QnA for all topics
Which answers refer to JSON values rather than JSON keys as found in the sample JSON data? (Choose two answers.) { "response": { "type": "Cisco Catalyst 9300 Switch", "family": "Switches and Hubs", "role": "ACCESS", "managementIpAddress": "10.10.22.66" } } "response" "type" "ACCESS" The entire gray area
"ACCESS" The entire gray area
Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.254.0? a. /19 b. /20 c. /23 d. /24 e. /25
/23
Which of the following masks, when used as the only mask within a Class B network, would supply enough subnet bits to support 100 subnets? (Choose two.) a. /24 b. 255.255.255.252 c. /20 d. 255.255.252.0
/24 255.255.255.252
Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.255.240? a. /26 b. /28 c. /27 d. /30 e. /29
/28
Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0? 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.31 0.0.0.240 0.0.0.255 0.0.15.0 0.0.248.255
0.0.0.255
Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.240.0? 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.31 0.0.0.240 0.0.0.255 0.0.15.255 0.0.248.255
0.0.15.255
For the IPv6 address FD00:1234:5678:9ABC:DEF1:2345:6789:ABCD, which part of the address is considered the global ID of the unique local address? a. None; this address has no global ID. b. 00:1234:5678:9ABC c. DEF1:2345:6789:ABCD d. 00:1234:5678 e. FD00
00:1234:5678
Consider the following output from a Cisco Catalyst switch: SW1# show mac address-table dynamic Mac Address Table ------------------------------------------- Vlan Mac Address Type Ports ---- ----------- -------- ----- 1 02AA.AAAA.AAAA DYNAMIC Gi0/1 1 02BB.BBBB.BBBB DYNAMIC Gi0/2 1 02CC.CCCC.CCCC DYNAMIC Gi0/3 Total Mac Addresses for this criterion: 3 Which of the following answers is true about this switch? a. The output proves that port Gi0/2 connects directly to a device that uses address 02BB.BBBB.BBBB. b. The switch has learned three MAC addresses since the switch powered on. c. The three listed MAC addresses were learned based on the destination MAC address of frames forwarded by the switch. d. 02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3.
02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3
Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? (Choose three answers.) a. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 2 bytes of the address. b. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address. c. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address. d. The part of the address that holds this manufacturer's code is called the MAC. e. The part of the address that holds this manufacturer's code is called the OUI. f. The part of the address that holds this manufacturer's code has no specific name.
1. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address 2. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address 3. The part of the address that holds this manufacturer's code is called the OUI
A fellow engineer tells you to configure the DHCP server to lease the last 100 usable IP addresses in subnet 10.1.4.0/23. Which of the following IP addresses could be leased as a result of your new configuration? a. 10.1.4.156 b. 10.1.4.254 c. 10.1.5.200 d. 10.1.7.200 e. 10.1.255.200
10.1.5.200
Which of the following is the resident subnet ID for IP address 10.7.99.133/24? a. 10.0.0.0 b. 10.7.0.0 c. 10.7.99.0 d. 10.7.99.128
10.7.99.0
Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling? a. 10GBASE-T b. 100BASE-T c. 1000BASE-T d. None of the other answers is correct
1000BASE-T
Which of the following is the most likely technology used for an access link to a Metro Ethernet service? 100BASE-LX10 High-speed TDM (for example, T3, E3) MPLS 100BASE-T
100BASE-LX10
Which of the following are not valid Class A network IDs? (Choose two answers.) a. 1.0.0.0 b. 130.0.0.0 c. 127.0.0.0 d. 9.0.0.0
130.0.0.0 127.0.0.0
In the following excerpt from a command on a Mac, which of the following parts of the output represent information learned from a DHCP server? (Choose two answers.) Macprompt$ ifconfig en0 En1: flags=8863<UP,BROADCAST,SMART,RUNNING,SIMPLEX,MULTICAST> mtu 1500 options=10b<RXCSUM,TXCSUM,VLAN_HWTAGGING,AV> ether 00:6d:e7:b1:9a:11 inet 172.16.4.2 netmask 0xffffff00 broadcast 172.16.4.255 00:6d:e7:b1:9a:11 172.16.4.2 0xffffff00 172.16.4.255
172.16.4.2, 0xffffff00
Which of the following is a network broadcast address? a. 10.1.255.255 b. 192.168.255.1 c. 224.1.1.255 d. 172.30.255.255
172.30.255.255
Which of the following are private IP networks? (Choose two answers.) a. 172.31.0.0 b. 172.32.0.0 c. 192.168.255.0 d. 192.1.168.0 e. 11.0.0.0
172.31.0.0 192.168.255.0
Which of the following is the subnet broadcast address for the subnet in which IP address 172.31.77.201/27 resides? a. 172.31.201.255 b. 172.31.255.255 c. 172.31.77.223 d. 172.31.77.207
172.31.77.223
Which of the following are not private addresses according to RFC 1918? (Choose two answers.) 172.31.1.1 172.33.1.1 10.255.1.1 10.1.255.1 191.168.1.1
172.33.1.1, 191.168.1.1
Which of the following is the resident subnet for IP address 192.168.44.97/30? a. 192.168.44.0 b. 192.168.44.64 c. 192.168.44.96 d. 192.168.44.128
192.168.44.96
Which of the following answers list a valid number that can be used with standard numbered IP ACLs? (Choose two answers.) 1987 2187 187 87
1987 87
Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? R9# show ip ospf interface brief Interface PID Area IP Address/Mask Cost State Nbrs F/C Gi0/0 1 0 10.1.1.1/24 1 DROTH 2/5 a. 7 b. 0 c. 5 d. 2
2
Which of the following are frequency bands commonly used for Wi-Fi? a. 2.5 KHz b. 2.5 MHz c. 5 MHz d. 2.5 GHz e. 5 GHz
2.5 GHz, 5 GHz
Which of the following summarized subnets represent routes that could have been created for CIDR's goal to reduce the size of Internet routing tables? 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
Which of the following is the prefix for address 2000:0000:0000:0005:6000:0700: 0080:0009, assuming a mask of /64? a. 2000::5::/64 b. 2000::5:0:0:0:0/64 c. 2000:0:0:5::/64 d. 2000:0:0:5:0:0:0:0/64
2000:0:0:5::/64
Router R1 has an interface named Gigabit Ethernet 0/1, whose MAC address has been set to 5055.4444.3333. This interface has been configured with the ipv6 address 2000:1:1:1::/64 eui-64 subcommand. What unicast address will this interface use? a. 2000:1:1:1:52FF:FE55:4444:3333 b. 2000:1:1:1:5255:44FF:FE44:3333 c. 2000:1:1:1:5255:4444:33FF:FE33 d. 2000:1:1:1:200:FF:FE00:0
2000:1:1:1:5255:44FF:FE44:3333
Which of the following is the shortest valid abbreviation for 2000:0300:0040:0005: 6000:0700:0080:0009? a. 2:3:4:5:6:7:8:9 b. 2000:300:40:5:6000:700:80:9 c. 2000:300:4:5:6000:700:8:9 d. 2000:3:4:5:6:7:8:9
2000:300:40:5:6000:700:80:9
Which of the following is the unabbreviated version of IPv6 address 2001:DB8::200:28? a. 2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0000:0000:0200:0028 b. 2001:0DB8::0200:0028 c. 2001:0DB8:0:0:0:0:0200:0028 d. 2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0000:0000:200:0028
2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0000:0000:0200:0028
