PRINCE 2 Processes

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In PRINCE2, the information regarding the business justification for the project is normally documented in which management product? A. Business Case B. Benefits Review Plan C. Project Product Description D. Communication Management Strategy

In a Quality Review which role does PRINCE2 suggest must ensure that all reviewers are provided with the relevant review products? A. Producer B. Scribe C. Review Chairperson D. Configuration Librarian

In addition to the normal steps of a Quality Review an extra one, "Quality Review Planning" is recommended. In which process does PRINCE2 suggest that this step should be done? A. Planning B. Starting up a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Controlling a Stage

Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment? A. Ensure project controls are based on project's scab, complexity, repentance, capably and risk B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project D. To pick which PRTNCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out

Which process ensures that provision has been made to address any open issues of risks, with follow-on action recommendations? A. Closing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Directing a Project D. Initiating a Project

Which process is largely about preventing poorly conceived projects from ever being initiated? A. Starting Up a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Closing a Project D. Directing a Project

Which process is the Quality Register created? A. Initiating a Project B. Managing Product Delivery C. Controlling a Stage D. Starting Up a project

Which process would ensure that there is continued business justification? A. Directing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Initiating a Project D. Starting Up a Project

Which process would respond to the Project Manager escalating an exception situation? A. Directing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Initiating a Project D. Controlling a Stage

Which product provides the answer to the question, is the investment in this project still worthwhile? A. Business Case B. Risk Management Strategy C. Issue Register D. Benefits Review Plan

Which product records any project outcomes perceived as negative by stakeholders? A. Business Case B. Project Plan C. Communication Management Strategy D. Project Product Description

Which product should define how the budget for responding to potential threats and opportunities will be used? A. Risk Management Strategy B. Risk Register C. Issue Register D. Project Plan

Which role has a specific responsibility for managing the information flows between the directing and delivering levels of the project? A. Project Manager B. Project Support C. Team Manager D. Senior User

Which role is accountable to corporate or programme management for the ultimate success of the project? A. Project Board B. Project Manager C. Senior User D. Change Authority

Which role is part of the project management team? A. Change Authority B. Stakeholder C. Quality assurance D. Corporate or programme management

Which role is the single focus for day-to-day management of the project? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Project Support D. Team Manager

Which should be funded by a change budget? A. Increase in agreed scope B. Initiation stage C. Change Authority D. Handover activities

Which should be provided by a project mandate? A. Terms of reference B. Detailed Business Case C. Stage tolerances D. Initiation Stage Plan

Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done, and any risks which need to be managed after the project has closed? A. Follow-on action recommendations B. Exception Report C. Issue Register D. Risk Register

Which statement about the Directing a Project process is true? A. Provides a mechanism for the Project Board to assure that there is continued business justification B. Covers the day-to-day activities of the Project Manager C. Ensures there are regular progress meetings D. Begins on completion of the Initiating a Project process

New versions of the Project Plan are produced at the end of each stage to reflect updated information. Identify which option is FALSE. A. Progress already made B. Benefits already achieved C. Any agreed changes in circumstances D. Any revised forecast of cost

On which environment is PRINCE2 based? A. Information technology B. Customer/supplier C. Procurement D. Programme

Once a product has been completed, from who would the Team Manager get approval for its completion? A. Project Manager B. The authority defined in the quality responsibilities section of the product's Product Description C. Quality Assurance as part of their independent audits D. Project Support

Once a product has been completed, from whom would the Team Manager get approval for its completion? A. Project Manager B. The authority defined in the product's Product Description C. Quality Assurance as part of their independent audits D. The producer of the product

PRINCE2 lists a number of reasons why it is seldom desirable or possible to plan an entire project in detail at the start. Which of these is NOT one of these reasons? A. A changing or uncertain environment B. A PRINCE2 requirement C. Difficulty in predicting business conditions in the future D. Difficulty in predicting resource availability well into the future

Please refer to section 1.3 and 'Programme' in the Glossary of the PRINCE2 Manual. (Note that a collection of related projects being directed to deliver outcomes and benefits related to the organization's strategic objectives would be a programme NOT a project) A. A temporary team that is created to direct and oversee a collection of related projects in order to deliver outcomes and benefits related to the organization's strategic objectives B. A temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case C. A permanent organization that is created for the purpose of realizing one or more business benefits D. A permanent team that is created to deliver a series of business change initiatives

Please refer to section 10.3.2.1 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (Exception Plans are only produced if requested by the Project Board. Team Plans and the use of seperate people as Team Managers are optional in PRINCE2) A. Use of Team Managers B. Use of management stages C. Use of Exception Plans D. Use of Team Plans

Please refer to section 12.2 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (The initiation Stage Plan is produced in the Starting up a Project process and is then used by the Project Board to authorize the initiation stage) A. Immediately prior to the authority to deliver a project has been given B. Before the Project Board authorize the initiation of the project C. After the Project Plan has been produced D. During Managing a Stage Boundary process

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. During a quality review meeting [ ? ] any identified defects. A. a solution should be designed for B. an issue should be created for C. the agreed actions should be recorded for D. the chair will approve the solution to

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... Effective risk management helps to ensure the [?] are met A. Outcomes and benefits B. Stakeholder's needs C. Project objectives D. Quality criteria of each product

Which describes risk appetite? A. An organization's attitude towards risk-taking B. Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives C. Probable timeframe within which a risk may occur D. Level of risk exposure that, when exceeded, triggers an exception

Which document is a record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirement? A. Exception Report B. Off-Specification C. Follow-On Action Recommendations D. Highlight Report

Which document should record the agreed amount of risk budget for a project? A. Project Brief B. Project Plan C. Risk Management Strategy D. Risk Register

Which does the Executive need to ensure is in place before the project is initiated? A. All Work Packages are authorized B. An understanding of how the project will contribute to corporate objectives C. The Project Plan has been approved D. The Project Initiation Documentation is complete

Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element? A. The principles B. The techniques C. The themes D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment

Which is NOT a factor to consider when defining management stages? A. How long the project is B. When Team Managers are available C. When key decisions are required on the project D. The amount of risk within the project

Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description? A. Define the time and cost needed to produce the product B. Define the quality skills required to check the product C. Define the function and appearance of the product D. Define the development skills required to produce the product

Which is NOT a purpose of configuration management? A. To identify products B. To create products C. To track products D. To protect products

Which is NOT a purpose of the Organization theme? A. Define a project management team structure B. Define the level of tolerance for each level of the project management team C. Define the Project Board's responsibility for directing the project D. Define which role is accountable for the project's success

Which is NOT a purpose of the Plans theme? A. Facilitate communication B. Establish the project's structure of accountability C. Define the means of delivering the products D. Ensure targets are achievable

Which is NOT a recommended response to a threat? A. Avoid B. Exploit C. Share D. Transfer

Which is NOT a recommended response type to respond to a threat? A. Avoid B. Reject C. Share D. Transfer

Which is NOT an objective of PRINCE2 stages? A. Provide an opportunity to assess the project viability B. Identify the necessary Work Packages C. Allow clarification of the impact of an external influence D. Ensure that key decisions are made prior to work needed to implement them

Which is an objective of the Directing a Project process? A. Create and authorize the project mandate B. Provide management control and direction C. Control the day-to-day running of the project D. Provide accurate progress information to the Project Manager

Which is assumed to be a supplier's responsibility in the PRINCE2 customer/supplier environment? A. Specify the desired result B. Provide the resources and skills to deliver the desired result C. Pay for the project D. Specify the benefits of the project

Which is created during the Starting up a Project process? A. Project mandate B. Project management team role descriptions C. Communication Management Strategy D. Quality Register

Which is the base product against which the Project Board can assess progress, issues and ongoing viability questions? A. Project Brief B. Project Initiation Documentation C. Project mandate D. Benefits Review Plan

Which is the purpose of the Change theme? A. Prevent change to baselined products B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned D. Assess and control uncertainty

Which level of management in the project management team has the ability to review progress and decide whether to continue, change or stop the project? A. Project Manager B. Project Board C. Team Manager D. Corporate or programme management

Which of the following PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification, assessment and control of threats and opportunities? A. Business Case B. Risk C. Change D. Organization

Which of the following Plans are approved by the Project Manager? A. Project Plan B. Team Plan C. Exception Plan D. Stage Plan

Which of the following Plans can be approved by the Project Manager? A. Project Plan B. Team Plan C. Exception Plan at stage-level D. Stage Plan

Which of the following activities could tngger the production of an exception plan? A．Review Stage status B. Givng ad hoc drection C. Escalatng a project issue D. Report stage end

Which of the following activities is the Executive responsible for? A. Ensure the desired B. Responsible for the C. Assess and update D. Responsible for the

Which of the following activties is NOT an action of preparing for planned closure? A. Update the project plan wth actua B. Update the Project Management Team C. Request a product status account D. Confirm project has dehvered what defned ii Project PrOduCt Descrtion

Which of the following are a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan? 1. Define how a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made 2. Define what benefits assessments need to be undertaken 3. Define the project, in order to form the basis for its management and an assessment of its overall success 4. Define the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

Which of the following are factors that need to be taken into consideration when identifying management stages? 1. Where the key decisions points need to be 2. The amount of risk within the project 3. The number of technical stages 4. How confident the Project Board and Project Manager are with proceeding A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

Which of the following are functions of the start-up process, SU? 1) Setting up the project management team 2) Developing the Project Mandate into the Project Brief 3) Confirming the Project Approach 4) Creating the Issue Log A. All four B. the first three C. the first two D. the third is wrong

Which of the following are types of issue? 1. Concession 2. Off-specification 3. Request for change 4. Problem/concern A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,3,4

Which of the following best defines a dis-benefit? A. A risk which occurs and subsequently impacts a stakeholder B. An outcome perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders which may occur during the project C. An outcome perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders which has actual consequences D. Any one of the project's issues which directly affects a stakeholder

Which of the following describes a situation when an Issue Report would be produced? A. When ever the Project Board direct the Project Manager B. It is only created for those issues that need to be handled formally C. Every time someone wishes to bring anything to the attention of the Project Manager D. Only if the Project Manager feels it is necessary

Which of the following describes the situation when an Issue Report would be produced? A. When ever the Project Board instruct the Project Manager B. It is only created for those issues that need to be handled formally C. Every time someone wishes to bring anything to the attention of the Project Manager D. Only if the Project Manager feels it is necessary

Which of the following documents the quality techniques, standards and procedures to be applied during the project? A. Quality Register B. Quality Management Strategy C. Project Product Description D. Quality assurance

Which of the following does PRINCE2 recognize as being project characteristics? 1. Projects are the means by which we introduce business change 2. Projects have a defined start and end 3. No project is unique 4. Projects often cross the normal functional divisions within an organization A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... PRINCE2 recommends three [ ? ] to reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project. A. Levels of issue B. Stakeholders C. Levels of plan D. Types of risk responses

Which role organizes and chairs any Project Board reviews? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Team Manager in the current stage D. Member of Project Support with administrative skills

Which role would represent the interests of the people who will be operating the project's products? A. Senior Supplier B. Executive C. Change Authority D. Senior User

Which should be provided by corporate or programme management before the Starting up a Project process commences? A. A Project Brief B. Sufficient information to identify the prospective Executive C. The Project Initiation Documentation D. Authority to initiate a project

Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done to a project product after the project has closed? A. Off-specifications B. Follow-on action recommendations C. Issue Register D. Risk Register

Which statement about the quality review technique is FALSE? A. It enables a check to be made on a product's fitness for purpose B. It defines the quality responsibilities of the project team C. It supports the management of future changes by providing a baseline for a product D. It is used to gain wider acceptance of a product by involving key interested parties

Which statement describes risk cause? A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance B. The situation or event that gave rise to a risk C. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or opportunity D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation

Which theme assesses and controls uncertainty within a project? A. Progress B. Risk C. Change D. Plans

Which theme has a purpose of providing the mechanisms to forecast the project's continued viability? A. Risk B. Progress C. Plans D. Business Case

Who are allowed to raise an issue? A. Only the Project Manager and Team Manager B. Anyone with an interest in the project or its outcome C. Only the Change Authority D. Only members of the project management team

Who are allowed to raise issues? A. Only the Project Manager and Team Manager B. Anyone with an interest in the project or its outcome C. Only the Change Authority D. Only members of the project management team

Who is responsible for providing the project mandate? A. Project Support B. Corporate or programme management C. Project Manager D. Project Board

Who is responsible for the project producing a result that is capable of achieving the benefits defined in the Business Case? A. The Executive B. The Project Manager C. The Senior User D. The entire Project Board

Who sets the tolerances for a work package? A. The project board B. The project manager C. The team manager D. Corporate or programme management

Who would be responsible for maintaining the Configuration Item Records? A. Project Manager B. Project Support C. Project Assurance D. Team Manager

Whose approval is needed to replace a Stage Plan with an Exception Plan? A. Corporate or programme management B. Project Board C. Project Manager D. Team Manager

Whose responsibility is it to supply the Customer's quality expectations? A. Project Manager B. Senior User C. Executive D. Senior Supplier

Why is a copy of the Project Issue always returned to the author? A. The author owns it. B. To acknowledge its receipt and entry into the system. C. To elicit further information. D. To notify rejection of the Issue.

Why is the Initiating a Project process used? A. To decide which project approach is suitable for the project B. To fully understand how the project objectives will be achieved before committing significant resources C. To produce the required Work Packages D. To enable corporate or programme management to give authorization to deliver a project

Winch of the following is NOT an objective of Initiating a Project? A. Understanding the scope of what is to be done and the products to be delivered B. Understanding the roles and responsible of the Project Management Team C. Understand how quality required will be achieved D. Understand how progress will be monitored and controlled

Within the PRINCE2 customer/supplier environment, what is a supplier responsibility? A. Define what the acceptance criteria are for the project product B. Ensure the resources are made available to deliver the required result C. Secure the funding for the project D. Specify the desired project outcomes

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... Quality planning provides the definition of the required products with their associated [ ? ] as a foundation for Project Board agreement. A. Customer's quality expectations B. Quality test results C. Quality criteria D. Owners

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. A Project Manager agrees the [ ? ] with a Team Manager. A. project cost tolerance B. stage cost tolerance C. Work Package cost tolerance D. product cost tolerance

What characteristic relates to a project having a defined start and defined end? A. Uniqueness B. Uncertainty C. Temporary in nature D. Introduces change

What document is input to the Project Board with a request to authorise the project? A. The Project Brief B. The Project Mandate C. The Project Initiation Document D. An Implementation Plan

What process ensures that plans for achieving the expected benefits are managed and reviewed? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Initiating a Project C. Directing a Project D. Starting up a Project

What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change? A. Project and stage tolerances B. Contingency plans C. A Change Budget D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

What theme estimates the cost of delivering the project? A. Business Case B. Change C. Plans D. Progress

What type of control is a report which is sent from the Team Manager to the Project Manager, at the intervals agreed in the Work Package? A. Event-driven B. Exception based C. Time-driven D. Ad-hoc

What type of progress control is a Checkpoint Report? A. Event-driven B. Exception-based C. Time-driven D. Ad hoc-based

When does Directing a Project begin? A. From the beginning of Starting up a Project B. From the begnniig of Inliatrig a Project C. From the completion of Startng up a Project D. From the completion of Tniatiig a Project

From whom does a Team Manager obtain approval for a completed product? A. Project Manager B. Project Support C. The authority defined in the Product Description D. Senior Supplier

How many management stages should a PRINCE2 project consist of? A. Start up stage, initiation stage and at least one other management stage to cover the remainder of the project B. Start up stage, at least one other management stage to cover the remainder of the project and a closing stage C. Initiation stage and at least one other management stage to cover the remainder of the project D. Start up stage, initiation stage and a closing stage

How many roles make up the Project Board? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

How should the Team Manager report that tolerances are forecast to be exceeded? A. Create an Exception Report B. Create a Highlight Report C. Raise an issue D. Grant a concession

Identify the missing word from the following sentence... PRINCE2 uses the [ ? ] to define how issues will be handled A. Risk Management Strategy B. Configuration Item Record C. Configuration Management Strategy D. Tolerances

Identify the missing word from the following sentence... PRINCE2 uses the term [ ? ] to cover any relevant event that has happened, was not planned, and requires management action? A. Risk B. Change C. Issue D. Exception

Identify the missing word in the following sentence. PRINCE2 recommends three levels of [ ? ] to reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project. A. Product B. Activity C. Plan D. Benefit

Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The risk response type [ ? ] can be used to respond to a threat and an opportunity. A. Avoid B. Reduce C. Share D. Transfer

Which management level uses the mechanisms included within the Progress theme to control any unacceptable deviations? A. Only the Project Board B. Only the Project Manager C. All levels of management D. Only corporate or programme management

Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the aspects of project management that must be addressed continually and in parallel throughout the project? A. The Principles B. The Processes C. The Themes D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment

Which of the following roles can the Project Manager also perform? 1. Change Authority 2. Project Assurance 3. Project Support 4. Team Manager A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

Which of the following roles cannot be combined? A. Executive and Senior User B. Project Manager and Project Support C. Project Assurance and Team Manager D. Senior Supplier and Supplier Assurance

Which product would contain information on project and stage tolerance status, products completed during the period and a summary of actual or potential problems and risks? A. Product Status Account B. Communication Management Strategy C. Highlight Report D. Risk Register

Which process ensures that plans for realizing the post-project benefits are managed and reviewed? A. Closing a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Directing a Project D. Starting up a Project

Which process has a specific objective to ensure there is business justification for initiating the project? A. Directing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Starting Up a Project D. Initiating a Project

Which process has a specific objective to record any information or lessons that can help later stages of this project and/or other projects? A. Directing a Project B. Managing Product Delivery C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Initiating a Project

Which process is triggered towards the end of the final stage when all the assigned work has been completed? A. Managing a Stage Boundary B. Managing Product Delivery C. Closing a Project D. Controlling a Stage

Which process produces operational and maintenance acceptance of products? A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Managing Product Delivery C. Closing a Project D. Controlling a Stage

Which product acts as a trigger for the Starting Up a Project process? A. Project Brief B. Project Initiation Documentation C. Project mandate D. Outline Business Case

Which product contains the customer's quality expectations? A. Quality Register B. Quality Management Strategy C. Project Product Description D. Business Case

Which product does PRINCE2 suggest should include the budget and schedule impact of changes? A. Checkpoint Report B. Exception Report C. Highlight Report D. Lessons Learned Report

