Practice test review Wrong Questions

Heterozygous cross ratio hetero x homo recessive

9:3:3:1 1:1:1:1 if dont follow these then linkage has occured

acetic acid

CH3COOH

Moro reflex

Infant reflex where a baby will startle in response to a loud sound or sudden movement.

Ketogenesis

creation of ketone bodies

Hawthorne effect

A change in a subject's behavior caused simply by the awareness of being studied

start and stop codons

AUG UAA, UGA, UAG

Intensity of a spherical wave

I = P/4πr^2

mock transfection

Mock transfection is transfection without DNA to control potential effect of transfection reagent on the cells.

Is hydrogen a metal?

No, it's a non-metal

power equations

Power=Work/time Intensity of sound=Power/Area Power=IV=I2R=V2/R

Uric acid enters the urine both through filtration and secretion in the kidney. The process of filtration of uric acid in the kidney takes place in the: A glomerulus. B loop of Henle. C distal convoluted tubule. D proximal convoluted tubule.

Solution: The correct answer is A. Filtrate is formed as fluid passes from the glomerular capillaries through the glomerular membrane into the Bowman's capsule. This region of the nephron is known as the glomerulus. Thus, A is the best answer.

Red litmus paper

Stays red for acids, turns blue for bases

Dispersion of light

The one exception to wave rule that speed is determined by medium and not frequency Light with different frequencies have slightly different speeds here: red light diffracts less than blue

Elimination reaction

The removal of a molecule from a saturated molecule to make an unsaturated molecule any kind of unsaturation created including a c=o bond. COOH derivatives undergo addition then elimination reactions when lone pair on oxygen comes down

bacterial transformation

ability of bacteria to alter their genetic makeup by uptaking foreign DNA from another bacterial cell and incorporating it into their own

symbolic thinking

ability to pretend, play make-believe, and have an imagination

androcentric

focused or centered on men

intensity of stimulus

frequency of action potentials can only increase number of impulses. cant increase strength of one AP

melting of solid is called.... and helps us find....

fusion heat of fusion

always soluble

group I ions H+ NH4+ NO3- CH3COO- ClO4

which refers to loss of response to a repeating stimulus.

habituation

which drug is pain relief associated with?

heroin

"I knew it all along"

hindsight bias

steroid hormones

hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones

thyroid hormone

increases basic metabolic rate peptide hormone but is the exception to extracellular signalling. Thyroid hormone go across membrane via facilitated diffusion

internal and external validity threats

internal validity threated by: confounding variables, ,expression management, attribution effects(drop outs), nonrandom sampling external validity threatened by: selection too restrictive, lack statistical power, does not apply to real world

Hill coefficient

it is used in determining the degree of cooperativeness of the ligand binding to the enzyme or receptor. n>1 positive cooperative binding n<1 negative cooperative binding n=1 noncooperative binding

relationship between equilibrium constant and free energy

keq=1=Q deltaG=0 deltaG=-RTlnKeq note: Keq does not include solids/solvents

cortex and medulla

medulla on inner layer

upper class

millions and billions doctors are middle class

reduction potential

most positive is the best most negative is better oxidized

ethical study

must be volunteers. cant be forced

Avogadro's number

number of representative particles/ions in a mole, 6.02 X 10^23

Operant vs. Classical Conditioning

operant is voluntary classical is involuntary

coercive organizations

organizations that people do not voluntarily join, such as prison or a mental hospital

Public Verifiability

other researchers must have the opportunity to inspect, criticize, replicate, or disprove the data and methods

terminal voltage

potential difference across a battery's terminals The terminal voltage is the voltage provided to the external components of the circuit. The battery voltage ℰ will be reduced by the voltage required to overcome the internal resistance, so V = ℰ - ir. Thus, B is the best answer.

when do we switch from thinking of gases as ideal to real?

pressure is greater than 1 atm temp is diff from 25C

phase curve

pressure over temperature

quantum numbers

principle n-size/electron energy level (potential energy) Azimuthal l- shape magnetic ml- orientation Spin ms- electron spin

bro how to make fizzy water Na2CO3 plus HCl

produces HCO3- and NaCl HCO3- is unstable so it will break down into CO2 and water

egalitarian

promoting equal rights for all people

colligative properties

properties of a solution that depend only on the number of particles dissolved in it, not the properties of the particles themselves. The main ones are boiling point elevation and freezing point depression. vant hoff factor= number of ions produced from single dissolved molecule

ATP and GTP structure

purines

Km vs Km

same

formal sanctions

sanctions that are officially recognized and enforced

Piaget's stages of cognitive development

sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

see image. what is the work done by the Force?

simply F or mass times distance travelled I was looking for force need to lift mass

Viroids

small circular +RNA molecules that infect plants and disrupt their growth -dont code for proteins

social constructionism

social constructionism bridges the micro and macro levels but places more emphasis on how concepts emerge (such as illness), as opposed to understanding social interactions.

humoral immunity

specific immunity produced by B cells that produce antibodies that circulate in body fluids bind antigen to trigger production/secretion of antibodies -diversity of antibody creation is due to DNA rearrangement

tautomers of carbs mutarotation cis-trans

structural isomers epimers-anomers geometric isomers

labeling theory

symbolic interactionism: self-identity and the behavior of individuals may be determined or influenced by the terms used to describe or classify them ^self fulfilling prophecy ^stereotyping

avoidance learning

the process by which one learns to perform a behavior in order to ensure that a negative or aversive stimulus will not be present operant conditioning

McDonaldization

the process by which the principles of the fast-food restaurant are coming to dominate more and more sectors of American society as well as of the rest of the world

rotational inertia

the resistance of an object to changes in its rotational motion

Volume of gases at STP are dependent on

volume of a gas is not dependent on the size. only on the moles

when something is floating

weight of object=buoyancy force mg aka pVg=pVg a floating object displaces a weight of fluid equal to its own weight

Gluconeogenic precursors

α-ketoglutarate, Lactate, oxaloacetate, amino acids and glycerol

energy needed to make peptide

(#AAs)*(4)

Avogadro's number

6.02 x 10^23

TLC vs. column

tlc is just to check status of reaction while column can be used to seperate large amounts via fractionated seperation

amber codon

UAG stop codon

kidney

glucose, amino acids, HCO3-, Na+, K+

endothermic reaction

positive deltaH

diaphragm innervation

somatic

electric field capacitor

E=V/d

degree of unsaturation

(2C+2+N-H-X)/2

magnetic field

*created by a single electron traveling through space or by a current through conducting material *SI unit: tesla (T) FB=qvBsintheta mv2/r=qvB

+RNA viruses undergoing lysogenic pathway

+RNA is mRNA AKA retrovirus once inside cell must be turned into DNA via RNA dependent DNA Polymerase - then reverse transcriptase creates dsDNA which can be inserted into host DNA DNAPol of host will not recognize. will just replicate

digestive accessory organs notes and alimentary canal

.

enzyme inhibition

.

imine and enamine keto and enol

.

Freud and Erikson shared

0-1 oral- trust/mistrust 1-3 anal- Autonomy/shame 3-6 phallic- Initiative/guilt PRESCHOOL 6-12 latent- Industry/inferiority SCHOOL 12+ genital- ADOLESCENCE 12-18 Identity/role confusion YOUNG ADULT intimacy/Isolation MIDDLE AGE generativity/stagnation LATER LIFE integrity/despair

gluconeogenesis enzymes

1) pyruvate carboxylase 2) phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) 3) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase 4) glucose 6-phosphatase

social influences behavior via...

1. compliance 2. identification 3. internalization

PE of capacitor

1/2QV 1/2CV2 Q2/2C Q=CV

resitivity and conductivity

1/Conductivity=resistivity

Light microscope resolution

200nm if you cant see then what you are viewing is smaller than 200nm

speed of sound doppler eqaution

340 m/s f-f'(v+-Vd)/(v+-Vs)

Chiral

A molecule or carbon atom bonded to four different groups and without a plane of symmetry; thus, it is not superimposable upon its mirror image and has an enantiomer.

naming explosion

A sudden increase in an infant's vocabulary, especially in the number of nouns, that begins at about 18 months of age.

base hydrogen bonding

A-2-T G-3-C

tidal volume

Amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during a normal breath

mitotic spindle

An assemblage of microtubules and associated proteins that is involved in the movements of chromosomes during mitosis.

Regular breathing and regular, slow brain waves are most consistent with which stage of sleep? A NREM1 B NREM2 C NREM3 D REM

Answer Key: C This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is C because regular breathing and heart rate and slow brain waves are most consistent with deep sleep, NREM3. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concept and Principles question because it requires knowing the properties of different stages of sleep.

octahedral geometry

Assumption of six electron groups around a central atom.

Can glucogenic amino acids be converted into glucose? A. Yes: pyruvate and oxaloacetate can be converted directly into glyceraldehyde-3-P, which is a major intermediate in both gluconeogenesis and glycolysis. B. Yes: pyruvate and Krebs cycle intermediates can be converted into oxaloacetate, then phosphoenolpyruvate, which can enter gluconeogenesis. C. No: pyruvate and Krebs cycle intermediates are formed as part of glucose breakdown and this process is important to generate ATP for the cell. D. No: glucose is obtained from the diet and stored in the liver; it cannot be made as a new molecule because cellular respiration has several steps with a -ΔG

B. This is a typical two by two question. The passage says that glucogenic amino acids are broken down into citric acid cycle intermediates or pyruvate. The Krebs cycle regenerates oxaloacetate (OAA), and in the first step of gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is also converted into OAA (by the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase). OAA is converted into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) by the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (or PEPCK). Gluconeogenesis can then continue to run, and will generate glucose from these non-carbohydrate precursor molecules (choice B is correct). Although glyceraldehyde-3-P is a major intermediate in both gluconeogenesis and glycolysis, pyruvate and oxaloacetate cannot be converted directly into this molecule (choice A is incorrect). Both choices C and D are incorrect because they start with "No"; as discussed above, glucogenic amino acids can be converted into glucose (choices C and D are wrong).

doing more with less

Bootstrapping

C=O vs C-OH polarity

C-OH is more polar than a carbonyl

Meiosis and aneuploidy

Cell division that produces reproductive cells in sexually reproducing organisms

tranitional metals losing/gaiing to be more stable

Co2+ for example will be [Ar]3d7 when removing electrons always remove from highest energy subshell regardless of stability after removal. We only take into account when figuring out the electron config

three aspects of conservation of matter

Conservation is realized through three insights: identity doesn't change, reversibility of manipulation back to original, and reciprocity which means that changing one part changes another part of same object.

carbohydrate D/L amino acids?

D carbs L AAs

Which of the following statements regarding RNA molecules is NOT true? A. RNAs can act as enzymes to catalyze reactions. B. Some RNAs have more than four different types of bases. C. Some RNAs are synthesized in the nucleolus. D. RNAs are insusceptible to alkaline hydrolysis

D. RNA molecules have decreased stability compared to DNA in part because of their susceptibility to alkaline hydrolysis due to the presence of hydroxyl group at 2'-C position (choice D is not true of RNA and is the correct answer choice). Some RNAs have enzymatic function (such as in telomerase) and they are termed ribozymes (choice A is true and can be eliminated). tRNA has unique and modified bases apart from the traditional four bases A,U,C, and G (such as inosine, choice B is true and can be eliminated). rRNA is synthesized in the nucleolus (choice C is true and can be eliminated).

Trial 2 At 25°C, 50.0 mL of 2.0 M NaOH was combined with 50.0 mL of 2.0 M HCl. The mixture temperature was recorded as 71°C. If a neutralization similar to Trial 2 were performed with the same molar values of NaOH and acetic acid, which of the following results is the most likely to occur? A. A higher temperature due to a larger |ΔH| B. A lower temperature due to a larger |ΔH| C. A higher temperature due to a smaller |ΔH| D. A lower temperature due to a smaller |ΔH| If Trial 2 were performed with 25.0 mL of NaOH instead of 50.0 mL, the resulting solution would have: A. pH < 1 B. T = 71°C C. [H3O+] = [OH-] D. the same ΔH the heat capacity of the calorimeter system (including the lid, thermometer, and stirring bar while holding 1200 mL of water) was determined before conducting any experimental trials. It was known that when mixed in a 1:1 ratio, the stock solutions would release 4.5 kJ per 100 mL of final volume. The temperature reached 35°C before returning to 25°C after several hours. SEE PIC How much heat was evolved when 4.0 g of NaOH was added to 100 mL of water? A. 10/13 × 4.5 J B. 13/10 × 4.5 J C. 10/13 × 4.5 kJ D. 13/10 × 4.5 kJ

D. This is a 2 × 2 style question, and in this case two choices can be eliminated for being internally inconsistent. If the ΔH is larger for an exothermic reaction, more energy will be given off, resulting in a larger increase in temperature (eliminate choice B). Similarly, if less energy is given off, the temperature change should be smaller (eliminate choice C). The heat of neutralization is defined as the enthalpy change resulting from 1 mole of water being produced from the reaction H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l). Since weak acids (like acetic acid) are only partially ionized, their neutralization by a strong base will not result in an equal production of water molecules compared with a strong acid/strong base neutralization (eliminate choice A). A. Only 0.05 mol of NaOH is added (instead of 0.1 mol). Therefore, only half of the HCl will be neutralized (so [H3O+] > [OH-], eliminate choice C), less heat is liberated (eliminate choice D), and the temperature will not increase as much (eliminate choice B). Although not necessary to answer the question, here's the calculation to show that choice A is indeed correct: 0.05 mol of HCl remains active—in 0.075 L of solution—after the addition of the (reduced amount of) NaOH; since HCl is a strong acid, this means [H+] = (0.05 mol)/(0.075 L) = 2/3 M, which is greater than 0.1 M. As a result, -log[H+] will be less than 1. D. The passage tells us (in the Calibration section) that Q is 4.5 kJ (since we used 100 mL), and ΔTcalibration is 35°C - 25°C = 10°C. Therefore, the heat capacity is CP = Q/ΔTcalibration = (4.5 kJ)/(10°C), eliminating choices A and B. The value of ΔT in Trial 1 was 38°C - 25°C = 13°C, so the heat evolved was Q = CPΔT = (4.5 kJ)/(10°C) × 13°C = (13/10) × 4.5 kJ (eliminate choice C).

where does glycerol enter glycolysis?

DHAP

reaction formation

Defense mechanism by which people behave in a way opposite to what their true but anxiety-provoking unconscious feelings would dictate.

discrimination vs prejudice

Discrimination is a negative behavior- Prejudice is a negative attitude/cognition/behavior.

neuroimaging

EEG fMRI PET MRI CT

Retrieval of information is improved when conditions of recovery are similar to the conditions when information was encoded (a type of context effect)

Encoding specificity effect

where does fatty acid synthesis occur

Fatty acids are synthesized in the cytosol, whereas acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvate in mitochondria. Hence, acetyl CoA must be transferred from mitochondria to the cytosol. Mitochondria, however, are not readily permeable to acetyl CoA. Recall that carnitine carries only long-chain fatty acids

reinforcement schedules

Fixed ratio allows for best learning variable ratio allows for best retention

mechanical advantage efficiency

Fresistance/Feffort Wout/Win

Sociological Theories

Functionalism MACRO Conflict Theory MACRO Symbolic Interactionism MICRO Social Constructionism BOTH Rational Choice MICRO Social Exchange MICRO Feminist

Max Weber

German sociologist that regarded the development of rational social orders as humanity's greatest achievement. Saw bureaucratization (the process whereby labor is divided into an organized community and individuals acquire a sense of personal identity by finding roles for themselves in large systems) as the driving force in modern society.

Development and attachment experiments

Harlows monkeys demonstrated need for contact/comfort by mother Mary Ainsworth on attachment styles

superheating

Heating to above a phase transition temperature without the occurrence of the transformation.

cross-sectional study

In medical research, social science, and biology, a cross-sectional study (also known as a cross-sectional analysis, transverse study, prevalence study) is a type of observational study that analyzes data from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time—that is, cross-sectional data.

operant conditioning motivational state

In operant conditioning studies, a subject's motivational state is generally operationally defined by using negative punishment

Which experiment would best provide data to support the mechanism of competitive inhibition?

Keep IN concentration constant and measure the initial velocity of the reaction at increasing vDNA concentrations in the presence and absence of the ODN. The answer to this question is A because according to the passage, ODNs are competitive inhibitors of viral DNA for integrase. Competitive inhibition can be determined through rate experiments by applying the principles of the Michaelis-Menten equation. By keeping enzyme concentration constant, varying substrate concentration, and either including or excluding the inhibitor, the effect of the inhibitor on the Vmax and apparent Km of the reaction can be determined. A competitive inhibitor will increase the apparent Km and not affect the Vmax.

demographic transition theory

Links population growth to the society's use of technology, describing sequential stages of change in birth and death rates. AKA tech is what keeps population size in check

A man was hospitalized with a ruptured appendix and received massive doses of the antibiotics ampicillin and kanamycin over a period of weeks. Shortly after leaving the hospital, he contracted Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the pathogen that causes tuberculosis, from a coworker. He was again hospitalized and treated with large doses of first ampicillin and then kanamycin, with no effect. Recovery was rapid when a third antibiotic, streptomycin, was administered At the end of his initial hospital stay, a few E. coli cells remained in the patient's colon, even though he was taking antibiotics. These cells were most likely present because: A the antibiotics caused drug-resistance mutations to occur in the bacterial DNA. B the bacteria in the patient developed an immune reaction to the antibiotics. C the patient's colon cells became increasingly resistant to the antibiotics during his hospitalization. D chance mutations in a few E. coli before the treatment made these cells and their descendants antibiotic-resistant. Tests performed on the M. tuberculosis strain infecting the patient's coworker indicated that the strain was susceptible to both ampicillin and kanamycin, and the coworker was successfully treated. The M. tuberculosis most likely survived in the patient because it had: A undergone conjugation with cells of resistant E. coli. B undergone an antibiotic-induced mutation that conferred antibiotic resistance. C reproduced more rapidly than the strain in the coworker. D adapted to its new environment by modifying its metabolism. The patient's ruptured appendix required treatment with antibiotics because he had a bacterial infection caused by: A M. tuberculosis. B E. coli entering the colon from the appendix. C E. coli entering the abdominal cavity from the appendix. D E. coli entering the appendix from the colon.

Mutations which make cells drug resistant are very rare, but the few drug-resistant bacteria that do develop such mutations flourish when the nonresistant cells are killed by antibiotics. Antibiotics are unlikely to have been the source of the mutations; nor do bacteria develop "immune" reactions to antibiotics. Any resistance of the patient's own colon cells to antibiotics is irrelevant to the resistance of bacteria to antibiotic. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer. The strain of M. tuberculosis in the coworkers was killed by both ampicillin and kanamycin, indicating that this strain did not carry a plasmid gene that made it resistant to these two antibiotics. However, once the M. tuberculosis coexisted in the patient with other antibiotic-resistant bacteria, the M. tuberculosis could survive despite treatment with large doses of these two antibiotics. The antibiotic does not induce mutations; the few cells that are already resistant flourish in the absence of the nonresistant bacteria. The M. tuberculosis did not adapt to its new environment by modifying its metabolism; rather, there was a strain with a metabolic capability that was not compromised by the antibiotic. The passage indicates that conjugation may occur between members of different bacterial species. Therefore, it is most likely that these M. tuberculosis bacteria underwent conjugation with resistant cells, answer choice A. Solution: The correct answer is C. The passage indicates that the ruptured appendix preceded infection with M. tuberculosis, so the infective agent would have had to be the E. coli bacteria, a species common to the colon. This item further relies on anatomical knowledge of the gastrointestinal tract for an answer. The passage states that E. coli are found within the colon, where they function in digestion and vitamin production. The appendix is continuous with the colon so that bacteria can move between these two structures; a ruptured appendix would allow E. coli into the abdominal cavity, which is not normal. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

IR peaks: 3300 broad, 3300 sharp , 1750 sharp, 1610

OH, NH, C=O, C=C

see pic PE and KE

PE of the hanging block provides KE to top block

PCC oxidizes

Primary alcohols to aldehydes and secondary alcohols to ketones DOES NOT OVER OXIDIZE into COOH

Freud vs. Erikson

Psychosexual vs Psychosocial

Henry's Law equation

S=Kh*Pg

Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity (paragraph 3)? A. PET B. EEG C. MRI D. CT

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is A because for studies focusing on activation (and thus brain function), a PET scan is the best imaging tool among those listed. The other choices are other techniques that are not specifically designed for measuring brain activation in particular regions. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because the question involves identification of the brain imaging technique that is best associated with the studies described in the relevant passage section.