Which of the following answers lists the dotted-decimal notation (DDN) equivalent of /30? a. 255.255.255.192 b. 255.255.255.252 c. 255.255.255.240 d. 255.255.254.0 e. 255.255.255.0
255.255.255.252
Imagine a switch with three configured VLANs. How many IP subnets are required, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. You cannot tell from the information provided
3
Which of the following IPv6 addresses appears to be a global unicast address, based on its first few hex digits? a. 3123:1:3:5::1 b. FE80::1234:56FF:FE78:9ABC c. FDAD::1 d. FF00::5
3123:1:3:5::1
Which of the following bridge IDs wins election as root, assuming that the switches with these bridge IDs are in the same network? a. 32769:0200.1111.1111 b. 32769:0200.2222.2222 c. 4097:0200.1111.1111 d. 4097:0200.2222.2222 e. 40961:0200.1111.1111
4097:0200.1111.1111
What is the maximum number of WLANs you can configure on a Cisco wireless controller? a. 8 b. 16 c. 512 d. 1024
512
Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? a. 802.1, 802.3 b. 802.3, 802.1 c. 802.3, 802.11 d. 802.11, 802.3
802.3, 802.11
Which of the following are public IP networks? (Choose three answers.) a. 9.0.0.0 b. 172.30.0.0 c. 192.168.255.0 d. 192.1.168.0 e. 1.0.0.0
9.0.0.0 192.1.168.0 1.0.0.0
After configuring a working router interface with IP address/mask 10.1.1.100/26, which of the following routes would you expect to see in the output of the show ip route command? (Choose two answers.) a. A connected route for subnet 10.1.1.64 255.255.255.192 b. A connected route for subnet 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 c. A local route for host 10.1.1.100 255.255.255.192 d. A local route for host 10.1.1.100 255.255.255.255 e. A local route for host 10.1.1.64 255.255.255.255
A connected route for subnet 10.1.1.64 255.255.255.192 A local route for host 10.1.1.100 255.255.255.255
A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1 and G0/2 in the channel. However, only interface G0/1 is bundled into the channel and working. Think about the configuration settings on port G0/2 that could have existed before adding G0/2 to the EtherChannel. Which answers identify a setting that could prevent IOS from adding G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.) a. A different STP cost (spanning-tree cost value) b. A different speed (speed value) c. A default setting for switchport (switchport) d. A different access VLAN (switchport access vlan vlan-id)
A different speed (speed value) A default setting for switchport (switchport)
Switch SW1 connects via a cable to switch SW2's G0/1 port. Which of the following conditions is the most likely to cause SW1's late collision counter to continue to increment? a. SW2's G0/1 has been configured with a shutdown interface subcommand. b. The two switches have been configured with different values on the speed interface subcommand. c. A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to full duplex. d. A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to half duplex.
A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to half duplex
Which answers best describe options of how to implement security with scalable groups using DNA Center and SDA? (Choose two answers.) A human user from the DNA Center GUI An automation application using NETCONF A human user using the CLI of an SDA fabric edge node An automation application using REST
A human user from the DNA Center GUI An automation application using REST
An engineer wants to set up simple password protection with no usernames for some switches in a lab, for the purpose of keeping curious coworkers from logging in to the lab switches from their desktop PCs. Which of the following commands would be a useful part of that configuration? a. A login vty mode subcommand b. A password password console subcommand c. A login local vty subcommand d. A transport input ssh vty subcommand
A login vty mode subcommand
A router has beenA router has been configured with the ipv6 address 2000:1:2:3::1/64 command on its G0/1 interface. The router creates a link-local address of FE80::FF:FE00:1 as well. The interface is working. Which of the following routes will the router add to its IPv6 routing table? (Choose two answers.) a. A route for 2000:1:2:3::/64 b. A route for FE80::FF:FE00:1/64 c. A route for 2000:1:2:3::1/128 d. A route for FE80::FF:FE00:1/128
A route for 2000:1:2:3::/64 A route for 2000:1:2:3::1/128
A router has been configured with the ipv6 address 3111:1:1:1::1/64 command on its G0/1 interface and ipv6 address 3222:2:2:2::1/64 on its G0/2 interface. Both interfaces are working. Which of the following routes would you expect to see in the output of the show ipv6 route connected command? (Choose two answers.) a. A route for 3111:1:1:1::/64 b. A route for 3111:1:1:1::1/64 c. A route for 3222:2:2:2::/64 d. A route for 3222:2:2:2::2/128
A route for 3111:1:1:1::/64 A route for 3222:2:2:2::/64
The show interfaces g0/1 trunk command provides three lists of VLAN IDs. Which items would limit the VLANs that appear in the first of the three lists of VLANs? a. A shutdown vlan 30 global command b. A switchport trunk allowed vlan interface subcommand c. An STP choice to block on G0/1 d. A no vlan 30 global command
A switchport trunk allowed vlan interface subcommand
Which one of the following is not needed for a lightweight AP in default local mode to be able to support three SSIDs that are bound to three VLANs? a. A trunk link carrying three VLANs b. An access link bound to a single VLAN c. A WLC connected to three VLANs d. A CAPWAP tunnel to a WLC
A trunk link carrying three VLANs
An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960 switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch expected a password of mypassword from the Telnet user. The engineer then changed the configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the following commands could have been part of the new configuration? (Choose two answers.) a. A username name secret password vty mode subcommand b. A username name secret password global configuration command c. A login local vty mode subcommand d. A transport input ssh global configuration command
A username name secret password global configuration command A login local vty mode subcommand
Suppose you need to connect a lightweight AP to a network. Which one of the following link types would be necessary? a. Access mode link b. Trunk mode link c. LAG mode link d. EtherChannel link
Access mode link
With the Cisco RPVST+, which of the following action(s) does a switch take to identify which VLAN is described by a BPDU? (Choose three answers.) a. Adds a VLAN tag when forwarding a BPDU on trunks b. Adds the VLAN ID in an extra TLV in the BPDU c. Lists the VLAN ID as the middle 12 bits of the System ID field of the BPDU d. Lists the VLAN ID in the System ID Extension field of the BPDU
Adds a VLAN tag when forwarding a BPDU on trunks Adds the VLAN ID in an extra TLV in the BPDU Lists the VLAN ID in the System ID Extension field of the BPDU
The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what? a. Same-layer interaction b. Adjacent-layer interaction c. OSI model d. All of these answers are correct.
