Principles of CT Final part 1

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Film-screen radiography can only detect density differences as low as

10%

Spleen

3rd ventricle

Aorta

Ascending aorta

Basilar artery

Body

Brachiocephalic artery

Dens

Right kidney

hearing aid

99 % of what common medical aid is now custom-made by 3D printing? A. vocal cord replacement B. eye glasses C. Walking cane D. hearing aid

Hearing aid

99 % of what common medical aid is now custom-made by 3D printing? Question options: Vocal cord replacement Walking cane Eye glasses Hearing aid

hearing aid

99% of what common medical aid is now custom-made by 3D printing?

A number of independent studies have established a link between effective communication and a reduction in malpractice claims. A) True B) False

Children interact at a close distance, whereas adults interact at a farther distance. A) True B) False

Conventional radiography barium suspension cannot be used in CT. A) True B) False

End-users interact directly with client computers to send data requests to one or more connected servers. A) True B) False

Heart

How are delayed reactions to intravascular iodinated contrast medial defined? A) Reactions occurring between 1 hour and 1 week after contrast medium injection. B) Reactions occurring between 1 hour and 1 day after contrast medium injection. C) Reactions occurring between 1 day and 1 month after contrast medium injection. D) Reactions occurring between 1 day and 1 week after contrast medium injection.

How many grams of iodine will be delivered when 150 mL of an agent with a concentration of 300 mgI/mL is injected? A) 45 g B) 450 g C) 4500 g D) 45,000 g

In a patient who is lactating, what percent of the dose of contast agent given is excreted into breast milk? A) 0% to 1% B) 1% to 5% C) 5% to 10% D) 10% to 12%

In what units is bandwidth commonly expressed? A) Bits per second B) Bytes per second C) Megabytes per second D) Kilobytes per second

Lossy compression methods introduce compression artifacts because not all data are restored. A) True B) False

Warming a contrast agent reduces viscosity. A) True B) False

What are the computers that are integral to the functioning of the PACS called? A) Core servers B) Nodes C) Client servers

What barrier to communication is likely to occur when the receiver doesn't like portions of the sender's message? A) Receiver distortion B) Assumptions C) Fuzzy transmission D) Language

What is the classification for urine output greater than 6,000 mL? A) Oliguric B) Polyuric C) Nonoliguric D) Anuric

What is the name of the universally adopted standard for medical image interchange? A) DICOM B) HL7 C) ACR D) NEMA

What plays the biggest role in body language? A) The face B) Gestures C) Posture

Which has the greatest storage capacity? A) Blu-ray disk B) CD C) DVD

Which is a generic term for a digital patient record? A) Electronic health record B) Digital health record C) Computerized health record D) Patient health record

maxillary sinuses

(A) located within the body of the maxilla, below the orbit and lateral to the nose. These triangular cavities are the largest of the paranasal sinuses in adults but are just small cavities at birth. Their growth stops at approximately the age of 15.

posterior cranial fossa

(infratentorial fossa) formed by the occipital and temporal bones and contains the cerebellum and brainstem

lateral masses

(labyrinths) incorporate thin-walled orbital plates (lamina papyracea), which create a portion of the medial orbit. Contained within the lateral masses are many ethmoid air cells (ethmoid sinuses), one of the largest being the ethmoid bulla

posterior fontanel

(lambda) junction of the parietal and occipital bones, typically closes between the first and third months after birth

posterolateral fontanel

(mastoid) located at the junction of the occipital, temporal, and parietal bones, ossify at 2 years old

aditus ad antrum

(mastoideum) potential route for the spread of infection from the middle ear to the mastoid air cells

articular disc

(meniscus) shaped like a bowtie and is interposed between the mandibular condyle and fossa to act as a shock absorber during jaw movement

supraorbital foramen

(notch) superior portion of each orbit where, which exists for the passage of the supraorbital nerve

medial pterygoid plate

(pterygoid hamulus)

anterolateral fontanel

(sphenoid) located between the parietal and greater wing of the sphenoid bones, ossify between the first and third months after birth

vertical portion

(squamous portion) frontal bone, forms the forehead and anterior vault of the cranium. Contains the frontal sinuses and two elevated arches, the supraciliary arches, are joined to one another by a smooth area called the glabella

roof

(superior wall) composed of the orbital plate of the frontal bone and the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.The frontal bone separates the orbit from the anterior cranial fossa

middle cranial fossa

(temporal fossa) formed primarily by the body of the sphenoid and temporal bones and houses the pituitary gland, hypothalamus, and temporal lobes of the brain

true

(true//false) Brain cells require a constant supply of oxygen to maintain health & functionality.

true

(true//false) CT is a major method for the evaluation of musculoskeletal anatomy & disease.

true

(true//false) CT is the most frequently used initial examination for imaging intracranial hemorrhage.

true

(true//false) Hypertension contributes to 70% of all strokes.

true

(true//false) In many circumstances MRI is the modality of choice when imaging the spine, but in some situations CT is considered superior.

false (t-PA must be administered within 3 hours of the first signs of stroke!)

(true//false) T-PA must be administered within 6 hours of the first signs of stroke in order to be effective.

true

(true//false) TIAs are a significant indicator of stroke risk.

false (the brain receives approximately 25% of the body's oxygen supply)

(true//false) The brain receives approximately 50% of the body's oxygen supply.

true

(true//false) The symptoms of a TIA varies slightly depending on whether the carotid or basilar artery is involved.

true

(true//false) When imaging musculoskeletal anatomy, patient should be positioned carefully so that both sides are as symmetric as possible.

false (when imaging the head slices should be parallel to the SUPRAORBITAL MEATAL/GLABELLOMEATAL line!)

(true//false) When imaging the head, slices should be parallel to the orbitalmeatal line.

false (contrast media CAN be injected into the space surrounding the spinal cord!)

(true/false) Contrast media can not be administered into the space surrounding the spinal cord.

temporal lobe

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 5? A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Occipital lobe

A. temporal lobe

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 5? A. temporal lobe B. occipital bone C. cerebellar peduncles D. cerebellum

D. medulla oblongata

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 6? A. vomer B. eye. lens C. nasal bones D. medulla oblongata

False

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. Number 1 is pointing to the ribs.

False

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. Number 9 is the left lower lobe of the lung.

Sternum

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to? A. Ribs B. Clavicle C. Sternum D. Shoulder

Trachea

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 10 point to? A. Esophagus B. Thyroid C. Trachea D. Aorta

Right superior pulmonary vien

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 12 point to? A. Right Pulmonary artery B. Right coronary vein C. Right superior pulmonary vein D. Right carotid artery

Right superior pulmonary vein

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 12 point to? A. Right superior pulmonary vein B. Right inferior pulmonary vein C. Aorta D. Aortic arch

Trachea

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 13 point to? A. Thyroid B. Esophagus C. Trachea D. Thyroid cartilage

Esophagus

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 14 point to?

Left superior pulmonary vein

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 3 point to?

Esophagus

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does number 9 point to? A. Esophagus B. Trachea C. Aorta D. Thyroid cartilage

B. Superior vena cava

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What does the number 15 point to? A. Left atrium B. Superior vena cava C. Rib D. Lungs

Left pulmonary artery

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 14? A. Vertebra B. Esophagus C. Right upper lobe segmental bronchus D. Left pulmonary artery

Left atrium

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 17?

Left atrium

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 17? A. vertebra B. Descending aorta C. Left atrium D. Right interlobar pulmonary artery

Clavicular head

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Ribs B. Sternum C. Clavicular head

Thyroid

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Trachea B. Esophagus C. Larynx D. Thyroid

Common carotid arteries

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 2?

Common Carotid Arteries

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 2? A. Clavicular head B. Right subclavian arteries C. Common carotid arteries D. Right subclavian artery

Main pulmonary artery

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 2? A. Right pulmonary artery B. Left pulmonary artery C. Main pulmonary artery D. Aorta

Left atrium

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 4? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

C. Aortic arch

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 4? A. Lung B. Scapula C. Aortic arch D. Ribs

Lungs

A CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7? A. Aortic arch B. Lungs C. Decending aorta

Left ovary

A CT scan of the female pelvis is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7?

Navicular

A CT scan of the left foot is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 2?

Talus

A CT scan of the left foot is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 2? A. Calcaneous B. Talus C. Navicular D. Cuboid

Navicular

A CT scan of the left foot is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 2? A. Cuboid B. Talus C. Navicular D. Calcaneous

Achilles tendon

A CT scan of the left foot is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 5? A. Calcaneous B. Extensor tendonitis C. Achilles tendon D. Peroneal tendonitis

calcaneous

A CT scan of the left foot is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 6? A. Navicular B. Calcaneous C. Cuboid D. Talus

A. Gluteus maximus muscle

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 10? A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus minimus muscle C. Gluteus medius muscle D. Sartorius muscle

adductor brevis muscle

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Adductor longus muscle B. Tensor fasciae latae C. Adductor brevis muscle D. Piriformis

femoral head

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 3? A. Femoral neck B. Femoral head C. Acetabulum D. Greater trochanter

Femur

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 4?

Femur

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 4? A. Iliac crest B. Femur C. Greater trochanter D. Lesser trochanter

Pubis, inferior ramus

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 5? A. Sarotius muscle B. Femur C. Pubis, inferior ramus D. Adductor brevis muscle

Pubis

A CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 9? A. Ilium B. Ischium C. Pubis D. ASIS

medial femoral condyle

A CT scan of the left knee is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7? A. Patella B. Lateral femoral condyle C. Medial femoral condyle D. Tibial plateau

Ilium

A CT scan of the male pelvis is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 11? A. Ilium B. Ischium C. Pubis D. Symphysis pubis

extensor tendons

A CT scan of the right wrist is shown in the image. What does number 4 point to? A. Scaphoid B. Extensor tendons C. Pisiform D. Palmaris longus muscle

Scaphiod

A CT scan of the right wrist is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Hamate B. Pisiform C. Lunate D. Scaphoid

Capitate

A CT scan of the right wrist is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 4? A. Capitate B. Lunate C. Triquitrium D. Scaphoid

B. hard palate

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is show in the image. What does number 9 point to? A. mandible B. hard palate C. tongue D. zygoma

D. a tooth

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What does number 11 point to? A. hard palate B. tongue C. mandible D. a tooth

Mandible

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What does number 7 point to? A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Hyoid bone D. Temporal bone

D. mandible

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What does number 7 point to? A. hyoid bone B. sphenoid sinus C. zygoma D. mandible

Hard Palate

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What does number 9 point to? A. Hard palate B. Soft palate C. Hyoid bone

B. hyoid bone

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 10? A. zygoma B. hyoid bone C. mandible D. sphenoid sinus

Masseter muscle

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 6? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Procerus D. Levator labii superioris

A. Maxillary sinus

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7? A. Maxillary sinus B. Frontal bone C. Eye, globe D. Mandible

C. maxillary sinus

A CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7? A. eye, globe B. mandible C. maxillary sinus D. frontal bone

inferior vena cava

A CT scan of the spine is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Abdominal aorta B. Superior vena cava C. Inferior vena cava D. Pulmonary artery

aorta

A CT scan of the spine is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Superior vena cava B. Aorta C. Inferior vena cava D. Pulmonary artery

A. occipital bone

A CT scan of the temporal bones in the axial plane is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7? A. occipital bone B. superior semicircular canal C. mastoid antrum D. temporal bone

Superior semicircular canal

A CT scan of the temporal bones on the axial plane is shown in the image. What does number 2 point to?

superior semicircular canal

A CT scan of the temporal bones on the axial plane is shown in the image. What does number 2 point to? A. Superior semicircular canal B. Inferior semicircular canal C. Mastoid air cells D. Superior conchae

B. superior semicircular canal

A CT scan of the temporal bones on the axial plane is shown in the image. What does number 2 point to? A. Temporal lobe B. Superior semicircular canal C. Mastoid antrum D. Temporal bone

mastoid air cells

A CT scan of the temporal bones on the axial plane is shown in the image. What does number 6 point to? A. Mastoid air cells B. Vomer C. External auditory meatus D. Perpendicular plate

A. mastoid air cells

A CT scan of the temporal bones on the axial plane is shown in the image. What does number 6 point to? A. mastoid air cells B. clivus C. sigmoid sinus D. vestibule

B. incus

A CT scan of the temporal bones on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What does number 5 point to? A. external auditory canal B. incus C. oval window D. internal auditory canal

200 mg/dL

A PET study's sensitivity could be limited if the patient's blood sugar level is more than how many mg/dL before the injection of FDG? A. 120 B. 100 C. 180 D. 200

histogram

A ______ is a graphical display showing how frequently a range of CT number occurs within a region of interest.

a) histogram

A __________ is a graphical display showing how frequently a range of CT number occurs within a region of interest. Question options: a) histogram b) test pattern c) contrast map d) pinwheel

0.8 second and 420 mA

A scanner allows mA choices in 20-mA increments from 20 to 700, and offers a choice of scan times from 0.4, 0.6, 0.8, 1.0, and 2.0 seconds. Which combination of mA and scan time will produce an mAs of 336? A. 1 second and 500 mA B. 0.5 second and 320 mA C. 0.8 second and 420 mA D. 0.2 second and 150 mA

Algorithm

A(n) ______ is a precise set of steps to be performed in a specific order to solve a problem.

Children

Abdominal ultrasonography to evaluate right lower quadrant or pelvic pain is particularly suited to which group? A. Adults B. Geriatrics C. Children D. Teenagers

20-30%

About what percent of stroke victims do not survive? A. 10-20% B. 40-50% C. 5-10% D. 20-30%

10%

About what percent of the general population has a ramus intermedius artery? A. 100% B. 80% C. 50% D. 10%

c) 10%

About what percent of the general population has a ramus intermedius artery? Question options: a) 50% b) 5% c) 10% d) 20%

C. 75 mGy

According to the ACR reference CTDI what is the recommended radiation dose for an adult head? A. 20 mGy B. 50 mGy C. 75 mGy D. 25 mGy

75 mGy

According to the ACR reference CTDI what is the recommended radiation dose for an adult head? A. 80 mGy B. 100 mGy C. 75 mGy D. 65 mGy

B) 16 detector

According to the ACR, what is the minimum CT scanner required for low dose CT lung screening? Question options: A) 4 detector B) 16 detector C) 64 detector D) 128 detector

MIP

According to the ACR, what type of post-processing should be a regular part of a low dose CT lung scan protocol? A. MIP B. MinIP C. SR D. VR

Unenhanced helical on full inspiration

According to the ACR, what type of scan should be performed for a low dose CT lung scan? A. Enhanced helical on full inspiration B. Enhanced helical on full expiration C. Unenhanced helical on full inspiration D. Unenhanced helical on full expiration

Lack of time

Among healthcare workers, what has been cited as the primary reason for not talking more with patients? A. Poor patient communication skills B. Poor worker communication skills C. Language barriers D. Lack of time

d) Lack of time

Among healthcare workers, what has been cited as the primary reason for not talking more with patients? Question options: a)Language barriers b) Poor patient communication skills c) Poor worker communication skills d) Lack of time

a) Lack of time

Among healthcare workers, what has been cited as the primary reason for not talking more with patients? a) Lack of time b) Poor worker communication skills c) Poor patient communication skills d) Language barriers

83%

An ROI is placed on the adrenal mass; unenhanced = 30 HU; enhanced = 120 HU; 15-minute delayed = 45 HU. What is the % washout? A. 93% B. 63% C. 83% D. 12%

algorithm

An __________ is a precise set of steps to be performed in a specific order to solve a problem.

30 to 60 minutes

Approximately how long after the intravenous FDG injection is placed on the examination table? A. 1 to 2 hours B. 10 to 30 minutes C. 5 to 15 minutes D. 30 to 60 minutes

A distortion or error in an image that is unrelated to the subject being studied

Artifact

true

Artifacts always degrade the quality of an image:

c) 10%

As a general rule, the human eye cannot appreciate contrast differences of less than about what percent? Question options: a) 5% b) 50% c) 10% d) 20%

B. 10%

As a general rule, the human eye cannot appreciate contrast differences of less than about what percent? a) 50% b) 10% c) 20% d) 5%

electron; positron

As a result of pair production, a(n) ______________ and a(n) ______________ are produced.

A) electron; positron

As a result of pair production, a(n) ______________ and a(n) ______________ are produced. Question options: A) electron; positron B) proton; neutron C) neutron; electron D) electron; proton

beam penetrability increases

As the kVp increases: A. Beam penetrability decreases B. Beam penetrability increases

Intravascular contrast material is used in most CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis. A) True B) False

Networks that use radio waves to transmit data between computers are referred to as "wired". A) True B) False

Open ended questions invite a narrative response from a patient. How long is an uninterrupted narrative response on average? A) 15-30 seconds B) 30 seconds to 1 minute C) 1 minute to 2 minutes D) 3 minutes to 5 minutes

Research has found that African-Americans stand closest to one another. A) True B) False

Tumors and other disease processes always have different attenuation coefficients than those of their surrounding tissue. A) True B) False

WANs typically use Ethernet connections to attach computers to the network. A) True B) False

What barrier to communication has likely occurred when nonverbal messages are ignored? A) Language B) Misreading of body language, tone, and other non-verbal forms of communication C) Power struggles D) Fuzzy transmission

What barrier to communication is likely to occur when either the sender or receiver is insecure or suffer from low self-esteem? A) Fuzzy transmission B) Power struggles C) Receiver distortion D) Language

What do social psychologists estimate as the percent in loss of meaning in the transmission of messages from sender to receiver? A) 10% to 25% B) 40% to 60% C) 30% to 50% D) 0% to 10%

What is a computer network? A) Multiple input devices used on a single computer B) A group of two or more computers linked together C) Multiple output devices used on a single computer D) A group of two or more processors on a workstation

What is considered personal distance for North Americans? A) 18 inches or less B) 1.5 to 4 feet C) 3-6 feet D) 6-10 feet

What is creatinine? A) A tough white fibrous capsule that encases each kidney B) A by-product of muscle protein metabolism generated by the body at a fairly steady rate and excreted entirely in the urine C) A contrast reaction that stems from the contrast agent's pharmacologic properties D) Diminished urine formulation

What is frame grabbing? A) When an image on the monitor is converted to analog format B) When an image on the monitor is converted to digital format C) When an image on the monitor is compressed D) When an image on the monitor is transmitted

What is the approximate normal adult glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? A) 80 mL/min B) 120 mL/min C) 180 mL/min D) 220 mL/min

What is the goal of data compression? A) To route data from one computer to another B) To minimize the size (in bytes) of an image file without degrading the quality of the image to an unacceptable level C) To increase the bandwidth of a WAN

What is the typical single dose of iodinated contrast agents? A) Between 50 and 100 mL B) Between 100 and 150 mL C) Between 150 and 175 mL D) Between 175 and 200 mL

When storing large amounts of data, tape can be substantially more expensive than other data storage options. A) True B) False

Which is a communication habit to avoid? A) Asking questions of a listener to see whether he or she understands B) Using false reassurance C) Nodding or head-shaking D) Acknowledging the many possibilities for misunderstanding

Which is an example of a moderately adverse idiosyncratic patient reaction? A) Cough B) Hypertension C) Convulsions D) Itching

Which is not a network routing mechanism? A) Hubs B) LANs C) Switching D) Bridging

Which is not a task of the radiology information system? A) Scheduling patients B) Image archiving C) Protocoling examinations D) Patient tracking

twisted pairs of copper wire

Ethernet cables are typically made of A. Fiberglass B. Iron wire C. Steel wire D. Twisted pairs of copper wire

True or false : standard deviation alone is sufficient to fully characterize the noise in the image

False

This type of mottle refers to either an unevenness in size or distribution of the silver halide crystals in the film emulsion

Film grain emulsion

List the three major types of mottle

Film grain mottle, screen mottle, and quantum mottle

raw

Filter functions can only be applied to ________ data.

More than one scan can be taken during a single breath-hold

What does it mean for an axial scan to be clustered? A. More than one scan taken during a single exam B. More than one scan can be taken during a single breath-hold C. More than one part being scanned during a single exam

how much of the collected data is used to create an image

What does the selected display field of view (DFOV) determine? A. How much of the collected raw data is used to create an image B. The number of detector cells collecting data C. Whether half-field or full-field is used D. The area, within the gantry, from which the raw data are aquired

Fan beam

What is the name for the radiation emitted from the collimated x-ray source in single detector row CT systems A. Cone beam B. Fan beam C. Pin beam

interscan delay

What is the name for the slight pause in scanning between data acquisitions? A. Convolution B. Interscan delay C. Interpolation D. Back projection

d) Interscan delay

What is the name for the slight pause in scanning between data acquisitions? Question options: a) Convolution b) Back projection c) Interpolation d) Interscan delay

volume averaging

What is the name of the process in CT by which different attenuation values are averaged to produce one less accurate pixel reading? A. Averaged volume B. Volume averaging

DICOM

What is the name of the universally adopted standard for medical image interchange? A. RIS B. ASRT C. DICOM

Angioplasty

What is the name the technique that is used to dilate an area of arterial blockage using a catheter with a small, inflatable, sausage-shaped balloon at its tip? A. Vascular stenting B. Angiography C. Angioplasty D. PTCA

The computer loads data from ROM and performs test to make certain all major components are functioning properly.

What is the next step a computer takes after it is turned on? A) The computer loads the operating system into RAM B) The computer loads the operating system into SAM C) The computer copies the operating system from the hard drive to RAM D) The computer loads data from ROM and performs test to make certain all major compnents are functioning properly.

1.5

What is the pitch for a 64-slice MDCT with a 0.5-mm slice thickness and a table-feed of 48 mm per rotation? A. 2.5 B. 5.5 C. 1.5 D. 0.5

Completed stroke

What is the preferred medical term used to describe an acute episode of interrupted blood flow to the brain that lasts longer than 24 hours? A. Completed stroke B. Embolic stroke C. Thromboitc stroke D. Lacunar stroke

completed stroke

What is the preferred medical term used to describe an acute episode of interrupted blood flow to the brain that lasts longer than 24 hours? A. TIA B. Stroke C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Completed stroke

pneumothorax

What is the primary complication of CT-guided lung biopsies? A. Infection B. Spreading of cancer cells C. Pneumothorax D. Bleeding

d) The entire forefoot (metatarsals and phalanges)

For CT of the ankle, the display field of view (DFOV) does not need to include which of the following? Question options: a) The hindfoot b) The midfoot c) The proximal bases of all five metatarsals d) The entire forefoot (metatarsals and phalanges)

oblique coronal

For CT of the foot, when the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in which plane? A. Sagittal B. Axial C. Oblique coronal D. Transverse

supine; head

For a c-spine, the patient is _____ on the table with arms down by the side, going in _____ first.

22-cm

For most patients, it is possible to scan both ankles simultaneously within what DFOV? A. 25cm B. 22cm D. 30cm D. 35cm

bony abnormalities of the spine

For which condition of the spine is CT considered superior to MRI?

