PTCB Practice Test
A compounded prescription requires using 12 capsules costing $20.00 pre 50 capsules and 120 grams of an ointment base costing $7.50 per pound. If a $3.00 dispensing fee is included, how much should the patient be charged? a. $9.78 b. $11.78 c. $13.50 d. $15.55
a
A doctor prescribes Cipro® 500 mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription? a. the prescription does not have a duration of therapy b. the prescription does not have a route of drug administration c. the prescription does not have directions for use d. the prescription does not have a drug strength
a
A patient on warfarin therapy should be cautioned to not take which of the following medications? a. Aspirin b. Demerol® c. Percocet® d. Tylenol®
a
A patient states that they need their empty bottle of Concerta® refilled. What do you tell the patient? a. State that the medication is not refillable b. Refill the medication c. Have the pharmacist contact the physician for a refill d. Contact the patient's insurance company
a
A pharmacy technician can do all the following except a. accept a verbal medication order from a physician b. b. place drug labels on prescription containers c. contact the wholesaler for a drug order d. prescription data entry into a computer
a
A vial of reconstituted doxorubicin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the technician do? a. clean up the spill with a "spill kit" b. dilute the spill with bleach c. dilute the spill with alcohol d. wipe up the spill with paper towels
a
According to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which of the following medications would not need a safety cap? a. Nitrostat® b. Viroptic® c. Zantac® d. Amoxil®
a
An example of a major drug-drug interaction would be a. warfarin - plavix b. digoxin - dilitazem c. penicillin - cephalosporin d. hydrocodone - codeine
a
How does the "C" designation for controlled substances need to appear? a. in red in the lower right hand corner of the prescription b. in black in the lower right hand corner of the prescription c. in red in the center of the prescription d. in black in the center of the prescription
a
How many gallons are contained in 136 pints? a. 17 gallons b. 19 gallons c. 21 gallons d. 23 gallons
a
How many mls are needed to inject 25 units of U100 insulin a. 0.25 b. 0.35 c. 0.45 d. 0.55
a
In intravenous administration, a short tubing inserted into the vein to receive the IV tubing and help prevent coagulation at the site is called a a. heparin lock b. stopper needle c. vein plug d. IV attachment
a
Of the following class of antibiotics, which one tends to bind with metals such as calcium, aluminum, iron, and magnesium? a. tetracyclines b. sulfonamides c. aminoglycosides d. cephalosporins
a
Of the following reference sources, which one contains the manufacturers package insert? a. PDR b. Red book c. Remington's d. Facts and Comparisons
a
Tagamet® IV has been ordered to run at 2.5 drops/min. It contains 875 mg of Tagamet® in a total of 250 ml. How many milligrams of Tagamet® will the patient receive per hour if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml? a. 35 mg/hr b. 40 mg/hr c. 45 mg/hr d. 50 mg/hr
a
The DEA number consists of 2 letters and seven digits, with the second letter corresponding to the prescriber's a. last name b. specialty c. state of practice d. none of the above
a
The MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) a. provides information concerning hazardous substances b. provides information for fire drills c. provides information in the event of a natural disaster d. none of the above
a
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) in 1990, helped in requiring a. the counseling of patients by pharmacists b. the Controlled Substance Act c. established pharmacy budgets d. inventory management
a
The mixing of calcium additive with this other additive could result in precipitation or the forming of solids in the IV admixture: a. calcium gluconate b. zinc c. magnesium sulfate d. potassium choloride
a
Three different drugs are needed to make a 1:3:6 120 g ointment. How much of each drug is needed? a. 12 g, 36 g, 72 g b. 18 g, 54 g, 90 g c. 30 g, 60 g, 90 g d. 40 g, 60 g, 80 g
a