Destructive interference occurs in photodiode detectors when direct and scattered light rays take paths to the photocell that differ in phase by: A 0 degrees. B 90 degrees. C 180 degrees. D 360 degrees.

Solution: The correct answer is C. The phase difference corresponding to a half of a wave is 180°. Half a wave difference in phase between two waves corresponds to destructive interference. Thus, C is the best answer.

categorical perception

The ability to perceive sounds as belonging to different phoneme categories (e.g. that ability to differentiate between /p/ and /b/)

Which ideal solution exhibits the greatest osmotic pressure? A 0.1 M MgCl2 B 0.2 M NaCl C 0.2 M CaCl2 D 0.5 M Glucose

The answer to this question is C because the solution listed has the greatest concentration of solute particles. CaCl2 dissociates into three ions, ma

IS LIGHT A WAVE? photoelectric effect heisenberg uncertainty principle

The emission of electrons from a metal when light shines on the metal E=hf=hc/lambda each photon delivers it energy to a single e-:KEmax=hf-BE(work function of metal target) -eVstop=KEmax deltaxdeltap>=h/2pi brighter light increases intensity I=P/A

half equivalence point

The point in a titration at which exactly half the molar equivalence of reactant is consumed by the titrant being added. At this point in an acid-base titration, the pKa of the unknown solution is revealed. pKa=pH

Why is there a G1 S checkpoint?

The primary G1/S cell cycle checkpoint controls the commitment of eukaryotic cells to transition through the G1 phase to enter into the DNA synthesis S phase

Validity vs. Reliability

Validity: - does it do what it's supposed to do? does it work? Reliability - the degree to which the tool produces consistent/stable results *Tools can be valid and not reliable (and vice versa)

xenophobia

a fear or hatred of foreigners or strangers

ethnographic research

a form of observational research that involves sending trained observers to watch and interact with consumers in their "natural environments"

Heuristic

a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms(use prior knowledge)

spontaneous reaction

all spontaneous ractions increase entropy

self-schema self consciousness self-efficacy

beliefs about self awareness of ones self belief on ones competence-locus of control

Bacterial Reproduction

binary fission NO SEXUAL REPRODUCTION- conjugation bridge is just a method of exchanging genetic makeup

blood pressure

cardiac output x peripheral resistance CO=stroke volume*HR

lab techniques

chromatography 1-7 distillation A and B extraction resolution of enantiomers

uracil created from ...

cytosine by converting amino group to carbonyl

Kinematic Equations

d=vt=1/2t(V0+Vf) Vf=V0+at d= d= Vf^2=

stem cells

embryonic cells, which can develop into any type of body cell or tissue stem cells inner mass cells: pluripotent (anything but placenta) tissue cells: multipotent (many) zygote: totipotent (any)

Cholinesterase

enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine

Social institutions

family religion education health/medicine Gov/economy

juxtaglomerular apparatus

in the nephron, the complex of cells from the distal tubule and the afferent arteriole which helps regulate blood pressure by secreting renin in response to blood pressure changes in the kidney; located near the glomerulus

NON classical dominance

incomplete dominance- blended ptype codominance seen in RBC protein expression aka ABO gene epistatsis in which gene expression is dependent on another gene penetrance: varying % expression of a gene

carnitine shuttle

long-chain fatty acid degradation shuttles LCFA from cytosol to mitochondria CARnitine=CARnage of LCFA

socioeconomic status

status in society based on level of education, income, and occupational prestige

Penetrance

the percentage of individuals having a particular genotype that express the expected phenotype

cultural relativism

the practice of judging a society by its own standards

base rate fallacy

using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical information ignoring stats in favor of new info

a capacitor and resisitor in parallel

will have same voltage across since in parallel. if in series, voltage drops would occur they can be treated together

first law of thermodynamics and work

ΔE=Q-W W=FΔh =PΔV Isobaric ΔE=Q Isochoric ΔE=Q Isothermal Q=W Adiabatic ΔE=-W heat transfer will occur until temperatures become the same

types of learning

Non associative- habituation and sensitization Associative learning- Operant (behaviorist) and classical conditioning Insight learning Observational(social cognitive) Latent

Ovulation and Menstruation

.

Translation

.

lytic cycle steps

1. Virus attaches to host cell and inserts genetic material into cell 2. Viral genetic material takes over host cell early genes: hydrolase & capsid proteins 3. Host cell makes viral parts and assembles them to make viruses. 4. Host cell burst and releases viruses and the cycle continues with other cells. late genes: lysozyme

psychological disorders

1. anxiety 18% 2. Depressive 3. Bipolar 4. Psychotic 5. Trauma and stresor related 6. Personality 6% 7. Somatic Symptom 8. Dissociative disorders 10% 9. Obsessive Compulsive 10. Neurodevelopmental 11.Neurocognitive 12.Substance related 13. Disruptive 14. Feeding 15. Sleep Disorders

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

1. p(dom) +q(rec)=1 allele frequency p2 + 2pq + q2=1 genotype frequency 2. no mutation, no NS, random mating, large pop., no migration 3. it takes one generation to get to a new equation

average weight of amino acid

110 Daltons

glycolysis ATP yield

25 ATP from 2 pyruvate 2 ATP + 3-5 (depending on NADH shuttle) = 5-7 ATP from glycolysis = 30-32 ATP aerobic respiration total

Southern Blot northern western eastern

A DNA sample is electrophoresed on a gel and then transferred to a filter. The filter is then soaked in a denaturant and subsequently exposed to a labeled DNA probe that recognizes and anneals to its complementary strand. The resulting ds labeled piece of DNA is visualized when the filter is exposed to film. N- RNA W-Protein E-protein modifications

In the semantic network model, what determines the strength of a connection between a node and an association? A. How frequently and deeply connections are made B. How closely the node and association are explicitly related C. How many links there are between the node and the association D. How many state-dependent cues have been created between the node and the association

A. According to the semantic network model, the strength of a connection between a node and an association is related to how frequently and how deeply the connections are made (choice A is correct). The explicit relationship between the node and the association is meaningless unless that connection is constantly reinforced (choice B is wrong). Separate links between the node and the association—suggesting a more circuitous route—are indicative of the spreading activation pattern (choice C is wrong). State-dependent cues, in which familiar locales are used to trigger memories, do not determine the strength of the connection between a node and an association unless, once again, they are used with great frequency (choice D is wrong).

Based on Figure 2, the critical angle between Media a and b: A. is less than 45°. B. is equal to 45°. C. is greater than 45°. D. cannot be determined.

A. Figure 2 shows that if the angle of incidence is 45°, then the beam is totally internally reflected. Since total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, 45° must be greater than the critical angle. (Or, said the other way, the critical angle must be less than 45°.)

Many health disparities exist among social groups in the United States based on sociodemographic characteristics, including gender. For example, men have a shorter lifespan and higher rates of death by all leading causes. This can be explained by which of the following? I. Men experience greater occupational demands and stress as a result of persistent patriarchal patterns of authority in families. II. The traditional approach to medical research recruited more female than male participants, thus leading to a dangerous misunderstanding of male health. III. Gender biases present in health care structures cause differences in treatment for the same disease for men and women, and tend to offer more aggressive treatments to save the lives of women. A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only

A. Item I is true: patriarchal social structures are those in which men, rather than women, are the authoritative members in families. According to the traditional patriarchal structure, men are responsible for providing for their families. Despite the increasing presence of dual-income families, patriarchal attitudes persist and place a disproportionate amount of economic pressure on men (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is false: historically, more medical research studies have been conducted on men than women, thus leading to misconceptions about women's health (choice C can be eliminated). Item III is false: gender biases in health care tend to offer more aggressive treatment to men than women (choice D can be eliminated and choice A is the correct answer). In fact, these biases contribute to the fact that women experience higher rates of both chronic and acute illnesses that are not leading causes of death.

Which of the following statements is/are true of the transporter studied in the passage? SEE PIC I. The binding site is stereospecific. II. Na+ enhances the rate of amino acid transport. III. The transporter shows a 100-fold preference for D-alanine over L-alanine.

A. Item II appears in three answer choices so let's begin there. Item II is true: in all cases, the Vmax is greater in the presence of Na+ than in the absence of Na+ (eliminate answer choice B). Item I is true: looking at L-alanine and D-alanine, we see that L-alanine shows both a greater Vmax and smaller KT than D-alanine, both of which indicate an improved binding preference of the transporter for the L amino acid compared to the D amino acid (eliminate answer choice D). Item III is false: although there is a 100-fold difference in KT values between D-alanine and L-alanine (10/0.1 =100), recall that a lower Km (analogous to KT) indicates a higher binding preference, so the transporter shows a 100-fold preference for L-alanine over D-alanine, not vice versa (choice A is correct and choice C is wrong).

Question 29 How might a theorist in the tradition of symbolic interactionism explain deviance? A. Deviant behavior is a response to being labeled a deviant by others. B. Deviant behavior results from performing on the back stage when one should be performing on the front stage. C. Deviance is a failure to develop a looking-glass self. D. Deviance is a failure to resolve the dilemma of identity versus role confusion in adolescence

A. Labeling theory is a fundamental concept of symbolic interactionism. It states that deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but is rather an attribution from others (such as police, family, or clergy; choice A is correct). Back stage and front stage dynamics are an aspect of the dramaturgical approach. If one acts on the back stage when he or she should be performing on the front stage, the audience might experience more than it otherwise would (e.g., more details about a person's motivations or inner thoughts), but this would not necessarily be a deviant act (choice B is wrong). A looking-glass self describes how people shape their self-concepts based on how they think others perceive them (choice C is wrong). The dilemma of identity versus role confusion is one of Erikson's eight developmental stages; it is not an aspect of symbolic interactionism (choice D is wrong).

While completing a ritual, such as repeated locking and unlocking of the front door, an individual with obsessive-compulsive disorder would most likely feel: A. distressed. B. profound relief for the rest of the day. C. content. D. happy.

A. People with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel the need to perform certain rituals or routines repeatedly. These individuals are often compelled by intrusive thoughts. An individual compelled to perform behavior repeatedly, such as continually locking and unlocking a door, will often feel distressed by these intrusive thoughts and the need to perform these behaviors (choice A is correct). While performing these rituals can sometimes cause a temporary sense of relief, there is no profound relief for the rest of the day, only a transient sense of relief that may come from temporarily satisfying the intrusive thoughts (choice B is wrong). An individual compelled to perform repeated behavior would have no particular reason to feel content or happy (choices C and D are wrong).

Media representations of Planned Parenthood often center on their abortion practices. Planned Parenthood is responsible for an annual total of 300,000 abortions. However, this accounts for a mere three percent of the services provided. This misrepresentation of Planned Parenthood is an example of: A. institutional discrimination. B. the McDonaldization of society. C. a coercive organization. D. symbolic interactionism.

A. Planned Parenthood experiences the effects of prejudice as a result of practices, such as abortion, that conflict with the beliefs of some groups, and this prejudice, in some cases, contributes to institutional discrimination. Mass media is a powerful institution in the United States, and the media executives with higher socioeconomic status are able to set the agenda for their programs. This can lead to institutional discrimination in situations when the media presents a specific group in a negative light for its own purposes (e.g., the anti-abortion movement; choice A is correct). The McDonaldization of society described when a culture adopts the characteristics of a fast-food restaurant, such as efficiency, calculability, standardization, and control. While aspects of mass media are certainly a good example of McDonaldization, the misrepresentation of Planned Parenthood by the media is not an example of this (choice B is wrong). A coercive organization is one where members have no choice in joining; for example, a prison is an example of a coercive organization. While Planned Parenthood has little choice in what the media portrays about them, as an organization, Planned Parenthood is not a part of the media - these are two separate organizations. Therefore, this is not an example of a coercive organization (choice C is wrong). Symbolic interactionism is a major sociological theory that suggests that people create symbolic meanings about objects, events, and behaviors. For example, a handshake is a symbol in society that conveys many different meanings—and everyone in society pretty much acts toward this symbol in agreed-upon ways. Symbolic interactionism is a micro-level theory of society, which focuses on interactions between individuals. Therefore, even if the interaction between the media and Planned Parenthood neatly conveyed something symbolic, it still could not be an example of symbolic interactionism because these are two social structures, which is a macro-level view of society (choice D is wrong).

The standard potential for the reaction K+ + e- K(s) equals -2.93 V, as referenced against 2H+ + 2e- H2(set to 0.0 V by definition). If solid potassium is placed into an aqueous solution of HCl, then: A. H2(g) and KCl(aq) are produced. B. Cl2(g) and KCl(aq) are produced. C. Cl2(g), H2(g), and KCl(aq) are produced. D. no reaction occurs.

A. Since the reduction of K+ as given in the question has a potential more negative than the reduction of H+, the oxidation of K(s) to K+ with transfer of electrons to H+ will have a positive potential and be spontaneous. This eliminates choice D. Hydrochloric acid (HCl, a strong acid) will dissociate nearly completely in water into H+ and Cl-. In the presence of a reducing agent (K), H+ ions can accept electrons and be reduced to H2, and K+ and Cl- will remain in solution. Since there is no oxidant which can accept the extra electron from Cl-, Cl2 will not be formed, eliminating choices B and C.

Addition of which of the following to a 100 mL solution of aqueous HI at pH = 1 would result in a new solution with a pH closest to 7? A. 230 mg of solid Na B. 100 mL of a 1 M solution of Ni(NO3)2 C. 420 mg of solid NaF D. 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution suspension of Zn

A. The H+ in the HI solution can be eliminated electrochemically or through an acid base reaction to achieve a pH = 7. Neither the Ni2+ nor the Zn0 in choices B and D, respectively, have the capacity to reduce H+. Such a reaction with Zn0 has a negative voltage, and Ni2+ is simply not reductive. The NaF (MW = 42) in choice C does have the capacity to neutralize H+ after dissociating into Na+ and F-, and 420 mg of the compound does represent the correct 0.01 moles of compound needed to neutralize the 0.01 moles of acid in 100 mL of a 1 M solution. However, this constitutes adding a weak base to a strong acid, and will hence have a residual pH somewhere below 7. 230 mg of solid Na is 0.01 moles of Na. Since the reaction 2Na + 2H+ → H2 + 2Na+ is clearly electrochemically spontaneous, all of the H+ will be neutralized, leaving only a spectator ion in Na+. This makes choice A correct.

The amphoteric character of amino acids best explains their ability to: A. form dipolar ions. B. form peptide bonds. C. contribute directly to a protein's secondary structure. D. dissolve in nonpolar solvents

A. The amphoteric character of amino acids describes their ability to do two things: accept a proton or donate a proton. In other words, amino acids can act as either an acid or a base. When the amino portion of an amino acid deprotonates its own carboxylic acid, a dipolar ion (or zwitterion) forms. This is a direct result of the amphoteric character of the amino acid.

The degradation of connective tissue components in emphysema is most likely caused by which of the following? A. Proteases B. Lipases C. Monoanime oxidases D. Glycoside hydrolases

A. The connective tissue components damaged in emphysema include collagen and elastin, which are extracellular proteins. Choice A is correct. Therefore, proteases released from the alveolar macrophages would be the culprits. Lipases degrade lipids (choice B can be eliminated), monoanime oxidases degrade certain neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and epinephrine (choice C can be eliminated), and glycoside hydrolases degrade carbohydrates (choice D can be eliminated).

Security personnel trained a dog to growl whenever a person appeared on the other side of a car lot fence by using a live cat as the unconditioned stimulus. After several trials, the dog growled every time that a person approached the fence, even without the cat. At that point, use of the live cat was discontinued. After several weeks, the dog ceased to growl at the sight of a person nearing the fence. The owner took the dog to his home as a house pet for several weeks and then brought the dog back to the lot. Which of the following behaviors should the owner now expect from the dog? A. The dog will growl at the next person who approaches the fence. B. The dog will no longer growl, even at the sight of a live cat. C. The dog will growl continuously until an electric shock is administered. D. The dog will run away from the next person who approaches the fence.

A. This question addresses the classical conditioning theory of spontaneous recovery, which becomes relevant after the process of extinction has occurred. In extinction, the conditioned stimulus is presented consistently without the unconditioned stimulus, and, eventually, the conditioned stimulus loses its excitatory power. However, if, after a delay wherein the conditioned stimulus is not presented either, the conditioned stimulus is presented again, it will elicit the conditioned response. In the case described in the question stem, the live cat is the unconditioned stimulus, the sight of a person approaching the fence is the conditioned stimulus, and growling at the approaching person is the conditioned response. The passage indicates that extinction has occurred when it states that use of the live cat was discontinued and the dog ceased to produce the conditioned response of growling. A delay is implied by the owner's taking the dog to his home. After the dog is brought back to the lot, according to the principle of spontaneous recovery, the dog should produce the conditioned response (growling) when next presented with the conditioned stimulus (a person approaching the fence; choice A is correct). There is no principle of classical conditioning that posits that, given the scenario in the question stem, the unconditioned stimulus (cat) will lose its excitatory value (choice B is wrong) or that the conditioned stimulus will produce a new response (choice D is wrong). The use of an electric shock to stop growling behavior would constitute a positive punishment, which is an operant (not classical) conditioning principle (choice C is wrong).

2-Fluoro-2-deoxy glucose (shown below as the β-anomer) exists as an equilibrium mixture of α- and β-anomers that are interconverted by mutarotation via the open-chain form. Which of the following statements is true regarding the concentrations of the open-chain forms of glucose and 2-fluoro-2-deoxy glucose in 0.1 M aqueous solutions? A. The concentration of the open-chain form is greater for glucose because the fluorine atom destabilizes the aldehyde. B. The concentration of the open-chain form is lower for glucose because the fluorine atom stabilizes the hemiacetal. C. The concentrations of open-chain forms cannot be determined because they are transition states of mutarotation. D. The concentrations will be the same because both fluorine and oxygen are electronegative atoms.

A. While both fluorine and oxygen have greater electronegativity than carbon, the electronegativity of fluorine is significantly greater than that of oxygen. The chemical properties of a molecule are therefore modified by replacing an oxygen atom with a fluorine atom (eliminate choice D). The open-chain forms of sugars are not transition states, but intermediates in the mutarotation process (eliminate choice C). The carbon atoms of hemiacetals have partial positive charges due to the electron withdrawing effects of two bound oxygen atoms via induction. The greater electronegativity of the fluorine substituent increases the positive charge on the adjacent carbon, which destabilizes the hemiacetal. Choice B can thus be eliminated without evaluating the first part of the statement. Choice A is correct because the carbon atoms of aldehydes have a greater partial positive charge than hemiacetals due to electron withdrawal by the double-bonded oxygen atom via induction and resonance. The increase in partial positive charge on the adjacent carbon due to the presence of the fluorine destabilizes the aldehyde, which reduces the concentration of the open-chain form of 2-fluoro-2-deoxy glucose relative to glucose.

