not attend daycare. have higher rates of disobedience and other behavioral problems than children who do not attend daycare.

You will be teaching your first introductory psychology class next semester and are considering requiring students to participate in one research study as a course requirement. This is acceptable as long as students:

A. are not required to participate in a study that you're conducting. B. are given the option to complete an alternative assignment instead of participating in a research study. C. are not required to participate in studies that will subject them to physical pain or psychological stress. D. are made aware of this requirement before they sign-up for your class. Answer B is correct. Standard 8.04 applies to this situation. It states that, "when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities."

Five-year-old Debbie is brought to therapy by her foster parents who say that, even though she's been living with them for over three years, she hasn't formed an attachment to either of them. The foster parents tell you that Debbie doesn't seek comfort from them when she's distressed, doesn't respond to interactions with people with happiness or enjoyment, and often becomes fearful or irritable when interacting with people for no apparent reason. To confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder for Debbie, you would want to confirm that her symptoms:

A. are related to pre-, peri-, or postnatal complications. B. are related to extreme insufficient care. C. began before age 5 and that Debbie has a developmental age of at least 12 months. D. began before age 7 and that Debbie has a developmental age of at least nine months. are related to extreme insufficient care.

The symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are grouped in DSM-5 into three categories that include all of the following except:

A. argumentative/defiant behavior. B. vindictiveness. C. deceitfulness/dishonesty. D. angry/irritable mood. deceitfulness/dishonesty. In DSM-5, oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is defined by emotional and behavioral symptoms grouped into three categories: 1. Constant anger or irritability 2. Argumentative or defiant behavior (arguing with authority figures) 3. Vindictiveness.

The adolescent growth spurt begins

A. at about the same age for boys and girls. B. about two years earlier for girls than boys. C. about four years earlier for girls than boys. D. about two years earlier for boys than girls. about two years earlier for girls than boys

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette's disorder to a client, he/she must have which of the following?

A. at least one motor tic and one vocal tic. B. at least one motor tic and multiple vocal tics. C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic. D. multiple motor tics and multiple vocal tics. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic. Both multiple motor and 1 or more vocal tics have been present at some time during the illness, though not necessarily concurrently. (A tic is a sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic, stereotyped motor movement or vocalization)

Carstensen's (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory attributes differences in adults' motivation for friendships to differences in:

A. attachment style. B. information processing. C. gender. D. time perspective. time perspective.

The results of a study indicate that the different effects of high-credible and low-credible communicators on the attitudes of the recipients of a message faded over time because the recipients remembered the message but forgot its source. These results provide support for which of the following?

A. attitude inoculation B. the sleeper effect C. the contrast effect D. psychological reactance Answer B is correct. High-credible communicators initially have a greater effect than low-credible communicators on recipients' attitude change, but this difference fades because, over time, the recipients tend to remember the persuasive message but forget its source. This is referred to as the sleeper effect.

Byrne's (1971) law of attraction focuses on which of the following?

A. attitude similarity B. behavior intention C. physical attractiveness D. reciprocity Answer A is correct. Byrne's (1971) law of attraction states that there's a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates our views and produces good feelings.

According to Heider's (1958) balance theory, the relationships among which of the following can be either balance or unbalanced?

A. attitudes, behaviors, and cognitions B. a person, another person, and an attitude object C. behavior intention, subjective norms, and perceived behavior control D. a person, place, and thing Answer B is correct. Heider's balance theory is also known as P-O-X theory because it focuses on the relationships among three elements: the person (P), another person (O), and an attitude object or event (X).

A cigarette smoker decides to quit "cold turkey." Her withdrawal symptoms will most likely include which of the following?

A. autonomic hyperactivity, psychomotor agitation, and insomnia B. lower blood pressure, cardiac arrhythmias, and confusion C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia D. insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia. The drug nicotine, commonly associated with tobacco, is what makes smoking addictive. It can have a wide range of effects on the brain, such as: boosting mood reducing depression reducing irritability enhancing concentration and short-term memory producing a sense of well-being reducing appetite

A person with __________ personality disorder is most likely to say she'd like to have friends but doesn't spend time with people because she thinks she's "not as good as other people" and fears that they'll criticize and reject her.

A. avoidant B. schizoid C. borderline D. histrionic Avoidant. With schizoid personality disorder, patients do not enjoy intimate relationships with other people, according to MedlinePlus. While avoidant personality disorder patients are hurt by someone's criticism, schizoid personality disorder patients appear unaffected by criticism, as well as praise Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by lack of social interest and inadequacy basically due to fear of criticism whereas, a Schizoid personality is seen in those who avoid interaction with the society because they enjoy solitary lifestyle and are emotionally cold, and love their own company.

In the strange situation, a baby with insecure/avoidant attachment will most likely:

A. be easily comforted by a stranger. B. ignore a stranger. C. react to a stranger and his/her mother in a similar way. D. be distressed by a stranger even when his/her mother is present. react to a stranger and his/her mother in a similar way.

To be consistent with ethical requirements, you should discuss fees and other financial matters with therapy clients:

A. before the first therapy session. B. during the first therapy session. C. as part of the informed consent process. D. as early as feasible. Answer D is correct. This answer is the best one because it uses the actual language of Standard 6.04 of the Ethics Code. It requires psychologists to reach an agreement with clients "as early as feasible" about fees and other financial arrangements.

As described in Ellis's A-B-C-D-E model, B represents:

A. behavioral and emotional reactions to an activating event. B. barriers to rational thought. C. belief perseverance. D. beliefs about an activating event. beliefs about an activating event. "A" - Adversity or Activating Event, "B" - Beliefs, "C" - Consequences, "D" - Disputing, "E" - Effects

A higher-than-normal level of melatonin has been linked to which of the following?

A. bipolar I disorder B. bipolar II disorder C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern D. major depressive disorder with peripartum onset major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern Some researchers link major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern to the natural hormone melatonin, which causes drowsiness. Because light modifies the amount of melatonin in the human nervous system and boosts serotonin to the brain, light therapy has an antidepressant effect. When light strikes the eye's retina, a process in the body decreases the secretion of melatonin. Although not everyone experiences all the following symptoms, the classic characteristics of Major Depressive Disorder with a Seasonal Pattern include: Hypersomnia (or oversleeping) Daytime fatigue Overeating Weight gain Craving carbohydrates Many people may experience other symptoms as well, including: Decreased sexual interest Lethargy Hopelessness Suicidal thoughts Lack of interest in usual activities and decreased socialization

You receive a request for information about a former client of yours from the APA's Ethics Committee which it needs for its investigation of a complaint the client has filed against you. You:

A. can refuse to provide the information if doing so will violate your right against self-incrimination. B. can refuse to provide the information if doing so is likely to be harmful to the client. C. must cooperate with the request as long as the client has signed an authorization to release confidential information. D. must cooperate with the request whether or not the client has signed an authorization to release confidential information. Answer C is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 1.06 of the APA's Ethics Code. It requires psychologists to cooperate with investigations and proceedings of the APA and affiliated state psychological associations to which they belong but also states that, before doing so, psychologists must "address any confidentiality issues." The latter requirement includes ensuring that the client who filed the complaint has signed an authorization to release confidential information.

The tendency of genetic make-up to restrict the amount of influence the environment has on a particular characteristic is referred to as:

A. canalization. B. maturation. C. individuation. D. adaptation. canalization. Canalisation (genetics), a measure of the ability of a genotype to produce the same phenotype regardless of variability of its environment. Canalization (psychology) (canalizing), the form of satisfaction or discharge, the term established by Pierre Janet and Gardner Murphy.

Social judgment theory (Sherif & Hovland, 1961) distinguishes between:

A. central and peripheral processing routes. B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment. C. alpha and omega strategies. D. congruent and incongruent states Answer B is correct. Social judgment theory distinguishes between latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment, which represent different degrees of similarity between a person's current position and the position advocated by a persuasive message.

As described by McGuire (1973), attitude inoculation is useful for:

A. changing a person's attitudes. B. strengthening the link between a person's attitudes and behaviors. C. helping people evaluate their own attitudes and behaviors. D. reducing a person's susceptibility to persuasion. Answer D is correct. The attitude inoculation hypothesis proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to "immunize" people against attempts to change their attitudes by providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments before they're exposed to a persuasive message

Support for Chomsky's theory of language development is provided by studies showing that:

A. children acquire language faster when reinforcement is used to encourage them to use new words and more complex phrases and sentences. B. parents and other caregivers automatically use child-directed speech when talking to young children. C. all languages have the same underlying grammatical structure and rules. D. language development is linked to cultural communicative practices. all languages have the same underlying grammatical structure and rules. Frameworks of grammar, which attempt to give a precise scientific theory of the syntax rules of grammar and their function, have been developed in theoretical linguistics. Most mainstream frameworks are based on the conception of an innate "universal grammar", an idea developed by Noam Chomsky.

Research comparing the outcomes for children of gay or lesbian parents and heterosexual parents has found that:

A. children of gay or lesbian parents tend to be less well-adjusted than children of heterosexual parents. B. children of heterosexual parents tend to be less well-adjusted than children of gay or lesbian parents. C. children of gay parents (but not lesbian parents) tend to be less well-adjusted than children of heterosexual parents. D. children of gay or lesbian parents do not differ consistently in terms of adjustment from children of heterosexual parents. children of gay or lesbian parents do not differ consistently in terms of adjustment from children of heterosexual parents.

To ensure that she obtains a sufficient number of subjects for her doctoral dissertation research, a graduate student plans to offer some type of inducement to volunteers. With regard to ethical requirements, this is:

A. clearly unacceptable. B. acceptable only when alternative procedures for obtaining volunteers are unavailable. C. acceptable as long as the study is not likely to cause subjects physical pain or psychological stress. D. acceptable as long as the inducement is not coercive because of its value or desirability to potential volunteers Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 8.06, which states that "psychologists make reasonable efforts to avoid offering excessive or inappropriate financial or other inducements for research participation when such inducements are likely to coerce participation."

Hall (1976) classified __________ styles as high- or low-context.

A. cognitive B. communication C. socioemotional D. acculturation Communication. The terms high context communication and low context communication are used to explain a difference in the use and the meaning of words. High context communication means that much remains unsaid in a conversation. A few words can convey a complicated message as many customs, ideas, and expectation are understood as being implicit among the conversation partners. Non-verbal communication, gestures, sighs, silences, are extremely important in conveying the message. Low context cultures speak much more explicitly. In low context cultures you can take the words that someone speaks much more literally, and you'll find that information is often written down, formalized and accessible to you.

Which of the following is not one of the six processes addressed by acceptance and commitment therapy?

A. cognitive defusion B. corrective detachment C. experiential acceptance D. committed action corrective detachment. 1. Values A key component of ACT is values. This means recognizing what matters most to you what you truly want your life to be about. Examples include friendships, family, work relationships, spirituality and so forth. 2. Committed Action In this context, committed action means doing the things that bring value to your life. Examples include writing, reading, giving presentations, forming bonds with loved ones, nurturing others, care-taking and creating. 3. Acceptance A huge aspect of ACT is acceptance. In short, this means embracing all your experiences, including unwanted ones or things you view as "negative". Example: Accepting that as part of your personality, you can be generous and kind but also quick to judge or lash out. 4. Defusion This aspect of ACT requires that you stand back from yourself in an objective way. Essentially, defusion means noticing your thoughts and thinking processes, without getting obsessed or trying to alter them. Example: Occasionally, you have intrusive thoughts about someone you love being hurt. Instead of trying to stop the thoughts, you simply acknowledge their presence while realizing thoughts are not reality. 5. Contact with Present Moment One of the amazing aspects of ACT is its emphasis on living in the here and now. By having contact with the present moment, you are more fully aware of your experiences as they happen at this very moment in time. Example: While camping in the woods, you notice an eagle flying overhead. In your mind, you say to yourself: I see the eagle and am aware of his flying pattern. 6. Self in Context The final component of ACT is seeing the self in context. This basically means that you get in touch with your deep sense of self (meaning the "you" who sits behinds your eyes). This is the observant part of who you are and is distinct from your own thoughts, memories, and feelings. Example: You consider your own human development and where you are in life. As part of this reflection, you are aware that your upbringing has influenced the here and now and may or may not impact the future.

Kobasa (1982) identified three core characteristics of hardiness. Which of the following is NOT one of these characteristics?

A. commitment to family and work B. a sense of control over one's life C. an inner conviction of self-worth D. a view of new experiences as a challenge Answer C is correct. Hardiness (Kobasa, 1982) has three primary characteristics: a sense of control over one's life, a sense of commitment to family and work, and a tendency to view new experiences as challenges rather than threats.

Meichenbaum's stress inoculation training consists of three phases, the first of which is:

A. commitment. B. preparation. C. conceptualization. D. cognitive modeling. conceptualization. Stress inoculation therapy is a cognitive approach to restructuring thoughts that contribute to stress and this is what Meichenbaum (1972) studied. Meichenbaum highlights three distinct stages of stress inoculation therapy (SIT): Stage One- Conceptualization. Stage Two - Skills acquisition and rehearsal. Stage Three - Application and follow through

Confabulation on the Rorschach inkblot test is most likely indicative of:

A. concrete thinking. B. impulsivity. C. brain injury. D. perseveration. Answer C is correct. Confabulation refers to overgeneralizing a part of the inkblot to the whole inkblot and may indicate brain injury, cognitive impairment, or schizophrenia.

A test developer administers her newly developed job knowledge test to 50 applicants for sales positions at a large insurance company. All 50 applicants are hired regardless of their scores on the test and their scores are correlated with the scores they receive on a job performance measure six months later. This correlation coefficient provides information about the job knowledge test's:

A. concurrent validity. B. predictive validity. C. convergent validity. D. discriminant validity. Answer B is correct. Predictive validity is a type of criterion-related validity that's evaluated to determine how well predictor scores predict future criterion scores. It's assessed by correlating scores on the predictor (e.g., job knowledge test) with scores obtained on the criterion (e.g., job performance measure) at a later time.

A consultant is providing consultee-centered case consultation and determines that theme interference is responsible for the consultee's inability to work effectively with clients who have received a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. Consequently, the consultant will focus primarily the consultee's lack of:

A. confidence. B. objectivity. C. competence. D. experience. objectivity. theme interference--displacement of an unresolved conflict onto current personalities or situations.

As described by Steiner (1972), when working on a __________ problem-solving task, each group member submits his/her solution to the problem and the group chooses the best solution from those submitted.

A. conjunctive B. disjunctive C. compensatory D. discretionary Answer B is correct. Steiner (1972) distinguished between five types of group tasks: additive, compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and discretionary. A disjunctive task requires group members to choose the best solution, decision, or judgment from those offered by each group member, which is usually the one offered by the most competent member.

Your co-worker complains when the boss gives her a new task to complete. According to Kelley's (1967) covariation model, you're most likely to attribute your co-worker's dissatisfaction with her new task assignment to external causes (e.g., to the difficulty or tediousness of the task) if you determine that:

A. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all high. B. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all low. C. consensus and distinctiveness are low but consistency is high. D. consistency is low but consensus and distinctiveness are high. Answer A is correct. According to the covariation model, people are most likely to attribute the behavior of another person to external causes when consensus, consistency and distinctiveness are all high. For the situation described in this question, this would occur if you conclude that other co-workers would also complain about the task (high consensus), the co-worker is likely to respond in the same way to similar tasks (high consistency), and the co-worker doesn't respond this way to different types of tasks (high distinctiveness).

