Prep U 3

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A client diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) asks the nurse about numbness in the fingers and pain in the wrist. What is the best response by the nurse? "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by bursitis and tendinitis." "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by flexion contracture of the fourth and fifth fingers." "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by compression of the median nerve at the wrist." "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by pannus formation in the shoulder."

"CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by compression of the median nerve at the wrist." Carpal tunnel syndrome is an entrapment neuropathy that occurs when the median nerve at the wrist is compressed by a thickened flexor tendon sheath, skeletal encroachment, edema, or a soft tissue mass.

A nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which statement should the nurse include? "This condition is associated with various sports." "Surgery is the only sure way to manage this condition." "Using arm splints will prevent hyperflexion of the wrist." "Ergonomic changes can be incorporated into your workday to reduce stress on your wrist."

"Ergonomic changes can be incorporated into your workday to reduce stress on your wrist." Ergonomic changes, such as adjusting keyboard height, can help clients with carpal tunnel syndrome avoid hyperextension of the wrist. This condition is associated with repetitive tasks such as clerical work, not sports. The condition may be managed with medications, yoga, acupuncture, and wrist (not arm) splints.

A patient is suspected of having a pheochromocytoma and is having diagnostic tests done in the hospital. What symptoms does the nurse recognize as most significant for a patient with this disorder? Blood pressure varying between 120/86 and 240/130 mm Hg Heart rate of 56-64 bpm Shivering Complaints of nausea

Blood pressure varying between 120/86 and 240/130 mm Hg Hypertension associated with pheochromocytoma may be intermittent or persistent. Blood pressures exceeding 250/150 mm Hg have been recorded. Such blood pressure elevations are life threatening and can cause severe complications, such as cardiac dysrhythmias, dissecting aneurysm, stroke, and acute kidney failure.

Which of the following inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation?

Calcitonin Calcitonin, which inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation, is decreased in osteoporosis

Which medication directly inhibits osteoclasts, thereby reducing bone loss and increasing BMD? Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Raloxifene (Evista) Teriparatide (Forteo) Vitamin D

Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Calcitonin directly inhibits osteoclasts, thereby reducing bone loss and increased BMD

An important nursing assessment, post fracture, is to evaluate neurovascular status. Therefore, the nurse should check for: Crepitus. Shortening and deformity. Capillary refill. Swelling and discoloration

Capillary refill Assessment for neurovascular impairment includes checking for weak pulses or delayed capillary refill (normal is <2 seconds).

Trousseau's sign is elicited by which of the following?

Carpopedal spasm is induced by occluding the blood flow to the arm for 3 minutes with the use of a blood pressure cuff.

A patient with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted to a hospice facility and asks the admitting nurse, "How long will I be allowed to stay here?" What is the best response by the nurse? "You will be able to stay only for approximately 1 month and then you will be discharged." "You will be able to stay for 2 months before being discharged." "There is no time limit for your stay. You can stay until you die." "When your stay reaches 6 months, you will be recertified for a continued stay."

"When your stay reaches 6 months, you will be recertified for a continued stay." Federal rules for hospices require that eligibility be reviewed periodically. Patients who live longer than 6 months under hospice care are not discharged, provided that their physician

A nurse is planning discharge instructions for the client with osteomyelitis. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? "Use your continuous passive motion machine for 2 hours each day." "You need to perform weight-bearing exercises twice a week." "You need to limit the amount of protein and calcium in your diet." "You will receive IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks."

"You will receive IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks." Treatment of osteomyelitis requires IV antibiotics for 3 to 6 weeks.

A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which observation should the nurse report to the physician immediately? Pitting edema of the legs An irregular apical pulse Dry mucous membranes Frequent urination

An irregular apical pulse Because Cushing's syndrome causes aldosterone overproduction, which increases urinary potassium loss, the disorder may lead to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should immediately report signs and symptoms of hypokalemia, such as an irregular apical pulse, to the physician.

A client states, "My children still need me. Why did I get cancer? I am only 30." This client is exhibiting which stage according to Kübler-Ross? Denial Anger Bargaining Acceptance

Anger Anger is the second stage and is exhibited by statement similar to "Why me?"

An x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which a bone has splintered into several pieces. Which type of fracture is this? Compound Depressed Impacted Comminuted

Comminuted A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. A compound fracture is one in which damage also involves the skin or mucous membranes.