Bony abnormalities of the spine

For which condition of the spine is CT considered superior to MRI? A. Spondylolysis B. Bony abnormalities C. Degenerative disk disease

b) Bony abnormalities of the spine

For which condition of the spine is CT considered superior to MRI? Question options: a) Syringomyelia b) Bony abnormalities of the spine c) Multiple sclerosis d) Hydromyelia

b) Evaluating a scaphoid fracture

For which of the following is intravenous (IV) contrast medium not necessary or helpful? Question options: a) Showing the relationship of major arteries or veins to musculoskeletal masses. b) Evaluating a scaphoid fracture c) Evaluating the vascularity of a tumor

neck

For which protocol is the split-bolus technique for contrast administration typically used? A. Chest B. Abdomen C. Pelvis D. Neck

b) Neck

For which protocol is the split-bolus technique for contrast administration typically used? Question options: a) Brain b) Neck c) Spine d) Abdomen

c) Pneumothorax

What is the primary complication of CT-guided lung biopsies? Question options: a) Spreading of cancer cells b) Bleeding c) Pneumothorax d) Infection

Bleeding

What is the primary complication of all types of biopsy procedures? A. Fever B. Inability to biopsy C. Bleeding D. Patient approval

a) Bleeding

What is the primary complication of all types of biopsy procedures? Question options: a) Bleeding b) Inflammation c) Spreading of cancer cells d) Infection

D. Patient size

What is the primary criteria in the selection of mAs? A. Cost B. The clinical indication that prompted the scan C. The region to be scanned D. Patient size

Patient size

What is the primary criteria in the selection of mAs? A. Cost B. The clinical indication that prompted the scan C. The region to be scanned D. Patient size

a) Patient size

What is the primary criteria in the selection of mAs? Question options: a) Patient size b) The clinical indication that prompted the scan c) Cost d) The region to be scanned

d) Patient size

What is the primary criteria in the selection of mAs? a) Cost b) The region to be scanned c) The clinical indication that prompted the scan d) Patient size

convolution

What is the process of applying a filter function to an attenuation profile called? A. Attenuation filter B. Convolution C. Beryllium filtration

Primary tumors of the lung

For which suspected condition are images of the liver typically acquired in a single (portal venous) phase? A. Primary tumors of the lung B. Primary tumors of the liver C. Secondary tumors of the lung D. Secondary tumors of the liver

false

From conception to 3 months

Iterative reconstruction can reduce the dose by as much as ________%. A. 10% B. 20% C. 40% D. 50%

1 to 3 hours

How much of a time delay is recommended when CT is performed after intrathecal contrast administration for fluoroscopic myelography? A. 30 minutes to an hour B. 15 minutes to 30 minutes C. 1 to 3 hours D. 3 to 6 hours

monthly

How often is direct spatial resolution testing using a line pairs phantom performed in most quality assurance programs? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Semiannually D. Annually

A. monthly

How often is direct spatial resolution testing using a line pairs phantom performed in most quality assurance programs? A. monthly B. daily C. annually D. weekly

B. Monthly

How often is direct spatial resolution testing using a line pairs phantom performed in most quality assurance programs? a) weekly b) monthly c) annually d) daily

semiannually

How often is slice thickness accuracy testing performed in most quality assurance programs? A. Anually B. Semiannually C. Monthly D. Weekly

A. semiannually

How often is slice thickness accuracy testing performed in most quality assurance programs? A. semiannually B. weekly C. monthly D. annually

weekly

How often should noise and uniformity testing be done? A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly

A. weekly

How often should noise and uniformity testing be done? A. weekly B. semiannually C. annually D. monthly

30 lp/cm

If 30 lines can be seen in a 1-cm section in an image of a line pairs phantom, what is the spacial resolution? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

B. 30 lp/cm

If 30 lines can be seen in a 1-cm section in an image of a line pairs phantom, what is the spatial resolution? A. 15 lp/cm B. 30 lp/cm C. 60 lp/cm D. 1 lp/cm

a) 30 lp/cm

If 30 lines can be seen in a 1-cm section in an image of a line pairs phantom, what is the spatial resolution? Question options: a) 30 lp/cm b) 1 lp/cm c) 15 lp/cm d) 60 lp/cm

A radial

If a patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg, the _______ pulse will not be palpable. a) radial b) femoral c) carotid d) jugular

b) radial

If a patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg, the _______ pulse will not be palpable. Question options: a) femoral b) radial c) jugular d) carotid

If an image reproduced the object exactly, what is the MTF of the system? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

A. 1

If an image reproduced the object exactly, what is the MTF of the system? A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 0 D. 0.5

a) 1

If an image reproduced the object exactly, what is the MTF of the system? Question options: a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 0 d) 0.5

If kVp is doubled, the quantity of radiation increases by a factor of:

If kVp is doubled, the quantity of radiation increases by a factor of: 2 3 4 8

archiving

What is the process of saving image data from the originating modality to an electronic medium called? A. Data management B. Data mining C. Archiving D. EHR

posterior arch of C1

What is the process protruding from C-1?

To reduce the radiation dose to the patient and to minimize streak artifacts

What is the purpose of filtering? A. To reduce the radiation dose to the patient B. To minimize streak artifacts C. Both A and B

40%

It is estimated that what percent of all pediatric CT examinations are not clearly indicated? A. 50% B. 30% C. 40% D. 60%

Term used to describe a voxel value that is the average of multiple tissue types contained within the voxel?

Partial volume averaging

midsagittal

Patient is _____ down the table.

midsaggital

Patient is ______ down table.

Use of thick sections

Which is not a technical parameters used for CT imaging of the airways? A. Use of thick sections B. A fast acquisition that allows the entire lungs to be scanned during a single breath-hold C. Use of post-processing techniques D. Optimal spatial resolution

A result of the limited number of photons contributing to the image

Quantum noise

Three major sources contribute to the noise in the image. What are they?

Quantum noise by x-ray flux , inherent physical limitations of the system, and reconstruction parameters

false

RAM is imprinted at the factory and is used to store frequently used instructions such as those required for starting the system.

false

Raw data storage requires less computer storage space than that of image data.

What are the primary functions of a bow tie filter

Reduce beam hardening artifacts Reduce scatter radiation

gantry

The _________ is the ring-shaped part of the CT scanner.

equilibrium

The _________ phase is the worst phase of tissue enhancement for acquiring scans of the body, particularly the liver.

equivalent

The _____________ dose is the product of the absorbed dose and a radiation weighting factor.

2 to 15 minutes

Split-bolus injections divide the contrast media dose into two bolus injections with a delay of how much time between injections? A. 20 to 30 minutes B. 30 minutes to an hour C. 5 to 20 minutes D. 2 to 15 minutes

c) 2 to 15 minutes

Split-bolus injections divide the contrast media dose into two bolus injections with a delay of how much time between injections? Question options: a) 15 to 30 minutes b) 30 seconds to 1 minute c) 2 to 15 minutes d) 15 to 30 seconds

Voluntary and involuntary motion of the patient during CT scanning results in the appearance of ____ artifacts on the image

Streaks

Classification of artifacts on basis of appearance : Cause : improper sampling of data ; partial volume averaging , patient motion ; metal; beam hardening ; noise ; spiral/helical scanning ; mechanical failure

Streaks and bands

Refers to the confusion contributed by overlaying structures superimposed on the tissue of interest. This is largely eliminated by sectional imaging technique

Structural noise

D. 90

Studies have shown that what percent of the meaning we derive from communication comes from the nonverbal cues that the other person gives? a) 100% b) 75% c) 50% d) 90%

a) To reduce the radiation dose to the patient and to minimize streak artifacts

What is the purpose of filtering? Question options: a) To reduce the radiation dose to the patient and to minimize streak artifacts b) To reduce image noise c) To reduce computer processing time d) To increase computer processing speed

false

Surgical training is preferable with cadavers versus 3D printing because cadavers are easier and cheaper to obtain.

True

T/F: High-frequency generators are currently used in CT.

False

T/F: RAM is imprinted at the factory and is used to store frequently used instructions such as those required for starting the system.

D. 1

What is the quality factor for the diagnostic x-rays that are used in CT? A. 5 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1

False

T/F: The window level should be set at a point that greater than the average attenuation number of the tissue of interest.

a) 1

What is the quality factor for the diagnostic x-rays that are used in CT? a) 1 b) 5 c) 10 d) 0

From 60 to 100 beats per minute

What is the range of the average adult pulse? A. 50-90 bpm B. 60-100 bpm C. 70-110 bpm D. 80-120 bpm

c) From 60 to 100 beats per minute

What is the range of the average adult pulse? Question options: a) From 70 to 110 beats per minute b) From 40 to 80 beats per minute c) From 60 to 100 beats per minute d) From 80 to 120 beats per minute

B. Dynamic

What is the range of x-ray intensity values to which the scanner can accurately respond is called? a) linear b) dynamic c) reconstructed d) raw

c) dynamic

What is the range of x-ray intensity values to which the scanner can accurately respond is called? Question options: a) raw b) linear c) dynamic d) reconstructed

dynamic

What is the range of x-ray intensity values tow high the scanner can accurately respond called? A. Spatial resolution B. Contrast resolution C. Dynamic range

0.59 mm

The DFOV used for a study is 30 cm and a 512 matrix is used. What is the approximate pixel size in mm? A. 0.5 mm B. 0.45 mm C. 0.33 mm D. 0.59 mm

B. 0.59 mm

The DFOV used for a study is 30 cm and a 512 matrix is used. What is the approximate pixel size in mm? A. 1.71 mm B. 0.59 mm C. 0.06 mm D. 17.07 mm

a) 0.59 mm

The DFOV used for a study is 30 cm and a 512 matrix is used. What is the approximate pixel size in mm? Question options: a) 0.59 mm b) 0.06 mm c) 1.71 mm d) 17.07 mm

1.64 mm

The DFOV used for an abdominal study is 42 cm and a 256 matrix is used. What is the approximate pixel size in mm? A. 1.00 B. 1.54 D. 1.64 D. 2. 65

3.75 mm

The General Electric Lightspeed QX/I scanner system uses 16 detector rows, each 1.25 mm wide, arranged side-by-side along the z axis. If three detector rows are combined, how thick will the resultant slices be? A. 1.25 B. 2.5 C. 3.75 D. 5

2 to 2.5

The SUV of the liver should be in what range? A. 5 to 5.5 B. 3 to 3.5 C. 1 to 1.5 D. 2 to 2.5

1.5 to 2

The SUV of the mediastinal blood pool should be in what range? A. 2 to 2.5 B. 1 to 1.5 C. 2.5 to 3 D. 1.5 to 2

distance

The inverse square law describes the relationship between _____ and beam intensity.

distance

The inverse square law relates the intensity (of light/x-rays) to: 1) distance 2) time 3) velocity 4) mass

distance

The inverse square law relates the intensity(of light/x-rays) to:

The ionizing radiation used in CT is an x-ray with maximum energy from 120 to 140 keV and an average energy near _______ keV. A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 90

False

The larger the object being scanned, the thinner the CT slice required.

True

The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sections.

False

The scan field of view (SFOV) is also called zoom or target.

the effect the cloud of electrons has on limiting additional electrons being emitted

The space charge effect describes: A. The effect the cloud of electrons has on limiting additional electrons being emitted B. The effect the cloud of electrons has on limiting additional protons being emitted C. The effect the cloud of electrons has on limiting additional protons being emitted

What is a good example of a high contrast region?

The temporal bone region

detector array

The term ______ is used to describe the entire collection of detectors included in a CT system.

The thyroid cartilage lies at the level of _______.

upper shoulder

The transverse line for a c-spine is aligned to the ______.

chin

The transverse line goes to the ______.

apices

The transverse line is above the _____.

mamillary

The transverse line is at the _____ line.

B. Pitch

The travel distance of the CT scan table per 360° rotation of the x-ray tube, divided by the x-ray beam collimation width is called ___________. Question options: a) scaning speed b) pitch c) FOV d) DFOV

Drip infusion

The two methods of administering contrast material are the ________ technique and the bolus technique.

Pitch

What is the relationship between slice thickness and table travel per rotation during a helical scan acquisition?

Longitudinal

What is the resolution in the z direction called? A. Longitudinal B. Transverse

C. Longitudinal

What is the resolution in the z direction called? a) latitudinal b) axial c) longitudinal d) lateral

ethmoid bone

What is the smallest cranial bone?

False

True or False. To differentiate adjacent objects on a CT image, there cannot be a density difference between the two objects.

True

True or False? 3D printed anatomical parts can be used for surgery planning.

False

True or False? 3D printing is not suitable for made-to-order fixtures in operating rooms.

False

True or False? A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. The region represented by number 10 is the ascending colon.

False

True or False? A CT scan of the left knee is shown in the image. The region represented by number 1 is the fibula.

True

True or False? A CT scan of the male pelvis is shown in the image. The region represented by number 5 is the gluteus maximus muscle.

True

True or False? A number of independent studies have established a link between effective communication and a reduction in malpractice claims.

true

True or False? A number of independent studies have established a link between effective communication and a reduction in malpractice claims.

False

True or False? A voxel is isotropic when the z direction is equal to the slice thickness.

False

True or False? Adding an iodinated agent to the bloodstream will temporarily decrease the beam-attenuating ability of the blood.

false

True or False? Adding an iodinated agent to the bloodstream will temporarily decrease the beam-attenuating ability of the blood.

False

True or False? Airway imaging is routinely performed at expiration only.

True

True or False? Along with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), CT is a major method for the evaluation of musculoskeletal anatomy and disease.

True

True or False? An undesired surge of electrical current within the x-ray tube causes tube arcing.

False

True or False? Axial scans are typically used in protocols in which the acquisition speed is a major concern and optimal resolution is not required.

True

True or False? Because of the dense bone of the skull, beam-hardening artifact is common in the posterior fossa.

false

True or False? CT and CT fluoroscopy (CTF) must be used separately and cannot be used in combination.

gantry

The ____ is the ring-shaped part of the CT scanner

coronal

The _____ line is down the body.

psoas muscle; 30

The _____ make the kidneys lie at a _____ degree angle.

zygapophyseal joints

The ______ are only seen on a lateral c-spine.

a) pitch

The _______ is defined as the table distance traveled in one 360° rotation divided by the collimated width of the x-ray beam. Question options: a) pitch b) beam geometry c) spacing d) slice width

respiration

The _______ is the number of breaths a person takes per minute. A. Pulse B. Interest C. Respiration D. Heart

false

True or False? CT and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) has a high sensitivity for the detection of obvious structural disruption and is useful in characterizing these abnormalities as malignant or benign.

True

True or False? CT data acquisition of the foot and ankle can be obtained in a number of different imaging planes.

false

True or False? CT fluoroscopy (CTF) allows for the near real-time capabilities of traditional fluoroscopy but does not provide the superior contrast resolution of CT.

true

True or False? CT fluoroscopy (CTF) capabilities are not standard on scanners.

True

True or False? CT of the abdomen and pelvis is used for the evaluation of virtually all organs and most vessels.

True

True or False? CT of the musculoskeletal system has the ability to image both sides of the body.

False

True or False? CT of the spine is most often performed with IV contrast media administration.

False

True or False? Central venous access devices (CVADs) are the optimal choice for contrast administration.

True

True or False? Children interact at a close distance, whereas adults interact at a farther distance.

True

True or False? Conventional radiography barium suspension cannot be used in CT.

False

True or False? Decreased glucose use is frequently associated with malignancies.

False

True or False? Demarcation of the esophagus can be improved by giving an oral barium suspension shortly after the scan has begun.

True

True or False? End-users interact directly with client computers to send data requests to one or more connected servers.

false

True or False? For a given set of machine parameters (mAs, slice thickness, and pitch), organ doses are higher for adults than for children.

True

True or False? HRCT of the chest is used for the assessment of lung parenchyma in patients with diffuse lung disease such as fibrosis and emphysema.

True

True or False? HRCT protocols are routinely obtained at full inspiration.

True

True or False? Higher mA settings allow shorter scan times to be used.

False

True or False? If the vein selected for placement does not adequately distend with the tourniquet, place a second tourniquet just below the first and hang the arm below the level of the patient's heart.

True

True or False? Improvements in the design of CT systems allow successful imaging of the total joint prosthesis and the soft tissues around them.

True

True or False? In a jaundiced patient, noncontrast scans through the area of the common bile duct may allow visualization of common bile duct calculi.

False

True or False? In general, the less the volume of oral contrast material, the better the bowel opacification.

False

True or False? In general, when scanning long bones, the plane of the CT section should be parallel to the long axis.

False

True or False? Intravascular contrast material is used in most CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis.

True

True or False? Intravenous contrast medium is not routinely administered for musculoskeletal trauma.

False

True or False? Localizer images are cross-sectional in nature.

True

True or False? Lossy compression methods introduce compression artifacts because not all data are restored.

True

True or False? MDCT designs were responsible for the demise of fourth-generation scanning systems.

True

True or False? Manufacturers label the external portion of catheters by printing its size and type on the catheter hub or external tubing.

True

True or False? Many PICC lines cannot tolerate the pressure required to inject contrast media at the high injection rates typical of CT examinations that use mechanical injectors.

False

True or False? Milliampere level and scan time together define the quality of the beam.

False

True or False? Most medical-use objects can be printed in minutes if not seconds.

False

True or False? Most renal abnormalities are best seen on CT without IV contrast medium administration.

True

True or False? Most thoracic protocols are performed while the patient lies in a supine position on the scan table with the arms elevated above the head.

False

True or False? Multiplanar reformations (MPRs) are 3D image displays.

False

True or False? On CT images, objects with a 5% contrast variation can be distinguished.

False

True or False? Optimal images can be achieved with standardized window widths.

false

True or False? Optimal images can be achieved with standardized window widths.

False

True or False? Overscans decrease the radiation dose.

true

True or False? PET may demonstrate pathologic changes long before they would be revealed by modalities like CT or MRI.

False

True or False? Raw data storage requires less computer storage space than that of image data.

True

True or False? Reconstructing raw data to create new images can only be done from the operator's console.

False

True or False? Research has found that African-Americans stand closest to one another.

false

True or False? Research has found that African-Americans stand closest to one another.

False

True or False? Ring artifacts appear only on MDCT helical systems

False

True or False? Ring artifacts appear only on MDCT helical systems.

False

True or False? Scans of the lower extremities are usually scanned with the patient supine and placed head first into the scanner.

False

True or False? Sinus screening is always done with IV contrast media.

True

True or False? Sinus screening is intended as an inexpensive, accurate, and low radiation dose method for confirming the presence of inflammatory sinonasal disease

True

True or False? Sinus screening is intended as an inexpensive, accurate, and low radiation dose method for confirming the presence of inflammatory sinonasal disease.

False

True or False? Slice thickness has a no impact on image quality.

False

True or False? Slice thickness has no impact on image quality.

True

True or False? Surface rendering is useful for examining tubular structures.

False

True or False? Surgical training is preferable with cadavers versus 3D printing because cadavers are easier and cheaper to obtain.

True

True or False? The American College of Radiology CT accreditation phantom is a solid phantom that contains four modules, and is constructed primarily from a water-equivalent material.

False

True or False? The American Heart Association reports that cerebrovascular disorders such as ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes are the most frequent cause of death in North America.

True

True or False? The administration of IV contrast media for a CT chest scan is dependent on the clinical indication and the preference of the radiologist.

true

True or False? The computed tomography dose index (CTDI) can only be calculated if slices are contiguous.

True

True or False? The degree to which an x-ray beam is reduced by an object is known as attenuation.

True

True or False? The effective dose attempts to account for the effects particular to the patient's tissue that has absorbed the radiation dose.

True

True or False? The location and extent of the ischemic lesion, combined with the severity of the blood flow reduction, are the main factors that predict outcome in the treatment of stroke.

False

True or False? The radiation dose in general radiology is more uniform than in CT.

True

True or False? The responsibilities of a PET/CT technologist combine the responsibilities of a nuclear medicine and CT technologist, yet technologists are very rarely trained in both modalities.

False

True or False? The selection of 160 mA and a 2-second scan time provides a greater quantity of x-ray energy than 640 mA and a 0.5-second scan.

False

True or False? The selection of 160 mA and a 2-second scan time provides greater quantity of x-ray energy than 640 mA and a 0.5-second scan.

False

True or False? The terms scout, surview, topogram, scanogram, preview, and pilot are alternative names for step-and-shoot scans.

False

True or False? The timing of an insulin injection does not generally affect a PET scan.

False

True or False? The window level should be set at a point that greater than the average attenuation number of the tissue of interest.

False

True or False? There is always the same specific pattern in the appearance of tube arc artifacts.

false

True or False? There is always the same specific pattern in the appearance of tube arc artifacts.

false

True or False? Thoracic scans done for the screening, detection, or exclusion of pulmonary nodules or primary lung diseases such as emphysema or fibrosis are typically done with IV contrast administration.

False

True or False? Tube arcing is patient-induced artifact.

false

True or False? Tumors and other disease processes always have different attenuation coefficients than those of their surrounding tissue.

True

True or False? Unless contraindicated, IV contrast media is used when scanning the neck.

True

True or False? Warming a contrast agent reduces viscosity.

true

True or False? Warming a contrast agent reduces viscosity.

False

True or False? When storing large amounts of data, tape can be substantially more expensive than other data storage options

False

True or False? When storing large amounts of data, tape can be substantially more expensive than other data storage options.

True

True or False? When voxels are isotropic, any oblique plane can be created with virtually no loss of image quality.

True

True or false? For abdominopelvic scanning, patients are asked to hold their breath during data acquisition.

False

True or false? Slice thickness has no impact on image quality

The quantity of x-ray photons

What determines the shades of gray on a CT image? A. The quality of x-ray photons B. The quantity of x-ray photons

A. The quantity of x-ray photons

What determines the shades of gray on a CT image? a) The quantity of x-ray photons b) The scanning protocol c) The thickness of the CT slice d) Air-filled structures

B. The quantity of x-ray photons

What determines the shades of gray on a CT image? a) The thickness of the CT slice b) The quantity of x-ray photons c) The scanning protocol d) Air-filled structures

Window Level

What determines which Hounsfield values are displayed as shades of gray? A. Window width B. Window level

C. Window level

What determines which Hounsfield values are displayed as shades of gray? a) Window contrast b) Window height c) Window level d) Window width

Monitor

What device is used to display CT images?