Trituration is defined as a. the grinding of a powder to finer particle size using a mortar and pestle b. the grinding of a powder to finer particle size using a mortar, pestle, and liquid c. the measurement involving the graduated cylander d. the infusion of IV solution and IV Admixtures
a
U-100 insulin contains a. 100 units per 1 ml b. 100 units per 10 ml c. 100 units per 50 ml d. 100 units per 100 ml
a
What auxiliary label should you use for this particular sig; ii gtts OU bid a. for the ear b. for the eye c. take with meals d. avoid alcohol
a
What is the percentage strength of a 1:2000 epinephrine solution? a. 0.05% b. 0.25% c. 0.5% d. 1%
a
What is the proper way to clean a laminar flow hood? a. clean the hood from side to side starting from the back of the hood towards the front of the hood b. clean the hood from side to side starting from the front of the hood working towards the rear of the hood c. clean the plexiglass side with isopropyl alcohol d. wipe the hood with a cloth
a
What legislation regulates the use and distribution of substances with high abuse potential? a. CSA b. DEA c. FDA d. OBRA
a
What size filter is considered a sterilizing filter? a. 0.22 micron b. 0.3 micron c. 0.45 micron d. 5 micron
a
What type of product information does an MSDS provide? a. product ingredients b. product side effects c. product contraindications d. product warnings
a
When a drug crosses a membrane into the blood stream, it is called a. absorption b. distribution c. elimination d. metabolism
a
Which medication is an anticonvulsant? a. carbamazepine b. lorazepam c. metoprolol d. sumatriptan
a
Which of the following class of drug shows a cross-sensitivity to penicillin? a. cephalosporin b. fluoroquinolone c. macrolide d. tetracycline
a
Which of the following deals with the sale of certain drugs that have a potential for abuse? a. Controlled Substance Act b. Federal Hazardous Substances Act c. Orphan Drug Act d. FDA Modernization Act
a
Which of the following drugs is not an OTC product? a. Ibuprofen 400 mg tablets b. Nuprin® c. Tylenol® d. Zyrtec®
a
Which of the following is a Scheduled IV controlled substance? a. Ativan® b. Lomotil® c. Percocet® d. Tramadol
a
Which of the following medications may not be crushed? a. Ecotrin® 325mg b. Losartan® 50mg c. Percocet® 5/325mg d. Robaxin® 500mg
a
180 ml is equivalent to how many fluid ounces? a. 5.5 b. 6.0 c. 6.25 d. 6.5
b
5 liters of Magic Mouthwash suspension is divided into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension? a. 150 ml b. 200 ml c. 250 ml d. 300 ml
b
A TPN order is to contain 2 mg/l of folic acid. If the stock vial of folic acid contains 5 mg/ml, what volume would be required to prepare 2000 ml of TPN? a. 0.4 ml b. 0.8 ml c. 1.2 ml d. 1.6 ml
b
A bottle has the labeled strength of 1/200 grains. What would this be in milligrams? a. 0.3mg b. 3 mg c. 30 mg d. 300 mg
b
A prescription is written for Penicillin VK 250mg tabs po qid for 5 days. If the patient cannot swallow tablets and requests a liquid dosage form, what volume of 250mg/5ml suspension should be dispensed? a. 50ml b. 100ml c. 150ml d. 200ml
b
All aseptic manipulations in the Laminar Flow Hood should be preformed at least a. four inches within the hood b. six inches within the hood c. eight inches within the hood d. ten inches within the hood
b
All legend drugs require a manufacture package insert attached or inside the container. In many cases these inserts are not given to the patient. Which of the following drugs require the pharmacist to give a patient the manufacturer insert? a. Atenolol b. Conjugated Estrogens c. Lithium Carbonate d. Potassium Chloride
b
Amoxicillin oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution? a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 20 days d. 30 days
b
At what temperature should procaine penicillin G be stored? a. 0-4 degrees b. 2-8 degrees c. 10-20 degrees d. 30-40 degrees
b
Cleocin® suspension is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. How many ml are required for a 300 mg dose? a. 15 ml b. 20 ml c. 25 ml d. 30 ml
b
Fentanyl, meperidine and codeine all belong to which controlled schedule? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV
b