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of organizational commitment?

A. continuance B. affective C. normative D. behavioral Answer D is correct. There are three main types of organizational commitment - continuance, affective, and normative.

A college sophomore has decided to drop out of college at the end of the semester "to see the world," and she prefers talking to friends and family members who support her decision and avoids talking to those who think it's a bad idea. This illustrates which of the following?

A. contrast error B. self-serving bias C. confirmation bias D. false consensus effect Answer C is correct. The confirmation bias is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and avoid or ignore information that refutes them.

A six-year-old child of divorced parents experiences abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea whenever she stays with her mother but has no symptoms when she stays with her father or other relative. This situation is most suggestive of:

A. conversion disorder. B. malingering. C. factitious disorder. D. somatic symptom disorder. factitious disorder. Reactive Attachment Disorder DSM-5 Diagnostic Criteria Code 313.89 "A. consistent pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers, manifested by both of the following: The child rarely or minimally seeks comfort when distressed. The child rarely or minimally responds to comfort when distressed. B. A persistent social and emotional disturbance characterized by at least two of the following: Minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others. Limited positive affect. Episodes of unexplained irritability, sadness, or fearfulness that are evident even during nonthreatening interaction with adult caregivers. C. The child has experienced a pattern of extremes of insufficient care as evidenced by at least one of the following: Social neglect or deprivation in the form of persistent lack of having basic emotional needs for comfort, stimulation, and affection met by caregiving adults. Repeated changes of primary caregivers that limit opportunities to form stable attachments (e.g., frequent changes in foster care.) Rearing in unusual settings that severely limit opportunities to form selective attachments (e.g. institutions with child-to-caregiver-ratios.) D. The care in Criterion C is presumed to be responsible for the disturbed behavior in Criterion A (e.g., the disturbances in Criterion A began following the lack of adequate care in Criterion C.) E. The criteria are not met for autism spectrum disorder. F. The disturbance is evident before age 5 years. G. The child has a developmental age of at least 9 months. Specify if: Persistent: The order has been present for more than 12 months. Specify current severity: Reactive attachment disorder is specified as severe when a child exhibits all symptoms of the disorder, with each symptom manifesting at relatively high levels." [2]:265-266

Scoring the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) involves considering the hero's:

A. coping strategies. B. needs and press. C. self-concept. D. style of life. Answer B is correct. Murray's scoring system for the TAT involves identifying the story's hero, the hero's needs and press (internal and external causes of the hero's behavior), and the outcomes for each story.

Minority group members tend to obtain lower scores than majority group members on a selection test, even though both groups do equally well in terms of job performance. The difference in selection test scores results in a smaller proportion of minority group members being hired. As described in the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, this is an example of:

A. criterion deficiency. B. test unfairness. C. differential selection. D. predictor contamination. Answer B is correct. Test unfairness occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure but the score difference is not reflected in differences in scores on a measure of job performance. Unfairness is a potential cause of adverse impact.

Research has found that:

A. crystallized and fluid intelligence both increase or remain stable until late adulthood. B. crystallized and fluid intelligence both peak in early to middle adulthood. C. crystallized intelligence peaks in early to middle adulthood, while fluid intelligence peaks in late adulthood. D. crystallized intelligence peaks in late adulthood, while fluid intelligence peaks in early to middle adulthood. crystallized intelligence peaks in late adulthood, while fluid intelligence peaks in early to middle adulthood. Answer D is correct. Research has confirmed that crystallized and fluid intelligence increase during childhood and adolescence but that fluid intelligence peaks before crystallized intelligence does. The reported ages at which the two types of intelligence begin to decline vary somewhat from study to study, but there's some consensus that fluid intelligence peaks between 30 and 40 years of age, while crystallized intelligence doesn't peak until 60 or 70 years of age.

A 58-year-old man comes to therapy at the insistence of his wife who is threatening to leave him if he doesn't stop drinking. The man says he's been drinking alcohol since he was in his late 20s, has tried stopping when family members have asked him to, but doesn't see why his drinking bothers other people so much. He says he doesn't really want to stop and has only come to therapy to make his wife happy. According to Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical model, this man is in which stage of change?

A. denial B. acceptance C. precontemplation D. contemplation Precontemplation 1. The precontemplation stage: This means someone still doesn't think they have a problem or need to make any kind of change in their life 2. contemplation stage: Someone in this stage will simultaneously think about and reject the idea of change. 3. preparation stage: like a window of opportunity. It makes way for a new phase of life. They can enter action stage or return to precontemplation stage. 4. action stage: people start to take certain actions that will help them change. The goal during this stage is to create a change in the problem you want to solve. 5. maintenance stage: the challenge is to maintain the change you achieved in the last stage, and to not relapse.

A test has __________ validity when it has low correlations with measures of unrelated characteristics.

A. discriminant B. concurrent C. convergent D. differential Answer A is correct. For the exam, you want to know that discriminant validity is another name for divergent validity and that a test has discriminant (divergent) validity when scores on the test have low correlations with scores on measures of unrelated traits.

Helm's White Racial Identity Development Model proposes that each identity status is associated with a different information processing strategy. For example, the __________ status is associated with a strategy that involves selective perception and negative outgroup distortion.

A. disintegration B. reintegration C. pre-encounter D. contact Reintegration. 3. Reintegration status is marked by recourse to pro-White, antiminority attitudes to deal with the dissonance of disintegration status. One condones White supremacy and blames minorities for their own problems.

Which of the following is useful for ensuring that trainees will learn and retain newly acquired behaviors and be able to perform them successfully with little conscious effort?

A. distributed practice B. massed practice C. overtraining D. overlearning Answer D is correct. Overlearning refers to practicing a new behavior beyond the point of mastery. It results in automaticity, which occurs when the behavior can be performed with little conscious effort or awareness.

All of the following drugs are used to slow down the progression of Alzheimer's disease by delaying the breakdown of acetylcholine except:

A. donepezil. B. galantamine. C. rivastigmine. D. memantine. memantine.Medications called cholinesterase inhibitors are prescribed for mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease. These drugs may help reduce some symptoms and help control some behavioral symptoms. The medications are Razadyne® (galantamine), Exelon® (rivastigmine), and Aricept® (donepezil).

Memory loss during the initial stage of Alzheimer's disease has been most consistently linked to low levels of __________ in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus.

A. dopamine B. norepinephrine C. acetylcholine D. GABA Acetylcholine. Alzheimer's disease is caused by progressive damage to brain cells and subsequent loss of the chemicals that they produce, known as neurotransmitters. One of these neurotransmitters is acetylcholine, decreases of which play a role in some of the problems seen in people with Alzheimer's disease, including difficulties with memory and attention.

A young man who has just received a diagnosis of frotteuristic disorder is sexually aroused when he fantasizes about:

A. dressing in woman's clothing. B. rubbing up against a nonconsenting person. C. a non-genital body part. D. watching other people having sex. rubbing up against a nonconsenting person. Frotteurism is a paraphilic interest in rubbing, usually one's pelvic area or erect penis, against a non-consenting person for sexual pleasure. It may involve touching any part of the body, including the genital area. A person who practices frotteuristic acts is known as a frotteur. Toucherism is sexual arousal based on grabbing or rubbing one's hands against an unexpecting person. It usually involves touching breasts, buttocks or genital areas, often while quickly walking across the victim's path. Some psychologists consider toucherism a manifestation of frotteurism, while others distinguish the two. In clinical medicine, treatment of frotteuristic disorder involves cognitive behavioral therapy coupled with the administration of a SSRI.

As a treatment for anxiety, propranolol (Inderal) is:

A. effective only for psychological symptoms. B. more effective for psychological symptoms than somatic symptoms. C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms. D. equally effective for somatic and psychological symptoms. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms. Inderal is a beta blocker used to treat high blood pressure, irregular heartbeats, shaking (tremors), and other conditions. It is used after a heart attack to improve the chance of survival. It is also used to prevent migraine headaches and chest pain (angina). Lowering high blood pressure helps prevent strokes, heart attacks, and kidney problems

Which of the following is not one of the aspects of temperament identified by Mary Rothbart?

A. effortful control B. surgency/extraversion C. regularity/predictability D. negative affectivity regularity/predictability. Rothbart's temperament dimensions are: "non-aggressive negative affect (fear and sadness)," "aggressive negative affect (frustration and social anger)," "effortful control (activation and attentional control)," "extraversion/surgency (sociability, high-intensity pleasure, and positive affect)," "orienting sensitivity (general and affective perceptual sensitivity and associative sensitivity)," and "affiliation (emotional empathy and empathetic guilt)."

The three-point code known as the psychotic valley consists of which of the following?

A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2 B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7 C. elevated scores on scales 1, 2, and 3 D. elevated scores on scales 6, 7, and 8 elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7 Answer B is correct. The psychotic valley is also known as the psychotic V, and these names suggest that the code consists of two high scores and one lower score, which eliminates answers C and D. Answer A is the conversion V code which is associated with the expression of psychological symptoms as somatic complaints. Answer B (the correct answer) is the psychotic V code and is associated with delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, and disordered thought. Even if you're unfamiliar with the psychotic V, knowing that the V refers to the presence of two high scores with a lower score and that scale 8 is the Schizophrenia scale would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question

Theo, age 35, lost sensory and motor functioning in his left hand after being in a car accident that killed his best friend. His physician has found no medical explanation for Theo's symptoms. On the MMPI-2, Theo is most likely to obtain which of the following?

A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2 B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7 C. elevated scores on scales 2, 4, and 7 D. elevated scores on scales 2, 7, and 8 Answer A is correct. The presence of neurological symptoms without a physical explanation for them is characteristic of conversion disorder and individuals with conversion disorder often obtain the conversion V pattern on the MMPI-2, which is the pattern described in Answer A. Answer B is the psychotic V pattern and is associated with delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, and disordered thought. Answer C is the pattern associated with alcohol and drug abuse, vague somatic complaints, and relationship- and work-related problems. It isn't the best answer because Theo has a specific somatic complaint rather than vague somatic complaints and the question doesn't indicate that he has an alcohol or drug problem or interpersonal- or work-related problems. And answer D is the pattern associated with chronic psychological maladjustment, anxiety, depression, internal conflict, and poor self-esteem.

Early memory loss associated with NCD due to Alzheimer's disease has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of which of the following in the hippocampus, cortex, and basal forebrain?

A. epinephrine B. norepinephrine C. GABA D. ACh Ach. the pathophysiology of alzheimer's disease is the focus of symptomatic treatments? loss of ACh and its targets in hippocampus, coretx, and basal forebrain (nucleus basalis of meynert)

Based on their review of the research, Sue, Zane, Nagayama Hall, and Berger (2009) concluded that culturally adapted interventions have:

A. equivalent benefits for adults and children. B. somewhat greater benefits for adults than children. C. somewhat greater benefits for children than adults. D. little or no benefits for adults or children. somewhat greater benefits for adults than children. irst, Griner & Smith (2006) conclude in their meta-analysis thatcultural competency interventions have a moderate positive effect. Second, Miranda et al.(2005) take a more cautious position because of the lack of adequate tests for culturalcompetency effects. Nevertheless, they state, "In the absence of efficacy studies, the combinedused of protocols or guidelines that consider culture and context with evidence-based care islikely to facilitate engagement in treatment and probably to enhance outcomes." Third, incontrast to the conclusions of Smith & Griner (2006), Huey&Polo (2008) state in their meta-analysis:... there is no compelling evidence as yet that these adaptations actually promotebetter clinical outcomes for ethnic minority youth. Overemphasizing the use ofconceptually appealing but untested cultural modifications could inadvertently leadto inefficiencies in the conduct of treatment with ethnic minorities.

As described by Scarr (1992), niche-picking refers to which of the following genotype-environment correlations?

A. evocative B. passive C. active D. reciprocal Active. -Passive During infancy, individuals' environments are provided by their parents. The rearing environment reflects the parents' genes, so it is genetically suitable for the child. -Evocative Environments respond to individuals based on the genes they express (phenotype). Infants and adolescents evoke social and physical responses from their environments through this interaction. Experiences, and therefore development, are more influenced by evocation than by the passive environment. However, the influence of evocation declines over time.[citation needed] -Active Individuals selectively attend to aspects of their environment that correlate to their specific genotypes and autonomously choose environments to interact with. Their selections are based on motivational, personality, and intellectual aspects of their genotype. Therefore, environmental interactions are person specific and can vary greatly. Since these environments are chosen rather than encountered, they have a greater effect on experience and development

During her second therapy session with Dr. Simone, a cognitive-behavioral therapist, Millie tells him that she has been seeing another psychologist for therapy for nearly three months. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Simone will:

A. explain to Millie that it would be inappropriate to see her in therapy while she's seeing another therapist. B. discuss with Millie the potential problems of seeing two therapists at the same time and let her decide what she wants to do. C. contact the other therapist after obtaining Millie's consent to do so to help determine the best course of action. D. determine why Millie is seeing another therapist to help determine the best course of action. Answer D is correct. Standard 10.04 applies to the situation described in this question. It states that psychologists must "proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues" when asked to provide services to a person who is receiving services from another mental health professional. Whether or not it would be appropriate for Dr. Simone to continue seeing Millie depends on the reason why she has started therapy with him while seeing another therapist. Therefore, this is the best answer of those given.

The intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward is suggestive of which of the following?

A. factitious disorder B. malingering C. malingering and factitious disorder D. factitious disorder and conversion disorder Malingering. Malingering is the fabrication, intentional production, or significant exaggeration of physical or psychological symptoms or the intentional misattribution of genuine symptoms to an unrelated event or series of events designed to achieve a specific objective such as escaping duty or work; mitigating punishment; obtaining drugs; or receiving unwarranted recompense, such as disability compensation or personal damages award.

A graduate student who is conducting research on Bronfenbrenner's mesosystem is most interested in:

A. factors in children's immediate environments that influence their development. B. interactions between factors in children's immediate environments that influence their development. C. sociocultural factors that indirectly influence children's development. D. biological factors that directly influence children's development. interactions between factors in children's immediate environments that influence their development. mesosystem (plural mesosystems) A system of interconnections between the microsystems in an individual's life, such as interactions between a child's family and teachers.

Like many other models of homosexual identity development, Troiden's (1988) model proposes that the initial stage of development involves:

A. feeling different from same-sex peers. B. feeling sexually attracted to members of the same sex. C. denying one's same-sex feelings. D. realizing that one's feelings can be described as "homosexual." feeling different from same-sex peers. Stage 1: Sensitization -Usually occurs prior to puberty -Generalized feelings of marginality -Perception of being different from same-sex peers -More than 70% of adult homosexuals felt somewhat or very much different from same-sex peers in childhood -This difference was not usually labeled as sexual differentness or homosexuality Stage 2: Identity confusion -Same-sex arousal or activity; absence of heterosexual arousal -Reflection on whether feelings or behavior could be considered homosexual -Dissonance from previously-held self-image -Identity confusion, inner turmoil, anxiety -Guilt, need for secrecy, social isolation -Self-labeling may be impeded by lack of role models or bizarre stereotypes Stage 3: Identity assumption -Homosexuality identity is established and shared with others -Self-definition as homosexual -Tolerance of a gay or lesbian identity -Association with other gays and lesbians -Sexual experimentation -Exploration of the homosexual subculture -Self-acceptance as gay or lesbian Stage 4: Commitment -Homosexuality adopted as a way of life -Integration of sexuality and emotionality -Commitment to a same-sex love relationships -Disclosure of homosexual identity to non-homosexuals -Shift to different types of stigma management -Homosexual identity considered valid and satisfying

Psychological reactance is associated with which of the following?