Adjacent-layer interaction
Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.) a. Advertising known routes to neighboring routers b. Learning routes for subnets directly connected to the router c. Learning routes and putting those routes into the routing table for routes advertised to the router by its neighboring routers d. Forwarding IP packets based on a packet's destination IP address
Advertising known routes to neighboring routers Learning routes and putting those routes into the routing table for routes advertised to the router by its neighboring routers
Which of the following are not valid Class B network IDs? a. 130.0.0.0 b. 191.255.0.0 c. 128.0.0.0 d. 150.255.0.0 e. All are valid Class B network IDs
All are valid Class B network IDs
To which types of nodes should an ACI leaf switch connect in a typical single-site design? (Choose two answers.) All of the other leaf switches A subset of the spine switches All of the spine switches Some of the endpoints None of the endpoints
All of the spine switches, Some of the endpoints
Suppose you would like to connect to a WLC to configure a new WLAN on it. Which one of the following is a valid method to use? a. SSH b. HTTPS c. HTTP d. All of these answers are correct.
All of these answers are correct.
Which of the following are necessary components of a secure wireless connection? (Choose all that apply.) a. Encryption b. MIC c. Authentication d. All of these answers are correct.
All of these answers are correct.
RSTP adds features beyond STP that enable ports to be used for a role if another port on the same switch fails. Which of the following statements correctly describe a port role that is waiting to take over for another port role? (Choose two answers.) a. An alternate port waits to become a root port. b. A backup port waits to become a root port. c. An alternate port waits to become a designated port. d. A backup port waits to become a designated port.
An alternate port waits to become a root port. A backup port waits to become a designated port.
R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use HSRP. The network engineer prefers to have R1 be the default router when both R1 and R2 are up. Which of the following is the likely default router setting for hosts in this subnet? 10.1.19.1 10.1.19.2 Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25 other than 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2 A host name that the FHRP mini-DNS will initially point to 10.1.19.1
Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25 other than 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2
Which of the following configuration management tools uses a push model to configure network devices? Ansible Puppet Chef None use a push model
Ansible
The only NTP configuration on router R1 is the ntp server 10.1.1.1 command. Which answers describe how NTP works on the router? As an NTP server only As an NTP client only As an NTP server only after the NTP client synchronizes with NTP server 10.1.1.1 As an NTP server regardless of whether the NTP client synchronizes with NTP server 10.1.1.1
As an NTP server only after the NTP client synchronizes with NTP server 10.1.1.1
Which answer describes how a LAN switch dynamically chooses the initial power level to apply to a UTP cable with PoE? Autonegotiation CDP LLDP Preconfigured values
Autonegotiation
Which one of the following terms best describes a Cisco wireless access point that operates in a standalone, independent manner? a. Autonomous AP b. Independent AP c. Lightweight AP d. Embedded AP
Autonomous AP
The Cisco Meraki cloud-based APs are most accurately described by which one of the following statements? a. Autonomous APs joined to a WLC b. Autonomous APs centrally managed c. Lightweight APs joined to a WLC d. Lightweight APs centrally managed
Autonomous APs centrally managed
An access point is set up to offer wireless coverage in an office. Which one of the following is the correct 802.11 term for the resulting standalone network? a. BSA b. BSD c. BSS d. IBSS
BSS
Which one of the following is used to uniquely identify an AP and the basic service set it maintains with its associated wireless clients? a. SSID b. BSSID c. Ethernet MAC address d. Radio MAC address
BSSID
Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three answers.) Bandwidth Delay Load MTU Loss
Bandwidth, Delay, Loss
Which of the following port states are stable states used when STP has completed convergence? (Choose two answers.) a. Blocking b. Forwarding c. Listening d. Learning e. Discarding
Blocking, Forwarding
An engineer connects routers R13 and R14 to the same Ethernet LAN and configures them to use OSPFv2. Which answers describe a combination of settings that would prevent the two routers from becoming OSPF neighbors? a. Both routers' interface IP addresses reside in the same subnet. b. Both routers' OSPF process uses process ID 13. c. Both routers' OSPF process uses router ID 13.13.13.13. d. Both routers' interfaces use an OSPF Dead interval of 40.
Both routers' OSPF process uses router ID 13.13.13.13.
Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose two answers.) a. Burned-in address b. Unicast address c. Broadcast address d. Multicast address
Broadcast address and Multicast address
In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN? a. Collision domain b. Broadcast domain c. Subnet d. Single switch e. Trunk
Broadcast domain
Which one of the following is the data encryption and integrity method used by WPA2? a. WEP b. TKIP c. CCMP d. WPA
CCMP
Which answers list a matching software development CRUD action to an HTTP verb that performs that action? (Choose two answers.) CRUD create and HTTP PATCH CRUD update and HTTP PATCH CRUD delete and HTTP PUT CRUD read and HTTP GET
CRUD update and HTTP PATCH CRUD read and HTTP GET
Which answer best describes the meaning of the term configuration drift? Changes to a single device's configuration over time versus that single device's original configuration Larger and larger sections of unnecessary configuration in a device Changes to a single device's configuration over time versus other devices that have the same role Differences in device configuration versus a centralized backup copy
Changes to a single device's configuration over time versus other devices that have the same role
Which of the following functions are supported by FTP but not by TFTP? (Choose two answers.) Transferring files from client to server Changing the current directory on the server Transferring files from server to client Listing directory contents of a server's directory
Changing the current directory on the server Listing directory contents of a server's directory
An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands? a. EtherChannel b. PortChannel c. Ethernet-Channel d. Channel-group
Channel-group
Which of the following are considered to be nonoverlapping channels? a. Channels 1, 2, and 3 in the 2.4-GHz band b. Channels 1, 5, and 10 in the 2.4-GHz band c. Channels 1, 6, and 11 in the 2.4-GHz band d. Channels 40, 44, and 48 in the 5-GHz band
Channels 1, 6, and 11 in the 2.4-GHz band Channels 40, 44, and 48 in the 5-GHz band
Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm? a. The algorithm never allows collisions to occur. b. Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover. c. The algorithm works with only two devices on the same Ethernet. d. None of the other answers is correct.
Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover
With static NAT, performing translation for inside addresses only, what causes NAT table entries to be created? The first packet from the inside network to the outside network The first packet from the outside network to the inside network Configuration using the ip nat inside source command Configuration using the ip nat outside source command
Configuration using the ip nat inside source command
Which of the following describes a way to disable IEEE standard autonegotiation on a 10/100 port on a Cisco switch? a. Configure the negotiate disable interface subcommand b. Configure the no negotiate interface subcommand c. Configure the speed 100 interface subcommand d. Configure the duplex half interface subcommand e. Configure the duplex full interface subcommand f. Configure the speed 100 and duplex full interface subcommands
Configure the speed 100 and duplex full interface subcommands
Which answers list a task that could be helpful in making a router interface G0/0 ready to route packets? (Choose two answers.) a. Configuring the ip address address mask command in G0/0 configuration mode b. Configuring the ip address address and ip mask mask commands in G0/0 configuration mode c. Configuring the no shutdown command in G0/0 configuration mode d. Setting the interface description in G0/0 configuration mode
Configuring the ip address address mask command in G0/0 configuration mode Configuring the no shutdown command in G0/0 configuration mode
Which of the following installation steps are more likely required on a Cisco router, but not typically required on a Cisco switch? (Choose two answers.) a. Connect Ethernet cables b. Connect serial cables c. Connect to the console port d. Connect the power cable e. Turn the on/off switch to "on"
Connect serial cables Turn the on/off switch to "on" (switches generally do not have on/off switch)
A router uses OSPF to learn routes and adds those to the IPv4 routing table. That action occurs as part of which plane of the switch? Data plane Management plane Control plane Table plane
Control plane
A company implements a TCP/IP network, with PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following protocols and features requires PC1 to learn information from some other server device? a. ARP b. ping c. DNS d. None of these answers is correct.
DNS
The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what? a. Data encapsulation b. Same-layer interaction c. OSI model d. All of these answers are correct
Data encapsulation
A Layer 2 switch examines a frame's destination MAC address and chooses to forward that frame out port G0/1 only. That action occurs as part of which plane of the switch? Data plane Management plane Control plane Table plane
Data plane
A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A northbound interface A southbound interface Data plane functions Control plane functions
Data plane functions
What level of logging to the console is the default for a Cisco device? Informational Errors Warnings Debugging
Debugging
In a router running a recent IOS version (at least version 15.0), an engineer needs to delete the second line in ACL 101, which currently has four commands configured. Which of the following options could be used? (Choose two answers.) Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should remain in the ACL. Delete one line from the ACL using the no access-list... global command. Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number. Delete the last three lines from the ACL from global configuration mode, and then add the last two statements back into the ACL.
Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should remain in the ACL.
Suppose an attacker sends a series of packets toward a destination IP address with the TCP SYN flag set but sends no other packet types. Which of the following attacks is likely taking place? Spoofing attack Reflection attack Reconnaissance attack Denial-of-service attack None of the choices are correct.
Denial-of-service attack
Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP packets? a. Destination MAC address b. Source MAC address c. Destination IP address d. Source IP address e. Destination MAC and IP addresses
Destination IP address
A PC connects to a LAN and uses DHCP to lease an IP address for the first time. Of the usual four DHCP messages that flow between the PC and the DHCP server, which ones do the client send? (Choose two answers.) Acknowledgment Discover Offer Request
Discover, Request
Which one of the following controller interfaces maps a WLAN to a VLAN? a. Bridge interface b. Virtual interface c. WLAN interface d. Dynamic interface
Dynamic interface
Which one of the following is used as the authentication framework when 802.1x is used on a WLAN? a. Open authentication b. WEP c. EAP d. WPA
EAP
Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default, at least partially affected by link bandwidth? (Choose two answers.) a. RIPv1 b. RIPv2 c. EIGRP d. OSPF
EIGRP OSPF
Eight virtual machines run on one physical server; the server has two physical Ethernet NICs. Which answer describes a method that allows all eight VMs to communicate? The VMs must share two IP addresses and coordinate to avoid using duplicate TCP or UDP ports. The hypervisor acts as an IP router using the NICs as routed IP interfaces. Each VM uses a virtual NIC that is mapped to a physical NIC. Each VM uses a virtual NIC that logically connects to a virtual switch.
Each VM uses a virtual NIC that logically connects to a virtual switch.
During a successful man-in-the-middle attack, which two of the following actions is an attacker most likely to perform? Eavesdrop on traffic passing between hosts Induce a buffer overflow on multiple hosts Modify data passing between hosts Use ping sweeps and port scans to discover the network
Eavesdrop on traffic passing between hosts Modify data passing between hosts
Router R1 currently supports IPv4, routing packets in and out all its interfaces. R1's configuration needs to be migrated to support dual-stack operation, routing both IPv4 and IPv6. Which of the following tasks must be performed before the router can also support routing IPv6 packets? (Choose two answers.) a. Enable IPv6 on each interface using an ipv6 address interface subcommand. b. Enable support for both versions with the ip versions 4 6 global command. c. Additionally enable IPv6 routing using the ipv6 unicast-routing global command. d. Migrate to dual-stack routing using the ip routing dual-stack global command.
Enable IPv6 on each interface using an ipv6 address interface subcommand. Additionally enable IPv6 routing using the ipv6 unicast-routing global command.
In which of the following modes of the CLI could you type the command reload and expect the switch to reboot? a. User mode b. Enable mode c. Global configuration mode d. Interface configuration mode
Enable mode
Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand. All the other answers list required commands.
Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand.
Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.) a. Ethernet b. HTTP c. IP d. UDP e. SMTP f. TCP g. PPP
Ethernet and PPP
Which one of the following is not needed in a Cisco outdoor mesh network? a. A BSS function b. Ethernet cabling to each AP c. A workgroup bridge d. A backhaul network
Ethernet cabling to each AP
Which of the following IPv6 addresses appears to be a unique local unicast address, based on its first few hex digits? a. 3123:1:3:5::1 b. FE80::1234:56FF:FE78:9ABC c. FDAD::1 d. FF00::5
FDAD::1
Which of the following is the shortest valid abbreviation for FE80:0000:0000:0100: 0000:0000:0000:0123? a. FE80::100::123 b. FE8::1::123 c. FE80::100:0:0:0:123:4567 d. FE80:0:0:100::123
FE80:0:0:100::123
Router R1 has an interface named Gigabit Ethernet 0/1, whose MAC address has been set to 0200.0001.000A. The interface is then configured with the ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:200:FF:FE01:B/64 interface subcommand; no other ipv6 address commands are configured on the interface. Which of the following answers lists the link-local address used on the interface? a. FE80::FF:FE01:A b. FE80::FF:FE01:B c. FE80::200:FF:FE01:A d. FE80::200:FF:FE01:B
FE80::FF:FE01:A
Which of the following multicast addresses is defined as the address for sending packets to only the IPv6 routers on the local link? a. FF02::1 b. FF02::2 c. FF02::5 d. FF02::A
FF02::2
Configuration monitoring (also called configuration enforcement) by a configuration management tool generally solves which problem? Tracking the identity of individuals who changed files, along with which files they changed Listing differences between a former and current configuration Testing a configuration change to determine whether it will be rejected or not when implemented Finding instances of configuration drift
Finding instances of configuration drift
ACL 1 has three statements, in the following order, with address and wildcard mask values as follows: 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, 1.1.0.0 0.0.255.255, and 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.255. If a router tried to match a packet sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1 using this ACL, which ACL statement does a router consider the packet to have matched? First Second Third Implied deny at the end of the ACL
First, 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
Which of the following are typical functions of TCP? (Choose four answers.) Flow control (windowing) Error recovery Multiplexing using port numbers Routing Encryption Ordered data transfer
Flow control (windowing) Error recovery Multiplexing using port numbers Ordered data transfer
Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and purpose as a port state in traditional STP? (Choose two answers.) a. Blocking b. Forwarding c. Listening d. Learning e. Discarding
Forwarding, Learning
Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers? a. Data b. Chunk c. Segment d. Frame e. Packet
Frame
Which of the following OSPF neighbor states is expected when the exchange of topology information is complete between two OSPF neighbors? a. 2-way b. Full c. Up/up d. Final
Full
A Cisco Catalyst switch connects with its Gigabit0/1 port to an end user's PC. The end user, thinking the user is helping, manually sets the PC's OS to use a speed of 1000 Mbps and to use full duplex, and disables the use of autonegotiation. The switch's G0/1 port has default settings for speed and duplex. What speed and duplex settings will the switch decide to use? (Choose two answers.) a. Full duplex b. Half duplex c. 10 Mbps d. 1000 Mbps
Full duplex 1000 Mbps
Router R1 has a router-on-a-stick (ROAS) configuration with two subinterfaces of interface G0/1: G0/1.1 and G0/1.2. Physical interface G0/1 is currently in a down/down state. The network engineer then configures a shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.1 and a no shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.2. Which answers are correct about the interface state for the subinterfaces? (Choose two answers.) a. G0/1.1 will be in a down/down state. b. G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state. c. G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state. d. G0/1.2 will be in an up/up state.