For the following IV, what would the approximate infusion rate be in gtts / minute? (Drop factor 13 gtts/ml) NS 1000 ml over 8 hours a. 18 gtts/min b. 27 gtts/min c. 34 gtts/min d. 41 gtts/min
b
From the following directions, how many tablets should be dispensed 1 tab po qid x 2 days, then 1 po tid x 2 days, then 1 po bid x 2 days, then dc a. 12 b. 18 c. 22 d. 24
b
Furosemide is used as a a. sedative b. diuretic c. anti-inflammatory agent d. an analgesic
b
Heparin is available in a vial labeled 20,000U per ml. How many ml are required for a 5,000U dose? a. 0.25 ml b. 0.5 ml c. 0.625 ml d. 0.75 ml
b
Histamine-2 (H2) blockers such as famotidine (Pepcid®) mechanism of drug action is to block H2 receptor sites in the stomach. By doing this a. you increase acid secretion b. you inhibit acid secretion c. you inhibit stomach smooth muscle contraction d. none of the above
b
Hospital pharmacies are required to follow regulations governed by which of the following organization? a. ASCP b. JCAHO c. USP d. ASHP
b
How long may a schedule IV drug be refilled a. no refills b. 6 months or 5 refills c. 1 year d. unlimited refills
b
How many milligrams is 1/200 gr of Nitrostat? a. 0.2 mg b. 0.3 mg c. 0.4 mg d. 0.5 mg
b
How much NaCl is in the following IV bag: D 5 ½ NS 250ml ( NS is 0.9% NaCl) a. 0.9 grams b. 1.25 grams c. 3.25 grams d. 8 grams
b
If a manufacturer's labeling results in a temporary adverse health consequence, what type of FDA recall would be instituted? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV
b
In the formulation of a capsule, the strength of the capsule is a. the weight of the capsule itself b. the weight of the active ingredient c. the weight of the dosage d. the does to be given
b
Injection into the muscle tissue below the skin, is what type of injection? a. intradermal b. intramuscular c. intravenous d. subcutaneous
b
Of the following schedules, which one deals with drugs that have an accepted medical use and a high potential with severe psychic or physical dependence liability? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV
b
One pound is equal to a. 2.2 g b. 454 g c. 1000 mg d. 2200 mg
b
The approximate size container for the dispensing of 120 ml of liquid medication would be? a. 2 oz. b. 4 oz. c. 6 oz. d. 8 oz.
b
The directions for use for a medication is "ii gtts ou bid". What does "ou" mean? a. left eye b. both eyes c. left ear d. both ears
b
The directions for use of a medication is "3 ml im prn". What is the meaning of "im"? a. into the eye b. into the muscle c. into the skin d. under the tongue
b
The dispensing label on an outpatient pharmacy prescription requires a. cost to the patient b. legal name of pharmacy and address c. physician's license number d. physician's DEA number
b
The infusion rate of an IV is over 8 hours. The total exact volume is 500 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute? a. 0.44 ml/minute b. 1.04 ml/minute c. 2.08 ml/minute d. 2.40 ml/minute
b
The more concentrated a solution, the more stable the solution a. True b. False
b
To ensure sterility of an IV product from bacteria, what size micron filter is needed? a. 0.2 microns b. 0.22 microns c. 0.45 microns d. 1.0 microns
b
Topical anti-infectives include antibiotics, antivirals, and antifungals. Which of the following drugs would be used as an antifungal angent? a. bacitracin b. clotrimazole c. polysporin d. valcyclovir
b
Warfarin belongs to which pharmacological category? a. antibiotic b. anticoagulant c. anticonvulsant d. anti-inflammatory
b
What does the following order mean: ii gtts AU tid a. two drops in each eye three times a day b. two drops in each ear three times a day c. two drops in each eye two times a day d. two drops in each ear two times a day
b
What dosage form should be dispensed with the following order? Acetaminophen 325 mg PR q8h prn. a. capsules b. suppositories c. syrup d. tablets
b
What is the Latin abbreviation for "bedtime"? a. ac b. hs c. pc d. qd
b
What is the correct expiration date for this drug if the container states: 11/2011 a. 11/01/2011 b. 11/30/2011 c. 10/31/2011 d. 12/31/2011
b
What is the percentage strength of a kg of an ointment that contains 350 grams of active ingredient? a. 30% b. 35% c. 40% d. 45%
b