Monitor

What device is used to display CT images? A. Computer B. Tv C. Monitor

slip rings

What do current systems use to rotate the gantry frame? A. Star rings B. Slip rings C. Slide rings

Fourier Theory

What do filtered back-projection algorithms use to reduce statistical noise? A. Linear interpolation B. Fourier theory C. Convolution D. Array processors

C. Fourier theory

What do filtered back-projection algorithms use to reduce statistical noise? a) Convolution b) Array processors c) Fourier theory d) Linear interpolation

Minimal Plaque

What does a CT calcium score of 1-10 indicate? A. Maximum plaque B. Minimal plaque

c) Heat capacity

What is the term for the ability of an x-ray tube to withstand resultant heat? Question options: a) Kinetic energy b) Thermal energy c) Heat capacity d) Heat dissipation

D. Heat capacity

What is the term for the ability of an x-ray tube to withstand resultant heat? a) Heat dissipation b) Thermal energy c) Kinetic energy d) Heat capacity

stroke in evolution

What is the term used to describe a time-limited event in which the neurologic deficits occur in a progressive pattern. A. Stroke in regression B. Stroke in evolution C. Progressive ischimic attack D. TIA

A relatively high radiation dose

What is the trade-off for the excellent low-contrast resolution that is seen on CT images? A. Slow scan time B. Increased cost C. High radiation dose

400°

What is the tube rotation of an overscan? A. 100 degrees B. 360 degrees C. 200 degrees D. 400 degrees

400 degrees

What is the tube rotation of an overscan? A. 200 degrees B. 300 degrees C. 400 degrees D. 500 degrees

C. 400 degrees

What is the tube rotation of an overscan? A. 380 degrees B. 360 degrees C. 400 degrees D. 180 degrees

A. 0.5-2 seconds

What is the typical range of values for scan time for a full rotation? A. 0.5-2 seconds B. 0.1-3 seconds C. 1-2 seconds D. 1-5 seconds

0.5 second to 2 seconds

What is the typical range of values for scan time for a full rotation? A. 1-2 s B. 0.5-2 s C. 3-5 s D. 10-20 s

Between 100 and 150 mL

What is the typical single dose of iodinated contrast agents? A. Between 50 and 100 B. Between 20 and 90 C. Between 100 and 150 D. Between 150 and 200

d) Between 100 and 150 mL

What is the typical single dose of iodinated contrast agents? Question options: a) Between 50 and 100 mL b) Between 150 and 175 mL c) Between 175 and 200 mL d) Between 100 and 150 mL

noise

What is the undesirable fluctuation of pixel values in an image of a homogeneous material? A. Fog B. Noise

A. Noise

What is the undesirable fluctuation of pixel values in an image of a homogeneous material? a) noise b) partial volume rendering c) transient interruption of contrast d) photon starvation

What is the unit of measure for the power capacity of the generator? A. HU B. KW C. Sv D. Gy

D. mA

What is the unit of measurement for current of electrons that flow from the filament to the anode? A. HU B. kVp C. kW D. mA

What is the unit of measurement for current of electrons that flow from the filament to the anode? A. kVp B. mA C. Gy D. Sv

The product of milliampere setting and scan time

What is tube current? A. The product of kVp and mA B. The product of mA and scan time C. The product of kVp and scan time

B. the product of milliampere setting and scan time

What is tube current? A. the time the x-ray beam is on for the collection of data for each slice B. the product of milliampere setting and scan time C. the loss of resolution caused by a larger filament

At end-diastole

What is typically the point of the cardiac cycle with the least cardiac motion? A. At end-diastole B. At start-diastole C. At start-asystole D. At end-asystole

b) At end-diastole

What is typically the point of the cardiac cycle with the least cardiac motion? Question options: a) At beginning-diastole b) At end-diastole c) At end-systole d) At beginning-systole

AP & lateral scout

What is used for proper localization of the spinal structures?

transverse foramina

What makes the c-spine unique?

the data-acquisition system

What measures the number of photons that strikes the detector, converts the information to a digital signal, and sends the signal to the computer? A. The AEC B. The RIS C. The data-acquisition system

maxillary nerve, inferior ophthalmic vein and sympathetic nerves

What passes through the inferior orbital fissure?

optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

What passes through the optic canal?

lacrimal, frontal, trochlear, oculomotor, nasociliary, and abducens nerves and the superior ophthalmic vein

What passes through the superior orbital fissure?

B) 20%

What percent of cigarette users develop lung cancer? Question options: A) 10% B) 20% C) 25% D) 40%

15-25%

What percent of lung cancers are from non-smokers? A. 40-50% B. 10-20% C. 15-25% D. 25-25%

10%

What percent of the data available does surface rendering typically use? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100%

B. 10%

What percent of the data available does surface rendering typically use? a) 25% b) 10% c) 50% d) 100%

50% to 70%

What percent of total energy is obtained from the oxidation of fatty acids? A. 70% to 80% B. 50% to 70% C. 20% to 50% D. 10% to 20%

c) 50% to 70%

What percent of total energy is obtained from the oxidation of fatty acids? Question options: a) 20% to 50% b) 70% to 80% c) 50% to 70% d) 10% to 20%

80 to 85%

What percent of urinary calculi is thought to pass spontaneously? A. 10-15% B. 80-85% C. Less than 10% D. 30 to 40%

B. 15-40%

What percent reduction in radiation dose do automatic tube current modulations provide without degrading image quality? A. 10-25% B. 15-40% C. 5-50% D. 15-60%

15% to 40%

What percent reduction in radiation dose do automatic tube current modulations provide without degrading image quality? A. 15-40% B. 30-50% C. 5-20% D. 50-60%

B. 15% to 40%

What percent reduction in radiation dose do automatic tube current modulations provide without degrading image quality? a) 10% to 25% b) 15% to 40% c) 15% to 60% d) 5% to 50%

a) 15% to 40%

What percent reduction in radiation dose do automatic tube current modulations provide without degrading image quality? Question options: a) 15% to 40% b) 5% to 50% c) 15% to 60% d) 10% to 25%

The face

What plays the biggest role in body language? A. The hands B. The gestures C. The face

B. Uniformity

What refers to the ability of the scanner to yield the same CT number regardless of the location of an ROI within a homogeneous object? a) singularity b) uniformity c) quantum mottle d) cone beam effect

Linearity

What refers to the relationship between CT numbers and the linear attenuation values of the scanned object at a designated kVp value. a)asynchronous b)linearity c) singularity d) uniformity

lower the shoulders as much as possible

What should the patient be asked to do during a CT scan of the neck to reduce artifacts that degrade images in the lower neck? A. Lower the shoulders as much as possible B. Pronounce a prolonged "e" during scanning C. Raise the head D. Blow the cheeks out

Technologists are very rarely trained in both modalities.

What staffing problem is caused by the evolution of hybrid PET/CT scanners? A. There is a shortage of trained nuclear medicine technologists B. Technologists are very rarely trained in both modalities C. There is a shortage of trained CT techs D. There is no plan for developing a means to provide a more formalized educational approach for training techs

a) Technologists are very rarely trained in both modalities.

What staffing problem is caused by the evolution of hybrid PET/CT scanners? Question options: a) Technologists are very rarely trained in both modalities. b) There is a shortage of trained CT technologists. c) There is no plan for developing a means to provide a more formalized educational approach for training technologists. d) There is a shortage of trained nuclear medicine technologists.

mandibular fossa, articular eminence, and the head of the mandible

What three parts make up the temporomandibular joint?

Streak artifacts

What type of artifact is shown? A. Ghosting B. Streak C. Ring

C. streak artifacts

What type of artifacts are shown in the diagram? A. windmill artifacts B. ring artifacts C. streak artifacts

a) Isosmolar contrast media

What type of contrast agent has osmolality equal to that of blood? Question options: a) Isosmolar contrast media b) High-osmolality contrast media c) Low-osmolality contrast media

50-500 HU

What window width should be used for tissue types with similar densities? A. 100-550 HU B. 10-600 HU C. 60-700 HU D. 50-500 HU

Between 7 and 25 mg/dL

What, as a general rule, is the normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN)? A. Between 1 and 5 B. Between 5 and 7 C. Between 7 and 25 D. Between 10 and 30

a) 25 to 55 seconds

What, as a general rule, is the normal range for partial thrombo-plastin time (PTT)? a) 25 to 55 seconds b) 5 to 25 seconds c) 10 to 15 seconds d) 15 to 25 seconds

150,000 to 400,000 cubic millimeters

What, as a general rule, is the normal range for platelet count? A. 100,000-200,000 B. 250,000-450,000 C. 150,000-400,000 D. 400,000-500,000

0.6 to 1.7 mg/dl

What, as a general rule, is the normal range for serum creatinine? A. 1-1.8 B. 0.6-1.7 C. 0.5-1.4 D. 2-2.5

a) 0.6 to 1.7 mg/dL

What, as a general rule, is the normal range for serum creatinine? Question options: a) 0.6 to 1.7 mg/dL b) 0.3 to 0.77 mg/dL c) 0.2 to 1.77 mg/dL d) 6 to 17 mg/dL

Between 5 and 10 minutes after administration

When does the peak effect of IV-push metoprolol occur? a) Between 1 and 5 minutes after administration b) Between 5 and 10 minutes after administration c) Between 15 and 30 minutes after administration d) Between 10 and 15 minutes after administration

When it occurs in post-menopausal women

When is an increase in endometrial FDG uptake associated with malignancy? A. When it occurs in young men B. When it occurs in young women C. When it occurs in older men D. When it occurs in post-menopausal women

b) When it occurs in post-menopausal women

When is an increase in endometrial FDG uptake associated with malignancy? Question options: a) When it occurs during ovulation b) When it occurs in post-menopausal women c) When it occurs during menstruation

When 100% filled with urine

When is the bladder best appreciated on CT? A. When 25% filled with urine B. When 50% filled with urine C. When empty D. When 100% filled with urine

From conception to 3 months

When is the radiosensitivity of a developing fetus is the greatest? A. At conception B. From conception to 3 months C. 3 to 6 months D. 6 to 9 months

Head and neck cancer or lymphoma

When muscle uptake is focal and unilateral interpretation is especially more difficult in patients who have which of the following? A. Lung or esophageal cancer B. Thyroid cancer C. Head and neck cancer or lymphoma D. Stomach cancer

50%

When the radiation doses used in adult protocols are used in neonates or young children, the effective dose is up to what percent greater? A. 10% B. 40% C. 50% D. 25%

A. both inside and outside the gantry

Where are laser lights located? A. both inside and outside the gantry B. outside the gantry C. inside the gantry

Both inside and outside the gantry

Where are laser lights located? a. Inside the gantry B. Outside the gantry C. Both inside and outside the gantry

c) Both inside and outside the gantry

Where are laser lights located? Question options: a) Inside the gantry b) Outside the gantry c) Both inside and outside the gantry

middle nasal meatus

Where does the anterior ethmoid sinuses drain?

middle nasal meatus

Where does the frontal sinus drain?

middle nasal meatus

Where does the maxillary sinus drain into?

inferior nasal meatus

Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain?

superior nasal meatus

Where does the posterior ethmoid sinuses drain?

superior nasal meatus

Where does the sphenoid sinuses drain into?

Module 1

Which American College of Radiology (ACR) CT accreditation phantom module is used to asses positioning and alignment? A. Module 1 B. Module 2 C. Module 3 D. Module 4

C. Module 1

Which American College of Radiology (ACR) CT accreditation phantom module is used to asses positioning and alignment? A. Module 2 B. Module 4 C. Module 1 D. Module 3

Gonadocorticoids

Which are secreted by the innermost region of the adrenal cortex? A. Mineralocorticoids B. Glucocorticoids C. Gonadocorticorticoids

Glucocorticoids

Which are secreted by the middle region of the adrenal cortex? A. Mineralocorticoids B. Glucocorticoids C. Gonadocorticoids

a) Glucocorticoids

Which are secreted by the middle region of the adrenal cortex? Question options: a) Glucocorticoids b) Gonadocorticoids c) Mineralocorticoids

X-Y

Which axis does the computer starting printing the design? A. X-Y B. Y-Z C. X-Z D. Z

Giving the patient an oral contrast agent

Which can most improve the demarcation of the esophagus and the gastroesophageal junction? a) Having the patient in the prone position b) Giving the patient an oral contrast agent c) Having the patient in a supine position d) Using the shortest scan time possible

Areas that have been treated with radiotherapy

Which causes a decrease in FDG uptake? A. chron's disease B. Autoimmune disease C. Granulomatous disease D. Areas that have been treated with radiotherapy

d) Areas that have been treated with radiotherapy

Which causes a decrease in FDG uptake? Question options: a) Autoimmune diseases b) Crohn's disease c) Granulomatous disease d) Areas that have been treated with radiotherapy

Right ventricle

Which cavity of the heart sends blood only to the lungs? A. RA B. LA C. LV D. RV

An individual with her arms along her side with the palms of the hands facing forward

Which characterizes classic "anatomic position"?

a) An individual with her arms along her side with the palms of the hands facing forward

Which characterizes classic "anatomic position"? Question options: a) An individual with her arms along her side with the palms of the hands facing forward b) An individual with her arms raised above her head with the palms of the hands facing forward c) An individual with her arms raised above her head with the palms of the hands facing backward d) An individual with her arms along her side with the palms of the hands facing backward

Equipment-based

Which classification of image artifacts causes ring artifacts? A. Technologist-based B. Computer-based C. Equipment-based

B. equipment-based

Which classification of image artifacts causes ring artifacts? A. patient-based B. equipment-based C. physics-based

b) Equipment-based

Which classification of image artifacts causes ring artifacts? Question options: a) Physics-based b) Equipment-based c) Patient-based

a) Equipment-based

Which classification of image artifacts causes ring artifacts? a) Equipment-based b) Physics-based c) Patient-based

Lesions with values greater than 2.5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 2 are usually benign.

Which correctly describes how the SUV correlates with the malignant potential of a lesion? a) Lesions with values less than 5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values greater than 3 are usually benign. b) Lesions with values greater than 2.5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 2 are usually benign. c) Lesions with values greater than 5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 3 are usually benign. d) Lesions with values less than 2.5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values greater than 2 are usually benign.

xenon gas must be kept under pressure in an aluminum casing.

Which is a disadvantage of using xenon gas detectors? A. They are more difficult to calibrate than the solid state variety B. Xenon gas must be kept under pressure in an aluminum casing C. They are highly unstable D. They are the most expensive type of detector to produce

The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time

Which is bandwidth? A. The transfer of data from one point to another B. The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time C. The transfer of data between two servers

c) Blu-ray disk

Which has the greatest storage capacity? Question options: a) CD b) DVD c) Blu-ray disk

Tricuspid

Which heart valve has three folds and is in the right side of the heart, between the right atrium and the right ventricle? A. Aortic B. Tricuspid C. Bicuspid

Aortic

Which heart valve is in the right side of the heart, between the left ventricle and the entrance to the aorta? A. Tricuspid B. Aortic C. Mitral D. Pulmonary

Using the shortest scan time possible

Which helps to reduce artifacts created by respiratory motion? A. Using the longest scan time possible B. Using the shortest scan time possible C. Using the longest pitch D. Using the shortest pitch

PET

Which imaging structure creates images of the body's physiologic functions, such as blood flow and metabolism? A. CT B. MRI C. X-RAY D. PET

d) PET

Which imaging structure creates images of the body's physiologic functions, such as blood flow and metabolism? Question options: a) CT b) MRI c) Radiography d) PET

c) Using false reassurance

Which is a communication habit to avoid? Question options: a) Nodding or head-shaking b) Asking questions of a listener to see whether he or she understands c) Using false reassurance d) Acknowledging the many possibilities for misunderstanding

c) Using false reassurance

Which is a communication habit to avoid? a) Nodding or head-shaking b) Acknowledging the many possibilities for misunderstanding c) Using false reassurance d) Asking questions of a listener to see whether he or she understands

C. Axial scanning

Which is another name for step-and-shoot scanning? a) Localizer scanning b) Helical scanning c) Axial scanning d) Spiral scanning

Maximize the use of thin slices

Which is not a strategy for reducing CT radiation dose? A. Faster scan times B. Patient shielding C. Maximize the use of thin slices D. Limiting the region covered

A. Medial cubital vein

Which is not a superficial vein of the hand? A. Median cubital vein B. Cephalic vein B. Dorsal venous arch D. Dorsal digital vein

c) Use of thick sections

Which is not a technical parameters used for CT imaging of the airways? Question options: a) A fast acquisition that allows the entire lungs to be scanned during a single breath-hold b) Use of post-processing techniques c) Use of thick sections d) Optimal spatial resolution

scanner

Which is not a type of device used to display CT images? A. Monitor B. Scanner C. Computer

Workstation-created

Which is not a type of segmentation? A. Manual B. Semiautomatic C. workstation D. Fully automated

d) Workstation-created

Which is not a type of segmentation? a) Semiautomatic b) Manual c) Fully automated d) Workstation-created

d) PowerPICC

Which is not a type of tunneled catheter? Question options: a) Broviac b) Groshong c) Hickman d) PowerPICC

Technologist-based

Which is not a typical classification for the causes of artifacts? A. Computer based B. Scanner based C. Technologist based

A. technologist-based

Which is not a typical classification for the causes of artifacts? A. technologist-based B. physics-based C. patient-based D. equipment-induced

dorsal

Which is not a vein in which a non-tunneled central catheter is inserted? A. Dorsal B. Jugular C. Femoral D. Subclavian

b) Dorsal

Which is not a vein in which a non-tunneled central catheter is inserted? Question options: a) Subclavian b) Dorsal c) Jugular d) Femoral

the depiction of a three-dimensional object as a two-dimensional image

Which is not an advantage of CT over conventional radiography? A. Higher quality images B. Quicker scan times C. The depiction of a three-dimensional object as a two-dimensional image

d) The depiction of a three-dimensional object as a two-dimensional image

Which is not an advantage of CT over conventional radiography? Question options: a) The superior quality of the images b) The elimination of superimposed structures c) The ability to differentiate small differences in density of anatomic structures and abnormalities d) The depiction of a three-dimensional object as a two-dimensional image

d) Defining a region of interest

Which is the first step in many image display and measurement functions? a) Performing distance measurements b) Calculating the standard deviation for an area of interest c) Calculating the Hounsfield for an area of interest d) Defining a region of interest

Benign adrenal lesions tend to grow slowly.

Which statement about adrenal lesions is true? A. A right-sided adrenal mass may displace the kidney anteriorly B. Benign adrenal lesions tend to grow slowly C. Benign adrenal lesions tend to grow quickly D. Malignant adrenal lesions tend to grow slowly

It allows the acquisition of slices as thin as 0.2 mm.

Which statement about multidetector row CT (MDCT) is not true? A. It allows the acquisition of slices as thin as 1.25 mm B. It allows the acquisition of slices as thin as 0.2 mm

FDM

Which type of printing method involves using a cartridge of plastic beads that are heated to form a solid object, layer by layer? A. SLS B. TIJ C. RCF D. FDM

SLS

Which type of printing method involves using a laser to draw the shape of the object in powder and fuses the powder into solid form? A. FDM B. CAD C. SLS

SLS

Which type of printing method involves using a laser to draw the shape of the object in powder and fuses the powder into solid form? Question options: FDM TIJ SLS RCF

FDM

Which type of printing method is the cheapest and most common? A. FDM B. Rotary C. Heat transfer D. RFM

localizer scans

Which type of scans are digital image acquisitions that are created while the tube is stationary and the table moves through the scan field? A. Axial scans B. Spiral scans C. Helical scans D. Localizer scans

RAM

Which type of storage is volatile? A. RAM B. WORM C. ROM D. Hard disk

Thrombotic

Which type of stroke occurs when a clot that forms as the result of atherosclerosis blocks an artery that supplies blood to the brain. A. Hemorrhagic B. Thrombotic C. Ischemic

thrombotic

Which type of stroke occurs when a clot that forms as the result of atherosclerosis blocks an artery that supplies blood to the brain. A. Ischemic B. Thrombotic C. Hemorrhagic

Lacunar strike

Which type of stroke occurs when a small artery, such as those that supply the deep cerebral white matter, is blocked? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhagic B. Hypotensive C. Thrombotic D. Lucunar strike

Skin reactions

Which types of reaction appear to account for the majority of true late reactions? A. Breathing reactions B. Skin reactions C. Heart rate reactions

c) Skin reactions

Which types of reaction appear to account for the majority of true late reactions? Question options: a) Gastrointestinal disturbances b) Dizziness c) Skin reactions d) Headaches

c) Skin reactions

Which types of reaction appear to account for the majority of true late reactions? a) Dizziness b) Headaches c) Skin reactions d) Gastrointestinal disturbances

CT technologists and medical physicists

Who often share the responsibility for performing and documenting quality control tests? A. CT technologists and medical physicists B. CT techs and physicians C. Medical physicists and scanner manufacturers

C. CT technologists and medical physicists

Who often share the responsibility for performing and documenting quality control tests? A. CT technologists and physicians B. medical physicists and scanner manufacturers C. CT technologists and medical physicists D. physicians and medical physicists

a radiologist

Who typically determines the proper protocol for a CT examination? A. A radiologist B. The attending nurse C. A technologist D. The ordering physician

increases in performance and processor design eliminated the need for them

Why did array processors become obsolete? A. They were no longer compatible with all computer types B. They became too expensive to use C. Increases in performance and processor desing eliminated the need for them

due to the dense bone of the skull

Why does beam hardening occur in images of the posterior fossa?

it limits the amount of data to be volume averaged

Why does using a small pixel size reduce the likelihood of volume averaging? A. It limits the amount of data to be volume averaged B. It decreases the thickness of the plane C. It changes the temporal resolution D. It increases beam attenuation

atrial fibrillation

a disorder of heart rate & rhythm in which the atria are stimulated to contract in a very rapid or disorganized manner rather than in an organized one

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

a reversible episode of focal neurologic dysfunction that typically lasts anywhere from a few minutes to a few hours & are caused by tiny emboli that lodge into an artery, then quickly break up & dissolve with no residual damage

decreased voltage

a step-down transformer results in:

alternating current in the primary coil of wire

With mutual induction, to induce voltage in the secondary coil, there must be: A. alternating current in the secondary coil of wire B. Alternating current in the primary coil of wire c. Direct current in the primary coil of wire D. Direct current in the secondary coil of wire

b and c

With self-induction, the secondary current: A. is in a secondary coil B. is in the original coil C. opposes the original current D. b and c

November 8, 1895

X-rays were discovered: A. November 8, 1995 B. November 8, 1695 C. November 8, 1895 D. November 8, 1795

Reducing the DFOV is referred to as

Zooming or targeting

interscan delay

_____ is the time between each acquisition when the table moves to the next scan position and the scanner readies itself for the next acquisition.

tungsten

______ is often used for the anode target material because it produces a higher-intensity x-ray beam. A. Zinc B. Aluminum C. Tungsten D. Steel

Social

_______ distance is suitable for business discussions and conversations at social gatherings.

Vital signs

_________ are the best early indicators of a physiologic change in a patient.

tactile

_________ communication cues involve the use of touch to impart meaning.

viscosity

_________ is a physical property that may be described as the thickness or friction of the fluid as it flows.

Detector pitch

_________ is defined as table movement per rotation time divided by the selected slice thickness of the detector.

b) detector pitch

_________ is defined as table movement per rotation time divided by the selected slice thickness of the detector. Question options: a) FOV b) detector pitch c) detector array d) DFOV

pitch

_________ is the relationship between slice thickness and table travel per rotation during a helical scan acquisition.

b) WORM

_________ refers to computer storage devices that can be written to once, but read from many times. Question options: a) Floppy Drive b) WORM c) BUG d) Hard drive

c) Beam hardening

__________ artifacts appear as dark streaks or vague areas of decreased density on a CT image Question options: a) Out-of-field b) Ring c) Beam hardening d) Quantum mottle

social

__________ distance is suitable for business discussions and conversations at social gatherings.

Extravasation

__________ is the leakage of fluid from a vein into the surrounding tissue during IV administration. A. Extravasation B. Intravasation C. Hydrostatic D. Hydrostasis

focused

__________ questions allow you to get directly to the relevant points and reduce rambling explanations from the patient.

C. Spatial

__________ resolution describes the ability of a system to define small objects distinctly. a) Temporal b) Contrast c) Spatial d) High

CT arthrography

___________ is useful for evaluation of the joint capsule and intracapsular structures and for finding loose bodies within the joint.