In a client with a dislocation, the nurse should initially perform neurovascular assessments a minimum of every 15 minutes until stable. Which complication does the assessments help the nurse to monitor in the client? Disseminated intravascular coagulation Compartment syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome Fat embolism syndrome

Compartment syndrome The nurse should initially perform neurovascular assessments a minimum of every 15 minutes until stable in a client with a dislocation to assess for compartment syndrome. It is a complication associated with dislocation. A client with a dislocation does not experience an increased risk of complications such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, carpal tunnel syndrome, or fat embolism syndrome.

Which diagnostic test is done to determine a suspected pituitary tumor? Radiography of the abdomen Computed tomography Measuring blood hormone levels Radioimmunoassay

Computed tomography CT or magnetic resonance imaging is used to diagnose the presence and extent of pituitary tumors.

A nurse educates a group of clients with diabetes mellitus on the prevention of diabetic nephropathy. Which of the following suggestions would be most important? Control blood glucose levels. Drink plenty of fluids. Take the antidiabetic drugs regularly. Eat a high-fiber diet.

Control blood glucose levels Controlling blood glucose levels and any hypertension can prevent or delay the development of diabetic nephropathy. Drinking plenty of fluids does not prevent diabetic nephropathy.

The primary function of the thyroid gland includes which of the following? Control of cellular metabolic activity Facilitation of milk ejection Reabsorption of water Reduction of plasma level of calcium

Control of cellular metabolic activity The primary function of the thyroid hormone is to control cellular metabolic activity

The actions of parathyroid hormone (PTH) are increased in the presence of which vitamin? D C B E

D The actions of PTH are increased by the presence of vitamin D

The nurse is asked to explain to the client the age-related processes that contribute to bone loss and osteoporosis. What is the nurse's best response? Decrease in estrogen Increase in calcitonin Decrease in parathyroid hormone Increase of vitamin D

Decrease in estrogen Age related processes that contribute to loss of bone mass and osteoporosis are decreases in estrogen, calcitonin, and vitamin D and an increase in parathyroid hormone.

What barrier to end-of-life care does a dying client demonstrate with the statement, "I don't need hospice. Hospice is for people who are dying." Anger Bargaining Denial Acceptance

Denial Patient denial about the seriousness of terminal illness has been cited as a barrier to discussions about end-of-life treatment options. Denial includes feelings of isolation.

The nurse caring for a client, who has been treated for a hip fracture, instructs the client not to cross their legs and to have someone assist with tying their shoes. Which additional instruction should the nurse provide to client? Do not flex the hip more than 30 degrees. Do not flex the hip more than 60 degrees. Do not flex the hip more than 90 degrees. Do not flex the hip more than 120 degrees.

Do not flex the hip more than 90 degrees. Proper alignment and supported abduction are encouraged for hip repairs. Flexion of the hip more than 90 degrees can cause damage to the a repaired hip fracture.

Which general nursing measure is used for a client with a fracture reduction? Encourage participation in ADLs Promote intake of omega-3 fatty acids Examine the abdomen for enlarged liver or spleen Assist with intake of immune-enhancing tube feeding formulas

Encourage participation in ADLs General nursing measures for a client with a fracture reduction include administering analgesics, providing comfort measures, encouraging participation in ADLs, promoting physical mobility, preventing infection, maintaining skin integrity, and preparing the client for self-care.

Which nursing intervention is appropriate for a client with a closed-reduction extremity fracture?

Encourage participation in ADLs General nursing measures for a client with a fracture reduction include administering analgesics, providing comfort measures, encouraging participation with ADLs, promoting physical mobility, preventing infection, maintaining skin integrity, and preparing the client for self-care.

Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for a client with diabetes mellitus? Respirations of 12 breaths/minute Cloudy urine Blood sugar 170 mg/dL Fruity breath

Fruity breath The rising ketones and acetone in the blood can lead to acidosis and be detected as a fruity odor on the breath. Ketoacidosis needs to be treated to prevent further complications such as Kussmaul respirations (fast, labored breathing) and renal shutdown. A blood sugar of 170 mg/dL is not ideal but will not result in glycosuria and/or trigger the classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who developed hypoglycemia. What can the nurse administer to the client to raise the blood sugar level? Insulin Glucagon Cortisone Estrogen

Glucagon

Which factor inhibits fracture healing? Increased vitamin D and calcium in the diet Age of 35 years History of diabetes Immobilization of the fracture

History of diabetes Factors that inhibit fracture healing include diabetes, smoking, local malignancy, bone loss, extensive local trauma, age greater than 40, and infection. Factors that enhance fracture healing include proper nutrition, vitamin D and calcium, exercise, maximum bone fragment contact, proper alignment, and immobilization of the fracture.

