Prep U ch. 24
The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%.
60 mm Hg; 90% Explanation: The goal is a PaO2 of at least 60 mm Hg and an SaO2 of 90%.
A client has intermittent asthma attacks. Which of the following therapies does the nurse teach the client to use at home when experiencing an asthma attack?
Inhaled albuterol (Ventolin) For intermittent asthma, the preferred treatment is with an inhaled short-acting beta2-agonist. The other treatments are for persistent asthma.
A client with symptoms of mild persistent asthma is now initiating treatment. Which of the following is the preferred therapy that the nurse will teach the client to use at home?
Inhaled beclomethasone (Beconase)
The classification of Stage I of COPD is defined as
mild COPD. Explanation: Stage I is mild COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.
A client is admitted to a health care facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this client?
Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a corticosteroid.
A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?
Proventil Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Respiratory acidosis
The nurse is caring for a patient with status asthmaticus in the intensive care unit (ICU). What does the nurse anticipate observing for the blood gas results related to hyperventilation for this patient?
Respiratory alkalosis Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2) is the most common finding in patients with an ongoing asthma exacerbation and is due to hyperventilation.
A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?
Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute
Which of the following would not be considered a primary symptom of COPD?
Weight gain Explanation: COPD is characterized by three primary symptoms: cough, sputum production, and dyspnea on exertion. Weight loss is common with COPD.
A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed a pneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:
diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side
The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as at risk for COPD. mild COPD. severe COPD. very severe COPD. moderate COPD.
Correct response: severe COPD. Explanation: Stage III is severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.
The nurse is instructing the patient with asthma in the use of a newly prescribed leukotriene receptor antagonist. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?
The patient should take the medication an hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal.
Which exposure acts as a risk factor for and accounts for the majority of cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Exposure to tobacco smoke Occupational exposure Passive smoking Ambient air pollution
exposure to tobacco smoke
The nurse is caring for a patient with status asthmaticus in the intensive care unit (ICU). What does the nurse anticipate observing for the blood gas results related to hyperventilation for this patient? Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis
respiratory alkalosis
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to an acute care facility because of an acute respiratory infection. When assessing the client's respiratory status, which finding should the nurse anticipate?
An inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 2:1 Explanation: The normal I:E ratio is 1:2, meaning that expiration takes twice as long as inspiration. A ratio of 2:1 is seen in clients with COPD because inspiration is shorter than expiration. A client with COPD typically has a barrel chest in which the anteroposterior diameter is larger than the transverse chest diameter. A client with COPD usually has a respiratory rate greater than 12 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation rate below 93%.
Asthma is cause by which type of response?
IgE-mediated Explanation: Atopy, the genetic predisposition for the development of an IgE-mediated response to allergens, is the most common identifiable predisposing factor for asthma. Chronic exposure to airway allergens may sensitize IgE antibodies and the cells of the airway.
A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?
Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions
A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?
Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions Explanation: Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping patients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the patient on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the patient's appetite and result in an inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the patient's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.
A nurse is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
It helps prevent early airway collapse. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent early airway collapse. Learning this technique helps the client control respiration during periods of excitement, anxiety, exercise, and respiratory distress. To increase inspiratory muscle strength and endurance, the client may need to learn inspiratory resistive breathing. To decrease accessory muscle use and thus reduce the work of breathing, the client may need to learn diaphragmatic (abdominal) breathing. In pursed-lip breathing, the client mimics a normal inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 1:2. (A client with emphysema may have an I:E ratio as high as 1:4.)
Histamine, a mediator that supports the inflammatory process in asthma, is secreted by
Mast cells
A patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. When should the nurse administer the pancreatic enzymes that the patient has been prescribed?
With meals Explanation: Nearly 90% of patients with cystic fibrosis have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and require oral pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals.
Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus? A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy Patients have a productive cough. Usually occurs with warning Usually does not progress to severe obstruction
a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy
A patient with end-stage COPD and heart failure asks the nurse about lung reduction surgery. What is the best response by the nurse? a) "You and your physician should discuss the options that are available for treatment." b) "At this point, do you really want to go through something like that?" c) "You would have a difficult time recovering from the procedure." d) "You are not a candidate because you have heart failure."
a. "You and your physician should discuss the options that are available for treatment." Explanation: Treatment options for patients with advanced or end-stage COPD (grade IV) with a primary emphysematous component are limited, although lung volume reduction surgery is a palliative surgical option that is approved by Medicare in selected patients. This includes patients with homogenous disease or disease that is focused in one area and not widespread throughout the lungs. Lung volume reduction surgery involves the removal of a portion of the diseased lung parenchyma. This reduces hyperinflation and allows the functional tissue to expand, resulting in improved elastic recoil of the lung and improved chest wall and diaphragmatic mechanics. This type of surgery does not cure the disease nor improve life expectancy; however, it may decrease dyspnea, improve lung function and exercise tolerance, and improve the patient's overall quality of life (GOLD, 2010).
Emphysema is described by which of the following statements? a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction c) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi d) Presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of two consecutive years
a. A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Explanation: Emphysema is a category of COPD. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.
In which statements regarding medications taken by a client diagnosed with COPD do the the drug name and the drug category correctly match? Select all that apply. Albuterol is a bronchodilator. Dexamethasone is an antibiotic. Cotrimoxazole is a bronchodilator. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. Prednisone is a corticosteroid.
albuterol is a bronchodilator ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic prednisone is a corticosteroid
After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options. Alter smooth muscle tone Reduce airway obstruction Decrease alveolar ventilation Increase oxygen distribution
alter smooth muscle tone reduce airway obstruction increase oxygen distribution
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to an acute care facility because of an acute respiratory infection. When assessing the client's respiratory status, which finding should the nurse anticipate? An inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 2:1 A transverse chest diameter twice that of the anteroposterior diameter An oxygen saturation of 99% A respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute
an inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ration of 2:!
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can't produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:
atelectasis. Explanation: In a client with COPD, an ineffective cough impedes secretion removal. This, in turn, causes mucus plugging, which leads to localized airway obstruction — a known cause of atelectasis. An ineffective cough doesn't cause pleural effusion (fluid accumulation in the pleural space). Pulmonary edema usually results from left-sided heart failure, not an ineffective cough. Although many noncardiac conditions may cause pulmonary edema, an ineffective cough isn't one of them. Oxygen toxicity results from prolonged administration of high oxygen concentrations, not an ineffective cough.
Which statement is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy? Both procedures cure COPD. Both procedures treat end-stage emphysema. Both procedures treat patients with bullous emphysema. Both procedures improve the overall quality of life of a client with COPD.
both procedures improve the overall quality of life of a client with COPD
Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation? Bullae Alveoli Lung parenchyma Mast cells
bullae
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction? a) "Eat a high-sodium diet." b) "Maintain bed rest." c) "Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." d) "Limit yourself to smoking only 2 cigarettes per day."
c. "Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. The resultant venous congestion causes dependent edema. A weight gain may further stress the respiratory system and worsen the client's condition. The nurse should also instruct the client to eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention and engage in moderate exercise to avoid muscle atrophy.The client shouldn't smoke at all.