G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state
A router lists the following partial output from the show ip route command. Out which interface will the router route packets destined to IP address 10.1.15.122? 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 5 masks O 10.1.15.100/32 [110/50] via 172.16.25.2, 00:00:04, GigabitEthernet0/0/0 O 10.1.15.64/26 [110/100] via 172.16.25.129, 00:00:09, GigabitEthernet0/1/0 O 10.1.14.0/23 [110/65] via 172.16.24.2, 00:00:04, GigabitEthernet0/2/0 O 10.1.15.96/27 [110/65] via 172.16.24.129, 00:00:09, GigabitEthernet0/3/0 O 0.0.0.0/0 [110/129] via 172.16.25.129, 00:00:09, GigabitEthernet0/0/0 a. G0/0/0 b. G0/1/0 c. G0/2/0 d. G0/3/0
G0/3/0
Which actions show a behavior typically supported by a Cisco next-generation IPS (NGIPS) beyond the capabilities of a traditional IPS? (Choose two answers) Gather and use host-based information for context Comparisons between messages and a database of exploit signatures Logging events for later review by the security team Filter URIs using reputation scores
Gather and use host-based information for context Filter URIs using reputation scores
When subnetting an IPv6 address block, an engineer shows a drawing that breaks the address structure into three pieces. Comparing this concept to a three-part IPv4 address structure, which part of the IPv6 address structure is most like the IPv4 network part of the address? a. Subnet b. Interface ID c. Network d. Global routing prefix e. Subnet router anycast
Global routing prefix
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user's PC IP address and mask (10.55.66.77, mask 255.255.255.0). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case? a. N=12 b. S=12 c. H=8 d. S=8 e. N=24
H=8
Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes? a. Round-robin access b. Half duplex c. Full duplex d. None of these answers
Half duplex
A single-line ACL has been added to a router configuration using the command ip access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255. The configuration also includes the access-class 1 in command in VTY configuration mode. Which answer accurately describes how the router uses ACL 1? Hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone can telnet into the router. CLI users cannot telnet from the router to hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone. Hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone can log in but cannot reach enable mode of the router. The router will only forward packets with source addresses in subnet 172.16.4.0/23.
Hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone can telnet into the router.
Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose two answers.) CoS IPP DSCP MPLS EXP
IPP DSCP
Which one of the following is an example of a AAA server? DHCP DNS SNMP ISE
ISE
Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? IaaS PaaS SaaS SLBaaS
IaaS
A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two answers.) Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. Will allow any one device to connect to each port and will save that device's MAC address into the startup-config. Will allow any one device to connect to each port but will not save that device's MAC address into the startup-config.
If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. Will allow any one device to connect to each port but will not save that device's MAC address into the startup-config.
R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use an FHRP. Host A and host B attach to the same LAN and have correct default router settings per the FHRP configuration. Which of the following statements is true for this LAN? The design breaks IPv4 addressing rules because two routers cannot connect to the same LAN subnet. If one router fails, neither host can send packets off-subnet. If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router. If one router fails, only one of the two hosts will still be able to send packets off-subnet.
If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router.
R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. Host A refers to 10.1.19.1 as its default router, and host B refers to 10.1.19.2 as its default router. The routers do not use an FHRP. Which of the following is a problem for this LAN? The design breaks IPv4 addressing rules because two routers cannot connect to the same LAN subnet. If one router fails, neither host can send packets off-subnet. If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router. If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router cannot send packets off-subnet.
If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router cannot send packets off-subnet.
Which answers list a criterion for choosing which router interfaces need to be configured as a DHCP relay agent? (Choose two answers.) If the subnet off the interface does not include a DHCP server If the subnet off the interface does include a DHCP server If the subnet off the interface contains DHCP clients If the router interface already has an ip address dhcp command
If the subnet off the interface does not include a DHCP server If the subnet off the interface contains DHCP clients
Which of the following statements is true about classless IP addressing concepts? a. Uses a 128-bit IP address b. Applies only for Class A and B networks c. Separates IP addresses into network, subnet, and host parts d. Ignores Class A, B, and C network rules
Ignores Class A, B, and C network rules
Refer to the following command output, which details an ACL enabled on port G0/0 for the inbound direction. Which answers list a configuration mode and command that would result in the deletion of the line that matches subnet 172.16.1.0/24? (Choose two answers.) show ip access-lists dikta-list Standard IP access list dikta-list 10 permit 172.16.1.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 20 permit 172.16.2.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 30 permit 172.16.3.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 In global config mode: no 10 In interface G0/0 config mode: no 10 In ACL dikta-list config mode: no 10 In ACL dikta-list config mode: no permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 In global config mode: no permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
In ACL dikta-list config mode: no 10 In ACL dikta-list config mode: no permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2? a. Inserts a 4-byte header and does change the MAC addresses b. Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses c. Encapsulates the original frame behind an entirely new Ethernet header d. None of the other answers are correct
Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses
When subnetting an IPv6 address block, an engineer shows a drawing that breaks the address structure into three pieces. Assuming that all subnets use the same prefix length, which of the following answers lists the name of the field on the far right side of the address? a. Subnet b. Interface ID c. Network d. Global routing prefix e. Subnet router anycast
Interface ID
A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between VLANs 1, 2, and 3 using SVIs, which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25, 172.20.2.0/25, and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a show ip route connected command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of information that should be in at least one of the routes? a. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0.3 b. Next-hop router 172.20.2.1 c. Interface VLAN 2 d. Mask 255.255.255.0
Interface VLAN 2
In which of the following modes of the CLI could you configure the duplex setting for interface Fast Ethernet 0/5? a. User mode b. Enable mode c. Global configuration mode d. VLAN mode e. Interface configuration mode
Interface configuration mode
A network engineer configures the ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 command on a router and then issues a show ip route command from enable mode. No routes for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 appear in the output. Which of the following could be true? a. The ip route command has incorrect syntax and was rejected in config mode. b. Interface s0/0/0 is down. c. The router has no up/up interfaces in Class A network 10.0.0.0. d. The ip route command is missing a next-hop router IP address.