An older adult female client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse should suspect which disorder? Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus Hypoparathyroidism Hyperparathyroidism

Hyperparathyroidism Hyperparathyroidism is most common in older women and is characterized by bone pain and weakness from excess parathyroid hormone. Clients also exhibit hypercalciuria-causing polyuria. Although clients with diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus have polyuria, they don't have bone pain and increased sleeping. Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by urinary frequency rather than by polyuria.

The nurse is assessing a client in the clinic who appears restless, excitable, and agitated. The nurse observes that the client has exophthalmos and neck swelling. What diagnosis do these clinical manifestations correlate with? Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) Diabetes insipidus (DI)

Hyperthyroidism Clients with hyperthyroidism characteristically are restless despite feeling fatigued and weak, highly excitable, and constantly agitated.

A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse observes for which condition when caring for this client? Polyuria Hypoglycemia Blurred vision Polydipsia

Hypoglycemia The nurse should observe the client receiving an oral antidiabetic agent for signs of hypoglycemia. The time when the reaction might occur is not predictable and could be from 30 to 60 minutes to several hours after the drug is ingested.

Which combination of adverse effects should a nurse monitor for when administering IV insulin to a client with diabetic ketoacidosis? Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia Hypocalcemia and hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia and hyperglycemia Hypernatremia and hypercalcemia

Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia Blood glucose needs to be monitored in clients receiving IV insulin because of the risk of hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia might occur if too much insulin is administered. Hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia, might occur because I.V. insulin forces potassium into cells, thereby lowering the plasma level of potassium. Calcium and sodium levels aren't affected by IV insulin administration.

A client has been diagnosed with myxedema from long-standing hypothyroidism. What clinical manifestations of this disorder does the nurse recognize are progressing to myxedema coma? Select all that apply. Hypothermia Hypertension Hypotension Hypoventilation Hyperventilation

Hypothermia Hypotension Hypoventilation

A nurse notices a client lying on the floor at the bottom of the stairs. The client is alert and oriented and denies pain other than in the arm, which is swollen and appears deformed. After calling for help, what should the nurse do? Place the client in a sitting position. Immobilize the client's arm. Help the client walk to the nearest nurses' station. Raise the client's arm above the heart.

Immobilize the client's arm. signs of a fracture in an extremity include pain, deformity, swelling, discoloration, and loss of function. When a nurse suspects a fracture, the extremity should be immobilized before moving the body part. It isn't appropriate for the nurse to move the client into a sitting position without further assessment. The client shouldn't walk to the nurses' station; the client should wait for help to arrive.

Radiographic evaluation of a client's fracture reveals that a bone fragment has been driven into another bone fragment. The nurse identifies this as which type of fracture? Comminuted Compression Impacted Greenstick

Impacted An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment. A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone has splintered into several fragments. A compression fracture is one in which bone has been compressed. A greenstick fracture is one in which one side of the bone is broken, and the other side is bent.

Which type of fracture involves a break through only part of the cross-section of the bone?

Incomplete An incomplete fracture involves a break through only part of the cross-section of the bone. A comminuted fracture is one that produces several bone fragments. An open fracture is one in which the skin or mucous membrane wound extends to the fractured bone. An oblique fracture runs across the bone at a diagonal angle of 45 to 60 degrees.

The nurse is educating the client with diabetes on setting up a sick plan to manage blood glucose control during times of minor illness such as influenza. Which is the most important teaching item to include? Increase frequency of glucose self-monitoring. Decrease food intake until nausea passes. Do not take insulin if not eating. Take half the usual dose of insulin until symptoms resolve.