A. feeling that one's personal freedom is being threatened by a request or demand B. obeying an authority's orders when doing so has harmful consequences C. imagining alternative outcomes that could have happened but didn't D. conforming to the group norm to avoid the group's rejection or ridicule Answer A is correct. Psychological reactance occurs when people feel that pressure to behave in a particular way threatens their personal freedom and they respond in ways that help them regain their sense of freedom.

The words "food mart" are presented to split-brain patients so that "food" is presented to their left visual fields only and "mart" is projected to their right visual fields only. When they're asked what they have seen, the patients will most likely say which of the following?

A. food B. mart C. food mart D. mart food mart. When split-brain patients are shown a word in the left field of their vision ("key"), it is projected to the right hemisphere of their brain. The right hemisphere of the brain controls the left hand, and thus, the left hand is able to pick up the key using this information. However, a split-brain patient cannot verbalize what he or she has picked up because the language center of the brain lies in the left hemisphere. Because of this, only that which appears in the right field of vision ("ring") and thus is projected into the left hemisphere of the brain can be verbalized.

Sherif (1966) found that superordinate goals:

A. increased resistance to persuasion. B. reduced intergroup hostility and competition. C. increased altruistic motives for providing assistance. D. reduced social loafing. Answer B is correct. Sherif's Robbers Cave study evaluated several strategies for reducing intergroup conflict and found that having members of hostile groups work together on superordinate goals was most effective.

Aronson and Linder's (1965) gain-loss theory predicts that we tend to:

A. forget the reasons why we were originally attracted to people we have close relationships with. B. be affected more by the negative behaviors of people we have close relationships with than by their positive behaviors. C. have stronger emotional reactions to people we've known for a shorter (versus a longer) period of time. D. like others most when they first evaluate us negatively and, as they get to know us, evaluate us positively. Answer D is correct. Research on the gain-loss theory has shown that we're more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds as they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

Your new client's aggressive behaviors seem to meet the diagnostic criteria for intermittent explosive disorder. To assign this diagnosis to the client, he must be at least _____ years old.

A. four B. six C. nine D. twelve Six. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), the criteria for the diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder include: -Recurrent outbursts that demonstrate an inability to control impulses, including either of the following: -Verbal aggression (tantrums, verbal arguments or fights) or physical aggression that occurs twice in a week-long period for at least three months and does not lead to the destruction of property or physical injury (Criterion A1) -Three outbursts that involve injury or destruction within a year-long period (Criterion A2) -Aggressive behavior is grossly disproportionate to the magnitude of the psychosocial stressors -The outbursts are not premeditated and serve no premeditated purpose -The outbursts cause distress or impairment of functioning, or lead to financial or legal consequences -The individual must be at least six years old -The recurrent outbursts cannot be explained by another mental disorder and are not the result of another medical disorder or substance use

Psychologists delivering mental health services in military settings should keep in mind that members of the military:

A. have the same confidentiality rights as other therapy clients. B. have the same confidentiality rights as other therapy clients only when they were self-referred for therapy. C. should be informed at the beginning of therapy about the military's disclosure policies that affect confidentiality. D. do not have any of the ethical or legal protections regarding confidentiality that other therapy clients have. Answer C is correct. Client confidentiality is not handled in exactly the same way in the military as it is elsewhere because psychologists providing therapy to members of the military must adhere to Department of Defense rules that limit the confidentiality of mental health information. Informing members of the military about these limitations is consistent with the requirements of Standard 4.02 of APA's Ethics Code. Note that answer D is incorrect because members of the military have some confidentiality rights - e.g., they have the right to be told about the limits of confidentiality.

Dr. Liu is the only therapist in his community who specializes in the treatment of anxiety disorders. He receives a call from Susan S. who wants to begin therapy with him to deal with the anxiety attacks she started having after receiving a big promotion at work several weeks ago. Dr. Liu and Susan had a brief sexual relationship in graduate school five years ago. Their relationship ended amicably and they have not seen each other in over three years. If Dr. Liu accepts Susan as a client:

A. he will have acted ethically as long as he has determined that their previous relationship will not affect his objectivity or effectiveness when working with Susan in therapy. B. he will have acted ethically since more than two years have passed since his relationship with Susan ended. C. he will have acted ethically as long as he discusses the possible problems of seeing Susan in therapy during the informed consent process. D. he will have acted unethically. Answer D is correct. Standard 10.07 applies to this situation. It prohibits psychologists from providing therapy to individuals they have been sexually involved with in the past, and there is no time limit on this prohibition.

As described by cybernetic theory, a negative feedback loop:

A. helps a system maintain or restore a state of stability. B. causes a disruption in a system's status quo. C. always produces disastrous consequences for the system. D. is characterized by complementary communication patterns. helps a system maintain or restore a state of stability. Feedback loops can be either positive or negative, with each type of feedback loop being used in different types of processes. Negative Feedback Loops . A negative feedback loop seeks to maintain homeostasis. Homeostasis is the ability to stay within specific boundaries so that an organism or system can function at optimal levels. Positive feedback loops are used to intensify or change the status of a system.

When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a large ____________ coefficient provides evidence of a test's convergent validity.

A. heterotrait-heteromethod B. heterotrait-monomethod C. monotrait-heteromethod D. monotrait-monomethod Answer C is correct. The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the test that's being validated and a measure of the same trait (monomethod) using a different method (heteromethod). It provides evidence of the test's convergent validity when it's large.

A psychologist interviews 28-year-old Jack who was recently incarcerated. Jack is forthcoming during the interview and is willing to disclose the behaviors that led to his incarceration and other problematic behaviors, and he seems to have previously undiagnosed psychopathology. On the MMPI-2, Jack is most likely to obtain which of the following?

A. high L and high K scale scores B. high F and low VRIN scale scores C. low F and low Fb scale scores D. high S and high TRIN scale scores Answer B is correct. Of the answers given, answer B is the best answer: Individuals who have genuine psychopathology are likely to obtain the combination of a high F scale score and a low VRIN scale score. Answers A and D can be eliminated because high L and high K scale scores indicate an attempt to "fake good," and a high S scale score similarly indicates denial or defensiveness - but the question indicates that Jack is willing to disclose his problems. Answer C can be eliminated because low F and low Fb scale scores do not indicate that an examinee has answered in a way that suggests actual or faked psychopathology.

According to Diana Baumrind, parents who are ___________ are most likely to have children who are self-confident and cooperative and have high levels of academic achievement.

A. high in demandingness and low in responsiveness B. low in demandingness and high in responsiveness C. high in demandingness and high in responsiveness D. low in demandingness and low in responsiveness high in demandingness and high in responsiveness; Authoritative Parenting is a parenting style that is child-centered, in that parents closely interact with their children, while maintaining high expectations for behavior and performance, as well as a firm adherence to schedules and discipline.

The amnestic-confabulatory type of alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder has been linked to a:

A. higher-than-normal cortisol level. B. niacin deficiency. C. blood dyscrasia. D. thiamine deficiency. thiamine deficiency. Korsakoff syndrome is marked by remote memory impairment together with characteristic profound anterograde memory deficits, out of proportion to dysfunction in other cognitive domains, in a person who is fully alert and responsive. Korsakoff syndrome typically results from a deficiency of thiamine and then has a characteristic pathology, making it a specific disease condition, Korsakoff disease. Korsakoff disease is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also result from nonalcohol-related malnutrition or malabsorption. In cases of alcoholic origin, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorder (DSM-IV) designation for Korsakoff syndrome is alcohol-induced persisting amnestic disorder (American Psychiatric Association 1994), and the new DSM-V designation is "alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder, amnestic confabulatory type" (American Psychiatric Association 2013).

A person's phenotype is determined by:

A. his/her genetic inheritance. B. environmental factors. C. his/her genetic inheritance and environmental factors. D. neither his/her genetic inheritance nor environmental factors his/her genetic inheritance and environmental factors. The term "phenotype" refers to the observable physical properties of an organism; these include the organism's appearance, development, and behavior. An organism's phenotype is determined by its genotype, which is the set of genes the organism carries, as well as by environmental influences upon these genes.

Emotion dysregulation has been identified by Linehan (1993) as a cause of which of the following personality disorders?

A. histrionic B. borderline C. antisocial D. dependent Borderline. Having borderline-personality disorder (BPD) is like being cold-blooded, but instead of with body temperature, with regulating emotions. Borderline Personality Disorder is a disorder of emotional dysregulation. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) was developed by Marsha Linehan to treat severe emotional dysregulation. While DBT is now recognized as a multi-diagnostic treatment, it was the first and remains the most researched evidence-based treatment for BPD.

Gate control theory is most useful for

A. identifying ways to relieve pain. B. identifying ways to relieve chronic stress. C. understanding the cause of colorblindness. D. understanding the cause of synesthesia. identifying ways to relieve pain. Gate Control Theory of Pain describes how non-painful sensations can override and reduce painful sensations. A painful, nociceptive stimulus stimulates primary afferent fibers and travels to the brain via transmission cells. Increasing activity of the transmission cells results in increased perceived pain. Conversely, decreasing activity of transmission cells reduces perceived pain. In the Gate Control Theory, a closed "gate" describes when input to transmission cells is blocked, therefore reducing the sensation of pain. An open "gate" describes when input to transmission cells in permitted, therefore allowing the sensation of pain.

A customer who is in a long line behind you at the checkout counter says, "no matter what line I get into, it's always the slowest one." This is an example of which of the following?

A. illusory correlation B. base rate fallacy C. sleeper effect D. counterfactual thinking Answer A is correct. An illusory correlation occurs when we overestimate the correlation between two variables that are unrelated or only slightly related

Hypnopompic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur:

A. immediately before an episode of REM sleep. B. immediately after an episode of REM sleep. C. just after awakening from sleep. D. just before falling asleep. just after awakening from sleep. Hypnopompic hallucinations refer to bizarre sensory experiences that occur during the transitory period between a sleeping state and wakefulness. Imagine sensing that you are slowly transitioning from a sleeping state to being fully awake, when at some point during that transition, you begin seeing vivid geometric shapes, hearing sounds, or even sensing touch Hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations are visual, tactile, auditory, or other sensory events, usually brief but occasionally prolonged, that occur at the transition from wakefulness to sleep (hypnagogic) or from sleep to wakefulness (hypnopompic).

The DSM-5 describes the pathological behaviors associated with substance use disorders as representing four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?

A. impaired control B. cognitive impairment C. risky use D. social impairment cognitive impairment When the categories of substance dependence and substance abuse were replaced with substance use disorder, the DSM-5 also listed the associated symptoms.These are broken down into four major groupings: Impaired control Social impairment Risky use Pharmacological criteria (i.e., tolerance)

Wernicke's aphasia and Broca's aphasia share which of the following symptoms?

A. impaired repetition B. anomia C. impaired repetition and anomia D. neither impaired repetition nor anomia impaired repetition and anomia What is Broca's area? It is the motor speech area. Motor? Yeah, it helps in movements required to produce speech. What is Wernicke's area? It is the sensory speech area. Sensory? Yes, it helps you understand speech. It also helps in usage of correct words to express our thoughts. Where is Broca's area located? Broca's area is located in the frontal lobe. (Frontal lobe also contains the general motor and premotor areas, so it's easy to make the association!) Where is Wernicke's area located? Wernicke's area is located in the parietal and temporal lobe. (Parietal lobe also contains the general sensory area, gustatory area for taste sensation.. So it's easy to remember sensory speech area is located in the Parietal lobe!) What is Broca's aphasia? It is expressive aphasia (non-fluent aphasia). Loss of the ability to produce language (spoken or written). Patient have insight to their problem and are frustrated. (Broca is broke. Speaks broken words. He is also frustrated because he is broke.) What is Wernicke's aphasia? It is receptive aphasia (fluent aphasia) Inablity to understand language (written or spoken form) They can not use correct words to express thoughts. When they speak, they think they know what they are saying but a bunch of random words come out. Patient is unaware of his problem. Wernicke's like What? Wernicke's is all confused. Makes Word salads for a living. (Not broke :P )

Damage to certain areas of the left (dominant) hemisphere are most likely to cause:

A. inappropriate rage and aggression. B. inappropriate euphoria. C. an indifference reaction. D. a catastrophic reaction. a catastrophic reaction. Areas in the left (dominant) hemisphere mediate happiness and other positive emotions, and damage to these areas produces a "catastrophic reaction" that involves depression, anxiety, fear, and paranoia

Research investigating the outcomes associated with flextime has found that it:

A. increases job satisfaction and productivity and reduces tardiness and absenteeism. B. reduces tardiness and absenteeism but has little or no effect on job satisfaction or productivity. C. reduces tardiness and absenteeism, has no effect on job satisfaction, and has a negative effect on productivity. D. has little or no effect on job satisfaction, productivity, tardiness, or absenteeism. Answer A is correct. Baltes et al.'s (1999) meta-analysis of the research found that flextime increases job satisfaction and job productivity and reduces tardiness and absenteeism.

The research has found that general mental ability tests are good predictors of job performance and that administering a structured interview, integrity test, or work sample in conjunction with a general mental ability test increases the accuracy of prediction. In other words, adding a second selection technique to a general mental ability test has an effect on which of the following?

A. incremental validity B. construct validity C. differential validity D. discriminant validity Answer A is correct. Incremental validity refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy that occurs by adding a new selection technique to the existing selection procedure.

Research conducted in the 1950s at Ohio State University found that leader behaviors can be categorized in terms of which of the following dimensions?

A. initiating structure and consideration B. autocratic and democratic C. transformational and transactional D. emotion-focused and problem-focused Answer A is correct. Research conducted at Ohio State University (Fleishman & Harris, 1962) found that leader behaviors can be categorized in terms of two independent dimensions: initiating structure and consideration.

As described by Erikson, the virtue of will is the positive outcome of which stage of psychosocial development?

A. initiative vs. guilt B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. generativity vs. stagnation D. industry vs. inferiority autonomy vs. shame and doubt

To evaluate a brief intervention for improving the social skills of adolescents with autism spectrum disorder, a researcher administers a measure of social skills to a sample of adolescents with this diagnosis, chooses the adolescents with the lowest scores on this measure to participate in the intervention, and then re-administers the measure of social skills one week after the adolescents have participated in the intervention. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is:

A. instrumentation. B. reactivity. C. pretest sensitization. D. statistical regression. Answer D is correct. Statistical regression threatens a study's internal validity whenever subjects are chosen because of their extreme scores on a pretest. Because this study included only adolescents with the lowest scores on the measure of social skills, their scores on the posttest measure of social skills are likely to improve somewhat just because of statistical regression.