Hypertension

___________ refers to blood pressure that is abnormally high.

C. Lateral

___________ refers to movement towards the sides of the body. a) Dorsal b) Ventral c) Lateral d) Medial

uniformity

___________ refers to the ability of the scanner to yield the same CT number regardless of the location of an ROI within a homogeneous object?

Pitch

____________ is the relationship between slice thickness and table travel per rotation during a helical scan acquisition.

Image Noise

____________ is the undesirable fluctuation of pixel values in an image of homogeneous material.

contrast agents

_____________ fill a structure with a material that has a different density than that of the structure.

Linearity

______________ refers to the relationship between CT numbers and the linear attenuation values of the scanned object at a designated kVp value.

a detector pitch

_______________ is defined as table movement per rotation time divided by the selected slice thickness of the detector.

Uniformity

_______________ refers to the ability of the scanner to yield the same CT number regardless of the location of an ROI within a homogeneous object.

less invasive, widely available, less expensive, & time-saving

advantages of CTA head & neck exams when compared to traditional angiography

display of cross-sectional anatomy & spatial relationships ability to image both sides of the body to permit comparison ability to display bone & soft tissue components excellent contrast sensitivity ability to perform multiplanar & 3D reformation retrospectively

advantages of using CT to image the musculoskeletal system

eustachian tube (auditory tube)

air is conveyed from the nasopharynx to the tympanic cavity through this

paranasal sinuses

air-containing cavities within the facial bones and skull that communicate with the nasal cavity

infundibulum

an important landmark of the paranasal sinuses

80%

approximately ______ of strokes are ischemic

30-60 minutes

approximately how long after the intravenous FDG injection is placed on the examination table?

The process of saving image data from the originating modality to an electronic medium is called ___

archiving

infarction

areas of tissue death that occur because of a local lack of oxygen

occipital condyles

articulate with first cervical vertebra (atlas), forming the atlantooccipital joint

at what age does bowel activity decrease?

anterior band

attaches to the lateral pterygoid muscle

Adjacent tissues must have different___to be distinguishable on a CT image.

attenuation

Visual communication is often called___language.

body

crista galli

bony projection stemming from the midline of the cribriform plate, projects superiorly to act as an attachment for the falx cerebri, which is connective tissue that anchors the brain to the anterior cranial fossa

Prussak's space

bordered laterally by the tympanic membrane, superiorly by the scutum, medially by the neck of the mallus, and inferiorly by the lateral process of the malleus

sphenoid

butterfly-shaped bone that extends completely across the floor of the middle cranial fossa, forms the majority of the base of the skull and articulates with the occipital, temporal, parietal, frontal and ethmoid bones.

60%

emboli account for about ______ of strokes

mastoid process

encloses the mastoid air cells and mastoid antrum

Cables made up of twisted pairs of copper wire are called___cables.

ethernet

atrial fibrillation, heart valves, heart attack, fat particles,

factors that can cause emboli

location & extent of lesion severity of blood flow reduction

factors that determine the outcome in the treatment of stroke

Termporalis

fan-shaped, originates on the temporal fossa, inserts on the coronoid process and anterior ramus of the mandible, and elevates the mandible

posterior band

fibrous connections to both the temporal bone and the posterior aspect of the condyle

cribriform plate

fits into the ethmoid notch of the frontal bone, contains may foramina for the passage of the olfactory nerve fibers

pterygopalatine fossa

gap between the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone, maxilla, and palatine bones. Contains the maxillary nerve, the pterygopalatine ganglion, and the third part of the maxillary artery

semilunar hiatus

gap located between the ethmoid bulla and unicate process that forms the opening of the infundibulum.

In CT, enhancement falls into the two main categories of intravascular and ___

gastrointestinal

accurately measure stenosis of carotid & vertebral arteries evaluate circle of willis using 3D reformation detect other vascular lesions

goals of CTA for cervicocranial vascular evaluation

subarachnoid stroke

hemorrhage that occurs when there is bleeding into the subarachnoid spaces & CSF spaces

intracerebral hemorrhage

hemorrhage that occurs within the brain parenchyma itself & hematoma often results

Unciate process

hook-like process that arises from the floor of the anterior ethmoid sinuses and projects posteriorly and inferiorly, ending in a free edge

sella turcica

houses the hypophysis (pituitary gland)

by exclusively using intermittent fluoroscopy

how can dose rates be minimized when CTF is used?

by exclusively using intermittent fluoroscopy

how can dose rates by minimized when CTF is used

from 4-6 hours

how many hours is a patient required to fast before a PET examination?

60 times

how many times more common are adrenal masses that are benign cortical adenomas than those that are primary adrenal cortical carcinomas?

1-3 hours

how much of a time delay if recommended when CT is performed after intrathecal contrast administration for fluoroscopic myelography?

posterior compartment

located behind the lens and is surrounded by the retina, contains a jelly-like substance called the vitreous humor that helps maintain the shape of the globe

endolymphatic sac

located between two dural layers on the posterior wall fo the petrous pyramid

Meckel's cave

located between two layers of dura and encloses the trigeminal ganglion, it is filled with cerebral spinal fluid and is continuous with the pontine cistern and subarachnoid space

lacrimal gland

located in the lacrimal groove, superior and lateral to the globe, where it provides most of the tear volume

hypoglassal canal

located obliquely at the base of the condyles and anterolateral to the foramen magnum, which the hypoglossal nerve passes through

mastoid antrum

located on the anterosuperior portion of the mastoid process, it is an air-filled cavity that communicates with the middle ear (tympanic cavity) (D)

internal occipital protuberance

located on the inner surface of the squama is a bony projection, where the dural venous sinuses converge

attic (epitympanum)

located superior to the tympanic membrane and contains the head of the malleus and body of the incus. it communicates with the mastoid air cells through a narrow opening called the aditus ad antrum mastoideum

round window

located within the basilar turn of the cochlea, allows the fluid of the inner ear to move slightly for propagation of sound waves and nerve impulses to be sent to the brain

frontal sinuses

located within the vertical portion of the frontal bone. Typically paired and are separated along the sagittal plane by a septum. Rarely symmetric, vary in size, and can contain numerous septa. Do not form until about 6 years old, which means they are absent at birth.

the smallest object that can be visualized at a given contrast level and dose

low-contrast detectability

Describe the relationship between magnitude and frequency (lp/cm)

magnitude reduces as the frequency of bar pattern increases

CT venography (CTV)

modification of CTA that is used for the depiction of venous anatomy

temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

modified hinge joint that allows for the necessary motions of mastication

a quantitative measure of the ability of an imaging system to reproduce patterns that vary in spatial frequency useful in predicting image degradation in a series of radiographic components

modulation transfer function

platelet count

most laboratory evaluations for CT guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and ________________

platelet count

most laboratory evaluations for CT-guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time and ________________

platelet count

most laboratory evaluations for CT-guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and ____________

platelet count

most laboratory evaluations for CT-guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and _______________

false

most medical use objects can be printed in minutes if not seconds

pterygoid canal

opening for the passage of the petrosal nerve

internal auditory canal

opening in the petrous portion of the temporal bone where both the 8th and the 7th cranial nerves exit

base

opens out into the face, and is bounded by the eyelids. It is also known as the orbital rim

lateral pterygoid

opens the jaw and protrudes and moves the mandible from side to side

The property of intravascular contrast media that refers to the number of particles in solution, per unit liquid, as compared with blood is called ___

osmolality

A___defines a common set of rules and signals that computers on the network use to communicate.

protocol

helps visualize intradural structures

purpose of intrathecal contrast administration for spine imaging procedures

petrous portion

pyramidal shape and situated at an angle between the sphenoid and occipital bones

alveolar process of mandible

receives the roots of the teeth of the lower jaw

refers to the diameter of the reconstructed area in millimeters or centimeters covered by the image

reconstruction FOV

tegmen tympani

roof of the epitympanum is separated from the middle cranial fossa by a thin layer of bone

the ability to observe low-contrast objects whose density is slightly different from the background

sensitivity

Petro-occipital fissure

separates the petrous portion of the temporal bone from the foramen magnum of the occipital bone

scutum

sharp, bony spur on the lateral wall of the tympanic cavity and the superior wall of the external auditory meatus. Provides the superior attachment site for the tympanic membrane

stylomastoid foramen

situated between the mastoid process and the styloid process, constitutes the end of the facial nerve canal.

palatine bone

slightly L-shaped and are located in the posterior aspect of the nasal cavity between the maxilla and the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone

vestibule

small bony compartment located between the semicircular canals and the cochlea

____distance is suitable for business discussions and conversations at social gatherings.

social

external auditory meatus

sound-conducting canal that terminates at the tympanic membrane of the middle ear

Describes the scanner's ability to resolve closely placed objects that are significantly different from their background

spatial resolution

what does the term 'in-plane' refer to in spatial resolution?

spatial resolution measured in the axial plane (x-y plane

cochlea

spiral-shaped structure with a base that lies on the internal auditory canal

diploe

spongy bone between the two layers of compact bone in the skull?

motion of any variety will manifest itself on a CT image as ____ artifacts

streak

ischemic stroke

stroke caused by a blockage in an artery; the most common type of stroke

hemorrhagic stroke

stroke caused by a tear in the artery's wall that produces bleeding in the brain which causes a leakage of blood into the brain parenchyma or CSF spaces; classified by how & where they occur

hypertension homocysteine & vitamin B deficiencies cholesterol atrial fibrillation heart disease diabetes mellitus migraine heredity smoking obesity alcohol & drug abuse

stroke risk factors

lacrimal canaliculi

tears collect in the area of the medial canthus and subsequently empty into the small canals called the what?

cerebrovascualar accident

term used to describe stroke; no longer favor because it implies a random, unpredictable, or uncertain nature to the condition

2-2.5

the SUV of the liver should be in what range?

1.5-2

the SUV of the mediastinal blood pool should be in what range?

gonion

the angle created by the junction of the vertical and horizontal portions of the mandible are called?

Tuberculum sellae

the anterior portion of the sella turcica

collateral ligaments

the articular disk is attached to the medial and lateral surfaces of the condyle by the?

What is the cause for the 'cupping' artifact

the body hardens the beam thus increasing the attenuation numbers in the center

mandibular fossa

the depression that articulates with the condyloid process of the mandible, creating the temporomandibular joint

posterior clinoid process

the dorsum sellae gives rise to this

intracerebral & subarachnoid

classification types of hemorrhagic strokes

infundibulum

common channel that drains the ostia of the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses to the middle meatus

internal carotid artery, carotid siphon, & the proximal middle cerebral & vertebral arteries

common focal sites of cerebrovascular atherosclerosis

tympanic cavity

communicates with both the mastoid antrum and the nasopharynx

semicircular canals

continuous with the vestibule and are easily identified because of their three separate passages that are at right angles to each other. they are lined with microscopic hairs called cilia and are filled with fluid known as endolymph.

intracranial hemorrhage multilobular infarction witness seizure at onset of stroke active or acute trauma (fracture) acute bleeding diathesis (use of blood thinner) arterial puncture at a noncompressible site within last 7 days

contraindications for receiving t-PA

split bolus

contrast injection technique in which the total contrast dose is split, often in half; the first dose is given, delay is observed, & then second dose is administered

superior levator palpebrae

controls the movement of the upper eyelid

Zygomatic bone

create the prominence of the cheek bone and contribute to the lateral portion of the bony orbit

squamous portion

curves posterosuperiorly from the foramen magnum to articulate with the parietal and temporal bones

cerebrovascular reserve capacity (CVRC)

describes how far cerebral perfusion can increase from a baseline value after undergoing stimulation through the intravenous administration of acetazolamide; essentially a stress test for the brain

The Reconstruction FOV is sometimes called the

display FOV or DFOV

maxillary ostium

drainage channel of the maxillary sinus

ostia

drainage of the paranasal sinuses occurs through various openings called what?

true

drugs may be 3D printed in the future to make time release more accurate

pterion

the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones unite here, the thinnest part of the skull, the middle meningeal artery runs in a groove on the inner table of the skull in this area (fractures in this area can be complicated by injury to the middle meningeal artery and formation of an extradural hematoma)

false

the image shown is of the left wrist?

lacrimal groove

the junction between the lacrimal bones and the maxillae, which accommodates the lacrimal sacs that are part of the drainage route for excess lacrimal fluid (tears)

basal lamella

the lateral attachment of the middle nasal conchae to the lamina papyracea

basal ganglia

the level most frequently scanned for brain perfusion scans because it contains territories supplied by the anterior, middle, & posterior cerebral arteries

tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

the only FDA-approved treatment for acute ischemic stroke that has been shown to reduce disability, leading to an overall cost savings in hospital, nursing home, & rehabilitation care expenses

the overall complication rate for a fine-needle biopsy is approximately what percent?

hypotympanum

the portion of the middle ear that is located inferior to the lower border of the tympanic membrane and is the site of the tympanic opening for the eustachian tube

mesotympanum

the portion of the middle ear that is medial to the tympanic membrane and contains the stapes, the long process of the incus, the handle of the malleus, and the oval and round windows

dorsum sellae

the posterior portion of the sella turcica

stenosis

the slow thickening, hardening, and narrowing of a blood vessel which reduces blood flow

masseter

the strongest muscle of the jaw, arising from the zygomatic arch and inserting on the ramus and angle of the mandible. It elevates the mandible

vertex

the superior point between the parietal bones, the highest point of the cranium

penumbra

the surviving tissue at the margin of infarcted tissue that is destined for infarction but it not yet irreversibly injured; affected area that may be salvageable with the administration of t-PA.

lateral wall

the thickest wall and is formed by the greater wing of the sphenoid bone and the zygoma

ischemic & hemorrhagic strokes

the third most frequent cause of death in North America

anterior clinoid process

the triangular shaped lesser wings attach to the superior aspect of the body and form two sharp points

thrombolytic therapy

the use of drugs to break up or dissolve blood clots

There are several influencing factors on subject contrast. what are they

thickness, mass density, atomic number, and incident photon energy

medial wall

thin and is formed by a portion of the frontal process of the maxilla, the lacrimal bone, the ethmoid bone, and the body of the sphenoid bone. The ethmoid bone separates the orbit from the ethmoid sinus

Partial volume artifacts can be reduced with

thinner slice acquisitions and computer algorithms

hypotensive stroke

third less-prevalent type of stroke that occurs as a result of blood pressure that is too low

The geometric arrangement of a computer system is referred to as its ___

topology

tympanic membrane

transmits sound vibrations to the auditory ossicles

superior orbital fissure

triangular-shaped opening located between the lesser and greater wings that allows for the transmission of the oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, and ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerves, as well as the superior ophthalmic vein

True or False: Partial volume artifacts can occur even with thin-slice acquisition if special attention is not paid to other accessories.

true

carotid arteries & the basilar artery formed by the vertebral arteries

two main arterial systems that provide oxygen for the brain

ischemic & hemorrhagic stroke

two main categories of strokes

thrombotic & embolic stroke

two main types of ischemic stroke

oval window

two openings of the vestibule

thrombotic stroke

type of ischemic stroke caused by a blood clot or fatty deposit within one of the brain's arteries

embolic stroke

type of ischemic stroke that results from a traveling particle that forms elsewhere & is too large to pass through small vessels & eventually lodges in a smaller artery

metopic suture

unites the 2 frontal bones

sagittal suture

unites the 2 parietal bones in the midline

coronal suture

unites the frontal bone with the parietal bone

lambdoid suture

unites the parietal bones with the occipital bone

squamous suture

unites the squamous portion of the temporal bone with the parietal bones

ethmoid bulla

usually a single air cell that projects inferomedially over the hiatus semilunaris

circle of willis

vascular structure located on the floor of the cranial cavity; is the point in which the carotid arteries & basilar artery join

A physical property that may be described as the thickness or friction of the fluid as it flows is called ____

viscosity

CT-guided biopsy

what are the most common interventional procedures

CT-guided biopsies

what are the most common interventional procedures?

to temporarily lower the patient heart rate

what is not a reason patients are given nitroglycerin sublingually before coronary CT examinations?

mandible

what is the largest facial bones?

25%

what is the lifetime rate of appendectomy for women if incidental appendectomies are included?

.STL

what is the most common file format used to 3D print after conversion from medical images?

completed stroke

what is the preferred medical term used to describe an acute episode of interrupted blood flow to the brain that lasts longer than 24 hours?

pneumothorax

what is the primary complication of CT-guided lung biopsies?

bleeding

what is the primary complication of all types of biopsy procedures?

1.25 mm

what is the typical slice thickness for studies of the head?

at end-diastole

what is typically the point of the cardiac cycle with the least cardiac motion?

50-70%

what percent of total energy is obtained from the oxidation of fatty acids

80-85%

what percent of urinary calculi is thought to pass spontaneously?

technologists are very rarely trained in both modalities

what staffing problem is caused by the evolution of hybrid PET/CT scanners?

between 5 and 10 minutes after administration

when does the peak effect of IV-push metoprolol occur?

when it occurs in post-menopausal women

when is an increase in endometrial FDG uptake associated with malignancy?

head and neck cancer or lymphoma

when muscle uptake if focal and unilateral interpretation is especially more difficult in patients who have which of the following?

head and neck cancer or lymphoma

when muscle uptake is focal and unilateral interpretation is especially more difficult in patients who have which of the following?

vestibule and semicircular canals

where balance is controlled

glucocorticoids

which are secreted by the middle region of the adrenal cortex?

X-Y

which axis does the computer start printing the design?

areas that have been treated with radiotherapy

which causes a decrease in FDG uptake?

right ventricle

which cavity of the heart sends blood only to the lungs?

an individual with her arms along her side with the palms of her hands facing outward

which characterizes classic "anatomic position"

lesions with values greater than 2.5 have been shown to have a likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 2 are usually benign

which correctly describes how the SUV correlates with the malignant potential of a lesion?

lesions with values greater than 2.5 have been shown to have likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 2 are usually benign

which correctly describes how the SUV correlates with the malignant potential of a lesion?

arteries or veins taken from elsewhere in the patients body are grafted from the aorta to the coronary arteries to bypass atherosclerotic narrowings and improve the blood supply to the coronary circulation supplying the myocardium

which describes CABG?

teeth grinding

which does not cause asymmetry in the salivary gland during FDG imaging?

SUV = radioactivity concentration in ROI / (injection dose (Bq) / patient weight (g))

which formula can be used to calculate SUV?

aortic

which heart valve is in the right side of the heart, between the left ventricle and the entrance to the aorta?

PET

which imaging structure creates images of the body's physiological functions, such as blood flow and metabolism?

the procedure can be lengthy

which is a drawback to using sequential CT scanning for intervention procedures?

window width approximately 450; window level approximately 50

which is a typical soft tissue window setting?

gas

which is not a high density material

gas

which is not a high-density material?

lungs

which is not a location where normal physiological accumulation of FDG occurs?

C shape

which is not a possible shape of the adrenal glands on a cross sectional image?

menstruation

which is not a reason for increased uptake in the breast?

hyperventilation

which may induce uptake in the diaphragm?

false negative rate

which of the following is NOT a potential harm of having a low dose lung scan:

after chemotherapy, there is increased uptake as a result of bone marrow recovery that usually resolves 1 month after recovery

which of the following statements is true?

in general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells

which of the following statements is true?

creation of customized prosthetics, implants and anatomical models, tissue and organ fabrication

which of the following technologies are actively being developed with 3D bioprinting?

creation of customized prosthetics, tissue and organ fabrication, implants and anatomical models

which of the following technologies are actively being developed with 3D bioprinting?

printing stem cells

which of the following was not listed as a future use of 3D printing?

because of radiation dose concerns, patients are limited to a single position during the procedure

which statement about CT interventional procedures is not true?

because of radiation dose concerns, patients are limited to a single positron during the procedure

which statement about CT interventional procedures is not true?

it allows the acquisition of slices as thin as 0.2 mm

which statement about multidetector row CT (MDCT) is not true?

intravenous contrast media is routinely administered for musculoskeletal trauma

which statement about musculoskeletal protocols is not true?

it has relatively poor contrast sensitivity

which statement about musculoskeletal scanning is not true?

it should be one of the last arteries to enhance

which statement is not true about the reference artery chosen during the post processing of CT perfusion scans?

hypertension

which stroke factors contribute to 70% of all strokes?

hypertension

which stroke risk factor contributes to 70% of all strokes?

SLS

which type of printing method involves using a laser to draw the shape of the object in powder and fuses the powder into solid form?

TIJ

which type of printing method involves using bioink?

FDM

which type of printing method is the cheapest and most common?

thrombotic

which type of stroke occurs when a clot that forms as a result of atherosclerosis blocks an artery that supplies blood to the brain

lacunar stroke

which type of stroke occurs when a small artery, such as those that supply the deep cerebral white matter is blocked

Aortic arch

white arrow

there is radiation exposure to the abdomen

why is positioning the patient's wrist on his abdomen for the a CT wrist examination the least desirable patient position?

Frontanel

within the neonatal cranium are six areas of incomplete ossification called?

Large intestine

Left kidney

Left pulmonary artery

Trachea

Blu-ray Disk

Which has the greatest storage capacity? A. Blu-ray disc B. CD C. DVD

inferior nasal conchae

(bottom part)

anterior fontanel

(bregma) the largest fontanel located at the junction of the upper, remains open until the age of 2

anterior cranial fossa

(frontal fossa) composed primarily of the frontal bone, ethmoid bone, and lesser wing of the sphenoid bone and contains the frontal lobes of the brain

floor

(inferior wall) roof of the maxillary sinus, is made up of the maxilla, zygoma, and palatine bone. The maxilla separates the orbit from the underlying maxillary sinus

Spinal canal (vertebral foramen)

An MTF of ____ indicates no transfer of object to image

CT is capable of detecting density differences as low as

0.25 - 0.5%

An MTF of ___ means the imaging system has reproduced the object exactly (100% transfer of information)

Anterior arch of C1

Anterior portion of transverse process

Corpus callosum

Frontal lobe

Inferior vena cava

Liver

Maxillary sinus

Pituitary gland

Superior vena cava

Lamina

Epiglottis

Lateral (Sylvian) fissure

Left common carotid artery

Main pulmonary artery

Mastoid air cells

Posterior horn of lateral ventricle

Psoas muscle

Stomach

Transverse foramen

Pancreas

true

3D printed anatomical parts can be used for surgery planning

true

3D printed anatomical parts can be used for surgery planning.

all of the above

3D printing is also known as: -Additive manufacturing -Rapid prototyping -Solid free-form technology -All of the above

false

3D printing is not suitable for made-to-order fixtures in operating rooms

false

3D printing is not suitable for made-to-order fixtures in operating rooms.