What type of prescription balance must be used for compounding 60 grams of a cream? a. bulk prescription balance b. class A prescription balance c. class B prescription balance d. class C prescription balance
b
What volume of a 2% triamcinolone solution can be made from 10 grams of triamcinolone powder? a. 250 ml b. 500 ml c. 750 ml d. 1000 ml
b
When dispensing ProAir HFA® Inhaler, how often must the Patient Package Insert (PPI) be included with the drug product? a. every other time that the prescription is dispensed b. every time the prescription is dispensed c. at the time the original prescription is dispensed d. there is never a time that it needs to be dispensed
b
Where would a pharmacy technician find information to assist them in compounding a lotion? a. Facts and Comparisons b. Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences c. PDR d. Merck Manual
b
Which drug agency is responsible to regulate medical devices? a. DEA b. FDA c. JCAHO d. OSHA
b
Which drug can be used as a patch a. Triamanolone b. Estrogen c. Ciprofloxacin d. Vitamin D
b
Which drug information source should be consulted to determine a possible drug interaction? a. American Drug Index b. Facts and Comparisons c. Orange Book d. Red Book
b
Which of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine? a. Florcet® b. Klonopin® c. MS Contin® d. Percodan®
b
Which of the following is not a Schedule II Controlled Substance? a. Adderall® b. Ativan® c. Oxycontin® d. Percocet®
b
Which of the following lipoproteins is considered "good cholesterol"? a. low density lipoproteins (LDL) b. high density lipoproteins (HDL) c. triglycerides d. none of the above
b
You have a 70% solution of Dextrose. How many kilograms of Dextrose is in 500ml of this solution? a. 0.12 kg b. 0.35 kg c. 1.2 kg d. 3.5 kg
b
30 grams of hydrocortisone 2.5% ointment is combined with 15 grams of hydrocortisone 1% ointment. What is the percentage of hydrocortisone in the final product? a. 1% b. 1.5% c. 2.0% d. 2.5%
c
A dose is written for 5 mg/kg every 12 hours for three days. The adult to take this medication weighs 120 pounds. How much drug will be needed to fill this order? a. 600 mg b. 980 mg c. 1636 mg d. 1682 mg
c
A nonsolvent liquid is added to a powder to form a paste prior to the incorporation of a powder into an ointment or cream base. This is called a. flocculation b. micturition c. levigation d. trituration
c
A patient is on the drug Ciprofloxacin. What is this patient most likely being treated for? a. hypertension b. diabetes c. infection d. gastro esophageal reflux disease
c
A piggyback has 50 ml of antibiotic infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml? a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 25 minutes d. 35 minutes
c
A small volume intravenous bag specifically used to deliver medication is called an a. injection b. buetrol c. IVPB d. none of the above
c
Aminosyn is an Amino Acid sometimes used in TPN orders to provide protein for cellular growth and repair. An order is written for Aminosyn 2.5% 1000ml. The pharmacy only has Aminosyn 8.5% 1000ml. Using a sterile evacuated container, how do you prepare the ordered TPN? a. add 157 ml of Aminosyn 8.5% and qs with sterile water to 1000ml b. add 276 ml of Aminosyn 8.5% and qs with sterile water to 1000ml c. add 294 ml of Aminosyn 8.5% and qs with sterile water to 1000ml d. add 314 ml of Aminosyn 8.5% and qs with sterile water to 1000ml
c
Bulk solid dosage forms are repacked into unit dosed packages. What expiration date will now appear on the packages? a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 50% of labeled expiration date to a maximum of 1 year d. the original expiration date on the bulk solid
c
Digoxin is available in a concentration of 0.1 mg/ml. How many ml are required to administer a 50 mcg dose? a. 0.05 ml b. 0.25 ml c. 0.5 ml d. 0.75 ml
c
For a cart exchange in the hospital setting, how many hour supply of medication is placed in the patient's bin? a. 8 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 36 hours
c
How far within a hood is a pharmacy technician suppose to work? a. 1 inch within the hood b. 3 inches within the hood c. 6 inches within the hood d. no guidelines as long as you are in the hood