When making calls for a local charity, Maggie starts out by asking a potential donor for a donation of $50.00. When the donor refuses, she then asks if the donor can donate $10.00. Maggie's strategy illustrates which of the following?

A. insufficient justification B. psychological reactance C. door-in-the-face technique D. foot-in-the-door technique Answer C is correct. When using the door-in-the-face technique, the influencer begins with a large request that most people would reject and, when that request is rejected, the influencer makes a smaller request.

A White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with clients from racial and cultural minority groups when she is in which of the following of Helms's identity statuses?

A. integrative awareness B. reintegration C. autonomy D. pseudo-independence Autonomy. Helms's model describes six statuses that may be divided into two meta-processes: (1) abandonment of racism and (2) defining a nonracist White identity. 1. Contact: Lack of awareness of oneself as a racial being and obliviousness to racial issues 2. Disintegration status, the minimization of race and racism is challenged by witnessing racial oppression or acknowledging one's own racist thoughts and behaviors. 3. Reintegration status is marked by recourse to pro-White, antiminority attitudes to deal with the dissonance of disintegration status. One condones White supremacy and blames minorities for their own problems. (2) defining a nonracist White identity. 4. pseudo-independence status. When racial oppression and a racist White identity are challenged, 5. Immersion/emersion status White people search for a personally meaningful definition of Whiteness. Intentionally learning about one's contribution to racism is an important task for this status. Less emphasis is put on trying to change others as one turns inward to address personal racist beliefs and tendencies. 6. Autonomy status represents an individual's acceptance of his or her Whiteness and role in racial oppression. Here, the person's reference group is multiracial and the person selects and nurtures those aspects of White culture that "feel right." Finally, the autonomous individual moves beyond intellectualization of antiracism to take action against racial oppression.

Etic is to __________ as emic is to __________.

A. intrinsic; extrinsic B. extrinsic; intrinsic C. culture-specific; universal D. universal; culture-specific universal; culture-specific. Emic and etic, in anthropology, folkloristics, and the social and behavioral sciences, refer to two kinds of field research done and viewpoints obtained; from within the social group (from the perspective of the subject) and from outside (from the perspective of the observer).

Which of the following is used to help establish comparable worth?

A. job specification B. needs analysis C. organizational analysis D. job evaluation Answer D is correct. A job evaluation is conducted to facilitate decisions related to compensation. It's often used to establish comparable worth, which is the principle that workers who perform jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are of comparable value to the employer should be paid the same.

Neuroimaging studies have linked ADHD to a:

A. larger-than-normal entorhinal cortex. B. smaller-than-normal entorhinal cortex. C. larger-than-normal prefrontal cortex. D. smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex. smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex. The second brain structure that is smaller than normal in a person with ADHD is the prefrontal cortex, which is the brain's hub for conducting higher-order executive tasks. This is where memory and learning and attention regulation come together to help us function intellectually. The prefrontal cortex is essential for executive functioning, allowing us to: Organise and plan for the future; Inhibit responses to distraction to achieve a goal; The dorsal and lateral prefrontal cortex regulates attention and motor responses while the ventral and medial portion regulates emotion.

A psychologist is hired to assist with the development of an assessment center that will be used to hire and promote managerial level employees. The psychologist will most likely recommend including which of the following in the assessment center?

A. leaderless group discussion and in-basket exercise B. in-basket exercise and vestibule training C. cross-training and business games D. realistic job preview and job rotation Answer A is correct. Assessment centers are used most often to evaluate candidates for managerial-level jobs and involve having multiple raters rate candidates on several performance dimensions using multiple methods. The leaderless group discussion and in-basket exercise are two of the most frequently used simulation exercises in assessment centers

Which of the following is NOT one of the bases of social power identified by French and Raven (1959)?

A. legitimate B. referent C. intuitive D. expert Answer C is correct. French and Raven (1959) identified five bases of social power that leaders use to influence subordinates: reward, coercive, legitimate, expert, and referent.

Compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are:

A. less effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but more effective for reducing the negative symptoms. B. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but less effective for reducing the negative symptoms. C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms. D. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and equally effective for reducing the negative symptoms. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

An organizational psychologist conducts a predictive validity study to obtain the data she needs to evaluate a new selection test's incremental validity. The data she collects indicates that 45 of the employees in her study are "true negatives," which means that they obtained:

A. low scores on both the predictor and criterion. B. high scores on both the predictor and criterion. C. high scores on the predictor and low scores on the criterion. D. low scores on the predictor and high scores on the criterion Answer A is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that a person's score on the predictor determines if he/she is a "positive" or "negative": If the person received a high score on the predictor, that person is a positive; if the person received a low score on the predictor, he/she is a negative. Knowing that narrows the choices to answers A and D since the question is asking about true negatives. To choose between these two answers, you need to know that a person's score on the criterion determines if he or she is a true or false positive or negative: When the person obtains low scores on the predictor and the criterion, he/she is a true negative (answer A); when the person obtains a low score on the predictor but a high score on the criterion, he/she is a false negative (answer D).

The primary difficulty experienced by the patient known as "H.M." was related to which of the following?

A. maintaining information in short-term memory B. forming new long-term declarative memories C. recalling procedural memories D. recalling remote long-term declarative memories forming new long-term declarative memories. Henry Molaison, known by thousands of psychology students as "HM," lost his memory on an operating table in a hospital in Hartford in August 1953. He was 27 years old and had suffered from epileptic seizures for many years. Henry's memory loss was far from simple. Not only could he make no new conscious memories after his operation, he also suffered a retrograde memory loss (a loss of memories prior to brain damage) for an 11-year period before his surgery. It is not clear why this is so, although it is thought this is not because of his loss of the hippocampi on both sides of his brain. More likely it is a combination of his being on large doses of antiepileptic drugs and his frequent seizures prior to his surgery. His global amnesia for new material was the result of the loss of both hippocampi, and meant that he could not learn new words, songs or faces after his surgery, forgot who he was talking to as soon as he turned away, didn't know how old he was or if his parents were alive or dead, and never again clearly remembered an event, such as his birthday party, or who the current president of the United States was

Beth, a 68-year-old retired physician exhibits impaired attention and judgment, seems disoriented, and has short-term memory loss that she doesn't seem to be aware of. Her husband tells you that she "just hasn't seemed the same" for the past year or so and that the changes he's noticed have occurred gradually. Beth's symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?

A. major depressive disorder (pseudodementia) B. persistent depressive disorder C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease D. neurocognitive disorder due to Prion's disease neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease. Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease is also known as Alzheimer's dementia. Characterized by gradual deterioration of brain functioning, it affects multiple areas of the brain and can have wide-ranging symptoms. The development of multiple cognitive deficits manifested by The development of multiple cognitive deficits manifested by both memory impairment (impaired ability to learn new information or to recall previously learned information) one (or more) of the following cognitive disturbances: a. aphasia (language disturbance) b. apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function) c. agnosia (failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function) d. disturbance in executive functioning (i.e., planning, organizing, sequencing, abstracting) B. The cognitive deficits in Criteria A1 and A2 each cause significant impairment in social or occupational functioning and represent a significant decline from a previous level of functioning. C. The course is characterized by gradual onset and continuing cognitive decline. D. The cognitive deficits in Criteria A1 and A2 are not due to any of the following: other central nervous system conditions that cause progressive deficits in memory and cognition (e.g., cerebrovascular disease, Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, subdural hematoma, normal-pressure hydrocephalus, brain tumor) systemic conditions that are known to cause dementia (e.g., hypothyroidism, vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, niacin deficiency, hypercalcemia, neurosyphilis, HIV infection) substance-induced conditions E. The deficits do not occur exclusively during the course of a delirium. F. The disturbance is not better accounted for by another disorder (e.g., Major Depressive Disorder, Schizophrenia).

Which of the following techniques is being used when job applicants must obtain a score above the cutoff score on one selection technique in order for the next selection technique to be administered to them?

A. multiple regression B. multiple hurdles C. multiple cutoff D. multiple baseline Answer B is correct. Multiple cutoff and multiple hurdles are used when a selection procedure involves administering two or more predictors to job applicants and a high score on one or more predictors cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor. When using multiple cutoff, all predictors are administered to all applicants. When using multiple hurdles, predictors are administered sequentially and applicants must score above the cutoff on a predictor in order for the next predictor to be administered to them.

The most likely diagnosis for a client who had auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech for five weeks and odd behaviors and anhedonia for an additional seven months is:

A. major depressive disorder with psychotic features. B. schizophreniform disorder. C. schizoaffective disorder. D. schizophrenia. schizophrenia A. Two or more of -Delusions -Hallucinations -Disorganized speech (such as speaking incoherently, losing track of thoughts) -Disorganized or catatonic behavior -Negative symptoms B. Level of functioning has declined C. The symptoms in Criterion A have persisted for at least 6 months D. Schizoaffective disorder, major depression, and bipolar disorder have been ruled out E. Substance use/abuse has been ruled out as a cause In order for someone to be diagnosed with schizophrenia, he must experience a group of these symptoms and features. One or two are not enough. To receive a schizophrenia diagnosis, someone can have any of the symptoms and features, but he must have the following: At least two symptoms from Criteria A -One of those two must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. -These must have been present for at least one month. T-he symptoms must impair one's life and get in the way of her ability to work (or go to/participate in school), have positive relationships (or any relationships at all), and practice self-care. The problems in these areas must be new, a decline in the previous status. Duration of the symptoms is also important for a schizophrenia diagnosis. Someone must have been experiencing steady symptoms for at least one month. Symptoms must be present some of the time for six consecutive months.

When creating a training program, it's important to keep in mind that:

A. massed practice and whole-task training are more effective than distributed practice and part-task training for most tasks. B. distributed practice and part-task training are more effective than massed practice and whole-task training for most tasks. C. distributed practice is usually more effective than massed practice, but the effectiveness of whole- versus part-task training depends on the type of task. D. whole-task training is usually more effective than part-task training, but the effectiveness of distributed versus massed practice depends on the type of task. Answer C is correct. For most tasks, distributed (spaced) practice is more effective than massed practice. However, the effectiveness of whole-task versus part-task training depends on the nature of the task.

When administering the Bender-Gestalt II to a 72-year-old man who has just received a diagnosis of mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease, you will first ask the man to:

A. match a set of cards to four stimulus cards. B. pick up a piece of paper in his right hand, fold it in half, and put it in his lap. C. copy geometric designs depicted in a set of cards. D. draw from memory the geometric designs depicted in a set of cards. Answer C is correct. Administration of the Bender-Gestalt II involves two phases - the copy phase in which the examinee is shown each design and asked to copy it "as best as you can," and the recall phase in which the examinee is asked to draw as many of the designs as possible from memory. Answer A describes the administration procedure for the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test. Answer B describes one of the tasks of the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE). And answer D describes the second phase of the administration of the Bender-Gestalt II.

The receptionist at the mental health clinic where you work tells you she's concerned about the behavior of another psychologist who works at the clinic. When she describes the behavior to you, you believe it violates ethical requirements. You:

A. may ignore the violation if you believe it hasn't caused or is not likely to cause substantial harm. B. may ignore the violation if you believe it's not likely to occur again. C. should discuss the matter with the involved client(s) to confirm that an ethical violation has actually occurred. D. should attempt to resolve the situation informally by talking to the psychologist if it seems appropriate to do so. Answer D is correct. Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of APA's Ethics Code state that, when psychologists believe another psychologist has acted unethically, they attempt to resolve the problem. This requires first considering the confidentiality rights of the involved parties and, if confidentiality is not an issue, addressing the issue informally by discussing the situation with the psychologist when appropriate or reporting the violation to the appropriate authorities. Since none of the answers address confidentiality, this is the best answer.

You have been hired by the court to evaluate a defendant's competency to stand trial. The focus of your evaluation of the defendant will be on determining the defendant's:

A. mental state at the time he committed the crime. B. ability to testify in court on his own behalf. C. current DSM diagnosis. D. ability to understand the charges against him. Answer D is correct. Competency to stand trial refers to the current mental status of defendants and their ability to "cooperate with their attorneys and... to understand the charges and proceedings against them" (Gardner & Anderson, 2015, p. 128).

During a discussion on race, a White graduate student says to an African American student that she "doesn't see color" and that "we're all part of the human race." As described by Sue et al. (2007), these comments are examples of which of the following?

A. microassault B. microinvalidation C. microinjustice D. microinsult Microinvalidation. "microinvalidation" is a hyponym of microaggression, the normalized behavior that demonstrates hostility and negative stereotypes of marginalized racial groups. Coined by Dr. Derald W. Sue, a psychology professor at Columbia University, microinvalidation communicates that the racism and offensive remarks catapulted towards people of color is unjustified due to a supposed "race-free" world. Dr. Derald W. Sue concluded that there are four main types of microinvalidation. A common form of microinvalidation is the "implication of being an alien in your own country." Questions like, "Where are you from?", "How do you speak English so well?" or "Can you teach me a few words in your native tongue?" imply that someone's racial identity negates their status as a U.S. citizen. These questions are offensive because they perpetuate the idea that a non-white person will always be considered a foreigner, never a true American, even if they've lived in the country for their entire lives.

Of the following, which is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?

A. motion parallax B. interposition of objects C. retinal disparity D. linear perspective retinal disparity. Basically retinal disparity is a space between both the eyes which create wrong perception about depth of an object. Both eyes converge on the same object but the object's image obtained is not same in both eyes. The object's angle is different in both eyes due to retinal disparity

When consulting with a colleague about a client who's not responding to treatment, you:

A. must get authorization from the client before doing so. B. must get authorization from the client before doing so if you cannot disguise her identity while discussing the situation with the colleague. C. do not need to get authorization from the client as long as you disclose only confidential information that's pertinent to the purpose of the consultation. D. do not need to get authorization from the client as long as the colleague is a licensed mental health professional. Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.06 of APA's Ethics Code. It states that, when consulting with a colleague about a client, psychologists do not disclose confidential information "that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client/patient ... unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person."

Migraine headaches have been linked to abnormal levels of:

A. norepinephrine. B. serotonin. C. glutamate. D. acetylcholine. serotonin. According to the American Headache Society, research studies have identified a connection between headaches and low Serotonin levels in certain cases. Specifically, people who suffer from chronic headaches and/or migraines tend to have Serotonin levels that are lower than the normal baseline.

The percentile rank distribution is:

A. normal regardless of the shape of the raw score distribution. B. normal only when the raw score distribution is normal. C. rectangular regardless of the shape of the raw score distribution. D. the same as the distribution of raw scores. Answer C is correct. A percentile rank distribution is always rectangular (flat) regardless of the shape of the distribution of raw scores.

The central limit theorem predicts that the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches normal as the:

A. number of samples increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution. B. size of the sample increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution. C. number of samples increases only when the population distribution is normal. D. size of the sample increases only when the population distribution is normal. Answer B is correct. The central limit theorem predicts that the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches a normal shape as the size of the sample increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores.