Interface s0/0/0 is down
A company has a small/medium-sized network with 15 routers and 40 subnets and uses OSPFv2. Which of the following is considered an advantage of using a single-area design as opposed to a multiarea design? a. It reduces the processing overhead on most routers. b. Status changes to one link may not require SPF to run on all other routers. c. It allows for simpler planning and operations. d. It allows for route summarization, reducing the size of IP routing tables.
It allows for simpler planning and operations
Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a switch decides to forward a frame destined for a known unicast MAC address? a. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. b. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. c. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. d. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. e. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table
Which of the following comparisons does a switch make when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its MAC address table? a. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. b. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. c. It compares the VLAN ID to the bridging, or MAC address, table. d. It compares the destination IP address's ARP cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table
Which of the following is accurate about the NTP client function on a Cisco router? The client synchronizes its time-of-day clock based on the NTP server. It counts CPU cycles of the local router CPU to more accurately keep time. The client synchronizes its serial line clock rate based on the NTP server. The client must be connected to the same subnet as an NTP server.
It counts CPU cycles of the local router CPU to more accurately keep time.
Which of the following statements best describes what a switch does with a frame destined for an unknown unicast address? a. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. b. It forwards the frame out the one interface identified by the matching entry in the MAC address table. c. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. d. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface
Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a LAN switch decides to forward a frame destined for a broadcast MAC address? a. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. b. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. c. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. d. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. e. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface
Physical access control is important for which one of the following reasons? It prevents unauthorized people from sitting at a corporate user's desk and using their computer. It prevents users from getting angry and damaging computer equipment. It prevents unauthorized access to network closets. It prevents fires from destroying data centers.
It prevents unauthorized access to network closets
Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field? a. Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery. b. It is 2 bytes long. c. It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header. d. It is used for encryption.
It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header
Which of the following data serialization and data modeling languages would be most likely to be used in a response from a REST-based server API used for networking applications? (Choose two answers.) JSON YAML JavaScript XML
JSON, XML
Which one of the following correctly describes the single logical link formed by bundling all of a controller's distribution system ports together? a. PHY b. DSP c. LAG d. GEC
LAG
Which OSI encapsulation term can be used instead of the term frame? a. Layer 1 PDU b. Layer 2 PDU c. Layer 3 PDU d. Layer 5 PDU e. Layer 7 PDU
Layer 2 PDU
An engineer hears about DHCP Snooping and decides to implement it. Which of the following are the devices on which DHCP Snooping could be implemented? (Choose two answers.) Layer 2 switches Routers Multilayer switches End-user hosts
Layer 2 switches, Multilayer switches
Which of the following are transitory port states used only during the process of STP convergence? (Choose two answers.) a. Blocking b. Forwarding c. Listening d. Learning e. Discarding
Listening, Learning
If a lightweight AP provides at least one BSS for wireless clients, which one of the following modes does it use? a. Local b. Normal c. Monitor d. Client
Local
In a spoofing attack, which of the following parameters are commonly spoofed? (Choose two answers.) MAC address Source IP address Destination IP address ARP address
MAC address, Source IP address
Which one of the following is used to protect the integrity of data in a wireless frame? a. WIPS b. WEP c. MIC d. EAP
MIC
Router R1 lists a route in its routing table. Which of the following answers list a fact from a route that the router uses when matching the packet's destination address? (Choose two answers.) a. Mask b. Next-hop router c. Subnet ID d. Outgoing interface
Mask, Subnet ID
A next-generation firewall sits at the edge of a company's connection to the Internet. It has been configured to prevent Telnet clients residing in the Internet from accessing Telnet servers inside the company. Which of the following might a next-generation firewall use that a traditional firewall would not? Match message destination well-known port 23 Match message application data Match message IP protocol 23 Match message source TCP ports greater than 49152
Match message application data
Barney is a host with IP address 10.1.1.1 in subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following are things that a standard IP ACL could be configured to do? (Choose two answers.) Match the exact source IP address. Match IP addresses 10.1.1.1 through 10.1.1.4 with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses. Match all IP addresses in Barney's subnet with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses. Match only the packet's destination IP address.
Match the exact source IP address. Match all IP addresses in Barney's subnet with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses.
Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three answers.) Matching the IP DSCP field Matching the 802.1p CoS field Matching fields with an extended IP ACL Matching the SNMP Location variable
Matching the IP DSCP field Matching the 802.1p CoS field Matching fields with an extended IP ACL
Fred opens a web browser and connects to the www.certskills.com website. Which of the following are typically true about what happens between Fred's web browser and the web server? (Choose two answers.) Messages flowing toward the server use UDP destination port 80. Messages flowing from the server typically use RTP. Messages flowing to the client typically use a source TCP port number of 80. Messages flowing to the server typically use TCP.
Messages flowing to the client typically use a source TCP port number of 80. Messages flowing to the server typically use TCP.