c
How many 10 mg minoxidil tablets would be needed to make 60 ml of a 2% solution? a. 20 tablets b. 60 tablets c. 120 tablets d. 240 tablets
c
How many 100 mg tablets will be needed to make ½ liter of a 1:250 solution? a. 5 tablets b. 10 tablets c. 20 tablets d. 40 tablets
c
How many 30 mg KMNO4 (Potassium Permanganate) tablets are needed to make the following solution: KMNO4 1:5000 900 ml a. 3 tablets b. 4 tablets c. 6 tablets d. 8 tablets
c
How many ml are in 1 and ½ tablespoons? a. 12.5 ml b. 15 ml c. 22.5 ml d. 30 ml
c
How many mls of water should be added to 95% ethyl alcohol to make 1 liter of a 30% ethyl alcohol solution? a. 225 ml b. 325 ml c. 685 ml d. 775 ml
c
How much diluent do you need to add to a 5 gram vial to get a concentration of 250 mg/ml? Disregard the space the powder may occupy. a. 12 ml b. 18 ml c. 20 ml d. 25 ml
c
How much of a 1:400 solution is needed to make a 1:1200 500 ml? a. 66 ml b. 84 ml c. 167 ml d. 176 ml
c
How much of a D20W 1000 ml and D5W 1000 ml is needed to make a D8.5W 400 ml? a. 112.2 ml / 287.8 ml b. 104.5 ml / 295.5 ml c. 93.3 ml / 306.7 ml d. 84.6 ml / 315.4 ml
c
How often must a laminar flow hood be checked? a. every month b. every 3 months c. every 6 months d. it does not need to be checked
c
If you are working in a community Pharmacy setting, you will have a refrigerator to store medications that require a storage temperature of a. -10 - 0 degrees Celsius b. 0 - 1 degrees Celsius c. 2 - 8 degrees Celsius d. 4 - 8 degrees Celsius
c
Insulin is to be added to an IV admixture. What type of insulin should you use? a. Glargine b. Isophane c. Regular d. Ultra Lente
c
Lidoderm® is available in which dosage form? a. IV b. oral c. patch d. topical cream
c
Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI) units are used by asthmatic patients as a quick way to deliver medications via oral inhalation. Of the following products, which is available as a MDI unit? a. Theobromine b. Theophylline c. Ipratropium d. Aminophylline
c
Most drugs are metabolized by the a. gall bladder b. kidney c. liver d. heart
c
Normal Saline contains a. 0.33% NaCl b. 0.45% NaCl c. 0.9% NaCl d. 1.9% NaCl
c
Of the following Group Names, which one would be used for allergies? a. Antiseptics b. Antitussives c. Antihistamines d. Antibiotics
c
Pseudoephedrine, a common ingredient in cold medications, is contraindicated in which of the following disease states? a. GERD b. Glaucoma c. Hypertension d. Sunburn
c
State regulation of pharmacies and licensing of pharmacies is done by what department? a. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. State Board of Pharmacy d. State legislature
c
State the number of ounces in one pint. a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 24
c
The computer program used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting is a. hardware b. server c. software d. terminal
c
The correct size of syringe to use for a 4.5 ml dose would be what size? a. 1 ml b. 3 ml c. 5 ml d. 10 ml
c
The cost of 60 grams of Fluocinolone 0.025% ointment is $12.75. What would be the cost of 15 grams? a. $2.25 b. $3.09 c. $3.19 d. $4.25
c
The exact metric weight of sixteen ounces is a. 154 grams b. 380 grams c. 454 grams d. 580 grams
c
The expiration date on a bottle of Furosemide 40 mg tablets states 4/12. When does this drug expire? a. midnight 3/31/12 b. midnight 4/1/12 c. midnight 4/30/12 d. midnight 5/1/12
c
The purpose of OSHA is to: a. ensure proper pharmacy licensing b. monitor drug recalls c. assure a safe workplace d. ensure safe and effective drug therapy
c
Two drugs are to be combined in a 2:1 ratio. How much of each is required to make 90 ml of the suspension? a. 15 ml/75 ml b. 30 ml/60 ml c. 60 ml/30 ml d. 75 ml/15 ml
c
What does the abbreviation "NPO" mean? a. allergy b. carcinogenic c. nothing by mouth d. take with meals
c
What does the red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription mean? a. The drug is Schedule I controlled substance only b. The drug is Schedule II controlled substance only c. The drug is Schedule II, III, IV or V controlled substances d. none of the above
c
What drug can be used for toxicity of methotrexate? a. Acetylcysteine b. Ipecac c. Leucovorin d. Taxol® injection