Increase frequency of glucose self-monitoring Minor illnesses such as influenza can present a special challenge to a diabetic client. The body's need for insulin increases during illness. Therefore, the client should take the prescribed insulin dose, increase the frequency of glucose monitoring, and maintain adequate fluid intake to counteract the dehydrating effects of hyperglycemia.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnosis, which sign indicates approaching death? Increased wakefulness Increased eating Increased restlessness Increased urinary output

Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. As the body weakens, the client will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. For many clients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. Based on decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

A female client is at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which action will reduce the client's risk? Living a sedentary lifestyle to reduce the incidence of injury Stopping estrogen therapy Taking a 300-mg calcium supplement to meet dietary guidelines Initiating weight-bearing exercise routines

Initiating weight-bearing exercise routines

The nurse knows to assess a patient with hyperthyroidism for the primary indicator of: Fatigue Weight gain Constipation Intolerance to heat

Intolerance to heat

The family of a client in hospice decides to place their loved one in a long-term care facility to establish an effective pain control regimen. Which aspects of hospice care is the family using? inpatient respite care Palliative care Continuous care General inpatient care

Palliative care Long-term care is increasing as a setting to provide palliative care that addresses management of symptoms such as pain.

The nurse is evaluating a client's neck for thyroid enlargement. Which action by the nurse is appropriate during the evaluation? Inspect changes in pigmentation in the neck. Perform repeated palpation of the thyroid gland. Palpate the thyroid gland gently. Examine the skin of the neck for excessive oiliness.

Palpate the thyroid gland gently. The nurse should inspect the neck for thyroid enlargement and gently palpate the thyroid gland. Repeated palpation of the thyroid in case of thyroid hyperactivity can result in a sudden release of a large amount of thyroid hormones, which may have serious implications. Pigment changes in the neck and excessive oiliness of the skin are not related to assessment for thyroid enlargement.

A nurse is caring for a client following foot surgery. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the nursing care plan? Examine the surgical dressing every hour. Administer pain medication per client request. Monitor vital signs every 4 hours. Perform neuromuscular assessment every hour.

Perform neuromuscular assessment every hour The priority nursing intervention is to perform a neuromuscular assessment every hour. Early detection of neurological and perfusion problems is important to prevent complications from the surgery. The surgical dressing does not need to be examined hourly. Administering pain medication is important, but assessing the foot color and temperature are most important. Vital sign monitoring is important, but not a priority after foot surgery.

The nurse assesses a patient who has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which of the following is a diagnostic sign of this disease? Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L Sodium of 140 mEq/L Glucose of 100 mg/dL A blood pressure reading of 135/90 mm Hg

Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L Addison's disease is characterized by hypotension, low blood glucose, low serum sodium, and high serum potassium levels. The normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L.

A client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 14 years ago is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with abdominal pain. On admission, the client's blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl. Which finding is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level? Cool, moist skin Rapid, thready pulse Arm and leg trembling Slow, shallow respirations

Rapid, thready pulse This client's abnormally high blood glucose level indicates hyperglycemia, which typically causes polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia. Because polyuria leads to fluid loss, the nurse should expect to assess signs of deficient fluid volume, such as a rapid, thready pulse; decreased blood pressure; and rapid respirations

The nurse is administering an insulin drip to a patient in ketoacidosis. What insulin does the nurse know is the only one that can be used intravenously? NPH Regular Lispro Lantus

Regular Short-acting insulins are called regular insulin (marked R on the bottle). Regular insulin is a clear solution and is usually administered 20 to 30 minutes before a meal, either alone or in combination with a longer-acting insulin. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for IV use.

A nurse explains to a client with thyroid disease that the thyroid gland normally produces: iodine and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and TSH. TSH, triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin. T3, thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin.

TSH, triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin.

Which of the following factors would a nurse identify as a most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a client with diabetes? The client continues medication therapy despite adequate food intake. The client has not consumed sufficient calories. The client has been exercising more than usual. The client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin

The client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin if the client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin, DKA is more likely to develop.

The nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action? Increase fiber in the diet Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises outdoors Reduce stress Decrease the intake of vitamin A and D

Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises outdoors Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising outdoors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine in moderation.

A nurse is assessing a client with hyperthyroidism. What findings should the nurse expect? Weight gain, constipation, and lethargy Weight loss, nervousness, and tachycardia Exophthalmos, diarrhea, and cold intolerance Diaphoresis, fever, and decreased sweating

Weight loss, nervousness, and tachycardia

When assessing a client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine, the nurse is most likely to detect: a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. a blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl. bradycardia. a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg.

a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg Pheochromocytoma causes hypertension, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, hypermetabolism, and weight loss.