Anterior horn of lateral ventricle

Cerebellum

Hyoid bone

Gallbladder

4th ventricle

Aorta

Azygos vein

Caudate nucleus

Esophagus

Spinous process

Trachea

External auditory canal

Left subclavian artery

Posterior portion of transverse process

Right pulmonary artery

Spinal canal (vertebral foramen)

A single-sided DVD can store about___times the amount of data as a CD.

Pedicle

Spinous processes

pituitary

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 2 point to? A. Pituitary gland B. Pineal gland C. Parathyroid gland D. Thymus gland

C. pituitary

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 2 point to? A. frontal sinus B. sigmoid sinus C. pituitary D. cerebellum

B. nasal bones

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to? A. vomer B. nasal bones C. medulla oblongata D. eyes, lens

Computer-aided design

A CAD file is a: A. Computer additive display B. Computed axis design C. Computer aided design D. Common architectural display

Inferior vena cava

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 10 point to? A. Aorta B. Superior vena cava C. Pulmonary artery d. Inferior vena cava

Transverse colon

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 17 point to?

B. Transverse colon

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 17 point to? A. Left kidney B. Transverse colon C. Diaphragm D. Right adrenal gland

Duodenum

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 2 point to? A. Jejunum B. Duodenum C. Pancreas D. Ileocecal valve

Gluteus minimus muscle

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 20 point to? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus minimus C. Gluteus maximus D. Tensor facia lata muscle

Pancreas

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 23 point to? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Gallbladder D. Pancreas

Left external iliac vein

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 3 point to?

Left external iliac vein

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 3 point to? A. Left internal iliac vein B. Left external iliac vein C. Left femoral artery D. Left sartorius muslce

Coccyx

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 7 point to? A. Coccyx B. Femoral head C. Pubis D. Femur

Diaphragm

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 9 point to?

Hemiazygos vein

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 9 point to? A. Aorta B. Hemiazygos vein C. Superior mesenteric vein D. Inferior mesenteric vein

Diaphragm

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does number 9 point to? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Diaphragm D. Lung

D. Tensor fascia lata muscle

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What does the number 22 point to? A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus minimus C. Gluteus medius D. Tensor fascia lata muscle

Descending colon

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 15? A. Left ureter B. Ascending colon C. Descending colon D. Left kidney

Bladder

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 1? A. Trygone B. Prostate C. Bladder D. Urethra

Aorta

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 7? A. Esophagus B. Thyroid C. Aorta D. Superior vena cava

Liver

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What region is represented by number 14? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Pancreas D. Stomach

Stomach

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What region is represented by number 4? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Duodenum D. Stomach

Spleen

A CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. What region is represented by number 5? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Duodenum D. Azygos artery

Frontal Sinus

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to? A. Ethmoid sinus B. Sphenoid sinus C. Frontal sinus D. Occipital foramen

Nasal bones

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to? A. Spinal Canal B. Nasal bones C. Nasal septum D. Mastoid air cells

B. frontal sinus

A CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to? A. sigmoid sinus B. frontal sinus C. pituitary D. cerebellum

20%

Approximately _____ of strokes occur from hemorrhage.

seven times

A high-osmolality contrast media can be up to how many times greater than the osmolality of blood? A. Five B. Two C. Ten D. Seven

d) Seven times

A high-osmolality contrast media can be up to how many times greater than the osmolality of blood? Question options: a) Two times b) Ten times c) Four times d) Seven times

foramen magnum

A large opening at the base of the skull through which the brain connects to the spinal cord.

A. 0.8 second and 420 mA

A scanner allows mA choices in 20-mA increments from 20 to 700, and offers a choice of scan times from 0.4, 0.6, 0.8, 1.0, and 2.0 seconds. Which combination of mA and scan time will produce an mAs of 336? A. 0.8 second and 420 mA B. 0.6 second and 500 mA C. 0.4 second and 680 mA D. 1.0 second and 320 mA

7 times

A single-sided DVD can store about how many times more data than a CD? A. 5 times B. 10 times C. 2 times D. 7 times

a. increased current

A step-down transformer results in: A. increased current B. increased voltage C. a and b D. none of the above

increased voltage

A step-up transformer results in:

In communication, you should assume that a nonresponsive patient cannot hear you. A) True B) False

MIP

Accordingd to the ACR, what type of post-processing should be a regular part of a low dose CT lung scan protocol? A. MPR B. MIP C. AEC

attenuation coefficients

Adjacent tissues must have different __________________ to be distinguishable on a CT image.

lacrimal sac

After going through the lacrimal canaliculi, where do tears go?

15 - 25 seconds after the contrast bolus

After the intravenous (IV) administration of a bolus of contrast material, when does the hepatic arterial phase typically occur? A. 1 minute after the contrast bolus B. 30-45 seconds after the contrast bolus C. Immediately after the contrast bolus D. 15-25 seconds after the contrast bolus

nasolacrimal duct

After the lacrimal sac, where do tears go?

The result of an insufficient number of data samples for the spatial frequencies encountered in the body

Aliasing

an atom and the electron that was removed from it

An ion pair is: A. An atom and the proton that was removed from it B. An atom and the electron that was removed from it C. An atom and the neutron that was removed from it

photons

An x-ray beam consists of bundles of energy known as _______ A. Electrons B. Photons C. Protons D. Neutrons

dual-focus tube

An x-ray tube with two filaments is called a: A. Single focus tube B. Dual focus tube C. Multi focus tube

20-30% of victims don't survive & 55% have disability

Approximately _____ to _____ of stroke victims do not survive, & ________ of stroke survivors have a disability.

How many grams of iodine will be delivered when 100 mL of an agent with a concentration of 375 mgI/mL is injected? A) 3.75 g B) 37.5 g C) 3750 g D) 37,500 g

Artifact

Any object seen on the image that is not present in the object scanned is considered an _______________.

anterior compartment

Anterior to the lens and contains the cornea and iris and is filled with aqueous humor that helps maintain intraorbital pressure

At what age does bowl activity decrease? A. 50 B. 60 C. 45 D. 75

The CT number is related to the ____ _____ of the object

Attenuation coefficient

Adding an iodinated agent to the bloodstream will temporarily decrease the beam-attenuating ability of the blood. A) True B) False

Communication is the transmission of meaning. A) True B) False

Descending aorta

Which is not true about the effects of iodinated contrast agents on thyroid function? A) In the absence of thyroid disease the administration of iodinated contrast agents will have no significant impact on thyroid function. B) In patients with hyperthyroidism, iodinated contrast media can often precipitate thyroid storm C) In patients with hypothyroidism, particularly those with autoimmune thyroiditis, there may be a small, temporary reduction in thyroid function, which does not require additional treatment. D) In patients with a history ot hyperthyroidism, iodinated contrast media can intensify thyroid toxicosis

Which statement is not true about a LAN? A) It typically uses Ethernet cables to connect computers B) The computers in a LAN are geographically distant C) It can be a combination of network topologies D) A LAN can be a wired network

With intravenous administration, what is the risk of recurrent reaction in a patient with a prior reaction when HOCM is used? A) 5% to 10% B) 16% to 35% C) 10% to 50% D) 100%

Describes and increase in the mean energy of a polychromatic beam as it passes through an object

Beam hardening

Refers to an increase in the mean energy of the x-ray beam as it passes through the patient

Beam hardening

Partial volume artifacts appear as ______and _______

Bands and streaks

decreased exposure toward the anode end of the beam

Based on the anode heel effect, an image taken at 40 inches SID may demonstrate: A. Increased exposure toward the anode end of the beam B. Decreased exposure toward the anode end of the beam

65 to 70 bpm

Beta-blockers are used as part of a CT cardiac protocol to lower the heart rate to less than how many beats per minute (bpm)? A. 65 to 70 bpm B. 60 to 50 bpm C. 70 to 75 bpm D. 50 to 55 bpm

anger

Blame decreases the patient's level of self-confidence and, most often, results in the patient responding with _______ or defensiveness.

optic strut

Bony root/inferior root, separating optic canal from superior orbital Fissure

braking radiation

Bremsstrahlung means:

Esophagus

How many bits are in a byte of storage? A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 128

Proper street behavior among Americans permits passersby to look at each other until they are approximately how many feet apart? A) 2 feet B) 6 feet C) 8 feet D) 10 feet

Studies have shown that what percent of the meaning we derive from communication comes from the nonverbal cues that the other person gives? A) 50% B) 75% C) 90% D) 100%

What is considered intimate distance for North Americans? A) 12 inches or less B) 15 inches or less C) 18 inches or less D) 25 inches or less

What is the approximate half-life of the iodinated contrast media? A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 4 hours

What is the most common formula for calculating the dose of intravascular contrast for pediatric CT studies? A) 0.5 mL/kg B) 1 mL/kg C) 2 mL/kg D) 4 mL/kg

What type of contrast agent has osmolality equal to that of blood? A) High-osmolality contrast media B) Low-osmolality contrast media C) Isomolar contrast agent

Which is bandwidth? A) A strategy for routing data between computers in a network B) The width of the Ethernet cable connecting computers in a network C) The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time D) A network topology

Which is true about meanings with respect to communication? A) Meanings are not entirely contained in the message. They are interpreted by the message senders. B) Meanings are never contained in the message. C) Meanings are not entirely contained in the message. They are interpreted by the message receivers. D) Meanings are entirely contained in the message.

Which nonverbal communication category includes facial expression and posture? A) Distance B) Tactile C) Visual D) Vocal

Which nonverbal communication category involves the use of touch to impart meaning? A) Visual B) Distance C) Tactile D) Vocal

Which nonverbal communication category refers to the intonation of a person's voice? A) Visual B) Tactile C) Vocal D) Distance

Which types of reaction appear account for the majority of true late reactions? A) dizziness B) headaches C) skin reactions D) gastrointestinal disturbances

vertebral prominens

C7 is also known as the ______.

Any discrepancy between the reconstructed CT numbers in the image and the true attenuation coefficients of the object

CT Image Artifact

helical

CT angiography (CTA) of the head and neck are usually done using which scan method?

Helical

CT angiography (CTA) studies of the head and neck are usually done using which scan method? A. Step-and-shoot B. Axial C. Helical

CT brain perfusion

CT method that provides a qualitative & quantitative evaluation of cerebral perfusion by calculating the regional blood flow (rCBF), regional blood volume (rCBV), & mean transit time; images are obtained by monitoring the passage of iodinated contrast through the cerebral vasculature

b and c

Characteristic x-ray photons result: A. When an outer-shell electron is knocked out B. When an inner-shell electron is knocked out C. When outer-shell electrons fill the vacancy in an inner shell D. b and c

removing a middle- or outer-shell electron

Compton scattering involves the x-ray photon: A. Removing a k-shell electron B. Removing a middle or outer shell electron C. Removing a proton

2) removing a middle- or outer-shell electron

Compton scattering involves the x-ray photon: 1) being absorbed in the atom 2) removing a middle- or outer-shell electron 3) removing an inner-shell electron 4) passing through the atom without any change

external ear

Contains the auricle and the external auditory meatus?

middle ear

Contains the tympanic membrane and three auditory ossicles: malleus, incus and stapes

Where the CT number difference between objects and background is small

Contrast resolution

This dictates that for a uniform phantom, the CT number measurement should not change with the location of the selected ROI or with the phantom position relative to the isocenter of the scanner

Ct number uniformity

Among healthcare workers, what has been cited as the primary reason for not talking more with patients? A) Poor patient communication skills B) Poor worker communication skills C) Language barriers D) Lack of time

Right lung

What barrier to communication is a result of messages being unreliable or inconsistent? A) Power struggles B) Language C) Receiver distortion D) Fuzzy transmission

What is considered public distance for North Americans? A) 4 feet or more B) 6 feet or more C) 8 feet or more D) 12 feet or more

What is considered social distance for North Americans? A) 18 inches or less B) 12 feet or more C) 1.5 to 4 feet D) 4-12 feet

Which is not an optical storage device? A) CD B) DVD C) Blu-ray disk D) RAID

Occurs because of random electrical interference within the myriad electronic component in the system

Electronic noise

B. 4 days to 10 days

During which days in the life of an intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) is likely to contain a hyperdesne center surrounded by concentric areas of hyperdense and hypodense tissue? A. 11 days to 6 months B. 4 days to 10 days C. Onset to 3 days D. After 6 months

Inferior vena cava

Decreasing the number is projections will ______ the amount of data thereby decreasing spatial resolution

Decrease

Increasing the beam filtration and patient size _____ photon flux

Decreases

How does a decease in section thickness affect spatial resolution?

Decreasing section thickness increases spatial resolution

RAS

Directional coordinate systems are called _______ systems.

true

Drugs may be 3D printed in the future to make time release more accurate.

d) 4 days to 10 days

During which days in the life of an intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) is it likely to contain a hyperdense center surrounded by concentric areas of hyperdense and hypodense tissue? Question options: a) After 6 months b) Onset to 3 days c) 11 days to 6 months d) 4 days to 10 days

the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of radioactive element to decay

Half-life is defined as: the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of radioactive element to die the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of radioactive element to decay the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of radioactive element to disintegrate

3) the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of a radioactive element to decay

Half-life is defined as: 1) half the time it takes for all of the remaining atoms in an amount of a radioactive element to decay 2) half the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of a radioactive element to decay 3) the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of a radioactive element to decay 4) none of the above

b) 60 times

How many times more common are adrenal masses that are benign cortical adenomas than those that are primary adrenal cortical carcinomas. Question options: a) 30 times b) 60 times c) 10 times d) 5 times

An area where there is a sudden and quick drop in CT numbers

High contrast region

Selecting a ___ _____ ____ which is a bone algorithm or edge enhancing algorithm can aid in imaging high contrast regions

High pass filter

true

High-frequency generators are currently used in CT.

d) Approximately 10%

How much do extra images add to the patient's radiation dose from the examination? Question options: a) Approximately 25% b) Approximately 50% c) Approximately 1% d) Approximately 10%

As reactions occurring between 1 hour and 1 week after contrast medium injection

How are delayed reactions to intravascular iodinated contrast media defined? A) Reactions occurring between 1 hour and 1 week after contrast medium injection. B) Reactions occurring between 1 hour and 1 day after contrast medium injection. C) Reactions occurring between 1 day and 1 month after contrast medium injection. D) Reactions occurring between 1 day and 1 week after contrast medium injection.

While the patient lies in a supine position on the scan table with the arms elevated above the head

How are most protocols of the abdomen and pelvis performed? a) While the patient lies in a supine position on the scan table with the arms elevated above the head b) While the patient lies in a prone position on the scan table with the arms elevated above the head c) While the patient lies in a supine position on the scan table with the arms at the sides d) While the patient lies in a prone position on the scan table with the arms at the sides

By exclusively using intermittent fluoroscopy

How can dose rates be minimized when CTF is used? A. By changing the type of instrument used B. By exclusively using intermittent fluoro C. By increasing tube current D. By changing the patient's position

b) By exclusively using intermittent fluoroscopy

How can dose rates be minimized when CTF is used? Question options: a) By changing the type of instrument used b) By exclusively using intermittent fluoroscopy c) By increasing tube current d) By changing the patient's position

hold on expiration or use sand bags

How do you get the shoulders out of view?

By removing some of the soft x-rays

How does filtration affect the radiation dose? A. By removing some of the hard x-rays B. By removing some of the soft x-rays

By finding the standard deviation of the CT numbers within the region of interest

How is noise measured? A. By image comparison B. By finding the standard deviation of the CT numbers within the region of interest C. By finding the difference in window width and level

C. by finding the standard deviation of the CT numbers within the region of interest

How is noise measured? A.by finding the variance of the CT numbers within the region of interest B. by finding the standard median of the CT numbers within the region of interest C. by finding the standard deviation of the CT numbers within the region of interest D. by finding the mean of the CT numbers within the region of interest

The patient is positioned supine on the CT table with the arm to be examined downward alongside the body and the opposite arm extended over the patient's head.

How is the patient positioned for a CT arthrography of the shoulder? A. The patient positioned supine on the CT table with the arm to be examined downward alongside the body and the opposite arm extended over the patient's head. B. The patient positioned prone on the CT table with the arm to be examined downward alongside the body and the opposite arm extended over the patient's head. C. The patient positioned supine on the CT table with the arm to be examined upward over the patient's head D. The patient positioned prone on the CT table with the arm to be examined upward over the patient's head

The patient lies supine on the scanner table with legs extended, knees side-by-side, and enters the scanner feet first.

How is the patient positioned for a CT of the knee? a) The patient lies supine on the scanner table with legs extended, knees side-by-side, and enters the scanner feet first. b) The patient lies supine on the scanner table with legs bent, knees side-by-side, and enters the scanner head first. c) The patient lies supine on the scanner table with legs extended, knees side-by-side, and enters the scanner head first. d) The patient lies supine on the scanner table with legs bent, knees side-by-side, and enters the scanner feet first.

supine & feet first

How is the patient positioned when imaging the lower extremities?

supine & head first

How is the patient positioned when imaging the upper extremities?

one

How many HVLs are headed to reduce beam intensity from 600 mR to 300 mR? 1 2 3 4

How many bits are in a byte of storage? A. 5 B. 10 C. 8 D. 15

a) 8

How many bits are in a byte of storage? a) 8 b) 128 c) 1 d) 2

How many centigray (cGy) are equivalent to 1 radiation absorbed dose (rad)? A. 2 B. 5 C. 1 D. 10

37.5 g

How many grams of iodine will be delivered when 100 mL of an agent with a concentration of 375 mgI/mL is injected? A. 3750 g B. 3.57 g C. 37,500 g D. 37.5 g

c) 45 g

How many grams of iodine will be delivered when 150 mL of an agent with a concentration of 300 mgI/mL is injected? a) 4500 g b) 450 g c) 45 g d) 45,000 g

45 g

How many grams of iodine will be delivered when 150 mL of an agent with a concentration of 300 mgl/mL is injected? A. 45 g B. 50 g C. 30 g D. 35 g

From 4 to 6 hours

How many hours is a patient required to fast before a PET examination? A. 10-12 B. 2-4 C. 4-6 D. 6-8

atleast two

How many methods of verifying a patient's identity are required? A. One B. two C. Three D. Four

100

How many radiation absorbed dose (rad) are equivalent to 1 gray (Gy)?. A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. 10000

60 times

How many times more common are adrenal masses that are benign cortical adenomas than those that are primary adrenal cortical carcinomas. A. 50 times B. 20 times C. 10 times D. 60 times

Describe the relationship between radiation dose and noise

If radiation dose increases , noise decreases

300 mAs

If the patient is supine on the table with his arm resting on the belly during a CT examination of the wrist, tube current must be increased to at least how many mAs? A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

d) 300 mAs

If the patient is supine on the table with his arm resting on the belly during a CT examination of the wrist, tube current must be increased to at least how many mAs? Question options: a) 200 mAs b) 500 mAs c) 400 mAs d) 300 mAs

False

If the patient's weight exceeds the specified limits, scanning is not possible.

gray

If the range of Hounsfield numbers on the image is -50 to 50, a value of 0 will display what color? A. Black B. White C. Gray

white

If the range of Hounsfield numbers on the image is 0 to 200, a value of 250 will display as what color? A. Black B. White

c) White

If the range of Hounsfield numbers on the image is 0 to 200, a value of 250 will display as what color? Question options: a) Gray b) Black c) White

c) White

If the range of Hounsfield numbers on the image is 0 to 200, a value of 250 will display as what color? a) Black b) Gray c) White

B. 400

If the window level is 50 and the range of Hounsfield numbers to be included in the gray scale is -150 to 250, what is the window width? a) 0 b) 400 c) 300 d) 50

Immediately before scan initiation

If used, when is short-acting nitroglycerin given to the patient? A. Immediately after scan initiation B. Immediately before scan initiation C. 24 hours before scan initiation D. 24 hours after scan initiation

d) Immediately before scan initiation

If used, when is short-acting nitroglycerin given to the patient? Question options: a) Two hours before scan initiation b) One hour before scan initiation c) Immediately after scan initiation d) Immediately before scan initiation

helical

In ________ scanning, the x-ray output is continually on while the table moves through the gantry.

B. Helical

In ________ scanning, the x-ray output is continually on while the table moves through the gantry. a) start and stop b) helical c) axial d) step and shoot

Between 0% and 1%

In a patient who is lactating, what percent of the dose of contrast agent given is excreted into breast milk? A. between 5 and 0% B. Between 10 and 20% C. Between 0 and 1% D. Between 20 and 30%

100%

In conventional film-screen radiography, how much of the radiation does the skin of the entrance plane receive? A. 10% B. 50% C. 100%

-be between 55 and 77 years old -have a history of heavy cigarette use

In order for a patient to be eligible for reimbursement for a preventative CT lung scan by Medicare and most health insurance companies, the patient must: A. Be between 55 and 77 years old B. Have a chronic cough C. Have a history of heavy cigarette use D. Both A and C

In order to build an object layer-by-layer, which axis does the printhead move? A. z B. x-y C. x-z D. y-z

In order to build an object layer-by-layer, which axis does the printhead move? Question options: X-Y Z Y-Z X-Z

75%

In the absence of low dose CT lung screening, what percent of lung cancers can be expected to locally advance and/or metastasize before a diagnosis is made? A. 55% B. 25% C. 75% D. 80%

Bits per second

In what units is bandwidth commonly expressed? A. Megabytes per second B. Bits per second C. bites per second

D. Bits per second

In what units is bandwidth commonly expressed? a) Bytes per second b) Kilobytes per second c) Megabytes per second d) Bits per second

b) Bits per second

In what units is bandwidth commonly expressed? a) Bytes per second b) Bits per second c) Megabytes per second d) Kilobytes per second

2013

In what year was FDA approval given for the first 3D printed skull implant? A. 2010 B. 1999 C. 2017 D. 2013

2013

In what year was FDA approval given for the first 3D printed skull implant? Question options: 2006 2016 2009 2013

Maximum-intensity projections

In which 3D technique does the image appear flat? A. Shaded-surface display B. Surface rendering C. Volume rendering D. Maximum intensity projection

D. Maximum-intensity projections

In which 3D technique does the image appear flat? a) Surface rendering b) Shaded-surface display c) Volume rendering d) Maximum-intensity projections

Image display

In which part of the CT process are the data converted into shades of gray for viewing? A. Window leveling B. Image display C. Window width

a) Image display

In which part of the CT process are the data converted into shades of gray for viewing? Question options: a) Image display b) Image reconstruction c) Data acquisition

Step-and-shoot scans

In which type of scans doe the CT table move to the desired location and remain stationary while the x-ray tube rotates. A. Step-and-shoot scans B. Spiral scans C. Helical scans D. Localizer scans

How will the application of a low-pass algorithm affect contrast resolution?

Increase contrast resolution

How would increasing matrix size affect spatial resolution

Increase spatial resolution (increase matrix size decreases pixel size)

Increasing kVP and mAs ____ photon flux

Increases

Undersampling

Insufficient projection data is called _______________.

