PrepU's Ch 12: Oncologic Management
The client is diagnosed with a benign brain tumor. Which of the following features of a benign tumor is of most concern to the nurse?
Tumor pressure against normal tissues Benign tumors grow more slowly than malignant tumors and do not emit tumor-specific antigens or proteins. Benign tumors do not metastasize to distant sites. Benign tumors can compress tissues as it grows, which can result in impaired organ functioning.
A client is receiving radiation therapy and asks the nurse about oral hygiene. What teaching specific to the client's situation should the nurse include?
Use a soft toothbrush and allow it to air dry before storing. The nurse advises the client undergoing radiation therapy to use a soft toothbrush to avoid gum lacerations and allow the toothbrush to air dry before storing. Gargling after each meal, flossing before going to bed, and treating cavities immediately are general oral hygiene instructions.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin (DaunoXome) to a patient with lung cancer. Which situation requires immediate intervention?
The I.V. site is red and swollen. Explanation: A red, swollen I.V. site indicates possible infiltration. Daunorubicin is a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent and can be very damaging to tissue if it infiltrates. The nurse should immediately stop the medication, apply ice to the site, and notify the physician. Although nausea, WBC count of 1,000/mm3, and shivering require interventions, these findings aren't a high priority at this time.
Following surgery for adenocarcinoma, the client learns the tumor stage is T3,N1,M0. What treatment mode should the nurse anticipate?
Adjuvant therapy is likely. Explanation: T3 indicates a large tumor size, with N1 indicating regional lymph node involvement so treatment is needed. A T3 tumor must have its size reduced with adjuncts like chemotherapy and radiation. Although M0 suggest no metastasis, following with adjuvant (chemotherapy or radiation therapy) treatment is indicated to prevent the spread of cancer outside the lymph to other organs. The tumor stage IV wound be indicative of palliative care. A repeated biopsy is not needed until after treatment is completed.
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?
Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as ordered The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy. Serving small portions of bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours are less likely to achieve this outcome.
The nurse is providing client teaching for a client undergoing chemotherapy. What dietary modifications should the nurse advise?
Avoid spicy and fatty foods. The nurse advises a client undergoing chemotherapy to avoid hot and very cold liquids and spicy and fatty foods. The nurse also encourages the client to have small meals and appropriate fluid intake.
A client is receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer. Which intervention should be part of this client's care plan?
Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas Explanation: Because external radiation commonly causes skin irritation, the nurse should wash the irradiated area with water only and leave the area open to air. No soaps, deodorants, lotions, or powders should be applied. A lead apron is unnecessary because no radiation source is present in the client's body or room. Skin in the area to be irradiated is marked to position the radiation beam as precisely as possible; skin markings must not be removed.
A nurse is performing a home visit for a client who received chemotherapy within the past 24 hours. The nurse observes a small child playing in the bathroom, where the toilet lid has been left up. Based on these observations, the nurse modifies the client's teaching plan to include:
chemotherapy exposure and risk factors. The raised toilet lid exposes the child playing in the bathroom to the risk of inhaling or ingesting chemotherapy agents. The nurse should modify her teaching plan to include content related to chemotherapy exposure and its associated risk factors. Because the client has received chemotherapy, the plan should already include information about expected adverse effects, signs and symptoms of infection, and reinforcement of the medication regimen.
The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer. The nurse should recommend the client change which lifestyle choice?
eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day Dietary substances such as nitrate-containing and red meats appear to increase the risk of cancer. Exercising 30 minutes on 5 days or more is recommended for adults. Measures are taken to protect those people who work around radiation. Alcohol consumption recommendations include drink no more than one drink per day for women or two per day for men.
A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with
seizure. Explanation: A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with seizures, abnormal reflexes, papilledema, coma, and death. Anorexia, weight gain, and myalgia are associated with serum sodium concentrations lower than 120 mEq/L.