A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one disorder within its classification. Which of the following is that disorder?
cystic fibrosis
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. The nurse understands that the goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain the patient's SaO2 level at or above what percent? a) 70% b) 50% c) 30% d) 90%
d. 90% Explanation: The goal of supplemental oxygen therapy is to increase the baseline resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) to at least 60 mm Hg at sea level and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) to at least 90%.
A pneumothorax is a possible complication of COPD. Symptoms will depend on the suddenness of the attack and the size of the air leak. The most common, immediate symptom that should be assessed is: Sharp, stabbing chest pain Dyspnea A dry, hacking cough Tachycardia
sharp, stabbing chest pain
A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient? Chest pain during respiration Sputum and a productive cough Fever, chills, and diaphoresis Tachypnea and tachycardia
sputum and productive cough
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and breath sounds aren't audible. This change occurred because:
the airways are so swollen that no air can get through. Explanation: During an acute asthma attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollen that air can't get through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern. Crackles don't replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:
uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Explanation: Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.
The classification of Stage IV of COPD is defined as
very severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage III is severe COPD.
Nursing students are gathered for a study session about the pulmonary system. One student asks the others to name the primary causes for an acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following responses should be in the reply? Choose all that apply.
• Air pollution • Tracheobronchial infection Explanation: Common causes of an acute exacerbation include tracheobronchial infection and air pollution. However, the cause of approximately one third of severe exacerbations cannot be identified. Fractured hips, hypertension, and GI viruses are not causes of exacerbation of COPD.
Which of the following are risk factors for the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply.
• Tobacco smoke • Occupational dust • Air pollution • Infection • Second-hand smoke
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)
• Wheezes • Compromised gas exchange • Decreased airflow Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD.
The hormone brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is produced by which of the following?
Ventricles of the heart
Which is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma?
allergy
Which symptoms are considered primary symptoms of COPD? Cough Sputum production Dyspnea upon exertion Weight gain
cough
After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options.
• Alter smooth muscle tone • Reduce airway obstruction • Increase oxygen distribution
The diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is suspected when which of the following is noted? Select all that apply.
• Right ventricular enlargement • Enlarge of central pulmonary arteries • Elevated plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) • Dyspnea and fatigue disproportionate to pulmonary function abnormalities Explanation: The diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension associated with COPD is suspected in patients complaining of dyspnea and fatigue that appear to be disproportionate to pulmonary function abnormalities. Enlargement of the central pulmonary arteries on the chest X-ray, echocardiogram suggestive of right ventricular enlargement, and elevated plasma BNP may be present
A nursing instructor is discussing asthma and its complications with medical-surgical nursing students. Which of the following would the group identify as complications of asthma? Choose all that apply.
• Status asthmaticus • Atelectasis • Respiratory failure
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of a pneumothorax? Select all that apply.
• Sudden chest pain • Asymmetry of chest movement • Unilateral retractions • Oxygen desaturation
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of a pneumothorax? Select all that apply.
• Sudden chest pain • Oxygen desaturation • Unilateral retractions • Asymmetry of chest movement Explanation: Signs and symptoms of pneumothorax include sudden chest pain that is sharp and abrupt, a significant and sudden increase in shortness of breath, asymmetry of chest movement, unilateral retractions, bilateral differences in breath sounds, and/or oxygen desaturation. The patient with a pneumothorax would not have bilaterally equal breath sounds.
The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%.
60 mm Hg; 90%
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:
"Have you tried to quit smoking before?" Explanation: All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking.
The nurse is reviewing metered-dose inhaler (MDI) instructions with a patient. Which of the following patient statements indicates the need for further instruction?
"I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI."
The nurse is reviewing metered-dose inhaler (MDI) instructions with a patient. Which of the following patient statements indicates the need for further instruction?
"I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." The patient can use a spacer or a holding chamber to facilitate the ease of medication administration. The remaining patient statements are accurate and indicate the patient understands how to use the MDI correctly.
A nurse has just completed teaching with a patient who has been prescribed a meter-dosed inhaler for the first time. Which of the following statements would the nurse use to initiate further teaching and follow-up care?
"I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler."
A nurse has just completed teaching with a patient who has been prescribed a meter-dosed inhaler for the first time. Which of the following statements would the nurse use to initiate further teaching and follow-up care?
"I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler." Explanation: Mouth-washing and spitting are effective in reducing the amount of drug swallowed and absorbed systemically. Actuation during a slow (30 L/min or 3 to 5 seconds) and deep inhalation ... Mouth-washing and spitting are effective in reducing the amount of drug swallowed and absorbed systemically. Actuation during a slow (30 L/min or 3 to 5 seconds) and deep inhalation should be followed by 10 seconds of holding the breath. The patient should actuate only once. Simple tubes do not obviate the spacer/VHC per inhalation.
A male patient newly diagnosed with COPD tells the nurse, "I can't believe I have COPD, I only had a cough; are there other symptoms I should know about"? Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
"Other symptoms you may develop are shortness of breath on exertion, and sputum production."
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction?
"Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day."
A patient with end-stage COPD and heart failure asks the nurse about lung reduction surgery. What is the best response by the nurse?
"You and your physician should discuss the options that are available for treatment."
Emphysema is described by which of the following statements?
A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Emphysema is a category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In emphysema, impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange results from destruction of the walls of over-distended alveoli. Emphysema is a pathologic term that describes an abnormal distention of the airspaces beyond the terminal bronchioles and destruction of the walls of the alveoli. Also, a chronic inflammatory response may induce disruption of the parenchymal tissues. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.
Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?
A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy
Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?
A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy Explanation: Status epilepticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.
Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?
A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy Status epilepticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.
Following are statements regarding medications taken by a patient diagnosed with COPD. Choose which statements correctly match the drug name to the drug category. Select all that apply. a) Albuterol is a bronchodilator. b) Decadron is an antibiotic. c) Bactrim is a bronchodilator. d) Prednisone is a corticosteroid. e) Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic.
A, D, E • Prednisone is a corticosteroid. • Albuterol is a bronchodilator. • Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. Explanation: Theophylline, albuterol, and atropine are bronchodilators. Dexamethasone (Decadron) and prednisone are corticosteroids. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole (Bactrim) are antibiotics. These are all drugs that could be prescribed to a patient with COPD.
A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be
Albuterol Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and pirbuterol. They are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are used to relax smooth muscle.
A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be
Albuterol Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and pirbuterol. They are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are used to relax smooth muscle.
Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma?
Allergy Explanation: Allergy is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma.
A client with asthma is being treated with albuterol (Proventil). Which of the findings from the client's history would indicate to the nurse the need to administer this drug with caution?
Angina Explanation: Patients, especially older adults, with pre-existing cardiovascular disease may have adverse cardiovascular reactions with inhaled therapy. Albuterol does not increase the secretions of the GI tract or cause gastric irritation. It will not worsen a peptic ulcer.
A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
Anxiety
A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
Anxiety In a client with a respiratory disorder, anxiety worsens such problems as dyspnea and bronchospasm. Therefore, Anxietyis a likely nursing diagnosis. This client may have inadequate nutrition, making Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements an unlikely nursing diagnosis. Impaired swallowing may occur in a client with an acute respiratory disorder, such as upper airway obstruction, but not in one with a chronic respiratory disorder. Unilateral neglect may be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when neurologic illness or trauma causes a lack of awareness of a body part; however, this diagnosis doesn't occur in a chronic respiratory disorder.