Serotonin

Affects mood(emotions), hunger, sleep, and arousal

usually insoluble

Ag+ Pb2+ Pb4+ Hg22+ Hg2+ CO32- PO43- in cell, hydrophilic S2-

In a laboratory population of Drosophila, all the males are XsY. Among the females, 15% are XiXi, 50% are XiXs, and 35% are XsXs. Assuming random mating, what proportion of male flies in the next generation will be XiY? A 12% B 30% C 40% D 65%

All the males in the next generation will acquire a Y chromosome from their male parent, so the contribution of the male can be ignored in solving this problem. All the XiXi females will have XiY sons, so 15% of the XiY flies in the next generation will come from this type of female. Half of the sons the XiXs females produce will be XiY. Since XiXs females make up 50% of the population, 25% of the males in the next generation will come from this type of female. None of the sons of XsXs females will be XiY. The total number of male flies that are XiY is 40%; therefore, answer choice C is correct.

stages of sleep

Alpha: awake but relaxing with eyes closed -Waves slower than beta waves Beta: high frequency and occur when person is alert or attending mental task that requires concentration Stage 1 Theta: Dozing off; slower frequencies and higher voltages Stage 2 shows theta waves along with sleep spindles and K complexes Stage 3 and 4 Delta: low frequency, high voltage sleep wave; becomes difficult to rouse someone from sleep

feeling of social disconnection

Anomie Associated with the functionalist theoretical paradigm in sociology, the concept of anomie describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak. Without attachment to society, people will experience purposelessness and aimlessness. Periods of rapid social change are often associated with anomie.

Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) transfers a phosphate group to ADP in a spontaneous reaction, and ATP transfers a phosphate group to glucose in a spontaneous reaction, both under standard conditions. Based on this information, what is the relationship between the absolute values of the standard free energies of hydrolysis of PEP, ATP, and glucose 6-phosphate (G6P)? A PEP > ATP > G6P B G6P > ATP > PEP C ATP > G6P > PEP D PEP > G6P > ATP

Answer Key: A This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer is A because the molecule with the most negative standard free energy of hydrolysis is also the molecule that is able to spontaneously transfer a phosphate group to create phosphorylated compounds of lower free energy. Therefore, if ATP can spontaneously transfer phosphate to glucose and PEP can spontaneously transfer phosphate to ADP, then PEP has the most negative standard free energy of hydrolysis followed by ATP. The absolute value of the most negative number is the largest value. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must use the scientific model of phosphate transfer to make a claim about free energy of hydrolysis.

A study uses the receipt of government assistance to indicate socioeconomic status. Which of the following reflects the main methodological issue that is raised by using this measure? A Validity B Reliability ?? C Generalizability D Reproducibility

Answer Key: A This is a Sociology question that draws on knowledge of socioeconomic status from the "Social inequality" content category. Socioeconomic status is typically defined as consisting of income (or wealth), educational attainment, and/or occupational status. Validity refers to the extent to which a measure reflects the phenomenon being studied. Although receiving government assistance (such as unemployment benefits or other forms of social welfare) could be a possible proxy indicator for income, it does not provide a direct measure of income. Thus, government assistance as a measure of socioeconomic status raises the issue of validity, since there are other available measures that would more directly assess the construct. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you are asked to consider which methodological issue is most important when evaluating the hypothetical study presented in the question. reliability is the consistency of results Reliability is about the consistency of a measure, and validity is about the accuracy of a measure.

A study is conducted in which researchers observe how physicians deal with role strain when treating patients with terminal illnesses. This study is best described as following which type of research design? A Ethnographic B Comparative C Experimental D Cross-sectional

Answer Key: A This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Social interactions." The answer to this question is option A. The question describes the observation of role strain (stress experienced from contradictory demands of the same social role) in physicians treating patients with terminal illnesses. This scenario refers to ethnographic research, which involves observing social interactions in real social settings. Studying the experience of role strain through observation can increase our understanding of how physicians cope with the challenging demands of extending life with interventions while accepting the reality of death. The question requires Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research because it asks you to select the research design that is most applicable to the hypothetical study described in the question.

An unknown solid weighs 31.6 N. When submerged in water, its apparent weight is 19.8 N. What is the specific gravity of the unknown sample? A 2.96 B 2.68 C 2.02 D 1.68

Answer Key: B The buoyant force on the solid is the difference between its weight (31.6 N) and its apparent weight in water (19.8 N). This force equals the weight of the water displaced, which, in turn, equals the product of the volume of the solid and the density of water. The specific gravity of the solid, i.e., the ratio of its weight to the weight of an equal volume of water, is then: 31.6/(31.6 -19.8) = 2.68. The correct answer is B.

Consider an organism that has three pairs of chromosomes, AaBbCc, in its diploid cells. How many genotypically different kinds of haploid cells can it produce? A 4 B 8 C 16 D 32

Answer Key: B The number of different possible gametes that can be formed by diploid organisms as a result of independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis can be calculated using the formula 2n where n is the haploid number of chromosomes. In this case, the haploid number is 3, making the number of different haploid cells 23, or 8. Thus, B is the best answer.

The following reaction occurs spontaneously.Cd(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + H2(g) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity? A Cd(s) B H+(aq) C Cd2+(aq) D H2(g)

Answer Key: B The reaction equation shows the reduction of H+ by Cd. Because the H+ accepts the electron readily from Cd, it can be determined that H+ has the highest electron affinity.

A rat in a shuttle box is presented with a tone followed by an electric shock. It can jump over the barrier to the other side of the shuttle box where no shock is delivered. This procedure is repeated over a number of trials. The rat will be conditioned through which type of reinforcement? A Positive reinforcement B Negative reinforcement C Positive punishment D Negative punishment

Answer Key: B This is a Psychology question that falls under content category "Attitude and behavior change." The answer to this question is B because when a response results in escape from an aversive stimulus, it is an example of negative reinforcement. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowing the definition of negative reinforcement.

A heterotrimeric protein consists of three subunits with molecular weights of 10 kDa, 40 kDa, and 100 kDa. The protein is denatured with 3 M urea and subjected to size-exclusion chromatography. Which solute is the last compound to elute from the column? A The 10-kDa subunit B The 40-kDa subunit C The 100-kDa subunit D The urea

Answer Key: D This Biochemistry questions falls under the content category "Separation and purification methods." The answer is D because a size-exclusion column allows larger molecules to pass more freely through the column matrix and hinders the passage of smaller molecules. Urea is this smallest solute and would be the last to elute. This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you are asked to apply knowledge about the design of an experiment to draw a conclusion about its outcome.

Which prediction related to adolescent behavior is most consistent with labeling theory? A Adolescents will frequently conform to the attitudes of their peers. B Adolescents will be stigmatized regardless of their individual behaviors. C Adolescents' risky behaviors will be due to immature cognitive abilities. D Adolescents' attitudes will generally be inconsistent with their behaviors.

Answer Key: B This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Social processes that influence human behavior." The answer to this question is option B because it best applies labeling theory to the example of adolescent behavior. Labeling theory is a perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of specific behavior. Adolescents are often subject to stigmatizing labels, leading to perceptions that may not match behavior. Labeling theory calls attention to the power that stereotypes can have in determining how individuals are perceived. The question involves Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving because you are asked to select the prediction about a social group that is consistent with a sociological theory.

In horses, the genes for red coat color and for white coat color are codominant. Heterozygous horses have roan-colored coats. Consider a roan-colored colt that has a white mother. What could be said about the coat color of the colt's father? A It must be red. B It must be roan. C It could be either red or roan. D It could be either red or white.

Answer Key: C In horses, the genes for red coat color and white coat color are codominant. Heterozygous horses have roan-colored coats. If a roan-colored colt (CRCW) has a white mother (CWCW), the father's coat must be either roan (CRCW) or red (CRCR). The mother could only give the white color gene, so the father must have given the red. For the father to give the red color gene, he would have to carry one or two copies of it, meaning he must be either red or roan, respectively. Thus, C is the best answer.

cell potential (Ecell)

Answer Key: C In order for an oxidation-reduction reaction to proceed spontaneously, the cell potential Ecell° for the net reaction must be positive. The cell potential Ecell° can be found by subtracting the standard reduction potential Ered° for the substance being oxidized from that of the substance being reduced. The question asks which metals can reduce copper ions. This means that the metals in question are oxidized. The difference in standard reduction potentials Ecell° from the table is positive for lead and zinc but negative for silver. Thus, the correct answer is C. THE WHOLE POINT OF THIS IS TO FIGURE OUT IF galvanic/electrolytic cell reactions are SPONTANEOUS OR NOT> MUST BE POSITIVE FOR SPON REACTIONS SINCE G=-nFEcell

An object with 15 grams mass is immersed in benzene and suffers an apparent loss of mass of 5 grams. What is the approximate specific gravity of the object? (Data: Specific gravity of benzene = 0.7.) A 1.4 B 1.8 C 2.1 D 3.0

Answer Key: C The buoyant force on an object immersed in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object (Archimedes' principle). There were 5 g of liquid displaced; thus, the ratio of object mass to fluid mass is 15/5 = 3. The specific gravity of the object (mass per unit volume compared with water) is three times the specific gravity of benzene (3 x 0.7 = 2.1) because the volumes of object and displaced liquid are equal.

Suppose that in a randomly mating population of mammals, 160 of its 1,000 members exhibit a specific recessive trait that does not affect viability of the individual. How many individuals in this population are heterozygous carriers of the gene that causes this trait? A 160 B 400 C 480 D 600

Answer Key: C The number of individuals carrying the described trait is 480. The gene frequency of the recessive trait, q, can be ascertained by taking the square root of 16/100 or 0.4. Given this frequency, the frequency of p must be 1.0 - 0.4 = 0.6. According to the Hardy-Weinberg law, the frequency of carriers is thus given by 2 pq or 2 X .4 X .6 = .48 or 48%. 48% of 1000 = 480. Thus, answer choice C is the correct answer.

Specific activity is a measure of: A the total units of an enzyme in a solution. B the amount of substrate converted to product in one minute. C the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in a solution. D the concentration of enzyme that results in a particular rate of catalysis.

Answer Key: C This Biochemistry questions falls under the content category "Separation and purification methods." The answer is C because the activity is a measure of the amount of enzyme per milligram of total protein. This provides a measure of the purity of an enzymatic mixture. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you are asked to recall a concept from a quantitative assay of enzyme kinetics.

A student plans to add HCl to a solution containing Pb(NO3)2(aq). To determine how much Pb2+ will precipitate from solution when the HCl is added, the student needs to know which of the following? A Ka for HCl B Ka for HNO3 C Ksp for PbCl2 D Keq for the reaction Pb2+ + 2 e- Pb

Answer Key: C To determine how much Pb2+ will precipitate, the student must know the solubility of PbCl2, which is related to the solubility product constant Ksp of PbCl2. Thus, C is the best answer.

A glass fiber carries a light digital signal long distances with a minimum loss of amplitude. What optical property of glass allows this phenomenon? A Dispersion B Refraction C Reflection D Diffraction

Answer Key: C. Light can be carried along a distance within a transparent material by means of total internal reflection. Thus, C is the best answer. Fiber optics relies on total internal reflection. It uses a material that ensures the critical angle is very very small, so light would have to hit the inside of the cable at just about a 90 degree angle to be REFRACTED out of it. Any angle smaller than this and the light will be REFLECTED and remain bouncing around inside the cable. Thus the signal is not lost.

Electric power for transmission over long distances is "stepped up" to a very high voltage in order: A to produce currents of higher density. B to produce higher currents in the transmission wires. C to make less insulation necessary. D to cut down the heat loss in the transmission wires.

Answer Key: D Power transmitted to a load at the user's end of an electrical line is the product of the current I times the voltage V at the user's end. The power company has the option of using a low voltage or a high voltage for a given amount of power delivered. Using Ohm's law (I = V/R), the power delivered can also be written as P = V2/R. The power lost in the transmission line is I2R. Since the resistance R is fixed by the material and dimensions of the line, we see that using a high voltage at a lower current maximizes the power to the user and minimizes the heat loss in the transmission line, choice D.

The chemical valinomycin inserts into membranes and causes the movement of K+ into the mitochondria. Based on Figure 1, if mitochondria are treated with valinomycin, the rate of ATP synthesis in the mitochondria will most likely: A decrease, because the K+ will compete with protons at the active site on ATP synthetase. B decrease, because movement of K+ into the mitochondrial compartments will disrupt proton movement into the intermembrane space. C increase, because the net positive charge in the mitochondria will cause increased movement of protons into the intermembrane space. D increase, because the additional positive charge will further activate ATP synthetase.

Any disruption of mitochondria is likely to decrease ATP production since they are a major cellular source of that molecule. Answer choices C and D can not be right because they propose an increase in ATP production. There is no information in the question to suggest that valinomycin will cause K+ to compete with H+ for an active site on ATP synthetase. Furthermore, one would suspect that ATP or precursor molecules such as phosphate and ADP would occupy the active site on the ATP synthase molecule. Answer choice A, therefore, does not seem plausible. The question does provide the information that valinomycin increases the flow of K+ across the membrane. An influx of another positively charged ion into the compartment would disrupt the electrochemical gradient responsible for the necessary flow of protons. Answer B, therefore, seems more plausible than any other choice.

Isotopes

Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons DUH if protons don't change then atom doesn't either

perspective theories

BIG Five Psychoanalytics Behaviorist Humanist Social Cognitive-observable

ExperimentIn a first trial, hydrogen peroxide was titrated with potassium permanganate in the absence of catalase. In a second trial, hydrogen peroxide was again titrated with potassium permanganate after the addition of catalase. The following observations were made. Finding 1: 28 mL of potassium permanganate was required to titrate 5 mL of 0.005 M hydrogen peroxide to water. Finding 2: Three minutes after the addition of catalase, the amount of potassium permanganate required for titration was one-third of the amount required in the absence of catalase. Finding 3: Data obtained for the first fifteen minutes following addition of catalase indicated a nearly constant rate of hydrogen peroxide decomposition, evidenced by a decline in the amount of permanganate required for titration. Extreme high temperature would have which of the following effects on the second trial? A. It would increase the required amount of potassium permanganate to approximately 18 mL. B. It would increase the required amount of potassium permanganate to approximately 28 mL. C. It would maintain the required amount of potassium permanganate at approximately 9 mL. D. It would reduce the required amount of potassium permanganate to approximately 1 mL.

B. Although enzyme activity normally increases with increasing temperature, extreme high temperature denatures the enzyme and renders it inactive. Twenty-eight milliliters of potassium permanganate were required to titrate the hydrogen peroxide in the absence of enzyme (Finding 1). With catalase rendered inactive by extreme high temperature, the reaction vessel would be functionally devoid of enzyme. As in the first trial, 28 mL of potassium permanganate solution would be required to titrate the hydrogen peroxide (choice B is correct and choices A, C and D are eliminated).

If the absolute pressure of a gas is increased from 3 atm to 4 atm at constant volume, then the absolute temperature of the gas will increase by: A. 25%. B. 33%. C. 67%. D. 75%

B. Assuming the validity of the Ideal-Gas law, PV = nRT, an increase in pressure by a factor of 4/3 at constant volume will result in an increase in temperature by the same factor (since P is proportional to T if V and n are constant). Multiplying the temperature by 4/3 = 133% implies an increase by 33%

How many grams of NaI should be added to 500 mL of a saturated solution of AgI to make a solution that is 1.5 x 10-15 M Ag+? A. 9.0 g B. 4.5 g C. 0.06 g D. 0.03 g

B. Figure 1 indicates that when [AgI] = 1.5 x 10-15 M, the concentration of NaI = 0.06 M. In 500 mL (0.5 L), this solution should contain 0.030 mol NaI. Since the molar mass of NaI is 150 g/mol, this amounts to 4.5 g of NaI.

Which of the following would be true about cis-oleic acid, a monounsaturated fatty acid with the formula CH3(CH2)7(CH)2(CH2)7COOH? A. It will generate approximately 119 ATP after 9 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. B. It will generate approximately 119 ATP after 8 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. C. It will generate 90 ATP after 9 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. D. It will generate 90 ATP after 8 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain.

B. Recognize the ability to treat this question as a 2x2 elimination. cis-Oleic acid has 18 carbons and thus will undergo 8 rounds of β-oxidation (eliminate choices A and C). This will generate 9 molecules of acetyl-CoA, 8 molecules of NADH and 7 molecules of FADH2 since it is a monounsaturated fatty acid. Each of the 9 acetyl-CoAs will go through the Krebs cycle and this will generate 27 NADH (which will give 67.5 ATP), 9 FADH2 (which will give 13.5 ATP) and 9 GTPs (9 ATP equivalents). This means the acetyl-CoAs alone generate 90 ATP equivalents. Since the NADH and FADH2 made in β-oxidation will generate even more ATP, the total will exceed 90 (eliminate choice D and choice B is correct). The 8 molecules of NADH made in β-oxidation will lead to 20 ATP and the 7 FADH2 will give 10.5. Also remember that fatty acid activation (which must occur before β-oxidation) costs the cell two high energy bonds, or ATP equivalents. This means the electron carriers made in β-oxidation will give a net yield of 28.5 ATP. Overall then, cis-oleic acid will generate 118.5 ATP molecules.

A Q-switched laser can be used to treat skin blemishes and to remove tattoos. The Q switch momentarily interrupts the inducing light creating a build-up of energy within the crystal. This does not increase the overall energy of the laser, but concentrates it into shorter time periods or pulses. A longer interruption with the Q-switch most likely would increase the: A. total amount of work done by the laser. B. power of each laser pulse. C. wavelength of the laser light. D. frequency of the laser light.

B. Since the overall energy of the laser does not change, neither will the frequency, wavelength, nor work done by the laser. This leaves choice B: Concentrating the energy into a shorter time period increases the power of each pulse (since power equals energy delivered per unit time, by definition). E=hf

Stearic acid (or octadecanoic acid) is a saturated fatty acid with the formula CH3(CH2)16COOH After undergoing β-oxidation, it will generate: A. 9 acetyl-CoA, 9 NADH and 9 FADH2. B. 9 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2. C. 8 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2. D. 8 acetyl-CoA, 7 NADH and 7 FADH2.

B. Stearic acid has 18 carbons and so will undergo 8 rounds of β-oxidation. This will generate 9 molecules of acetyl-CoA (eliminate choices C and D), 8 molecules of NADH and 8 molecules of FADH2 (choice B is correct, eliminate choice A).

99mTc has a half-life of about 6 hours, emitting 140 keV gamma rays as it decays to 99Tc, a beta emitter with a half-life of 211,000 years. Which of the following is NOT a good justification for the use of 99mTc in nuclear medicine? A. Its short half-life limits its negative biological impacts. B. The long half-life of its decay product (99Tc) compared to that isotope's one day "biological half-life" (the time it takes for half of a substance to lose half of its biological potency due to metabolic effects) means that the decay product poses little additional radiation risk. C. Gamma radiation is not ionizing and so poses no medical risk. D. The predictable frequency of the emitted photons simplifies detection and imaging.

C. All forms of nuclear radiation—alpha, beta, and gamma—are ionizing to some extent, so choice C is a false statement and therefore the correct answer. All of the other choices are plausible (and indeed true).

A bacteriologist initiated an E. coli culture from one E. coli cell and hypothesized that some of the progeny in the culture would be genetically different from the original parent cell. Is this hypothesis true? A. Yes; bacteria are capable of undergoing genetic recombination through a variety of mechanisms. B. Yes; bacteria reproduce sexually, and the progeny of any one cell are genetically distinct from the parent cell. C. No; bacteria are asexual organisms, and in the absence of mutation, all progeny of any one cell are genetically identical to the parent cell. D. No; bacteria can reproduce only by meiosis, which ensures preservation of the genome.