While doing a health history, a client tells the nurse that her mother, her grandmother, and her sister died of breast cancer. The client asks what she can do to keep from getting cancer. What is the best response by the nurse?
"Cancer prevention and detection can be done with blood analysis for tumor markers to measure your risk level." Specialized tests have been developed for tumor markers, specific proteins, antigens, hormones, genes, or enzymes that cancer cells release. The nurse cannot say that cancer can be avoided with healthy behaviors; this is inaccurate information. A family history is a reason for the client to be concerned. Cancer does not skip a generation; this response minimizes and negates the client's concern.
In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
Mitosis Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase.
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: Tis, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?
carcinoma in situ, nor abnormal regional lymph nodes, no evidence of distant metastasis Tis, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.
The client has finished the first round of chemotherapy. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
"I can continue taking my vitamins and herbs because they make me feel better." Herbal products are not regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA);although some can decrease the risk of cancer, others can have serious side effects and liver toxicity. Use of vitamins and herbals should be reviewed with the oncologist. Use of clear liquids is recommended for the client experiencing nausea and vomiting. Because hair follicles are sensitive to chemotherapy drugs, it is likely for alopecia to occur especially with consecutive treatments. Chemotherapy includes cytotoxic drugs that are harmful to rapid dividing cells such as cell development in the fetus. To prevent damage to the fetus, birth control is recommended during treatment.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
"I floss my teeth every morning." Explanation: A client with a platelet count of 30,000/mm3 is at risk for bleeding and shouldn't floss his teeth. Flossing may increase the risk of bleeding in a client with a platelet count less than 40,000/mm3. Using an electric razor is appropriate because doing so helps minimize the risk of cutting when shaving. Taking a stool softener helps decrease potential trauma to the GI tract that may cause bleeding. Removing throw rugs from the house helps prevent falls, which could lead to uncontrolled bleeding.
The nurse instructs a client receiving chemotherapy on actions to prevent the development of stomatitis. Which client statement indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective?
"I will brush my teeth after every meal." Explanation: Stomatitis is an inflammatory process of the mouth, including the mucosa and tissues surrounding the teeth. Manifestations of stomatitis include changes in sensation, erythema, and edema, or if severe, painful ulcerations, bleeding, and infection. It commonly develops within 3 to 14 days after receiving certain chemotherapeutic agents. Actions to prevent the development of stomatitis include brushing the teeth with a soft toothbrush for 90 seconds after every meal. Smoking dries oral tissues and should be avoided. Spicy foods can irritate the oral tissues and should be avoided. Alcohol is drying to the oral tissues and should be avoided.
A client receiving chemotherapy has a nursing diagnosis of Deficient diversional activity related to decreased energy. Which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of appropriate ways to deal with this deficit?
"I'll play card games with my friends." During chemotherapy, playing cards is an appropriate diversional activity because it doesn't require a great deal of energy. To conserve energy, the client should avoid such activities as taking long trips, bowling, and eating in restaurants every day. However, the client may take occasional short trips and dine out on special occasions.
The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which is the best statement the nurse can make about the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced alopecia?
"The hair loss is temporary." Explanation: Alopecia associated with chemotherapy is usually temporary and will return after the therapy is completed. New hair growth may return unchanged, but there is no guarantee and color, texture, and quality of hair may be changed. There is no correlation between chemotherapy and delay in greying of hair. Use of wigs, scarves, and head coverings can be used by clients at any time during treatment plan.
A client receiving treatment for a terminal illness develops cancer-related anorexia-cachexia syndrome (CACS). Which interventions will the nurse add to this client's plan of care? Select all that apply.
*Limit the intake of fluids during meals. *Remove unpleasant sights and odors before meals. *Suggest foods that are high in calories and protein.
A nurse is teaching a client with bone marrow suppression about the time frame when bone suppression will be noticeable after administration of floxuridine. What is the time frame the nurse should include with client teaching?