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for?
Atelectasis In bronchiectasis, the retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the alveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of alveoli. This complication is known as
Atelectasis Retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the aveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).
Which of the following is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy?
Both are aimed at improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD. Explanation: The treatments for COPD are aimed more at treating the symptoms and preventing complications, thereby improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD. In fact, there is no cure for COPD. Lung transplant is aimed at treating end-stage emphysema and bullectomy is used to treat patients with bullous emphysema.
The physician orders a beta-2 adrenergic agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered? Alupent Brethine Foradil Isuprel
Brethine
Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation?
Bullae Bullae are enlarged airspaces that do not contribute to ventilation but occupy space in the thorax. Bullae may compress areas of healthier lung and impair gas exchange. Alveoli are the functional units of the lungs. Lung parenchyma is lung tissue. Mast cells, when activated, release several chemicals called mediators that include histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.
Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation?
Bullae Explanation: Bullae are enlarged airspaces that do not contribute to ventilation but occupy space in the thorax. Bullae may compress areas of healthier lung and impair gas exchange.
A client is at risk for emphysema. When reviewing information about the condition with the client, which would the nurse emphasize as the most important environmental risk factor for emphysema?
Cigarette smoking The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking. Nutrition, exercise, and exposure to dust and pollen are not risk factors for COPD.
A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for aggressive treatment. The nurse first:
Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Explanation: Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.
A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma?
Cromolyn sodium Explanation: Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator.
A home health nurse sees a client with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. An outcome identified for this client is preventing infection. Which finding indicates that this outcome has been met?
Decreased oxygen requirements
Which of the following is a symptom diagnostic of emphysema?
Dyspnea
Which of the following is a symptom diagnostic of emphysema?
Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea is characteristic of emphysema. A chronic cough is considered the primary symptom of chronic bronchitis. Refer to Table 11-1 in the text.
The diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is suspected when which of the following is noted? Select all that apply. Dyspnea and fatigue disproportionate to pulmonary function abnormalities Right ventricular enlargement Elevated plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Enlargement of central pulmonary arteries Left ventricular hypertrophy
Dyspnea and fatigue disproportionate to pulmonary function abnormalities Right ventricular enlargement Elevated plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Enlargement of central pulmonary arteries
A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one disorder within its classification. Which of the following is that disorder?
Emphysema
Which of the following exposures accounts for the majority of cases with regard to risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Exposure to tobacco smoke Explanation: Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors but do not account for the majority.
Which of the following is a common irritant that acts as a trigger of asthma?
Esophageal Reflux Disease
Which of the following is a common irritant that acts as a trigger of asthma?
Esophageal reflux Explanation: Esophageal reflux, viral respiratory infections, cigarette smoke, and exercise are all irritants that can trigger asthma. Peanuts, aspirin sensitivity, and molds are antigens
A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is exhibiting shallow respirations of 32 breaths per minute, despite receiving nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. To improve the client's shortness of breath, the nurse encourages the client to
Exhale slowly
A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is exhibiting shallow respirations of 32 breaths per minute, despite receiving nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. To improve the client's shortness of breath, the nurse encourages the client to
Exhale slowly Explanation: When a client with COPD exhibits shallow, rapid, and inefficient respirations, the nurse encourages the client to perform pursed-lip breathing, which includes exhaling slowly. Deep breaths or upper chest breathing is an inefficient breathing technique and should be changed to diaphragmatic breathing for the client with COPD. Some clients with COPD cannot tolerate much oxygen without developing hypercapnia.
A nurse evaluates the results of a spirometry test to help confirm a diagnosis of obstructive lung disease. Which one of the following results indicates an initial early stage of COPD? (FEV1 refers to forced expired volume in 1 second.)
FEV1 > 80% Explanation: The FEV1 decreases as the severity of obstruction increases. Therefore, an FEV1 of more than 80% indicates an initial stage, and an FEV1 of 30% indicates a very severe stage.
A nurse evaluates the results of a spirometry test to help confirm a diagnosis of obstructive lung disease. Which one of the following results indicates an initial early stage of COPD? (FEV1 refers to forced expired volume in 1 second.) FEV1 > 80% FEV1 = 70% FEV1 = 50% FEV1 = 30%
FEVI> 80%
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:
Have you tried quitting before?
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
High-protein Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
High-protein Explanation: Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.
A home health nurse visits a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who requires oxygen. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching about home oxygen use? "I lubricate my lips and nose with K-Y jelly." "I make sure my oxygen mask is on tightly so it won't fall off while I nap." "I have a 'no smoking' sign posted at my front door to remind guests not to smoke." "I clean my mask with water after every meal."
I make sure my oxygen mask is on tightly so it won't fall off while I nap
In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?
III
A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?
Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping patients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the patient on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the patient's appetite and result in an inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the patient's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.
Which of the following is a characteristics of emphysema?
Increased total lung capacity
A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a coughing episode, the client reports sudden and unrelieved shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most important for the nurse to assess?
Lung sounds
As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?
Respiratory acidosis
Which of the following medications are classified as leukotriene modifiers (inhibitors)? Select all that apply. Montelukast (Singulair) Zafirlukast (Accolate) Zileuton (Zyflo) Ipratropium HFA (Atrovent) Tiotropium (Spiriva)
Montelukast (Singulair) Zafirlukast (Accolate) Zileuton (Zyflo)
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments? Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Intravenous methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 120 mg Ipratropium bromide (Alupent) by metered-dose inhaler Vancomycin 1 gram intravenously over 1 hour
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy. All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
An increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood is termed which of the following?
Polycythemia
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the amounts of red blood cells. Which of the following is the term for this process?
Polycythemia
A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?
Proventil
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil Explanation: Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a cor ... (more) Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a corticosteroid.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment?
Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation Explanation: The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.
Which diagnostic is the most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?
Pulmonary function studies
Which of the following diagnostic test is the most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?
Pulmonary function studies Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC). Pulmonary function studies are used to help confirm the diagnosis of COPD, determine disease severity, and monitor disease progression. ABGs, and pulse oximetry are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction.
As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?
Respiratory acidosis Explanation: As status asthmaticus worsens, the PaCO increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Respiratory acidosis Explanation: Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.
A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?
Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute Explanation: In a client with emphysema, albuterol is used as a bronchodilator. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute indicates that the drug has achieved its therapeutic effect because fewer respirations are required to achieve oxygenation. Albuterol has no effect on pupil reaction or urine output. It may cause a change in the heart rate, but this is an adverse, not therapeutic, effect.
A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient?
Sputum and a productive cough
A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient?
Sputum and a productive cough Explanation: Chronic bronchitis, a disease of the airways, is defined as the presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years.
A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 65% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in?
Stage II All grades of COPD are associated with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70%. Grade I (mild) is associated with an FEV1 of greater than or equal to 80%. Grade II (moderate) is associated with an FEV1 of 50%-80%. Grade III is associated with an FEV1 of <30%-50%. Grade IV is associated with an FEV1 of <30%.
In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?
Stage III Explanation: Stage III patients demonstrate an FEV less than 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure. Stage II patients demonstrate an FEV of 30% to 80%. Stage I is mild COPD with an FEV less than 70%. Stage 0 is characterized by normal spirometry.