C. Bacteria reproduce asexually, by one cell replicating its genome and then splitting into two cells that are genetically identical to the original cell. The only potential sources of genetic variation in bacteria are mutation and the transfer of genetic information through conjugation, transduction, or transformation, none of which are linked to reproduction. In the absence of mutation, all progeny of a cell will be identical to the original cell (choice C is correct). Bacteria only perform recombination under special circumstances such as through the presence of Hfr plasmids that replicate a portion of the bacterial genome to make it transiently diploid (eliminate choice A). There is no indication of a role for Hfr in this case and in a clonal cell line, it could not play a role. Bacteria do not perform the recombination, independent assortment and independent segregation that create genetic diversity in eukaryotes that reproduce sexually (eliminate choice B). They also do not perform meiosis (eliminate choice D).

Eukaryotic cells use reciprocal regulation to make sure β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis do not occur at the same time. This is accomplished by malonyl CoA, which inhibits the carnitine shuttle required to transfer activated fatty acids from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix. Each of the following is a true statement EXCEPT: A. both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in four steps; fatty acid biosynthesis involves elongation, two redox reactions and a dehydration. B. β-oxidation involves the reduction of both FAD and NAD+; fatty acid biosynthesis oxidizes two NADPH (generated by the pentose phosphate pathway) to two NADP+. C. because of this reciprocal regulation, both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in the mitochondrial matrix. D. β-oxidation generates acetyl CoA, while fatty acid biosynthesis uses malonyl CoA, which is made from acetyl CoA by acetyl CoA carboxylase

C. Choices A, B and D are true statements. Choice C is false (and the correct answer); β-oxidation occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in the cytoplasm.

Which of the following best describes the role of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate? A. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and inhibiting phosphofructokinase. B. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating phosphofructokinase and inhibiting hexokinase. C. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating phosphofructokinase and inhibiting fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. D. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating hexokinase and inhibiting fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.

C. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis through phosphofructokinase and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, and has no impact on hexokinase activity (eliminate choices B and D). Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate stimulates phosphofructokinase, which is used in glycolysis, and inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which is used in gluconeogenesis (choice C is correct and eliminate choice D).

Tryptophan, an essential amino acid found in banana, turkey, and milk proteins, can induce sleep in some people. Warm milk causes greater sleepiness than cold milk because heating the milk: A. reduces the solubility of tryptophan in the milk. B. causes hydrolysis of lactose, releasing tryptophan. C. releases free tryptophan from proteins, causing more rapid intestinal absorption. D. increases the rate of absorption of tryptophan by the stomach

C. If heating the milk reduced tryptophan solubility, this would decrease, not increase the sleep-inducing properties of milk (eliminate choice A). Lactose is a disaccharide, not a protein, and its hydrolysis cannot release an amino acid (eliminate choice B). Amino acids, like most nutrients, are absorbed in the small intestine mostly, not the stomach (eliminate choice D). Although heating the milk does not create more tryptophan, it might help to hydrolyze some of the milk proteins and release tryptophan so it can be absorbed more rapidly after ingestion and cause greater sleepiness (choice C is correct).

Which of the following statements best supports why two equivalents of hydroxide are used in the basic hydrolysis of dichorine monoxide in Reaction 1? A. The second hydroxide is necessary to neutralize the HCl produced in situ during the course of the reaction. B. Adding a second equivalent of hydroxide will double the rate of reaction. C. Adding only one equivalent will lead to the formation of a buffer solution of hypochlorous acid and its conjugate base, and therefore an incomplete reaction. D. Chlorine in the +1 oxidation state is highly reactive, and only stable in highly basic environments.

C. In Reaction 1, chlorine is in the +1 oxidation state throughout, and there is no redox reaction available to take it to the -1 state it would require to form HCl (eliminate choice A). Choice B is a true statement only if the hydroxide ion is part of the overall rate law for the reaction and is first order in hydroxide. Regardless, this statement doesn't address the exact stoichiometric amount in question (eliminate choice B). Choice D is false because Cl+ should find no problem with an acidic environment where the most active species is H+. One equivalent of hydroxide will hydrolyze the dichlorine monoxide as follows: Cl2O + OH- HOCl + OCl-. Since this reaction forms a weak acid and its conjugate base in equal amounts, a buffer solution is produced. When the second equivalent of OH- is added, it will undergo another acid/base reaction to deprotonate the hypochlorous acid to the hypochlorite ion, giving the products in Reaction 1 of the passage.

There are multiple sociological perspectives on deviance. Which of the theorists below are expected to consider the associated questions about non-normative behaviors? I. Differential association theorists; "How can people resist deviance?" II. Labeling theorists; "Who defines deviance?" II. Structural strain theorists; "How do norms affect deviance?"

C. Item I is false: differential association theorists argue that deviant behaviors are learned through interactions between individuals and their communities. These theorists contend that people become deviant when they are exposed to deviant behavior and attitudes. "How can people resist deviance?" is therefore not a pertinent question (choices B and D can be eliminated). The main criticism of differential association is that it essentially reduces individuals to their environments. Because it states that those in deviant communities learn to be deviant themselves, the possibility of resistance is not contemplated. Item II is true: labeling theory asserts that behaviors are seen as deviant as the result of social processes of labeling. "Who defines deviance" is therefore a pertinent question (choice A can be eliminated). Labeling theorists do indeed address this concern; for example, these theorists are interested in the mechanisms through which power contributes to deviance labeling (e.g., agents of social control). Item III is true: structural strain theory suggests that deviant behaviors are the result of tension between the accepted social goals and the institutionalized means available to achieve those goals. "How do norms affect deviance?" is therefore a pertinent question (choice C is correct). Structural strain theorists consider the effects that social norms have on behavior, normative or not, and suggest that there is pressure to use deviant methods when the social structure does not support the achievement of the accepted goals.

Which of the following would be the most effective method to determine if transcription of a gene had been silenced? A. DNA fingerprinting B. ELISA C. RT-PCR D. DNA sequencin

C. RT-PCR uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA from mRNA. The cDNA can then amplified, and then tested for. This is the only method listed that can be used to test for the presence of mRNA and determine if transcription of the gene is occurring or not (choice C is correct). Both DNA Fingerprinting and DNA Sequencing are methods used to analyze DNA sequences; this does not provide information about transcription (choices A and D can be eliminated). While ELISA could be used to test for the presence of a protein product, it would not be the best test to use in this situation (choice B is incorrect). The absence of a protein could be due to a variety of reasons, including problems with translation, protein degradation, etc. Thus, RT-PCR would be a better method to specifically test for gene expression (i.e., transcription).

Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and appetite is maintained by the: A hypothalamus, cerebrum, and brain stem, respectively. B brain stem, hypothalamus, and cerebrum, respectively. C cerebellum, hypothalamus, and brain stem, respectively. D brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus, respectively.

Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and appetite is maintained by the brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus, respectively.

In a male individual with Down's Syndrome (trisomy 21), how many chromosomes would be visible at metaphase I of spermatogenesis? A. 23 B. 24 C. 46 D. 47

D. An individual with trisomy 21 has an extra copy of chromosome 21 (three total copies). During metaphase I, the developing gametes are still diploid (separation of homologues has not yet occurred), so this individual would have the normal 46 chromosomes plus the extra copy of chromosome 21, for a total of 47 chromosomes (choice D is correct; eliminate choices A, B and C).

According to the passage, which of the following best describes what happens to circularly polarized light as it travels through a protein sample? A. The speed of the light in the sample is faster than it was in vacuum. B. The frequency of the light is less than what it was in vacuum. C. It becomes unpolarized. D. The magnitude of its electric field is reduced.

D. As light passes through the sample, some of the light is absorbed. As a result, the remaining energy in the light is reduced. Since the energy in a wave is related to its intensity, the light's intensity is also reduced. I ∝ E2, so the light's electric field magnitude is reduced, which corresponds do choice D. The speed of light in or near the visible spectrum in a medium will always be less than or equal to the speed of light in vacuum, which eliminates choice A. When a wave changes medium, the frequency remains constant, which eliminates choice B. The passage does not discuss any change to the polarization of light as it passes through the sample (just different absorbances for the differently polarized incident light), so there is no support in the passage for choice C.

Which one of the following plots best illustrates the pH of an acidic buffer solution as it is diluted with H2O?

D. As stated in the passage, the pH of a buffer solution depends on the ratio of the concentrations of acid to base, and not their absolute quantities. Therefore, the dilution of the buffer solution should not affect the pH, as shown in choice D.

Based on Figure 1, which of the following is least supported? A. The OCA2 proteins in the eight species studies would be considered homologous. B. The OCA2 protein is conserved across eukaryotes. C. Zebrafish and Japanese killifish have a OCA2 common ancestor protein which is more related that that between horse and human. D. Humans and chimpanzees are more closely related than fission yeast and the wild boar

D. Homologous proteins or genes are those that have evolved from a common ancestor. This matches the information in Figure 1, since the OCA2 protein in all organisms on the figure originated with the ancestor protein represented by the point at the bottom (choice A is supported and can be eliminated). The eight organisms on the figure are all eukaryotes and from diverse families (fungi, mammals, fish; choice B is supported and can be eliminated). Remember that yeast are fungi and therefore eukaryotic. OCA2 in zebrafish and Japanese killifish share a common ancestor which is not far away in evolutionary terms (i.e., is not very far down the diagram). In contrast, the common ancestor protein between human and horse OCA2 protein is the point at the bottom of the diagram; this is farther away in evolutionary terms (choice C is supported and can be eliminated). While choice D may be true based on logic and background information on evolution, it is not supported by Figure 1; this phylogenetic tree contains information on how the OCA2 proteins are evolutionarily related, not how organisms are related (choice D is the least supported and the correct answer choice).

Thirteen amino acids, including methionine, valine and proline, are glucogenic in humans. This means their α-keto acid carbon skeleton is converted to pyruvate during amino acid catabolism. After deamination, valine can therefore: I. Be converted into CO2 and H2O to generate ATP. II. Generate at least three NADH and two FADH2. III. Enter gluconeogenesis to generate glucose.

D. Item I is true: Amino acids are catabolized via deamination into α-keto acids and ammonia. Based on the information in the question stem, the α-keto acid formed from valine will be converted to pyruvate. Pyruvate can keep going through cellular respiration to generate CO2, H2O and ATP. Eliminate choice B. Item II is false: Pyruvate is converted into one acetyl-CoA (during which 1 NADH is made), and the acetyl-CoA would then generate three NADH and only one FADH2 as it cycles through the Krebs cycle. Eliminate choice C. Item III is true: Pyruvate can also enter gluconeogenesis to generate glucose. Eliminate choice A and choice D is correct.

The serotonin transporter (or SERT) removes serotonin from the synaptic cleft and recycles it back into the presynaptic cell. It thus terminates the effects of serotonin and this mechanism has been targeted in treatments for alcoholism, clinical depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and hypertension. SERT spans the plasma membrane 12 times and is also a: A. glycosylated phospholipid, with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. B. peptide chain with at least four levels of protein structure, held together by disulphide and peptide bonds. C. protein with twelve hydrophobic domains, none of which contain the amino acid proline and at least some of which contain -sheets stabilized by covalent bonds. D. protein with twelve transmembrane domains, each of which is an -helix with no proline and external hydrophobic residues, stabilized by hydrogen bonds.

D. Membrane transport is mediated by proteins, not phospholipids (eliminate choice A). All proteins have at least three levels of protein structure, but only some have quaternary structure. There is no information in the question stem to support the fact that SERT contains more than one peptide chain (eliminate choice B). Transmembrane domains are -helices with external hydrophobic residues. They cannot contain proline because of its secondary amine structure. Both -helices and -sheets are stabilized by hydrogen bonds, not covalent bonds (eliminate choice C, choice D is correct).

Socialized medicine is a term used to describe governmental regulation of health care, with this public administration of health services being funded through taxation. This is also often referred to as universal health care. In the United States, there are some socialized insurance programs, such as military medicine. However, despite the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, private companies continue to provide most of the nation's health care. Public opinion has been slow to accept the notion of universal health care, as evidenced by the opposition to presidential reform efforts during the Truman, Clinton, and Obama administrations. This hesitation could be attributed to several factors, such as the public's agreement with conservative critics. and best matches the approach to inequalities described in the theories of: A. Emile Durkheim. B. Karl Marx. C. Ludwig Gumplowicz. D. Max Weber.

D. The theoretical perspective most concerned with social inequalities is conflict theory. Classical sociologists associated with this theory include Karl Marx, Ludwig Gumplowicz, and Max Weber. In contrast, Emile Durkheim is more associated with structural functionalism, which is focused on contributions to social stability (choice A is wrong). The persistent opposition to forms of socialized medicine best reflects the theories of Max Weber. Unlike the other theorists, Weber argued that the presence of inequalities would not necessitate the collapse of capitalism. He suggested that responses to inequalities are moderated through additional social factors, such as agreement with authority figures (e.g., public political figures; choice D is correct). The public's persistent opposition challenges the theories of Karl Marx. Marx argued that social inequalities, and subsequent conflict and internal tensions as a result of power differentials, would lead to the rise of socialism. The Marxist perspective then suggests the rise of socialized medicine, as opposed to the continuation of capitalistic private systems (choice B is wrong). Finally, the theories of Ludwig Gumplowicz focus on cultural and ethnic conflicts that are not relevant to the question (choice C is wrong).

If a fully saturated solution of AgI, with precipitate present, were treated with NaCl instead of NaI, which of the following observations is likely? A. As NaCl is added, all precipitates are dissolved into the aqueous solution. B. The decrease in [AgI] is even more drastic than with the addition of NaI in Figure 1. C. There is no change in the amount of undissolved AgI. D. The concentration of [I-] increases.

D. Unlike NaI, NaCl does not have a common ion with AgI and will therefore NOT cause a decrease in the solubility for AgI with increasing concentration (eliminate choice B). The following will act as a competing reaction when [Cl-] concentrations become sufficiently large: Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s) With this in mind, there will be no situations wherein the solution is free of precipitate (eliminate choice A). As the dissolved [NaCl] concentration increases, AgCl will be precipitated from solution, which will enable additional AgI to dissolve (eliminate choice C). The increased dissolution of AgI will cause the increase in [I-], even as [Ag+] levels remain low.

deleterious alleles

Deleterious genes are generally rare because they tend to be eliminated through natural selection. Only when an organism is homozygous (has two copies of a gene, one from each parent) does a recessive gene reveal its presence. Because recessive genes can be masked by dominant genes, they are less exposed to natural selection. So most organisms carry many deleterious recessive genes. The chances of having offspring that are homozygous for a given recessive gene are rare when a mate is chosen randomly from the population. The chances of getting a pair of deleterious recessive genes increase enormously when the mate is a relative, because relatives are likely to have a similar genotype. The answer is therefore choice D. Inbreeding decreases rather than increases genetic diversity (choice A), its effect on aggression is hard to determine (Choice B) and it has no effect on spontaneous mutations (choice C), so these are incorrect choices.

desmosomes vs. gap junctions

Desmosomes are intercellular junctions that function as anchors to form strong sheets of cells. Gap junctions are intercellular junctions that provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells.

The distinction between binge drinking and alcohol dependence in the passage is best described as attributing preventable injuries to which effect of alcohol use? A. Tolerance B. Disinhibition C. Negative reinforcement D. Positive reinforcement

Disinhibition can be defined as the inability to withhold a prepotent response or suppress an inappropriate or unwanted behavior. The solution is B. Tolerance, which refers to a need to increase dosage to obtain the desired previous effect, is not directly relevant to the risky behavior that can result in preventable injuries. The passage states that excessive alcohol use is associated with preventable injuries, which are more often due to binge drinking than to alcohol dependence. Disinhibition is associated with binge drinking and often leads to risk taking, which can lead to preventable injuries. Negative reinforcement refers to the strengthening of a behavior after the response has been followed by the removal of an aversive stimulus. It is not mentioned in the passage as relevant to the risky behavior (more often due to binge drinking than to alcohol dependence) that can result in preventable injuries. Positive reinforcement refers to the strengthening of a behavior after the response has been followed by the delivery of an appetitive stimulus. It is not mentioned in the passage as relevant to the risky behavior (more often due to binge drinking than to alcohol dependence) that can result in preventable injuries.

From the data in Figure 1, one can conclude that the sensitivity of aortic smooth muscle to acetylcholine is: A decreased by the presence of norepinephrine. B increased by the presence of norepinephrine. C increased at least 10 times by the presence of the endothelium. D greatest at 10-8 M, with or without endothelium. The concentration range within which muscle tension is most sensitive to acetylcholine (Figure 1) is: A less than 10-8 M. B near 10-7 M. C greater than 10-6 M. D much wider in the ring without endothelium than in the ring with endothelium.

Figure 1 allows the conclusion that the sensitivity of aortic smooth muscle to ACH is increased at least 10 times in the presence of endothelium. Relaxation occurs in the ring with endothelium at 10-7 M ACH but in the other ring does not occur even with 10-6 M ACH; these concentrations differ by a factor of 10. Both rings show the same response to norepinephrine. There is no response to ACH at 10-8 M with or without endothelium. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer. The relaxation of the intact blood vessel is dramatic at about 10-7 M ACH. The steepness of the curve means slight changes in ACH concentration are producing large changes in muscle tension. Below 10-8 muscle tension is increasing despite ACH. At concentrations above 10-6 muscle tension is fully relaxed and there is no response to ACH. In the blood vessel with endothelium removed muscle tension continues to increase in all ranges of ACH studied suggesting there is no relaxation in response to ACH. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

What are the oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, in the reaction below? 2HCl + H2O2 + MnO2 → O2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O A H2O2; HCl B H2O2; MnO2 C MnO2; HCl D MnO2; H2O2

In the reaction pictured, Mn is reduced from +4 to +2; therefore, MnO2 is the oxidizing agent. O is oxidized from -1 in H2O2 to 0 in O2; therefore, H2O2 is the reducing agent. Thus, D is the best answer.

microglia

Microglia are phagocytotic innate immune cells specific to the brain. The other cells are adaptive immune system cells and require activation by microglia in order to mount an immune response.

Compliance techniques

Norm of Reprocity- the social expectation that favors should be Ingratiation -appeal to person by being overly nice and caring about them foot in door door in face -first large that will be rejected which opens up space for smaller request low ball technique

Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A. Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B. Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C. Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D.

Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus. The solution is D. This statement describes retinal height, which is a monocular depth cue. This statement describes occlusion, which is a monocular depth cue. This statement describes texture gradient, which is a monocular depth cue. Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity, which is a binocular depth cue.

Fatty Acid Biosynthesis

Occurs in liver and the products are transported to adipose tissue for storage Major enzymes: acetyl-CoA carboxylase and fatty acid synthase (stimulated by insulin) Primary end product: palmitic acid (palmitate)

DNA gyrase

Prokaryotic topoisomerase

2 (NH4)2HPO4(s) + H2O(l) <--->4 NH4+(aq) + HPO42-(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) + OH-(aq) In the equilibrium constant expression for Equation 2, [H2O] is omitted because the salt is: A only weakly basic, and [H2O] is nearly constant. B strongly basic, and [H2O] is nearly zero. C only weakly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly constant. D strongly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.

Solution: The correct answer is A. Aqueous acid-base equilibria very often feature water acting as either an acid or a base. It is also the solvent for aqueous systems. In the equilibrium constant expression for such reactions, water is usually omitted. The simplest explanation is that, because it is the solvent, the concentration of water stays essentially constant throughout the reaction. In such a case, that constant could be included in the value of Keq, the equilibrium constant for the reaction. The salt in Equation 2 is the fertilizer (NH4)2HPO4, and the reaction shows that the substance is basic. Only response A includes both of these features. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

What is the best explanation for the fact that a solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic? A NO2- is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH -(aq) ions. B Na+ is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH -(aq) ions. C NaNO2(aq) decreases the Ka of HNO2(aq). D NaNO2(aq) increases the Ka of HNO2(aq).

