Private pilot section 6

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

003°.

(Refer to figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?

030°

(Refer to figure 24). Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

075°

(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

078°

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.

Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the day visibility requirement for flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL is:

1 mile

(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds

(Refer to figure 24, area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

1,273 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 24, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

1,403 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

1,548 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 22.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots.

121 degrees

On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.

137 knots

Given: Speed 114 knots. Time traveled 7.5 min. How far have you traveled?

14.3 nm

(Refer to figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

1545Z

(Refer to figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

1645 PST

(Refer to figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

1645Z

(Refer to figure 20.) What is your approximate position on low altitude airway Victor 1, southwest of Norfolk (area 1), if the VOR receiver indicates you are on the 340° radial of Elizabeth City VOR (area 3)?

18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC

(Refer to figure 20, area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

19 feet

(Refer to figure 23.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

195°

To fly in Class E airspace below 1,200 feet AGL, the horizontal distance from clouds is:

2,000 feet

(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 25, area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

2,900 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 25, area 7.) The airspace overlying Collin Co. Regional McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to:

2,900 feet MSL.

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

20 nm

The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

20 nm

The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally

20 nm

(Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Dallas Executive (area 3) to Hicks (T67) (area 4). The wind is from 030° at 10 knots, the true airspeed is 135 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

298°.

(Refer to figure 24, and figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?

3

Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the night visibility requirement for flight at 3,000 feet AGL, but below 10,000 feet MSL, is:

3 miles

(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

(Refer to figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

To operate at night in Class E airspace you need:

3 miles visibility and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

(Refer to figure 25, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Air Park Dallas (F69) is

3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 25, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?

3,549 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

329°

(Refer to figure 20.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

332°

A VOR test facility—VOT—transmits a:

360 degree radial in all directions.

(Refer to figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Cooperstown. Which VOR indication is correct?

4

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

4,000 feet AGL

(Refer to figure 25, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

4,000 feet MSL

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?

4.08 NM

(Refer to figure 21.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.

48 minutes

How much fuel will you need to travel 75 SM if your airplane burns 3 gallons of fuel/hr. and your groundspeed is 45mph?

5 gallons.

(Refer to figure 20, area 3; and figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?

9

An airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called:

A warning Area

In order to find pictorial explanations of airport signs and markings, which publication would you consult?

Aeronautical information manual (AIM).

(Refer to Figure 26, area1.) What might you expect when flying in an MOA such as Devils Lake.

Air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low−altitude tactics.

Which description below accurately describes the colors used for airports on a Sectional Chart?

Airports with control towers are shown in blue.

(Refer to Figure 71.) Close to the airport information box at Lincoln Regional/Harder (area 4) notice a parachute icon. Which publication would give you information about the parachute jumping operations there?

Chart Supplement publication

(Refer to figure 22, area 1 and legend 1. ) For information about the glider operations at Sandpoint Airport, refer to the

Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Class D

(Refer to figure 25, area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?

Class D, which then becomes Class E

(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) What type of airspace surrounds NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport?

Class E

(Refer to Figure 26, area 1.) What type of airspace is over Tomlinson Airport.

Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.

Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

You want your wind ground track and ____________to be the same.

Course

(Refer to figure 78 and figure 79.) You are approaching Sioux City airport. Where would you expect to see the airport beacon?

East of runway 17-35.

(Refer to figure 25, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the Maverick VOR/DME. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft's position from the VOR/DME?

East-northeast.

(Refer to figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 144° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?

Glenmar Airport

(Refer to figure 21, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

If your GPS receiver is equipped with WAAS—Wide Area Augmentation System—your position accuracy is:

Less than three meters.

(Refer to figure 21.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

Minot Intl. (area 1)

(Refer to figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder, two-way radio, and ADS-B out.

(Refer to figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

Time-critical aviation information can be found in:

NOTAMs

What is the minimum pilot certificate for flying in Class D airspace?

No minimum pilot certificate is specified for operations in Class D airspace.

A prohibited area is airspace designated under part 73 within which:

No person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the using agency.

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

Primary airport's control tower.

(Refer to figure 52.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?

Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

(Refer to Figure 23.) You tune to the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR. Drawing courses for both on your Sectional, they intersect where?

Southeast of Guyton.

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

Why is it a good idea to file a VFR flight plan with FSS?

To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency.

(Refer to figure 23.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 344° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?

Town of Springfield.

If you measure your course on your sectional in reference to a meridian, that line is called a:

True course

(Refer to Figure 68.) What does the line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represent?

True heading and airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 69.) You are on a cross-country flight from Kingsville Airport (area 2) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3). What minimum equipment will you need for the flight?

Two-way radio, Mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment, and ADS-B Out.

(Refer to figure 51) What information should be entered in the Level field for Item 15 on the International Flight Plan form?

VFR cruising altitude.

(Refer to figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

VOR/DME

(Refer to Figure 68.) On the wind triangle, the line from point C to A represents:

Wind direction and velocity.

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

With the controlling agency's authorization.

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.

A global positioning system will give your exact geographical position:

at any point on the globe

(Refer to Figure 22.) Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)

from AWOS 3 135.075

(Refer to Figure 68.) On the wind triangle, the line from point C to B represents:

groundspeed and true course.

The issuance of a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) may include:

protecting public figures.

If you are on a cross-country flight, to keep from losing your course you should:

refer to selected ground features and checkpoints.

You are flying on an easterly course. If the wind is from the northeast, you must crab the airplane:

somewhat to the north of east to counteract drift.

(Refer to figure 28, illustration 7.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

southeast

FDC NOTAMS contain regulatory information, such as:

temporary flight restrictions.

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,

the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.

(Refer to figure 52.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 36.

In order to check your progress when using dead reckoning with no radio instrumentation, make corrections by:

using pilotage and keep track of your checkpoints.

(Refer to figure 20, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

(Refer to figure 23.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.