7 to 14 days Explanation: Bone marrow suppression becomes noticeable 7 to 14 days after floxuridine administration. Bone marrow recovery occurs in 21 to 28 days.
The lethal tumor dose is defined as the dose that will eradicate what percentage of the tumor yet preserve normal tissue?
95% The radiation dosage is dependent on the sensitivity of the target tissues to radiation and on the tumor size. The lethal tumor dose is defined as the dose that will eradicate 95% of the tumor yet preserve normal tissue.
The nurse is conducting a screening for familial predisposition to cancer. Which element should the nurse note as a possible indication of hereditary cancer syndrome?
An aunt and uncle diagnosed with cancer Explanation: The hallmarks of hereditary cancer syndrome include cancer in two or more first-degree or second-degree relatives, early onset of cancer in family members younger than age 50, the same type of cancer in several family members, individual family members with more than one type of cancer, and a rare cancer in one or more family members.
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a chemotherapy-induced complication?
Serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L Explanation: Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting, which may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Signs of fluid loss include a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L, decreased urine output (less than 40 ml/hour), and abnormally low blood pressure. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours, serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L, and a blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg aren't abnormal findings.
Which oncologic emergency involves the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space?
Cardiac tamponade Explanation: Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation and fibrinolysis that results in thrombosis and bleeding. SIADH is a result of the failure in the negative feedback mechanism that normally regulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Tumor lysis syndrome is a rapidly developing oncologic emergency that results from the rapid release of intracellular contents as a result of radiation- or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia.
A client diagnosed with acute myelocytic leukemia has been receiving chemotherapy. During the last 2 cycles of chemotherapy, the client developed severe thrombocytopenia requiring multiple platelet transfusions. The client is now scheduled to receive a third cycle. How can the nurse best detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia?
Closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. The nurse should closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. Daily laboratory testing may not reflect the client's condition as quickly as subtle changes in the client's skin. Performing a cardiovascular assessment every 4 hours and checking the clients history for a congenital link to thrombocytopenia don't help detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.
Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth?
Control Explanation: The range of possible treatment goals may include complete eradication of malignant disease (cure), prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth (control), or relief of symptoms associated with the disease (palliation).
The drug interleukin-2 is an example of which type of biologic response modifier?
Cytokine Explanation: Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.
While administering an intravenous chemotherapeutic medication to a client, the nurse assesses swelling at the insertion site. What is the nurse's first action?
Discontinue the intravenous medication. If extravasation of a chemotherapeutic medication is suspected, the nurse must immediately stop the medication. Depending on the drug, the nurse may then attempt to aspirate any remaining drug, apply a warm or cold compress, administer a neutralizing solution, or all these measures.
A patient will be having an endoscopic procedure with a diagnostic biopsy. What type of biopsy does the nurse explain will remove an entire piece of suspicious tissue?
Excisional biopsy Explanation: Excisional biopsy is most frequently used for small, easily accessible tumors of the skin, breast, and upper or lower gastrointestinal and upper respiratory tracts. In many cases, the surgeon can remove the entire tumor as well as the surrounding marginal tissues. The removal of normal tissue beyond the tumor area decreases the possibility that residual microscopic malignant cells may lead to a recurrence of the tumor. Incisional biopsy is performed if the tumor mass is too large to be removed. In this case, a wedge of tissue from the tumor is removed for analysis. Needle biopsy is performed to sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible, such as some masses in the breasts, thyroid, lung, liver, and kidney. A core needle biopsy uses a specially designed needle to obtain a small core of tissue that permits histologic analysis.
A patient with uterine cancer is being treated with internal radiation therapy. What would the nurse's priority responsibility be for this patient?