Solution: The correct answer is A. The NO2- reacts with water, forming OH- ions. Thus, A is the best answer.

The osmotic concentration of plasma proteins in the venous side of capillaries helps reduce the amount of interstitial fluid in tissues by inducing: A passive H2O diffusion along a concentration gradient. B passive ion diffusion along an electrochemical gradient. C facilitated ion transport along an electrochemical gradient. D active H2O transport mediated by an ATP-dependent pump.

Solution: The correct answer is A. The question asks the examinee to identify why the osmotic concentration of plasma proteins on the venous side of capillaries helps reduce the amount of interstitial fluid. A is correct because it is the passive movement of water into the bloodstream that will most directly reduce the amount of interstitial fluid. B and C are incorrect because the effect of the plasma proteins is not to induce either passive or facilitated ion transport. D is incorrect because the water would not move by active transport. Thus, A is the best answer.

The above plot shows how the volume of a 1.0-g sample of Compound 1 in the gaseous state varies with temperature at constant pressure. Where on the graphic would a similar plot of a 1.0-g sample of Compound 2 appear? A Below the plot for Compound 1 B Above the plot for Compound 1 C Precisely on top of the plot for Compound 1 D Intersecting the plot for Compound 1 at its midpoint with an opposite slope.

Solution: The correct answer is A. The volume of a gas depends only on the number of moles of the gas present and not on the identity of the gas. The ideal gas law in the form V = (nR/P) T shows that, at constant pressure, the volume will increase with temperature. Thus, a plot of V vs. T will always have positive slope. The value of the slope depends on the number of moles of gas. Because Compound 2 has a higher molecular weight than does Compound 1, a one-gram sample will contain fewer moles. Thus, a plot of the volume of Compound 2 as a function of temperature will have a smaller slope than that of Compound 1 and will lie below it on a graph, intersecting only at absolute zero. This situation is described by answer choice A.

Study 1 is replicated with split-brain patients. Participants are presented with the target colors only in the left side of their visual field. This procedure would specifically allow the researchers to investigate whether: A. the patients show CP in the absence of access to color names. B. the corpus callosum plays a significant role in color processing. C. the patients show CP in the absence of access to color perception. D. the frontal lobe plays a significant role in the recognition of color.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This Psychology question assesses Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving and falls under the "Individual influences on behavior" content category. The correct answer is A because when a stimulus is presented to the left half of a split-brain patient's visual field, the information will be sent out to the right hemisphere. The right hemisphere of a split-brain patient has no access to the left hemisphere, where linguistic abilities are lateralized. Thus, presenting the target colors to the left half of a split-brain patient's visual field would allow the researchers to determine whether categorical perception occurs even in absence of linguistic information.

Which development from the passage best illustrates an organizational change in the context of child abuse diagnosis and prevention? A. The addition of a pediatric subspecialty in child abuse pediatrics B. The increase in research on child abuse since the influential 1962 article C. The passage of state laws in the 1960s that mandate child abuse reporting D. The continued debate over how to understand the problem of child abuse

Solution: The correct answer is A. This Sociology question assesses Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles related to organizations, which falls under the content category "Social interactions." A is the correct answer, based on the basic definition of an organization as a group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose. The passage identifies the development of the pediatric subspecialty of child abuse pediatrics, which is an example of a change within pediatrics as an organization. The other options address other concepts or themes, including the proliferation of knowledge and social problems (option B), political mobilization and legal change (option C), and cultural continuity in public discourse (option D).

In humans, the lining of which structure is NOT primarily derived from the endoderm? A. Mouth B. Bronchi C. Bladder D. Stomach

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under content category "Processes of cell division, differentiation, and specialization." The answer to this question is A because most of the lining of the mouth is derived from an invagination of ectoderm. Most of the epithelial tissues inside the body (B, C, D) are derived from endoderm. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires the examinee to recall the major structures arising out of primary germ layers.

Which statement best accounts for the hereditary transmission of SDH-linked paraganglioma in a parent specific manner? SDH is: A. an imprinted gene. B. a Y-linked gene. C. an X-linked gene. D. a tumor suppressor gene.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is A because imprinted genes are expressed in a parent-specific manner. B is incorrect because based on the passage both sexes may carry the mutated allele. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowledge of regulation of gene expression.

Which of the following statements gives the most fundamental reason why ornithine is unlikely to be found in proteins synthesized in vivo? A. There is no codon for it in the standard genetic code. B. It cannot form a peptide bond. C. It is not available in the diet. D. It has a net positive charge in aqueous solution.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is A, because without a corresponding codon in the genetic code, an amino acid cannot take part in the process of protein translation from an mRNA transcript. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to work with the scientific model of protein translation to answer this question.

Which measure would be most useful if the researchers were interested in the degree of sympathetic arousal experienced in the different conditions of Study 1? A. A measure of electrical conductivity of the skin B. A CT scan of the hindbrain C. A PET scan of the parietal cortex D. A measure of melatonin levels

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is A because increased electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal, which is associated with anxiety. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires you to demonstrate your understanding of a foundational concept in behavioral science.

In Study 3, participants who viewed a sequence of slides involving a violent car accident remembered more central aspects of the event (for example, a car involved in the accident) and fewer peripheral details (for example, the street). The finding from Study 3 regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism? Increasing emotional arousal: A. causes a restriction of the focus of attention. B. improves memory, but only up to an optimal level of arousal. C. impairs the encoding of peripheral details. D. enhances the retrieval of encoded central details.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is A because emotional arousal seems to focus a person's attention on the central features of an event. The hypothesis (Easterbrook, 1959) that a person will notice information that elicits arousal, but fail to process other information, has been supported by studies in which memory for an (emotional) event's "central" aspects (directly tied to the emotion elicitor) is compared to memory for "peripheral" aspects (removed from the source of the emotional arousal). Thus, memory for the fundamental gist of the emotional event is retained, whereas memory for details (if they are encoded at all) either fades or undergoes changes. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves the evaluation of different arguments regarding cause and effect.

Based on the information presented in the passage, which correlation coefficient provides the best estimate of the association between SES and level of exposure to stress? A. -0.20 B. -0.05 C. +0.15 D. +0.50

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Responding to the world." The answer to this question is A because the passage (last paragraph) implies a negative correlation between socioeconomic position and exposure to stress. The other negative correlation (B) can be ruled out, because it is very weak (and thus not likely to have the kind of disproportionate effect that is discussed in the passage). It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because the question involves understanding the relationship between the data described in the passage and the way those data may be described using a correlation coefficient.

To a first approximation, the ionization constant of H2S is: A Less than zero. B Between zero and one but close to zero. C Between zero and one but close to one. D Greater than one.

Solution: The correct answer is B. H2S was described as being a weak acid. This means that a small fraction of the solute molecule ionize and release protons into solution. The value of the ionization constant is therefore somewhere between 0 and 1, but much closer to 0. As an example, phosphoric acid, among the strongest of the weak acids, has an ionization constant that is approximately 1 x 10^-2, or 0.01. This is much closer to 0 than 1.

What is the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in a solution that is prepared by mixing 10 mL of a 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution with 10 mL of a 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution? A 0.010 mole/L B 0.015 mole/L C 0.020 mole/L D 0.030 mole/L

Solution: The correct answer is B. Since 1 equivalent of NaHCO3 provides 1 equivalent of Na+, the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution is also 0.010 M = 0.010 mole/L. The molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution is 0.020 mol/L since 1 equivalent of Na2CO3 provides 2 equivalents of Na+. When equal volumes of these two solutions are mixed, the resulting molar concentration is equal to their average, (0.010 mol/L + 0.020 mol/L)/2. Thus, B is the correct answer.

The finches observed by Darwin on the Galapagos Islands are an example of adaptive radiation. In order to set up conditions that would produce adaptive radiation, it would be necessary to place members of: A one species in one rapidly changing environment. B one species in several different environments. C several very similar species in the same environment. D several unlike species in one environment to compete for the same resources.

Solution: The correct answer is B. The question refers to the finches of the Galapagos Islands as an example of adaptive radiation and asks the examinee to identify the conditions required for adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiation involves the divergence of one species into multiple species over time, which can occur when subgroups of the original species are separated or isolated in different environments so that these subgroups evolve independently of one another. B is correct because it describes this situation. A is not the best answer because a single rapidly changing environment does not encourage adaptive radiation. Rather, as the environment changes, the species would be more likely to collectively evolve into a single new species adapted to the new environment. C and D are incorrect because adaptive radiation begins with one species, not several, regardless of whether the species are similar (C) or unrelated (D). Thus, B is the best answer.

Based on the passage, the mental functioning of individuals with AS is most compatible with which approach to intelligence? A. Spearman's idea of general intelligence B. Gardner's idea of eight intelligences C. Galton's idea of hereditary genius D. Binet's idea of mental age

Solution: The correct answer is B. This Psychology question assesses Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles and falls under the "Making sense of the environment" content category. The correct answer is B. The passage states that individuals with AS have difficulty understanding emotions and mental states of others but have normal language and cognitive skills. This is compatible with Gardner's suggestion that people have different types of intelligences. Spearman's idea of a general intelligence wouldn't predict that some aspects of intelligence would be impaired by a disorder while others remain intact. To make judgment regarding Galton's idea of hereditary genius, one would need to have a more detailed account of the intelligence history of the participants' families. Binet's idea of mental age does not produce any predictions that might or might not be supported by data on AS individuals.

Introduction of which amino acid substitution would result in the largest decrease in the entropic penalty associated with a protein folding into its native conformation? A. Ile to Asp substitution at a buried site B. Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site C. Gly to Pro substitution in a flexible loop D. Arg to Tyr substitution at a surface-exposed site

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is B because changing a surface-exposed hydrophobic residue for a more hydrophilic residue eliminates the entropic penalty associated with ordered water molecules around hydrophobic groups. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must use the scientific model of the hydrophobic effect to propose a hypothesis about the effect of an amino acid substitution at a particular location in a protein.

A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? A. 5.4 fg only B. 5.4 fg and 5.45 fg C. 5.4 fg and 5.5 fg D. 5.45 fg only

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "The structure, growth, physiology, and genetics of prokaryotes and viruses." The answer to this question is B because DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg (one DNA strand will contain 15N and the other strand 14N). Following the second round of cell division, half of the bacteria will have a genome mass of 5.4 fg (14N exclusively) and the other half a mass genome of 5.45 fg (14N in one DNA strand and 15N in the other). This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you need to work with the scientific model of DNA replication.

An operon containing two genes, cardiac glycoside reductase 1 and 2 (cgr1 and cgr2), was upregulated in E. lenta (strain DSM2243) The Cgr1 and Cgr2 proteins are produced from: A. separate mRNAs transcribed from different promoter sequences upstream of each gene. B. a single mRNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence upstream of the operon. C. a single RNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence and alternately spliced to produce separate mRNAs. D. separate mRNAs translated from a single promoter upstream of the operon.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B because an operon containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires scientific evaluation of the process that produces the Cgr1 and Cgr2 proteins.

How many ppm is 1%? A 100 B 1,000 C 10,000 D 100,000

Solution: The correct answer is C. The abbreviation ppm stands for parts per million (parts). Since 1% is one part in 100 parts, the question becomes 1 is to 100 as × is to 1,000,000, where × is the unknown. For the equality 1/100 = ×/106, × = 104 or 10,000. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer. Alternate solution: The fraction 1/100 can be scaled up to ×/1,000,000 by multiplying both the numerator and denominator by 10 the number of times necessary to increase the denominator to 1,000,000. The multiplication of a fraction by 10/10 = 1 does not change the value of the fraction. The following equalities show the scale-up process: 1/100 = 10/1,000 = 100/10,000 = 1,000/100,000 = 10,000/1,000,000. Thus, 1% = 10,000 ppm, answer choice C.

Assuming that protein synthesis was under way when the radioactive amino acids were added, which of the following best describes how the radioactivity was distributed in one of the first molecules of Protein X that was completely translated? A. Radioactive amino acids were randomly located throughout the molecule. B. Radioactive amino acids were located only at one end of the molecule. C. Radioactive amino acids were located at both ends, but not in the middle, of the molecule. D. Radioactive amino acids were located in the middle, but not at either end, of the molecule.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B because the stem assumes that protein synthesis was under way when the radioactive amino acids were added, inferring that the N-terminal end and probably the middle part of the protein were already synthesized before the addition of the radioactive amino acids. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowledge of the process of protein translation.

Channel X transmits only the smallest substances dissolved in the extracellular fluid through the axon membrane. Which substance does Channel X transmit? A. Proteins B. Sodium ions C. Potassium ions D. Chloride ions

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Atoms, nuclear decay, electronic structure, and atomic chemical behavior." The answer to this question is B because sodium cations are the smallest of the species listed. You can use the periodic table to establish that sodium ions are smaller than either potassium or chloride ions. It is common sense that macromolecular species such as proteins are much larger than monatomic ions. This question requires Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles to arrive at the answer.

Fl3 Pssg 5 The glucose meter measures the current produced during Reaction 2. If 0.67 μmol of electrons were measured, what mass of glucose was present in the sample? (Note: The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol = 180 μg/μmol.) A. 20 μg B. 60 μg C. 90 μg D. 270 μg

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Electrochemistry and electrical circuits and their elements." The answer to this question is B because the stoichiometry of the reaction is 2 mol e- per mole of glucose consumed. The device measured 0.67 (2/3) μmol of electrons, indicating that 0.33 (1/3) μmol of glucose was consumed. This weighs 60 μg, based on its molar mass of 180 g/mol. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must determine and use a scientific formula to solve a problem.

How will the rate of a catalyzed reaction be affected if the solid catalyst is finely ground before it is added to the reaction mixture? A. The rate will be faster because a greater mass of catalyst will be present. B. The rate will be faster because a greater surface area of catalyst will be exposed. C. The rate will be slower because the fine catalyst particles will interfere with product formation. D. The rate will remain the same because the mass of catalyst will be the same.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of chemical thermodynamics and kinetics." The answer to this question is B because grinding a heterogeneous catalyst increases the amount of catalyst available to the reaction and therefore increases its rate. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you are asked to identify the relationship among variables in a study (surface area of catalyst and rate).

The equilibrium BaCrO4(s) Ba2+(aq) + CrO42-(aq) exists in a saturated aqueous solution of BaCrO4. Dissolution of Na2CrO4 in a saturated aqueous BaCrO4 solution would: A. have no effect on the position of this equilibrium. B. shift this equilibrium left. C. shift this equilibrium right. D. shift this equilibrium first right and then left.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Unique nature of water and its solutions." The answer to this question is B because dissolution of Na2CrO4 would introduce the common ion, CrO42-, which would reduce the solubility of BaCrO4 due to the common ion effect. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to use a scientific principle (the common ion effect) to draw a conclusion.

Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely: A. have difficulty falling asleep. B. have more REM sleep than usual. C. have less REM sleep than usual. D. have the same sleep pattern as before the study.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is B because after being REM-deprived the night before, the volunteer is going to exhibit "REM rebound." It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves making a prediction based on your understanding of phenomena related to sleep and the information provided in the question.

Pairs of research participants interacted for 10 min. They rated themselves and their partners on personality traits and then rated the accuracy of their partners' ratings of them. The partners' ratings were rated as more accurate if they were close to participants' own self-ratings. This finding illustrates: A. the self-fulfilling prophecy. B. self-verification. C. the self-serving bias. D. self-efficacy.

Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Self-identity." The answer to this question is B because self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one's self-concept. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because the question involves understanding a basic concept from behavioral science.

Most viral proteins are produced directly by: A translation of host nucleic acid. B translation of viral nucleic acid. C transcription of host nucleic acid. D transcription of viral nucleic acid.

Solution: The correct answer is B. Transcription is copying; translation is changing the language. In cellular metabolism transcription refers to taking DNA and making an RNA copy; translation refers to taking the RNA, a series of nucleotides, and putting it into protein language, a series of amino acids. Some viruses have a genome consisting of RNA and this can be directly translated by the ribosome. Others use DNA as the genetic material and require transcription as well. Both, however, ultimately make proteins by translating their specific RNAs into protein, so the answer is B.

Suppose that CH4(g) reacts completely with O2(g) to form CO2(g) and H2O(g) with a total pressure of 1.2 torr. What is the partial pressure of H2O(g)? A 0.4 torr B 0.6 torr C 0.8 torr D 1.2 torr

Solution: The correct answer is C. The balanced equation for the complete combustion of CH4(g) is shown below. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) The pressure of the gaseous products is 1.2 torr. For every three product molecules, two are water. Therefore, the partial pressure of water is 2/3 the total pressure, because the total pressure is a function of the total number but not kind of molecules. Two-thirds of 1.2 torr is 0.8 torr. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer. Alternate solution: The total pressure is Ptotal = PCO2 + PH2O. Stoichiometrically, the number of moles of CO2 formed is one-half the number of moles of H2O formed. The partial pressure of each gas depends only on the number of moles. Then, PCO2 = (0.5)PH2O, and Ptotal = (0.5)PH2O + PH2O = (1.5)PH2O = 1.2 torr, or PH2O = 0.8 torr. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer

What is the sum of the protons, neutrons, and electrons in strontium-90? A 90 B 126 C 128 D 218

Solution: The correct answer is C. The number of protons in the nucleus of an element is given by the atomic number. In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. The number of neutrons can be found by subtracting the atomic number from the mass number. The atomic number of strontium (Sr) is 38; so the number of neutrons is 90 - 38 = 52. The sum of protons, neutrons, and electrons in strontium is 38 + 38 + 52 = 128. This value is given as answer choice C.

Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? A. More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25. B. The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30. C. Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. D. More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

Solution: The correct answer is C. This Sociology question falls under the content category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is option C because the median splits the sample distribution of values in half. Thus, a median of 25 can be described as half the sample having a BMI over 25 and half having a BMI under 25. The statements in the other options do not correctly describe the sample data in the question. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because you are asked to show an understanding of descriptive statistics by interpreting the mean and median.

Based on information in the passage, which aspect of the research design poses a methodological limitation? A. The reliance upon medical records as a source of data B. The lack of interview data with patients or providers C. The percent from the sample that was excluded from the study D. The number of patients who were included in the study

Solution: The correct answer is C. This Sociology question is covered by "Demographic characteristics and processes" and tests on the Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research. C is the correct answer because the research is potentially weakened by the exclusion of significant numbers of cases (about 10%) from the sample. On the other hand, medical records are a useful source of data for quality research, making A incorrect. Interview data is not required for the purposes of the study, making B incorrect. Finally, the sample of 5,000 subjects is large enough for making reliable conclusions; thus, D is incorrect.

What is the advantage of including a specially trained cultural liaison as opposed to training physicians in cultural competency? A.Communicating across racial and cultural lines is difficult and requires a trained specialist to do it effectively. B.Physicians are inherently resistant to cultural training because of their medical biases. C.Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group. D.Larger groups facilitate the transfer of information more effectively than smaller groups.

Solution: The correct answer is C. This Sociology question uses content in the "Social interactions" category. The correct answer is C. From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered less stable but more intimate. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician-patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician-patient-cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social ties. Because the question assesses your recognition of basic group concepts related to dyads and triads, it is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question

The pH of a 1 L phosphate buffer solution was measured as 7.6, but the experimental procedure calls for a pH 7.2 buffer. Which method will adjust the solution to the proper pH? (Note: The pKa values for phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2, and 12.3.) A. Add enough 1 M Na2HPO3 to increase the phosphate anion concentration ten-fold. B. Add 1 M NaOH to neutralize a portion of the hydronium ions found in the solution. C. Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species. D. Add 100 mL distilled, deionized water to dilute the basicity of the buffer.