Which is not a risk factor for osteoporosis? being male small-framed, thin White or Asian women being postmenopausal family history

being male Some of the risk factors for osteoporosis are being a small-framed, thin White or Asian woman; being postmenopausal; family history; inactivity; chronic low calcium intake; and excessive caffeine or tobacco use.

Before undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy, a client receives potassium iodide (Lugol's solution) and propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should expect the client's symptoms to subside: in a few days. in 3 to 4 months. immediately. in 1 to 2 weeks.

in 1 to 2 week Potassium iodide reduces the vascularity of the thyroid gland and is used to prepare the gland for surgery. Potassium iodide reaches its maximum effect in 1 to 2 weeks. PTU blocks the conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine, the more biologically active thyroid hormone. PTU effects are also seen in 1 to 2 weeks.

Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with a compound fracture? imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to immobility Impaired physical mobility related to trauma Infection related to effects of trauma Activity intolerance related to weight-bearing limitations

infection related to effects of trauma A compound fracture involves an opening in the skin at the fracture site. Because the skin is the body's first line of defense against infection, any skin opening places the client at risk for infection.

Which is a characteristic of type 2 diabetes? insulin resistance presence of islet antibodies little or no insulin ketosis-prone when insulin absent

insulin resistance Type 2 diabetes is characterized by either a decrease in endogenous insulin or an increase accompanied by insulin resistance. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by production of little or no insulin

A client who has injured a hip in a fall cannot place weight on the leg and is in significant pain. After radiographs indicate intact yet malpositioned bones, what repair would the physician perform? joint manipulation and immobilization analgesia and immobilization heat and immobilization ice and immobilization

joint manipulation and immobilization The physician manipulates the joint or reduces the displaced parts until they return to normal position, then immobilizes the joint with an elastic bandage, cast, or splint for several weeks.

A client is undergoing diagnostics for an alteration in thyroid function. What physiologic function is affected by altered thyroid function? metabolic rate growth fluid/electrolyte balance sleep/wake cycles

metabolic rate The thyroid concentrates iodine from food and uses it to synthesize thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These two hormones regulate the body's metabolic rate.

Cardiac effects of hyperthyroidism include decreased pulse pressure. decreased systolic blood pressure. bradycardia. palpitations.

palpitations Cardiac effects may include sinus tachycardia, increased pulse pressure, and palpitations. Systolic blood pressure is elevated.

The nurse is educating a client with low back pain on proper lifting techniques. The nurse recognizes that the education was effective when the client reaches over the head with the arms fully extended. places the load close to the body. uses a narrow base of support. bends at the hips and tightens the abdominal muscles.

places the load close to the body Instructions for the client with low back pain should include that, when lifting, the client should avoid overreaching. The client should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees, and tighten the abdominal muscles; use a wide base of support; and use a back brace to protect the back. Bending at the hips increases the strain on the back muscles when lifting.

The nurse visits the home of a client with terminal illness. Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse that the client might die within a few months? Select all that apply. refuses to eat Sleeps most of the day Reports feeling fatigued Onset of generalized weakness Does not want to visit with family members

refuses to eat Reports feeling fatigued Onset of generalized weakness Does not want to visit with family members

A patient is having low back pain. What position can the nurse suggest to relieve this discomfort? High-Fowler's to allow for maximum hip flexion Supine, with the knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees Prone, with a pillow under the shoulders Supine, with the bed flat and a firm mattress in place

supine, with the knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees A medium to firm, not sagging mattress (a bed board may be used) is recommended; there is no evidence to support the use of a firm mattress (National Guideline Clearinghouse, 2010). Lumbar flexion is increased by elevating the head and thorax 30 degrees by using pillows or a foam wedge and slightly flexing the knees supported on a pillow.

A client with a musculoskeletal injury is instructed to alter the diet. The objective of altering the diet is to facilitate the absorption of calcium from food and supplements. Considering the food intake objective, which food item should the nurse encourage the client to include in the diet? Red meat Bananas Vitamin D-fortified milk Green vegetables

Vitamin D-fortified milk he nurse should advise the client to include dietary sources of vitamin D, such as fatty fish, vitamin D-fortified milk, and cereals. These foods protect against bone loss and decrease the risk of fracture by facilitating the absorption of calcium from food and supplements.