Which product establishes the baseline against which the project's actual performance is compared? A. Project Brief B. Product Status Account C. Project Initiation Documentation D. Configuration Item Record

Which product identifies how changes to products will be controlled and where the products will be stored? A. Product Description B. Configuration Item Record C. Configuration Management Strategy D. Issue Register

Which product identifies the management stages and timescales of a project? A. Project Brief B. Project Product Description C. Project Plan D. Initiation Stage Plan

Which product identifies the source products from which a product is to be derived? A. Product Breakdown Structure B. Product checklist C. Product Description D. Project approach

Which product is continuously maintained in order to inform the Project Manager of where a product is at any time, what its status is and who is working on it? A. Product Description B. Highlight Report C. Configuration Item Record D. Work Package

Which product is the Executive specifically responsible for overseeing the development of? A. Project mandate B. Work Package C. Outline Business Case D. Project approach

Which product is used to record information regarding any issues that are being managed informally? A. Configuration Item Record B. Issue Register C. Daily Log D. Risk Register

Which product produced at project closure would document any unfinished work, ongoing issues and risks? A. Project closure notification B. Benefits Review Plan C. End Project Report D. Risk Register

Which product produced by the Project Manager would contain information on 'products completed in the period'? A. Product Status Account B. Checkpoint Report C. Highlight Report D. Exception Report

Which product would document any unfinished work, ongoing issues and risks? A. Project closure notification B. Lessons Report C. End Project Report D. Risk Register

Which product would hold details of each product's current version and any important relationships between them? A. Product Description B. Highlight Report C. Configuration Item Record D. Work Package

Which product would the Project Manager use for gathering Work Package progress information? A. Highlight Report B. Daily Log C. Checkpoint Report D. Product Status Account

Which product, produced by the Project Manager, would contain information on 'products completed during the period'? A. Product Status Account B. Checkpoint Report C. Highlight Report D. Exception Report

Which project management team role has a specific responsibility for ensuring that the quality activities relating to products at all stages has appropriate user representation? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Project Assurance D. Quality Assurance

Which risk response type is appropriate to respond to an opportunity? A. Accept B. Fallback C. Exploit D. Transfer

Which role does PRINCE2 state would contribute expertise in specialist tools and techniques such as planning and control tools and risk analysis? A. Team Manager B. Senior Supplier C. Project Support D. Project Assurance

Which role does PRINCE2 state would contribute expertise in specialist tools and techniques, such as planning and control tools and risk analysis? A. Team Manager B. Senior Supplier C. Project Support D. Project Assurance

Which role from the following list does PRINCE2™ say cannot be delegated? A. Team Manager B. Project Assurance C. Project Board Member D. Project Support

Which role has a specific responsibility for briefing non-technical management on supplier aspects of the project? A. Team Manager B. Project Manager C. Senior Supplier D. Team member

Which role has a specific responsibility for planning, monitoring and managing the team's work? A. Senior Supplier B. Project Support C. Team Manager D. Project Manager

Which role has a specific responsibility for referring to the Project Board if any delegated limits of authority or allocated change budget are forecast to be exceeded? A. Team Manager B. Project Assurance C. Change Authority D. Project Manager

Which role is responsible for briefing corporate or programme management about project progress? A. Team Manager B. Project Support C. Project Board D. Project Manager

Which role is responsible for ensuring that the expected benefits are realized? A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Senior User D. Executive

Which role is responsible for providing the customers quality expectations and acceptance criteria for the project? A. Executive B. Corporate or Programmer Management C. Senior User D. Project Assurance

Which product would be updated to show that a decision has been made on an off-specification which has now been closed? A. Quality Register B. Daily Log C. Issue Report D. Risk Register

Which product would be updated to show that a decision has been made to accept an offspecification? A. Quality Register B. Daily Log C. Issue Report D. Risk Register

Which role is responsible for specifying the benefits and for ensuring that they are subsequently realized? A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Senior User D. Executive

Which role is suggested might act as Scribe to a Quality Review? A. Project Assurance B. Reviewer C. Project Support D. The Review Chairman

Which role would have the assurance responsibility of monitoring any risks in the production aspects of the project? A. Senior User B. Team Manager C. Senior Supplier D. Executive

Which should be funded from a change budget? A. The Starting up a Project process B. A fallback plan C. An agreed change to the scope of a project D. A change to a plan, within allocated tolerances, due to poor estimating

Which statement about stages is true? A. Management stages should be of the same duration B. The use of technical stages is mandatory C. The use of management stages is mandatory D. Management stages are driven by specialist teams

Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is working on it? A. Work Package B. Product Description C. Checkpoint Report D. Configuration Management

Which is NOT a purpose of the Initiating a Project process? A. Enable a Project Board decision about the commitment of resources to a project B. Enable an organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver a project's products before a project is approved C. Establish solid foundations for a project D. Enable the Project Board to decide whether it is worthwhile to initiate a project

Which of the following are typical activities of a configuration management procedure? 1. Impact assessment 2. Control 3. Verification and audit 4. Status accounting A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

Which of the following best defines a project output? A. The information required for decision-making purposes B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome C. The result of the change derived from using the project's outputs D. Any one of the project's specialist products

Which of the following steps looks at the aggregated net effect of a project's treats and opportunities? A. Plan B. Assess (estimate) C. Examine D. Assess (evaluate)

Which of the following steps looks at the aggregated net effect of all risks within the project? A. Plan B. Assess C. Implement D. Assess

Which of the following steps would involve the identification of threats or opportunities to the project in terms of their cause, the event and the affect on objectives? A. Identify B. Assess C. Implement D. Identify

Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board? A. Exception Assessment B. Highlight Reports C. Project Closure D. Work Package Authorisation

Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process? A. Starting Up a Project (SU) B. Initiating a Project (IP) C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB) D. Controlling a Stage (CS)

Which of these statements is FALSE? A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project. B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required. C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority. D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.

Which process covers the work required of people who may not be using PRINCE2? A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Starting up a Project C. Directing a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

Which process ensures that key roles and responsibilities are allocated before a decision is made to initiate a project? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Initiating a Project C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Starting up a Project

Which process provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified? A. Initiating a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Directing a Project D. Closing a Project

Which process provides the Project Board with sufficient information for it to review the success of a completed stage and confirm continued business justification? A. Controlling a Stage B. Closing a Project C. Directing a Project D. Managing a Stage Boundary

Which process provides the information needed for the Project Board to assess the continuing viability of the project? A. Starting up a Project B. Closing a Project C. Planning D. Managing Stage Boundaries

Which process would be triggered by the request to initiate a project? A. Starting Up a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Initiating a Project D. Directing a Project

Which product confirms the version numbers of all products being developed within a given stage? A. Configuration Item Record B. Stage Plan C. Work Package D. Product Status Account

Which product would be updated with the planned quality management activities for the next stage of the project? A. Quality Management Strategy B. Issue Register C. Project Initiation Documentation D. Quality Register

Which project management team role has a specific responsibility for advising on the selection of the development strategy, design and methods? A. Project Manager B. Quality Assurance C. Team Manager D. Project Assurance

Which report assesses what management processes worked well and what went badly? A. Follow-on Action Recommendations B. End Stage Report C. Business Case review D. Lessons Learned Report

Which role is the key decision-maker on the project management team and is ultimately accountable for the project's success? A. Corporate or programme management B. Change Authority C. Project Manager D. Executive

Which role is the key decision-maker on the project management team? A. Corporate or programme management B. Change Authority C. Project Manager D. Executive

Which statement is true regarding stakeholders? A. The Senior Supplier is NOT a stakeholder B. All stakeholders must be identified during project initiation C. Stakeholders are always external to the corporate organization D. All three primary categories of stakeholder have their interests represented by the Project Board

Which statement regarding a project's outputs, outcomes and benefits is correct? A. All outputs have tangible benefits B. Outcomes are the long term results of business benefits C. Outputs are changes in the way the project's products are used D. Benefits are measurable improvements resulting from project outcomes

Which statement regarding a project's outputs, outcomes and benefits is true? A. All outputs have tangible benefits B. Outcomes are the longer term results from realizing business benefits C. Outputs are derived from using the project's products D. Benefits are measurable improvements resulting from the project's outcomes

Which takes place within the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Periodic review of progress against the Stage Plan B. Obtain approvals for all completed products C. Escalation of Issue Reports created during the current stage D. Review of the business justification for the project

Who does PRINCE2™ say may re-evaluate the priority of an issue after impact analysis? A. The Team Manager B. Those with assurance responsibilities C. The Author D. The Project Board

Who is responsible for reviewing the risk management practices to ensure they are in line with the project's risk management strategy? A. Project Support B. Project Manager C. Team Manager D. Project Assurance

Who is responsible for the initial creation of the Configuration Item records? A. Project Manager B. Team Manager C. Project Assurance D. Project Support

Whose responsibility is it to assure the project's stakeholders that the project remains desirable, viable and achievable at all times? A. Project Manager B. Corporate or programme management C. Senior User D. Executive

Whose responsibility is it to ensure that the project is focused throughout its life on achieving its objectives? A. Project Manager B. Corporate or programme management C. Senior User D. Executive

Why does PRINCE2 recommend having three levels of plan? A. The more levels there are, the more stable the plan detail will become B. Aspects of planning become more difficult the further into the future they extend C. To reflect that there are 3 key stakeholder project interests D. To reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in the project, stage and team

If used, in which process would a Team Plan be created? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Directing a Project D. Controlling a Stage

According to PRINCE2, which of the following roles can the Project Manager also undertake? A. Senior User B. Change Authority C. Executive D. Project Assurance

There are two time driven controls in PRINCE2, which are they'? A. Highlight and End Stage Reports B. Highlight and Checkpoint Reports C. Checkpoint and End Project Reports D. Highlight and Lessons Reports

If the Project Board wish to ensure the Communications Management Strategy covers all the stakeholders requirements for the next stage, which project management team role may they appoint to check this for them? A. Project Assurance B. Project Support C. Project Manager D. Quality Assurance

A principle of PRINCE2 is that every project must have which one of the following? A. Defined and agreed roles and responsibilities with an organization structure that engages the business, user and supplier primary stakeholder interests B. People allocated to clearly defined management jobs, assigned to them on a one-to-one basis C. As many stakeholders as possible from the customer environment involved in key decisionmaking throughout the project life cycle D. Stakeholders who are responsible, accountable, consulted and informed throughout every stage of the project

A project being output oriented supports which PRINCE2 principle? A. Focus on products B. Defined roles and responsibilities C. Manage by stages D. Continued business justification

According to PRINCE2, as well as holding informal problems/concerns, which product can also be used to record required actions or significant events not caught elsewhere? A. Daily Log B. Risk Register C. Issue Register D. Project notebook

According to PRINCE2, the quality review technique complements the use of which of the following? A. Product Descriptions B. Quality Assurance C. Issue and change control procedure D. The customer's quality expectations

According to PRINCE2, the quality review technique compliments the use of which of the following? A. Product Descriptions B. Quality Assurance C. Issue and change control procedure D. Customer's quality expectations

According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a statement about the quality which the customer requires from the project product? A. Customer's quality expectations B. Quality criteria C. Acceptance criteria D. Quality Management Strategy

Are the following statements regarding quality control true or false? 1. Includes identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance 2. Involves defining the products required, their quality criteria and the relevant quality methods A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

Are the following statements regarding raising exceptions true or false? 1. If the stage is forecast to exceed its tolerances, the Project Manager should produce an Issue Report to capture and analyze the details of the deviation 2. Where a Work Package is forecast to exceed its tolerances, the Project Manager may request the Team Manager to produce an Exception Plan A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

Are the majority of PRINCE2™ controls described as...? A. Event-driven B. Time-driven C. Ad hoc D. Technique-based

At which point does the PRINCE2 Project Board carry out its first major activity? A. After Starting up a Project B. Once corporate / programme management has given a Project Mandate C. At the beginning of Starting up a Project D. Once the Project Mandate has been created

Defining the stages of a project is fundamentally a process of balancing a number of parameters. Which one of the following is NOT one of the parameters A. The availability of the project board for progress meetings B. How far ahead in the project it is sensible to plan C. Where the key decision points need to be on the project D. Too many small stages versus too few big ones

Effective risk management is a pre-requisite to which of the following principles? A. Continued business justification B. Manage by exception C. Focus on products D. Tailor to suit the project environment

How is the Project Initiation Documentation used during the Closing a Project process? A. As the basis for comparing the original aim of the project against what was actually achieved B. Provides the controls for the final stage of the project C. Updated to include relevant lessons from previous projects D. Provides the Project Product Description for approval by the Project Board

Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The guiding obligations and good practices which determine whether the project is genuinely being managed using PRINCE2 form the [ ? ] of the method. A. Principles B. Themes C. Processes D. Techniques

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... Change can only be considered in relation to an established [ ? ] A. Baseline B. Situation C. Product D. Specification

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... The [?] is used by the Project Manager to capture and maintain information on all of the identified threats and opportunities relating to the project. A. Risk Register B. Risk Management Strategy C. Issue Register D. Risk owner

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The Project Board will allocate tolerances [ ? ] to the Project Manager. A. for each Work Package B. for the project C. for each management stage D. for each technical stage

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project is and controlled on a stage-by-stage basis? A. Planned, monitored B. Developed, reported C. Designed, assigned D. Planned, produced

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A Project is a that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case? A. Temporary organization B. Skilled environment C. One-off Endeavour D. Unique team of stakeholders

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A principle of PRINCE2 is that a project has defined and agreed? A. Roles and responsibilities B. Specialist teams with appropriate technical skills C. Management jobs with job descriptions D. Senior managers at all levels of the project management team

If a team member had a suggestion to improve a product, how would they do this? A. Raise the suggestion as an issue B. Add the details of the suggested improvement to the Quality Register C. Add the details of the suggestion to the Lessons Log D. Update the product's Product Description with the suggested improvement

If any type of issue or risk (or aggregation of them) cannot be resolved within the tolerances set by the Project Board, which of the following products would first be sent to the Project Board to inform them of this deviation? A. Exception Report B. End Stage Report C. Highlight Report D. Updated Risk and Issue Registers

In respect of the project's organization structure, one of the seven principles of PRINCE2 is that every project must have which one of the following? A. Defined and agreed roles and responsibilities with an organization structure that engages the business, user and supplier primary stakeholder interests B. People allocated to clearly defined management jobs, assigned to them on a one-to-one basis C. As many stakeholders as possible from the customer environment involved in key decisionmaking throughout the project life cycle D. Stakeholders who are responsible, accountable, consulted and informed throughout every stage of the project

In what process are the project's risk management techniques and standards defined? A. Starting up a Project B. Directing a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

In which lower level process of Controlling a Stage is a Stage Plan updated with actuals? A. Assessing Progress B. Reviewing Stage Status C. Planning a Stage D. Reporting Highlights

In which process is it decided that an Exception Plan should be created to replace a Stage Plan? A. Directing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Closing a Project

In which process is the Project Brief produced? A. Starting Up a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Authorising Initiation D. Authorising a Project

In which process may a premature close of the project be authorized? A. Directing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Closing a Project

In which process would the directing level of management ensure there is continued business justification? A. Directing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Initiating a Project D. Controlling a Stage

In which product are acceptance criteria documented? A. Project Product Description B. Product Description C. Quality Register D. Quality Management Strategy

In which situation might the Controlling a Stage process be used? A. Managing a long initiation stage of a complex project B. Managing the activities of a complex programme C. Managing support activities following the handover of the products to the operational environment D. Creating an Exception Plan to replace the current Stage Plan

In which sub-process are Checkpoint Reports created? A. Executing a Work Package B. Assessing Progress C. Reporting Highlights D. Reviewing Stage Status

In which sub-process is a Stage Plan updated with actuals? A. Assessing Progress B. Reviewing Stage Status C. Planning a Stage D. Reporting Highlights

It me Project Board are too busy to authorize all change requests themsekes they can appoint....? A. A Change Authorty B. A Change Board C. A Change Commtee D. A Change Budget

Once the project has been authorized, within which process are checks made for any necessary changes to the project management team or their role descriptions? A. Managing a Stage Boundary B. Starting Up a Project C. Closing a Project D. Directing a Project

PRINCE2 defines which of the following three primary stakeholder categories? A. User, Supplier and Business B. Project, Programme and Corporate C. Customer, Business and Users D. Business, Customer and Specialists

Quality responsibilities, both within and external to the project, are defined in which process? A. Initiating a Project B. Starting up a Project C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Directing a Project

Select the missing words from the following sentence... The Senior User is responsible for ensuring that the project produces products which will deliver the desired [ ? ]. A. Outcomes B. Benefits C. Outputs D. Changes

The Controlling a Stage process is used for which of the following? A. Day-to-day management of each management stage of a project B. Closure of the project prematurely or at the project's natural end C. Creation and quality control of the specialist products D. Preparing a Stage Plan near the end of each stage

The Managing Product Delivery process views the project from which role's perspective? A. Team Manager B. Senior Supplier C. Project Support D. Project Manager

The PRINCE2 principle 'focus on products' states that a successful project is which one of the following? A. Output oriented B. Activity oriented C. Benefits oriented D. Resource oriented

The Project Quality Plan is written in which process? A. Initiating a Project B. Starting up a Project C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Directing a Project

The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is - A. The sum total of its products B. The interim products C. Its product description D. The single end-product

The information regarding why the project is required is documented in which product? A. Business Case B. Benefits Review Plan C. Project Product Description D. Project approach

The initial Project Plan is based on the Project Brief, the Project Quality Plan and which other product? A. The Project Approach B. The Project Initiation Document C. The project start-up notification D. The Project Mandate

The person operating the configuration management method is called A. Configuration Librarian B. Configuration Auditor C. Product Assurance D. Version Controller

The proces,"Directing a Project" begins when? A. From" Starting up a Project" B. After the start-up of the project C. At the end of the Initiation Stage D. Before start-up of the project

There are several benefits that the end stage assessment brings to a project. Which one of the following is NOT a benefit? A. To enable the approval of an Exception Report B. To provide a review of a risky project at key moments when new information about those risks appears C. To ensure that key decisions are made prior to the detailed work needed to implement them D. To provide a' fire break' for the project by encouraging the Project Board to assess the project viability at regular intervals

There should be at least two management stages in a PRINCE2 project. Which of the following options describes those stages? A. Initiation as the first stage, the remainder of the project as the second stage B. Initiation as the first stage, closure activities as the second stage C. Procurement as the first stage, design and implementation as the second stage D. Pre-project work as the first stage, initiation as the second stage