To help prevent infections in clients with COPD, the nurse should recommend vaccinations against two bacterial organisms. Which of the following are the two vaccinations?
Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with asthma. Which teaching point has the highest priority?
Take ordered medications as scheduled.
mild COPD
The classification of Stage I of COPD is defined as
For a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?
Using a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as ordered
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.) a) Wheezes b) Decreased airflow c) Compromised gas exchange d) Ascites e) Jugular vein distention
a, b, c Wheezes • Decreased airflow • Compromised gas exchange Explanation: Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD (GOLD, 2010).
A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be Atrovent Albuterol Foradil Isuprel
albuterol
At 11 p.m., a client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/minute. He's anxious, and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately given oxygen by face mask and methylprednisolone (Depo-medrol) I.V. At 11:30 p.m., the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation is 86%, and he's still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:
albuterol (Proventil). The client is hypoxemic because of bronchoconstriction as evidenced by wheezes and a subnormal arterial oxygen saturation level. The client's greatest need is bronchodilation, which can be accomplished by administering bronchodilators. Albuterol is a beta2 adrenergic agonist, which causes dilation of the bronchioles. It's given by nebulization or metered-dose inhalation and may be given as often as every 30 to 60 minutes until relief is accomplished. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic and central nervous system depressant, which could suppress the client's breathing. Propranolol is contraindicated in a client who's wheezing because it's a beta2 adrenergic antagonist. Morphine is a respiratory center depressant and is contraindicated in this situation.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can't produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:
atelectasis
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for?
atelectasis
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of alveoli. This complication is known as
atelectasis
A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed apneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:
diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. In the case of a pneumothorax, auscultating for breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Tracheal deviation occurs in a tension pneumothorax. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in cardiac tamponade.
Which of the following is a symptom diagnostic of emphysema? Dyspnea Copious sputum production Normal elastic recoil The occurrence of cor pulmonale
dyspnea
The nursing student recalls that the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes the following components: (Select all that apply.) Inflamed airways obstruct airflow. Mucus secretions block airways. Overinflated alveoli impair gas exchange. Dry airways obstruct airflow.
inflamed airways obstruct air flow mucus secretions block airways overinflated alveoli impair gas exchange
The classification of Stage I of COPD is defined as
mild COPD.
A client is being admitted to an acute healthcare facility with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client had been taking an antibiotic at home with poor relief of symptoms and has recently decided to stop smoking. The nurse is reviewing at-home medications with the client. The nurse is placing this information on the Medication Reconciliation Record. Which of the following is incomplete information?
salmeterol/fluticasone (Seretide) MDI daily at 0800 When providing information about medications, the nurse needs to include right drug, right dose, right route, right frequency, and right time. Salmeterol/fluticasone does not include how many puffs the client is to take.
The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as
severe COPD.
The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as
severe COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.
cystic fibrosis (CF) is diagnosed by clinical signs and symptoms in addition to which test? Pulmonary function studies Sweat chloride concentration Arterial blood gases Lumbar puncture
sweat chloride production
A client is receiving theophylline for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms. Client education related to this medication will include the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentrations. taking the medication at least 1 hour prior to meals. monitoring liver function studies as prescribed. development of hyperkalemia.
the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentrations
A client with asthma has developed obstruction of the airway. Which of the following does the nurse understand as having potentially contributed to this problem? Choose all that apply. Thick mucus Swelling of bronchial membranes Destruction of the alveolar wall Airway remodeling
thick mucus airway remodeling swelling of bronchial membranes
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he: sits in tripod position. has a pulse oximetry reading of 93%. uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. wants the head of the bed raised to a 90-degree level.
uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles
A nursing student is taking a pathophysiology examination. Which of the following factors would the student correctly identify as contributing to the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Choose all that apply.
• Mucus secretions that block airways • Overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange • Inflamed airways that obstruct airflow
The nurse is teaching the client about use of the pictured item with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse instructs the client as follows: (Select all that apply.)
• Take a slow, deep inhalation from the device. • Activate the MDI once. • The device may increase delivery of the MDI medication.
A client with asthma has developed obstruction of the airway. Which of the following does the nurse understand as having potentially contributed to this problem? Choose all that apply.
• Thick mucus • Swelling of bronchial membranes • Airway remodeling
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)
• Wheezes • Decreased airflow • Compromised gas exchange Explanation: Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD.
A patient with end-stage COPD and heart failure asks the nurse about lung reduction surgery. What is the best response by the nurse?
"You and your physician should discuss the options that are available for treatment." Treatment options for patients with advanced or end-stage COPD (grade IV) with a primary emphysematous component are limited, although lung volume reduction surgery is a palliative surgical option that is approved by Medicare in selected patients. This includes patients with homogenous disease or disease that is focused in one area and not widespread throughout the lungs. Lung volume reduction surgery involves the removal of a portion of the diseased lung parenchyma. This reduces hyperinflation and allows the functional tissue to expand, resulting in improved elastic recoil of the lung and improved chest wall and diaphragmatic mechanics. This type of surgery does not cure the disease nor improve life expectancy; however, it may decrease dyspnea, improve lung function and exercise tolerance, and improve the patient's overall quality of life.
Which of the following is the key underlying feature of asthma?
Inflammation
After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options.
• Increase oxygen distribution • Alter smooth muscle tone • Reduce airway obstruction
A physician orders triamcinolone (Azmacort) and salmeterol (Serevent) for a client with a history of asthma. What action should the nurse take when administering these drugs?
Administer the salmeterol and then administer the triamcinolone. Explanation: A client with asthma typically takes bronchodilators and uses corticosteroid inhalers to prevent acute episodes. Triamcinolone is a corticosteroid; Salmeterol is an adrenergic stimulant (bronchodilator). If the client is ordered a bronchodilator and another inhaled medication, the bronchodilator should be administered first to dilate the airways and to enhance the effectiveness of the second medication. The client may not choose the order in which these drugs are administered because they must be administered in a particular order. Monitoring the client's theophylline level isn't necessary before administering these drugs because neither drug contains theophylline.
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for?
Atelectasis
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of alveoli. This complication is known as
Atelectasis
Which of the following is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy?
Both are aimed at improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD.
Which of the following is a second-line pharmacotherapy for smoking abstinence?
Catapres Second-line pharmacotherapy includes the antihypertensive agent clonidine (Catapres). However, its use is limited by its side effects. First-line therapy includes nicotine gum, Zyban, and Wellbutrin.
A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for aggressive treatment. The nurse first:
Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.
The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of alveoli. This complication is known as Atelectasis Emphysema Pleurisy Pneumonia
Correct response: Atelectasis Explanation: Retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the aveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he: sits in tripod position. has a pulse oximetry reading of 93%. uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. wants the head of the bed raised to a 90-degree level.
Correct response: uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Explanation: Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.
Which of the following exposures accounts for most of the risk factors for COPD?
Exposure to tobacco smoke
Which of the following would not be considered a primary symptom of COPD?
Weight gain
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction?
"Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulm ... (more) The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. The resultant venous congestion causes dependent edema. A weight gain may further stress the respiratory system and worsen the client's condition. The nurse should also instruct the client to eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention and engage in moderate exercise to avoid muscle atrophy. The client shouldn't smoke at all.
The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%.