A dying patient wants to talk to the nurse. The patient states, "I know I'm dying, aren't I?" What would an appropriate nursing response be? "This must be very difficult for you." "Let me explain to you what is happening." "I'm so sorry. I know how you must feel." "You know you're dying?"

"This must be very difficult for you." using open-ended questions allows the nurse to elicit the patient's and family's concerns, explore misconceptions and needs for information, and form the basis for collaboration with physicians and other team members.

Which instruction should a nurse give to a client with diabetes mellitus when teaching about "sick day rules"? "Don't take your insulin or oral antidiabetic agent if you don't eat." "It's okay for your blood glucose to go above 300 mg/dl while you're sick." "Test your blood glucose every 4 hours." "Follow your regular meal plan, even if you're nauseous."

"Test your blood glucose every 4 hours." The nurse should instruct a client with diabetes mellitus to check his blood glucose levels every 3 to 4 hours and take insulin or an oral antidiabetic agent as usual, even when he's sick. If the client's blood glucose level rises above 300 mg/dl, he should call his physician immediately. If the client is unable to follow the regular meal plan because of nausea, he should substitute soft foods, such as gelatin, soup, and custard.

An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client's history includes type 1 diabetes, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting: 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. Then the client should check his blood glucose after 15 minutes. If necessary, this treatment may be repeated in 15 minutes.

What is the duration of regular insulin? 4 to 6 hours 3 to 5 hours 12 to 16 hours 24 hours

4 to 6 hours The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours.

A client with diabetes comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse reviews the client's glycosylated hemoglobin test results. Which result would indicate to the nurse that the client's blood glucose level has been well-controlled? 6.5% 7.5 % 8.0% 8.5%

6.5% Normally the level of glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%. Thus a level of 6.5% would indicate that the client's blood glucose level is well-controlled. According to the American Diabetes Association, a glycosylated hemoglobin of 7% is equivalent to an average blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for osteoporosis? A 40-year-old overweight African American woman A 16-year-old male with a history of asthma A small-framed, thin 45-year-old white woman A 20-year-old male athlete with repeated injuries

A small-framed, thin 45-year-old white woman Small-framed, thin white women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. African American women have a greater bone density and thus are less susceptible to osteoporosis. Men have an increased bone mass and do not have hormonal change

The nurse is caring for a client with a hip fracture. The physician orders the client to start taking a bisphosphonate. Which medication would the nurse document as given? Alendronate Raloxifene Teriparatide Denosumab

Alendronate Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Teriparatide is an anabolic agent, and denosumab is a monoclonal antibody agent.

Which group is at the greatest risk for osteoporosis? Men European American women Asian American women African American women

European American women Small-framed, nonobese European American women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. Asian American women of slight build are at risk for low peak bone mineral density. African American women, who have a greater bone mass than European American women and Asian American Women, are less susceptible to osteoporosis.

A client with a fracture develops compartment syndrome that requires surgical intervention. What treatment will the nurse would most likely prepare the client for? Bone graft Joint replacement Fasciotomy Amputation

Fasciotomy Surgical treatment of compartment syndrome is achieved with a fasciotomy, a surgical incision of the fascia and separation of the muscle to relieve pressure and restore tissue perfusion.

A patient sustained an open fracture of the femur 24 hours ago. While assessing the patient, the nurse observes the patient is having difficulty breathing, and oxygen saturation decreases to 88% from a previous 99%. What does the nurse understand is likely occurring with this patient? Spontaneous pneumothorax Cardiac tamponade Pneumonia Fat emboli

Fat emboli After fracture of long bones or pelvic bones, or crush injuries, fat emboli frequently form. Fat embolism syndrome (FES) occurs when fat emboli cause morbid clinical manifestations. The classic triad of clinical manifestations of FES include hypoxemia, neurologic compromise, and a petechial rash hypoxia and tachypnea.