What element of PRINCE2 provides "an objective measurement for management progress control"? A. Quality Review B. Checkpoint Report C. Highlight Report D. End Stage Report

What is a purpose of the Closing a Project process? A. Provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed B. Enable the Project Board to review the success of the current stage C. Assign work to be done and monitor such work D. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products

What is a purpose of the Directing a Project process? A. Enable the Project Board to be accountable for the project's success B. Establish solid foundations for the project C. Enable the Project Manager to be accountable for the project's success D. Assign work to be done and monitor such work

What is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Request authorization to start the next stage B. Ensure that all threats and opportunities for the current stage have been closed C. Make certain that work on products allocated to the team for the next stage is authorized and agreed D. Implement actions to resolve tolerance deviations from the Stage Plan

What is described as an organization's unique attitude towards risk taking A. Risk appetite B. Risk management C. Risk evaluation D. Risk tolerance

What is risk appetite? A. An organization's unique attitude towards risk taking that in turn dictates the amount of risk that it considers acceptable B. A stakeholder's perception of how a risk effects them C. The net financial effect of all risks when aggregated together D. The levels of risk exposure that, when exceeded, will trigger an Exception Report

What is the fundamental principle behind the process "Managing Product Delivery"? A. A controlled break between Project Manager and product creation/provision by third party suppliers B. Before a Work Package is allocated to the team, there should be agreement with the Project Manager on what is to be delivered C. Whatever the type of project, the actual task of creating the required products needs to be managed D. Work only commences and continues with the consent of the Project Manager

What needs to be in place to ensure effective issue and change control? A. Configuration management system B. Manage by exception C. Quality planning D. Information needs for stakeholders

What process covers the acceptance and execution of project work by external suppliers? A. Controlling a Stage B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Managing Product Delivery D. Directing a Project

What theme provides all management levels within the project management team with mechanisms for monitoring and control? A. Progress B. Change C. Organization D. Quality

When are Work Package tolerances agreed? A. When accepting a Work Package B. When approving a Stage Plan C. When creating the Project Plan D. When creating the Project Brief

When is it confirmed if a project's objectives have been achieved? A. During the Closing a Project process B. During the final end stage assessment C. During the Controlling a Stage process D. During the Managing Product Delivery process

When is the Communication Management Strategy created? A. When designing and appointing the project management team B. During the initiation stage C. When producing a more detailed stage plan for the next stage of the project D. As soon as the Project Board have authorized the project

When is the Risk Management Strategy produced? A. After authorization has been given to proceed with the initiation stage B. Before the planning of the initiation stage C. As soon as the Project Manager has been appointed at start-up D. After the Project Board have approved the Project Initiation Documentation

When should an initial examination of a Project Issue be performed? A. As soon as it is logged B. On a weekly basis C. At the next execution of the sub-process, Reviewing Stage Status D. At end stage assessment

Where would a Team Manager find information regarding the specific quality required for a product? A. Product Description B. Quality Register C. Quality Management Strategy D. Checkpoint Report

Where would the mechanism for the control of and access to a risk budget be defined? A. Risk Management Strategy B. Risk Register C. Risk profile D. Risk management procedure

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for managing the information flows between the directing and delivering levels of the project? A. Project Manager B. Project Support C. Team Manager D. Senior User

Which PRINCE2 role is accountable to corporate or programme management for the success of the project? A. Project Board B. Project Manager C. Senior User D. Change Authority

Which PRINCE2 theme has a purpose to facilitate communication and control by defining the means of delivering the products? A. Plans B. Progress C. Organization D. Change

Which are the specific roles of the PRINCE2 quality review technique? A. Presenter, Chair, Reviewer, Administrator B. Chair, Project Manager, Project Support, User C. Reviewer, Administrator, Project Assurance, Executive D. Stakeholder, Team Manager, Project Support, Reviewer

Which best describes a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan? A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project's benefits can be made B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project C. Provides all the right information for decisions to be made regarding continued business justification D. Describes just the benefits which are only to be delivered after the project

Which best describes the purpose of a Benefits Review Plan? A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project's benefits can be made B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project, based on estimated costs, the benefits to be gained and offset by any associated risks C. Provides all the right infiormation for decisions to be made regarding continued business justification D. Describes only those benefits to be delivered during the project

Which describes a risk event? A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or opportunity B. The derivation or sources of a potential risk to the project C. The achievement of a milestone on the Project Plan D. The sequence of events and actions that will be put in place if a risk occurs

Which document reviews actual achievements against the Project Initiation Document? A. End Project Report B. Post-Project Review C. Lessons Learned Report D. Follow-On Action Recommendations

Which integrated element is described as being the guiding obligations and good practices which determine whether the project is genuinely using PRINCE2? A. Principles B. Processes C. Themes D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment

Which is NOT a purpose of a Benefits Review Plan? A. Define the period over which the cost-benefit analysis will be based B. Describe how to measure the performance of the project's products in operational use C. Define the scope, timing and ownership of the benefit reviews required D. Describe how to measure and confirm any benefits that are to be realised after the project is closed

Which is NOT an event-driven control? A. Highlight Report B. Exception Report C. Project Initiation Documentation D. End of a stage

Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2? A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making B. Participants understand each other's roles and needs C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders

Which is a purpose of a Lessons Log? A. Note any lessons that are raised in Checkpoint Reports B. Record that corrective action is being taken C. Escalate lessons to the Project Board D. Raise improvements with Project Assurance

Which is a purpose of a Risk Register? A. Capture risks that may occur during the project B. Record how risk management activities will be undertaken on the project C. Record the risk tolerance for the project D. Capture issues which are impacting on the delivery of the project objectives

Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process? A. Assign work to be done and take corrective action to ensure that the stage remains within tolerance B. Provide a fixed reference point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed C. Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information to authorize the next stage D. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products

Which is a purpose of the Directing a Project process? A. Enable the Project Board to exercise overall control of a project B. Prepare a solid foundation for the project C. Establish the prerequisites for the initiation of a project D. Assign Work Packages

Which is a purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Provide the Project Board with sufficient information for approving the next stage B. Approve the next Stage Plan C. Review and close any risks and issues identified during the previous stage D. Control the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)

Which is a purpose of the Quality theme? A. Establish how the project will ensure that all products created meet their requirements B. Establish quality assurance to maintain the quality management system C. Identify all the products of the project to ensure the scope has been adequately defined D. Determine the communication needs of the organization's quality assurance function

Which is a purpose of the Starting up a Project process? A. Provide information so a decision can be made as to whether a project is viable and worthwhile to initiate B. Define the means of communication between the project and corporate or programme management C. Define the project controls D. Record any identified risks in the Risk Register

Which is a purpose of the Starting up a Project process? A. Provide the information required for the Project Board to decide whether it is worthwhile initiating the project B. Ensure the strategy on how the quality expected by the customer will be achieved C. Look for lessons to be learned from this project D. Document how changes to products will be captured and reviewed

Which is a responsibility of the Project Assurance role? A. Inform the Project Manager about the status of the project's products B. Document the Project Board's reporting needs C. Ensure the Project Manager is aware of the need to use any existing corporate standards D. Inform corporate or programme management about the project's status

Which is a true statement about time-driven controls? A. Time-driven controls are used for monitoring the progress of Work Packages and management stages B. Time-driven controls take place when specific events happen C. Time-driven controls are produced at the end of a stage D. An Exception Report is a time-driven control

Which is an aim of the Starting up a Project process? A. Understand how and when the project's products will be delivered and at what cost B. Ensure that there is authority to deliver the project's products C. Do the minimum necessary in order to decide whether it is worthwhile to even initiate the project D. Create the set of management products required to control the project

Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process? A. Provision has been made to address any open issues or risks with follow-on action recommendations B. Request authorization to start the next stage C. Prepare an Exception Plan as directed by the Project Board D. Ensure that the planned products are delivered to expectations and within tolerance

Which is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Request authorization to start the next stage B. Ensure that all threats and opportunities for the current stage have been closed C. Make certain that work on products allocated to the team for the next stage is authorized and agreed D. Implement actions to resolve tolerance deviations from the Stage Plan

Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process? A. Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan B. Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation C. Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage D. Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled

Which is assumed to be a customer's responsibility in the PRINCE2 customer/supplier environment? A. Specify the desired result B. Provide the resources and skills to deliver the desired result C. Ensure the technical integrity of a project D. Develop a project's products

Which is part of quality control? A. Undertake quality reviews B. Write Product Descriptions C. Provide assurance that the project is being conducted properly D. Document the customer's quality expectations

Which management product do the Project Board use to decide whether to authonse initiation? A. Project Bnef B. Busness Case C. Project Intiation Documentation D. Project Product Descrption

Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the guiding obligations and good practices which determine whether the project is being managed using PRINCE2? A. The Principles B. The Processes C. The Themes D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment

Which of the following are NOT covered in the management product 'Project Approach'? 1. Whether the solution is to be bespoke 2. What quality levels the product must meet 3. Whether an off the shelf product will be used A. 2 B. 2&3 C. None of the above D. 1&2

Which of the following are a purpose of an Issue Report? 1. Document an off-specification 2. Record an issue's resolution 3. Capture all problems or concerns within the project 4. Capture recommendations for handling a request for change A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

Which of the following are product-based planning tasks? 1. Write a Project Product Description. 2. Identify activities and dependencies 3. Create a product breakdown structure. 4. Create a product flow diagram A. 1,3,4 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,2,4

Which of the following are tasks carried out as part of product-based planning? 1. Write a Project Product Description. 2. Identify activities and dependencies 3. Create a product breakdown structure. 4. Create a product flow diagram A. 1,3,4 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,2,4

Which of the following are the integrated elements which make up the structure of PRINCE2? A. Principles, Themes, Processes, Tailoring to the project environment B. Outputs, Outcomes, Benefits C. Organization, Plans, Progress, Business Case, Risk, Quality, Change D. Time, Cost, Quality, Scope, Benefit, Risk

Which of the following are the three primary stakeholder categories? A. User, Supplier and Business B. Project, Programme and Corporate C. Customer, Executive and Supplier D. Business, User and Specialists

Which of the following describes the recommended minimum number of stages? A. Initiation as the first stage, the remainder of the project as the second stage B. Initiation as the first stage, closure activities as the second stage C. Procurement as the first stage, design and implementation as the second stage D. Pre-project work as the first stage, initiation as the second stage

Which of the following does not aid the Project Manager in exerting control? A. Project Initiation Documentation B. Work Package C. Exception Plan D. Project Plan

Which of the following information does a Product Description provide? 1. Necessary abilities of the people needed to produce the product 2. Why the product is needed and what it will look like 3. Necessary abilities of the people needed to review the product 4. Time and cost needed to produce the product A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

Which of the following is FALSE regarding PRINCE2 principles? A. A project should have a customer/supplier environment B. A project should manage by exception C. A project should focus on products D. A project should be tailored to suit the project environment

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Change theme? A. Change control should be used to prevent changes being made to baselined products B. Issues can affect the project's performance targets of time, cost, quality, scope, benefits and risk C. A pre-requisite of effective issue and change control would be an appropriate configuration management system D. Without issue and change control being applied, a project will become unresponsive to its stakeholders

Which of the following is FALSE? A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle

Which of the following is NOT a typical activity of a configuration management procedure? A. Communicate B. Control C. Identification D. Planning

Which of the following is TRUE regarding risk? A. A Risk Register contains details of the risk management techniques and standards to be applied B. The PRINCE2 risk management procedure consists of five iterative steps: Identify, Assess, Plan, Implement, Communicate C. A Risk Management Strategy is produced by a risk owner D. PRINCE2's approach to risk does not involve stakeholders

Which of the following is a prioritized list of measurable definitions of the attributes required for the set of products to be acceptable to key stakeholders? A. Acceptance criteria B. Quality criteria and related tolerance C. Project Product Description D. Product Status Account

Which of the following is a prioritized list of measurable definitions of the attributes required for the set of products to be acceptable to key stakeholders? A. Acceptance criteria B. Quality criteria and tolerances C. Quality and approval records D. Customer's quality expectations

Which of the following is a purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Approve the next Stage Plan and review the updated Project Plan B. Co-ordinate an area of work that will deliver one or more of the project's products C. Place formal requirements on accepting, executing and delivering project work D. Deal with issues and report progress to the Project Board

Which of the following is a specific objective of the Controlling a Stage process? A. Attention is focused on delivery of the stage's products B. Assure the Project Board that all products in the Stage Plan for the current stage have been completed and approved C. Work on products allocated to the team is authorized and agreed D. The various ways the project can be delivered are evaluated and a project approach selected

Which of the following is a statement about the quality expected from the project product? A. Quality criteria B. Customer's quality expectation C. Acceptance criteria D. Acceptance record

Which of the following is an in put to the "Plan the Next Stage" activity in the "Managing a Stage Boundary" process? A. Issue Register B. Checkpoint Report C. Project Product Descriptions D. Exception Plan

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when determining the length of a stage? A. The amount of resources available in the short term B. How far ahead you can sens plan in detail C. The technical stages within the project D. The amount of r6k associated with the project

Which of the following is within the context of the Closing a Project process? A. Provide an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified B. Provide a means by which an exception process can be implemented C. The continuing correct focus of the project should be checked at the end of each stage D. Used for each delivery stage of the project

Which of the following management products is NOT updated as part of Managing a stage boundary? 1. Business Case 2 Benefits Review Plan 3. Configuration Item Records 4. Project Brief A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 23,4

Which of the following quality measures is covered in the process "Initiating a Project" (IP)? A. How quality will be achieved B. When each product will be tested C. By whom each product will be tested D. Options A, B and C

Which of the following reports does not contain any information on risk? A. Issue Report B. Highlight report C. Lessons Report D. End Stage Report

Which of the following statements are True 1. Quality management is the complete set of quality standards. Procedures and responsibilities for a site or organization 2 Quality planning is about defining products required of the protect with their respective quality criteria methods and responsibilities. 3. Quality control focuses on the op rational techniques and activities used to carry out quality inspections. 4 Quality assurance ensures that quality methods are being correctly followed A. 1,2&3 B. 1,3&4 C. 1.2&4 D. 2.3&4

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of management stages? 1. Provide review and decision points 2. Enable key decisions to be made prior to the detailed work 3. Facilitate the manage by exception principle 4. Enables the project manager to have complete autonomy over the products to be produced A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

Which of the following statements describes a risk event? A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity B. The situation that gives rise to the risk C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification? A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project B. The justification for the project should remain valid C. The justications for the project may change D. If the project is no longer justified t. should be stopped

Which of the following statements is False regarding the Risk Management Strategy'? A. It captures and maintains al relevant informant on identified threats and opportunists B. It documents the r6k tolerances C. It documents the approach to risk D. It identifies responsible towards risk for the project

Which of the following statements is true of the business interest on the project? A. Ensures the project provides value for money B. Ensures the requirements for the project are defined C. Ensures the products produced meet the desired quality D. Represents the users of the product

Which of the options below reviews the benefits achieved by the project? A. Post-Project Review B. Post-Project Review Plan C. End Project Report D. Follow-on Action Recommendations

Which one of the following is a specific objective of a quality review? A. Baseline the product for change control purposes B. Update the Stage Plan with the details of the quality review progress C. Produce a Product Status Account for the products under review D. Perform an assessment on the performance of the Presenter of the product

Which one of these is NOT a Project Issue? A. Annotation of minor errors on a Quality Review product B. Request to change the specification of requirements C. Suggestion to improve a project product D. Record of some current or forecast failure to meet a requirement

Which one of these is NOT a key criterion for producing a Product Flow Diagram? A. Are the products clearly and unambiguously defined? B. On what other products is each product dependent? C. Is any product dependant on a product outside the scope of this plan? D. Which products can be developed in parallel?