The in-plane resolution is specified in what terms

Line pairs per centimeter or line pairs per millimeter

Refers to the linear relationship between CT numbers to the linear attenuation coefficients of the object to be imaged

Linearity

false

Localizer images are cross-sectional in nature

Limited to screening high-risk persons

Lung cancer screening are maximized when: A. Limited to screening low-risk persons B. Limited to screening high-risk persons C. Limited to those with preexisiting cancers

Internal derangement of the knee

MRI is the primary modality for which type of knee trauma? A. Tibial plateau fractures B. Internal derangement of the knee

post-processing

Manipulating raw data and image data after scanning has taken place is called _____________.

c) platelet count

Most laboratory evaluations for CT-guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and ____________. Question options: a) erythrocyte count b) thromboplastin count c) platelet count d) prothrombin count

Platelet Count (PLT)

Most laboratory evaluations for CT-guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and ____________. (fill in the blank)

What quantifying method is the most commonly used for expressing spatial resolution

Modulation transfer function

D. a and b

Molybdenum is found in the _______ of the rotating anode: A. shaft B. disc C. target area d. a and b

platelet count

Most laboratory evaluations for CT-guided biopsy procedures include prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and ____________. A. Thromboplastin count B. Prothrombin count C. Platelet count D. Erythrocyte count

false

Most medical-use objects can be printed in minutes if not seconds.

inion

Most prominent point of external occipital protuberance

The fluctuation of CT numbers from point to point in the image for a scan of uniform material such as water

Noise

The product of various types of mottle

Noise

This is characterized by graininess, or salt and pepper appearance that degrades an image, particularly low contrast resolution

Noise

heat

Of all the energy involved in x-ray production, 99% is converted to: A. Energy B. Light C. Heat B. Photons

A. 1 minute to 2 minutes

Open ended questions invite a narrative response from a patient. How long is an uninterrupted narrative response on average? A. 1 minute to 2 minutes B. 15-30 seconds C. 30 seconds to 1 minute D. 3 minutes to 5 minutes

1 minute to 2 minutes

Open ended questions invite a narrative response from a patient. How long is an uninterrupted narrative response on average? A. 2 to 3 minutes B. 4 to 5 minutes C. 1 to 2 minutes D. 3 to 4 minutes

1 minute to 2 minutes

Open ended questions invite a narrative response from a patient. How long is an uninterrupted narrative response on average? A. 3-4 minutes B. 2-3 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 4-5 minutes

c) 1 minute to 2 minutes

Open ended questions invite a narrative response from a patient. How long is an uninterrupted narrative response on average? Question options: a) 30 seconds to 1 minute b) 3 minutes to 5 minutes c) 1 minute to 2 minutes d) 15 -30 seconds

false

Optimal images can be achieved with standardized window widths.

There is less beam hardening at the _______ of the object where the radiation path is short

Periphery

10%

Pheochromocytoma are malignant in about what percent of cases? A. 10% B. 30% D. 50% C. 75%

never occur during radiographic procedures

Photodisintegration interactions: A. Occur in high Voltage procedures B. Occur in low voltage procedures C. Never occur during radiographic procedures

Bone

Photoelectric interactions are more likely to occur in:

contribute significantly to patient dose

Photoelectric interactions: A. Contribute significantly to photons produced B. Contribute significantly to patient dose C. Contribute significantly to electrons produced

squamous portion of temporal bone

Projects upward to form part of the sidewalls of the cranium

A. 8 feet

Proper street behavior among Americans permits passersby to look at each other until they are approximately how many feet apart? a) 8 feet b) 6 feet c) 10 feet d) 2 feet

longitudinal

Resolution in the z direction is called _____________ resolution.

Longitudinal

Resolution in the z direction is called ________________ resolution.

_____ artifacts are a result of miscalibration of one detector in a rotate-rotate scanner

Ring

_____ artifacts are seen in third generation scanners when one detector's gain varies by 0.1% or more from that of adjacent detectors

Ring artifacts

If a detector is miscalibrated (off line by 0.01%) it will incorrectly record data in every projection resulting in a _____ around the image

Ring formation

Classification of artifacts on basis of appearance : Cause : Bad detector channels in third-generation CT scanners

Rings

States that to faithfully represent a continuous signal , the sampling frequency (fN) must be at least twice the highest frequency content in the signal ( fH)

Sampling theorem

apices; costophrenic angles

Scan must include just above the _____ to just below the _____.

diaphragm; pubic symphysis

Scan must include just above the _____ to the _____.

Determines the percentage of the x-ray photons exiting the patient that are converted to useful signals

Scanner efficiency

The ____ dictates the number of x-ray photons that reach the patient

Scanning technique

The unevenness in size or distribution of the fluorescent crystals in the screen .

Screen mottle

False

Selecting too large a DFOV makes the image appear unnecessarily large.

Classification of artifacts on basis of appearance : Cause : Partial volume averaging ; beam hardening; spiral/helical scanning; scatter radiation; off-focal radiation; incomplete projections

Shading

Describes the scanners ability to resolve closely placed objects that are significantly different from their background

Spatial resolution

Maximizing this is important when you are imaging edges of bones, fractures of bones, bone metastasis, tumor margins, free air, and diseases of the lung structure

Spatial resolution

the ability to distinguish details in objects of different densities a small distance apart

Spatial resolution

D. a and b

The anode includes the: A. target B. induction motor C. envelope D. a and b

4) A and B

The anode includes the: 1) target 2) induction motor 3) envelope 4) A and B

D. all of the above

The anode serves as a(n): A. target to stop the electrons traveling from the cathode B. electrical conductor C. heat conductor D. all of the above

uses self-induction

The autotransformer: A. Uses self-induction B. Uses mutual induction C. Uses high voltage D. Uses low voltage

bifid

The c-spine is the only one that has ________ spinous processes.

b and c

The cathode includes the: A. envelope B. filaments C. focusing cup D. b and c

D. all of the above

The cathode: A. includes a focusing cup B. provides electrons for x-ray production C. includes filaments D. all of the above

space charge

The cloud of electrons produced through thermionic emission is more accurately called a(n): A. Electron cloud B. Space charge C. Electron charge

mid-neck

The coronal line for a c-spine is aligned to:

EAM

The coronal line goes to the _____.

true

The degree to which an x-ray beam is reduced by an object is known as attenuation.

false

The image shown is of the left wrist.

True

The effective focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot because the face of the anode is angled.

size of origin of the x-ray beam as seen from below the tube

The effective focal spot is the: A. Size of origin of the X-ray beam as seen from below the tube B. Size of the origin of the X-ray beam as seen from above the tube C. Size of the origins of the X-ray beam as seen on the image

filament circuit

The filaments are part of the: A. Primary circuit B. Secondary circuit C. Filament circuit

like charges repel

The focusing cup is able to keep the electrons together because:

4) like charges repel

The focusing cup is able to keep the electrons together because: 1) opposite charges repel 2) like charges attract 3) opposite charges attract 4) like charges repel

secondary circuit

The focusing cup is apart of the: A. Primary circuit B. Secondary circuit d. Filament circuit

3) secondary circuit

The focusing cup is part of the: 1) filament circuit 2) primary circuit 3) secondary circuit 4) none of the above

12 degrees

The most common x-ray tube target angle is:

mutual induction

The motor that turns the anode operates through: A. Single induction B. Multi induction C: mutual induction

cathode

The negative end of the x-ray tube is the:

4) cathode

The negative end of the x-ray tube is the: 1) anode 2) target 3) envelope 4) cathode

The overall complication rate for a fine-needle biopsy is approximately what percent? A. 10% B. 5% C. 1% D. 2%

c) 2%

The overall complication rate for a fine-needle biopsy is approximately what percent? Question options: a) 8% b) 5% c) 2% d) 10%

midsagittal

The patient is ___________ down the table.

c) incrementation

The process of moving the table by a specified measure is most commonly called ________ Question options: a) yaw b) pitch c) incrementation d) roll

A. Incrementation

The process of moving the table by a specified measure is most commonly called ________ a) incrementation b) roll c) yaw d) pitch

ionization

The process of removing an electron from an atom is:

Dynamic Range

The range of x-ray intensity values to which the scanner can accurately respond is called the ___________________.

width

The way an image is viewed on the computer monitor can be adjusted by changing the window _______ and window levels.

false

The window level should be set at a point that greater than the average attenuation number of the tissue of interest.

heating the filament until electrons are boiled off

Thermionic emission is:

To be effective, tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) must be administered within how many hours of the first signs of stroke? A. 3 B. 8 C. 6 D. 5

CT fluoroscopy

Two different imaging techniques are used for CT-guided interventions: sequential CT and ____________.

True

Using a narrow screen width when displaying the brain makes it possible to differentiate between white matter and gray matter.

posterior

Vertebral arteries feed the ___________ side of the head.

body language

Visual communication is often called _________.

c) body language

Visual communication is often called _________. Question options: a) intentional language b) foreign language c) body language d) formal language

On the basis of attenuation two points are defined precisely on the CT scale . What are they

Water (0) and air (-1000)

cervical ribs

What anomaly can be seen on the AP C-spine?

Core servers

What are the computers that are integral to the functioning of the PACS called? A. Archival devices B. Core servers C. Routers D. Bridges

A. Core servers

What are the computers that are integral to the functioning of the PACS called? a) Core servers b) Nodes c) Client servers

CT-guided biopsies

What are the most common interventional procedures? A. Drainage of abscesses B. CT guided biopsies C. Percutaneous administration of chemotherapeutic agents D. Percutaneous diskectomy of herniated disks

Hounsfield units

What are used to quantify the degree that a structure attenuates an x-ray beam? A. Sieverts B. Greys C. Hounsfield units D. Attenuation units

c) Power struggles

What barrier to communication is likely to occur when either the sender or receiver is insecure or suffer from low self-esteem? Question options: a) Receiver distortion b) Fuzzy transmission c) Power struggles d) Language

C. Fuzzy transmission

What barrier to communication is likely to occur when the receiver doesn't like portions of the sender's message? A. Assumptions B. Language C. Fuzzy transmission D. Receiver distortion

obtaining thinner slices

What can be done to reduce the beam hardening artifacts?

contrast agents

What can be used to create a temporary artificial density difference between two objects on a CT image? A. Image reconstruction B. Post-processing marks C. Contrast agents

Images are created from views not in the same plane

What causes spiral interpolation artifacts? A. Patient motion B. The x-ray beams are composed of different energies C. Too few samples D. Images are created from views not in the same plane

D. images are created from views not in the same plane

What causes spiral interpolation artifacts? A. patient motion B. the x-ray beams are composed of different energies C. too few samples D. images are created from views not in the same plane

Irregularly shaped objects that have a pronounced difference in density from surrounding structures

What causes the edge gradient effect? A. Irregularly shaped objects that have a pronounced difference in density from surrounding structures B. Grid-cutoff C. Metal in the patient's body

b) Irregularly shaped objects that have a pronounced difference in density from surrounding structures

What causes the edge gradient effect? Question options: a) More than one type of tissue is contained within a voxel. b) Irregularly shaped objects that have a pronounced difference in density from surrounding structures c) Anatomy that extends out-side of the selected SFOV d) Patient motion

Protocol

What defines a common set of rules and signals that computers on the network use to communicate?

window level

What determines the center pixel value in gray scale? A. Window width B. Window level

window width

What determines the number of Hounsfield units assigned to each level of gray in a gray-scale image? A. Window level B. Window width

The fan beam

What determines the number of detector elements? A. The SFOV B. The DFOV C. The fan beam

c) How much of the collected raw data is used to create an image

What does the selected display field of view (DFOV) determine? Question options: a) The area, within the gantry, from which the raw data are acquired b) Whether half-field or full-field is used c) How much of the collected raw data is used to create an image d) The number of detector cells collecting data

it limits the amount of x-ray emerging to thin ribbons

What does the source collimator do? A. Limits the amount of scatter B. Limits the amount of x-ray emerging to thin ribbons C. Limits the mAs D. Limits the kVp

b) It limits the amount of x-ray emerging to thin ribbons.

What does the source collimator do? a) It ionizes Xenon gas. b) It limits the amount of x-ray emerging to thin ribbons. c) It captures transmitted photons and changes them to electronic signals. d) It cools the imaging components.

temporalis and masseter

What elevates the mandible?

occipital bone

What forms the posterior cranial fossa and the inferoposterior portion of the cranium?

vertebral arteries

What goes through the transverse foramina?

New data cannot be saved until some or all of the existing data is deleted or archived

What happens when hard disk capacity is reached? A. The system shuts down B. New data cannot be saved until some or all of the existing data is deleted or archived C. The system must be restarted

Increased pain in the right lower quadrant with coughing

What is Dunphy's sign of acute appendicitis? a) Increased pain in the right lower quadrant with coughing b) Pain on the hyperextension of the right thigh c) Pain on the internal rotation of the right thigh d) Pain in right lower quadrant with palpitation of lower left quadrant

What is a 3D semitransparent representation of an imaged structure called? A. VCR B. STR C. VR D. VRT

A group of two or more computers linked together

What is a computer network? A. A group of four or more computers linked together B. A group of two or more computers linked together C. A group of 10 or more computers linked together D. A group of 15 or more computers linked together

endoluminal

What is a form of volume rendering designed to reveal the inside of the lumen of a structure called? A. Exoluminal B. paraluminal C. Endoluminal

artifact

What is an object seen on the image that is not present in the object scanned?

A tube arc greater than 360°.

What is an overscan? A. A tube arch greater than 120 degrees B. A tube arch greater than 100 degrees C. A tube arch greater than 270 degrees D. A tube arch greater than 360 degrees

A. A tube arc greater than 360

What is an overscan? a) A tube arc greater than 360°. b) A thin x-ray beam passed linearly over the patient. c) The occurrence of ring artifacts. d) Streaking on the CT image.

feed

What is another name for incrementation? A. Augmentation B. Extension C. Feed D. Raise

Segmentation

What is another name for region-of-interest editing? A. Minimum-intensity projection B. Segmentation C. Overlapping reconstruction D. Surface rendering

D. Segmentation

What is another name for region-of-interest editing? a) Overlapping reconstruction b) Surface rendering c) Minimum-intensity projection d) Segmentation

Scintillation detectors

What is another name for solid-state detectors? A. LCD detector B. SSNTD C. Scintillation detectors D. Dielectric track detector

a) Axial

What is another name for step-and-shoot scan mode? Question options: a) Axial b) Spiral c) Volumetric d) Helical

Shaded-surface display

What is another name for surface rendering? A. Surface display B. Projection display C. Shaded-surface display

b) Shaded-surface display

What is another name for surface rendering? Question options: a) Volume rendering b) Shaded-surface display c) Endoluminal imaging d) Projection display

B. Arterial phase

What is another name for the bolus phase of tissue enhancement? A. Aortic phase B. Arterial phase C. Venous phase D. Nonangiographic phase

venous phase

What is another name for the nonequilibrium phase of tissue enhancement? A. Aortic phase B. Arterial phase C. Nonangiographic phase D. Venous phase

Venous phase

What is another name for the nonequilibrium phase of tissue enhancement? A. Atrial phase B. Venous phase

spatial resolution

What is another term for detail resolution? A. Contrast B. Spatial resolution

spacial resolution

What is another term for detail resolution? A. Spatial resolution B. Contrast

d) spatial resolution

What is another term for detail resolution? Question options: a) isotropic resolution b) z-sensitivity c) transaxial resolution d) spatial resolution

A. Spatial resolution

What is another term for detail resolution? a) Spatial resolution b) Isotropic resolution c) Transaxial resolution d) Z-sensitivity

Tiny droplets of living cells or biomaterials

What is bioink? A. Ink made out of biological components B. Tiny droplets of living cells or biomaterials C. Contrast created from biomaterials

Tiny droplets of living cells or biomaterials

What is bioink? Question options: Ink made from organic materials Tiny droplets of living cells or biomaterials Tiny droplets of inorganic material which can replicate organic tissues after printing Ink harvested from specific types of squid and octopi

cone beam

What is the name for the radiation emitted from the collimated x-ray source in multi-detector row systems? A. Cone beam B. Fan beam C. Pin beam

Manipulating the flow rate to change the characteristics of the time-density

What is bolus shaping? A. Manipulating the flow rate to change the characteristics of the time-density B) The interval between the initiation of the injection and the start of scanning C) The ability to perform a saline test injection before the delivery of contrast bolus injections D) Injecting a higher concentration agent to deliver the same amount of iodine at a lower flow rate

A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that attempts to use only those images acquired during periods of lowest cardiac motion

What is cardiac gating? A. A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that attempts to use only those images acquired during periods of highest cardiac motion B. A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that attempts to use only those images acquired during periods of no cardiac motion C. A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that attempts to use only those images acquired during periods of lowest cardiac motion

b) A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that attempts to use only those images acquired during periods of lowest cardiac motion

What is cardiac gating? Question options: a) A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that is used to dilate an area of arterial blockage using a catheter with a small, inflatable, sausage-shaped balloon at its tip b) A technique for cardiac CT acquisition that attempts to use only those images acquired during periods of lowest cardiac motion c) Temporarily lowering the patient's heart rate by the administration of beta-blockers d) The process of taking arteries or veins taken from elsewhere in the patient's body and grafting them from the aorta to the coronary arteries

18 inches or less

What is considered intimate distance for North Americans? A. 18" or less B. 20" or less C. 22" or less D. 24" or less

4-12 feet

What is considered social distance for North Americans? A. 4-12 feet B. 1.5 to 4 feet C. 12 feet or more D. 18 inches or less

A by-product of muscle protein metabolism generated by the body at a fairly steady rate and excreted entirely in the urine

What is creatinine? A. A test that evaluates kidney function B. A by-product of muscle protein metabolism generated by the body entirely in the urine

b) A by-product of muscle protein metabolism generated by the body at a fairly steady rate and excreted entirely in the urine

What is creatinine? a) Diminished urine formulation b) A by-product of muscle protein metabolism generated by the body at a fairly steady rate and excreted entirely in the urine c) A contrast reaction that stems from the contrast agent's pharmacologic properties d) A tough white fibrous capsule that encases each kidney

Testing for a disease

What is disease screening? A. Testing for allergies B. Testing for CD C. Testing for a disease D. Testing for a sickness

B) Testing for a disease

What is disease screening? Question options: A) Determining the prognosis of a disease B) Testing for a disease C) Staging a malignancy D) Determining the risk factors for a disease

c) When an image on the monitor is converted to digital format

What is frame grabbing? Question options: a) When an image on the monitor is transmitted b) When an image on the monitor is converted to analog format c) When an image on the monitor is converted to digital format d) When an image on the monitor is compressed

A type of image artifact where objects appear to have a shadow

What is ghosting?

C. a type of image artifact where objects appear to have a shadow

What is ghosting? A. another name for tube arcing B. a type of filter used to eliminate beam hardening C. a type of image artifact where objects appear to have a shadow D. another name for the edge gradient effect

cerebrospinal fluid

What is housed in the ventricles?

undersampling

What is insufficient projection data is called? A. Inaccurate sampling B. Low sampling C. Undersampling

Reformation that allows the operator to use a mouse or other device to manually change the image plane while the software continually updates the image.

What is interactive reformation? A) Reformation that allows the operator to use a mouse or other device to manually change the image plane while the software continually updates the image. B) Reformation that is specifically designed to look inside the lumen of a structure C) Another name for three-dimensional reformation

A. Reformation that allows the operator to use a mouse or other device to manually change the image plane while the software continually updates the image.

What is interactive reformation? a) Reformation that allows the operator to use a mouse or other device to manually change the image plane while the software continually updates the image. b) Reformation that is specifically designed to look inside the lumen of a structure c) Another name for three-dimensional reformation

a mathematical method of creating missing data

What is interpolation? A) Software instructions that tell the computer what to do and when to do it B) A set of steps used to solve a problem C) A mathematical method of creating missing data D) A technique for expressing a waveform as a weighted sum of sines and cosines

post-processing

What is it called when one manipulates raw data and image data after scanning has taken place. A. Image manipulation B. Multi-planar reprocessing C. Post-processing

b) post-processing

What is it called when one manipulates raw data and image data after scanning has taken place. Question options: a) data acquisition b) post-processing c) localization d) image acquisition

variable sliding slab

What is it called when only a portion of the data set is used to create a MIP? A. Semi-MIP B. partial-MIP C. Variable sliding slab D. Stable sliding slab

A. Variable sliding slab

What is it called when only a portion of the data set is used to create a MIP? a) variable sliding slab b) MPR c) VR d) MinIP

The ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities.

What is low-contrast resolution? A. The ability of the system to differentiate between objects of similar sizes B. The level of detail that is visible on the image C. The ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities

A. the ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities

What is low-contrast resolution? A. the ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities B. the level of detail that is visible on the image C. the system's ability to resolve, as separate forms, small objects that are very close together D. the ability of the system to differentiate between objects of similar sizes

c) The ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities.

What is low-contrast resolution? a) The level of detail that is visible on the image. b) The system's ability to resolve, as separate forms, small objects that are very close together. c) The ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities. d) The ability of the system to differentiate between objects of similar sizes.

C. The ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densitites

What is low-contrast resolution? a) The ability of the system to differentiate between objects of similar sizes. b) The level of detail that is visible on the image. c) The ability of the system to differentiate between objects with similar densities. d) The system's ability to resolve, as separate forms, small objects that are very close together.

120 mL/min

What is the approximate normal adult glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? A. 150 B. 120 C. 200 D. 170

Minimize the metal present in the SFOV

What is the best way to reduce metallic artifact?

D. minimize the metal present in the SFOV

What is the best way to reduce metallic artifact? A. select a SFOV that is larger than the patient B. give the patient clear breathing instructions C. recalibrate the scanner D. minimize the metal present in the SFOV

B. Minimize the metal present in the SFOV

What is the best way to reduce metallic artifact? a) Select a SFOV that is larger than the patient. b) Minimize the metal present in the SFOV c) Recalibrate the scanner d) Give the patient clear breathing instructions

Polyuric

What is the classification for urine output greater than 6,000 mL? A. Polyuric B. Nonoliguric C. Oliguric D. Anuric

topology

What is the geometric arrangement of a computer system is referred to as? A. Mapology B. Topology C. Compology

To minimize the size (in bytes) of an image file without degrading the quality of the image to an unacceptable level

What is the goal of data compression?

c) To maintain the advantage of high-resolution imaging but also create image files that are manageable and more easily reviewed by radiologists

What is the goal of using a thin slice for scanning and reconstruction and thicker slices for viewing and storing? a) To create reformatted images that better display anatomic relationship b) To generate scans that are generated with isotropic, or near isotropic voxels c) To maintain the advantage of high-resolution imaging but also create image files that are manageable and more easily reviewed by radiologists

B. 120-140

What is the kVp range for routine body CT for adult patients? A. 80-140 B. 120-140 C. 100-160 D. 80-100

120 kVp to 140 kVp

What is the kVp range for routine body CT for adult patients? A. 90 to 100 kVp B. 100 to 110 kVp C. 120 to 140 kVp D. 110 to 130 kVp

A. 120 kVp- 140 kVp

What is the kVp range for routine body CT for adult patients? a) 120 kVP to 140 kVp b) 100 kVp to 160kVp c) 80 kvP to 100 kVp d) 80 kVp to 140 kVp

maxillary bone

What is the largest immovable facial bones?