60, 90%
A client is prescribed metaproterenol 20 mg four times each day. How many mg of metaproterenol does the client take each day? Enter the correct number ONLY.
80
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. The nurse understands that the goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain the patient's SaO2 level at or above what percent?
90% Explanation: The goal of supplemental oxygen therapy is to increase the baseline resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) to at least 60 mm Hg at sea level and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) to at least 90%.
Emphysema is described by which of the following statements?
A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli
A nurse is caring for a client with status asthmaticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
An inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist Explanation: An inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist helps promote bronchodilation, which improves oxygenation. Although an I.V. beta2-adrenergic agonist can be used, the client needs be monitored because of the drug's greater systemic effects. The I.V. form is typically used when the inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist doesn't work. A corticosteroid is slow acting, so its use won't reduce hypoxia in the acute phase.
A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
Anxiety Explanation: In a client with a respiratory disorder, anxiety worsens such problems as dyspnea and bronchospasm. Therefore, Anxiety is a likely nursing diagnosis. This client may have inadequate nutrition, making Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements an unlikely nursing diagnosis. Impaired swallowing may occur in a client with an acute respiratory disorder, such as upper airway obstruction, but not in one with a chronic respiratory disorder. Unilateral neglect may be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when neurologic illness or trauma causes a lack of awareness of a body part; however, this diagnosis doesn't occur in a chronic respiratory disorder.
A 55-year-old client is scheduled for spirometry testing for evaluation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse
Asks the client, "What are your allergies?" Explanation: Spirometry testing includes use of a bronchodilator and then further testing. The nurse needs to assess for allergies first. The client does not need to be NPO prior to spirometry testing. Venous blood work may be done for clients younger than 45 years old, to check for a deficiency in alpha 1-antitrypsin. Arterial blood gases, if ordered, are obtained prior to spirometry testing.
The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%. 54 mm Hg; 84% 56 mm Hg; 86% 58 mm Hg; 88% 60 mm Hg; 90%
Correct response: 60 mm Hg; 90% Explanation: The goal is a PaO2 of at least 60 mm Hg and an SaO2 of 90%
A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma?
Cromolyn sodium Explanation: Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator
Although many signs and symptoms lead to a diagnosis of emphysema, one symptom stands as the primary presenting symptom. Which of the following is the primary presenting symptom?
Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea may be severe and often interferes with the patient's activities. It is usually progressive, worse with exercise, and persistent. As COPD progresses, dyspnea may occur at rest. Chronic cough and sputum production often precede the development of airflow limitation by many years. However, not all people with cough and sputum production develop COPD. The cough may be intermittent and unproductive in some patients.
The nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client
Exhales hard and fast with a single blow Explanation: To use a peak flow meter, the client stands. Then the client takes a deep breath and exhales hard and fast with a single blow. The client repeats this twice and records a "personal best" in an asthma diary.
Which of the following exposures accounts for the majority of cases with regard to risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Exposure to tobacco smoke
Which of the following exposures accounts for most of the risk factors for COPD?
Exposure to tobacco smoke Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors, but they do not account for most cases.
Which of the following exposures accounts for most of the risk factors for COPD?
Exposure to tobacco smoke Explanation: Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors, but they do not account for most cases.
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
High-protein
A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 85% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in?
I
The nurse is reviewing pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) instructions with a client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? "Because I am prescribed a corticosteroid-containing MDI, I will rinse my mouth with water after use." "I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." "I will take a slow, deep breath in after pushing down on the MDI." "I will shake the MDI container before I use it."
I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI
A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 65% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in?
II
A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 40% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in?
III
In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?
III
Which type of chest configuration is typical of a client with COPD?
III
Asthma is cause by which type of response?
IgE-mediated
Asthma is cause by which type of response? IgE-mediated IgA-mediated IgD-mediated IgM-mediated
IgE-mediated
A nurse is assisting a client with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to set a goal related to the condition. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for this client?
Increase walking distance around a city block without shortness of breath. If the client has mild COPD, goals are to increase exercise and prevent further loss of pulmonary function. The client who increases his walking distance without shortness of breath meets these criteria. If the client has severe COPD, goals are then to preserve current pulmonary function and relieve symptoms as much as possible. Examples of these goals are the other options, in which the activity level is at current and symptoms are relieved to tolerable or close to tolerable.
A client has intermittent asthma attacks. Which of the following therapies does the nurse teach the client to use at home when experiencing an asthma attack?
Inhaled albuterol (Ventolin)
A nurse is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
It helps prevent early airway collapse. Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent early airway collapse. Learning this technique helps the client control respiration during periods of excitement, anxiety, exercise, and respiratory distress. To increase inspiratory muscle strength and endurance, the client may need to learn inspiratory resistive breathing. To decrease accessory muscle use and thus reduce the work of breathing, the client may need to learn diaphragmatic (abdominal) breathing. In pursed-lip breathing, the client mimics a normal inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 1:2. (A client with emphysema may have an I:E ratio as high as 1:4.)
A client being seen in the emergency department has labored respirations. Auscultation reveals inspiratory and expiratory wheezes. Oxygen saturation is 86%. The client was nonresponsive to an albuterol (Ventolin) inhaler and intravenous methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol). The nurse administers the following prescribed treatment first:
Oxygen therapy through a non-rebreather mask
The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old female patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which of the following nursing interventions will be included in the patient's plan of care?
Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the amounts of red blood cells. Which of the following is the term for this process?
Polycythemia Explanation: Polycythemia is an increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood. In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells.
An increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood is termed which of the following?
Polycythemia Explanation: Polycythemia is an increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood. Emphysema is a disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Asthma is a disease with multiple precipitating mechanisms resulting in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction.
A patient with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?
Proventil Explanation: Proventil, a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Atrovent is an anticholinergic. Combivent is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Flovent is a corticosteroid.
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Respiratory acidosis Explanation: Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with asthma. Which teaching point has the highest priority?
Take ordered medications as scheduled. Explanation: Although avoiding contact with fur-bearing animals, changing filters on heating and air conditioning units frequently, and avoiding goose down pillows are all appropriate measures for clients with asthma, taking ordered medications on time is the most important measure in preventing asthma attacks.
The nurse is instructing the patient with asthma in the use of a newly prescribed leukotriene receptor antagonist. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?
The patient should take the medication an hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the leukotriene receptor antagonist at least 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals.
For a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?
Using a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as ordered The client with COPD retains carbon dioxide, which inhibits stimulation of breathing by the medullary center in the brain. As a result, low oxygen levels in the blood stimulate respiration, and administering unspecified, unmonitored amounts of oxygen may depress ventilation. To promote adequate gas exchange, the nurse should use a Venturi mask to deliver a specified, controlled amount of oxygen consistently and accurately. Drinking three glasses of fluid daily wouldn't affect gas exchange or be sufficient to liquefy secretions, which are common in COPD. Clients with COPD and respiratory distress should be placed in high Fowler's position and shouldn't receive sedatives or other drugs that may further depress the respiratory center.
Which statement describes emphysema? A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli A disease that results in reversible airflow obstruction, a common clinical outcome Presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of two consecutive years Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi
a disease of the airways characterized by the destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli
Which of the following are risk factors for the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply. Tobacco smoke Occupational dust Air pollution Infection Second-hand smoke
all of the above
Which type of chest configuration is typical of a client with COPD?
barrel chest
A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be a) Foradil b) Isuprel c) Atrovent d) Albuterol
d. Albuterol Explanation: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and pirbuterol. They are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are used to relax smooth muscle.