Which option is NOT part of the Project Initiation Document? A. Project Mandate B. Initial Business Case C. Project Quality Plan D. Communication Plan

Which phrase applies to the user representative in a PRINCE2 project management team? A. They will be impacted by the outcome B. May need to use both in-house and external teams to construct the final outcome C. Representation from the business viewpoint D. Will provide the funding

Which process can trigger a premature close of the project? A. Directing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Closing a Project

Which statement correctly describes the differences between Project Assurance and quality assurance? A. Project Assurance provides assurance to the project's stakeholders whereas quality assurance provides assurance to the wider corporate or programme organization B. They are both the responsibility of the Project Board, but Project Assurance may be delegated C. Quality assurance is internal to the project, whereas Project Assurance is independent of the project D. Project Assurance must be independent of the Project Manager, whereas quality assurance is the responsibility of the Project Manager

Which statement describes the 'Implement' step within the recommended risk management procedure? A. Take planned action to respond to a risk B. Implement the responsibilities for risks defined in the Risk Management Strategy C. Assess the proximity of a risk D. Identify the level of risks that can be tolerated by the project

Which statement most accurately reflects the reason for an Exception Assessment in PRINCE2™? A. For the Project Manager to present an Exception Plan to the Project Board B. The Project Manager delivers a progress report to the Project Board as a confidence boost C. The Project Board meets to consider an Exception Report D. The Project Manager reviews and revises the Risk Log with those with assurance roles

Which theme includes the estimating of the effort required to develop the project's products? A. Plans B. Progress C. Business Case D. Organization

Who carries out audits that are independent of the project? A. Quality assurance B. Project Assurance C. Project Support D. Project Manager

Who determines the use of a change authority and change budget during project initiation? A. Project Board B. Senior User C. Project Manager D. Corporate or Programme Management

Who is responsible for committing user resources to the project? A. Senior User B. Senior Suppler C. Executive D. Project Board

Who is responsible for ensuring That Communication Management Strategy is appropriate and that planned communication activities actually take place? A. Project Assurance B. Project Manager C. Corporate or Programme Management D. Project Support

Who is responsible for ensuring that the value-for- money solution is constantly reassessed? A. Business Assurance B. Senior User C. Corporate or Programme Management D. Project Support

Who should act as the communication channel between a project and corporate or programme management? A. Project Board B. Project Assurance C. Project Manager D. Project Support

Who should use the information in a Lessons Report to refine, change and improve the standards within a quality management system? A. Corporate group B. Project Board C. Project Assurance D. Executive

According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that of business operations? A. Incurs cost B. Introduces business change C. Delivers benefits D. Creates products

A Project Mandate is turned into a Project Brief by which of the following processes? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Starting Up a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Authorising Initiation

A characteristic of a project is that they come with an element of uncertainty. Which of the following PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification and management of such uncertainty? A. Quality B. Risk C. Change D. Organization

A product can NOT be supplied to meet all of the requirements in its baselined Product Description. What first action should be taken? A. Raise a request for change B. Raise an off-specification C. Write an Exception Report D. Amend the Work Package

A stakeholder wishing to make an observation about the project would do what? A. Ask for it to be included in the Communication Management Strategy B. Raise an issue C. Make an entry in the Issue Register D. Arrange a meeting with a Project Board member

Acceptance for the completed products is obtained as part of which process? A. Closing a Project B. Managing Product Delivery C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Controlling a Stage

According to PRINCE2, a benefit is which of the following? A. An improved business operation B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome which is perceived as an advantage by one or more stakeholders C. The tangible or intangible product resulting from a planned activity D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour and/or circumstances

According to PRINCE2, it is seldom desirable, or possible, to plan an entire project in detail at the start. Which one of the following is given as a reason for this? A. It can be difficult to predict the actual performance of resources B. All aspects of planning become more difficult the further into the future they extend C. Sufficient detail is only known once the relevant stage has begun D. The supplier is unlikely to comprehend the detailed schedule

According to PRINCE2, what are issues likely to affect? A. The Project Manager's workload PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Exam 56 B. The project's performance targets C. The customer/supplier relationship D. Only the Project Plan

According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a benefit? A. An improved business operation B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome C. The tangible or intangible product resulting from a planned activity D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour and/or circumstances

An Exception Plan covers what period? A. From the problem to the end of the project B. From the problem to the end of a plan that will no longer finish within agreed tolerances C. The work needed to put the project back within its tolerances D. The time needed to produce an Exception Report

Are the following statements regarding The Managing Product Delivery process true or false? 1. Towards the end of the last stage, this process will invoke the Closing a Project process 2. The Team Manager obtains approval for completed products from the authorities identified in the Product Description A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

Are the following statements regarding the Communication Management Strategy true? 1. Defines how and where the project's products will be stored 2. Contains a description of the means and frequency of communication to parties both internal and external to the project A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

Are the following statements true or false? 1 Delegated Project Assurance roles report directly to corporate or programme management 2 In PRINCE2 the Project Manager role must be full time 3 A project management structure is a temporary structure A. All three are false B. Only the third is true C. Only the first is false D. The second and third are true

Are the right people being involved in writing Product Descriptions is a question for which role to answer? A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Team Manager D. Project Support

As part of "Assessing Progress" the Project Manager looks at Checkpoint Reports, Work Packages status and what other product? A. Highlight Reports B. The Quality Log C. The Business Case D. Project Initiation Document

During a work package the Team manager needs to keep the project manager informed, which management product is used for this? A. Highhght report B. Checkpont Report C. Issue Report D. End Stage Report

During project initiation, who determines the use of a Change Authority and whether a change budget will be used? A. Project Board B. Change Authority C. Project Manager D. Corporate or Programme Management

During which of the following activities is the Project Product Description created? A. Design and appoint the Project Management Team B. Prepare the outline business case C. Select the project approach and assemble the project brief D. Plan the initiation stage

For whom does the Senior User make decisions on behalf of? A. Those who will provide the necessary skills to produce the project product B. Those who will operate and maintain the project's products C. Those with an interest in how the project meets a business need D. Quality Assurance

Given that producing a Product Breakdown Structure and a Product Flow Diagram are two of the steps of product-based planning, which is another? A. Identifying activities and dependencies B. Writing Product Descriptions C. Scheduling D. Defining and analysing products

How does PRINCE2 define a project? A. A temporary team that is created to direct and oversee a collection of related projects in order to deliver outcomes and benefits related to the organization's strategic objectives B. A temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case C. A permanent organization that is created for the purpose of realizing one or more business benefits D. A permanent team that is created to deliver a series of business change initiatives

How does the Progress theme assist the Project Board to assess project viability at regular intervals? A. Sends regular Checkpoint Reports to the Project Board B. Only one management stage is authorized at a time C. Creates Exception Reports when tolerances are forecast to be exceeded D. Reports to the Project Board during project closure

Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A member of the Project Board is responsible for [ ? ] assurance. A. quality B. supplier C. risk D. product

Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project focuses on the definition and delivery of, in particular their quality requirements? A. Benefits B. Products C. Activities D. Outcomes

Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project has defined for each project objective to establish limits of delegated authority? A. Allowances B. Tolerances C. Roles D. Deviations

Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A risk consists of a combination of the of a perceived threat or opportunity occurring and the magnitude of its impact on objectives. A. Outcome B. Probability C. Dis-benefit D. Proximity

Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a [?] that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case A. Series of initiatives B. Temporary organization C. Business as usual activity D. Permanent team

Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed? A. Senior User B. Business Case C. Change D. Cost

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. PRINCE2 recommends three levels of [ ? ] to reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project. A. Management strategies B. Plan C. Stakeholder interests D. Time-driven controls

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. The Quality theme provides a set of rules and procedures which ensure that the [ ? ] created meet(s) the needs of the business. A. controls B. products C. project management team D. stages

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... The purpose of the Closing a Project process is to provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the [?] is confirmed. A. Final project cost B. Project product C. Project scope D. Project mandate

Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations? A. Produces benefits B. Introduces business change C. Manages stakeholders D. Incurs cost

Identify the missing words from the following sentence... For a project to start and carry on, a PRINCE2 principle states that a project must have [?]? A. Lesson applied throughout B. Continued business justification C. At least two stages D. Focus on products that will meet business expectations

Identify the missing words from the following sentence... It is a PRINCE2 principle that a project must have justification? A. Senior manager B. Continued business C. Consistent user D. Business operational

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. A project is [ ? ] organization that is created for the purpose of delivering business products. A. a corporate B. a temporary C. an external D. a technical

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. A risk budget is a sum of money included in the [ ? ] and set aside to fund specific management responses to a project's threats and opportunities. A. change budget B. project budget C. project's cost tolerance D. project's risk tolerance

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. At the end of a stage, the [ ? ] should be used to check whether there is a requirement to send copies of the End Stage Report to external interested parties. A. Stage Plan B. Communication Management Strategy C. Follow-on action recommendations D. Quality Management Strategy

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A Benefits Review Plan is used to show [?] A. Opportunities which, if occurred, would have a favourable impact on the projects costs and benefits B. Resources required to measure the expected benefits C. An investment appraisal for the project D. The project's outputs and outcomes

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A Benefits Review Plan is used to show how and when a measurement of the achievement of the can be made. PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Exam 15 A. Project's objectives B. Project's benefits C. Project's costs, benefits and risks D. Project's outputs and outcomes

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project focuses on [ ? ], in particular their quality requirements A. The definition and realization of benefits< B. The definition and delivery of products C. Project management team roles and responsibilities D. The outcomes expected from the using the outputs

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.... The Managing a Stage Boundary process is predicated on dividing the project into [?] A. Stage tolerances B. Management stages C. Technical Stages D. Work Packages

If a Project Manager were to receive progress information on a Work Package during a stage, which one of the following products would the Project Manager update to show the progress that's been made? A. Checkpoint Report B. Stage Plan C. Benefits Review Plan D. Project Plan

If people other than the Project Board members were doing Project Assurance, who would they report to? A. Corporate or programme management B. The Project Board member overseeing the relevant area of interest C. The Project Manager D. The Team Manager whose Work Package execution is being monitored

If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken? A. An Exception Report is made B. A Project Issue is raised C. An Exception Memo is raised D. The review is reconvened

If, at the end of each stage, circumstances external to the project had changed which affect the project's costs, risks and benefits, which product should be updated to reflect this? A. Exception Plan B. Project Plan C. Project Brief D. Business Case

In the "Plan the Next Stage" activity, which project role is responsible for reviewing the next Stage Plan? A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Senior User D. Corporate/Programme Management

In the PRINCE2 Quality review technique, who would most likely carry out the role of administrator A. Project manager B. Project support C. Team Manager D. Project Assurance

In the PRINCE2™ document management structure, how many major types of file are recommended? A. Three-plans, risk and quality B. Three-project, stage and quality C. Just the Quality File D. One per Project Issue

In the suggested filing system, where is the Risk Log kept? A. Quality File B. Project File C. Each Stage File D. Specialist File

In what plan should project closure activities be planned? A. Closure Stage Plan B. Stage Plan for the final management stage C. Initiation Stage Plan D. Team Plan

In what product would a product's quality tolerance be defined? A. Project Product Description B. Product Description C. Stage Plan D. Quality Management Strategy

In which document does PRINCE2™ look for the identification of the Chairman of a Quality Review? A. Project Plan B. Stage Quality Plan C. Project Quality Plan D. Project Initiation Document

In which process are checks made for changes to the project management team? A. Starting up a Project B. Managing Stage Boundaries C. Closing a Project D. Directing a Project

In which process does the Project Manager ask the Project Board where the authority for making change lies? A. During Starting Up A Project B. During Initiating a Project C. In Giving Ad Hoc Direction D. When Authorising a Stage

In which product would a product's quality tolerance be defined? A. Project Product Description B. Product Description C. Stage Plan D. Quality Management Strategy

In which product would an identified opportunity relating to the project be recorded? A. Issue Register B. Risk Register C. Issue Report D. Risk Management Strategy

In which strategy would the change control process be recorded? A. Quay Management Strategy B. Configuration Management Strategy C. Risk Management Strategy D. Communication Management Strategy

It would be chaotic to have the people who are working on the project starting activities whenever they think fit. What product does PRINCE2 use to control this? A. Project Issue B. Work Package C. Checkpoint Report D. Risk Log

Please refer to section 8.2.1 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (The answer describes a 'favourable' impact on objectives, i.e. an opportunity, the other options are 'negative' impacts, so would be threats) A. A competitor may launch a rival product first thus affecting the expected market share for the product B. It is possible that the product completes user acceptance testing in a single test cycle rather that the scheduled two C. A prototype may be damaged in transit D. A critical meeting could be affected by air travel disruption

The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the Management of Risk. Which of the following options is the FALSE one? A. Notifying the Project Manager of any external risk exposure to the project B. Ensuring that risks are identified, recorded and regularly reviewed C. Making decisions on recommended reactions to risk D. Striking a balance between level of risk and potential benefits

The Project Board needs to assess project viability at certain points as defined in the Project Plan. How does the Progress theme assist this? A. Sending regular Checkpoint Reports B. Authorizing one stage at a time C. Creating Exception Reports when tolerances are threatened D. Reports during project closure

The creation of an Exception Plan often follows which of the following situations? A. A time or cost slippage occurring during a management stage B. An Exception Report being submitted to the Project Board in the case of a management stage being forecast to exceed its tolerance C. A Stage Plan updated due to an urgent corrective action being taken by the Project Manager D. A newly identified risk being captured and documented in the Risk Register

The creation of an Exception Plan often follows which situation? A. A time or cost slippage occurs during a management stage B. An Exception Report being submitted to the Project Board C. A Stage Plan is updated due to an urgent corrective action being taken D. An Issue Report being created

The decision on whether a project's solution will be contracted to third parties is made in which product? A. The Project Plan B. The Project Approach C. The Project Brief D. The Project Quality Plan

The existence of what in formation is expected by the proces" Starting Up a Project"? A. A Project Plan B. A Project Mandate C. An appointed organisation D. Project Initiation Document

The following appears on the cover sheet of a PID: 'Version 1. 3 Draft'. Which Component of PRINCE2 would be responsible for this entry? A. Controls B. Configuration Management C. Quality in a Project Environment D. Change Control

The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management team supports what principle? A. Continued business justification B. Defined roles and responsibilities C. Manage by stages D. Learn from experience

The outputs from a PRINCE2 project are considered to be what? A. The business benefits B. Any of its tangible or intangible specialist products C. Its Resources D. The results of change

The period of time for which it is possible to accurately plan in detail is known as? A. The predicting period B. The planning horizon C. The stable schedule D. The panorama plan

The purpose of the Progress theme is to do which of the following? A. Identify, assess and control uncertainty B. To establish mechanisms to monitor and control what has happened against what is planned C. Facilitate communication and control by defining the means of delivering the products D. Define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products which are fit for purpose

User and Supplier are two of the three primary stakeholder interests that must be represented on the Project Board at all times. What is the third interest? A. Customer B. Business C. Programme D. Corporate

What does PRINCE2 suggest may assist in the ultimate acceptance of the project? A. Identifying Risks associated with a plan B. Agreeing the Quality Criteria for a product with the Customer C. Establishing tolerance levels D. Follow-on Action Recommendations

What environment does PRINCE2 assume? A. A fixed-PRICE contract B. A Customer/Supplier environment C. A specialist environment D. A third-party environment

What environment does PRINCE2 assume? A. A fixed-price contract B. A Customer/Supplier environment C. A specialist environment D. A third-party environment

What environment does PRINCE2 assume? A. Third party B. Customer/Supplier C. Fixed-price contract D. Management and Specialist

What factors need to be taken into consideration when identifying the number of management stages required? 1. Where key decisions points need to be 2. The amount of risk within the project 3. The number of technical stages 4. How confident the Project Board and Project Manager are with proceeding A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

What is a purpose of a Daily Log? A. Record the products and activities planned for the stage B. Record actions taken to recover from issues NOT recorded in the Issue Register C. Record and track the status of all products produced during a stage D. Provide a regular update to the Project Board on the progress of the stage

What is a purpose of a Lessons Report? A. Used to understand the detailed nature, purpose, function and appearance of a product B. Allow the corporate group responsible for any quality management system to refine, change and improve the standards C. Provide useful information regarding product status D. Keep the Project Board and any other stakeholders informed of stage progress

What is a purpose of the Business Case theme? A. Ensures the establishment of procedures to monitor and evaluate actual achievements versus those planned B. Establishes methods to judge whether the ongoing project is justified, in order to support decision making C. Improves the potential for project success through assessment and control of uncertain events or situations D. Describes how, when and at what cost products can be delivered so facilitating communication and control

Which characteristic of a project reflects that there are different perspectives and motivations for customers and suppliers? A. Change B. Cross-functional C. Unique D. Risk

What is a purpose of the Change theme? A. Prevent change to anything agreed in the Project Initiation Documentation B. Ensure any potential changes to baselined products are controlled C. Ensure that the correct versions are delivered to the customer D. Assess changes to only the specialist products

What is a purpose of the Progress theme? A. Identify, assess and control uncertainty B. To establish mechanisms to monitor and control what has happened against what had been planned C. Facilitate communication and control by defining the means of delivering the products D. Define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products which are fit for purpose

What is a responsibility of the business representative on the Project Board? A. Setting tolerance levels for the project B. Ensuring the project represents value for money C. Confirming the project delivers the required functionality D. Checking the required quality levels are achieved by the project's products

What is an objective of the Directing a Project process? A. Enable the Project Board to be accountable for the project's success B. Ensure that corporate or programme management has an interface to the project C. Enable the Project Manager to be accountable for the project's success D. Ensure there's a common understanding of how project progress will be monitored and controlled

What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue? A. Allocation of priority B. Logging C. Decision on what type of issue D. Impact Analysis

What is the first step in Product-based Planning? A. Create a Product Breakdown Structure B. Write a Project Product Description C. Create a Product Flow Diagram D. Write Product Descriptions

What is the first task in product-based planning? A. Creating a Product Checklist B. Creating a Product Description for the final product C. Creating a Product Flow Diagram D. Creating a Product Breakdown Structure

What is the first task of product-based planning? A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan B. Write the Project Product Description C. Identify dependencies D. Create the product breakdown structure

What is the goal of the 'Identify context' step within the recommended risk management procedure? A. Identify responses to risks identified in the Business Case B. Understand the specific objectives that are at risk C. Gather information about risks for inclusion in Highlight Reports to the Project Board D. Identify the threats and opportunities that may affect the project's objectives

What is the goal of the 'identify context' step as part of the risk management procedure? A. Identify responses to risks identified in the Business Case B. Gather information about the project environment and objectives C. Gather information about risks for inclusion in Highlight Reports to the Project Board D. Identify the threats and opportunities that may affect the project's objectives

What is the purpose of a change budget? A. To correct any errors found in products produced by suppliers B. To pay for any increase in scope C. To implement risk actions, such as fallback plans D. To supplement any cost tolerance being exceeded

What is used to pass responsibility to a Team Manager for the production of one or more products? A. Exception Plan B. Work Package C. Product Description D. Checkpoint Report

What name is given to the permissible deviation allowed above and below a plan's target for time and cost without escalating the deviation to the next level of management? A. Concession B. Tolerance C. Contingency D. Allowance

What name is given to the review that checks that the configuration management process is being done to a standard? A. Product Status Account B. Configuration audit C. Quality Review D. Quality Assurance

What plan is created, and submitted for approval, during the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Team Plan B. Stage Plan C. Benefits Review Plan D. Project Plan

What principle is supported by the Project Product Description? A. Continued business justification B. Focus on products C. Learn from experience D. Manage by stages

What process enables an organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver a project's products before it is approved? A. Directing a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Starting up a Project D. Controlling a Stage

What process is used by the Project Manager to maintain focus on delivery of a stage's products within agreed tolerances? A. Directing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Managing Product Delivery

What product is reviewed by the Project Manager as part of progress assessment to determine whether a Work Package is performing to the agreed cost and time tolerances? A. Highlight Report B. Checkpoint Report C. Exception Report D. Off-specification

What product is used to maintain a record of those who have an interest in the project and their information requirements? A. Project Plan B. Communication Management Strategy C. Project Brief D. Project Product Description

What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change? A. Project and Stage Tolerances B. A Change Budget C. Contingency Plans D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

What purpose does the Benefits Review Plan fulfill after the project has closed? 1. Defines how a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made 2. Defines what benefits assessments need to be undertaken 3. Contains details of what period the costs and benefits will be measured 4. Identifies the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

Which role is responsible for creating Checkpoint Reports? A. Senior Supplier B. Team Manager C. Change Authority D. Project Support

What purpose does the Benefits Review Plan fulfill after the project has closed? 1. Defines how a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made 2. Defines what benefits assessments need to be undertaken 3. Records the results of all benefit measurements 4. Identifies the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

What role is responsible for creating a Team Plan in the Managing Product Delivery process? A. Project Manager B. Team Manager C. Project Support D. Senior User