Which of the following functions is performed by both TCP and UDP? Windowing Error recovery Multiplexing using port numbers Routing Encryption Ordered data transfer
Multiplexing using port numbers
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user's PC IP address and mask (192.168.9.1/27). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case? a. N=24 b. S=24 c. H=8 d. H=7
N=24
Which of the following was a short-term solution to the IPv4 address exhaustion problem? a. IP version 6 b. IP version 5 c. NAT/PAT d. ARP
NAT/PAT
PC1, PC2, and Router R1 all connect to the same VLAN and IPv6 subnet. PC1 wants to send its first IPv6 packet to PC2. What protocol or message will PC1 use to discover the MAC address to which PC1 should send the Ethernet frame that encapsulates this IPv6 packet? a. ARP b. NDP NS c. NDP RS d. SLAAC
NDP NS
Three virtual machines run on one physical server. Which of the following server resources are commonly virtualized so each VM can use the required amount of that resource? (Choose three answers.) NIC RAM Power Hypervisor CPU
NIC, RAM, CPU
A Class B network needs to be subnetted such that it supports 100 subnets and 100 hosts/subnet. Which of the following answers list a workable combination for the number of network, subnet, and host bits? (Choose two answers.) a. Network = 16, subnet = 7, host = 7 b. Network = 16, subnet = 8, host = 8 c. Network = 16, subnet = 9, host = 7 d. Network = 8, subnet = 7, host = 17
Network = 16, subnet = 8, host = 8 Network = 16, subnet = 9, host = 7
When you think about an IP address using classful addressing rules, an address can have three parts: network, subnet, and host. If you examined all the addresses in one subnet, in binary, which of the following answers correctly states which of the three parts of the addresses will be equal among all addresses? (Choose the best answer.) a. Network part only b. Subnet part only c. Host part only d. Network and subnet parts e. Subnet and host parts
Network and subnet parts
Which of the following are network management features performed by both traditional network management software as well as by DNA Center? (Choose two answers.) Network device discovery Software-Defined Access configuration End-to-end path discovery with ACL analysis Device installation (day 0), configuration (day 1), and monitoring (day n) operations
Network device discovery, Device installation (day 0), configuration (day 1), and monitoring (day n) operations
Before Class B network 172.16.0.0 is subnetted by a network engineer, what parts of the structure of the IP addresses in this network already exist, with a specific size? (Choose two answers.) a. Network b. Subnet c. Host d. Broadcast
Network, Host
Which of the following routing protocols is considered to use link-state logic? a. RIPv1 b. RIPv2 c. EIGRP d. OSPF
OSPF
Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two answers.) Uses HTTP Objects noted as to whether they can be cached Classful operation Client/server architecture
Objects noted as to whether they can be cached, Client/server architecture
Which answers correctly describe the format of the JSON text below? (Choose two answers.) { "myvariable":[1,2,3] } One JSON object that has one key:value pair One JSON object that has three key:value pairs A JSON object whose value is a second JSON object A JSON object whose value is a JSON array
One JSON object that has one key:value pair A JSON object whose value is a JSON array
In the LAN for a small office, some user devices connect to the LAN using a cable, while others connect using wireless technology (and no cable). Which of the following is true regarding the use of Ethernet in this LAN? a. Only the devices that use cables are using Ethernet. b. Only the devices that use wireless are using Ethernet. c. Both the devices using cables and those using wireless are using Ethernet. d. None of the devices are using Ethernet
Only the devices that use cables are using Ethernet
Which of the following controllers (if any) uses a mostly centralized control plane model? OpenDaylight Controller Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane.
OpenDaylight Controller
In Cisco Software-Defined Access (SDA), which term refers to the functions that deliver endpoint packets across the network using tunnels between the ingress and egress fabric nodes? Fabric Overlay Underlay VXLAN
Overlay
Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable? (Choose three answers.) a. PC and router b. PC and switch c. Hub and switch d. Router and hub e. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch
PC and switch, Router and hub, Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch
Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? IaaS PaaS SaaS SLBaaS
PaaS
Which of the following topology terms most closely describe the topology created by a Metro Ethernet Tree (E-Tree) service? (Choose two answers.) Full mesh Partial mesh Hub and spoke Point-to-point
Partial mesh, Hub and spoke
Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables for Fast Ethernet? a. Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the cable. b. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable. c. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable. d. The cable can be up to 1000 meters long to cross over between buildings. e. None of the other answers is correct
Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable
Which of the following behaviors are applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two answers.) Shaping Policing Priority scheduling Round-robin scheduling
Policing Priority scheduling
A Cisco Catalyst switch has 24 10/100 ports, numbered 0/1 through 0/24. Ten PCs connect to the 10 lowest numbered ports, with those PCs working and sending data over the network. The other ports are not connected to any device. Which of the following answers lists facts displayed by the show interfaces status command? a. Port Ethernet 0/1 is in a connected state. b. Port Fast Ethernet 0/11 is in a connected state. c. Port Fast Ethernet 0/5 is in a connected state. d. Port Ethernet 0/15 is in a notconnected state.
Port Fast Ethernet 0/5 is in a connected state
What STP feature causes an interface to be placed in the forwarding state as soon as the interface is physically active? a. STP b. EtherChannel c. Root Guard d. PortFast
PortFast
Which of the following answers list a correct combination of configuration management tool and the term used for one of its primary configuration files? (Choose two answers.) Ansible manifest Puppet manifest Chef recipe Ansible recipe
Puppet manifest Chef recipe
A queuing system has three queues serviced with round-robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round-robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round-robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two answers.) The LLQ Queue 1 Queue 2 Queue 3
Queue 2 Queue 3
Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet over MPLS service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose two answers.) a. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to R2. b. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence. c. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an HDLC header/trailer. d. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer.
R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer.
An engineer connects routers R11 and R12 to the same Ethernet LAN and configures them to use OSPFv2. Which answers describe a combination of settings that would prevent the two routers from becoming OSPF neighbors? (Choose two answers.) a. R11's interface uses area 11 while R12's interface uses area 12. b. R11's OSPF process uses process ID 11 while R12 uses process ID 12. c. R11's interface uses OSPF priority 11 while R12's uses OSPF priority 12. d. R11's interface uses an OSPF Hello timer value of 11 while R12's uses 12.
R11's interface uses area 11 while R12's interface uses area 12. R11's interface uses an OSPF Hello timer value of 11 while R12's uses 12.
Router R15 has been a working part of a network that uses OSPFv2. An engineer then issues the shutdown command in OSPF configuration mode on R15. Which of the following occurs? a. R15 empties its IP routing table of all OSPF routes but keeps its LSDB intact. b. R15 empties its LSDB but keeps OSPF neighbor relationships active. c. R15 keeps OSPF neighbors open but does not accept new OSPF neighbors. d. R15 keeps all OSPF configuration but ceases all OSPF activities (routes, LSDB, neighbors).
R15 keeps all OSPF configuration but ceases all OSPF activities (routes, LSDB, neighbors).
What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working? a. RAM b. ROM c. Flash d. NVRAM e. Bubble
RAM
Which of the following interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three answers.) a. RIPv1 b. RIPv2 c. EIGRP d. OSPF
RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF
Which of the following kinds of information are part of a DHCP server configuration? (Choose two answers.) Ranges of IP addresses in subnets that the server should lease Ranges of IP addresses to not lease per subnet DNS server hostnames The default router IP and MAC address in each subnet
Ranges of IP addresses in subnets that the server should lease Ranges of IP addresses to not lease per subnet
Which of the following pieces of information does a router supply in an NDP Router Advertisement (RA) message? (Choose two answers.) a. Router IPv6 address b. Host name of the router c. IPv6 prefix(es) on the link d. IPv6 address of DHCP server
Router IPv6 address IPv6 prefix(es) on the link
Routers R1 and R2, with router IDs 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2, connect over an Ethernet WAN link. If using all default OSPF settings, if the WAN link initializes for both routers at the same time, which of the following answers are true? (Choose two answers.) a. Router R1 will become the DR. b. Router R1 will dynamically discover the existence of router R2. c. Router R2 will be neither the DR nor the BDR. d. Router R1's show ip ospf neighbor command will list R2 with a state of "FULL/DR."
Router R1 will dynamically discover the existence of router R2. Router R1's show ip ospf neighbor command will list R2 with a state of "FULL/DR."