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
high protein
The nurse is reviewing first-line pharmacotherapy for smoking abstinence with a client diagnosed with COPD. The nurse correctly includes which medications? Select all that apply. Nicotine gum Clonidine Bupropion SR Varenicline
nicotine gum bupropion SR
The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old client diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which nursing intervention will be included in the client's care plan? Restricting oral intake to 1,000 mL/day Providing the client a low-sodium diet Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered Discussing palliative care and end-of-life issues with the client
performing chest physiotherapy as ordered
A nursing student knows that there are three most common symptoms of asthma. Choose the three that apply.
• Cough • Dyspnea • Wheezing
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and breath sounds aren't audible. This change occurred because:
the airways are so swollen that no air can get through.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:
uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles.
The diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is suspected when which of the following is noted? Select all that apply.
• Dyspnea and fatigue disproportionate to pulmonary function abnormalities • Right ventricular enlargement • Elevated plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) • Enlarge of central pulmonary arteries
Following are statements regarding medications taken by a patient diagnosed with COPD. Choose which statements correctly match the drug name to the drug category. Select all that apply.
• Prednisone is a corticosteroid. • Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. • Albuterol is a bronchodilator.
After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options.
• Reduce airway obstruction • Increase oxygen distribution • Alter smooth muscle tone
The nurse is reviewing pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) instructions with a client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? "Because I am prescribed a corticosteroid-containing MDI, I will rinse my mouth with water after use." "I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." "I will take a slow, deep breath in after pushing down on the MDI." "I will shake the MDI container before I use it."
Correct response: "I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." Explanation: The client can use a spacer or a holding chamber to facilitate the ease of medication administration. The remaining client statements are accurate and indicate the client understands how to use the MDI correctly.
A nurse is discussing asthma complications with a client and family. What complications should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. Status asthmaticus Respiratory failure Pertussis Atelectasis Thoracentesis
Correct response: Status asthmaticus Respiratory failure Atelectasis Explanation: Complications of asthma may include status asthmaticus, respiratory failure, and atelectasis. Pertussis is not an asthma complication. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic procedure, not a complication.
The classification of Stage IV of COPD is defined as at risk for COPD. mild COPD. severe COPD. very severe COPD. moderate COPD.
Correct response: very severe COPD. Explanation: Stage IV is very severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage III is severe COPD.
At 11 p.m., a client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/minute. He's anxious, and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately given oxygen by face mask and methylprednisolone (Depo-medrol) I.V. At 11:30 p.m., the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation is 86%, and he's still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:
albuterol (Proventil).
A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one disorder within its classification. Which of the following is that disorder? Asthma Bronchiectasis Cystic fibrosis Emphysema
emphysema
A nursing instructor is discussing asthma and its complications with medical-surgical nursing students. Which of the following would the group identify as complications of asthma? Choose all that apply.
• Atelectasis • Status asthmaticus • Respiratory failure Explanation: Complications of asthma may include status asthmaticus, respiratory failure, pneumonia, and atelectasis. Pertussis and pneumothorax are not complications.
You are caring for a client with obstructive pulmonary disease. Your nursing care includes diagnoses, outcomes, and interventions for what? Pain Atelectasis Impaired physical mobility Side effects of medication therapy
Correct response: Atelectasis Explanation: For a client with obstructive pulmonary disease, atelectasis is one of the conditions for which nursing actions are identified to detect, manage, and minimize the unexpected outcomes.
An asthma educator is teaching a new patient with asthma and his family about the use of a peak flow meter. What does a peak flow meter measure? Highest airflow during a forced inspiration Highest airflow during a forced expiration Highest airflow during a normal inspiration Highest airflow during a normal expiration
Correct response: Highest airflow during a forced expiration Explanation: A peak flow meter is a small hand-held device that measures the fastest flow the patient can generate after taking a deep breath in and blowing out as hard and fast as possible.
A nursing student is taking a pathophysiology examination. Which of the following factors would the student correctly identify as contributing to the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Choose all that apply. Inflamed airways that obstruct airflow Mucus secretions that block airways Overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange Dry airways that obstruct airflow Decreased numbers of goblet cells
Correct response: Inflamed airways that obstruct airflow Mucus secretions that block airways Overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange Explanation: Because of chronic inflammation and the body's attempts to repair it, changes and narrowing occur in the airways. In the proximal airways, changes include increased numbers of goblet cells and enlarged submucosal glands, both of which lead to hypersecretion of mucus. In the peripheral airways, inflammation causes thickening of the airway wall, peribronchial fibrosis, exudate in the airway, and overall airway narrowing.
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances? Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis
Correct response: Respiratory acidosis Explanation: Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.
A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect? Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute Dilated and reactive pupils Urine output of 40 ml/hour Heart rate of 100 beats/minute
Correct response: Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute Explanation: In a client with emphysema, albuterol is used as a bronchodilator. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute indicates that the drug has achieved its therapeutic effect because fewer respirations are required to achieve oxygenation. Albuterol has no effect on pupil reaction or urine output. It may cause a change in the heart rate, but this is an adverse, not therapeutic, effect.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?
Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute
A client with asthma is being treated with albuterol (Proventil). Which of the findings from the client's history would indicate to the nurse the need to administer this drug with caution? Raynaud's disease Peptic ulcer disease Bronchospasm Angina
angina
A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is exhibiting shallow respirations of 32 breaths per minute, despite receiving nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. To improve the client's shortness of breath, the nurse encourages the client to Take deep breaths Exhale slowly Perform upper chest breaths Increase the flow of oxygen
exhale slowly
The client is prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) 2 puffs as a metered-dose inhaler. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client Positions the inhaler 1 to 2 inches away from his open mouth Carefully holds the inhaler upright without shaking it Holds the breath for 5 seconds after administering the medication Immediately repeats the second puff after the first puff
positions the inhaler 1-2 inches away from open mouth
A client has been classified as status asthmaticus. The nurse understands that this client will likely initially exhibit symptoms of: Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic acidosis
respiratory alkalosis
A client is being admitted to an acute healthcare facility with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client had been taking an antibiotic at home with poor relief of symptoms and has recently decided to stop smoking. The nurse is reviewing at-home medications with the client. The nurse is placing this information on the Medication Reconciliation Record. Which of the following is incomplete information?
salmeterol/fluticasone (Seretide) MDI daily at 0800
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)
• Decreased airflow • Wheezes • Compromised gas exchange
After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options.
• Reduce airway obstruction • Alter smooth muscle tone • Increase oxygen distribution Explanation: Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone and reduce airway obstruction by allowing increased oxygen distribution throughout the lungs and improving alveolar ventilation.
A patient is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress, coupled with pneumonia. The patient has no past medical history. However, the patient works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which of the following orders based on immediate needs for the patient?
