Private - Chapter 9 - Enroute Flight

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3631 (Refer to Figure 20, area 5) - The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

A- Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL

3626 (Refer to Figure 23, area 3) - what is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

B- 1,300 feet MSL

3572 (Refer to Figure 27) - An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

B- 1030 MST

3574 (Refer to Figure 27) - An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1630 MST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be:

B- 1730 PST

3831 - Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than:

B- 2,000 feet AGL

3634 (Refer to Figure 21) - The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from:

B- 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL

3624 (Refer to Figure 25, area 7) - The airspace overlying Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to:

B- 2,900 feet MSL

3638 (Refer to Figure 23, area 3) - The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from Savannah VORTAC on the 009° radial is:

B- 454 feet MSL

3543 (Refer to Figure 22, area 3) - Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport:

B- 47°33'N - 116°11'W

3786 - Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with:

B- All pilots

3068-2 (Refer to Figure 20, area 1) - The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

B- Class E

3635 (Refer to Figure 21) - Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

B- Minot Intl. (area 1)

3627 (Refer to Figure 20, area 1) - What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

B- Mode C transponder and two-way radio

3126 - What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

B- Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook or endorsements

3783-1 - Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has:

B- Received prior authorization from the controlling agency

3421 (Refer to Figure 59, area 3) - The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is:

B- Surface area Class E airspace

3783 - Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

B- With the controlling agency's authorization

3640 (Refer to Figure 24, area 2) - What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

C- 1,403 feet MSL

3637 (Refer to Figure 23, area 3) - What is the height of the listed obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

C- 1,545 feet MSL

3571 (Refer to Figure 27) - An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

C- 1545Z

3573 (Refer to Figure 27) - An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST fr a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

C- 1645Z

3068-1 - With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include:

C- 18,000 feet MSL

3575 (Refer to Figure 27) - An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

C- 2230Z

3637-1 - Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

C- Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue

3781 - All operations within Class C airspace must be in:

C- An aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability

3117 - A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

C- Class D

3625 (Refer to Figure 25, area 4) - The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is:

C- Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

3623 (Refer to Figure 26, area 5) - The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is:

C- Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

3785 - What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

C- Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

3602 (Refer to Figure 26, area 2) - What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

C- Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

6101-1 (Refer to Figure 75, area 6.) During preflight planning, your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?

C- On the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area.

3788 - A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained within the:

C- Primary airport's control tower

3787-1 - When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

C- The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

3782 - Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

C- The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

3125 - What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

C- Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

2122 (Refer to Figure 69) - What minimum equipment is required for a flight rom Kleberg Co. Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?

C- Two-way radio equipment and Mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment

3632 (Refer to Figure 20, area 2) - The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a:

C- Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial call up to Norfolk Approach Control

2001 (Refer to Figure 68) - The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents:

A- Wind direction and velocity

3069 - Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least:

B- 1,000 feet and 3 miles

3779 - The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally:

C- 4,000 feet AGL

3787 - The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on:

C- The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

3556 (Refer to Figure 24) - Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E:

A- 075°

3568 (Refer to Figure 26) - Determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4):

A- 153°

3576 (Refer to Figure 27) - An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

A- 1645 PST

3633 (Refer to Figure 20, area 2) - The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is:

A- 19 feet

3618 (Refer to Figure 26, area 3) - When flying over Arrowhead National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than:

A- 2,000 feet AGL

3530 (Refer to Figure 20, area 3) - Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport

A- 36°24'N - 76°01'W

3567 (Refer to Figure 26, area 2) - What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?

A- 47°25'N - 98°06'W

3119 - Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings and takeoffs:

A- At all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

3130 - In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited:

A- Class A

3124 - Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A- Class C

3799 - Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A- Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

3603 (Refer to Figure 21, area 3) - What type of military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

A- IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

3127 - What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A- Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

3816 (Refer to Figure 68) - This line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents:

A- True heading and airspeed

3068 - Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from:

B- 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

3639 (Refer to Figure 24, area 1) - What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

B- 1,273 feet MSL

3780 - The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally:

B- 20 NM

3642 (Refer to Figure 25, area 8) - What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of Dallas Executive (RBD)?

B- 3,549 feet MSL

3622 (Refer to Figure 26, area 1) - Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport:

B- Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

3628 (Refer to Figure 25) - At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

B- Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field

3817 (Refer to Figure 68) - The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents:

B- Ground speed and true course

3530-1 - Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

B- Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

3530 (Refer to Figure 21, area 2) - Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?

B- Makeeff

3128 - What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

B- Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

3601 (Refer to Figure 20, area 4) - What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

B- Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

3118 - Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only:

B- When the associated control tower is in operation

3629 (Refer to Figure 22, area 3) - The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are:

C- 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL

3531 (Refer to Figure 20) - Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2):

C- 332°

3636 (Refer to Figure 23) - The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland are:

C- Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial call up prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

3536 (Refer to Figure 21, area 3) - Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?

C- Washburn


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