c
What drug in a dose of 20 mg qd is used to treat edema? a. Dilantin® b. Inderal® c. Lasix® d. Pepcid®
c
What ratio of 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose should be mixed to make a 20% dextrose solution? a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 2:1 d. 3:1
c
What temperature is "controlled room temperature"? a. 0-4 degrees Centigrade b. 10-15 degrees Centigrade c. 15-30 degrees Centigrade d. 30-40 degrees Centigrade
c
What type of infection is known as a "hospital borne" infection? a. infectious b. air borne c. nosocomial d. superinfection
c
When a liquid formulation is dissolved completely and does not appear cloudy in nature, we call this liquid a a. suspension b. emulsion c. solution d. gel
c
Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve under the tongue rather than the stomach? a. enteric coated b. intranasal c. sublingual d. transdermal
c
Which drug is most likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction? a. Levaquin® b. Cephalexin® c. Tetracycline® d. Cipro®
c
Which law created the DEA? a. a. 1938 Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FDC) b. b. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) c. c. 1970 Controlled Substance Act (CSA) d. d. 1997 FDA Modernization Act
c
Which of the following IV solutions is considered to be isotonic? a. 0.22% NaCL b. 0.45% NaCL c. 0.9% NaCL d. 2% NaCL
c
Which of the following drug classes have cross sensitivity? a. cephalosporin and erythromycin b. erythromycin and penicillin c. penicillin and cephalosporin d. tetracycline and penicillin
c
Which of the following drugs is an antiarrhythmic? a. Percocet® b. Pravachol® c. Pronestyl® d. Pyridium®
c
Which of the following drugs would be used to decrease blood pressure? a. amiodarone b. digoxin c. propranolol d. nitroglycerin
c
Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic? a. Celebrex® b. Diltiazem c. Meperidine d. Piroxicam
c
Which of the following is not a diruetic? a. Furosemide b. Hydrochlorothiazine c. Lotensin® d. Maxzide®
c
Which solution is recommended for cleaning a laminar flow hood? a. acetone b. betadine c. isopropyl alcohol d. soap and water
c
While working in the laminar flow hood, the major source of contamination will be: a. the IV bag b. the medication vial c. the individual preparing the product d. the syringe being used
c
With a Class A Prescription Balance a. the final measurement should be determined with the cover up b. the weight goes on the left pan and the material goes on the right pan c. the weight goes on the right pan and the material goes on the left pan d. the weights are made of plastic
c
XL in Roman numerals is equivalent to a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50
c
You are due to receive a 5% refund from your pharmacy invoice totaling $11,352. What approximate amount of refund should you receive? a. $368.00 b. $468.00 c. $568.00 d. $668.00
c
You receive a bottle in milligram strength, but your prescription is for Levothyroxine gr 1/200. What is grain 1/400 equal to in milligrams? a. 0.05 mg b. 0.1 mg c. 0.15 mg d. 0.2 mg
c
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 250 mg / 5 ml 100 mg QID for ten days. How many mls do you need to fill this prescription to last the full ten days? a. 40 ml b. 60 ml c. 80 ml d. 100 ml
c
Zithromax® is the same as a. erythomycin b. clarithromycin c. azithromycin d. none of the above
c
A 12 month old child has just consumed half a bottle of Children's Motrin®. What should the pharmacy technician NOT do? a. ask them to go to the nearest ER b. ask them to speak to the pharmacist c. give them the poison control center number d. tell them to induce vomiting
d
A formula for a cough syrup contains 1 gr of codeine per fluid ounce. How many grains are contained in one tablespoon? a. 1/8 gr b. 1/6 gr c. ¼ gr d. ½ gr
d
A neighboring pharmacy calls for a copy of a prescription and the pharmacist is counseling a patient. What should the pharmacy technician do? a. Give the pharmacy the information they are requesting. b. Tell the pharmacy to contact the physician instead. c. Ask the pharmacist to take the call now. d. Ask the pharmacy to call back when the pharmacist is not busy.