What should be reviewed as part of preparing a Work Package? A. The Issue Log B. The appropriate Product Descriptions C. Project Board Authorisation to Proceed D. Timesheets

What takes place during the Closing a Project process? A. The post-project benefits reviews are performed B. Ownership of the project's products is transferred to the customer C. An End Stage Report is prepared for the final stage D. The project closure notification is reviewed and approved

What time-driven control ascertains the status of team members' work? A. Highlight Report B. Checkpoint Report C. Exception Report D. End Stage Report

When authorizing a stage, in which product would the Project Board look for an explanation of any deviations from the approved plans that are within tolerance? A. Lessons Report B. End Stage Report C. Benefits Review Plan D. Project Initiation Documentation

When considering the business options in the business case, which of these is NOT an option? A. Do nothing B. Do the maximum C. Do the minimum D. Do something

When does the Directing a Project process start? A. On completion of the Starting up a Project process B. On completion of the Initiating a Project process C. When the Starting up a Project process commences D. After the project has been authorized

When is a Project Quality Plan created? A. In 'Starting up a Project' B. During Initiation C. As part of 'Managing Stage Boundaries' D. As part of the Project Mandate

When is the Risk Register created? A. During the first End Stage Assessment B. During the initiation stage C. When preparing a Project Brief during pre-project work D. When authorizing the project

When is the Stage Plan for project initiation produced? A. Immediately prior to the authority to deliver a project has been given B. Before the Project Board authorize the initiation of the project C. After the Project Plan has been produced D. During Managing a Stage Boundary process

When it is forecast that one or more tolerances are to be exceeded, what should happen first? A. The next higher level of management will begin to execute management by exception B. The appropriate level of management must refer the matter to the next higher level C. The Project Plan will be replaced by a fallback plan D. The appropriate level of management will automatically produce and execute an Exception Plan to recover from the deviation without referral

When producing an Exception Plan for a stage, why would the Quality Register be updated? A. The Quality Register is NOT updated when creating an Exception Plan B. To add details of any new quality management activities planned C. To close all quality checks from the Stage Plan that's about to be replaced D. To record any corrective actions required when the quality checks of products in the current Stage Plan were completed

When should the Project Board refer to corporate or programme management for a decision? A. The stage requires resources B. It is forecast that project level tolerance will be exceeded C. The Senior Supplier or Senior User needs to be changed D. Any request for change needs to be approved

Which PRINCE2 principle is supported by the setting of tolerances for the three levels of plan? A. Manage by stages B. Manage by exception C. Continued business justification D. Learn from experience

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for checking that the project remains aligned to the corporate or programme strategy? A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Senior User D. Senior Supplier

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for identifying and advising the Project Manager of any issues and risks associated with a Work Package? A. Senior Supplier B. Team Manager C. Project Support D. Project Assurance

Which PRINCE2 role would design and appointment the project management team? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Senior User D. Project Assurance

Which activity is responsible for updating the stage plan with actual during Controlling a Stage? A. Review the stage status B. Review work package status C. Repot Hhbghts D. Take corrective action

Which aspect of project performance must be managed to ensure the project's products are fit for purpose? A. Benefits B. Quality C. Risk D. Scope

Which best describes a purpose of the Business Case theme? A. Provides full details of any risks related to the project B. Provide a forecast for the project objectives and the project's continued viability C. Establish ways of judging whether the project is, and remains viable, desirable and achievable to assist with decision making D. Specifies the ways in which the project will deliver the chosen business solution

Which best describes a purpose of the Business Case? A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project's benefits can be made B. Helps to establish whether the project is achievable C. Allows the Project Board to manage by exception by providing confirmation of continued business justification D. Describes the risks to be managed throughout the project

Which best describes the purpose of a Business Case? A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project's benefits can be made B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project, based on estimated costs, the benefits to be gained and offset by any associated risks C. Allows the Project Board to manage by exception throughout the project through providing continuous justification D. Describes the specific risk management techniques and standards to be applied throughout the project

Which is NOT an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process? A. Ensures work on products allocated to the team is authorized and agreed B. Ensures attention is focused on the delivery of a stage's products C. To send accurate progress information to the Project Manager D. Ensures products are delivered to expectations and within tolerance

Which is NOT considered when defining risk tolerance? A. A Project Board's attitude towards risk taking B. The allocated risk budget C. An organization's risk appetite D. The amount of risk a Project Board considers acceptable

Which is NOT one of the four integrated elements of PRINCE2? A. Principles B. Products C. Themes D. Tailoring to the project environment

Which is NOT represented by one of the three primary categories of stakeholder identified in PRINCE2? A. Those with a financial interest in the project B. Those who will manage the project on a day-to-day basis C. Those who will specify the desired outputs of the project D. Those who will create the project's outputs

Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2? A. Is a method specifically designed for technical projects B. Provides for the efficient and economic use of management time C. Includes many of the proven planning techniques, such as critical path analysis D. Can be used to manage both projects and programmes

Which is a definition of a risk cause? A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance B. The source of a risk C. The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation

Which is a difference between management and technical stages? A. Management stages require planning and technical stages do not B. Technical stages can overlap and management stages cannot C. Management stages deliver products and technical stages do not D. Technical stages require resources and management stages do not

Which is a purpose of a Daily Log? A. Record the products and activities planned for the stage B. Record informal issues C. Record and track the status of all products produced during a stage D. Update the Project Board on the progress of a stage

Which is a purpose of an End Project Report? A. Identify individuals or groups that need to be told that the project is coming to an end B. Review how well the project performed against the Project Initiation Documentation used to authorize it C. Identify individuals or groups that are responsible for measuring the expected benefits after the project has closed D. Ensure that key project information is archived and made secure

Which is a purpose of the Business Case theme? A. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned B. Establish methods to judge whether the ongoing project is justified C. Assess and control uncertain events or situations D. Describe how, when and at what cost products can be delivered

Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process? A. Produce a Team Plan for the work to be assigned to a Team Manager B. Select and implement actions that will resolve deviations from a plan within tolerance C. Obtain approvals for products delivered in a Work Package D. Update a Project Plan to incorporate the actuals from a Stage Plan

Which is a purpose of the Directing a Project process? A. Provide the information required to confirm if it is worthwhile to initiate a project B. Enable overall control of a project to be exercised by the Project Board C. Establish the level of control required by the Project Board after initiation. D. Provide sufficient information so that the current stage can be reviewed and the next Stage Plan approved

Which is a purpose of the Managing Product Delivery process? A. Enable the Senior Supplier to be provided with sufficient information by the Project Manager so that they can review the success of the current Work Package B. Provide a controlled link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s) C. Enable the Project Board to request updates to the current Team Plan D. Establish solid foundations for the project

Which is a purpose of the Risk Register? A. Describe the risk management techniques and standards to be applied to the project B. Act as a central record of information relating to the identified risks for the project C. Act as a repository for informal issues D. List the responsibilities for achieving an effective risk management procedure

Which is a purpose of the Risk theme? A. Establish a procedure to ensure every change is agreed by the relevant authority before it takes place B. Establish a cost-effective procedure to identify, assess and control uncertainty C. Establish mechanisms to control any unacceptable deviations from plan D. Establish mechanisms to manage risks at the corporate or programme level of an organization

Which is a recommended quality review team role? A. Project Manager B. Presenter C. Project Support D. Producer

Which is a recommended response type to respond to an opportunity? A. Transfer B. Reject C. Accept D. Reduce

Which is a responsibility of the Project Manager? A. Delegating responsibility for changes to the Change Authority B. Documenting the Communication Management Strategy C. Approving stage tolerances D. Approving the customer's quality expectations

Which is a task of product-based planning? A. Identify activities and dependencies B. Write the Project Product Description C. Prepare the Work Packages D. Produce Product Status Accounts

Which is a type of issue? A. A lesson B. A request for change C. An Exception Report D. A risk with an estimated high impact

Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process? A. Prepare the plan for the next stage B. Assess any benefits that have already been realized C. Produce a Benefits Review Plan to identify what benefits are expected D. Check that all benefits are realized before closing a project

Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process? A. Review and approve the plan for project closure B. Review the performance of the project against its baseline C. Perform any post-project reviews D. Create a Benefits Review Plan

Which of the following is False? A Successful project management team should, A. Have business, user and suppler stakeholders representation B. Never be reviewed as members should stay with the team for the duration C. Ensure appropriate governance by defiling responsive for directing, managing and delving the project and clearly defining accountable at all levels D. Have an effective strategy to manage communication flows to and from stakeholders

Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 Principle? A. Continued business justification B. Project manage by process C. Manage by stages D. Tailor to suit the project environment

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a Product Description? A. Defines the level of quality required for the product B. Records the quality results of the stage C. Defines the people or skills required to produce, review and approve the product D. To understand the detailed nature, purpose, function and appearance of a product

Which of the following is NOT a step in PRINCE2 Risk Management? A. Assess B. Risk budget C. Identify D. Implement

Which of the following is NOT a tngger fo the project marager to authorise a work package? A. Stage Authonsation B. Correctie Action C. Exception plan approved D. Reporting hjhkjhts

Which of the following is a PRINCE2 principle? A. The customer will specify the desired result B. A project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities C. Every project will need a different project management approach D. The supplier will supply the resources to deliver the required result

Which of the following is a Project Board control? A. Approving a deviation of benefits tolerance B. Approve a Plan, with its relevant tolerances for the next management stage C. Review Checkpoint Reports to monitor progress D. Use of project registers and logs to review progress

Which of the following is a Project Board control? A. Project-level tolerance B. Stage-level tolerance C. Checkpoint Report D. Quality Register

Which of the following is a TRUE principle of a PRINCE2 project? A. Please refer to section 2.3 in the PRINCE2 Manual B. Work Package level activities are identified during Starting up a Project C. A project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities D. Every project will need a different project management approach

Which of the following is a trigger for the Project Manager to update the Stage Plan with actuals? A. Once agreed, the Stage Plan never gets updated B. Receipt of a Checkpoint Report from a team manager C. Receipt of a Project Issue D. An entry made into the daily log

Which of the following is a typical activity of a configuration management procedure? A. Communicate B. Status accounting C. Impact assessment D. Implement

Which of the following is an in put to the "Prepare the Communication Management Strategy" ? A. Stage Plan B. Quality Management Strategy C. Configuration Item Record D. Benefits Review Plan

Which of the following is carried out as part of the Initiating a Project process? A. Ensure there is authority to deliver the project's products B. Ensure there is a common understanding of the reasons for doing the project C. Appoint the Executive and Project Manager D. Create a stage Plan for the next stage of the project

Which of the following is considered to be an output of a PRINCE2 project? A. A measurable improvement to the business B. Any tangible or intangible specialist product C. A consequence of doing the project that is perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders D. The result of change, normally affecting real world behaviour

Which of the following is funded from a change budget? A. Fallback plan B. Request for change C. Action to reduce a threat D. Change Authority

Which of the following is mandatory in a PRINCE2 project? A. Use of a separate person as Team Manager B. Use of management stages C. Use of Exception Plans D. Use of Team Plans

Which of the following is the Business Case used for during the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Enable the Project Board to decide whether or not to authorize the project B. Justify the continuing viability of the project C. Enable the Project Board to decide whether or not to authorize project closure D. Justify the initiation of a project

Which of the following is the definition for an off-specification? A. An issue the Project Manager needs to resolve or escalate B. Something forecast or currently not meeting society C. A proposal for a change to a basket D. A statement of concern

Which of the following is used to inform the Project Board of a forecast deviation of stage-level tolerance? A. Exception Plan B. Exception Report C. Off-specification D. Lessons Report

Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each products purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method? A. Tailor to suit the project environment B. Focus on products C. Manage by stages D. Continued business justification

Which of the following products is NOT created during the PRINCE2™ process model? A. Project Brief B. Project Mandate C. Project Initiation Document D. Project Plan

Which of the following products is used after the Starting Up a Project process to capture and maintain information on all of the identified threats and opportunities relating to the project? A. Risk Management Strategy B. Risk Register C. Issue Register D. Quality Register

Which of the following products would be at the centre of any impact assessments of risks, issues and changes? A. Highlight Report B. Business Case C. Lessons Log D. Risk Management Strategy

Which of the following project management team roles can be shared? 1. Project Assurance 2. Executive 3. Senior User 4. Senior Supplier A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,2,4

Which role is responsible for the design and appointment of the project management team? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Senior User D. Project Assurance

Which of the following represents the four key characteristics a good Project board should di splay? A. Authority, Credulity, Ointment, Availably B. Authority, Credibity, Delegation, Avadabity C. Authority, Availably, Connections, Delegation D. Authority, Crudity, Connections, Delegation

Which of the following represents the threshold levels of risk exposure that, when exceeded, will trigger an Exception Report? A. Risk proximity B. Risk tolerance C. Risk allowance D. Risk profile

Which of the following risk responses can be used for either an opportunity or a threat'? A. Reduce B. Share C. Reject D. Enhance

Which of the following risk responses can be used to seize an opportunity to ensure a risk 'will' happen and the impact 'will' be realized? A. Accept B. Exploit C. Enhance D. Fallback

Which of the following risk responses can be used to seize an opportunity to ensure a risk will occur? A. Accept B. Exploit C. Enhance D. Transfer

Which of the following shows the scope of a plan? A. The full content of a Product Status Account for a related Work Package B. The related Plan's product breakdown structure C. The composition section of a Project Product Description D. All of the project's Configuration Item Records

Which of the following shows the scope of a plan? A. The full content of a product checklist B. The related product breakdown structure C. The composition of a Project Product Description D. All of the project's Configuration Item Records

Which of the following statements about the Closing a Project process are true? 1. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point for the receipt of completed Work Packages for the work performed in the final stage. 2. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point to review if the objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved. A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Which of the following statements describes a risk cause? A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity B. The situation that gives rise to the risk C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justifcation A. The justifcaton for the project must reman the same throughout the project. B. The just Aficabon for the project shouki remali vahd. C. The justification for the project may change. D. If the project is no longer justified t should be stopped.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. PRINCE2's focus is on engaging with the business stakeholders only B. PRINCE2 does not seek to engage with any stakeholders outside of the project environment C. PRINCE2 is based on a customer/supplier environment D. PRINCE2 assumes the supplier will specify the desired result and probably pay for the project

Which of the following steps is used to consider the probability, impact and proximity of an opportunity? A. Decide B. Assess C. Identify D. Examine

Which of the following steps looks at the probability, impact and proximity of a risk? A. Communicate B. Assess (estimate) C. Identify (context) D. Plan

Which of the following steps would involve sending information regarding any threats or opportunities to an external interested party? A. Identify B. Communicate C. Implement D. Plan

Which of the following steps would involve the sending of information regarding project threats or opportunities to any external stakeholders? A. Identify B. Communicate C. Implement D. Plan

Which of the following tasks is the first to be performed on receipt of a new issue? A. Assess its impact on the project's objectives B. Determine whether the issue is a request for change, off-specification or a problem/concern C. Escalate if it is beyond the delegated authority D. Identify options to resolve the issue and submit a recommendation

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a threat to a project? A. A competitor may launch a rival product first thus affecting the expected market share for the product B. It is possible that the product completes user acceptance testing in a single test cycle rather that the scheduled two C. A prototype may be damaged in transit D. A critical meeting could be affected by air travel disruption

Which of the following would be carried out as part of a post-project benefits review? A. An assessment of whether the project fulfilled its original objectives B. A review of the performance of the project's products in operational use and identification of whether there have been any side-effects C. An assessment of the project's risk management procedure D. A review of the performance of the project management method and the project management team

Which of the following would be defined within the Project Brief? A. The Communication Management Strategy B. The scope of the project C. The initiation Stage Plan D. The Lessons Report for the project

Which of the following would be done during the initiation stage? A. Appoint the Executive B. Establish who needs information, when and in what format C. Establish the quality expectations of the customer D. Define how the project will deliver the chosen business solution

Which of the following would be done once the Project Board have authorized initiation? A. Create the initiation Stage Plan B. Establish who needs information, when and in what format C. Establish the quality expectations of the customer D. Define how the project will deliver the chosen business solution

Which of the following would contain the business option of doing nothing, regarding the project's investment? A. Project approach B. Business Case C. Risk Management Strategy D. Benefits Review Plan

Which of the following would define the sequence in which the products are to be created and any dependencies between them? A. Product Status Account B. Product flow diagram C. Product breakdown structure D. Product Description

Which of the following would help to define the project's products and show the sequence in which those products are to be created? A. Writing Product Descriptions B. Product-based planning technique C. Creating a product breakdown structure D. Writing a Project Product Description

Which of the following would the Project Board only authorize one at a time? A. Work Packages B. Stages C. Team Plans D. Product Description

Which of the following, produced in the Starting Up a Project process, defines the way the project is to be delivered after evaluating the various delivery methods? A. Outline Business Case B. Project approach C. Project definition D. Project Product Description

Which of these is NOT a specific objective of an end stage assessment? A. Perform a risk analysis and management review of the project B. Revise the Project Mandate C. Review the tolerances set for the next Stage D. Review the next Stage Plan against the Project Plan

Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action? A. Prevention B. Denial C. Reduction D. Transference

Which ol the following statements describes an outcome? A. Any of the projects specialist products B. A result of the change derived from using the project's products C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholdier

Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria? A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits. B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer. C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project. D. To triger' Starting up a Project'.

Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2? A. The change-over to operational use of the product B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use C. The specification of the product D. Finalisation of the business case

Which plan provides the Business Case with costs during the Initiating a Project process? A. Initiation Stage Plan B. Project Plan C. Stage Plan D. Team Plan

Which principle is central to the quality theme and provides explicit understanding of what the project will create? A. Manage by stages B. Focus on products C. Manage by exceptions D. Learn from experience

Which process checks for changes to the project management team? A. Starting up a Project B. Managing Stage Boundaries C. Closing a Project D. Directing a Project

Which process is predicated on dividing the project into management stages? A. Starting Up a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Closing a Project D. Initiating a Project

Which process starts on completion of the Starting up a Project process? A. Controlling a Stage B. Directing a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Managing a Stage Boundary

Which process would check and accept Work Packages? A. Controlling a Stage B. Managing Product Delivery C. Directing a project D. Managing a Stage Boundary

Which process would have a purpose of taking action to ensure the stage remains within tolerance? A. Directing a Project B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Managing Product Delivery

Which process would review the performance of the project against its baselines? A. Initiating a Project B. Closing a Project C. Managing Product Delivery D. Starting Up a Project

Which product documents issues and should be monitored on a regular basis? A. Daily Log B. Issue Register C. Lessons Log D. Issue Report

Which product does the Project Board use as a base against which to monitor project progress on a stage by stage basis? A. Stage Plan B. Project Plan C. Programme Plan D. Benefits Review Plan

Which product is used to inform the Project Board of a forecast deviation of stage-level tolerance? A. Exception Plan B. Exception Report C. Off-specification D. Highlight Report

Which product is used to record and maintain information regarding any issues that are being managed formally? A. Configuration Item Record B. Issue Register C. Daily Log D. Risk Register

Which product should be continuously maintained regarding the status, history and version of a product? A. Stage Plan B. Configuration Item Record C. Highlight Report D. Product Status Account

Which product would be at the centre of any impact assessment of risks, issues and changes? A. Highlight Report B. Business Case C. Lessons Log D. Communication Management Strategy

Which product would define a product's quality tolerance? A. Quality Register B. Product Description C. Stage Plan D. Quality Management Strategy

Which project characteristic refers to a project involving a team of people working together to introduce a change that will impact others outside the team and sometimes other organizations? A. Temporary B. Cross-functional C. Introduces business change D. Uniqueness

Which project management team member represents the interest of those who will operate the project's products to realize the benefits after the project is complete? A. Executive B. Senior User C. Senior Supplier D. Project Manager

Which report does the Project Manager receive on a regular basis? A. Highlight Report B. Checkpoint Report C. Issue Report D. Exception Report

Which role has a specific responsibility for checking that the project remains aligned to the corporate or programme strategy? A. Project Manager B. Project Assurance C. Senior User D. Senior Supplier

Which role has a specific responsibility for identifying and advising the Project Manager of any issues and risks associated with a Work Package? A. Senior Supplier B. Team Manager C. Project Support D. Project Assurance

"ControlingaStage"driveswhichotherprocesonafrequent,iterativebasis? A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Approving a Stage or Exception Plan C. Managing Product Delivery D. Planning

A pre-requisite of effective issue and change control is the establishment of which of the following? A. Use of a change budget and change authority B. A risk management procedure C. A configuration management system D. A Quality Management Strategy

According to PRINCE2, Project Board members would NOT be involved in which of the following? A. Confirming project tolerances with corporate or programme management B. Authorizing the start of the project C. Running of the project on a day-to-day basis D. Communications between the project management team and stakeholders external to that team

According to PRINCE2, Which of the following would be used to pay for a request for change and possibly any analysis costs? A. Contingency B. Tolerance C. Change budget D. Risk budget

According to PRINCE2, which of the following roles cannot be shared? A. Project Assurance B. Project Support C. Executive D. Team Manager

According to PRINCE2, which of the following statements is FALSE regarding project closure? A. A clear end to the project gives recognition that the original objectives have been met B. A clear end to the project provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified C. A clear end to the project enables the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products D. A clear end to the project transfers ownership of the products to the customer

An Exception Report is produced in which sub-process? A. Taking Corrective Action B. Reviewing Stage Status C. Escalating Project Issues D. Reporting Highlights

Any project outcomes perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders would be documented in which product? A. Risk Management Strategy B. Issue Register C. Business Case D. Project Product Description

Apart from "Initiating a Project" in which process is the Business Case updated? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Authorising a Stage

Apart from the Issue Log, what else is updated by the lower level process "Examining Project Issues"? A. Lessons Learned Log B. Business Case C. Risk Log D. Stage Plan

Apart from" Initiating a Project"in which proces is the Busines Caseupdated? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Controlling a Stage C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Authorising a Stage

Are the following statements regarding technical stages true or false? 1. There can be more than one technical stage per management stage 2. The work can be grouped by the set of techniques used or the products created A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

During Execubng a Work package, specialist products are createi and quality reviews are carried out which management product captures the details of these reviews? A. Team Plan B. Checkpoint Report C. Quay Register D. Configuration Item Record

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. A purpose of the Plans theme is to [ ?] the project's plans. A. define a coding system to provide a unique identifier for the products within B. summarize the results of the quality activities performed on C. provide a framework to design, develop and maintain D. define the project benefits to be achieved by each of

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The role of [ ? ] is responsible for carrying out a risk response action to respond to a particular risk. A. Project Assurance B. Project Support C. the risk actionee D. the risk owner

If Project tolerances were threatened. who needs to be notified? A. Project Board B. Project Manager C. Corporate or Programmer Management D. Executive

If a Work Package is forecast to exceed its tolerances, how should a Team Manager inform the Project Manager? A. Raise an Exception Report B. Issue an Exception Plan C. Raise an issue D. Raise a risk

If a product is to be changed, what else must also pass through change control? A. Stage Quality Plan B. Product Breakdown Structure C. Product Description D. Quality Log

If a product's weight was specified to be 300 grams but could only be built to a weight of 400 grams, which of the following would be created? A. Exception Plan B. Request for change C. Off-specification D. Exception Report

If a product's weight was specified to be 300 grams, but could only be built to a weight of 400 grams, which of the following would be created? A. Exception Plan B. Request for change C. Off-specification D. Exception Report

If a question arises on why a particular product was changed, which element of PRINCE2 would be of most help in finding the information? A. Issue Log B. Quality Log C. Configuration Management D. Change Control

If the Project Board instructs the Project Manager to implement a request for change, which document would contain details of that change? A. Checkpoint Report B. Highlight Report C. Issue Report D. Product Status Account

If there were a need to know what the precise content of an old version of a product was, what part of PRINCE2™ would most help us? A. The Stage Plan B. The Issue Log C. Configuration Management D. Work Package Authorisations

If, for whatever reason, the business justification disappears once the project is underway, what does PRINCE2 suggest should happen? A. The project should continue until the next end stage assessment B. A benefits review should be undertaken C. The project should be stopped or changed D. An exception assessment should be held to approve an Exception Plan to recover from the situation

In terms of configuration management what are described as the assets of a project? A. The resources B. The plans C. The products D. The business benefits

In which process are decisions made on Exception Reports? A. Managing Stage Boundaries B. Closing a Project C. Directing a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

In which product does a Project Manager define the time and cost tolerances for the work to be done by a Team Manager? A. Product Description B. Team Plan C. Work Package D. Stage Plan

In which sub-process of "Controlling a Stage" is the Risk Log updated? A. Capturing Project Issues B. Assessing Progress C. Examining Project Issues D. Reporting Highlights

InPRINCE2alpotentialchangesaredealtwithas...? A. Configuration items B. Requests For Change C. Project Issues D. Exception Reports E. Action items

Product based planning focuses on which of the following 1. Creating product descriptions 2. Identifying activities 3 Creating a Product hierarchy 4. Creating a Product sequence A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4

The Product-based Planning technique is recommended for which plans? A. Stage Plans only B. Project and Stage Plans only C. All levels of plan D. All levels of plan except the Exception Plan

The Project Board has three responsibilities towards the management of risk. Which of the following options is the FALSE one? A. Notifying the Project Manager of any external risk exposure to the project B. Making decisions on recommended reactions to risk C. Identifying, recording and regularly reviewing risks D. Striking a balance between levels of risk and potential benefits

The Project Board have overall control at what level? A. Day-to-day control for a management stage within stage tolerance B. Work Package level within Work Package tolerance C. Project level within project tolerance D. All levels of plans and tolerances

The Project Board keeps a control of the project through: 1. Highlight Reports 2. Checkpoint Reports 3. Exception assessment 4. Quality Log A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. All of the above C. land 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only

The Quality File has seven divisions. Five of these are for customer's quality expectations, Project Quality Plan, Configuration Management Plan, Configuration Item Records and Quality inspection records. Which of the following is another one? A. Off-Specifications B. Specialist Products C. Acceptance Criteria D. Stage Quality Plans

The person best situated to keep an eye on a risk is called its...? A. Supporter B. Monitor C. Owner D. Librarian

The reviewer(s) and approver(s) of a particular product are identified in which of the following? A. The Quality Management Strategy B. The quality criteria C. The product's related Product Description D. The Project Initiation Documentation

There are four steps in the Risk Management procedure, what are they? A. Identify, Assess, Resource, Implement B. Identify, Evaluate, Resource, Implement C. Identify, Assess, Plan, Implement D. Identify, Evaluate, Plan, Implement

What are described as "the backbone of the management information system required for any project"? A. Highlight Reports B. Plans C. The control points D. End Stage Assessments

What is NOT a purpose of the End Stage Report? A. Allow the Project Board to decide what to do next with the project B. Help decide whether to amend the project scope, or stop the project C. Escalate a stage-level tolerance threat to the Project Board D. Give a summary of progress to date

What is NOT an objective of the Directing a Project process? A. Ensure there is authority to deliver the project's products B. Ensure that corporate or programme management has an interface to the project C. Provide sufficient information to enable the continuing viability of the project to be assessed D. Management direction and control are provided throughout the project's life

What is NOT identified when creating a product breakdown structure? A. Products to be created in-house B. Products to be modified C. Resources required to produce the products D. Products to be created by an external third party

What is a concession? A. A contract to a third party B. An error found in a Quality Review which is not corrected C. An Off-Specification accepted by the Project Board without corrective action D. An allowance above and beyond tolerance levels

What is a purpose of a Configuration Management Strategy? A. Define the various types of quality methods to be applied to the project's products B. Provide details of the current state and version of each configuration item C. Record how the products will be protected and uniquely identified D. Define what the budget will be for controlling any risks

What is a purpose of a Lessons Log? A. Document and maintain information on issues B. Note who should be sent copies of a Highlight Report C. Note information from other projects which could be input to the project's strategies and plans D. Document the results of quality checking activities

What is a purpose of the Communication Management Strategy? A. Ensuring the project team can use the required reporting tools B. Producing reports for the Project Board C. Defining the communication method between the Project Board and corporate or programme management D. Ensuring stakeholders are aware of their responsibilities

What is a purpose of the Initiating a Project process? A. Delegate day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager B. Answer the question: do we have a viable and worthwhile project? C. Understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products before committing to a significant spend D. Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information so that it can review the success of the current stage

What is a purpose of the Project Product Description? A. Defines the reporting structure to be used by the project B. Provides a reference to find out what the project is about and how it is being managed C. Describes what the project has to produce to obtain customer acceptance D. Provides input to the creation of the project mandate

What is an off-specification? A. A new requirement B. A quality tolerance C. A type of issue D. A major risk

What is defined within the Organization theme? A. Project resource requirements B. Project acceptance criteria C. Responsibilities for managing teams D. Jobs for individuals to perform

What is the collective name for individuals or groups who may be affected by a project? A. Customers B. Project Support C. Stakeholders D. Team members

What is the definition of a project outcome? A. A measurable improvement that is perceived as an advantage by one or more stakeholders B. The reason for the project C. The result of the change derived from using the project's outputs D. The project's specialist products.

What is the more common term used in PRINCE2™ for" deliverable"? A. Item B. Package C. Product D. Component

What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out a risk response action or actions to respond to a particular risk or set of risks? A. Risk Manage B. Risk Coordinator C. Risk Actionee D. Risk Owner

What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out the response action or actions to respond to a particular risk? A. Risk Manager B. Risk Administrator C. Risk Actionee D. Risk Owner

What is the purpose of the risk budget? A. To fund risk management activities defined in the risk management procedure B. To fund the cost of analyzing requests for change while executing a Work Package C. Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of implementing risk responses D. Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of identifying risks to the project

What is the trigger for the Starting up a Project process? A. Project Brief B. Project Plan C. Project mandate D. Outline Business Case

What other control is closely linked with configuration management? A. Risk Management B. Project Closure C. Change Control D. Project Initiation

What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project Plan? A. The Project Mandate B. The Team Plan C. The Risk Log D. The Project Brief

What plan identifies quality responsibilities for the project? A. The Project Plan B. a Stage Quality Plan C. the Project Quality Plan D. a Team Plan

What plan is mandatory? A. Team Plan B. Exception Plan C. Project Plan D. Programme Plan

What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager? A. Starting up a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Managing Product Delivery D. Directing a Project

What process ensures focus on the delivery of a stage's products and avoids uncontrolled change? A. Directing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Controlling a Stage D. Starting up a Project

When does the Directing a Project process begin? A. When corporate or programme management have issued a project mandate to trigger a project B. As soon as the necessary authorities have been appointed for initiating the project C. On completion of the Starting Up a Project process D. Once the Project Initiation Documentation had been submitted for Project Board approval

When examining a project issue, which three aspects should be considered? 1. Performance targets 2. Business Case 3. Resources 4. Risk A. 1,3,4 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,2,3

When should a Product Description be baselined? A. As soon as it is available in draft form B. When the associated product has passed its quality check C. When the plan containing its creation is baselined D. As soon as it is written

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for briefing non-technical management on supplier aspects of the project? A. Team Manager B. Project Manager C. Senior Supplier D. Team member

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for ensuring that the quality activities relating to products at all stages has appropriate user representation? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Project Assurance D. Quality Assurance

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for planning, monitoring and managing the team's work? A. Senior Supplier B. Project Support C. Team Manage D. Project Manager

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for referring to the Project Board if any delegated limits of authority or allocated change budget are forecast to be exceeded? A. Team Manager B. Project Assurance C. Change Authority D. Project Manager

Which PRINCE2 technique helps to ensure that all personnel affected by a product have the same understanding of the product's purpose? A. Quality Review B. Configuration Management C. Product-based Planning D. Change Control

Which Process is used to design the Project Management Team? A. Initiating a Project B. Authorising a Project C. Starting Up a Project D. Directing a Project

Which activity takes place within the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Produce Highlight Reports B. Take corrective action within the limits of a stage's tolerance C. Produce an Exception Plan D. Authorize a Stage Plan for the next stage

Which best describes a stakeholder? A. Only those people internal to the project team B. Anyone that may affect the project C. Anyone that can affect, be affected by, or perceive to be affected by an initiative D. Someone who has a financial interest/stake in an initiative

Which describes a risk effect? A. The uncertainty expressed as a negative or favourable occurrence B. The issue which is affecting the project and has resulted in a risk C. The impact(s) on the project objectives should the threat or opportunity occur D. The change in the status of a risk in response to actions taken to control it

Which does NOT reflect the PRINCE2 principle of continued business justification? A. There must be a justifiable reason for starting a project B. The business justification drives decision making C. If a project is no longer forecast to deliver a financial benefit, it should be stopped. D. If a project can no longer be justified, it should be stopped

Which does PRINCE2 regard as the third project interest, given user and supplier as the other two? A. Technical B. Management C. Business D. Quality

Which individual role is ultimately accountable for the project? A. Project Manager B. Senior Supplier C. Executive D. Senior User

Which is NOT an objective of the Directing a Project process? A. Ensure the plans for realizing the post-project benefits are managed and reviewed B. Provide corporate or programme management with an interface to the project C. Ensure there is a common understanding of the reasons for doing the project D. Ensure there is authority to close the project

Which is NOT identified when creating a product breakdown structure? A. Products to be created by internal resources B. Products to be modified C. Resources required to produce the products D. Products to be created by an external third party

Which is NOT included in the PRINCE2 definition of a project? A. A project is a temporary organization B. A project's purpose is to deliver one or more business products C. A project is part of 'business as usual' D. A project is based on an agreed Business Case

Which is NOT one of the PRINCE2 integrated elements? A. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment B. The processes C. The products D. The themes

Which is a FALSE statement about technical stages? A. Can overlap with other technical stages B. Typified by the use a particular set of specialist skills C. Include the Managing a Stage Boundary process activities D. Can span more than one management stage

Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2? A. Enables the management of projects as well as of 'business as usual' activities B. Can be tailored by leaving out elements of the method for some projects C. Can be applied to any type of project D. Avoids the need to involve corporate or programme management

Which is a purpose of a Communication Management Strategy? A. Ensuring the project team can use the required reporting tools B. Producing reports for the Project Board C. Defining the communication method between the Project Board and corporate or programme management D. Ensuring stakeholders are aware of their responsibilities

Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process? A. Authorize the final stage of the project B. Confirm that all benefits defined in the Business Case have been achieved C. Recognize whether objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved D. Delegate day-to-day management of the end of the project to the Project Manager

Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process? A. Agree, perform and deliver project work B. Draft a plan for the next stage C. Agree stage tolerances D. Take action to make sure that the stage remains within tolerance

Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process? A. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products B. To delegate day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager C. To report progress to the Project Board D. To report progress to the Project Manager

Which is a purpose of the Initiating a Project process? A. Decide if it is worthwhile to initiate a project B. Decide on the project approach C. Establish solid foundations for a project D. Identify the number of Work Packages required

Which is a purpose of the Organization theme? A. Allocates jobs to people in the project B. Defines different levels of plan for the different management levels C. Define and establish the project's structure of accountability D. Define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products that are fit for purpose

Which is a purpose of the Organization theme? A. Define the total resource requirements of the project B. Capture the project acceptance criteria C. Define the responsibilities for managing teams D. Establish mechanisms to judge whether the project is desirable and achievable

Which is a recommended quality review team role? A. Project Manager B. Assurance C. Chair D. Producer

Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity? A. Fallback B. Reject C. Share D. Reduce

Which is a responsibility of a risk owner? A. Identify risks to the project that might occur in their department B. Own and authorize the use of the risk budget to fund risk responses C. Manage, monitor and control all aspects of an assigned risk D. Determine project risk appetite

Which is a specific objective of the Starting Up a Project process? A. To establish how the project's products will be delivered and at what cost B. Ensure there is a common understanding of the benefits expected from the project C. To ensure there is business justification for initiating the project? D. To approve the Plan for the next Stage

Which is a specific responsibility of Project Assurance? A. Approving the Risk Management Strategy B. Giving ad-hoc direction to the Project Manager C. Reporting highlights to the Project Board D. Ensuring the right people are planned to be involved in quality inspection

Which is a true statement about PRINCE2 event-driven controls? A. Event-driven controls take place at predefined periodic intervals B. Event-driven controls are produced at the frequency defined in a Work Package C. Event-driven controls are used for decision making D. Checkpoint Reports are event-driven controls

Which is a type of issue? A. Problem/concern B. Follow-on action recommendation C. Exception Report D. Identified threat

Which is a typical core activity within configuration management? A. Issue management B. Quality inspection C. Identification D. Preparation

Which is a typical core activity within configuration management? A. Quality assurance B. Risk management C. Verification and audit D. Progress reporting