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Unique nature of water and its solutions." The answer to this question is C because, in order to lower the pH of a buffer, the proportion of acidic buffer component must be increased. Adding strong base, diluting with water, or adding a different basic salt will not lower the pH. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you reason about the appropriateness of a specific experimental change in order to conduct research in the natural sciences.

intrusions, such as a detail that was consistent with the situation but missing from the initial report. Which statement is the most reasonable explanation for the observation of intrusion errors in Study 2? A. False information was encoded. B. Memory is prospective. C. Memory is reconstructive. D. Repressed information was retrieved.

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is C because intrusions of false information into episodic memories of events (referred to as false memories), which are consistent with the accurate information being recalled, are regarded as being due to retrieval of both episodic and generic information that is consistent with that type of event. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves drawing a conclusion about the cause of an empirical observation.

A researcher criticizes the methods used in the study, stating that teachers' ratings may not be a valid way of assessing the students' emotional problems. Which hypothetical finding is most likely to reduce this concern? A. A positive correlation between the number of emotional problems observed in students and the number of classmates reading below grade level B. A negative correlation between the number of emotional problems observed in students and the number of disruptions experienced by the teacher per day C. A positive correlation between the teachers' ratings of the number of emotional problems observed in students and the parents' rating of the same variable D. A negative correlation between the teachers' ratings of the number of emotional problems observed in students at two different times

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Responding to the world." The answer to this question is C because when two independent measures of the same variable converge, it supports the validity of both measures. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because the question involves determining how additional information can be used to judge the validity of specific measures of the variables (teachers' ratings of children's behavioral and emotional problems).

The liver synthesizes factors that act cooperatively with platelets to facilitate which physiological process? A Cholesterol synthesis B Glucose metabolism C Blood clotting D Fat digestion

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is incorrect. Synthesis of cholesterol is an important function of the liver. Platelets may also synthesize cholesterol, but the liver and platelets are not acting together in this process. This is incorrect. The liver plays an important role in energy homeostasis by storing glucose in the form of glycogen under conditions of glucose excess and by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose into the bloodstream under conditions of glucose limitation. The liver also synthesizes glucose from non-carbohydrate molecules. Glucose and insulin imbalances can affect the activation of platelets during coagulation, but the liver and platelets are not acting together in energy homeostasis. Platelets form a plug at the site where a blood vessel has been damaged. Blood clotting factors that have been synthesized in the liver in an inactive form then participate in a cascade that leads to a blood clot. This is incorrect. The liver synthesizes bile that emulsifies fat and facilitates its digestion in the small intestine. Platelets do not have an obvious role in this process.

The bglF transcript is known to have a short half-life within the cytosol. What mechanism is most likely responsible for transport of this transcript to the cytoplasmic membrane once it is synthesized? A Diffusion across the cytoplasm B Transport via attachment to the mitotic spindle C Active transport along cytoskeletal filaments D Transport from the endoplasmic reticulum in vesicles

Solution: The correct answer is C. This is incorrect. This process would not be preferable because it would take too long. This is incorrect. E. coli cells and, more generally, prokaryotes do not undergo mitosis. This would allow for more rapid transport than diffusion. This is incorrect. E. coli cells do not have endoplasmic reticulum or vesicles.

A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25°C. Its Ksp value is: A S2. B 2S2. C 2S3. D 4S3.

Solution: The correct answer is D. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. The Ksp for M(OH)2 = [M][OH-]2. If the solubility of M(OH)2 is S mol/L, then [M] = S mol/L and [OH-] = 2S mol/L. The Ksp = S(2S)2 = S(4S2) = 4S3. Thus, D is the best answer.

The intensity level of Sound B is 20 dB greater than the intensity level of Sound A. How many times greater is the intensity level of Sound B than the intensity level of Sound A? A 2 B 10 C 20 D 100

Solution: The correct answer is D. The examinee is asked to compare the intensities of two sounds, given a comparison of their intensity levels in decibels, dB. The intensity level β in dB is defined by: β = 10Log(I/I0), where I is the intensity of the sound and I0 is the minimum intensity audible to the human ear. "Log" indicates the base 10 logarithm. Two sounds A and B would have intensity levels βA = 10Log(IA/I0) and βB = 10Log(IB/I0) which may be subtracted to yield: βB- βA = 10Log(IB/IA). The question states that βB is 20 dB larger than βA, hence βB- βA = 20 dB. Thus, 20 = 10Log(IB/IA) or Log(IB/IA) = 2. This yields IB/IA = 102 = 100. Thus D is the best answer.

A 0.5-kg uniform meter stick is suspended by a single string at the 30-cm mark. A 0.2-kg mass hangs at the 80 cm mark. What mass hung at the 10-cm mark will produce equilibrium? A 0.3 kg B 0.5 kg C 0.7 kg D 1.0 kg

Solution: The correct answer is D. The examinee is given information about a uniform 0.5 kg meter stick: (1) it is suspended by a single string at the 30 cm mark, (2) a 0.2 kg mass hangs from it at the 80 cm mark (d = 50 cm from the suspension point), and (3) to achieve equilibrium, an unknown mass m is hung at the 10 cm mark (d = 20 cm from the suspension point). The examinee seeks mass m. At equilibrium the net torque left of the suspension must equal the net torque to the right of it. The torque of force mg applied at a distance d from the suspension is mgdsinθ, with θ is the angle between the stick and the force. At equilibrium the forces are all vertical while the beam is horizontal, hence θ = 90° and sin90° = 1. Thus, the torque left of the suspension will be mg(20 cm). There are two torques right of the suspension, the hanging mass torque (0.2 kg)g(50 cm) and the weight of the meter stick's torque (0.5 kg)g(20 cm), where 20 cm represents the distance from the suspension to the center of mass of the meter stick. Thus, the net right torque is (0.2 kg)g(50 cm) + (0.5 kg)g(20 cm). Equating the left and right net torques yields m = 1 kg. Thus, D is the best answer.

Which of the following describes the direction of motion of alpha, beta, and gamma rays in the presence of an external magnetic field? A They all travel straight. B They are all bent in the same direction. C Gamma rays travel straight; alpha and beta rays are bent in the same direction. D Gamma rays travel straight; alpha and beta rays are bent in opposite directions.

Solution: The correct answer is D. The examinee must decide how alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays will be influenced when they move in a magnetic field. Magnetic fields exert a force on moving electric charge. The magnitude of the force is directly proportional to the electric charge and particles of opposite sign experience forces of opposite direction. Gamma rays possess zero charge, and thus experience no force from a magnetic field and will travel in a straight line. Alpha and beta particles possess charges of opposite sign, and thus will experience forces in opposite directions- so their trajectories will bend oppositely. Thus, D is the best answer.

Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics? A. Initial velocity is measured under steady state conditions. B. Solution pH remains constant at all substrate concentrations. C. The concentration of enzyme is lower than that of substrate. D. The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of chemical thermodynamics and kinetics." The answer to this question is D because once the reaction reaches equilibrium, measurement of Vo will be impossible and the kinetic data will look the same regardless of substrate concentration. Hence, response D is not necessary (nor desirable) to achieve reliable data for Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics. In contrast, Distractors A−C are essential to obtain reliable Vo versus substrate concentration data to calculate KM and Vmax using Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because the question probes the experimental conditions required to obtain reliable data.

Which primer is most suitable for PCR? A. 5-ATTACGTTAACATGAAG-3 B. 5-ATATCGTTAACAAATTG-3 C. 5-GCTATAAAGATTGCAAA-3 D. 5-GCATAGAAGCATTCCGC-3

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is D because suitable primers have a high GC content and have G or C base pairs at the 5 and 3 ends. This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you are asked to reason about the appropriateness of research tools.

Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf? A. 1/4 B. 3/8 C. 1/2 D. 5/8

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of heritable information from generation to generation and the processes that increase genetic diversity." The answer to this question is D, because among the offspring of KkMm and Kkmm parents, the ones who lack a dominant K allele (necessary for hearing), or carry a dominant M allele (causes deafness) are deaf. Based on the Punnett square analysis, 10 out of 16 or 5/8 of all offspring are likely to be deaf. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to calculate the number of offspring with a particular phenotype from a parental cros

During Trial 5, the wire was heated from 293 K to 673 K while V was held constant at 28 V. How did the current through the circuit change during this time? A. It remained constant at 2 A. B. It remained constant at 4.6 A. C. It increased from 2 A to 4.6 A. D. It decreased from 4.6 A to 2 A.

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Physics question that falls under content category "Electrochemistry and electrical circuits and their elements." The answer to this question is D because of the linear relationship between resistivity and temperature. If the temperature T increases by a factor of 673/293 ≅ 2.3, the resistance R will increase by the same amount. From Ohm's Law, current and resistance are inversely proportional, thus current will decrease by a factor of 2.3, from 4.6 A to 2 A. This question requires Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving, determination and use of a scientific formula, in order to arrive at the answer.

They found that food-insecure households were more likely to include parents with depressive and antisocial tendencies. The researchers recommended that public health agencies pay particular attention to these parents, who may be struggling to satisfy their children's needs while experiencing distress from their own needs. At the end of Study 2, the researchers' recommendation suggests that parents in food-insecure households are subject to which role dynamic? A. Role engulfment B. Role confusion C. Role conflict D. Role strain

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Social interactions." The answer to this question is D because the relevant statement in the passage refers to how researchers recommended interventions focusing on parents who experience stress from trying to satisfy both their children's needs and their own needs. By identifying tension stemming from the parental role, the recommendation suggests role strain (which refers to stress from different expectations associated with a single role). For parents with depression, the parental role can cause competing obligations of satisfying their children's needs when they are coping with psychological distress (and thus are unable to meet their own needs). It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because the question involves recognizing the concept that best illustrates something that is being portrayed in the passage.

one acetylCoA ATP yield

TCA from one AcetylCoA produces 10 ATP

Why are the percentages of the change in frequency and wavelength much greater when sound waves are used instead of radio waves in these experiments? A Sound waves travel more slowly. B Sound waves have a much higher frequency. C Sound waves have a much shorter wavelength. D Interference in the atmosphere affects sound waves much more.

The Doppler equation for frequency is Δf/f = -v/c for a given relative velocity v between source and detector. Thus, the frequency shift Δf depends inversely on the speed of the wave in the medium in which it propagates, c. The velocity of sound is much smaller than that of electromagnetic radiation, so for the same relative velocity the frequency and wavelength shifts are much greater for sound than for radio waves.

Which action requires a larger absolute value of work: lifting the weight from A to B with constant speed, or lowering the weight from B to A with the same constant speed? A Lifting from A to B B Lowering from B to A C Equal absolute value of work in both actions D No work is required using a pulley.

The absolute value of the work done is mgΔh where Δh is positively defined, and because none of these values changes in magnitude when the mass goes up or down, these actions involve the same amount of work. Thus, C, is the best answer.

specific activity (enzyme)

The activity of an enzyme per milligram of total protein (expressed in ìmol/time/mg of all protein). Specific activity gives a measurement of enzyme purity in the mixture. It is the moles of product formed by an enzyme in a given amount of time (milliseconds, seconds, minutes) under given conditions per milligram of total protein.

A graph of the hydropathy index versus residue number of a membrane protein is shown. According to the graph, how many transmembrane regions does this protein most likely contain?

The answer is B because a positive hydropathy index means the amino acids are hydrophobic, and therefore more likely to reside within a plasma membrane.

see pic

The answer is B because, while the specific activity represents a measure of solution purity, the activity units themselves provide the best measurement of yield. The total number of activity units in the initial culture was 3000 mg × 0.1 units/mg = 300 units. After the final step, the activity units that remain are 3 mg × 20 units/mg = 60 units. This represents a 60/300 = 0.2 or 20% yield.

A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation?

The answer to this question is A because a Southern blot uses a restriction digest to differentiate between mutant and wild-type alleles. In order for a Southern blot to be useful, the mutation should either create or eliminate a restriction site, most of which are palindromes and 4 to 6 base pairs long. The mutation shown in this option is the only one that disrupts a palindromic sequence, AAGCTT. This sequence is the recognition sequence for HindIII.

Which event is directly mediated by a ligand-gated ion channel? A Release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to initiate muscle contraction B Influx of Na+ across the axon membrane of a somatic neuron during action potential propagation C Influx of Na+ across the motor end plate resulting in the depolarization of the muscle fiber membrane D Re-entry of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to end muscle contraction

The answer to this question is C because the influx of Na+ across the motor end plate occurs when Na+ ion channels bind the ligand acetylcholine.

Which mechanism restricts the expression of leptin to adipocytes? Only adipocytes contain: A the ob gene. B a promoter for the expression of the ob gene. C enhancers for the expression of the ob gene. D nuclear factors for the expression of the ob gene.

The answer to this question is D because among the listed options, nuclear factors are the only elements that vary in different cells and therefore can confer both temporal and spatial regulation of their target genes. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must recall that while different cells within an organism contain the same DNA sequence, the cells regulatory trans-acting elements (nuclear factors) are different and vary based on cell type.

In Experiment 2, the increased blood pressure resulting from the higher-than-normal concentration of ADH most likely affected the urinary output of Substance A by increasing the: A glomerular filtration rate. B Tm of solutes. C water reabsorption from the tubules. D concentrating ability of the loop of Henle.

The best answer is that increased blood pressure will affect the glomerular filtration rate, answer choice A. Tm is a characteristic that depends on the characteristics of the cells lining the renal tubules and independent of blood pressure, so answer choice B is not correct. Water resorption and concentrating ability are the same, so answer choices C and D are essentially the same. Increasing blood pressure should increase flow of fluid through the kidney system and decrease, rather than increase, water reabsorption, so these answer choices are incorrect.

allosteric regulation

The binding of a regulatory MOLECULE to a protein at one site that affects the function of the protein at a different site. this is not protein assocaition

boiling point

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the pressure of the gas above it. The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to one atmosphere (760 torr). LIQUIDS with high boiling points have lower vapor pressure.

Which of the following occurs when electrons are ejected from the cathode? A The voltage across the electrodes reverses polarity. B I don't think it's B C Current flows through the circuit. D The total resistance of the circuit increases.

The electrons ejected from the cathode are replaced by electrons from the battery and anode. The only effect on the apparatus of electron ejection from the cathode is the current in the circuit.

ionization constant

The equilibrium constant for the ionization of a weak acid or weak base. basically Ka and Kb ka=1 strong acids

Three balls with the same volume of 1.0 x 10-6 m3 are in an open tank of water that has a density (ρ) of 1.0 x 103 kg/m3 Ball 2 is in the water 20 cm above Ball 3. What is the approximate difference in pressure between the 2 balls? A 2 × 102 N/m2 B 5 × 102 N/m2 C 2 × 103 N/m2 D 5 × 103 N/m2 Assume that the density of Ball 1 is 8.0 × 102 kg/m3. Ignoring the atmospheric pressure, what fraction of Ball 1 is above the surface of the water? A4/5 B3/4 C1/4 D1/5

The examinee must determine the pressure difference between two locations in water at depths separated by 20 cm. The absolute pressure p at depth h below the surface of a fluid is: p = p0 + ρgh, where p0 is the atmospheric pressure above the liquid, ρ, is the density of the liquid, and g = 9.8 m/s2. Thus, the pressure difference Δp between two locations in the water would be Δp = ρgΔh, where Δh is the difference in depth. Here, Δh = 20 cm = 0.20 m. Thus, Δp = (1000 kg/m3)(9.8 m/s2)(0.20 m) = 1960 Pa = 2.0 x 103 Pa. Thus, C is the best answer. The examinee must use the given density of water (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) and of ball 1 (D1 = 800 kg/m3) to determine the fraction of ball 1 above the surface of the water. As ball 1 floats, part of its volume is submerged. Call this volume VS. According to Archimedes' Principle (AP) the upward buoyant force, B, on the ball equals the weight of water displaced by the ball. The mass of displaced water would be ρVS, so the weight of displaced water would be ρVSg. Thus, according to AP we can write B = ρVSg. The ball floats, so its weight mg is balanced by the upward buoyant force, thus ρVSg = mg. The ball's mass is D1V, hence ρVSg = D1Vg which may be solved for the submerged volume: VS = (D1/ρ)V = (800/1000)V = 0.8V. This tells us that 0.8V is below the surface, thus V - 0.8V = 0.2V must be above the surface. The fraction of ball 1 above the surface is thus 2/10 = 1/5. Thus, D is the best answer.

factorials

The factorial of n is the number of ways in which the n elements of a group can be ordered. The factorial of a number n represented by n! is the product of the natural numbers up to and including n. Example: 6! = 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1

What happens to an electric field when an insulator is placed in it?

The insulator is called a dielectric. The dielectic placed in a static electric field will make the field weaker. How come? One needs to remember that a material dielectric (not vacuum) contains positive and negative charges - most fundamentaly electrons and nuclei. They ballance each other, so in general the dielectric has no net charge. Also, they are bound, cannot move freely along the electric field - this is how a dielectric differs from a conductor. But these charges can shift by a little (while still being bound). Some substances have particles with inherently assymetric distribution of positive and negative charges - like water.Some other are initialy symmetrical, but the external electric field will pull the charges apart. Anyway, charges shift inside a dielectric and this spatial separation of charges causes an additional, induced electric field that is opposite to the primary field and counteracts it partially. If you placed such a dielectric in between the plates of the capacitor, then weaker electric field means lower potential difference between the plates, and lower potential difference for given charge (on the plates) means the capacity is increased.

If none of the Xi-bearing genotypes (XiY, XiXi, or XiXs) is selected against, then the frequency of Xi is expected to increase to 100%, unless other genes act to suppress expression of e and f. If all genotypes are equally fit and if there are no genetic modifiers of the sex ratio trait, what will be the ultimate fate of a population in which 50% of the X chromosomes are currently Xi and 50% are Xs? A Extinction B Stable population size, with a predominance of females C Stable population size, with all individuals producing a 50:50 sex ratio D Stable population size, with some individuals producing an excess of females and some producing an excess of males

The passage states that if none of the Xi genotypes are selected against, then the Xi chromosome will increase to 100%. If all the males are XiY, then only females will be produced and the population will become extinct. Answer A is correct. The population will not be stable, but will increasingly become female, so options B and C are incorrect. Option D is also incorrect, not only because it assumes a stable population size, but also because it supposes that some individuals will produce an excess of males.

An effective and efficient method for the delivery of an antisense gene could be: A orally as an emulsified product. B microinjection into individual body cells. C intravenously as a nonantigenic, blood-stable product. D infection of an embryo by a virus modified to carry the gene.

The question asks the examinee to identify an effective and efficient method for the delivery of an antisense gene. For an antisense gene to work, it must be incorporated into the cell in which it will perform its job so that its product is available to hybridize with the sense mRNA that needs to be blocked. Of the options listed, the best way to deliver the antisense gene into all the cells of the individual would be to infect an embryo with a virus that carries the antisense gene. The appropriate virus could become incorporated into the genome of the embryonic cells, thus causing all cells derived from these embryonic cells to contain the antisense gene. Therefore, D is the best answer. A is incorrect because the gene would most likely be destroyed in the acidic environment of the stomach. B is not the best option because microinjection of a gene into all cells would be extremely impractical. C is incorrect because even though the gene could be injected as a blood-stable product, it is not likely that the drug would enter its intended target cells. Thus, D is the best answer.

When the environmental temperature is 45° C, which of the following organisms will have the highest body temperature? A Human B Kangaroo rat C Camel D Lizard

The question asks the examinee to identify the organism with the highest body temperature in response to elevated external temperatures. This organism will be the organism that is least able to utilize the cooling mechanisms of vasodilation and sweating. A lizard (D) has an impermeable integument, thereby eliminating vasodilation and sweating as options for cooling. Thus, D is the best answer.