d
A patient visits the pharmacy complaining of dry, nonproductive cough. What should the pharmacy technician do? a. Suggest the use of Guafenisen b. Suggest the patient go to the ER c. Suggest the patient contact their doctor d. Suggest the patient speak to the pharmacist
d
A prescription states "refill prn", how long may this prescription be refilled? a. no refills b. 1 month c. 6 months d. 1 year
d
A prescription states the following instructions: 2 tabs tid for 3 days, 3 tabs po bid for 2 days, 2 tabs po qd for 2 days, 1 tab po qd for 1 day, ½ tab po qd for 1 day. How many tablets should be dispensed? a. 30 tablets b. 32 tablets c. 34 tablets d. 36 tablets
d
Accreditation of institutional settings in the responsibility of what agency? a. AMA b. ASHP c. FDA d. JCAHO
d
After opening an ampule, you do all of the following EXCEPT a. break the ampule with an alcohol pad covering the neck b. filter the contents with a filter needle upon withdrawal c. wipe the neck with an alcohol pad d. dry the neck with a paper towel after wiping with an alcohol pad
d
All of the following are requirements for the safeguarding of controlled substances except a. dispensing records b. inventory records c. storage records d. transport records
d
Ativan® is the same as a. enalapril b. fluoxetine c. lisinopril d. lorazepam
d
Controlled substances need to be physically inventoried how often? a. every month b. every 6 months c. once a year d. once every two years
d
Determine the flow rate of an IVPB containing 120 ml of tobramycin. The solution is to be infused over a 1 hour time period and the administration set is calibrated to deliver 10 drops per ml. a. 5 gtts/min b. 10 gtts/min c. 15 gtts/min d. 20 gtts/min
d
Grinding tablets in a mortar to make a fine powder is an example of a. emulsification b. flocculation c. levigation d. trituration
d
Of the following drugs, which one is not a chemo drug? a. Doxorubicin b. 5-Flouraracil c. Paclitaxel d. Valacyclovir
d
Of the following needles, which size of needle is least likely to cause "coring"? a. 13 G b. 16 G c. 20 G d. 23 G
d
Safety in the workplace is the responsibility of what government agency? a. DEA b. FDA c. NDA d. OSHA
d
The drug Omeprazole is what we call a proton pump inhibitor, of the following disease states, what would this drug most likely be used for? a. hypertension b. diabetes c. infection d. gastro esophageal reflux disease
d
The enzyme HMG-CoA reductase is involved in the synthesis of cholesterol from fat. Which of the following drugs is considered a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor? a. cholestyramine b. fenofibrate c. gemfibrozil d. simvastatin
d
The first set of digits of the NDC number are indicative of a. the lot number b. package size c. product identification d. the manufacturer
d
The form for ordering Schedule II drugs is: a. DEA Form 122 b. DEA Form 200 c. DEA Form 212 d. DEA Form 222
d
The medication instructions state "ii gtts au q8h x 2d". What does the "au" stand for? a. in the right ear b. in the left eye c. in both eyes d. in both ears
d
The middle set of digits in a National Drug Code (NDC) number represents a. the cost of the product b. the manufacturer c. the product size d. the product strength and dosage form
d
The process where a drug is transformed by the liver is called a. absorption b. digestion c. elimination d. metabolism
d
There are many types of Insulin and many forms of it. Insulins are derived synthetically or from animal sources such as pork or beef. Which of the following insulins would be considered fast acting? a. Lantus® b. NPH, lente c. PZI, ultralente d. insulin lispro
d
Three of the following numbers are acceptable DEA numbers, which one is not? a. AH 1327142 b. AH 1462136 c. AH 2361424 d. AH 3126426
d
What is diphenhydramine used for? a. to sweeten prescriptions b. to induce vomiting c. to suppress a cough d. to relieve itching from hives
d
What kind of measuring device should be used to measure 4 ml of a liquid for compounding? a. 2 ml pipette b. 5 ml beaker c. 10 ml conical graduate d. 10 ml cylindrical graduate
d
What volume of 24% trichloroacetic acid (TCA) is needed to prepare eight 3 ounce bottles of 10% TCA solution? a. 150 ml b. 200 ml c. 250 ml d. 300 ml
d
Which characteristic is important when preparing an IV admixture? a. aroma b. color c. palpability d. stability
d
Which of the following groups is usually a member of the P and T Committee? a. medical representative b. nursing representative c. pharmacy representative d. all of the above
d
Which of the following information is not needed for unit dose medication? a. expiration date b. lot number c. manufacturer d. patient's name
d
Who implements formulary review? a. ASHP b. DEA c. FDA d. P and T Committee
d
You have a prescription for a one month supply of Valacyclovir. If the doctor requests, up to how many refills can be obtained from this prescription? a. no refills b. 1 refill c. 6 refills d. 11 refills
d