A client undergoes open reduction with internal fixation to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. The nurse should include which intervention in the postoperative care plan? Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's position

Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times After open reduction with internal fixation, the client must keep the affected leg abducted at all times; placing a pillow between the legs reminds the client not to cross the legs and to keep the leg abducted. Passive or active ROM exercises shouldn't be performed on the affected leg during the postoperative period, because this could damage the operative site and cause hip dislocation. Most clients should be turned to the unaffected side, not from side to side. After open reduction with internal fixation, the client must avoid acute flexion of the affected hip to prevent possible hip dislocation; therefore, semi-Fowler's position should be avoided.

Using proper body mechanics to lift objects is essential to prevent exacerbations of low back pain. Which of the following is the most important teaching point? Avoid lifting above waist level. Limit time lifting up to reach something. Contract trunk muscles to stabilize the spine. Lift with the large leg muscles (quadriceps), not the back muscles.

Lift with the large leg muscles (quadriceps), not the back muscles. All teaching points are important but the most important involves limiting back strain by maximizing the use of the quadriceps muscle.

Which factor inhibits fracture healing? Vitamin D Exercise Local malignancy Maximum bone fragment contact

Local malignancy Factors that inhibit fracture healing include local malignancy, bone loss, and extensive local trauma. Factors that enhance fracture healing include proper nutrition, vitamin D, exercise, and maximum bone fragment contact.

Which area of the spinal column is subject to the greatest mechanical stress and degenerative changes? Lower lumbar Upper lumbar Thoracic Cervical

Lower lumbar

Which intervention is the most critical for a client with myxedema coma? Administering an oral dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid) Warming the client with a warming blanket Measuring and recording accurate intake and output Maintaining a patent airway

Maintaining a patent airway Because respirations are depressed in myxedema coma, maintaining a patent airway is the most critical nursing intervention. Ventilatory support is usually needed.

Which of the following would the nurse need to be alert for in a client with severe hypothyroidism? Thyroid storm Myxedemic coma Addison's disease Acromegaly

Myxedema coma

A client receiving thyroid replacement therapy develops influenza and forgets to take her thyroid replacement medicine. The nurse understands that skipping this medication puts the client at risk for developing which life-threatening complication? Exophthalmos Thyroid storm Myxedema coma Tibial myxedema

Myxedema coma Myxedema coma, severe hypothyroidism, is a life-threatening condition that may develop if thyroid replacement medication isn't taken.

Patients with hyperthyroidism are characteristically: Apathetic and anorexic Calm Emotionally stable Sensitive to heat

Sensitive to heat Those with hyperthyroidism tolerate heat poorly and may perspire unusually freely. Their condition is characterized by symptoms of nervousness, hyperexcitability, irritability, and apprehension.

A client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide. Which laboratory test is the most important for confirming this disorder? Serum potassium level Serum sodium level Arterial blood gas (ABG) values Serum osmolarity

Serum osmolarity Serum osmolarity is the most important test for confirming HHNS; it's also used to guide treatment strategies and determine evaluation criteria. A client with HHNS typically has a serum osmolarity of more than 350 mOsm/L

Which is a risk-lowering strategy for osteoporosis? Low initial bone mass Diet low in calcium and vitamin D Smoking cessation Increased age

Smoking cessation Risk-lowering strategies include increased dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and outdoor activity. Individual risk factors include low initial bone mass and increased age. A lifestyle risk factor is a diet low in calcium and vitamin D.

A client is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client reports visiting the gym regularly and is a vegetarian. Which of the following factors is important to consider when the nurse assesses the client? The client's consumption of carbohydrates History of radiographic contrast studies that used iodine The client's mental and emotional status The client's exercise routine

The client's consumption of carbohydrates While assessing a client, it is important to ask about consumption of carbohydrates due to the client's high blood sugar. Although other factors such as the client's mental and emotional status, history of tests involving iodine, and exercise routine can be part of data collection, they are not the priority when assessing a client with high blood sugar.

The family of a terminally ill client tells the nurse that the client has been breathing irregularly and, at times, it appears that he is not breathing at all. The client's daughter states, "He moans when he breathes. Is he in pain?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? "His moaning does indicate pain, so we'll increase his pain medication." "The moaning you hear is from air moving over very relaxed vocal cords." "He has secretions that are collecting at the back of the throat." "He is getting less oxygen to the brain, so the moaning means he is dreaming."