Explain to the patient that she will continue to emit radiation while the implant is in place. When the patient has a radioactive implant in place, the nurse and other health care providers need to protect themselves, as well as the patient, from the effects of radiation. Patients receiving internal radiation emit radiation while the implant is in place; therefore, contact with the health care team is guided by principles of time, distance, and shielding to minimize exposure of personnel to radiation. Safety precautions used in caring for a patient receiving brachytherapy include assigning the patient to a private room, posting appropriate notices about radiation safety precautions, having staff members wear dosimeter badges, making sure that pregnant staff members are not assigned to the patient's care, prohibiting visits by children or pregnant visitors, limiting visits from others to 30 minutes daily, and seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source.
The client is receiving a vesicant antineoplastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action?
Extravasation Explanation: The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of antineoplastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves. Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.
What foods should the nurse suggest that the patient consume less of in order to reduce nitrate intake because of the possibility of carcinogenic action?
Ham and bacon Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Nitrates are added to cured meats, such as ham and bacon.
Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?
I'm afraid I'll expose my family members to radiation. The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client's family. The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.
While completing an admission assessment, the client reports a family history of breast cancer among a maternal grandmother, aunt, and sister. The nurse knows that these cancers are most likely associated with what etiology?
Inherited gene mutation Tumor suppressor genes assist the body in normal cell production and death. Tobacco use and chemical carcinogens can contribute to the development of cancer, but there is not enough information provided to suggest a common link. Ontogenesis are genes that have mutated and activate out-of-control cell growth. Inherited gene mutation occurs when the DNA is passed to the next generation.
When caring for an older client who is receiving external beam radiation, which is the key point for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care?
Inspect the skin frequently. Explanation: Inspecting the skin frequently will allow early identification and intervention of skin problems associated with external radiation therapy. The external markings should not be removed, but clients may shower and lightly wash over the skin. Time, distance, and shielding are key in the management of sealed, internal radiation therapy and not external beam radiation. The use of disposable utensils and care items would be important when caring for clients following systemic, unsealed, internal radiation therapy.
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?
Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift Explanation: Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting, the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, and bleeding gums. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding. Frequent rest periods are indicated for clients with anemia, not thrombocytopenia. Strict isolation is indicated only for clients who have highly contagious or virulent infections that are spread by air or physical contact.
The nurse is caring for a client undergoing an incisional biopsy. Which statement does the nurse understand to be true about an incisional biopsy?
It removes a wedge of tissue for diagnosis. The three most common biopsy methods are excisional, incisional, and needle. In an incisional biopsy, a wedge of tissue is removed from the tumor and analyzed. In an excisional biopsy, the surgeon removes the tumor and the surrounding marginal tissues. Needle aspiration biopsy involves aspirating tissue fragments through a needle guided into the cancer cells.
A decrease in circulating white blood cells (WBCs) is referred to as
Leukopenia A decrease in circulating WBCs is referred to as leukopenia. Granulocytopenia is a decrease in neutrophils. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in the number of platelets. Neutropenia is an abnormally low absolute neutrophil count.
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. What is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
Liver Explanation: The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.
A client has received several treatments of bleomycin. It is now important for the nurse to assess
Lung sounds Bleomycin has cumulative toxic effects on lung function. Thus, it will be important to assess lung sounds.
Which is a growth-based classification of tumors?
Malignancy Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant. Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.
The nurse performs a breast exam on a client and finds a firm, non-moveable lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast that the client reports was not there 3 weeks ago. What does this finding suggest?
Malignant tumor Explanation: A fast-growing lump is suggestive of a malignant tumor. Metastasis can only be determined by cytology, not by palpation.
According to the tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) classification system, T0 means there is
No evidence of primary tumor T0 means that there is no evidence of primary tumor. N0 means that there is no regional lymph node metastasis. M0 means that there is no distant metastasis. M1 means that there is distant metastasis.
A nurse is receiving a client with a radioactive implant for the treatment of cervical cancer. What is the nurse's best action?
Place the client in a private room. Safety precautions are used for the client with a radioactive implant. They include assigning the client to a private room, seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source, prohibiting visits by children, and preventing exposure to those who may be or are pregnant. Staff needs to wear dosimeters. Family may visit for up to 30 minutes per day.