Administration of antibiotics Explanation: Antibiotics are administered to treat respiratory tract infections. Chronic bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi caused by irritants or infection. Hence, smoking cessation and avoiding pollutants are necessary to slow the accelerated decline of the lung tissue. However, the immediate priority in this case is to cure the infection, pneumonia. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are administered to asthmatic patients when they show symptoms of wheezing. An ECG is used to evaluate atrial arrhythmias
A nurse has just completed teaching with a client who has been prescribed a meter-dosed inhaler for the first time. Which statement if made by the client would indicate to the nurse that further teaching and follow-up care is necessary? "I will make sure to take a slow, deep breath as I push on my inhaler." "After I breathe in, I will hold my breath for 10 seconds." "I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler." "If I use the spacer, I know I am only supposed to push on the inhaler once."
Correct response: "I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler." Explanation: Mouth-washing and spitting are effective in reducing the amount of drug swallowed and absorbed systemically. Actuation during a slow (30 L/min or 3 to 5 seconds) and deep inhalation should be followed by 10 seconds of holding the breath. The client should actuate only once. Simple tubes do not obviate the spacer/VHC per inhalation.
The clinic nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client asks the nurse what COPD means. What would be the nurse's best response? "It is an umbrella term for diseases like acute bronchitis." "It means that the lungs have been damaged in such a way that there is limited airflow in and out of the lungs." "It means your lungs can't expand and contract like they are supposed to which makes it hard for you to breathe." "It is a term that covers so many lung diseases I can't list them all."
Correct response: "It means that the lungs have been damaged in such a way that there is limited airflow in and out of the lungs." Explanation: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an umbrella term for chronic lung diseases that have limited airflow in and out of the lungs.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction? "Limit yourself to smoking only 2 cigarettes per day." "Eat a high-sodium diet." "Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." "Maintain bed rest."
Correct response: "Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. The resultant venous congestion causes dependent edema. A weight gain may further stress the respiratory system and worsen the client's condition. The nurse should also instruct the client to eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention and engage in moderate exercise to avoid muscle atrophy.The client shouldn't smoke at all.
In which statements regarding medications taken by a client diagnosed with COPD do the the drug name and the drug category correctly match? Select all that apply. Albuterol is a bronchodilator. Dexamethasone is an antibiotic. Cotrimoxazole is a bronchodilator. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. Prednisone is a corticosteroid.
Correct response: Albuterol is a bronchodilator. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. Prednisone is a corticosteroid. Explanation: Theophylline, albuterol, and atropine are bronchodilators. Dexamethasone and prednisone are corticosteroids. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole are antibiotics. All of these drugs could be prescribed to a client with COPD.
A nurse is teaching a client about bronchodilators. What bronchodilator actions that relieve bronchospams should the nurse include in the client teaching? Select all that apply. Alter smooth muscle tone Reduce airway obstruction Decrease alveolar ventilation Increase oxygen distribution Reduce inflammation
Correct response: Alter smooth muscle tone Reduce airway obstruction Increase oxygen distribution Explanation: Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone and reduce airway obstruction by allowing increased oxygen distribution throughout the lungs and improving alveolar ventilation. Inflammation would be reduced by corticosteriods.
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a client with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? Select all that apply. Compromised gas exchange Decreased airflow Wheezes Jugular vein distention Ascites
Correct response: Compromised gas exchange Decreased airflow Wheezes Explanation: Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD (GOLD, 2015).
A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one disorder within its classification. Which of the following is that disorder? Asthma Bronchiectasis Cystic fibrosis Emphysema
Correct response: Emphysema Explanation: COPD may include diseases that cause airflow obstruction (eg, emphysema, chronic bronchitis) or any combination of these disorders. Other diseases such as cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, and asthma that were previously classified as types of COPD are now classified as chronic pulmonary disorders. Asthma is now considered a distinct, separate disorder and is classified as an abnormal airway condition characterized primarily by reversible inflammation.
A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 40% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in? I II III IV
Correct response: III Explanation: All grades of COPD are associated with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70%. Grade I (mild) is associated with an FEV1 of greater than or equal to 80%. Grade II (moderate) is associated with an FEV1 of 50%-80%. Grade III is associated with an FEV1 of <30%-50%. Grade IV is associated with an FEV1 of <30%.
In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%? I II III IV
Correct response: IV Explanation: Clients with grade III COPD demonstrate an FEV1 less than 30-50% predicted, with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure. Grade I is mild COPD, with an FEV1 ≥80% predicted. Clients with grade II COPD demonstrate an FEV1 of 50-80% predicted. Grade IV is characterized by FEV1 less 30% predicted.
A client with symptoms of mild persistent asthma is now initiating treatment. Which of the following is the preferred therapy that the nurse will teach the client to use at home? Inhaled beclomethasone Oral sustained-release albuterol Subcutaneous omalizumab Oral prednisone
Correct response: Inhaled beclomethasone Explanation: For mild persistent asthma, the preferred treatment is an inhaled corticosteroid, such as beclomethasone (Beconase). The other medications are for long-term control, prevention, or both in moderate to severe persistent asthma.
A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a coughing episode, the client reports sudden and unrelieved shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most important for the nurse to assess? Lung sounds Skin color Heart rate Respiratory rate
Correct response: Lung sounds Explanation: A client with COPD is at risk for developing pneumothorax. The description given is consistent with possible pneumothorax. Though the nurse will assess all the data, auscultating the lung sounds will provide the nurse with the information if the client has a pneumothorax.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments? Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Intravenous methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 120 mg Ipratropium bromide (Alupent) by metered-dose inhaler Vancomycin 1 gram intravenously over 1 hour
Correct response: Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: When a client presents in the emergency department with an exacerbation of COPD, the nurse should first administer oxygen therapy and perform a rapid assessment of whether the exacerbation is potentially life threatening.
The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old client diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which nursing intervention will be included in the client's care plan? Restricting oral intake to 1,000 mL/day Providing the client a low-sodium diet Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered Discussing palliative care and end-of-life issues with the client
Correct response: Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered Explanation: Nursing care includes helping clients manage pulmonary symptoms and prevent complications. Specific measures include strategies that promote removal of pulmonary secretions, chest physiotherapy, and breathing exercises. In addition, the nurse emphasizes the importance of an adequate fluid and dietary intake to promote removal of secretions and to ensure an adequate nutritional status. Clients with CF also experience increased salt content in sweat gland secretions; thus it is important to ensure the client consumes a diet that contains adequate amounts of sodium. As the disease progresses, the client will develop increasing hypoxemia. In this situation, preferences for end-of-life care should be discussed, documented, and honored; however, there is no indication that the client is terminally ill.
The nurse is educating a patient with asthma about preventative measures to avoid having an asthma attack. What does the nurse inform the patient is a priority intervention to prevent an asthma attack? Using a long-acting steroid inhaler when an attack is coming Avoiding exercise and any strenuous activity Preparing a written action plan Staying in the house if it is too cold or too hot
Correct response: Preparing a written action plan Explanation: Asthma exacerbations are best managed by early treatment and education, including the use of written action plans as part of any overall effort to educate patients about self-management techniques, especially those with moderate or severe persistent asthma or with a history of severe exacerbations (Expert Panel Report 3, 2007).
A client presents to the ED experiencing symptoms of COPD exacerbation. The nurse understands that goals of therapy should be achieved to improve the client's condition. Which statements reflect therapy goals? Select all that apply. Provide medical support for the current exacerbation. Treat the underlying cause of the event. Return the client to their original functioning abilities. Provide long-term support for medical management. Teach the client to suspend activity.