The moaning you hear is from air moving over very relaxed vocal cords." As a client approaches death, certain signs appear. The family is reporting irregular breathing with periods of apnea. The moaning that they hear reflects the sound of air passing over very relaxed vocal cords. It does not signify pain or distress. Therefore, no additional pain medication would be needed. Secretions collecting at the back of the throat are noted by a rattling or gurgling sound. Decreased oxygen to the brain would lead to confusion, which may be reported by the client as strange dreams or visions.

A patient taking corticosteroids for exacerbation of Crohn's disease comes to the clinic and informs the nurse that he wants to stop taking them because of the increase in acne and moon face. What can the nurse educate the patient regarding these symptoms? The symptoms are permanent side effects of the corticosteroid therapy. The moon face and acne will resolve when the medication is tapered off. Those symptoms are not related to the corticosteroid therapy. The dose of the medication must be too high and should be lowered.

The moon face and acne will resolve when the medication is tapered off. Cushing syndrome is commonly caused by the use of corticosteroid medications and is infrequently the result of excessive corticosteroid production secondary to hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex. The patient develops a "moon-faced" appearance and may experience increased oiliness of the skin and acne. If Cushing syndrome is a result of the administration of corticosteroids, an attempt is made to reduce or taper the medication to the minimum dosage needed to treat the underlying disease process (e.g., autoimmune or allergic disease, rejection of a transplanted organ).

A client has been in a motor vehicle collision. Radiographs indicate a fractured humerus; the client is awaiting the casting of the upper extremity and admission to the orthopedic unit. What is the primary treatment for musculoskeletal trauma? immobilization surgical repair external rotation enhancing complications

immobilization Treatment of musculoskeletal trauma involves immobilization of the injured area until it has healed.

A nurse is teaching a client about preventing osteoporosis. Which teaching point is correct? Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss. To prevent fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium supplement.

The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods. Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg per day. Clients usually can get the recommended daily requirement of calcium by eating a varied diet.

A nurse is preparing to administer two types of insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. What is the correct procedure for preparing this medication? The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin. The intermediate-acting insulin is withdrawn before the short-acting insulin. Different types of insulin are not to be mixed in the same syringe. If administered immediately, there is no requirement for withdrawing one type of insulin before another.

The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin. R-> N When combining two types of insulin in the same syringe, the short-acting regular insulin is withdrawn into the syringe first and the intermediate-acting insulin is added next. This practice is referred to as "clear to cloudy."

A client is returned to his room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client's bedside? Indwelling urinary catheter kit Tracheostomy set Cardiac monitor Humidifier

Tracheostomy set After a subtotal thyroidectomy, swelling of the surgical site (the tracheal area) may obstruct the airway. Therefore, the nurse should keep a tracheostomy set at the client's bedside in case of a respiratory emergency.

The spouse of a terminally ill client is confused by the new terminology being used during discussions regarding the client's treatment. The nurse should explain that palliative care is: are that will reduce the client's physical discomfort and manage clinical symptoms. care that is provided at the very end of an illness to ease the dying process. an alternative therapy that uses massage and progressive relaxation for pain relief. offered to terminally ill clients who wish to remain in their homes in lieu of hospice care.

care that will reduce the client's physical discomfort and manage clinical symptoms. aim is to reduce physical discomfort and other distressing symptoms but does not alter a disease's progression. Palliative care is applicable early in the course of illness, in conjunction with other therapies that are intended to prolong life. Palliative care of a terminally ill client not only provides relief from pain and other distressing symptoms but it integrates other facets of patient care as well, including psychological and spiritual aspects. Palliative care is part of hospice care.

A nurse is assessing a client with possible Cushing's syndrome. In a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse expects to find: hypotension. thick, coarse skin. deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. weight gain in arms and legs.

deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. Because of changes in fat distribution, adipose tissue accumulates in the trunk, face (moon face), and dorsocervical areas (buffalo hump).

A client with a 30-year history of type 2 diabetes is having an annual physical and blood work. Which test result would the physician be most concerned with when monitoring the client's treatment compliance? glycosylated hemoglobin hematocrit B1C postprandial glucose CAT scan

glycosylated hemoglobin Once a client with diabetes receives a treatment regimen to follow, the physician can assess the effectiveness of treatment and the client's compliance by obtaining a hemoglobin A1c test. The results of this test reflect the amount of glucose that is stored in the hemoglobin molecule during its life span of 120 days.


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