Accumulation of DDT in the testes may cause reduced fertility in males because the uncoupling of oxidative metabolism from ATP production may reduce: A glucose concentration of semen. B testosterone concentration of semen. C blood circulation in the testes. D sperm motility.

The question asks the examinee to predict why reduced male fertility would be caused by the DDT-induced uncoupling of ATP production from oxidative metabolism. This uncoupling would reduce ATP synthesis in the mitochondria and consequently would affect processes requiring large amounts of ATP. Using the information in the passage and in the question, the examinee cannot predict that reduced ATP levels would directly result in reduced semen glucose concentration (A), reduced semen testosterone concentration (B), or reduced blood circulation in the testes (C). However, sperm motility requires large amounts of ATP as evidenced by the high concentration of mitochondria in the sperm midpiece. Therefore, of the choices given, reduced sperm motility (D) is most likely to result from reduced ATP levels. Thus, D is the best answer.

To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene that is incorporated into a genome that contains the target gene must be: A on the same chromosome as the target gene but not necessarily be physically adjacent. B on the same chromosome as the target gene and must be physically adjacent. C regulated in a similar manner as the target gene. D coded on the same strand of DNA as the target gene.

The question focuses on antisense genes that are incorporated into the genome of their target gene and asks the examinee to identify which antisense gene characteristic would be required for the gene to be therapeutically effective. To provide effective therapy, this antisense gene would need to be regulated in a manner similar to the manner in which the target gene is regulated so that the antisense RNA is produced at the same time that the sense mRNA is produced. This would ensure that the antisense RNA is available to bind with the sense mRNA, thereby preventing its subsequent translation. As a result, C is correct. A, B, and D are incorrect because the key feature determining whether an antisense drug will work is the timing of the expression of the antisense gene. This is controlled by specific regulatory elements, not necessarily the location of the antisense gene relative to the target gene. Thus, C is the best answer.

Suppose a defibrillator successfully returns a baby's heart to normal beating. Suppose further that 20 g of blood enters the heart at 25 cm/s and leaves 0.10 s later at 35 cm/s. What is the estimated average force on the 20 g of blood as it moves through the baby's heart? A. 0.020 N B. 0.20 N C. 20 N D. 2000 N

The solution is A. According to Newton's second law, the average force is equal to the mass of blood multiplied by the average acceleration of the blood. The average acceleration is (35 cm/s - 25 cm/s)/0.10 s = 100 cm/s2 = 1 m/s2. The average force is 20 g × 1 m/s2 = 0.020 kg × 1 m/s2 = 0.020 N. Either the mass is incorrectly used as 0.20 kg, or the average acceleration is incorrectly computed as 10 m/s2. Either the mass is incorrectly used as 2.0 kg, or the average acceleration is incorrectly computed as 100 m/s2. Either the mass is incorrectly used as 20 kg, or the average acceleration is incorrectly computed as 1000 m/s2.

Efforts to raise public awareness about dementia in LMICs are most likely to take the form of which community-based program? A. Inform people that dementia is an abnormal condition rather than a normal part of aging. B. Educate people about all the disorders that can lead to dementia if they are left untreated. C. Help people to distinguish between fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. D. Explain to people that memory interference occurs more often than memory decay.

The solution is A. Dementia is an abnormal condition, and not an inevitable result of normal aging. Making people aware of this fact may help alleviate the problem of underreporting of dementia in LMICs, mentioned in the passage. Listing all the disorders involving dementia would not be helpful, because Alzheimer's Disease is the cause of most dementia cases. In addition, such a program may lead to increased levels of stigmatization of persons with dementia, which could, in turn, bring about increased underreporting of dementia in LMICs. Informing people about the distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence is unlikely to raise public awareness of dementia. Declines in fluid intelligence can be expected to occur as a normal result of aging, rather than an abnormal condition. Informing people about the distinction between decay and interference is unlikely to raise public awareness of dementia, because that distinction is not clearly relevant to dementia.

Which experimental procedure would establish that Ps differ from controls only in avoidance learning but perform similarly to controls in other types of operant conditioning? Comparing the Ps and the controls: A. on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response B. on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order C. in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation D. in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

The solution is A. It describes an operant conditioning paradigm in which participants learn the response that is reinforced. This option describes an observational learning paradigm not operant conditioning. This option describes classical conditioning rather than operant conditioning. This option describes a procedure that would be appropriate for a memory experiment not an operant conditioning paradigm.

The ranking of attributes and the bogus group consensus are best described as making participants feel as though their group is: A. a reference group, so that participants will evaluate themselves against the group. B. a primary group, so that participants will want others in the group to be respected. C. an in-group, so that participants will consider themselves to be similar to the group. D. a status group, so that participants will want others in the group to view them favorably.

The solution is A. The group is assumed to be a reference group because participants will evaluate themselves based on thoughts about the group. The ranking of attributes and bogus group consensus are part of the design to make participants evaluate themselves against the group. Primary groups refer to close, informal, sustained ties, like close friends and family. The study does not attempt to make participants feel part of a primary group. In the context of the study, in-group (a group that an individual feels an affinity toward) does not precisely describe the group affiliation. Participants are made to evaluate themselves against the group rather than feel some form of deeper connection to the group. Status groups are defined based on noneconomic characteristics such as prestige. The study does not create status groups, which tend to be defined through social institutions.

Of the events listed, which occurs first during action potential generation? A. Voltage-gated sodium channels open at the axon hillock. B. Hyperpolarization stimulates the opening of ligand-gated potassium channels. C. Graded potentials propagate along the axon. D. Calcium influx stimulates vesicle fusion and release of neurotransmitter.

The solution is A. When threshold is met at the axon hillock, voltage-gated sodium channels open, generating an action potential. Voltage-gated (not ligand-gated) potassium channels open in response to depolarization, not hyperpolarization. Graded potentials occur in the cell body and dendrites, not the axon. Calcium influx and release of neurotransmitter does not occur until action potentials arrive at axon terminals.

A carbonyl group contains what type of bonding interaction(s) between the C and O atoms? A. One σ only B. One σ and one π only C. One π only D. One σ and two π only

The solution is B. A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond, which involves two bonding interactions. A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond. The first bonding interaction between atoms is always a σ bond. The second bond is formed from π symmetry orbitals. A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond. The first bond is always a σ bond. A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond. A combination of one σ bond and two π bonds gives a net triple bond, as is found in carbon monoxide or molecular nitrogen.

Which concern about the study reflects problems as a result of the response rate? A. Participants provided four responses to four hypothetical scenarios. B. The participants may differ from the employees who did not respond to the survey. C. The manager and assistant participants may have interpreted the scenarios differently. D. Participants were aware of the status of the target employee.

The solution is B. Any threats to the internal validity of the study created by the repeated measures approach (which are usually addressed through counter-balancing or similar techniques) would also be present with a 100% response rate. A low response rate to a survey raises the question of whether the survey respondents differ from the nonrespondents on some important characteristics, such as personality traits or other factors. Differences between how manager and assistant participants may have interpreted the scenarios are expected, based on the experimental design for testing in-group/out-group differences. It is true that participants were aware of whether the target employee was a manager or an assistant; this is how the researchers manipulated in-group and out-group bias. This manipulation was independent of response rate.

The electric field inside each of the conductors that forms the capacitor in the defibrillator is zero. Which of the following reasons best explains why this is true? A. All of the electrons in the conductor are bound to atoms, and thus there is no way for an external electric field to penetrate atoms with no net charge. B. Free electrons in the conductor arrange themselves on the surface so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field. C. Free electrons in the conductor arrange themselves on the surface and throughout the interior so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field. D. All electrons in the conductor, both free and bound, arrange themselves on the surface so that the electric field they produce inside the conductor exactly cancels any external electric field.

The solution is B. Conductors are characterized by the existence of free electrons that carry current. Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and free electrons. Free electrons arrange themselves on the surface of conductors, and their collective electric field produced inside the conductor cancels any external electric field. The resulting electric field inside the conductor is zero. Free electrons arrange themselves only on the surface of the conductor. If they also arranged inside, the electric field inside the conductor would move the electrons even in the absence of a battery. Bound electrons cannot arrange themselves on the surface of the conductor due to the binding effects.

Which technique separates proteins independently of their charge? A. Native PAGE B. Gel filtration chromatography C. Ion exchange chromatography D. Isoelectric focusing

The solution is B. Native PAGE is used to separate molecules based on their electrophoretic mobility, relying on length, conformation, and charge. Gel filtration chromatography separates protein only on the basis of their size. Ion exchange chromatography allows separation of the molecules based on their charge. Isoelectric focusing allows separation of the molecules based on their isoelectric point.

NDAFEITKRC The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 contains how many potential phosphorylation sites? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

The solution is B. The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 (NDAFEITKRC) contains the amino acid threonine (T) that can potentially be phosphorylated. There are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes: serine (S), threonine (T), and tyrosine (Y). The nuclear localization sequence of MYOD1 (NDAFEITKRC) contains one threonine (T) that can potentially be phosphorylated.​ The sequence contains only one amino acid residue, threonine (T), that can potentially be phosphorylated, not two. Although it is true that there are three amino acids that are phosphorylated in eukaryotes, the sequence contains only one amino acid residue, threonine (T), that can potentially be phosphorylated.

A person is struggling to achieve generativity, rather than stagnation. In terms of Erikson's theory, this person is a(n): A. adolescent. B. young adult. C. middle-aged adult. D. elderly adult.

The solution is C. According to Erikson's theory, adolescents struggle with identity versus role confusion. According to Erikson's theory, young adults struggle with intimacy versus isolation. According to Erikson's theory, a middle-aged person struggles with generativity versus stagnation. According to Erikson's theory, an elderly person struggles with integrity versus despair. last stage: integrity vs despair

Which of the following statements best applies to the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females? A. It does not replicate. B. Its chromatin structure is less condensed than that of an active X chromosome. C. It is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. D. It is highly transcribed. what is it called?

The solution is C. Both the active and inactive X chromosomes replicate. The chromatin of the inactivate X chromosome is more condensed compared to the one of the active X chromosome. The inactivate X chromosome is one of the last chromosomes to replicate. The inactivate X chromosome is not highly transcribed barr body does replicate but transcriptionally silent

Which procedure is most effective for teaching a dog to shake hands? A. Systematic desensitization B. Elaborative encoding C. Shaping D. Spontaneous recovery definitions?

The solution is C. Systematic desensitization is a classical conditioning technique in which the intensity of an unconditioned stimulus is gradually increased until it no longer elicits the conditioned response. Elaborative encoding refers to combining new (to-be-remembered) information with existing memory representations, which enhances the probability of retrieving that new information. This concept is not used in discussions of the acquisition of any operant response. Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior. It is utilized to establish a novel behavior. Spontaneous recovery is the process by which a previously extinguished behavioral response returns after a delay (i.e., a rest period) following extinction.

A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results? A. Base rate fallacy B. Hindsight bias C. Observer bias D. Public verifiability definintions of the rest?

The solution is C. The base rate fallacy refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events. The hindsight bias (i.e., the "I knew it all along" effect) refers to the tendency for a person to overestimate how well he or she could have successfully predicted a known outcome (i.e., a "forecast," given before the outcome was known). Any bias on the part of the observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were "blind" with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken. Public verifiability is the reason other scientists are attempting to replicate the original findings.

The numbers presented to the participants in the avoidance study function as: A. reinforcers. B. punishers. C. discriminating stimuli. D. unconditioned stimuli.

The solution is C. The numbers do not function as reinforcers. The numbers do not function as punishers. The numbers are discriminating stimuli, which signal the availability of reinforcement or punishment. An unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that naturally elicits a reflexive behavior (i.e., an unconditioned response).

One company sells a defibrillator for home use that uses a 9-volt DC battery. The battery is rated at 4.2 A•hr (amp•hour). Roughly how much charge can the battery deliver? A. 4.2 C B. 38 C C. 15,000 C D. 136,000 C

The solution is C. This is the charge delivered in one second based on the calculation 4.2 A × 1 s = 4.2 C. The magnitude is computed as an approximation of 4.2 × 9 = 37.8 ≈ 38. However, multiplying the corresponding units V × A•hr yields J, not C. The definition of current is flow of charge per unit time. Thus, charge equals current multiplied by time, hence 4.2 A × 1 hr = 4.2 A × 3600 s = 15,120 C ≈ 15,000 C. The magnitude is computed as an approximation of 4.2 × 9 × 3600 = 136,080 ≈ 136,000. However, multiplying the corresponding units V × A × s yields J, not C.

A peptide consisting of nine amino acids was partially hydrolysed. Three different tripeptides were isolated. None of the tripeptides share a common amino acid. Based on the data, what is the total number of possible structures possible for the full-length peptide? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 27

The solution is C. Three is the number of tripeptides that were formed by hydrolysis of the nonapeptide. This, however, is not the number of unique possible nonapeptides that are consistent with the hydrolysis data. There are more than four nonapeptides possible that are consistent with the hydrolysis data. If the sequences were ABC, DEF, and GHI, they can only be joined in 6 different possible ways to make a nonapeptide. Each of the tripeptides can appear in the first position and can combine in two possible ways with the other two tripeptides: 3 × 2 = 6. There are nine amino acids in the full-length peptide. These are hydrolyzed to three unique tripeptides that do not share any amino acids in common. The product 9 × 3 = 27. This, however, does not represent the number of unique possible full-length sequences that are consistent with the hydrolysis data.

Underuse of available healthcare services for the disorders in the passage is most likely due to: A. anomie. B. globalization. C. culture lag. D. social stigma. definitions?

The solution is D. Anomie refers to a feeling of detachment from society due to a lack of stable social norms. Compared to stigma, the concept is not as likely to explain underuse of health care. Globalization is more likely to increase awareness of each disorder, due to the spread of knowledge and treatment modalities across the world. Culture lag occurs when norms and values have yet to catch up with technological advances. Although culture lag might affect some underuse of health care, social stigma is likely to be a much more significant factor in health care utilization. The disorders discussed in the passage—depression, dementia, and alcohol abuse—each have been particularly noteworthy for social stigma. Healthcare utilization and health-seeking behaviors are likely to be affected whenever a disease or disorder is stigmatized.

Which statement best applies Rogers's concept of incongruence to SDT's suggestion for how healthcare professionals can promote autonomous motivation? A. By encouraging their patients' initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap in their need for self-actualization. B. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals make it possible for their patients to reduce the gap between their actual behavior and their expected behavior. C. By encouraging the patients' initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap between their behaviors and their attitudes. D. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals offer their patients ways to reduce the gap between their ideal selves and their actual selves.

The solution is D. Incongruence does not refer to a person's need for self-actualization. Incongruence does not refer to a gap between a person's actual and expected behavior. Incongruence does not refer to the gap between a person's behavior and attitudes. Incongruence refers to the gap between a person's actual self and ideal self.

Assume that a mutant allele is the result of the deletion of two entire codons. The base pair length of the mutant allele, compared to that of the wild-type allele, would have: A. two fewer nucleotides. B. three fewer nucleotides. C. four fewer nucleotides. D. six fewer nucleotides.

The solution is D. The question tests the knowledge of codons. Codons are the three-code nucleotides that are recognized by the tRNA and correspond to an amino acid. If two codons are removed, then the sequence will be 6 nucleotides, not 2 nucleotides, shorter. The question tests the knowledge of codons. Codons are the three-code nucleotides that are recognized by the tRNA and correspond to an amino acid. If two codons are removed, then the sequence will be 6 nucleotides, not 3 nucleotides, shorter. The question tests the knowledge of codons. Codons are the three-code nucleotides that are recognized by the tRNA and correspond to an amino acid. If two codons are removed, then the sequence will be 6 nucleotides, not 4 nucleotides, shorter. The question tests the knowledge of codons. Codons are the three-code nucleotides that are recognized by the tRNA and correspond to an amino acid. If two codons are removed, then the sequence will be 6 nucleotides shorter.

see pic

This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ systems." The answer to this question is D because Hypothesis 2 assumes that prior to its secretion, Protein X is modified to produce a mature form of Protein X. This results in a delayed mechanism of secretion, which is reflected only in option D. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because it involves interpreting data to make a prediction.

A researcher attempted to identify an unknown AOm(OH)n compound. The compound completely dissolved in water and weakly conducted electricity. The hydrogen ion concentration of the unknown aqueous solution was 1 × 10-5 M. The unknown compound was probably a: A. weak base. B. strong base. C. weak acid. D. strong acid.

This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Unique nature of water and its solutions." The answer to this question is C because the hydrogen ion concentration for this solution is greater than 1 × 10-7 but much less than the concentration of the unknown compound itself. This means that the compound only partially ionized to form hydrogen ions. This is behavior that defines a weak acid. This question requires Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles, the definition and behavior of a weak acid, to arrive at the answer. dissolved =/= dissolution

Suppose that a blood vessel of cross-sectional area A carries microbubbles at a speed v into a capillary bed. If the capillary bed is made up of n capillaries, each with cross-sectional area a, with what speed will the blood flow in the capillary bed? A. B. C.see pic D.

This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Importance of fluids for the circulation of blood, gas movement, and gas exchange." The answer to this question is B because, according to the continuity equation, if u is the speed of flow in the capillary bed, then A × v = n × a × u, so u = A × v/(n × a). It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem-solving question because it asks you to determine and use scientific formulas to solve problems.

A 60 kg person stands inside a 20,000 kg railcar that is attached to a locomotive. For experimental purposes, the person has a ball, a string, a 600 nm wavelength laser, a concave lens, a 100 mF capacitor, and some 12 V, 100 W lightbulbs. The ball and string can be joined to make a pendulum of mass M and length L. After the locomotive releases the railcar, two systems are available to slow the moving railcar. The first system connects an electric generator to the railcar's wheels to charge a 12 V battery mounted on the railcar. Engaging the generator to the wheels puts a decelerating force of 5000 N at 40 m/s, and the force declines linearly with speed. This generator transfers about 80% of the kinetic energy dissipated by this braking force to the battery. The second system allows the person to slow the railcar by the friction of its wheels against a stationary surface in a manner similar to that of the brakes on an automobile. This system can generate a maximum braking force of 14,000 N. The rolling friction of the wheels and the internal friction between the wheels and axles contribute a continuous 1000 N decelerating force any time that the railcar is in motion. (Note: Use g = 10 m/s2 and c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, if needed.) If no braking occurs, a total of how much power would be required to keep the railcar moving at 40 m/s? A. 16 kW B. 40 kW C. 600 kW D. 800 kW If the generator-brake system alone were engaged when the railcar was moving, which of the following graphs would most accurately represent the subsequent speed of the railcar? A. B. C.SEE PIC D.

This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Translational motion, forces, work, energy, and equilibrium in living systems." The answer to this question is B because the power required must match the work done by the friction force that tends to slow down the railcar, which is equal to the decelerating force multiplied by the constant speed, so 1000 N × 40 m/s = 40 kW. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it asks you to determine and use scientific formulas to solve problems. This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Translational motion, forces, work, energy, and equilibrium in living systems." The answer to this question is D because the speed of the car decreases in time such that the decelerating force declines linearly with speed, according to the passage. Because the decelerating force is directly proportional to the deceleration acceleration, it follows that the decelerating acceleration itself declines linearly with speed. Finally, because the decelerating acceleration is rate of change of velocity, or the slope of the velocity vs. time graph, then the slope of the graph must decrease in time. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because it asks you to evaluate whether representations make sense for particular scientific observations and data.