Correct response: Provide medical support for the current exacerbation. Treat the underlying cause of the event. Return the client to their original functioning abilities. Provide long-term support for medical management. Explanation: The goal is to have a stable client with COPD leading the most productive life possible. COPD cannot necessarily be cured, but it can be managed so that the client can live a reasonably normal life. With adequate management, clients should not have to give up their usual activities.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment? Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation Avoiding the use of oxygen to decrease the hypoxic drive Monitoring the pulse oximetry to assess need for early intervention when PCO2 levels rise Increasing pH
Correct response: Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation Explanation: The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.
A patient is being treated for status asthmaticus. What danger sign does the nurse observe that can indicate impending respiratory failure? Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis
Correct response: Respiratory acidosis Explanation: In status asthmaticus, increasing PaCO2 (to normal levels or levels indicating respiratory acidosis) is a danger sign signifying impending respiratory failure. Understanding the sequence of the pathophysiologic processes in status asthmaticus is important for understanding assessment findings. Respiratory alkalosis occurs initially because the patient hyperventilates and PaCO2 decreases. As the condition continues, air becomes trapped in the narrowed airways and carbon dioxide is retained, leading to respiratory acidosis.
Which of the following is not a primary symptom of COPD? Cough Sputum production Dyspnea upon exertion Weight gain
Correct response: Weight gain Explanation: COPD is characterized by three primary symptoms: cough, sputum production, and dyspnea upon exertion. Weight loss is common with COPD.
A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed a pneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include: diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. paradoxical chest wall movement with respirations. tracheal deviation to the unaffected side. muffled or distant heart sounds.
Correct response: diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. Explanation: In the case of a pneumothorax, auscultating for breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Tracheal deviation occurs in a tension pneumothorax. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in cardiac tamponade.
A client is being admitted to an acute health care facility with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse is placing this information on the Medication Reconciliation Record. What medication information needs to be clarified with the health care provider? nicotine patch 21 mg transdermal daily at 0800 salmeterol/fluticasone MDI daily at 0800 azithromycin 600 mg oral daily for 10 days at 0800, on Day 4 prednisone 5 mg oral daily at 0800
Correct response: salmeterol/fluticasone MDI daily at 0800 Explanation: When providing information about medications, the nurse needs to include right drug, right dose, right route, right frequency, and right time. Salmeterol/fluticasone does not include how many puffs the client is to take.
A client is being admitted to the medical-surgical unit for the treatment of an exacerbation of acute asthma. Which medication is contraindicated in the treatment of asthma exacerbations? Albuterol Cromolyn sodium Levalbuterol HFA Ipratropium
Cromolyn sodium
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports increased shortness of breath and fatigue for 1 hour after awakening in the morning. Which of the following statements by the nurse would best help with the client's shortness of breath and fatigue?
Delay self-care activities for one hour Explanation: Some clients with COPD have shortness of breath and fatigue in the morning on arising as a result of bronchial secretions. Planning self-care activities around this time may be better tolerated by the client, such as delaying activities until the client is less short of breath or fatigued. The client raising the arms over the head may increase dyspnea and fatigue. Sitting in a chair when bathing or dressing will aid in dyspnea and fatigue but does not address the situation upon arising. Drinking fluids will assist in liquifying secretions which, thus, will aid in breathing, but again does not address the situation in the morning.
The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old female patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which of the following nursing interventions will be included in the patient's plan of care?
Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered Nursing care includes helping patients manage pulmonary symptoms and prevent complications. Specific measures include strategies that promote removal of pulmonary secretions, chest physiotherapy, and breathing exercises. In addition, the nurse emphasizes the importance of an adequate fluid and dietary intake to promote removal of secretions and to ensure an adequate nutritional status. The patient with CF also experiences increased salt content in sweat gland secretions; thus, it is important to ensure the patient consumes a diet that is adequate in sodium. As the disease progresses, the patient will develop increasing hypoxemia. In this situation, preferences for end-of-life care should be discussed, documented, and honored; however, there is no indication that the patient terminally ill.
A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant? Cromolyn sodium Theo-Dur Serevent Proventil
Proventil
A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?
Proventil Explanation: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
Emphysema is described by which of the following statements? a) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction b) Presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years c) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi d) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli
d. A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Explanation: Emphysema is a category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In emphysema, impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange results from destruction of the walls of over-distended alveoli. Emphysema is a pathologic term that describes an abnormal distention of the airspaces beyond the terminal bronchioles and destruction of the walls of the alveoli. Also, a chronic inflammatory response may induce disruption of the parenchymal tissues. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.
Which of the following is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy? a) Both are aimed at curing COPD. b) Both are aimed at treating end-stage emphysema. c) Both are used to treat patients with bullous emphysema. d) Both are aimed at improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD.
d. Both are aimed at improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD. Explanation: The treatments for COPD are aimed more at treating the symptoms and preventing complications, thereby improving the overall quality of life of a patient with COPD. In fact, there is no cure for COPD. Lung transplant is aimed at treating end-stage emphysema and bullectomy is used to treat patients with bullous emphysema.
A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments? a) Intravenous methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 120 mg b) Vancomycin 1 gram intravenously over 1 hour c) Ipratropium bromide (Alupent) by metered-dose inhaler d) Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute
d. Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.
Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.) Compromised gas exchange Decreased airflow Wheezes Jugular vein distention Ascites
decreased airflow compromised gas exchange wheezes
A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed a pneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:
diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:
uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Explanation: Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.
The classification of Stage IV of COPD is defined as
very severe COPD. Explanation: Stage IV is very severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage III is severe COPD.
The nurse is teaching the client about use of the pictured item with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse instructs the client as follows: (Select all that apply.)
• Activate the MDI once. • The device may increase delivery of the MDI medication. • Take a slow, deep inhalation from the device.
Nursing students are gathered for a study session about the pulmonary system. One student asks the others to name the primary causes for an acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following responses should be in the reply? Choose all that apply.
• Air pollution • Tracheobronchial infection
Following are statements regarding medications taken by a patient diagnosed with COPD. Choose which statements correctly match the drug name to the drug category. Select all that apply.
• Albuterol is a bronchodilator. • Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. • Prednisone is a corticosteroid. Theophylline, albuterol, and atropine are bronchodilators. Dexamethasone (Decadron) and prednisone are corticosteroids. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole (Bactrim) are antibiotics. These are all drugs that could be prescribed to a patient with COPD.
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of a pneumothorax? Select all that apply.
• Asymmetry of chest movement • Sudden chest pain • Oxygen desaturation • Unilateral retractions Explanation: Signs and symptoms of pneumothorax include sudden chest pain that is sharp and abrupt, a significant and sudden increase in shortness of breath, asymmetry of chest movement, unilateral retractions, bilateral differences in breath sounds, and/or oxygen desaturation. The patient with a pneumothorax would not have bilaterally equal breath sounds.
Which of the following medications are classified as leukotriene modifiers (inhibitors)? Select all that apply.
• Zafirlukast (Accolate) • Montelukast (Singulair) • Zileuton (Zyflo) Explanation: Singulair, Accolate, and Zyflo are leukotriene modifiers. Atrovent is a short-acting anticholinergic. Spiriva is a long-acting anticholinergic.