When psychologists think their own personal problems may impair their ability to provide therapy in a competent manner, the best course of action is to:

A. obtain the professional help they need to resolve their personal problems. B. suspend their work activities until their personal problems have been resolved. C. seek consultation to determine whether to limit or suspend their work-related activities. D. monitor their effectiveness by seeking feedback from clients about their satisfaction with therapy. Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.06(b) of the Ethics Code. It states that, "when psychologists become aware of personal problems that may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance, and determine whether they should limit, suspend, or terminate their work-related duties." Seeking professional help for a personal problem may be beneficial (answer A), but it would not address any immediate problems related to competence when working with clients.

When people will be exposed to arguments that address two sides of a controversial issue, a recency effect is most likely to occur when:

A. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation. B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later. C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation. D. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later. Answer C is correct. Miller & Campbell (1959) found that a recency effect is most likely to occur when there's an interval of time between presentation of the two sides of an argument and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation

You've just been asked to provide mental health services to residents of a small town who have been traumatized by a shooting at the elementary school. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you should provide the requested services:

A. only if you have relevant training and experience. B. even if you don't have relevant training and experience as long as you're able to obtain appropriate consultation while providing the services. C. even if you don't have relevant training and experience as long as alternative services are unavailable and you inform clients of their options during the informed consent process. D. even if you don't have relevant training and experience as long as alternative services are unavailable and you discontinue providing services when the emergency ends or appropriate services become available. Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.02 of APA's Ethics Code. It states that psychologists may provide services in emergency situations when they do not have the necessary training if alternative mental health services are unavailable and "the services are discontinued as soon as the emergency has ended or appropriate services are available."

To be consistent with ethical requirements, psychologists must claim as credentials for their mental health services:

A. only masters and doctoral degrees in psychology or a related field. B. only degrees from regionally accredited educational institutions. C. only degrees that were the basis for their psychology licensure. D. only degrees from regionally accredited educational institutions or that were the basis for their psychology licensure. Answer D is correct. This answer is the best one because it's closest to the language of Standard 5.01(c) of the Ethics Code. It states that psychologists can claim as credentials for their mental health services only degrees that "were earned from a regionally accredited educational institution or ... were the basis for psychology licensure."

According to Milgram (1974), subjects in his study were willing to obey authority:

A. only until they realized that doing so caused harm to another person. B. only because they believed their peers had already done so. C. because they were concerned about the negative consequences of not doing so. D. because they didn't believe they were responsible for their actions. Answer D is correct. Milgram proposed that subjects obeyed the experimenter in his studies because the situation put them in an "agentic state," which he defined as "the condition a person is in when he sees himself as an agent for carrying out another person's wishes" (1974, p. 111).

Routinely waiving the insurance co-payments of therapy clients is acceptable:

A. only when the insurance company has approved of this arrangement. B. as long as it's justified by the clients' inability to pay the co-payment. C. only if the insurance company is not charged an increased fee to make up for the co-payment. D. because it's a "standard practice." Answer A is correct. Routinely waiving the co-payments of clients means that the insurance company is paying 100% of the therapist's fee for those clients, but most insurance companies agree to pay a certain percentage (e.g., 50%) of the fee. Therefore, this practice constitutes insurance fraud if the insurance company has not agreed to it and is both illegal and unethical.

Afterimages and red/green and blue/yellow colorblindness are explained by which of the following?

A. opponent-process theory B. trichromatic theory C. Weber's law D. Fechner's law opponent-process theory. The opponent-process theory was first developed by Ewald Hering. He noted that there are color combinations that we never see, such as reddish-green or bluish-yellow. Opponent-process theory suggests that color perception is controlled by the activity of three opponent systems. In the theory, he postulated about three independent receptor types which all have opposing pairs: white and black, blue and yellow, and red and green. These three pairs produce combinations of colors for us through the opponent process. Furthermore, according to this theory, for each of these three pairs, three types of chemicals in the retina occur, in which two types of chemical reactions exist. These reactions would yield one member of the pair in their building up phase, or anabolic process, whereas they would yield the other member while in a destructive phase, or a catabolic process. The colors in each pair oppose each other. Red-green receptors cannot send messages about both colors at the same time. This theory also explains negative afterimages; once a stimulus of a certain color is presented, the opponent color is perceived after the stimulus is removed because the anabolic and catabolic processes are reversed. For example, red creates a positive (or excitatory) response while green creates a negative (or inhibitory) response. These responses are controlled by opponent neurons, which are neurons that have an excitatory response to some wavelengths and an inhibitory response to wavelengths in the opponent part of the spectrum.

A pattern of emotional dysregulation is characteristic of:

A. oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder. B. oppositional defiant disorder. C. conduct disorder. D. neither oppositional defiant disorder nor conduct disorder. oppositional defiant disorder. Emotional dysregulation (ED) is a trans-nosographical condition characterized by mood instability, severe irritability, aggression, temper outburst, and hyper-arousal. Pathophysiology of emotional dysregulation and its potential biomarkers are an emerging field of interest. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) in youth is a strong predictor of emotional dysregulation

The treatment for a young man who has just received a diagnosis of a paraphilic disorder is most likely to include which of the following?

A. overcorrection and habit reversal training B. habit reversal training and covert sensitization C. orgasmic reconditioning and systematic desensitization D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning. Covert sensitization is when patients associate sexually arousing images in their imagination with real reasons why the behavior is harmful or dangerous. In organismic reconditioning patients are instructed to masturbate to their unusual fantasies but replace those fantasies with more socially acceptable ones just before ejaculation.

The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to:

A. overestimate the role of dispositional causes of desirable outcomes and underestimate the role of situational causes of undesirable outcomes. B. overestimate the role of situational causes of desirable outcomes and underestimate the role of dispositional causes of undesirable outcomes. C. overestimate the role of dispositional factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people. D. overestimate the role of situational factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people. Answer C is correct. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors and underestimate the role of situational factors when making attributions about the behaviors of other people.

During the year or two following divorce, custodial mothers tend to be:

A. overly indulgent and permissive toward their children. B. inconsistent and more authoritarian in their discipline. C. overly anxious about their parenting skills. D. distracted and indifferent or hostile toward their children. inconsistent and more authoritarian in their discipline.

Instead of "I went there," 30-month-old Mandy says, "I goed there." This is an example of which of the following?

A. overregularization B. underregularization C. overextention D. underextension Overregularization. Overregularization is a part of the language-learning process in which children extend regular grammatical patterns to irregular words, such as the use of "goed " for "went", or "tooths" for "teeth".This is also known as regularization.

The development of sensate focus by Masters and Johnson (1970) was based on their assumption that most sexual problems are related to:

A. performance anxiety. B. communication deficits. C. dissatisfaction with sexual partners. D. exposure to sexual trauma. performance anxiety. Masters and Johnson confirmed the near universality of masturbation in their subjects. The sex therapy program developed by Masters and Johnson attempts to help clients by providing appropriate sex information, alleviating anxiety about sexual performance, and facilitating verbal, emotional, and physical communication with sex partners.

Dawn tends to jump to the conclusion that people she meets don't like her even when there's no evidence to support that conclusion. This is an example of which of the following cognitive distortions?

A. personalization B. emotional reasoning C. arbitrary inference D. selective abstraction arbitrary inference. Arbitrary inference is a classic tenet of cognitive therapy created by Aaron T. Beck in 1979. He defines the act of making an arbitrary inference as the process of drawing a conclusion without sufficient evidence, or without any evidence at all. In cases of depression, Beck found that individuals may be more prone to cognitive distortions, and make arbitrary inferences more often.

A drug that increases which of the following is likely to be most effective as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. GABA Serotonin. bsessive compulsive disorder, or OCD, is an anxiety disorder which, like many anxiety disorders, is marked by low levels of serotonin. Serotonin, a type of neurotransmitter, has a variety of functions that make a deficiency a serious and anxiety producing issue.

Which of the following descriptions of research participants is consistent with guidelines provided in the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association?

A. physically disabled participants B. white and non-white participants C. participants suffering from a stroke D. participants with personality disorders Answer D is correct. "Participants with personality disorders" is consistent with APA guidelines. However, "physically disabled participants" (answer A) violates the "people first" guideline; "white and non-white participants" (answer B) is incorrect because "non-white" implies a judgment and White should be capitalized; and the word "suffering" in "participants suffering from a stroke" (answer C) has a negative connotation

Hans Eysenck (1952) found that symptom improvements due to psychotherapy were less than improvements due to of which of the following?

A. positive expectations B. "common effects" C. the therapeutic alliance D. spontaneous remission spontaneous remission. One of the classic papers in the history of psychology is Hans Eysenck's "The Effects of Psychotherapy: An Evaluation," published in 1952. The London-based psychologist examined 19 studies of treatment effectiveness, dealing with both psychoanalytic and eclectic types of therapy in more than 7000 cases. His overall conclusion was damning: The studies, he wrote, "fail to prove that psychotherapy, Freudian or otherwise, facilitates the recovery of neurotic patients. They show that roughly two-thirds of a group of neurotic patients will recover or improve to a marked extent within about two years of the onset of their illness, whether they are treated by means of psychotherapy or not."

The treatment of insomnia disorder ordinarily includes which of the following?

A. positive practice or sleep restriction B. positive practice or habit reversal training C. stimulus control or overcorrection D. stimulus control or sleep restriction stimulus control or sleep restriction. Along with sleep restriction therapy, stimulus control is one of the main techniques used in a course of cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I). The main goal of stimulus control is to strengthen the association between the bed and sleep. For many people with insomnia, the bed is no longer a strong cue for sleep. Sleep restriction is a method of curing insomnia by limiting a persons total time in bed. It is often associated with related treatments in cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia. Often insomniacs go to bed early and linger there for 10 or more hours each night, laying awake and experiencing only fragments of light sleep. Remaining in bed for long periods without sleeping makes insomnia worse for many people, by creating a mental association between the bed and insomnia. The bed becomes a site of nightly frustration where it is difficult to relax. Often insomniacs will nap during the day, which further disrupts their 24 hour sleep cycle and ultimately leads to more insomnia. Sleep restriction is intended to consolidate nightly sleep so that it is continuous and not fragmented.

The mode, median, and mean for a distribution of final exam scores are 75, 50, and 35, respectively. Based on this information, you can conclude that this distribution is:

A. positively skewed. B. negatively skewed. C. leptokurtic. D. platykurtic. negatively skewed. Answer B is correct. When the mode (the most frequent score) has the highest value and the mean (the arithmetic average) has the lowest value, this means that most scores are "piled up" in the positive side of the distribution and only a relatively few scores are in the negative tail. When this occurs, the distribution is negatively skewed.

Which of the following is not one of the five stages of Cross's (1971) original Nigrescence Model of Identity Development?

A. pre-encounter B. immersion-emersion C. dissonance D. internalization Dissonance. Cross relates the transition of the Black identity through a five-stage theory of acquisition of Black identification. He called this theory Nigrescence, which is translated as: "the process of becoming Black." The five stages progress as follows: 1. Pre-encounter 2. Encounter 3. Immersion/Emersion 4. Internalization 5. Internalization-Commitment

A psychologist was hired to develop a new selection test that the company will add to its current selection procedure. The psychologist determines that the test has adequate test-retest reliability and concurrent validity. However, before the company begins using the test to hire applicants, the psychologist will want to make sure that its use also produces an increase in decision-making accuracy. In other words, the psychologist will want to make sure that the test has adequate:

A. predictive validity. B. differential validity. C. incremental validity. D. construct validity Answer C is correct. A predictor has incremental validity when its use produces an adequate increase in decision-making accuracy.

When working with Asian and Asian American clients, it's important to keep in mind that they are likely to:

A. prefer an insight-oriented, nondirective approach. B. prefer an egalitarian therapist-client relationship. C. express resistance by being silent and avoiding eye contact. D. express emotional distress as physical symptoms. express emotional distress as physical symptoms.

Which of the following areas of the brain is least well-developed at birth?

A. prefrontal cortex B. cerebellum C. hippocampus D. basal ganglia prefrontal cortex

Anna, age 21, has just received a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Her therapist is a practitioner of strategic family therapy and, to reduce Anna's binge-eating, he tells her that, on each day that she binges, she must set her alarm for 4 a.m. and get up and do 30 minutes of abdominal exercises. This intervention is an example of which of the following?

A. prescribing the symptom B. an ordeal C. reframing D. an enactment an ordeal. an ordeal is an intervention that seeks to extinguish a maladaptive behavior by introducing an activity that is more of an "ordeal" to engage in than the problem behavior itself. Thus, by enforcing an ordeal you decrease the frequency and severity of the undesired behavior.

Dr. Horowitz learns that a current therapy client has started dating one of Dr. Horowitz's close friends. To be consistent with ethical guidelines, Dr. Horowitz should:

A. reduce her interactions with her best friend. B. discuss the situation with her client to help determine the best course of action. C. do nothing unless she notices that the situation is affecting her effectiveness as a therapist. D. say nothing to the client or friend but take special precautions to protect the client's confidentiality. Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 3.05(b) of APA's Ethics Code. It states that when, "due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code." Of the answers given, the most reasonable step would be to discuss the situation with the client to help determine the best course of action.

Prescribing maintenance antidepressants to prevent relapse in individuals who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and participated in cognitive-behavior therapy is an example of:

A. primary prevention. B. secondary prevention. C. tertiary prevention. D. quaternary prevention. tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention aims to soften the impact of an ongoing illness or injury that has lasting effects. This is done by helping people manage long-term, often-complex health problems and injuries (e.g. chronic diseases, permanent impairments) in order to improve as much as possible their ability to function. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs. This is done by preventing exposures to hazards that cause disease or injury, altering unhealthy or unsafe behaviors that can lead to disease or injury, and increasing resistance to disease or injury should exposure occur. Secondary prevention aims to reduce the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred. This is done by detecting and treating disease or injury as soon as possible to halt or slow its progress, encouraging personal strategies to prevent re-injury or recurrence, and implementing programs to return people to their original health and function to prevent long-term problems.

Which of the following is not required for a malpractice claim?

A. professional relationship B. standard of care C. intent to harm D. dereliction or breach of duty Answer C is correct. The following are required for a claim of malpractice: (a) The psychologist must have had a professional relationship with the client that established the psychologist's duty to conform to a professional standard of care. (b) There was a dereliction or breach of the duty on the part of the psychologist. (c) The client suffered injury or harm as a result of this dereliction or breach. (d) The psychologist's dereliction or breach of duty was the direct or proximate cause of the person's harm or injury. "Intent to harm" is not one of the four conditions.

For Gestalt therapists, __________ is a boundary disturbance that involves uncritically accepting the values, standards, and beliefs of other people.

A. projection B. deflection C. introjection D. retroflection Introjection. INTROJECTION----Introjections are undigested attitudes, ways of acting, feeling and evaluating, that we swallowed whole, usually from our primary caretakers, however anyone who was a main character in our early lives would be a person to whom we looked as a "rule giver". Introjects are undiscerned pieces of the whole which we never analyzed before we took them into our psychological system; they often form the SHOULDS and OUGHT TO's in our make-up. To be REAL and in touch with our own integrity and morality we must digest and master what is truly our own, truly a part of the personality. Bit if we simply accept these rules and beliefs whole-hog and uncritically, on someone else's say so, or because they are fashionable or safe or traditional or unfashionable or dangerous or revolutionary---they lie heavily on us---introjects become undigested materials. They are still foreign bodies even though they may have taken up residence in our minds. Many times, one can see blocks of energy around the stomach area (unusual protection of the undigested material). The dangers of introjections are two fold; first of all, the man who introjects never gets a chance to develop his own personality, because he is so busy holding down the foreign bodies he has swallowed whole. The more introjects he has saddled himself with, the less room there is for him to express or even discover what he himself is. And in the second place, introjections contributes concepts, you may find yourself torn to bits in the process of trying to reconcile them. And this is a fairly common experience today. We end up incorporating into ourselves standards, attitudes, ways of acting and thinking, possibly coming from mother and father, which are not truly ours.