25%

What is the lifetime rate of appendectomy for women if incidental appendectomies are included? A. 80% B. 55% C. 10% D. 25%

B. + or - 1 mm

What is the maximum variation from the intended slice thickness for a slice thickness of 5 mm or greater? A. + or - 0.5 mm B. + or - 1 mm C. + or - 0.5 cm D. + or - 1 cm

±1 mm

What is the maximum variation from the intended slice thickness for a slice thickness of 5 mm or greater? A. ±2mm B. ±3mm C. ±1mm D. ±4mm

±0.5 mm

What is the maximum variation from the intended slice thickness for a slice thickness of 5 mm or less? A. ±1 B. ±2 C. ±0.5 D. ±0.1

.STL

What is the most common file format used to 3D print after conversion from medical images? A. Raw image format B. TGA C. TIFF D. STL

512

What is the most common matrix size in CT? A. 600 B. 350 C. 512 D. 1020

1-1.5

What is the most common range for pitch values in both SDCT and MDCT systems? A. 2-2.5 B. 1-1.5 C. 3-3.5 D. 4-4.5

b) 1-1.5

What is the most common range for pitch values in both SDCT and MDCT systems? Question options: a) 0-1 b) 1-1.5 c) 1.5-2 d) 1-2

a) 1-1.5

What is the most common range for pitch values in both SDCT and MDCT systems? a) 1-1.5 b) 1.5-2 c) 1-2 d) 0-1

abdominal pain

What is the most common symptom of appendicitis? A. Diarrhea B. Dizziness C. Abdominal pain D. Chest pain

a) Abdominal pain

What is the most common symptom of appendicitis? Question options: a) Abdominal pain b) Loss of appetite c) Vomiting d) Nausea

view

What is the name for a complete set of x-ray sums? A. View B. FOV C. SFOV D. Projection

focal spot

What is the name for the area of the anode where the electrons strike and the x-ray beam is produced? A. Anode target B. Rod C. Focal spot D. Stem

ray

What is the name for the path of the x-ray beam takes from the tube to the detector? A. View B. Projection C. Ray D. Beam

B. Back Projection

What is the name for the process of converting the data from the attenuation profile to a matrix? a) Fourier transform b) Back projection c) Interpolation d) Attenuation

b) Lesions with values greater than 2.5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 2 are usually benign.

Which correctly describes how the SUV correlates with the malignant potential of a lesion? Question options: a) Lesions with values less than 5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values greater than 3 are usually benign. b) Lesions with values greater than 2.5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 2 are usually benign. c) Lesions with values less than 2.5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values greater than 2 are usually benign. d) Lesions with values greater than 5 have been shown to have a high likelihood of malignancy, whereas lesions with values less than 3 are usually benign.

Arteries or veins taken from elsewhere in the patient's body are grafted from the aorta to the coronary arteries to bypass atherosclerotic narrowing and improve the blood supply to the coronary circulation supplying the myocardium.

Which describes CABG? A. Arteries or veins taken from elsewhere in the patient's body are grafted from the aorta to the coronary arteries to bypass atherosclerotic narrowing and improve the blood supply to the coronary circulation supplying the myocardium. B. Arteries or veins taken from elsewhere in the patient's body are grafted from the pulmonary artery to the coronary arteries to bypass atherosclerotic narrowing and improve the blood supply to the coronary circulation supplying the myocardium.

A. when the periphery of the image is lighter

Which describes a cupping artifact? A. when the periphery of the image is lighter B. when there is an appearance of dark bands or streaks between dense objects in the image C. when the object appears in only a small number of views collected from the tube's 360 degree path D. when fine stripes appear to be radiating from a dense structure

c) As pitch increases, the time that any one point in space spends in the x-ray beam is decreased.

Which describes how pitch has a direct influence on patient radiation dose? Question options: a) As pitch decreases, the time that any one point in space spends in the x-ray beam is decreased. b) As pitch increases, the time that any one point in space spends in the x-ray beam is increased. c) As pitch increases, the time that any one point in space spends in the x-ray beam is decreased. d) As pitch decreases, the time that any one point in space spends in the x-ray beam is increased.

instructions that tells a computer what to do

Which describes the software part of a computer? A. Instructions that tells a computer what to do B. Describes the network protocol

inferior

Which directional term refers to movement towards the feet? a. superior b. inferior c. lateral d. medial

c) Inferior

Which directional term refers to movement towards the feet? a) Anterior b) Superior c) Inferior d) Posterior

Superior

Which directional term refers to movement towards the head?

Teeth grinding

Which does not cause asymmetry in the salivary gland during FDG imaging? A. Teeth grinding B. Inflammatory changes after surgery or radiotherapy C. The patient's position

a) Teeth grinding

Which does not cause asymmetry in the salivary gland during FDG imaging? Question options: a) Teeth grinding b) The patient's position c) Inflammatory changes after surgery or radiotherapy

pixel size = DFOV/matrix size

Which equation correctly describes the relationship between pixel size, matrix size, and DFOV? A. DFOV= matrix size/pixel size B. Matrix size= pixel size/DFOV C. pixel size= DFOV/matrix size D. pixel size= matrix size/DFOV

B. pixel size = DFOV/matrix size

Which equation correctly describes the relationship between pixel size, matrix size, and DFOV? A. pixel size = (DFOV/matrix size) + 1 B. pixel size = DFOV/matrix size C. pixel size = DFOV * matrix size D. pixel size = matrix size/DFOV

Pharmacokinetic

Which factors that affect the degree of contrast enhancement in human tissue are largely controllable by the technologist? A. Patient B. Equipment c. Pharmacokinetic

b) Pharmacokinetic

Which factors that affect the degree of contrast enhancement in human tissue are largely controllable by the technologist? Question options: a) Patient b) Pharmacokinetic c) Equipment

SUV = Radioactivity Concentration in ROI / (Injection Dose (bq) / Patient Weight (g))

Which formula can be used to calculate SUV? A. SUV= Radioactivity Concentration in ROI x injection Dose (bq) / Patient weight g B. SUV= Radioactivity Concentration in ROI / Patient Weight g/ Injection Dose (bq) C. SUV= Radioactivity Concentration in ROI / Injection Dose (bq) / Patient weight g D. SUV= Radioactivity Concentration in ROI x Patient weight (g) / Injection Dose (bq)

b) Third generation

Which generation of CT systems typically used a 360° rotation for each acquisition? a) First generation b) Third generation c) Second generation d) Fourth generation

third generation

Which generation of CT systems typically used a 360° tube/detector rotation for each acquisition? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

first-generation

Which generation of scanners used a thin x-ray beam passed linearly over the patient with a single detector following on the opposite side of the patient? A. First B. Second C. third D. fourth

third generation

Which generation of scanners uses a detector array that is fixed in a 360° circle within the gantry? A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

B. Fourth-generation

Which generation of scanners uses a detector array that is fixed in a 360° circle within the gantry? a) Third-generation b) Fourth-generation c) First-generation d) Second-generation

Middle-aged people

Which group is most prone to kidney stones? A. Geriatrics B. Middle-aged people C. Young adults D. Children

The visualization of smaller arteries can be affected by problems with technique or suboptimal vessel opacification.

Which is a disadvantage to using MDCT in the diagnosis of pulmonary emboli? A. The visualization of smaller arteries can be affected by problems with technique or suboptimal vessel opacification B. The visualization of larger arteries can be affected by problems with technique or suboptimal vessel opacification

c) The visualization of smaller arteries can be affected by problems with technique or suboptimal vessel opacification.

Which is a disadvantage to using MDCT in the diagnosis of pulmonary emboli? Question options: a) Scans are obtained at a slow rate. b) It is not cost-effective. c) The visualization of smaller arteries can be affected by problems with technique or suboptimal vessel opacification.

It produces streak artifact

Which is a drawback of back projecting data onto a matrix? A. Important parts of anatomy are cut from the image B. Data manipulation becomes limited C. Raw data for the image is lost D. It produces streak artifacts

It can be very hard to separate the object from the image background.

Which is a drawback of manual segmentation? A. It is time consuming B. It can be very hard to separate the object from the image background C. It can be very hard to separate the anatomy from the background noise

c) It is relatively expensive when compared to other methods.

Which is a drawback of using noncontrast helical CT (NCHCT) to diagnose ureteral calculi? Question options: a)Ureteral stones are not seen. b) Radiolucent stones are not seen. c) It is relatively expensive when compared to other methods. d) Use of contrast media is necessary.

a) They increase the likelihood of missing very small objects.

Which is a drawback of using thicker CT slices when imaging? Question options: a) They increase the likelihood of missing very small objects. b) They decrease the pixel size. c) They increase radiation dosage. d) They increase the number of slices that are produced.

The procedure can be lengthy.

Which is a drawback to using sequential CT scanning for intervention procedures? A. Increased dose to patient B. Increased dose to technologist C. The procedure can be lengthy D. The procedure can be difficult on the patient

c) The procedure can be lengthy.

Which is a drawback to using sequential CT scanning for intervention procedures? Question options: a) Low-density material is not imaged well. b) Interventions cannot be performed on small structures. c) The procedure can be lengthy.

Electronic Health Record (EHR)

Which is a generic term for a digital patient record? A. Digital record B. Electronic record C. Electronic health record

a) Electronic health record

Which is a generic term for a digital patient record? Question options: a) Electronic health record b) Computerized health record c) Digital health record d) Patient health record

Data contain hundreds of images potentially slowing down the PACS network

Which is a major drawback of workstation-created MPRs? A. Data contain hundreds of images potentially slowing down the PACS network B. It cannot handle a large amount of data

a) Data contain hundreds of images potentially slowing down the PACS network

Which is a major drawback of workstation-created MPRs? Question options: a) Data contain hundreds of images potentially slowing down the PACS network b) There is significant loss of image quality c) If oblique or curved images are needed, the technologist must create them manually d) Operators cannot use trial and error to obtain the ideal image plane

C shape

Which is a not a possible shape of the adrenal glands on a cross-sectional image? A. Circular B. C shape C. Triangle

b) C shape

Which is a not a possible shape of the adrenal glands on a cross-sectional image? Question options: a) Y shape b) C shape c) V shape d) T shape

is is impossible to use readily identifiable landmarks

Which is a reason why a technologist should take one cross-sectional slice to check the accuracy of a localizer image? A. It is impossible to use readily identifiable landmarks B. The intravenous contrast material is critical C. the patient is placed head first in the gantry D. The localizer image will be an AP projection

Window width approximately 2000; window level approximately 600

Which is a typical bone window setting? A. Window width approximately 2000, window level approximately 600 B. Window width approximately 650, window level approximately 60 C. Window width approximately 450, window level approximately 50 D. Window width approximately 1000, window level approximately 500

Window width approximately 450; window level approximately 50

Which is a typical soft-tissue window setting? a) Window width approximately 450; window level approximately 50 b) Window width approximately 2000; window level approximately 60 c) Window width approximately 1000; window level approximately 500 d) Window width approximately 650; window level approximately 60

on phantoms, they result in the highest quality image

Which is an advantage of step-and-shoot scanning? A. Less patient dose B. On phantoms, they result in the highest quality image C. On real patients, they result in the highest quality image

hypertension

Which is an example of a moderately adverse idiosyncratic patient reaction? A. Cough B. Hypertension C. Convulsions D. Itching

hypertension

Which is an example of a moderately adverse idiosyncratic patient reaction? A. Hypertension B. Hypotension C. Hives

mouse

Which is an input device for a computer? A. Monitor B. Tower C. Mouse

b) Spiral scanning

Which is another name for helical scanning? Question options: a) Axial scanning b) Spiral scanning c) Step-and-shoot scanning d) Localizer scanning

Image rendering

Which is another name for image reformation? A. Image rendering B. Image repair C. Image overhaul

Cine-mode scanning

Which is another name for prospective ECG gating? A. Cine-mode scanning B. ECG triggering C. ECG tracing D. Retrospective ECG gating

C. The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time

Which is bandwidth? a) A network topology b) The width of the Ethernet cable connecting computers in a network c) The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time d) A strategy for routing data between computers in a network

b) The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time

Which is bandwidth? Question options: a) A network topology b) The amount of data that can be transmitted between two points in the network in a set period of time c) The width of the Ethernet cable connecting computers in a network d) A strategy for routing data between computers in a network

Each slice of the image is parallel to every other slice

Which is not a basic attribute of a helical scan process? A) Uninterrupted table movement B) Constant x-ray output C) A continually rotating x-ray tube D) Each slice of the image is parallel to every other slice

they speed up the examination process

Which is not a benefit of localizer images? A. They help the tech select the correct image center B. They allow the tech to prescribe the location of cross-sectional slices C. They speed up the examination process

b) High photon absorption

Which is not a characteristic of a pressurized Xenon gas detector? Question options: a) No afterglow b) High photon absorption c) Low-density material d) High stability

D. Wellbutrin

Which is not a common anticoagulant medication? a) Aspirin b) Plavix c) Heparin d) Wellbutrin

camera

Which is not a component of a CT scanner? A. Gantry B. Detectors C. Camera D. Operating console

a) Low scatter suppression

Which is not a desired characteristic of a detector? Question options: a) Low scatter suppression b) Low afterglow c) High efficiency d) High stability

CDTI phantoms

Which is not a factor that affects contrast resolution? A. Reconstruction algorithm B. CTDI phantoms C. Patient size D. Slice thickness

D. CTDI phantoms

Which is not a factor that affects contrast resolution? A. Slice thickness B. Patient size C. Reconstruction algorithm D. CTDI phantoms

Slowing gantry rotation speed

Which is not a feature CT systems use to minimize beam hardening? A. Quickening gantry rotation speed B. Slowing gantry rotation speed

D. slowing gantry rotation speed

Which is not a feature CT systems use to minimize beam hardening? A. filtration B. beam-hardening correction software C. calibration correction D. slowing gantry rotation speed

d) Slowing gantry rotation speed

Which is not a feature CT systems use to minimize beam hardening? Question options: a) Beam-hardening correction software b) Filtration c) Calibration correction d) Slowing gantry rotation speed

c) Slowing gantry rotation speed

Which is not a feature CT systems use to minimize beam hardening? a) Calibration correction b) Filtration c) Slowing gantry rotation speed d) Beam-hardening correction software

gas

Which is not a high-density material? A. Synthetic catheters B. Gas C. Bone D. Metal

c) Gas

Which is not a high-density material? Question options: a) Bone b) Synthetic catheters c) Gas d) Metal

Lungs

Which is not a location where normal physiologic accumulation of FDG occurs? A. Salivary glands B. Thyroid gland C. Brain D. Lungs

b) Lungs

Which is not a location where normal physiologic accumulation of FDG occurs? Question options: a) Brain b) Lungs c) Salivary glands d) Thyroid gland

concentric rings

Which is not a manifestation of patient motion? A. Streaking b. Concentric rings C. Blurring D. Ghosting

C. concentric rings

Which is not a manifestation of patient motion? A. streaking B. ghosting C. concentric rings D. blurring

B. Bolus shaping

Which is not a name for the method of individualizing the scan delay using the contrast bolus itself to initiate the scan? A. Bolus tracking B. Bolus shaping C. Automated triggering D. Bolus triggering

LANs

Which is not a network routing mechanism? A. WANs B. LANs

B. LANs

Which is not a network routing mechanism? a) Bridging b) LANs c) Hubs d) Switching

Menstruation

Which is not a reason for increased uptake in the breast? A. Tumor size B. Tumor density C. Menstruation D. Dense breast tissue

Patient size

Which is not a scanning parameter? A. Slice thickness B. Patient size C. Field of view D. Reconstruction algorithm

B. patient size

Which is not a scanning parameter? A. Slice thickness B. Patient size C. Field of view D. Reconstruction algorithm

a) Patient size

Which is not a scanning parameter? Question options: a) Patient size b) Field of view c) Reconstruction algorithm d) Slice thickness

data dispersal

Which is not a segment of the CT process? A. Image display B. Data dispersal C. Image reconstruction D. Data acquisition

d) Data dispersal

Which is not a segment of the CT process? Question options: a) Image reconstruction b) Image display c) Data acquisition d) Data dispersal

a) Data dispersal

Which is not a segment of the CT process? a) Data dispersal b) Data acquisition c) Image display d) Image reconstruction

a) The depiction of a three-dimensional object as a two-dimensional image

Which is not an advantage of CT over conventional radiography? a) The depiction of a three-dimensional object as a two-dimensional image b) The elimination of superimposed structures c) The superior quality of the images d) The ability to differentiate small differences in density of anatomic structures and abnormalities

Scan delay can be precisely controlled

Which is not an advantage of the hand bolus method? A. It is relatively inexpensive B. Scan delay can be precisely controlled C. It does not require any special equipment to implement

RAID

Which is not an optical storage device? A. CD B. DVD C. RAID

spatial frequency algorithm

Which is not another name for reconstruction algorithm? A. Convolution filter B. FC filter C. Spatial frequency algorithm D. Algorithm

C. spatial frequency algorithm

Which is not another name for reconstruction algorithm? A. FC filter B. convolution filter C. spatial frequency algorithm D. algorithm

A. Spatial frequency algorithm

Which is not another name for reconstruction algorithm? A. Spatial frequency algorithm B. Convolution filter C. FC filter D. Algorithm

B. View

Which is not another name for the filter function? a) Algorithm b) View c) Convolution filter d) Kernel

False reassurance to help alleviate patient fears

Which is not information that the technologist should provide to education the patient? A. Details about the procedure B. False reassurance to help alleviate patient fears C. Personal information

d) False reassurance to help alleviate patient fears

Which is not information that the technologist should provide to education the patient? Question options: a) Whether contrast agents will be administered b) The approximate length of time of the procedure c) How the procedure is carried out d) False reassurance to help alleviate patient fears

amplifier

Which is not part of the structure of a solid-state detector array? A. Readout circuit B. Detector elements B. Amplifier

Image archiving

Which is not task of the radiology information system (RIS)? A. Records times B. Exam scheduling C. Image archiving

Rapid, high-resolution scans are taken while contrast is in the venous enhancement phase.

Which is not true about CT angiography? a) Rapid, high-resolution scans are taken while contrast is in the venous enhancement phase. b) It provides important information about vessel walls. c) It can quickly be used to make treatment decisions in the cases of patients suspected of suffering an acute stroke. d) It is noninvasive.

Raw data are used

Which is not true about image reformation? A. Raw data are used B. It generates images in a different plane or orientation C. It is used to better display relationships D. It may be either 2D or 3D

It is a more common to manipulate the kVp, rather than the mAs.

Which is not true about the effect of mAs and kVp setting on the radiation dose? A. It is more common to manipulate the mAs rather than the kVp B. It is more common to manipulate the kVp rather than the mAs

C. it is more common to manipulate the kVp, rather than the mAs

Which is not true about the effect of mAs and kVp setting on the radiation dose? A. excessively lowering the kVp may result in a dramatic increase in the amount of x-ray attenuated by patient tissue B. reducing the kVp while holding the mAs constant reduces the radiation dose to the patient C. it is more common to manipulate the kVp, rather than the mAs D. reducing the mAs while holding the kVp constant reduces the radiation dose to the patient

In patients with hyperthyroidism, iodinated contrast media can often precipitate thyroid storm.

+35 degrees

Which is not usual degree of tilt for a CT gantry? A. 20 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 35 degrees D. 30 degrees

Load the dual-injector heads with saline and iodinated contrast material.

Which is part of the scanning step in cardiac CT imaging? A. Have the patient position arms so they are straight and do not impede the flow of contrast material B. Connect the ECG leads C. Load the dual-injector heads with saline and iodinated contrast material D. If ordered, administer nitroglycerin

It has relatively poor contrast sensitivity.

Which is statement about musculoskeletal scanning methods is not true? a) It has relatively poor contrast sensitivity. b) It has the ability to image both sides of the body to permit comparison. c) It has the ability to perform multiplanar and three-dimensional reformation retrospectively. d) It displays cross-sectional anatomy and spatial relationships.

B. DLP = CTDIvol × scan length

Which is the correct formula for dose-length product (DLP)? a) DLP = CTDIvol ÷ scan length b) DLP = CTDIvol × scan length c) DLP = CTDIvol + scan length d) DLP = CTDIvol × 2 × scan length

defining a region of interest

Which is the first step in many image display and measurement functions? A. Calculating the standard deviation for an area of interest B. Calculating the hounsfield for an area of interest C. Performing distance measurements D. Defining a region of interest

c) The patient's wrist as it rests on his abdomen.

Which is the least favorite choice for positioning a patient during a CT examination of the wrist? Question options: a) The patient is positioned with his arm over his head b) The patient sits or stands on the far side of the scanner and extends his arm into the scanner. c) The patient's wrist as it rests on his abdomen.

Extending the patient's arm over the head

Which is the most common patient position for CT examinations of the wrist? A. Laying the patient's arm by their side B. Laying the patient's arm across their chest C. Laying the patient's arm across their abdomen D. Extending the patient's arm over their head

Ischemic

Which is the most common type of stroke? A. Hemorrhagic B. Ischemic C. Thrombotic

Metoprolol tartrate

Which is the most commonly used beta-blocker for cardiac CT studies? A. Betaxolol B. Esmolol C. Metoprolol tartrate D. Acebutolol

A. CTDIvol

Which is the most useful tool for comparing radiation doses among different protocols? A. CTDIvol B. CTDIw C. MSAD D. DLP

Peripherally inserted central catheter

Which is the name for a long catheter that is inserted through the large veins of the upper arm? A. Swan-ganz B. PICC C. Foley D. Indwelling

c) Peripherally inserted central catheter

Which is the name for a long catheter that is inserted through the large veins of the upper arm? a) Central venous catheter b) Midline catheter c) Peripherally inserted central catheter

Antecubital or large forearm vein

Which is the preferred venous access site when a mechanical injector is used? A. Cephalic vein B. Axillary vein C. Superficial vein D. Antecubital or large forearm vein

a) Antecubital or large forearm vein

Which is the preferred venous access site when a mechanical injector is used? Question options: a) Antecubital or large forearm vein b) Cephalic vein c) Superficial dorsal vein d) Axillary vein

Cross-sectional images

Which is typically not displayed in color on the display monitor?

Algorithms

Which is/are not a principal physical component of a computer? A. Algorithms B. Memory C. The CPU D. Input and output devices

Hyperventilation

Which may induce uptake in the diaphragm? A. Hyperventilation B. Vigorous exercise C. Hormone therapy D. COPD

b) Hyperventilation

Which may induce uptake in the diaphragm? Question options: a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b) Hyperventilation c) Hormone therapy d) Vigorous exercise

Peer-to-peer

Which network architecture is shown?

C. Client-server

Which network architecture is shown? A. Client-peer B. Peer-to-peer C. Client-server

Client-server

Which network architecture is shown? A. Peer-to-peer B. Client-server

Peer-to-Peer

Which network architecture is shown? A. Peer-to-peer B. Peer/client

Bus

Which network topology is shown in the diagram?