Which is an objective of the Initiating a Project process? A. Develop the corporate quality management system as part of the Project Initiation Documentation B. Prepare the plans for the subsequent stages C. Summarize how the organization's project management method will be tailored for the project D. Request authority from corporate management to deliver the project

Which is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Ensure the host site is able to support the products B. Any movement away from the direction agreed at the start of the stage is monitored to avoid uncontrolled change C. To record any information or lessons that can help later stages of this project and/or other projects D. Ensure risks and issues are kept under control

Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed? A. Customers B. People C. Benefits D. Processes

Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed? A. Issues B. People C. Benefit D. Tolerance

Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed? A. Progress B. Change C. Risk D. Security

Which is one of the three levels of plan in PRINCE2? A. Benefits Review Plan B. Programme Plan C. Team Plan D. Project Brief

Which is part of quality control? A. Document the project's acceptance criteria in the Project Product Description B. Define the quality responsibilities of those involved in the production of the products C. Produce quality records to show that the planned quality activities have been carried out D. Maintain the corporate organization's quality management system

Which is shown in a product breakdown structure? A. Management stages, major products and control points B. In which order the products should be created C. The major products that are to be developed in a plan D. What resources are required to develop the products

Which is the Issue Register NOT used for? A. Capture external events that are impacting a stage B. Record information about a deviation in stage tolerance C. Capture any threats or opportunities that might have an impact on a stage D. Record any problems identified when authorizing a Work Package

Which is the base product against which the Project Board and Project Manager can assess progress, issues and questions regarding ongoing viability? A. Benefits Review Plan B. Project Brief C. Project Initiation Documentation D. Product Status Account

Which is within the context of the Managing Product Delivery process? A. Receiving and signing off completed Work Packages B. Reviewing the work situation and triggering new Work Packages C. The continuing correct focus of the project should be confirmed at the end of each stage D. Demonstrate that each product meets its quality criteria through carrying out the specified quality methods

Which level of management has control over a Work Package, as long as they are within the Work Package tolerances? A. Project Manager B. Project Board C. Team Manager D. Corporate or programme management

Which of the following are benefits of using PRINCE2? 1. Provides a common vocabulary for all project participants, promoting effective communication 2. Promotes regular progress meetings for senior management 3. Plans are carefully designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the project organization, improving communication and control 4. Defines a thorough but economic structure of reports A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

Which of the following are uses of the Risk Register during the Controlling a Stage process? 1. Obtain details on risks to include in a Highlight Report 2. Obtain details of risks that may affect the Stage Plan for the next stage 3. Capture uncertainties identified when authorizing a Work Package 4. Obtain details of any potential impacts that may affect the Business Case while reviewing the stage status A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4

Which of the following are valid risk responses for threats? A. Accept, Enhance, Transfer B. Avoid, Enhance, Fallback C. Avoid, Accept, Fallback D. Exploit, Accept, Fallback

Which of the following can be done to control the size of the Project Board on a project that involves multiple users and suppliers? A. Create a separate Project Board to manage the supplier elements of the project B. Create multiple smaller Project Boards during the process of Starting up a Project, one for each of the project's stages. C. Create user and supplier groups D. Appoint corporate quality assurance to perform the Project Assurance role for all members of the Project Board

Which of the following does PRINCE2 say are typical characteristics of a Project Board member? A. Democratic, supportive, can make decisions B. Hard working, experienced, forceful C. Focused, steadfast, autocratic D. Have authority, credibility, ability to delegate, available when required

Which of the following is FALSE regarding an Exception Report? A. It describes a forecast deviation of stage or project level tolerance B. It contains recovery options and a recommendation C. It replaces a Stage Plan or Project Plan D. It describes the consequences of the deviation

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Risk theme? A. Improve the ability of the project to succeed B. To support better decision making C. To verify products are fit for purpose D. To assess uncertainty

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the process Controlling a Stage? A. Ensure that quality is achieved as planned B. Manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans C. Identifying the key products that the project will deliver D. Manage on-time delivery of products within agreed tolerances

Which of the following is NOT one of the three levels of plan recommended by PRINCE2? A. Stage B. Team C. Benefits Review D. Project

Which of the following is a concession? A. When a product fails to meet its quality criteria B. When an off-specification is raised by the Senior User C. When an off-specification is accepted by the Project Board or Change Authority without immediate corrective action D. When a known error is no longer a problem

Which of the following is a quality review team role? A. Producer B. Approver C. Administrator D. Project Manager

Which of the following is a quality review team role? A. Project Assurance B. Producer C. Chair D. Quality Assurance

Which of the following is a specific quality review role responsible for checking a product is ready for its review? A. Project Assurance B. Developer C. Chair D. Project Manager

Which of the following is a specific quality review role responsible for submitting questions on a product? A. User B. Approver C. Reviewer D. Project Support

Which of the following is a specific quality review team role? A. User B. Approver C. Reviewer D. Project Support

Which of the following is a stable element within the Project Initiation Document? A. Business Case B. Project Plan C. Project tolerance D. Risk Log

Which of the following is an objective of a quality review? A. Provide an opportunity to change the product B. Provide sufficient information to perform a performance review on the Producer C. Provide confirmation that the product is complete and ready tobe approved D. Allow the Project Manager to delegate more quality checking responsibility to the Team Manager

Which of the following is an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process? A. To ensure regular reports are issued to the Senior Supplier B. To capture and examine issues and risks C. To ensure the planned products are delivered to expectations and within tolerance D. The Project Board should commit to resources for each Work Package before it's allocated to a team

Which of the following is carried out as part of the initiation stage? A. Appoint the Executive and Project Manager B. Define the method of delivering the chosen business solution C. Define how the quality required by the customer will be achieved? D. Agree tolerances for each Work Package

Which of the following is not part of the composition of a Plan? A. Pre-requests B. Assumptions C. Quality responsibilities D. Product descriptions

Which of the following management levels sits outside of the project management team? A. Directing B. Managing C. Corporate or programme management D. Delivering

Which of the following management levels sits outside the project management team, but will be responsible for commissioning a project? A. Directing B. Managing C. Corporate or programme management D. Delivering

Which of the following principles describes this statement'? xxx defines tolerances for each project objective to establish limits of delegated authority A. Manage by stages B. Focus on products C. Manage by exception D. Learn from experience

Which of the following refers to the actions identified to bring a situation to a level where exposure to a risk is acceptable? A. Risk category B. Risk description C. Risk response D. Risk status

Which of the following statements about lines of authority and reporting are true? 1. The Project Manager has day-to-day control for a management stage within the limits laid down by the Project Board. 2. If a Team Manager forecasts a deviation beyond Work Package tolerances, this should be referred to the Project Manager. A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true? 1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project. 2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization. A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Which of the following statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are true? 1. The Project Initiation Documentation is used to ensure that a sound basis exists before the Project Board authorizes a project. 2. The Project Initiation Documentation should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the current status of a project. A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Which of the following statements best describes what a risk owner is? A. Best placed to keep an eye on the risk B. Carry out the response actions to a risk C. Responsible for management, mentoring and control of al aspects of a risk D. Reports to the project manager regularly on the status of a risk

Which of the following statements describes a risk effect? A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity B. The situation that gives rise to the risk C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur

Which of the following statements is FALSE? PRINCE2 provides projects with . . . A. The explicit recognition of project responsibilities B. A thorough but economical structure of reports C. Regular progress meetings throughout the project D. Plans designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the management team

Which of the following statements is NOT correct The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought.. A. When Starting a Project B. When initiating a Project C. As the project progresses D. As the project doses

Which of the following statements s TRUE with regard to expected benefits? A. They cannot be assented B. They don't need to follow corporate objectives C. They should be measured D. Tolerances cannot be set against expected benefits

Which of the following steps would involve the actioning of a planned response to an opportunity and monitoring its effectiveness? A. Identify B. Assess C. Implement D. Communicate

Which of the following steps would involve the actioning of any planned risk responses and monitoring their effectiveness? A. Identify B. Assess C. Implement D. Identify

Which of the following would be carried out during the Starting Up a Project process? A. Establish the procedure for identifying and managing risks during the project B. Create a detailed Business Case C. Appoint individuals to carry out the work required in project initiation D. Ensure that plans for realizing the post-project benefits are managed and reviewed

Which of the following would be used to pay for an issue which would increase scope and possibly any related analysis costs? A. Contingency B. Tolerance C. Change budget D. Risk budget

Which of these is mandatory in a PRINCE2 project? A. The use of Team Managers B. The use of Exception Plans C. The use of Stages D. The use of Product Checklists

Which of these statements is FALSE? A. A PRINCE2™ project has a finite life span B. A PRINCE2 project has a defined amount of resources C. A PRINCE2 project may have only activities, i.e. no products D. A PRINCE2 project has an organisation structure with defined responsibilities, to manage the project

Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component? A. Plans B. Controls C. Work Package D. Configuration Management

Which option describes something that should be provided by the project, but currently is not (or is forecast not to be) provided? A. Problem/concern B. Concession C. Off-specification D. Exception Report

Which other management product is created when the Business case is updated during Initiating a Project'? A. Post project review plan B. Risk Register C. Benefits Review plan D. Issue Register

Which part of the project management team is responsible for briefing corporate or programme management about project progress? A. Team Manager B. Project Support C. Project Board D. Project Manager

Which plan is optional depending on the complexity of the project? A. Project Plan B. Exception Plan C. Team Plan D. Initiation Stage Plan

Which process controls the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)? A. Controlling a Stage B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Managing Product Delivery D. Directing a Project

Which process covers overall direction and decision-making of the project? A. Managing Product Delivery B. Controlling a Stage C. Directing a Project D. Managing Stage Boundaries

Which process covers the activities of those at the level of management above the Project Manager? A. Controlling a Stage B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Directing a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

Which process covers the work done by external suppliers who may NOT be using PRINCE2? A. Closing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Managing Product Delivery D. Directing a Project

Which process defines how the quality required by the customer will be achieved? A. Starting Up a Project B. Directing a Project C. Initiating a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

Which process ensures that plans for achieving the expected benefits are managed and reviewed? A. Closing a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Directing a Project D. Starting up a Project

Which statement applies to Stage Plans? A. Always have the same duration as the Project Plan B. Are produced at the same time as the Project Initiation Documentation C. Assist the Project Manager in the day-to-day running and control of the project D. Provide a baseline against which the Project Board monitor overall progress

Which statement best describes the responsibilities of a risk actionee? A. Identifying risks to the project that might occur in their department B. Owning and authorizing the use of the risk budget to fund risk responses C. Managing, monitoring and controlling of all aspects of an assigned risk D. Carrying out a risk response action to respond to a particular risk

Which statement defines a risk? A. A certain event occurring in the future that will have a negative impact on the project's objectives B. An event that has already occurred that the Project Manager must deal with immediately C. An uncertain event, or set of events that, should it or they occur, will have an effect on the achievement of objectives D. An uncertain event, or set of events that, should it or they occur, will be automatically escalated to the Project Board for a response

Which statement is FALSE regarding a Product Status Account? A. A Product Status Account is used as a control document to assist in reviewing progress B. A Product Status Account provides information on the state of a product C. A Product Status Account is used to inform the Project Manager of what errors were found in a product during a quality review D. A Product Status Account is derived from Configuration Item Records

Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of "Closing a Project"? A. A clear end to a project provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements and experience B. A clear end to a project provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified C. A clear end to a project provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits D. A clear end to a project is always more successful than the

Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"- A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management

Which statement is TRUE with regard to technical stages? A. technical stages can on' occur sequenta1y B. Technical stages define where management dec&ons are appointee C. Technical stages often overlap D. Technical stages define the commitment of resources and authority to spend

Which step in the issue and change control procedure considers alternative options for responding to an issue that is being managed formally? A. Capture B. Examine C. Propose D. Decide

Which step in the issue and change control procedure would be used to evaluate the alternative options to respond to an issue? A. Propose B. Examine C. Capture D. Decide

Which step is NOT part of "Accepting a Work Package"? A. Understand the reporting requirements B. Agree tolerance margins for the Work Package C. Monitor and control the risks associated with the Work Package D. Produce a Team Plan which shows that the Work Package can be completed within the constraints

Which step is NOT part of" Acepting a Work Package"? A. Understand the reporting requirements B. Agree tolerance margins for the Work Package C. Monitor and control the risks associated with the Work Package D. Produce a Team Plan which shows that the Work Package can be completed within the constraints

Which two roles are linked by the Managing Product Delivery process? A. Corporate or programme management and Project Board B. Project Board and Project Manager C. Project Manager and Team Manager D. Team Manager and external supplier

Whicts princpIe Is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project9 A. Continued Business Justificaton B. Defried roles and responsbies C. Learn from experence D. Manage by stages

Who carries out audits independent of the project to check that the processes are in place for quality planning and control? A. Project Board B. Project Assurance C. Quality Assurance D. Project Support

Who carries out checks independent of the project to ensure that the processes are in place for quality planning and control? A. Project Board B. Project Assurance C. Quality Assurance D. Project Support

Who is responsible for appointing the Project Manager? A. Corporate or Programmer Management B. The Project Board C. The Executive D. Project Assurance

Who is responsible for confirming stage and project progress against agreed tolerances? A. Project Support B. Executive C. Project Assurance D. Project Manager

Who might receive completed products before the Team Manager reports that the Work Package has been completed? A. The Customer B. The User C. Configuration Librarian D. The Project Board

Why is a Project Brief produced? A. To act as a trigger for the Starting up a Project process B. To record the strategies and management controls to be used by a project C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project D. To be used by the Project Board as a basis for reviewing the progress of a project

Why is it crucial that the Project Product Description clearly defines acceptance methods? A. Enables Project Assurance to authorize quality activities B. Defines how all project products will be reviewed and approved C. Defines how it will be proven that the completed project product meets the customer's expectations D. Provides confirmation that all project products have met their quality criteria

Closure of the project can only be authorised in which of these processes? A. Initiating a Project B. Closing a Project C. Managing Stage Boundaries D. Directing a Project

Which of the following steps involves preparing specific management responses for identified threats? A. Identify B. Assess C. Implement D. Plan

Can a baselined management product be changed once it has been approved? A. No, change control is there to prevent changes B. Yes, there is no restriction C. Yes, but only if the users say so D. Yes, as long as it is agreed with the relevant authority before it takes place

According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the 6 aspects of project performance to be managed? A. Processes, themes, principles, tailoring, tolerance, roles B. Time, cost, people, quality, progress, risk C. Time, cost, quality, scope, tolerance, benefits D. Time, cost, scope, quality, benefits, risk

According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be managed? A. Processes, themes, principles B. Time, cost, quality, people C. Time, cost, quality D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk

According to the Change theme, which of the following contains the steps of the recommended issue and change control procedure? A. Capture, Examine, Analyze Impact, Review Probability, Implement Action B. Capture, Log, Review, Resolve C. Assess, Decide, Escalate, Implement D. Capture, Examine, Propose, Decide, Implement

Are the following statements regarding the Starting Up a Project process true or false? 1. How the project will achieve the required quality will be established 2. How the corporate (or programme's) project management method will be tailored to suit the project will be defined A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

At which point should a project be terminated? A. A project should be terminated once it is predicted to exceed the project tolerance B. A project should be terminated if the Project Manager or a member of the Project Board resigns C. Once a project commences, it should continue to completion D. A project should be terminated when the Project Board decides that the project is no longer viable

Which of the following steps looks at the aggregated net effect of a project's threats and opportunities? A. Plan B. Assess C. Examine D. Assess

Controlling a Stage describes the day-to-day work of the Project Manager. Which of the following statements is false? A. In Controlling a Stage, the Stage Plan is updated with actuals and progress is checked against the plan B. Controlling a Stage drives Managing Product Delivery C. The Project Manager uses the process Controlling a Stage to manage any deviations from Stage or Project Plans D. All of Controlling a Stage is used in a time-driven manner

Controlling a Stage process views the project from which role's perspective? A. Team Manager B. Project Board C. Project Assurance D. Project Manager

During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin? A. End Stage Report B. Team Plan C. Work Package D. Project Plan

During which process would the stage tolerances be set? A. Cantroling a Stage B. initiating a Project C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Directing a Project

For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers identified? A. When the product is passed to configuration management B. In the Project Quality Plan C. During the QR preparation step D. In planning the relevant stage

For a Quality Review, when are suitable reviewers selected? A. When the product is passed to Configuration Management B. In the Project Quality Plan C. During the QR Preparation step D. In planning the relevant stage

Fromtheproductslisted,which one i s produced during' Starting Up a Project'? A. The Project Initiation Document B. The Project Plan C. The Project Quality Plan D. The Project Approach

Having completed designing the plan, in which order should the next steps take place to produce a plan? 1 Prepare Estimates 2 Define and analyze Products 3. Prepare the schedule 4. Identify activities and dependencies A. 2,4,3,1 B. 4,2,1,3 C. 4,3,2,1 D. 2,4,1,3

How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed? A. Weekly B. At Exception Assessments C. At Checkpoint Meetings D. On a regular basis

Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A Project Board member is responsible for [?] Assurance A. Product B. Risk C. Quality D. User

Identify the missing word in the following sentence... The purpose of the [ ? ] theme is to define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products that are fit for purpose. A. Plans B. Change C. Organization D. Quality

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... The development and maintenance of a credible [?] provides a baseline against which progress can be measured. A. Product B. Product Status Account C. Business Case D. Plan

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. If the Project Manager needs to know the results of a quality review, the [ ? ] will provide a summary together with the date of any follow-up meeting. A. Stage Plan B. Issue Register C. Daily Log D. Quality Register

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A purpose of the Quality theme is to [ ? ] A. Provide a systematic approach which ensures that issues possibly affecting the project's quality performance target are managed appropriately B. Ensure any threats to the quality targets are identified, assessed and controlled C. Provide all personnel involved in the project with information regarding whether the targets of time, cost and quality are achievable D. Ensure the project's products meet business expectations

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... PRINCE2 management stages equate to [?], which is a factor that differentiates them from technical stages A. Use of a particular set of technical skills B. Use of a specific set of Team Managers C. An authorization from corporate or programme management D. Commitment of resources

If there is a request to change a baselined product, and the change can be done within the stage or Work Package tolerances, how can the decision to implement the change be made? A. Project Manager's decision B. Team Manager's decision C. Team member' s decision to whom the work has been allocated D. formal change control