Dr. Bashir conducts a study to compare the effects of in vivo exposure, imaginal exposure, and virtual reality exposure for clinic clients with claustrophobia on three physiological measures of arousal and a self-report measure of anxiety. Which of the following statistical tests is Dr. Bashir most likely to use to analyze the data she obtains?

A. randomized block ANOVA B. factorial ANOVA C. MANOVA D. mixed ANOVA Answer C is correct. The MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is the appropriate statistical test when a study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables.

The primary characteristic that distinguishes true experimental research from quasi-experimental research is that, when conducting a true experimental research study, the researcher is able to:

A. randomly select subjects from the population. B. randomly assign subjects to different treatment groups. C. use a parametric statistical test to analyze the data. D. use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data. Answer B is correct. True experimental research allows researchers to control many aspects of their studies, which allows them to determine if observed changes in the dependent variable were caused by the independent variable. The most important aspect of this control is the ability to randomly assign subjects to different treatment groups, which helps ensure that groups are equivalent at the beginning of the study. (The appropriate use of a parametric or nonparametric statistical test depends primarily on the type of data that is to be analyzed, not whether the study was true or quasi-experimental.)

The best way to reduce the effects of differential selection on the results of a research study is to:

A. randomly select subjects from the population. B. randomly assign subjects to the treatment groups. C. use the single-blind technique. D. use the double-blind technique. Answer B is correct. Differential selection occurs when subjects in different groups differ at the beginning of a study in a way that affects the results of the study, and this difference is due to the way that subjects were assigned to the groups. The best way to control differential selection is to randomly assign subjects to groups, which helps ensure that subjects in the different groups are similar at the beginning of the study.

Counterbalancing is most useful for controlling which of the following threats to external validity?

A. reactivity B. selection-treatment interaction C. multiple treatment interference D. pretest sensitization Answer C is correct. Counterbalancing is used to control multiple treatment interference, which may occur whenever each participant receives multiple levels of the independent variable. It involves administering the levels in a different order to different groups of subjects.

Milan systemic family therapists use circular questions to help family members:

A. recognize differences in perceptions that may be contributing to family problems. B. externalize the current problem so that it can be perceived more objectively. C. identify times when the family problem was not present. D. identify and reflect on internal (unconscious) causes of problematic behaviors. recognize differences in perceptions that may be contributing to family problems. It is an interviewing technique that came into use during the second phase of family therapy and it was introduced by the Milan Associates. It is designed to focus on the relational dynamics within a family in order to outline the structure of the relationships and to emphasize their circular nature.

Which of the following is the appropriate technique for using measures of severity of depression, anxiety, drug/alcohol use, and cognitive impairment to classify individuals with major depressive disorder as being at risk or not at risk for suicide?

A. regression analysis B. multiple regression C. canonical correlation D. discriminant function analysis Answer D is correct. Discriminant function analysis is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on one nominal (grouping) variable.

According to Howard et al.'s phase model (1996), symptomatic relief occurs during which of the following phases of psychotherapy?

A. rehabilitation B. reintegrative C. remediation D. remoralization Remediation. The phase model of psychotherapeutic change (Howard et al., 1993) change is used to provide both a theoretical and practical framework in which to assess different patterns of change across the treatment modalities. The phase model posits that recovery from distress occurs in three sequential stages: remoralization, remediation and rehabilitation.

Three months after a car accident that damaged his hippocampus, a 24-year-old man is most likely to be unable to:

A. remember the names of his parents and other family members. B. recall what he did on his 21st birthday. C. remember how to shave and comb his hair. D. recall events that happened after the accident. recall events that happened after the accident. Damaged Hippocampus can cause loss of memory and difficulty in establishing new memories. One symptom of damage to the Hippocampus is Amnesia, or the loss of some portion of the memory. Apart from this, a damage to the Hippocampus can also cause poor impulse control, hyperactivity, and difficulty with spatial navigation or memory. Damaged Hippocampus can cause loss of memory and difficulty in establishing new memories. One symptom of damage to the Hippocampus is Amnesia, or the loss of some portion of the memory. Apart from this, a damage to the Hippocampus can also cause poor impulse control, hyperactivity, and difficulty with spatial navigation or memory.

The primary goal of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT) is best described as:

A. replacing the "being mode" with the "doing mode." B. strengthening the link between thoughts and emotions. C. accepting and separating from distressful thoughts. D. replacing maladaptive thoughts with more adaptive ones. accepting and separating from distressful thoughts. Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT) is an approach to psychotherapy that uses cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) methods in collaboration with mindfulness meditative practices and similar psychological strategies. It was originally created to be a relapse-prevention treatment for individuals with major depressive disorder (MDD).

Ajzen and Fishbein's (2005) theory of planned behavior predicts that which of the following is affected by a person's attitude toward a behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do, and the person's confidence in his/her ability to perform the behavior?

A. resistance to persuasion B. level of cognitive dissonance C. freedom of choice D. behavior intention Answer D is correct. According to the theory of planned behavior, the three conditions listed in this question are the major contributors to a person's behavior intention which, in turn, determines whether or not the person will actually perform the behavior

Statistical power refers to the ability to:

A. retain a null hypothesis. B. retain a true null hypothesis. C. reject a null hypothesis. D. reject a false null hypothesis. Answer D is correct. Statistical power refers to the ability to reject a false null hypothesis, which is ordinarily what a researcher wants to do.

To calculate the standard error of means you need which of the following?

A. sample mean and standard deviation B. sample mean and sample size C. population standard deviation and sample size D. population mean and standard deviation Answer C is correct. The central limit theorem predicts that the standard deviation of the sampling distribution (also known as the standard error of means) is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

Which of the following is the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis when a young man says he prefers being alone, doesn't have any close friends, isn't bothered by the negative things his co-workers sometimes say about him, and thinks he's "pretty stable" because he rarely experiences strong positive or negative feelings when he's around other people?

A. schizoid B. schizotypal C. paranoid D. avoidant Schizoid. Schizoid personality is seen in those who avoid interaction with the society because they enjoy solitary lifestyle and are emotionally cold, and love their own company. With schizoid personality disorder, patients do not enjoy intimate relationships with other people, according to MedlinePlus. While avoidant personality disorder patients are hurt by someone's criticism, schizoid personality disorder patients appear unaffected by criticism, as well as praise

According to the transtheoretical model, factors that contribute to a person's motivation to change an undesirable behavior include all of the following except:

A. self-efficacy. B. temptation. C. insight. D. decisional balance. insight. The five components within the TTM are stages of change, processes of change, self-efficacy, decision balance, and temptation. Self-efficacy reflects one's personal confidence or agency in successfully executing a course of action, or within the context of TTM, changing one's behavior and progressing through stages. Decision balance reflects a person's beliefs and evaluation of the pros (benefits) and cons (costs) of engaging in a behavior, whereas temptation reflects negative urges toward withdrawing from a behavior change.

As described by Kohlberg, the conventional level of moral development consists of which of the following stages?

A. selfishness and individual survival B. "good boy/good girl" and law and order orientation C. punishment/obedience and instrumental hedonism D. morality of law and morality of social contract good boy/good girl" and law and order orientation

Increasing age in adulthood is most associated with a decline in:

A. sensory memory. B. primary memory. C. secondary memory. D. tertiary memory. secondary memory. Information that is to be retained gets transferred to secondary, or long-term memory where it is stored for an infinite amount of time.

As described by Berry's (1990) acculturation model, __________ occurs when members of a minority culture retain their own culture and reject the majority culture.

A. separation B. marginalization C. assimilation D. integration Separation. Separation People who value their heritage culture and do not want to learn about the new culture are adopting a separation strategy to acculturation.

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), symptoms must have a duration of more than:

A. seven days for adults and adolescents and 14 days for children. B. 14 days for adults, adolescents, and children. C. one month for adults and adolescents and two months for children. D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children. one month for adults, adolescents, and children. Under DSM-5, for those older than six years of age, PTSD includes four clusters of symptoms (APA, 2013): Re-experiencing the event — Recurrent memories of the event, traumatic nightmares, dissociative reactions, prolonged psychological distress Alterations in arousal — Aggressive, reckless or self-destructive behavior, sleep disturbances, hypervigilance Avoidance — Distressing memories, thoughts, or reminders of the event. Negative alterations in cognition and mood — Persistent negative beliefs, distorted blame, or trauma-related emotions; feelings of alienation and diminished interest in life The duration of these symptoms (which cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational or other important areas of functioning) must occur for one month or longer. In addition, the disturbance cannot be attributed to a substance or medical condition.

Poor performance on the Stroop Word and Color Test or the Tower of London Test is most suggestive of damage to the area of the brain that mediates:

A. short-term memory. B. executive functions. C. visual-motor integration. D. receptive language. Answer B is correct. The Stroop Test and the Tower of London Test are both sensitive to frontal lobe dysfunction, especially areas of the frontal lobe that are responsible for executive (higher-order cognitive) functions.

Dr. Bharara, a licensed psychologist, saw Mr. and Mrs. D'Andrea and their two children in therapy for four months before the parents suddenly decided to get a divorce and stopped coming to therapy. One month later, Dr. Bharara receives a phone call from Mrs. D'Andrea who asks if he would be willing to conduct a custody evaluation of the children. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Bharara:

A. should agree to do so only with the permission of both Mrs. and Mr. D'Andrea. B. should agree to do so only if he believes his previous therapeutic relationship with the family will not interfere with his objectivity. C. should agree to do so as long as he's able to evaluate all family members. D. should not agree to do so and provide Mrs. D'Andrea with an appropriate referral. Answer D is correct. Multiple relationships are addressed in Standard 3.05 of APA's Ethics Code and Paragraph II.7 of APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings. Both prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in a multiple relationship that might impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness, and the Guidelines identifies conducting a child custody evaluation with current or former therapy clients as a multiple relationship that should be avoided.

Diffusion of responsibility increases as the:

A. similarity between a victim and the bystander increases. B. the magnitude of stimulus overload decreases. C. the number of bystanders increases. D. bystanders' beliefs about their competence to help decreases. Answer C is correct. Diffusion of responsibility is a reduced sense of personal responsibility resulting from the belief that others are willing and able to provide assistance. Research conducted by J. M. Darley and R. Latane found that diffusion of responsibility increased as the number of bystanders increased (Bystander intervention in emergencies: Diffusion of responsibility, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 8, 377-383, 1968).

You receive a written request from a colleague asking you to forward a copy of the file of a former client of yours who is now seeing him in therapy. To expedite receiving the file, the colleague asks you to send it to him as an attachment to an email. The colleague's request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by the client. You should send the colleague the file as an attachment to an email:

A. since the client has signed an authorization. B. after confirming that you have the correct email address for the colleague. C. only if you are able to remove all information that identifies the client from the electronic copy of the file. D. only if you're able to clearly label each page of the record "confidential." Answer C is correct. Of the answers given, this is the best one because it's most consistent with the requirements of Standard 6.02(b) of the Ethics Code. It states that, "if confidential information concerning recipients of psychological services is entered into databases or systems of records available to persons whose access has not been consented to by the recipient, psychologists use coding or other techniques to avoid the inclusion of personal identifiers." When information is faxed or otherwise transferred electronically, it's not possible to guarantee that it will not be accessed by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, removing identifying information is the best course of action.

Albert is usually a quiet person who abhors violence but, when he attends a large political rally and many of the protesters start yelling loudly and acting violently, Albert becomes uncharacteristically loud and aggressive. Albert's behavior at the rally is best explained by which of the following?

A. social facilitation B. bystander effect C. groupthink D. deindividuation Answer D is correct. Deindividuation is "the loss of a person's sense of individuality and the reduction of normal constraints against deviant behavior" (Kassin, Fein, & Markus, 2016, p. 321). It occurs when people can act anonymously because they're in a large crowd or because their identities are disguised.

The "mere exposure effect" is most useful for explaining which of the following?

A. social loafing B. interpersonal attraction C. antisocial behavior D. conformity to group norms Answer B is correct. The mere exposure effect is "the tendency for people to come to like things simply because they see or encounter them repeatedly" (Baumeister & Bushman, 2013, p. 241).

Stimulus intensity is encoded by:

A. the intensity of action potentials. B. the frequency of action potentials. C. the intensity and frequency of action potentials. D. neither the intensity nor the frequency of action potentials. the frequency of action potentials. Coding for Stimulus Intensity. When a greater stimulus strength is applied to a neuron, identical action potentials are produced more frequently (more are produced per second). Therefore, the code for stimulus strength in the nervous system is frequency modulated (FM)

Whenever the parents of 12-year-old Raymond argue, each parent tries to get Raymond to side with him or her. A structural family therapist would identify this as an example of which of the following?

A. stable coalition B. detouring C. unstable coalition D. reframing unstable coalition. A coalition is a secret or semi-secret alliance between two family members against another family member. An example of this family structure occurs when father and mother get into an argument that they are unable to resolve. Dad may leave the house while mom stays back and begins to complain to their oldest daughter about her father. This creates a special relationship between the daughter and mother, giving the daughter more power and further splits the father and mother. Coalitions keep families stable because it reduces the tension between the parents who are unable to resolve their disagreements. Unfortunately, it also undermines the family in the long-run because it keeps the parents from learning to resolve differences, disengages one of the parents, and keeps a child locked into a role that prevents them from developing in a normal and healthy way. Stable: Parent and child form a cross-generational coalition and consistently "gang up" against the other parent. Unstable: Each parent demands that the child side with him/her against the other parent. The child is being pulled in 2 directions. Detouring: When the parents focus on a child either by overprotecting or blaming ("scapegoating") the child for the family's problems.

The treatment-of-choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is which of the following?

A. systematic desensitization B. exposure and applied relaxation C. exposure and response prevention D. covert desensitization exposure and response prevention. Exposure and response prevention (ERP). This is a specific form of CBT. As the name suggests, you'll be exposed to the things that trigger your anxiety, a little at a time. You'll learn new ways to respond to them in place of your repetitive rituals. ERP is a process you may do one-on-one with your mental health professional or in group therapy, either by yourself or with your family there. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). OCD has a cycle: obsessions, anxiety, compulsions, and relief. CBT, a type of psychotherapy, gives you tools to think, act, and react to your unhealthy thoughts and habits. The goal is to replace negative thoughts with productive ones.

One of the functions of the __________ is to maintain a constant body temperature.

A. thalamus B. mammillary bodies C. hippocampus D. hypothalamus Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is a portion of the brain that contains a number of small nuclei with a variety of functions. One of the most important functions of the hypothalamus is to link the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is located below the thalamus and is part of the limbic system. The hypothalamus controls body temperature, hunger, important aspects of parenting and attachment behaviours, thirst, fatigue, sleep, and circadian rhythms.