During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior?
Progression Progression is the third step of carcinogenesis, in which cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. During initiation, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents, escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.
You are a clinic nurse. One of your clients has found she is at high risk for breast cancer. She asks you what can be done to reduce her risk. What is a means of reducing the risk for breast cancer?
Prophylactic surgery Explanation: Prophylactic or preventive surgery may be done if the client is at considerable risk for cancer. Palliative surgery is done when no curative treatment is available. Curative surgery is performed to cure the disease process.
A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis?
Red, open sores on the oral mucosa The tissue-destructive effects of cancer chemotherapy typically cause stomatitis, resulting in ulcers on the oral mucosa that appear as red, open sores. White, cottage cheese-like patches on the tongue suggest a candidal infection, another common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Yellow tooth discoloration may result from antibiotic therapy, not cancer chemotherapy. Rust-colored sputum suggests a respiratory disorder, such as pneumonia.
After being seen in the oncology clinic, a client with severe bone marrow suppression is admitted to the hospital. The client's cancer therapy consisted of radiation and chemotherapy. When developing the care plan for this client, which nursing diagnosis takes priority?
Risk for infection Explanation: Risk for infection takes highest priority in clients with severe bone marrow depression because they have a decrease in the number of white blood cells, the cells that fight infection. Making clients aware that they are at risk for injuries can help prevent such injuries as falls. The nurse should institute the facility's falls prevention protocol and supply assistive devices, such as a walker, cane, or wheelchair, when needed. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements is also of concern but doesn't take priority over preventing infection. Anxiety is likely present in clients with severe bone marrow depression; however, anxiety doesn't take priority over preventing infection.
The patient diagnosed with thrombocytopenia is at risk for which of the following adverse effects:
bleeding The patient diagnosed with thrombocytopenia is at risk for bleeding and infection until blood cell counts return to normal. Headache, diminished reflexes, and stomatitis are not adverse effects related to the diagnosis.
A nurse is administering a chemotherapeutic medication to a client, who reports generalized itching and then chest tightness and shortness of breath. The nurse immediately
Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion Explanation: The client may be experiencing a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which may progress to systemic anaphylaxis. The most immediate action of the nurse is to discontinue the medication followed by initiating emergency protocols
A client calls the oncology office nurse and reports nausea and vomiting one week after receiving chemotherapy. What action should the nurse recommend?
Taking prescribed ondansetron Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran), may decrease nausea and vomiting. Once these symptoms are relieved, the client can use other strategies, such as relaxation, imagery, and acupressure. These strategies, when used with serotonin blockers, provide improved anti-emetic protection.
What should the nurse tell a client who is about to begin chemotherapy and is anxious about hair loss?
The client should consider getting a wig or cap prior to beginning treatment. If hair loss is anticipated and causing the client anxiety, a wig, cap, or scarf should be purchased before therapy begins. Alopecia develops because chemotherapy affects the rapidly growing cells of the hair follicles. Hair usually begins to grow again within 4 to 6 months after therapy. Clients should know that new growth may have a slightly different color and texture.
The physician is attending to a client with a malignant brain tumor. The physician recommends immediate radiation therapy. What is a reason for the physician's recommendation?
To prevent the formation of new cancer cells Radiation therapy helps prevent cellular growth. It may be used to cure the cancer or to control malignancy when the tumor cannot be removed or when lymph node involvement is present; also, it can be used prophylactically to prevent spread. Biopsy is used to analyze lymph nodes or to destroy the surrounding tissues around the tumor.
Which of the following would be consistent with a benign neoplasm?
Usually progressive and slow Explanation: A benign neoplasm's rate of growth is usually progressive and slow. Malignant neoplasms have undifferentiated cells, grow by invasion, and gain access to the blood and lymph channels to metastasize to other areas of the body.