In PRINCE2 all potential changes are dealt with as ...? A. Requests For Change B. Off-Specifications C. Configuration Items D. Project Issues

In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report? A. Quality B. Specialist C. Technical D. Management

In preparing for a Quality Review, who should distribute a copy of the product and Product Description to the reviewers? A. The Project Manager B. the Scribe C. the Team Manager D. the Producer

In the PRINCE2 document management structure, how many types of file are recommended? A. One for each Stage B. Two, Management and Specialist C. Just the Quality File D. Three; project, stages and quality

In what process is the authorization to deliver the project's products given? A. Starting up a Project B. Initiating a Project C. Managing a Stage Boundary D. Directing a Project

In which Management product would the Project Board specify where the authority for change requests lies? A. Risk Management Strategy B. Quaky Management Strategy C. Communication Strategy D. Configuration Management Strategy

In which lower level process of" Controling a Stage"is the Risk Log up dated? A. Reporting Highlights B. Assessing Progress C. Capturing Project Issues D. Examining Project Issues

In which process would a concern about the amount of stage tolerance remaining be recorded in the Issue Register? A. Directing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Managing Product Delivery D. Controlling a Stage

In which process would it be demonstrated that each product meets its quality criteria? A. Closing a Project B. Managing a Stage Boundary C. Directing a Project D. Managing Product Delivery

In"Closing a Project"(CP)the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this? A. To provide useful lessons to future projects B. Never throw anything away. C. This material may be needed by Programme Management D. To permit any future audit of the project' s actions

On behalf of whom do any appointed assurance jobs assure the project? A. Project Manager B. Corporate Management C. Project Executive D. One or more members of the Project Board

PRINCE2 proposes 3 levels of Plan, which are they? A. Initiation, Project and Stage Plans B. Project, Stage and Exception Plans C. I Initiation, Project and Benefit Review Plans D. Project, Stage and Team Plans

Please refer to A.9 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (A summary of issues and risks would be included but the End Stage Report is not used to 'capture and maintain' information regarding issues and risks. This would be in the respective Registers.) A. Capture and maintain information regarding issues and risks B. Document the project's acceptance criteria C. Escalate a stage-level tolerance threat to the Project Board D. Give a summary of progress to date

Quality management is ... A. The means of ensuring that products meet the quality criteria B. The establishment of the objectives and requirements for quality C. The creation and maintenance of a quality system D. The process of ensuring that the quality expected by the customer is achieved

Starting Up a project is triggered by which of the following? A. Legislation B. Corporate Strategy C. Risks D. Mandate

The Business Case describes the reasons for the project based on estimated costs, the risks and which one of the following? A. Project approach B. Acceptance criteria C. Products to be produced D. Expected benefits

The Business Case describes the reasons for undertaking the project based on estimated costs, the major risks and what else? A. Approach to deliver the chosen business solution B. Measurable acceptance criteria C. Project's products to be produced D. Expected business benefits

The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time, Cost and Qualities are three of them, what are the other three? A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit B. Scope, Risk, Product C. Risk, Benefit, Product D. Scope, Risk. Benefit

The PRINCE2 principle 'continued business justification' states that a requirement for a project is that... There is justifiable reason to start the project and justification should remain valid throughout the life of the project. Which one of the following does PRINCE2 also state for this principle? A. The Business Case will include details of all project risks B. A product must deliver tangible, financial benefits C. Clear ownership of the Business Case is documented D. The justification is documented and approved

The Project Mandate is usually derived from: A. A sketch on the back of an envelope? B. The very first PRINCE2 process? C. A PRINCE2 project think-tank of the Project Manager, other team members and the Project Board? D. Programme or corporate management?

The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is - A. The single end product B. The interim products C. Its product description D. The sum total of its products

The existence of what product is checked in "Starting up a Project" and its initial version finalized in" Initiating a Project"? A. The Project Mandate B. The Project Plan C. The Project Brief D. The Business Case

The use of which of these roles is OPTIONAL? A. Executive B. Project Manager C. Senior User D. Team Manager

There are 6 variables involved in all projects. The first 5 are costs, timescales, quality, scope and risk. What is the 6th? A. Products B. Management C. Outcomes D. Benefits

To which role should a forecast breach of benefits tolerance be escalated? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Senior User D. Corporate or programme management

To which role should a forecast breach of benefits tolerance be referred? A. Project Manager B. Executive C. Senior Supplier D. Corporate or programme management

Tolerance forms a key element of allowing the Project Board to manage by exception. Which of the following statements are correct regarding tolerance? 1. The Project Board sets project tolerances 2. Tolerances can be applied for Time, Cost, Scope, Quality, Benefit and Risk 3. The Project Manager sets Work Package tolerance 4. Cost tolerance should not be used to pay for authorized requests for change A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

What are defined as" partitions of the project with decision points"? A. Work Packages B. Product Descriptions C. Quality Reviews D. Stages

What defines an outcome? A. A measurable improvement perceived as positive by one or more stakeholder B. Any one of the specialist products C. An actual negative consequence of doing the project D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour or circumstances

What does PRINCE2™ say must drive the project? A. The Project Mandate B. The Project Initiation Document C. The Project Brief D. The Business Case

What does PRINCE2™ suggest is a direct input to the Project Quality Plan? A. ISO 9001 B. Stage Quality Plan C. The supplier quality policy D. Customer Quality Expectations

What function creates, maintains and monitors the use of a quality system? A. Project Support B. Quality Planning C. Quality Control D. Quality assurance

What is a purpose of quality planning? A. Provide information from the undertaking of the quality methods B. Maintain the quality and approval records stemming from the planned quality checks C. To produce the Project Plan with resource information D. Identify the means by which quality will be achieved and assessed

What is a purpose of the Business Case? A. To enable identification of risks and their impact B. To identify the quality expectations of the customer C. Used to document details of how and when benefit reviews will be undertaken D. Used to document the justification for undertaking the project

What is a purpose of the Risk Management Strategy? A. Describes in detail each risk identified in the project and how each risk should be managed B. Describes how each risk owner and risk actionee will manage and fund the actions to mitigate each risk C. Describes the risk response actions taken to mitigate the project's risks D. Describes the techniques and standards to be applied and the responsibilities for achieving effective risk management procedures

What is an objective of a quality review? A. Determine the quality responsibilities of the project management team B. Agree the quality method that will be applied to a product C. Formulate ideas on how the product will be developed D. Provide consultation with a range of key interested parties regarding a product's quality

What is an objective of the Directing a Project process? A. Enable the Project Board to be accountable for the project's success B. Verify user acceptance of the project's products C. Ensure the host site is able to support the products when the project is disbanded D. Ensure there is authority to deliver the project's products

What is an objective of the quality review technique? A. Determine whether a product has been created B. Agree the quality method that will be applied to a product C. Formulate ideas on how the product will be developed D. Provide consultation with a range of key interested parties regarding a product's quality

What is produced by the Project Manager to define and keep control of the work to build products? A. Product Status Account B. Checkpoint Report C. Highlight Report D. Work Package

What is the first task of the product-based planning technique? A. Identify activities and dependencies B. Write Product Descriptions C. Create a product breakdown structure D. Write the Project Product Description

What is the name given to an individual who is responsible for the management, monitoring and control of all aspects of a particular risk assigned to them? A. Risk Actionee B. Risk Coordinator C. Project Risk Manager D. Risk Owner

What is the purpose of a Product Status Account? A. A set of records that descrbe rformaton about the project B. A bg used to record problems or concerns about products C. An aud( or review to compare actual status of products D. A report covemg the status about the state of the projects products withn

What is the purpose of the Risk Management Strategy? A. Describes in detail each risk identified in the project and how each risk should be managed B. Describes how each risk owner and risk actionee will manage and fund the actions to mitigate each risk C. Describes the risk response actions taken to mitigate the project's risks D. Describes the techniques and standards to be applied and responsibilities for achieving effective risk management procedures

What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to the Project Board? A. Allowance B.Contingency C. Concession D. Tolerance

What product defines the reporting requirements between the Project Manager and Team Manager? A. Project Brief B. Product Description C. Team Plan D. Work Package

What product would enable the Project Manager to review how a Work Package is performing against its cost tolerance? A. Configuration Item Record B. Quality Register C. Highlight Report D. Checkpoint Report

What role agrees the techniques, products and constraints for a Work Package with the Project Manager? A. Executive B. Project Assurance C. Senior Supplier D. Team Manager

What takes place within the Managing a Stage Boundary process? A. Periodic review of progress against the Stage Plan B. Approval and acceptance of all products created during the current stage C. Escalation of Issue Reports and risks captured during the current stage D. Review and if necessary update the Project Initiation Documentation

What's the purpose of the 'Plan' step within the risk management procedure? A. Create a Risk Management Strategy for inclusion in the Project Initiation Documentation B. Establish the Project Board's specific risk management responsibilities and assign them as owners of specific risks C. To plan the Communications Management Strategy in order to identify and capture any external stakeholder risk information requirements D. To identify suitable management responses to be implemented to manage a risk, should the risk occur

When should the Managing a Stage Boundary process be undertaken? A. Close to the end of a management stage B. After the completion of each management stage C. At the end of the final stage D. At the end of project start-up

When updating the project plan as part of Managing a stage boundary, what else might be updated? A. Exception P'an B. Project Management team C. Busriess Case D. Project Inaiabon Documentation

When would the Team Manager be required to produce a Checkpoint Report? A. When a Work Package is being negotiated B. At the frequency agreed in the Work Package C. On completion of the quality-checking activities for each product D. When reviewing how a stage is progressing

Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and foreseeable? A. Continued business justification B. Manage by exception C. Focus on products D. Manage by stages

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for advising on the selection of the development strategy, design and methods? A. Project Manager B. Quality Assurance C. Team Manager D. Project Assurance

Which defines the sequence in which the products of a plan should be developed? A. Product Description B. Product breakdown structure C. Project Product Description D. Product flow diagram

Which describes risk probability? A. Level of risks which the project can tolerate before escalating to the Project Board B. Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives C. Timeframe within which the risk may occur D. A measure of the likelihood of the risk occurring

Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates? A. Product Outline B. Product Breakdown Structure C. Checkpoint Report D. Product Checklist

Which is NOT established as part of the Starting Up a Project process? A. A Plan for the work of initiation B. Information on the various ways the project can be delivered C. A description of what the project is to deliver D. A plan for how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made

Which is a characteristic of a project? A. Are risk free B. Have no uncertainty C. Are managed as part of business as usual D. Are cross-functional

Which is a characteristic of a project? A. Low risk B. Avoids stresses and strains between organizations C. Business as usual D. Cross-functional

Which is a definition of risk probability? A. Scale of the risk should it occur B. Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives C. Probable timeframe within which the risk may occur D. A measure of the likelihood of the risk occurring

Which is a purpose of a Configuration Item Record? A. Record quality issues found in a quality test of the product B. Explain which procedure should be used for updating the Configuration Item Records of products completed in the stage C. Explain which procedure should be used for transferring completed products into the operational and maintenance environment D. Record the development status of a product in a completed Work Package

Which is a purpose of a Configuration Management Strategy? A. Provide details for each configuration item and any important relationships between them B. Define the composition and format of all the projects registers and logs C. Identify who will set up and manage the Quality Register D. Define how the products and various versions will be identified

Which is a purpose of a Project Brief? A. Define how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made B. Define any lessons from previous projects and how they may affect this project C. Communicate the quality techniques and standards to be applied to achieve the required quality levels D. Provide sufficient information for the decision on whether to initiate the project

Which is a purpose of a Project Brief? A. Enable the assembly of the project mandate B. Describe the reporting requirements of the various layers of management involved with the project C. Describe how changes to products will be controlled D. Provide a solid basis for the initiation of the project

Which is a purpose of a Project Product Description? A. Records the costs and timescales for delivery of the project's final product B. Shows the dependencies between the project's products to aid planning C. Provides a list of all the products to be delivered by the project D. Defines what the project must deliver in order to gain acceptance

Which is a purpose of a Risk Management Strategy? A. Communicate how risk management will be implemented throughout the wider corporate organization B. Capture and maintain information on all identified risks relating to the project C. Document specific actions for responding to risks D. Describe the procedures and techniques for managing project risks

Which is a purpose of the Directing a Project process? A. Create and authorize the project mandate B. Ensure that work on products allocated to the team is authorized and agreed C. Control the day-to-day running of the project D. Delegate day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager

Which is a purpose of the Risk theme? A. Establish a method for the implementation of continuous improvement during the project B. Identify, assess and control problems that have occurred C. Provide the Project Board with a time-driven control to capture all project risks D. Establish a cost-effective procedure to identify, assess and control risks

Which is a recommended quality review team role? A. Project Manager B. Assurance C. Project Support D. Administrator

Which is a specific responsibility of Project Assurance? A. Approving the Risk Management Strategy B. Giving ad-hoc direction to the Project Manager C. Reporting highlights to the Project Board D. Checking the right people are being involved in writing product descriptions

Which is a true statement about acceptance criteria? A. Acceptance criteria are used to produce the customer's quality expectations B. Acceptance criteria are less specific and precise than customer's quality expectations C. Once agreed, acceptance criteria CANNOT be changed D. Acceptance criteria should be agreed between the customer and the supplier

Which is an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process? A. Sign-off completed Work Packages B. Ensure the Business Case is kept under review C. Report progress to the Project Board D. Ensure that work on products is authorized and agreed with the team

Which is an objective of the quality review technique? A. Determine whether a product has been created B. Agree the quality method that will be applied to a product C. Formulate ideas on how the product will be developed D. Provide consultation with a range of interested parties on a product's fitness for purpose

Which level of management uses the mechanisms established by the Progress theme to control any unacceptable deviations? A. Only corporate or programme management B. Only the Project Board C. Only the Project Manager D. All levels of management

Which management product defines the detailed nature purpose and function of a product? A. Plan B. Quality Register C. Project Product Description D. Product Description

Which of the following are correct regarding the definition of a technical stage? 1. Technical stages never overlap 2. They are typified by the use of a particular set of specialist skills 3. Cover elements such as design, build and implementation 4. The work can be grouped by the set of techniques used A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,3,4

Which of the following are described in the Communication Plan? 1) Who needs information 2) What information they need 3) Why they need it 4) The format in which it should be presented. A. The fourth is wrong B. All four are correct C. Only the first two are correct D. The third is wrong.

Which of the following are produced during the Starting Up a Project stage? A. Project Plan B. Project Initiation Document C. Project Quality Plan D. Project Brief

Which of the following best defines an output? A. The information required for decision-making purposes B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome C. The result of the change derived from using the project's outputs D. Any one of the project's specialist products

Which of the following describes risk proximity? A. The timeframe over which the risk mitigation actions should be implemented B. The schedule for the risk management activities related to a plan C. The timeframe over which a risk will be monitored by the risk owner D. The timeframe for when the risk might materialize

Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project? A. Has an organisation structure B. Produces defined and measurable business products C. Uses a defined amount of resources D. Uses a defined set of techniques

Which of the following is NOT a step within the risk management procedure? A. Assess B. Communicate C. Plan D. Propose

Which of the following is NOT established as part of the pre-project work? A. A Plan for the work of initiation B. Information on the various ways the project can be delivered C. A description of what the project is to deliver D. A plan for how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made

Which of the following is NOT one of the five risk management procedure steps? A. Assess B. Identify C. Plan D. Register

Which of the following is NOT within the authority of the Project Board? A. Approve the End Project Report B. Set Stage-level tolerance C. Approve Stage Plans D. Set project-level tolerance

Which of the following is NOT within the authority of the Project Board? A. Trigger premature closure of the project B. Setting stage-level tolerance C. Authorizing initiation D. Continuation where project-level tolerance is forecast to be exceeded

Which of the following is a request for change? A. The Executive feels that the project product may not be of sufficient quality in order to achieve the expected benefits B. The Project Manager has been advised that a team member has been taken ill and so the end date of the work will now be delayed by 5 days C. The supplier needs to amend a product because it does not conform to its quality criteria D. Although it has passed quality control, a user would like to suggest an increase in the durability of a product

Which of the following is a specific objective of the Managing Product Delivery process? A. The project management team is focused on delivery within the tolerances laid down B. The Business Case is kept under review C. Attention is focused on delivery of the stage's products D. Team Managers, team members and suppliers are clear as to what is to be produced and what is the expected effort, cost or timescale

Which of the following is not an objective of the process Initiating a Project? A. It encourages the Project Board to take ownership of the project B. It provides the benchmark for decision-making processes throughout the projects life C. It confirms the existence of an acceptable Business Case justifying the project D. It ensures that all project management authorities are appointed

Which of the following products are routinely produced as part of the Managing a Stage Boundary process? 1. Next Stage Plan 2. Updated Project Plan 3. Exception Plan 4. Updated Business Case A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4

Which of the following should NOT be included in the business case? A. Reasons B. Major Risks C. Business options D. Business approach

Which of the following statements about customer's quality expectations and acceptance criteria are true? 1. Customer's quality expectations form a specific and precise list of measurable criteria that a project product should meet in order to be acceptable to key stakeholders. 2. Acceptance criteria are often expressed in broad terms as a means to gain common understanding of general quality requirements. A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Which of the following statements about quality assurance and Project Assurance is true? A. Project Assurance is the responsibility of the corporate organization; quality assurance is the responsibility of the Project Board B. Project Assurance is independent of the Project; quality assurance is only independentof the Project Manager C. Project Assurance may be delegated within a project; quality assurance must be undertaken by the Project Board D. Project Assurance ensures compliance to standards within the project environment; quality assurance ensures compliance across the organization

Which of the following statements are true regarding the product-based planning technique? 1. Product Descriptions show the hierarchy of a Plan's products 2. Identifying activities and dependencies is a key task of product-based planning A. Only 1 is true B. Only 2 is true C. Both 1 and 2 are true D. Both 1 and 2 are false

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The two standard elements to tolerance are time and cost B. Tolerance is the permissible deviation from plan without bringing the deviation to the attention of the next higher authority. C. Separate tolerance figures should be given for time and cost. D. The Project Board has absolute discretion to set new tolerances at Project and Stage Plan levels whenever it wishes to whatever levels it wishes.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to ... A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication C. Ensure resource commitment from management is part of any approval to proceed D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2™ are encouraged to... A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings

Which of the following statements would NOT be included in the Project Product Description? A. Purpose of the product B. Composition C. Project level tolerances D. Quality criteria

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