Which of the following provides scores on Holland's six occupational themes?

A. the SII B. the KOIS C. the SII and the KOIS D. neither the SII nor the KOIS the SII. The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) is an interest inventory used in career assessment. As such, career assessments may be used in career counseling. The goal of this assessment is to give insight into a person's interests, so that they may have less difficulty in deciding on an appropriate career choice for themselves. It is also frequently used for educational guidance as one of the most popular career assessment tools. The test was developed in 1927 by psychologist Edward Kellog Strong, Jr. to help people exiting the military find suitable jobs. It was revised later by Jo-Ida Hansen and David P. Campbell. The modern version of 2004 is based on the Holland Codes typology of psychologist John L. Holland. The Strong is designed for high school students, college students, and adults, and was found to be at about the ninth-grade reading level.

The sensitivity of a diagnostic screening test is:

A. the ability of the test to identify clients who do not have the disorder. B. the ability of the test to identify clients who have the disorder. C. the probability that a client who tests negative on the test does not actually have the disorder. D. the probability that a client who tests positive on the test actually has the disorder. Answer B is correct. Sensitivity is the proportion of people with the disorder who are identified by the test as having the disorder. It's calculated by dividing the true positives by the true positives plus the false negatives (TP/TP + FN).

Social inhibition is more likely than social facilitation to occur when:

A. the crowd is large. B. the crowd is small. C. the task is easy. D. the task is difficult. Answer D is correct. Social inhibition is a decrease in performance that's caused by the mere presence of others and affects difficult and unfamiliar tasks.

The Kuder Occupational Interest Inventory (KOIS) provides ipsative scores, which means that scores indicate:

A. the degree of consistency of an examinee's interests. B. an examinee's likelihood of success in different occupations. C. the relative strength an examinee's interests. D. the absolute strength of an examinee's interests. Answer C is correct. Ipsative scores provide information on an examinee's relative (rather than absolute) strengths with regard to the interests measured by the test.

For practitioners of narrative family therapy, a unique outcome is best described as:

A. the dominant narrative. B. a positive connotation. C. an enactment. D. an exceptional circumstance. an exceptional circumstance. In narrative therapy unique outcomes are the overlooked instances that contradict the unwanted, problem saturated dominant narrative. Unique outcomes, also known as exceptions, are a powerful way to help clients effect change in their lives, acting as a point of entry for constructing and then living the desired alternate narrative.

The risk for social loafing is greatest when:

A. the group is large and only the final group product will be evaluated. B. the group is large and each group member's contribution will be evaluated. C. the group is small and only the final group product will be evaluated. D. the group is small and each group member's contribution will be evaluated. Answer A is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted if working alone. It's more likely to occur when a group is large and the contributions of individual group members will not be identified or evaluated.

The Taylor-Russell Tables provide an estimate of a predictor's incremental validity for various combinations of which of the following?

A. the number of applicants, number of job openings, and positive hit rate B. the number of applicants, number of job openings, and predictor cutoff score C. the base rate, selection ratio, and predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient D. the base rate, positive hit rate, and predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient Answer C is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor's incremental validity based on the predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio.

Klinefelter syndrome is caused by which of the following?

A. the presence of an extra Y chromosome B. the absence of a Y chromosome C. the presence of an extra X chromosome D. the absence of an X chromosome the presence of an extra X chromosome. Klinefelter syndrome (KS), also known as 47,XXY or XXY, is the set of symptoms that result from two or more X chromosomes in males. The primary features are infertility and small testicles. Often, symptoms may be subtle and many people do not realize they are affected. ... Klinefelter syndrome usually occurs randomly.

The slope of an item characteristic curve provides information on which of the following?

A. the probability of guessing correctly B. the degree of relevance C. item difficulty D. item discrimination Answer D is correct. An item's ability to discriminate between examinees with high and low levels of the latent ability assessed by the test is indicated by the slope (steepness) of the item characteristic curve: the steeper the slope, the better the discrimination.

When evaluating the adequacy of a newly developed selection test, a test developer would use the 80% (four-fifths) rule to determine:

A. the test's positive hit rate. B. the appropriate cutoff score for the test. C. if the test is likely to have an adverse impact. D. if the test has adequate criterion-related validity. Answer C is correct. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures describes the 80% (four-fifths) rule as a method for determining if a selection test or other employment procedure is having an adverse impact.

Which of the following types of qualitative research is likely to be most useful for gaining an understanding of the daily experiences of family members after one member receives a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A. thematic analysis B. ethnography C. phenomenology D. grounded theory Answer C is correct. The purpose of research using a phenomenological approach is to gain an in-depth understanding of the "lived experience" of the study's participants.

Norcross and Lambert (2011) concluded that which of the following accounts for the greatest amount of variability in psychotherapy outcomes?

A. therapist characteristics B. patient contributions C. therapeutic relationship D. treatment method patient contributions

Kohlberg concluded that:

A. there's no relationship between stage of moral development and behavior because behavior is affected by so many factors. B. there's a strong relationship between stage of moral development and behavior at all stages. C. the strength of the relationship between stage of moral development and behavior is greatest at the higher stages of development. D. there's a relationship between stage of moral development and behavior only when the situation is personally meaningful to the individual. the strength of the relationship between stage of moral development and behavior is greatest at the higher stages of development.

According to Simon's (1957) bounded rationality model, managers often "satisfice" when making decisions due to:

A. time restrictions and limited information. B. their tendency to make decisions autocratically. C. the lack of connection between their decisions and personal outcomes. D. their tendency to make "middle-of-the-road" decisions. Answer A is correct. The bounded rationality model proposes that rational decision-making is limited by time restrictions, insufficient information, and the cognitive limitations of the decision maker. As a result, decision makers often satisfice - i.e., consider alternatives only until a "good enough" alternative is found rather than identify and consider all possible alternatives before choosing one.

An intervention based on Patterson et al.'s (1992) research on coercive family interactions is most likely to include which of the following?

A. training for parents in effective parenting skills B. training for parents and children in social-perspective taking C. empathy training for children D. social skills training for children training for parents in effective parenting skills

Dr. Barry Bull advertised his two-hour workshop for licensed psychologists as a "hands-on experience administering and scoring neuropsychological tests." However, during the workshop, he only shows videos that demonstrate how to administer and score the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test and three other frequently used neuropsychological tests. In terms of ethical requirements, Dr. Bull has acted:

A. unethically because he violated test security. B. unethically because his advertisement did not accurately describe his workshop. C. ethically as long as he had determined the videos were the most effective way to train participants in the use of the tests. D. ethically as long as he refunded the course fee to dissatisfied participants. Answer B is correct. Dr. Bull's advertisement for his workshop violated Standard 7.02 of the APA Ethics Code because it inaccurately described his workshop as providing a "hands-on experience." Showing videos on test administration and scoring to licensed psychologists is not a violation of test security and giving refunds to dissatisfied participants would not compensate for providing inaccurate information about the workshop's content.

Members of self-managed work teams (SMWTs):

A. use statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products. B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they've identified. C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal. D. identify the unique and best aspects of the organization and then generate ideas about how to build on them. Answer C is correct. SMWTs are groups of employees who have total responsibility for and control over their own work, including task assignments, methods for completing tasks, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.

Neurocognitive disorders that are due to prion disease most often have a:

A. very rapid progression of impairment. B. gradual and steady progression of impairment. C. stepwise progression of impairment. D. fluctuating course with plateaus of impairment. very rapid progression of impairment. Major NCD due to prion disease may appear similar in its course to other NCDs, but prion diseases are typically distinguished by their rapid progression and prominent cerebellar and motor symptoms. These are neurocognitive disorders due to spongiform encephalopathies caused by transmissible misfolded protein particles called prions. The human prion disorders include kuru, sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD), familial CJD, iatrogenic CJD, Gerstmann-Stäussler-Scheinker disease, fatal insomnia, and new variant CJD

In cognitive-development theory, Lawrence Kohlberg says that "gender typing" emerges during cognitive development. At what age would a boy know he's a boy?

a. Age eight to ten b. Age one or two c. Age five to six d. Age two or three Age two or three. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, children categorize themselves as a particular gender around this time. They do more than observe the behavior of others or merely respond to a reward/punishment system. By age two or three, a boy knows he's a boy and feels secure in his gender identity. However, it isn't until age five to seven that "gender conservation" occurs, which is when he not only knows he's male, but realizes he will always be male.

What does opponent-process theory explain?

a. An auditory process b. A self-imposed organizational structure c. The afterimages seen after a flash of bright light d. A conflict resolution process The afterimages seen after a flash of bright light. Opponent-process theory was proposed by Hering in 1920, later developed by Hurvich & Jameson in 1957, and extended further by Devalois & Devalois in 1975. It proposes that our perception of color is dependent upon more than the typical trichromatic theory of vision, but also on a blue-yellow and red-green system of visualization that we never actually see. This theory explains that excitatory and inhibitory responses are controlled by opponent neurons that respond to certain wavelengths of color in the visual spectrum.

What is the Rorschach test?

a. An objective test b. A projective test c. A way to test intelligence d. A means by which to diagnose primarily bipolar disorder A projective test. The Rorschach test is a projective test used to determine what and how the patient is thinking. It's called a projective test because the patient "projects" his thoughts, feelings, etc., onto the assessment material. The therapist then interprets the answers and comes to conclusions about the thought processes of the patient. The Rorschach is commonly referred to as the "inkblot test" because the patient views a series of inkblot pictures during the administration of the test.

What does traditional psychotherapy focus on?

a. Behavior b. Thoughts and feelings c. Physiological processes d. Social relationships Thoughts and feelings. Traditional psychotherapies, such as psychoanalysis, have their roots in the theory of Sigmund Freud. This type of therapy delves into the past life of the patient and focuses on the patient's thoughts and feelings, as well as the reasons for those thoughts and feelings. Determining the reasons behind the patient's personality assists in making positive changes.

Which would be a behavioral therapist?

a. Carl Jung b. Alfred Adler c. B.F. Skinner d. Carl Rogers B.F. Skinner. Behavioral therapies don't generally focus on thoughts and feelings or their origins. Instead, behavioral therapy looks at the specific behaviors that other types of therapy would perhaps consider symptoms of a greater problem. B.F. Skinner was a proponent of "operant conditioning," and used reinforcement as a means to change behavior. Again, the focus is on changing the behavior, rather than the underlying cause of the behavior.

1. The basic structure of a neuron is composed of:

a. Depolarization, soma, and neurotransmitters. b. Cell body, axon, and dendrites. c. Synapse, axon, and neurotransmitters. d. Refractory cells, axon, and cell body. B: Cell body, axon and dendrites. The basic structure of a neuron (nerve cell) is composed of one cell body (soma), one axon, and one or more dendrites. The cell body contains many structures, including all the general parts of a cell. It is basically the control center. Dendrites receive their information from other neurons and transmit that information to the cell body. The axon extends away from the cell body to transmit or relay the neural signal.

A study of fifty skateboarders in Someplace, USA shows that all are between ten and fifteen years of age. This leads the city to make skateboarding regulations for those age groups. What type of statistics does this study represent?

a. Descriptive statistics b. Histogramic statistics c. Inferential statistics d. Borderline statistics Inferential statistics. Inferential statistics generalize from a smaller sample to a larger population. Descriptive statistics are used to summarize data. Both types of statistical data are used in psychological research. In this case, it is inferred from the small sampling of skateboarders that all skateboarders are of those same ages.

What does the cephalocaudal principal state?

a. Development proceeds from near to far b. Development proceeds from far to near c. Development proceeds from head to toe d. Development proceeds from toe to head Development proceeds from head to toe. Even though there is a broad range for what is "normal," upper portions of a child's body tend to develop before lower parts. Alternately, the proximodistal principle dictates that development progresses from near to far. An example of this would be that a child demonstrates control over the arms and legs before fingers and toes are mastered.

There are two types of glandular systems in the body. What are they?

a. Exocrine and adrenal b. Parathyroid and endocrine c. Thyroid and adrenal d. Endocrine and exocrine Endocrine and exocrine. The endocrine system secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream where they are carried to various cells throughout the body. Many endocrine hormones regulate body processes that happen more slowly (like cell growth). Others, such as epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands, rapidly mobilize the body's fight-flight syndrome. Exocrine glands secrete fluids directly through a duct (or tube) that ultimately leads to the surface of the body. Examples include sweat, tears, and saliva, as well as prostate fluids, pancreatic fluids, and bile.

Which of these could be an effective behavioral treatment for smoking?

a. Free association b. Self-actualization c. Aversion therapy d. Systematic desensitization Aversion therapy. Aversion therapy links a behavior the patient wants to eliminate with something that is unpleasant to the patient. It is often the case that positive techniques will be used first, to teach the patient more productive behaviors. Aversion therapy is then used to get rid of the unwanted behavior completely. For smoking, one might pinch oneself whenever the urge to smoke occurs. The individual might also force himself to smell something unpleasant whenever thinking about smoking. The idea is to change the positive act of smoking into something that is unpleasant and is therefore avoided.

2. What are the three major layers of the brain?

a. Hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain b. Corpus callosum, temporal lobe, and frontal lobe c. Basil ganglia, cerebellum, and parietal d. Midbrain, highbrain, and forebrain A: Hindbrain, midbrain and forebrain. The hindbrain is at the central core of the brain and includes many parts that regulate such things as sensory perception and motor functions. The midbrain, just as it sounds, is located between the hindbrain and forebrain. It acts as a relay station between the forebrain and the spinal cord. The forebrain includes the most complex actions of the neural network in the central nervous system and is associated with information processing and visceral and motor functions.

If you witness an ethics violation concerning a colleague, what should your first step be?

a. Immediately contact the APA ethics committee b. You should informally speak with your colleague about the violation c. Contact the local police d. Notify the administration of the facility at which you are employed You should informally speak with your colleague about the violation. If intervention will not compromise any confidentiality issues, the first step in dealing with a possible ethics violation is to speak informally with the individual, and this will often be all that is needed to resolve the issue. If this intervention is not effective, the next step would be to contact the appropriate governing authorities, which may be the state licensing board or other institution.

What does the Stanford-Binet primarily measure?

a. Intelligence b. Mental disorders c. Personality traits d. Schizo-affective disorder Intelligence. The Stanford-Binet is an intelligence test that is usually given to children, but may also be used for adults. Its initial form was developed by Alfred Binet to assist with children in special education programs, but later went through further development and revisions to become the test we have today. Administration time depends upon age (30-90 minutes) and involves testing on several levels. The Stanford-Binet is considered a very reliable test.

What does it mean when we say that the brain has "plasticity"?

a. It has a consistency that resists complex cellular divisions b. It cannot be altered c. It can be altered d. Some of its basic components are similar to polymers It can be altered. As individuals experience new things, learn and grow, and adapt to injuries such as physical trauma or stroke, the brain also adapts and changes. Neural pathways reorganize over the span of the lifetime, depending upon the individual life experiences. Research has indicated that the environment can have a significant impact on brain function. For instance, in a stimulating environment, the number of synaptic connections in the brain is increased. In contract, subjects who are environmentally more restricted may demonstrate less synaptic connections.