Radioactive tritium (3H) labeled guanine has been used to measure the rate of biochemical processes that involve its binding or incorporation. SEE PIC Guanine Given that water is the solvent for this type of experiment, what is the best site for tritium labeling? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

This is an Organic Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure, function, and reactivity of biologically-relevant molecules." The answer to this question is A, because the best site for tritium labeling would not exchange the tritium ions for protons in water. All of the N−H sites (II−IV) would readily exchange tritium protons due to their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water, but the C−H site (I), lacking a lone pair, would retain its tritium label. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because the selection of the tritium-labeling site under aqueous conditions is essential to the experimental design.

In the pentose phosphate pathway, which enzyme catalyzes the production of 6-phosphogluconolactone?

This is correct. This Biochemistry question falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is A because Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone in the pentose phosphate pathway. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must recall the substrates and products of metabolic enzymes.

Fatty acid synthase (FASN) is a key cytoplasmic enzyme responsible for the synthesis of long-chain fatty acids. Abnormal FASN expression is associated with tumor cell progression in human cancer cells, and as such, FASN is being investigated as a target for cancer therapy through development of specific inhibitors such as C75, a substrate analog. Which metabolic reaction is most likely affected by treatment of cells with C75? The reaction that converts: A fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate B fumarate to malate C pyruvate to acetyl-CoA D oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate

This is correct. This Biochemistry question falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is C because the passage states that mtKAS is involved in the synthesis of lipoic acid and Figure 1 shows that mtKAS is inhibited by C75. Therefore, treatment of cells with C75 results in lower cellular level of lipoic acid, a cofactor for the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must recall which metabolic enzyme that has lipoic acid as its cofactor catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.

Which enzyme was LEAST likely used in cloning of WT-PRR cDNA? A DNA polymerase B RNA polymerase C DNA ligase D Reverse transcriptase

This is correct. This Biology question falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B because while DNA polymerase (in DNA amplification), DNA ligase (in ligation of the cDNA to DNA vector) and reverse transcriptase (in reverse transcription of RNA to cDNA) are used during cDNA cloning, RNA polymerase is not used in cDNA cloning. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you must identify the appropriate enzymes used in cDNA cloning process.

Tm

Tm is the temperature at which 50% of the molecules are denatured or the fraction folded is 0.5.

Do the results presented in Figure 2 support the hypothesis that glucose has a cryoprotective role in frogs? A Yes; survival and protection against hemolysis are promoted by exogenous glucose. B Yes; death caused by freezing is directly proportional with the extent of hemolysis. C No; injected glucose lowered blood hemoglobin levels, suggesting that the survival rates are not related to the treatment. D No; injected saline promoted hemolysis, suggesting death was most likely related to circulatory collapse.

Under normal conditions hemoglobin is carried in red blood cells and is not found in the plasma. Ice formation can disrupt cell structure and cause the red blood cells to rupture or lyse, releasing hemoglobin into the plasma. One can infer from the information given that plasma hemoglobin is an operational measure of the extent of hemolysis (rupture of red blood cell). The information in the figure shows a positive correlation between survival and glucose concentration and a negative correlation between plasma hemoglobin and glucose concentration. Both of these correlations support a protective effect of high blood-glucose concentration in protecting the animal from the effects of cold. There is also a negative correlation between survival and plasma hemoglobin, but this correlation does not address the issue of a causal role for glucose concentration in protecting the animal. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

Based on the passage, which subunit of PTx is LEAST suitable for generation of vaccine against B. pertussis? A. S1 B. S2 C. S4 D. S5

When choosing an antigen for vaccine production, there are two aspects to consider: immunogenicity and toxicity. S1 has the ADP ribosyl transferase activity responsible for toxicity of PTx and therefore is least suitable for vaccine production. S1 has toxicity activity so would be unsafe for vaccine

counterconditioning and aversive conditioning

a behavior therapy procedure that uses classical conditioning to evoke new responses to stimuli that are triggering unwanted behaviors; includes exposure therapies and aversive conditioning--> a type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state (such as nausea) with an unwanted behavior (such as drinking alcohol)

Symbolic Interactionism

a micro-level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behind people's actions George Mead- I and the me Charles Cooley- looking-glass self is a social psychological concept stating that a person's self grows out of society's interpersonal interactions and the perceptions of others. It is described as our reflection of how we think we appear to others.

Symbolic Interactionism

a micro-level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behind people's actions Symbolic interaction was conceived by George Herbert Mead and Charles Horton Cooley. Mead argued that people's selves are social products, but that these selves are also purposive and creative, and believed that the true test of any theory was that it was "useful in solving complex social problems"

redox titration Cell potential electroplating

a specific method used to determine the concentration of an unknown solution using reducible titrants or titrands, typically by measuring voltage changes. E=E0-(RT/nF)lnQ RT/f=.06/n G=-nFE I=nF/t

dichotic listening task

a task in which participants in an experiment are presented with two messages simultaneously, one to each ear, and are instructed to repeat back the words from only one of them

Meiosis

a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and plant spores.

Beck's Cognitive Therapy

a type of cognitive therapy, developed by Aaron Beck, in which the therapist works to develop a warm relationship with the person and has the person carefully consider the evidence for his or her beliefs in order to see the errors in his or her thinking

M2+(aq) + 2NaC17H32CO2(aq) → 2Na+(aq) + M(C17H32CO2)2(s) Which experimental approach can be used to analyze the metal content of soapy precipitate produced by Reaction 1? Dissolve the solid in a known volume of: A 0.1 M NaHCO3(aq), then titrate with standardized >0.1 M HCl(aq) using an indicator. B 0.1 M NaOH(aq), then titrate with standardized 0.1 M HCl(aq) using an indicator. C 0.1 M NaCl(aq), then titrate with standardized 0.1 M NaOH(aq) using an indicator. D 0.1 M HCl(aq), then titrate with standardized 0.1 M NaOH(aq) using an indicator.

a. Since the precipitate will not be broken up in this approach the results of the titration are likely to be complicated. b. The precipitate will not be broken up in this approach and the addition of NaOH will result in a spike in pH with no discernible equivalence point. c. The solution will quickly rise in pH and no equivalence point can be obtained using this approach. d. The soapy precipitate is the salt of a weak base. Addition of HCl will generate the free fatty acid which can then be neutralized by NaOH. The difference in the number of moles of HCl and NaOH required to reach the endpoint gives the number of moles of RCO2 which can then be used to calculate the mass present in the solid and the percentage of the metal content.

when light passes through an optically active medium, why does it slow down?

absorbed and reemitted by atomic structure of medium NOT ABSORBED BY NUCLEUS

fermentation (anaerobic respiration)

the breakdown of sugars without the use of oxygen, regenerate NAD+ so glycolysis can continue

Acetylation

addition of acetyl group not addition of COO- staright up additon of RC=O

strecker synthesis gabriel malonic synthesis

aldehyde plus NH4+ to form imine and then CN- pthalamide treated with KOH to remove proton creating Nu that attacks malonic ester--> attacks R-X then H3O+/heat

gravitational force

an attractive force that acts between any two masses F=Gm1m2/r2

productive pathway of viral infection

animal viruses undergoing lytic pathway without lysis. instead they undergo budding and retain a envelope which is protection/mask

highly specialized cardiac cells

autorythmic cells with leaking Na+ channel SA node is pacemaker AV node delays impulse so that atrium can fully contract

Archimedes' Principle

the buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object ρobject/ρfluid=Wobject/Wapparent

Researchers conducted an experiment to study Weber's Law. Going from 10- to 12-pound weights created the just noticeable difference for one participant. For this participant, how many pounds need to be added to a 20-pound weight to create the just noticeable difference?

ble difference is a ratio of the existing stimulus intensity. Two pounds are 1/5 of 10 pounds and they create the just noticeable difference for 10 pounds. To create the just noticeable difference for 20 pounds, 4 pounds (1/5 of 20 pounds) are needed.

cathode vs anode

cathode: reduction of water to H2 gas; anode: oxidize water to O2 cations in solution go towards cathode; anions in solution go towards anode in order to compensate for electron movement

A moon of mass m kg is orbiting a planet of mass M kg at a distance of R meters. If G denotes the universal gravitational constant, which one of the following expressions gives the moon's orbit speed?

centripetal force equals gravitational force

sublimation (defense mechanism) reaction formation

channeling threatening devices into acceptable outlets (e.g. working out) sublet-->outlet Defense mechanism by which people behave in a way opposite to what their true but anxiety-provoking unconscious feelings would dictate.

classical conditioning

classical conditioning an unconditioned stimulus that elicits an unconditioned response is paired with a neutral stimulus. Eventually the neutral stimulus will become the conditioned stimulus when its presentation alone elicits the same unconditioned response (although now it's called the conditioned response)

Caste System

closed stratification systems that do not allow for social mobility.

private acceptance

conforming by altering private beliefs as well as public behavior

Soloman Asch Experiment

conformity experiments or the Asch paradigm were a series of studies directed by Solomon Asch studying if and how individuals yielded to or defied a majority group and the effect of such influences on beliefs and opinions

attribution of an individuals behavior can be determined by reviewing these three things

consensus high? external attribution low? internal attribution distinctiveness " " consistency low? external attribution vice versa

what kind of capital is education?

cultural capital including knowledge and skills

polarized light

electric field and magnetic field are perpendicular to eachother. An electromagnetic wave such as light consists of a coupled oscillating electric field and magnetic field which are always perpendicular to each other; by convention, the "polarization" of electromagnetic waves refers to the direction of the electric field by convention, the "polarization" of electromagnetic waves refers to the direction of the electric field. I

What formula is the same for compounds 1 and 2? A Valence-bond B Empirical C Molecular D Structural

empirical

nonosaturated fatty acid oxidation?

enter beta oxidation after FADH2 is formed so there will be one less FADH2

what kind of cells are ovarian cells?

epithelial cells

________explores cultural phenomena from the point of view of the subject of the study

ethnographic study

ribosome subunits

euk: 80S 60/40 prok: 70S 50/30

Ethnocentrism

evaluation of other cultures according to preconceptions originating in the standards and customs of one's own culture.

partial report technique word association testing psychophysical discrimination testing operational span testing

flashes images to allow investigators to measure the capacity of sensory memory without disrupting its rapidly decaying contents a test in which the tester gives the patient words and the patient responds with the first thing that comes to mind; used by psychoanalysts like Jung to infer subconscious thoughts or personality traits varying a physical stimulus slightly and observing the effect on a subject's experience or behavior in order to better understand perceptual processing. Test to see the general capacity of working memory tasks

attribution biases

fundamental attribution error-attribute other behavior to personality actor observor bias- attribute own behavior to situation self serving bias- attribute our success to ourselves but our failures on others optimism-causes someone to believe that they themselves are less likely to experience a negative event. just world phenomenon

increasing fractionating column heating more slowly what two changes must occur together to compensate for eachother leak in apparatus?

increases the amount of times the liquid vaporize and condense heating more slowly allows the liquids more time in the column if you decrease the vacuum pressure, the boiling point difference between the liquids will decrease. to compensate must increase length of column leak causes an increase in pressure

Prions

infectious proteins -exceptionally stable -long incubation times -arise spontaneously, heritable, can be ingested

adrenal medulla adrenal cortex

innervated by SNS: epinephrine and norepinephrine PEPTIDE hormones secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones

Porphyrin

intermediate substance in the formation of heme (part of hemoglobin)

measuring catalytic efficiency and turnover

kcat/KM kcat=Vmax/[E]T aka turnover kcat is used to describe the rate-limiting step of catalysis under saturating conditions of substrate.

Newton (unit of measure)

kgm/s2

Joule units

kgm^2/s^2 N*m Power=J/s

kidney and liver as excretory organs

kidney excretes hydrophilic waste while liver excretes hydrophobic waste

kinetic vs. thermodynamic reactions

kinetic: lower activation energy but forms less stable product -less substituted position thermodynamic: higher activation energy but more stable product-more substituted position

differential association theory

learning theory of deviance in which individuals learn deviance in proportion to number of deviant acts they are exposed to a theory that states individuals learn deviant behavior from those close to them who provide models of and opportunities for deviance

affinity chromatography

lock key interactions a. immunoaffinity. add antibody to protein then add antibody binding protein--->centrifuge b. metal ion. proteins with histidine tag(his is able to chelate due to imidazole) then add Ni+ bound stationary phase beads are coated w/ a receptor that binds the protein of interest (high affinity) - protein is retained in column - can be eluted by washing the column w/ a free receptor that competes w/ the bead bound receptor & frees protein -eluted also by changing pH or salinity levels to disrupt bond b/w ligand & protein

heart sounds

lub: AV valves close-systole beginning dub: semilunar valves close-diastole beginning tricuspid bicuspid

Testes two major functions

make sperm and make testosterone

Vmax/Km

measure enzyme performance slop of lineweaver plot

reconstructive memory and example

memory that has been simplified, enriched, or distorted, depending on an individual's experiences and attitudes -intrusions of false information into episodic memories of events (referred to as false memories), which are consistent with the accurate information being recalled, are regarded as being due to retrieval of both episodic and generic information that is consistent with that type of event.

Proprioceptors (location)

muscle spindles, which are embedded in skeletal muscle fibers, Golgi tendon organs, which lie at the interface of muscles and tendons, and joint receptors, which are low-threshold mechanoreceptors embedded in joint capsules.

Native vs SDS PAGE

native takes into account charge/mass/shape while sds is exclusively by mass

native vs sds

native takes into account charge/mass/shape while sds is exclusively by mass

nearsighted vs farsighted focal point

near: focus in front of retina far: focus behind retina

why are these not tautomers?

only electrons have moved. structural isomers must have diff bond formation for example, moving hydrogen from CH3 to oxygen while pushing the oxygen electrons down to form carbonyl

theory of vision in which colors are fighting

opponent process red vs green blue vs yellow

Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm

outermost germ layer; produces sense organs, nerves, and outer layer of skin middle germ layer; develops into muscles, and much of the circulatory, reproductive, and excretory systems; connective tissues, heart, kidney, gonads innermost germ layer; develops into the linings of the digestive tract and much of the respiratory system

the use of a given word in a broader context than is appropriate

overextension

when finding R/S oxygen vs carbonyl

oxygen

half equivalence point

pKa of base or acid being titrated

insulin, glucagon, somatostatin

pancreas peptide hormones a cells-glucagon b cells-insulin somatostatin is a growth hormone inhibiting hormone

pancreas exocrine function

pancreatic juice, digestive enzymes

The pressure at the bottom of a jug

pgh ex: hydrostatic pressure in legs is greater than in arm

Psychologists have investigated how humans organize their perceptual experiences in ways that allow them to quickly understand the meaning of those experiences. However, in many cases, people's perceptions of objects, scenes, and events in the world differ from the stimulus that is registered by the sensory receptors The technical term for the type of stimulus registered by the sensory receptors, mentioned in the first paragraph, is:

proximal stimulus

gluconeogenesis enzymes

pyruvate carboxylase with 2 ATP and HCO3- (2 pyruvate into 2 OAA) Rate limiting step: PEP carboxykinase with 2 GTP (loss of CO2; 2 OAA into 2 PEP) 2 atp and 2 NADH used fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase produce 1 ATP (1 F1,6BP into F6P)

Graham's law of effusion

r1/r2=square root M2/M1

Race vs. Ethnicity

race related to a person's appearance and ethnicity refers to nationality, culture, and ancestry.

specific gravity

ratio of a mineral's weight compared with the weight of an equal volume of water Alright so we know pbenzene/pwater = 0.7, and we need to know pobject/pwater. 15 = pobject*Vobject 10 = pobject*Vobject - pbenzene*Vobject 5 = pbenzene*Vobject 15/5 = (pobject*Vobject)/(pbenzene*Vobject) Vobject cancels out, so you have 3 = pobject/pbenzene So now we know 3 = pobject/pbenzene and 0.7 = pbenzene/pwater (pobject/pbenzene) * (pbenzene/pwater) = pobject/pwater which is the specific gravity of the object. So we have 3*0.7 = 2.1

slow twitch fibers

red muscle fibers that are slow to contract but have the ability to continue contracting for long periods of time have high[mitochondria]

memory encoding aides

rehearsal self reference dual encoding-method of loci chunking mnemonics

size exclusion chromatography

relies on porous beads; larger molecules elute first because they are not trapped in small pores

attachment styles

secure: comfortable with intimacy and autonomy (child distressed but easily comforted) anxious resistant or dismissive-avoidant: strongly independent anxious-preoccupied: dependent on others for self worth anxious-avoidant: fear intimacy (child doesnt care mother left)

The procedure of reinforcing successive approximations to the lever press response exemplifies shaping through operant conditioning.

shaping wrt operant conditioning

Muscle Fiber Types and energy sources

slow twitch I ox (red) Fast twitch IIA ox & glyc (red) IIB glycolytic fastest: creatine phosphate in skeletal muscle long term anaerobic glycolysis and long term aerobic resp. switch off: high [myoglobin] to store oxygen in muscle cells

cell size of G2/M border is inhibited

smaller cell since would enter mitosis early

Sublimation Fusion

solid to gas solid to liquid

Experiments on social influences of our behavior

soloman asch- conformity(line lenghth) Stanley Milgram- obedience

intercalated discs

specialized connections between myocardial cells containing gap junctions and desmosomes provide direct electrical coupling

Kohlberg's

stages of moral development preconventional: punishment/obedience, based on selfishnesss conventional: please others, law/order postconventional: personal values

experimental research

studies that seek clues to cause-effect relationships by manipulating one or more factors (independent variables) while controlling others (holding them constant)

skin innervation

sympathetic AcH and AcH vasoconstriction

neural plasticity

the ability of the brain to change in response to experience

glass escalator

the accelerated promotion of men to the top of a work organization, especially in feminized jobs

Hydroxyapatite

the chief crystal of bone, formed from calcium and phosphorus

Proto-oncogenes

the corresponding normal cellular genes that are responsible for normal cell growth and division -if mutated will turn into oncogenes which permanantly activate cell cycle

solubility constant

the equilibrium constant for the dissolution of solid substance Ksp=[A+]^a[B-]^b compare Qsp to predict ppt

exchange theory

theory that holds that people are motivated by self-interests in their interactions with other people

how to read purification table

total activity is enzyme activity and can be found by multiplying total protein in each step by the specific activity.

The ATP-dependent phosphorylation of a protein target is catalyzed by which class of enzyme?

transferase

cell-mediated immunity

type of immunity produced by T cells that attack infected or abnormal body cells killer T cells bind antigen and MHCI which are found on all cells=>kill cell helper T cells bind antigen and MHCII which are found on B cells and macrophages=>proliferation of B and T cells via cytokine secretion

energy transformation when photon strikes atom

when photon ionizes an atom, the photons energy is used to overcome the atoms ionization energy. Any remaing energy from the photon will be converted to KE Answer Key: A Conservation of energy requires that the 15.0 eV photon energy first provides the ionization energy to unbind the electron, and then allows any excess energy to become the electron's kinetic energy. The kinetic energy in this case is 15.0 eV - 13.6 eV = 1.4 eV. Thus the correct answer is A.

Reaction Rates and equillibrium

written from elementary steps (RDS) solids and solvents not included Keq=[products]/[reactants]eq. constant does not include solvents and solids -use Kp for gases which uses partial pressures

Keq expression wrt deltaG

ΔG′° = -RTln(Keq)

free energy and equilibrium constant

ΔG′°=−RTlnKeq DETERMINES SPONTENEITY OF A REACTION> WHY ARE YOU CONFUSED Keq>1 spon Keq=1 equillibrium Keq<1 non spon must think of this with ΔG=ΔH-TΔS

fatty acid catabolism DO WHITEBOARD

•Takes place in mitochondria •CoA carries the fatty acid chain as it is degraded •NADH, FADH2 are produced •Going down; removing 2 carbons