Which network topology is shown in the diagram? A) Bus B) Tree C) Star D) Ring

Bus

Which network topology is shown in the diagram? A. Bus B. Star C. Tree

B. Tree

Which network topology is shown in the diagram? A. Bus B. Tree C. Ring D. Star

Ring

Which network topology is shown in the diagram? A. Ring B. Tree C. Star

Tree

Which network topology is shown in the diagram? A. Star B. Ring C. Tree

D. Ring

Which network topology is shown int eh diagram? A. Bus B. Tree C. Star D. Ring

Visual

Which nonverbal communication category includes facial expression and posture? A. Vocal B. Tactile C. Visual D. Distance

Tactile

Which nonverbal communication category involves the use of touch to impart meaning? A. Visual B. Vocal C. Tactile D. Distance

Vocal

Which nonverbal communication category refers to the intonation of a person's voice. A. Visual B. Vocal C. Tactile

transfromer

Which of the following devices can increase or decrease voltage by a set amount? A. Autotransformer B. Rheostat C. Transformer D. Filament

All of the above

Which of the following diagnostic images can be used to create a 3D print file? -diagnostic radiograph -CT scan -MRI scan -All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following diagnostic images can be used to create a 3D print file? Question options: Diagnostic radiograph CT scan MRI scan All of the above

Beam pitch

Which of the following does not have to be identical to reformat a CT study? A. DFOV B. Gantry tilt C. Beam pitch

Male-female

Which of the following interactions is the closest?

Over diagnosis

Which of the following is NOT a potential harm of having a low dose lung scan: A. Over diagnosis B. Radiation exposure C. New nodules may appear

over diagnosis

Which of the following is NOT a potential harm of having a low dose lung scan: A. Over diagnosis B. Radiation exposure C. New nodules may appear

Endoluminal imaging

Which type of imaging visualizes a structure as if it were hollow and the viewer were inside of it. A. Internal imaging B. Intraimaging C. Endoluminal imaging

Existing medications should be turned off for the duration of the CT exam.

Which of the following is not true when giving a contrast injection to a patient with an existing indwelling peripheral venous catheter? A) The line should once again be flushed with saliine solution before medications are restarted. B) The line should be flushed with saline solution before the contrast injection. C) Existing medications should be turned off for the duration of the CT exam. D) Patient medications should be restarted at the identical preexamination rate.

A large object will have a low spatial frequency, and small objects will have a high spatial frequency.

Which of the following statements is true?

After chemotherapy, there is increased uptake as a result of bone marrow recovery that usually resolves 1 month after therapy.

Which of the following statements is true? A. After chemotherapy, there is increased uptake as a result of bone marrow recovery that usually resolves 1 month after therapy. B. After chemotherapy, there is decreased uptake as a result of bone marrow recovery that usually resolves 1 month after therapy.

A. a large object will have a low spatial frequency, and small objects will have a high spatial frequency

Which of the following statements is true? A. a large object will have a low spatial frequency, and small objects will have a high spatial frequency B. a large object will have no spatial frequency, and a small object will have a high spatial frequency C. a small object will have a low spatial frequency, and a large object will have a high spatial frequency D. a large object will have a high spatial frequency, and small objects will have no spatial frequency

In general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells.

Which of the following statements is true? a) In general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells. b) In general, lower accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells. c) In general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with less aggressive tumors and a lesser number of viable tumor cells.

c) In general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells.

Which of the following statements is true? Question options: a) In general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with less aggressive tumors and a lesser number of viable tumor cells. b) In general, lower accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells. c) In general, higher accumulations of FDG usually correlate with more aggressive tumors and a greater number of viable tumor cells.

all of the above

Which of the following technologies are actively being developed with 3D bioprinting? -All of the above -Tissue and organ fabrication -Creation of customized prosthetics -Implants and anatomical models

Printing stem cells

Which of the following was not listed as a future use of 3D printing? A. World-wide distribution of medical products by downloading their print files B. Printing stem cells C. Printing drugs in dosage forms that are customized for the patient D. Printing implants and prosthetic

a) CPU

Which part of a computer interprets program instructions? Question options: a) CPU b) ROM c) Hard disk d) Output devices

c) Weight

Which patient factor effecting contrast enhancement has a pronounced effect on the degree of aortic and parenchymal enhancement? Question options: a) Renal function b) Cardiac output status c) Weight d) Gender

Axial plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B ?

Coronal plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B ?

Sagittal plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B ? A. Coronal B. Sagittal C. Axial D. Oblique

Sagittal plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B? A. Axial plane B. Coronal plane C. Oblique plane D. Sagittal plane

Axial plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B? A. Coronal B. Saggital C. Axial D. Oblique

Coronal plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B? A. Coronal B. Saggital C. Axial D. Oblique

Oblique plane

Which plane is shown in Figure B? A. Coronal B. Saggital C. Axial D. Oblique

D. Radial pulse

Which pulse is taken at the thumb side of the wrist? a) Popliteal pulse b) Pedal pulse c) Femoral pulse d) Radial pulse

a) Radial pulse

Which pulse is taken at the thumb side of the wrist? Question options: a) Radial pulse b) Femoral pulse c) Popliteal pulse d) Pedal pulse

Because of radiation dose concerns, patients are limited to a single position during the procedure.

Which statement about CT interventional procedures is not true? Question options: a) Because the tip of the needle within the structure can be visualized and slice thickness can be as narrow as 0.5 mm, interventions can be performed on small structures. b) Because of radiation dose concerns, patients are limited to a single position during the procedure. c) High-resolution CT images provide precise three-dimensional localization of lesions. d) CT images permit the clinician to plan an access route to the lesion by showing the relationship of surrounding structures.

c) Because of radiation dose concerns, patients are limited to a single position during the procedure.

Which statement about CT interventional procedures is not true? Question options: a) Because the tip of the needle within the structure can be visualized and slice thickness can be as narrow as 0.5 mm, interventions can be performed on small structures. b) High-resolution CT images provide precise three-dimensional localization of lesions. c) Because of radiation dose concerns, patients are limited to a single position during the procedure. d) CT images permit the clinician to plan an access route to the lesion by showing the relationship of surrounding structures.

Intravenous contrast medium is routinely administered for musculoskeletal trauma.

Which statement about musculoskeletal protocols is not true? a) Patients should be positioned carefully so that both sides are as symmetric as possible. b) Intravenous contrast medium is routinely administered for musculoskeletal trauma. c) Protocols for scanning the musculoskeletal system are tailored to each patient. d) Most musculoskeletal protocols include multiplanar reformation.

a) Intravenous contrast medium is routinely administered for musculoskeletal trauma.

Which statement about musculoskeletal protocols is not true? Question options: a) Intravenous contrast medium is routinely administered for musculoskeletal trauma. b) Most musculoskeletal protocols include multiplanar reformation. c)Protocols for scanning the musculoskeletal system are tailored to each patient. d) Patients should be positioned carefully so that both sides are as symmetric as possible.

The computers in a LAN are geographically distant.

Which statement is not true about a LAN? A. It can be a combination of network topologies B. It typically uses ethernet cables to connect computers C. The computers in a LAN are geographically distant D. A LAN can be a wired network

It should be one of the last arteries to enhance.

Which statement is not true about the reference artery chosen during the post processing of CT perfusion scans? A. It should be one of the last arteries to enhance B. It should be one of the first arteries to enhance

d) It should be one of the last arteries to enhance.

Which statement is not true about the reference artery chosen during the post processing of CT perfusion scans? Question options: a) It should produce a curve with a high enhancement peak. b) It should produce a curve with narrow width. c) It should be seen in cross-section. d) It should be one of the last arteries to enhance.

a) TIAs are an irreversible episode of focal neurologic dysfunction.

Which statement is not true about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)? Question options: a) TIAs are an irreversible episode of focal neurologic dysfunction. b) TIAs are an indicator of heart attack risk. c) TIAs are an indicator of stroke risk. d) TIAs typically last anywhere from a few minutes to a few hours.

The more the slice thickness exceeds pixel size, the greater the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation.

Which statement is true about overlapping reconstructions? A) The more the pixel size exceeds slice thickness, the greater the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation. B) The more the pixel size exceeds slice thickness, the less the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation. C) The more the slice thickness exceeds pixel size, the less the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation. D) The more the slice thickness exceeds pixel size, the greater the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation.

D. The more the slice thickness exceeds pixel size, the greater the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation.

Which statement is true about overlapping reconstructions? a) The more the slice thickness exceeds pixel size, the less the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation. b) The more the pixel size exceeds slice thickness, the greater the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation. c) The more the pixel size exceeds slice thickness, the less the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation. d) The more the slice thickness exceeds pixel size, the greater the benefit of overlapping reconstructions for source data in multiplanar reformation (MPR) and 3D reformation.

People are more concerned about risks that are not under personal control (e.g., pesticides on food) than those that are under personal control (e.g., driving a car).

Which statement is true about the public's perception of risk? A) People are more concerned about activities they understand (e.g. slipping on ice) than they are about those that may be poorly understood (e.g exposure to radiation). B) People are more concerned about fatalities and injuries that are scattered or random in time and space (e.g. automobile accidents) than about incidents that kill many people at the same time (e.g. airplane crashes). C) People are more concerned about risks that are not under personal control (e.g. pesticides on food) than those that are under personal control (e.g driving a car). D) People are more concerned about familiar risks (e.g. household accidents) than unfamiliar risks (e.g. ozone depletion).

The higher the mA setting, the longer the time between scans.

Which statement is true? A. The higher the mA setting, the longer the time between scans. B. The higher the mA setting, the shorter the time between scans. C. The lower the mA setting, the longer the time between scans.

A. the lower the mAs setting, the longer the time between scans

Which statement is true? A. the lower the mAs setting, the longer the time between scans B. the higher the mAs setting, the longer the time between scans C. the higher the mAs setting, the shorter the time between scans

Hypertension

Which stroke risk factor contributes to 70% of all strokes? A. Hypotension B. Hypertension C. Hyopglycemia D. Hyperglycemia

Ports

Which type of CVC has the lowest incidence of infection? A. Non-tunneled catheters B. Ports C. Tunneled catheters

c) Tunneled catheters

Which type of CVC has the lowest incidence of infection? a) Ports b) Non-tunneled catheters c) Tunneled catheters

Stair-step

Which type of artifacts can occur when voxels are not isotropic? A. Streak B. Ring C. Ghosting D. Stair-step

A. Stair-step

Which type of artifacts can occur when voxels are not isotropic? a) Stair-step b) Ring c) Motion d) Streak

a) Stair-step

Which type of artifacts can occur when voxels are not isotropic? Question options: a) Stair-step b) Streak c) Ring d) Motion

TIJ

Which type of printing method involves using "bioink"? A. RCF B. TIJ C. SLS D. FDM

Because quantum noise will result and provide evidence of the inadequate exposure settings.

Why doesn't the uncoupling effect play a role when the mA or kVp setting is too low? A) Because there is no relationship between dose and image quality when the mA or kVp setting is too low. B) Because quantum noise will result and provide evidence of the inadequate exposure settings. C) Because when the settings are too low, the radiation dose cannot be at a dangerous level.

B. because quantum noise will result and provide evidence of the inadequate exposure settings

Why doesn't the uncoupling effect play a role when the mA or kVp setting is too low? A. because there is no relationship between dose and image quality when the mA or kVp setting is too low B. because quantum noise will result and provide evidence of the inadequate exposure settings C. because when the settings are too low, the radiation dose cannot be at a dangerous level

a) Because quantum noise will result and provide evidence of the inadequate exposure settings.

Why doesn't the uncoupling effect play a role when the mA or kVp setting is too low? Question options: a) Because quantum noise will result and provide evidence of the inadequate exposure settings. b) Because there is no relationship between dose and image quality when the mA or kVp setting is too low c) Because when the settings are too low, the radiation dose cannot be at a dangerous level.

E) A, B, and C

Why has lung cancer screening with conventional radiography not been accepted? A) Overlapping of anterior and posterior ribs and clavicles B) Difficulty in differentiating central hilar lesions from normal hilar anatomy C) Nodules are too small D) A and B E) A, B, and C

to dilute the contrast media (CM that is too dense may mask intramural structures!)

Why is a delay of 1 to 3 hours preferred?

Subsequent images will be incorrectly annotated which can result in misdiagnosis and serious medical errors

Why is it important to correctly input the patient's position before the localizer image is obtained? A. There could be an error in image processing otherwise B. Subsequent images will be incorrectly annotated which can result in misdiagnosis C. All images will be under or over exposed due to incorrect patient position selection

to save film

Why is multiple image display often used? A. To view multiple images at once B. To display high quality images C. To save film

d) To save film

Why is multiple image display often used? Question options: a) To view and print the image simultaneously b) To allow two individuals to view the image simultaneously c) To provide multiple copies of the image d) To save film

To temporarily lower the patient's heart rate

Why is not a reason patients are given nitroglycerin sublingually before coronary CT examinations? a) To help to prevent coronary spasm that can mimic stenosis on the CT image C. Ischemic b) To dilate vessels to improve visualization c) To temporarily lower the patient's heart rate

b) To temporarily lower the patient's heart rate

Why is not a reason patients are given nitroglycerin sublingually before coronary CT examinations? Question options: a) To dilate vessels to improve visualization b) To temporarily lower the patient's heart rate c) To help to prevent coronary spasm that can mimic stenosis on the CT image

There is radiation exposure to the abdomen.

Why is positioning the patient's wrist on his abdomen for a CT wrist examination the least desirable patient position? A. It requires the gantry to be tilted B. There is radiation exposure to the abdomen C. It is generally uncomfortable for the patient D. It requires the greatest DFOV

a) There is radiation exposure to the abdomen.

Why is positioning the patient's wrist on his abdomen for a CT wrist examination the least desirable patient position? Question options: a) There is radiation exposure to the abdomen. b) It requires the greatest DFOV. c) It requires the gantry to be tilted. d) It is generally uncomfortable for the patient.

to reduce radiation exposure to the lens of the eye

Why is the supraorbital meatal line used?

It is secure and easy to access

Why is the tunneled catheter the best choice when access to the vein is needed for long periods of time and when the line will be used many times each day? A. It is easier to insert than a non-tunneled catheter B. It is secure and easy to access C. It is less expensive D. It is lighter in weight than a PICC line

b) To assess whether the patient can safely receive an iodinated contrast agent

Why would a patient history form as if the patient has a history of hyperthyroidism? Question options: a) To determine whether the patient could be allergic to the contrast agent b) To assess whether the patient can safely receive an iodinated contrast agent c) To assess the patient's tolerance for closed spaces d) To determine the amount of radiation that can be safely administered

a) To assess whether the patient can safely receive an iodinated contrast agent

Why would a patient history form as if the patient has a history of hyperthyroidism? a) To assess whether the patient can safely receive an iodinated contrast agent b) To determine the amount of radiation that can be safely administered c) To assess the patient's tolerance for closed spaces d) To determine whether the patient could be allergic to the contrast agent

To assess whether the patient can safely receive an iodinated contrast agent

Why would a patient history form ask if the patient has a history of hyperthyroidism? A) To determine the amount of radiation that can be safely administered B) To assess whether the patient can safely receive an iodinated contrast agent C) To assess the patient's tolerance for closed spaces D) To determine whether the patient could be allergic to the contrast agent

false

Wider window width settings increase image contrast.

false

Window level should be set at a point that greater than the average attenuation number of the tissue of interest.

16% to 35%

With intravenous administration, what is the risk of recurrent reaction in a patient with a prior reaction when HOCM is used? A) 5% to 10% B) 16% to 35% C) 10% to 50% D) 100%

computer-aided design

a CAD file is a:

pancreas

a CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. what does number 23 point to?

left external iliac vein

a CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. what does number 3 point to?

coccyx

a CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. what does number 7 point to?

hemiazygos vein

a CT scan of the abdomen is shown in the image. what does number 9 point to?

frontal sinus

a CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to?

nasal bones

a CT scan of the brain is shown in the image. What does number 1 point to?

false

a CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. number 9 is the left lower lobe of the lung

left pulmonary artery

a CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. what is the region represented by number 14?

ascending aorta

a CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. what is the region represented by number 3?

left atrium

a CT scan of the chest is shown in the image. what is the region represented by number 4?

fibula, lateral malleolus

a CT scan of the left foot is in the image. What is the region represented by number 3?

talus

a CT scan of the left foot is shown in the image. what is the region represented by the number 2?

pubis

a CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 9?

adductor brevis muscle

a CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. what is the region represented by number 1?

femoral head

a CT scan of the left hip is shown in the image. what region is represented by number 3?

medial femoral condyle

a CT scan of the left knee is shown in the image. What region is represented by number 7?

capitate

a CT scan of the right wrist is shown in the image. what is the region represented by number 4?

hard palate

a CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. What does number 9 point to?

mandible

a CT scan of the sinuses on the coronal plane is shown in the image. what does number 7 point to?

kidneys

a CT scan of the spine is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 11?

dural sac

a CT scan of the spine is shown in the image. What is the region represented by number 5?

200 mg/dL

a PET study's sensitivity could be limited if the patient blood sugar level is more than how many mg/dL before the injection of FDG?

200 mg/dL

a PET study's sensitivity could be limited if the patients blood sugar level is more than how many mg/dL before injection of FDG?

10%

about what percent of the general population has a ramus intermedius artery?

16 detector

according to the ACR, what is the minimum CT scanner required for low dose CT lung screening

medial pterygoid

acts to close the jaw

Blame decreases the patient's level of self-confidence and, most often, results in the patient responding with___or defensiveness.

anger

intracranial hemorrhage (ICH)

bleeding in the brain caused by a rupture of a blood vessel

allows for the visualization of structures that are slower to enhance while still allowing the visualization of the blood vessels

benefits of using a split bolus injection for neck scans

glabella

between eyebrows, the smooth area

ethmoid notch

between the orbital plates, which receives the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

Noise that May occur as a result of approximations used in the measurement and averaging process and in lack of exact geometrical coordination between the oblique, diverging rays and the positions of the pixels

computational noise

bony orbit

cone-shaped recesses taht contain the globes, extracular muscles, blood vessels, nerves, adipose and connective tissues, and most of the lacrimal apparatus. The junction of the frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones of the cranium and the lacrimal, maxillary, palatine, and zygomatic bones of the face forms this

lacrimal apparatus

consists of a lacrimal gland, lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sac, and nasolacrimal duct and is resposible for the production and distribution of tears

Posterior OMU

consists of the sphenoethmoidal recess and the superior nasal meatus, which communicates with the posterior ethmoid air cells.

ethmoid sinuses

contained within the lateral masses of the ethmoid bone and number in the adult between 3 to 18 cels. They are present at birth and continue to grow and honeycomb into a varying number of air cells through puberty

optic canal

contained within the lesser wing and provides passage of the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

foramen lacerum

contains cartilage and allows the internal carotid artery to enter the cranium

what will applying a high-pass filter do to low contrast resolution?

decrease low-contrast resolution

ischemia

deficiency of oxygen in vital tissues

1 to 3 hours

delay time between intrathecal injection & scanning time

Contrast agents fill a structure with a material that has a different___than that of the structure.

density

endolymph

fluid within the labyrinth of the inner ear which helps with the propagation of sound waves

___questions allow you to get directly to the relevant points and reduce rambling explanations from the patient.

focused

oblique coronal

for CT of the foot, when the patient is positioned with the knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in which plane?

axial

for CT of the foot, when the patient is positioned with the toes pointing straight up, data are acquired in what plane?

bony abnormalities of the spine

for which condition of the spine is CT considered superior to MRI?

neck

for which protocol is the split bolus technique for contrast administration typically used?

nasal bone

form the bony bridge of the nose and articulate with four bones: the frontal and ethmoid bones of the cranium and the opposite nasal bone and maxilla

basilar portion

forms the anterior margin of the foramen magnum and slopes superiorly and anterior to meet the dorsum sella of the sphenoid bone to form the clivus

horizontal portion

forms the roof over each orbit, termed the orbital plate, and the majority of the anterior cranial fossa

supraorbital meatal line (glabellomeatal line)

imaginary line used for positioning that connects the external acoustic meatus to the supraorbital margin

be between 55 and 77 years old have a history of heavy cigarette use

in order for a patient to be eligible for reimbursement for a preventative CT lung scan by medicare and most health insurance companies, the patient must:

2013

in what year was FDA approval given for the first 3D printed skull implant?

anterior OMU

includes the ostia for the frontal and maxillary sinuses, frontal recess, infundibulum, and middle meatus. Provides communication between the frontal, anterior ethmoid, and maxillary sinuses

cochlea

is responsible for hearing

300 mAs

is the patient is supine on the table with his arm resting on the belly during a CT examination wrist, tube current must be increased to at least how many mAs?

Temporomandibular ligament

lateral stability of the TMJ, extends from the articular eminence and zygomatic process to the posterior aspect of the articular disk and the condylar head and neck

apex

located at the opening to the optic canal, the optic foramen

ateriovenous malformation

malformation composed of tangles of arteries & arterialized veins in which the tissue interposed between the vessels is abnormal

muscles of mastication

masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid

external occipital protuberance

midline projection on the external surface of the squamous part of the occipital bone

parietal eminence

on the parietal bone, the central prominent bulge on the outer surface

___communication cues involve the use of touch to impart meaning.

tactile

10%

pheochromocytoma are malignant in about what percent of cases?

asterion

point on the skull corresponding to the posterior end of the parietomastoid suture

lacrimal bone

posterior to the nasal bone and maxilla, which are situated on the medical wall of each orbit

sphenoid sinuses

present at birth but contain red marrow and are therefore devoid of air. Major growth occurs in the third to fifth year, and they typically assume adult configuration between 10-14. Normally paired and occupy the body of the sphenoid bone just below the sella turcica

zygomatic process

projects anteriorly to the zygoma of the face to form the zygomatic arch

perpendicular plate

projects inferiorly from the cribriform plate to form a portion of the bony nasal septum

when talking about subject contrast in radiography there are two major contributing factors

subject contrast and film contrast

false

surgical training is preferable wit cadavers versus 3D printing because cadavers are easier and cheaper to obtain?

sphenofrontal suture

suture between the greater wing of the sphenoid bone and the frontal bone

occipitomastoid suture

suture between the occipital bone and mastoid portion of the temporal bone

parietomastoid suture

suture between the parietal bone and mastoid portion of the temporal bone

Sphenosquamosal suture

suture between the sphenoid bone and squamous portion of the temporal bone

frontal (metopic) suture

suture divides the frontal bone into halves as it extends from the anterior fontanel or sagittal suture to the nasion in infants and children and typically disappears by the age of 6

sphenoparietal suture

suture located between the greater wing of the sphenoid bone and the parietal bone

temporary blurry, dim, gray or loss of vision tingling or numbness in the mouth, cheeks, or gums headaches in back of head dizziness nausea & vomiting difficulty swallowing inability to speak clearly weakness in the arm & legs

symptoms of a TIA when the basilar artery is affected

reduction of oxygen into eye, poor night vision, problems with sleep, tingling, & numbing on one side of the body

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