Which of the following would be a humanistic therapist?

a. Ivan Pavlov b. B.F. Skinner c. Sigmund Freud d. Carl Rogers Carl Rogers. Humanistic therapies focus on the uniqueness of each individual's vision of the self and try to help the patient reach his potential. Carl Rogers' "person-centered theory" is a perfect example of this type of therapy. Like Freud, Rogers believed in the power of the unconscious. However, he viewed that process as a more positive motivator than did Freud. The focus here is on helping the patient bring his "real self" and his "ideal self" closer together.

What must children do in Erik Erikson's "Industry versus Inferiority" crisis?

a. Learn the skills of their culture b. Deal with issues of planning and responsibility c. Come to trust their mothers d. Focus on language Learn the skills of their culture. Industry versus inferiority is Erikson's fourth crisis. Crisis three is referred to in B, while C relates to crisis one and crisis two aligns with D. During this period of development, children learn through family, school, and others how to adapt to the culture they reside in. If a child cannot learn these skills, the child is likely to feel inferior.

According to developmental psychologists, which of the following is one of the three major types of influence on development?

a. Longitudinal indicators b. Non-normative life events c. Nature-nurture conflicts d. Cross-sectional variables Non-normative life events. Non-normative life events, normative age-graded, and normative history-graded are considered to be the three major types of influence on human development. Non-normative life events are things that don't normally happen (e.g., a life-threatening illness), but that can have a major impact. Normative age-graded influences are cultural and biological issues (such as inclusion into a specific group and entry into puberty). Normative history-graded are things that are common to people who grow up during the same time and place.

Which is one of Karen Horney's three coping strategies?

a. Moving against people b. Rationalization c. Sublimation d. Moving around people Moving against people. Karen Horney theorized that there are ten neurotic needs that can be grouped into three types of coping strategies. The "moving toward" strategy includes the need for affection and approval, along with attempts to please others. "Moving against" is the strategy that involves the need for power and social recognition, among others. The final coping strategy, "moving away" involves such things as striving for self-sufficiency.

If not trained in a specific area of psychology, can the therapist still provide those services?

a. No, services can only be offered for which one is trained b. Yes, a psychologist is considered able to provide any health services c. Yes, but only if it's an emergency situation d. No, not under any circumstances Yes, but only if it's an emergency situation. Psychologists are to only perform services for which they are trained and are not to misrepresent that training or ability. However, in situations where services are needed on an emergency basis (and where no fully trained individual is available), a therapist may offer those mental health services until a qualified professional becomes available.

Object permanence takes place in which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

a. Preoperational b. Concrete operations c. Sensorimotor d. Formal operations Sensorimotor. The most important achievement of the sensorimotor stage, object permanence, is accomplished when the child is able to realize that something or someone continues to exist even when it is no longer within sight. This understanding of object permanence gradually takes place over a series of six substages. Beginning with not being aware of an object's existence when it disappears from sight in the first substage (age 0-4 months), a child generally develops a full understanding of object permanence by substage 6, which emerges from age 18 months on.

Which type of therapy is Carl Rogers known for?

a. Psychoanalysis b. Person-centered approach c. Systematic desensitization d. Aversion therapy Person-centered therapy. The person-centered approach is a humanistic type of therapy. It was developed by Carl Rogers and is sometimes called the "Rogerian approach". The basic idea is that the therapist need only assist the patient in changing their own self-concept. The therapist does not lead the patient, but rather tries to understand the world through the patient's eyes. Both patient and therapist move together toward the patient's self-actualization.

What is Karen Horney known for?

a. Psychoanalytic theory b. Behavioral psychology c. Cultural psychology d. Cognitive/behavioral theory Cultural psychology. Karen Horney was a physician and psychoanalyst. She was a follower of Sigmund Freud, but differed with him in his focus on biological factors. She focused instead on cultural and social factors in human psychology. Horney attributed anxiety to an individual's difficulty in dealing with a hostile world. She especially took issue with Freud's concept of "penis envy" in women, theorizing that what women actually envy isn't anatomical, but rather the cultural advantages of men in society (status, independence, freedom, etc.).

You are having a conversation with a friend. What type of memory are you primarily making use of during the conversation?

a. Short-term memory b. Sensory memory c. Non-conscious memory d. Long-term memory Short-term memory. Memory is a way to retain and retrieve information. Sensory memory is fleeting, non-conscious memory is (as implied) not in one's conscious awareness, and long-term memory is relatively permanent. Short-term memory however, is the type of memory that allows one to retain information long enough for use during a limited time span, but does not enter the information into long-term storage. This short-term memory is what makes it possible for one to engage in a conversation with another individual, retaining information only long enough to complete the interaction.

What is the most used measure of variability in scholarly writing?

a. Standard deviation b. Variance c. Range d. Normal distribution Standard deviation. The often-preferred measure of variability in scholarly writing is the standard deviation, which is the square root of the variance. The standard deviation takes into account every score and is expressed in terms of the original unit of measurement used. The standard deviation can also be easily used for additional statistical interpretation.

What is an individual's "mental age" used to derive?

a. TAT b. HTP c. MMPI d. IQ IQ. A person's mental age (obtained via an intelligence test score) is used to derive a patient's IQ score. The intelligence quotient (IQ) was created to translate mental age into an actual number. This number is the ratio of an individual's mental age (MA) to chronological age (CA), which is then multiplied by 100. This translates mental age into a number that can be useful for every age group and provides necessary information to the therapist about the patient.

What is the TAT?

a. Thematic attitude test b. Thematic apperception test c. Thematic aptitude test d. Theme acting test Thematic apperception test. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective personality test. The TAT is administered by showing a series of cards with pictures on them to the patient. The patient looks at the pictures, gives them some thought, and makes up a story about each of them. The stories are scored for themes, and the clinician derives information about the patient's personality from the patient's answers.

The idea that behavior is highly influenced by situational factors would most likely be attributed to which of the theories below?

a. Transcendental theory b. Cognitive theory c. Psychoanalytic theory d. Behavioral theory Behavioral theory. Transcendental theory addresses perception, cognitive theory stresses both internal and situational factors, and psychoanalytic theory focuses on internal psychic processes. Behavioral theory stresses external situational issues, as well as a reward structure, in determining an individual's behavior. Simple stimulus-reward patterns are viewed as highly significant in Behaviorism. Conditioning (both operant and classical) is also a key concept, and behavior is seen as changeable through the use of reinforcements.

Which of the following is primarily used to measure brain activity?

a. WISC b. Stanford Binet c. MRI d. WAIS MRI. The Stanford Binet, as well as the WISC and WAIS are primarily intelligence tests. An MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) is a technique used to view the internal structure of the body in a very detailed way. It is a noninvasive medical test that uses a magnetic field, radio frequency pulses, and a computer to allow doctors to see things that other tests (such as CT scans and x-rays) cannot show. A "functional" MRI is increasingly being used because it can detect metabolic changes that take place in the active part of the brain, which aids in determining healthy brain activity or dysfunction.

The WAIS, WISC and WPPSI are...

a. Wechsler scales. b. Stanford-Binet intelligence scales. c. diagnostic tools for determining mental illness. d. a series of projective tests. Wechsler scales. David Wechsler developed his IQ test because he felt the Stanford-Binet was too heavily oriented toward children. The Wechsler scales include three separate tests, each given according to age group. The WAIS is for adults, the WISC for children aged 6-16 and the WPPSI focuses on children aged 4-6 /12. Each test includes "verbal" and "performance" subtests and culminates in providing an IQ score relative to the age group.

You enter into an intimate relationship with a patient you had seen for therapy three years previously. Is this appropriate professional behavior?

a. Yes b. No c. Maybe d. Only if the therapy relationship had been of less than two weeks duration Maybe. Psychologists should not enter into intimate relationships with patients or the significant others of patients. It is almost never a good idea to enter into an intimate relationship with a former patient as well. However, if it has been at least two years since cessation of the therapeutic relationship, it may be acceptable. Prior to entering into such a relationship, several issues must be first addressed to ensure that the situation will not be exploitative to the past patient.

If therapy is still needed for the patient, but the therapist is being threatened by a significant other of the patient, is it acceptable to terminate therapy?

a. Yes b. No c. Only if the threat is such that it would cause personal injury d. Only if the therapy hasn't progressed beyond one year Yes. If the patient's reason for coming into therapy has been resolved, it's unlikely that further therapy will benefit the patient or continued therapy might be detrimental to the patient, then therapy should be terminated. If the therapist is in danger, either from the patient or someone connected to the patient, then it is also permissible to terminate therapy. Regardless of the reason for termination however, appropriate steps should be taken to responsibly end the therapeutic relationship.

You have been seeing a patient for two years, and the patients is six months behind in paying for treatment when he takes a turn for the worse and changes to a new therapist. Can you withhold the patient's requested records?

a. Yes b. No c. Yes, but only after informing the patient of your reason for doing so d. No, but the patient's delinquent account should be turned over to a collection agency No. When a patient's records are needed, the therapist may not withhold those necessary records simply because of nonpayment. It is the psychologist's responsibility to keep and maintain the patient's records and take steps to maintain confidentiality with the use of those records. When those records are needed for the welfare of the patient, they should be dealt with accordingly, regardless of payment issues.

When the mean, median and mode fall in different places in a distribution, the distribution is said to be...

a. a scatterplot. b. skewed. c. normal. d. correlated. Skewed. In a "normal" distribution, the mean, mode, and the median are all equal. However, in a skewed (asymmetrical) distribution, the mean, mode, and median fall at different places. In such a case, it's more difficult to compare individual scores.

Systematic desensitization is...

a. a type of behavioral therapy. b. a psychoanalytic construct. c. a component of free association. d. a type of humanistic therapy. A type of behavioral therapy. Systematic desensitization is a type of behavioral therapy in which the patient is gradually exposed to a larger and larger number of anxiety-producing stimuli until they are able to endure the stimuli without anxiety. It is based on classical conditioning and is often used to treat people who have debilitating phobias. Systematic desensitization is often completed through two steps. The first step, "in imagination," is a step during which the patient imagines the anxiety-producing stimuli. During the second step "in vivo", the anxiety-producing stimuli are confronted in real life.

Piaget's sensorimotor stage takes place from...

a. birth to two years of age. b. two to four years of age. c. seven to twelve years of age. d. three to six years of age. Birth to two years of age. In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the sensorimotor stage takes place from a child's birth to two years of age. During this stage the child moves from learning through the senses and reflexes, to organizing activities according to their environment. The sensorimotor stage is divided into six separate substages: reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of reactions, tertiary circular reactions and early representational thought. Through these substages, the child develops from simple stimulus-motor responses to mental processing.

When entering into the therapeutic relationship, the therapist should...

a. conceal plans regarding the treatment plan. b. inform the patient about the nature and course of therapy. c. obtain a signed confidentiality statement. d. avoid discussion of non-therapy issues, such as treatment fees. Inform the patient about the nature and course of therapy. When entering into a therapeutic relationship, the therapist should inform the patient about issues of treatment, including the basic treatment plan, type of therapy to be used, cost of treatment and confidentiality limits.

A therapist must break confidentiality...

a. if the patient is threatening to harm someone. b. when an animal is being abused. c. when the destruction of property is reported. d. if suicidal thoughts are discussed. If the patient is threatening to harm someone. Put in very simple terms, a therapist must break confidentiality if the patient is a threat to himself, a threat to others, or if a child is at risk. In some states, putting a "dependent adult" at risk may also qualify. The legal limits of confidentiality are, of course, more detailed than that, but those are the basic areas of concern. The abuse of animals and destruction of property are not cause for breaking confidentiality, and simply discussing suicide is also not a sufficient cause.

Preconventional Morality is most often seen in...

a. infants. b. adults. c. children. d. the elderly. Children. Lawrence Kohlberg is known for his Theory of Moral Development, which consists of six stages in three levels. Preconventional morality is the first level and includes stage one, which is "Obedience and Punishment." In this stage rules are seen as fixed and are obeyed in an effort to avoid punishment. Stage two refers to "Individualism and Exchange," and involves children taking into account the views and needs of others. It's important to note that adults can also engage in these types of reasoning, but according to this theory, these stages are more commonly seen in children.

Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is unique in that...

a. it addresses genetic links to schizophrenia. b. it is the only major lifespan theory of normal development. c. it is the only major lifespan theory of abnormal development. d. it combines all previous theories into one concrete theory. It is the only major lifespan theory of normal development. Further, Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is the only theory of normal development to cover not just a portion of the lifespan, but the entire lifespan. He used Freudian theory and then built upon it, adding the impact of social influence upon an individual's developmental processes. Covering eight stages and four crises, Erikson's theory takes developmental theory all the way from birth to death.

Activity theory states that...

a. more active equals more fulfilled. b. less active equals more fulfilled. c. activity leads to "overextension." d. lower levels of activity lead to increased opportunities. More active equals more fulfilled. Activity theory (per Russian theorists Leont'ev and Rubinshtein) is a theory of aging. It states that the more active an individual is, the more fulfilled they will be in their later years. One way to keep active is by the replacement of lost "roles." As roles are lost, one should replace those roles with other activities (e.g., a parent becomes an active grandparent, or an employee becomes volunteer). There is also significant emphasis placed upon the maintenance of relationships.

The leader of a research study is responsible for...

a. only his own ethical conduct. b. his conduct and that of everyone else involved in the study. c. his conduct and the conduct of those being paid for their work. d. his conduct and the conduct of only those who are collaborators in the project. His conduct and that of everyone else involved in the study. In 1982, the American Psychological Association developed ethical guidelines that would allow for psychological research to continue while still protecting human participants. Among these guidelines is the requirement that subjects give their informed consent, are protected from mental and physical injury, and are allowed to withdraw from the study whenever they wish.

Erik Erikson is known for his theory of...

a. psychosocial development. b. attachment. c. classical conditioning. d. psychoanalytic development. Psychosocial development. Psychoanalytic theories are attributed to Sigmund Freud, attachment theories originated with John Bowlby, and classical conditioning was discovered by Ivan Pavlov. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is the only major theory of normal human development that covers the entire lifespan. He built on Freudian concepts and included society's influence on the development of an individual's personality. His theory included eight stages, each of which requires the resolution of a "crisis."

The "absolute" sensory threshold is...

a. the lowest intensity at which a stimulus can be perceived. b. the highest intensity at which a stimulus can be perceived. c. the point at which stimuli comes into conscious awareness. d. a term to indicate the absolute intensity of sensory tolerance. The lowest intensity at which a stimulus can be perceived. Under ideal conditions, the human senses are able to perceive a variety of subtle stimuli. The level of stimuli sensitivity however, depends upon the level of background stimulation present. For example, one may hear rain falling on a tin roof quite easily, unless a loud party is taking place inside the building at the same time.

As related to aging, disengagement theory states that...

a. withdrawal from life leads to happiness. b. happiness comes from over-involvement in life. c. the level of social engagement has no affect upon life satisfaction. d. high levels of social engagement ensure life satisfaction. Withdrawal from life leads to happiness. Disengagement theory (developed by Cummings and Henry) states that people will be happiest later in life if they withdraw from life gracefully. Minimizing social involvement and activities and severing emotional ties is viewed as a component of successful aging. However, research has failed to support this theory. In fact, this theory has been linked more closely to issues of stress and death than to successful aging.