Routers R1 and R2, with router IDs 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2, connect over an Ethernet WAN link. The configuration uses all defaults, except giving R1 an interface priority of 11 and changing both routers to use OSPF network type point-to-point. If the WAN link initializes for both routers at the same time, which of the following answers are true? (Choose two answers.) a. Router R1 will become the DR. b. Router R1 will dynamically discover the existence of router R2. c. Router R2 will be neither the DR nor the BDR. d. Router R2's show ip ospf neighbor command will list R1 with a state of "FULL/DR."
Router R1 will dynamically discover the existence of router R2. Router R2 will be neither the DR nor the BDR.
Imagine a network with two routers that are connected with a point-to-point HDLC serial link. Each router has an Ethernet, with PC1 sharing the Ethernet with Router1 and PC2 sharing the Ethernet with Router2. When PC1 sends data to PC2, which of the following is true? a. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, never to be used again. b. Router1 encapsulates the Ethernet frame inside an HDLC header and sends the frame to Router2, which extracts the Ethernet frame for forwarding to PC2. c. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, which is exactly re-created by Router2 before forwarding data to PC2. d. Router1 removes the Ethernet, IP, and TCP headers and rebuilds the appropriate headers before forwarding the packet to Router2.
Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, never to be used again
Two routers using OSPFv2 have become neighbors and exchanged all LSAs. As a result, Router R1 now lists some OSPF-learned routes in its routing table. Which of the following best describes how R1 uses those recently learned LSAs to choose which IP routes to add to its IP routing table? a. Each LSA lists a route to be copied to the routing table. b. Some LSAs list a route that can be copied to the routing table. c. Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes. d. R1 does not use the LSAs at all when choosing what routes to add.
Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes.
Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch? a. SSH encrypts the passwords used at login, but not other traffic; Telnet encrypts nothing. b. SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing. c. Telnet is used from Microsoft operating systems, and SSH is used from UNIX and Linux operating systems. d. Telnet encrypts only password exchanges; SSH encrypts all data exchanges.
SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing
Which of the following protocols or tools could be used as part of the Cisco DNA Center southbound interface? (Choose three answers.) Ansible SSH NETCONF SNMP Puppet
SSH, NETCONF, SNMP
Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI? (Choose all that apply.) a. SSID b. VLAN number c. Interface d. BSSID e. IP subnet
SSID , Interface
Which two of the following things are bound together when a new WLAN is created? a. VLAN b. AP c. Controller interface d. SSID
SSID and Controller interface
The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what? a. Data encapsulation b. Same-layer interaction c. Adjacent-layer interaction d. OSI model
Same-layer interaction
What do you call data that includes the Layer 4 protocol header, and data given to Layer 4 by the upper layers, not including any headers and trailers from Layers 1 to 3? (Choose two answers.) L3PDU Chunk Segment Packet Frame L4PDU
Segment L4PDU
A Cisco Catalyst switch needs to send frames over a Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which answer best describes how the switch balances the traffic over the four active links in the channel? a. Breaks each frame into fragments of approximately one-fourth of the original frame, sending one fragment over each link b. Sends the entire frame over one link, alternating links in sequence for each successive frame c. Sends the entire frame over one link, choosing the link by applying some math to fields in each frame's headers d. Sends the entire frame over one link, using the link with the lowest percent utilization as the next link to use
Sends the entire frame over one link, choosing the link by applying some math to fields in each frame's headers
A lightweight access point is said to participate in which one of the following architectures? a. Light-MAC b. Tunnel-MAC c. Split-MAC d. Big-MAC
Split-MAC
Which of the following header fields identify which TCP/IP application gets data received by the computer? (Choose two answers.) Ethernet Type SNAP Protocol Type IP Protocol TCP Port Number UDP Port Number
TCP Port Number UDP Port Number
Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated ? a. TKIP b. CCMP c. GCMP d. EAP
TKIP
A colleague mentions using a remote access VPN. Which of the following protocols or technologies would you expect your colleague to have used? TLS IPsec GRE FTPS
TLS
Which answers list criteria typical of a SOHO network? (Choose two answers.) The AP functions using standalone mode. The AP functions using a split-MAC architecture using a WLC. A single networking device implements the router, switch, AP, and firewall functions. A separate networking device implements each function (router, switch, AP, and firewall).
The AP functions using standalone mode. A single networking device implements the router, switch, AP, and firewall functions.
An FTP client connects to an FTP server using active mode and retrieves a copy of a file from the server. Which of the answers describes a TCP connection initiated by the FTP client? The FTP control connection The FTP data connection The FTP TLS connection None of the other answers are correct.
The FTP control connection
Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an STP Hello BPDU message? a. The Hello timer as configured on that switch. b. The Hello timer as configured on the root switch. c. It is always every 2 seconds. d. The switch reacts to BPDUs received from the root switch by sending another BPDU 2 seconds after receiving the root BPDU
The Hello timer as configured on the root switch
Examine the following show command output on a router configured for dynamic NAT: -- Inside Source access-list 1 pool fred refcount 2288 pool fred: netmask 255.255.255.240 start 200.1.1.1 end 200.1.1.7 type generic, total addresses 7, allocated 7 (100%), misses 965 Users are complaining about not being able to reach the Internet. Which of the following is the most likely cause? The problem is not related to NAT, based on the information in the command output. The NAT pool does not have enough entries to satisfy all requests. Standard ACL 1 cannot be used; an extended ACL must be used. The command output does not supply enough information to identify the problem.
The NAT pool does not have enough entries to satisfy all requests.
An enterprise connects 20 sites into an MPLS VPN WAN. The enterprise uses OSPF for IPv4 routes at all sites. Consider the OSPF area design options and the PE-CE links. Which of the following answers is most accurate about OSPF areas and the PE-CE links? The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0. The PE-CE link must not be in the backbone area 0. The PE-CE link must be in the backbone area 0. The PE-CE link will not be in any OSPF area.
The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0.
Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? a. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. b. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. c. The Run mode is the default mode. d. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis.
The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis
An enterprise uses an MPLS Layer 3 VPN with the company headquarters connected plus 10 remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses OSPF at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.) The WAN uses one IP subnet. The WAN uses 10 or more IP subnets. A remote site router would have one OSPF neighbor. A remote site router would have 10 or more OSPF neighbors.
The WAN uses 10 or more IP subnets. A remote site router would have one OSPF neighbor.
An enterprise uses a Metro Ethernet WAN with an Ethernet LAN (E-LAN) service, with the company headquarters plus 10 remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses OSPF at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.) The WAN uses one IP subnet. The WAN uses 10 or more IP subnets. A remote site router would have one OSPF neighbor. A remote site router would have 10 OSPF neighbors.
The WAN uses one IP subnet. A remote site router would have 10 OSPF neighbors.
Which answers list an advantage of controller-based networks versus traditional networks? (Choose two answers.) The ability to configure the features for the network rather than per device The ability to have forwarding tables at each device Programmatic APIs available per device More consistent device configuration
The ability to configure the features for the network rather than per device More consistent device configuration
An enterprise moves away from manual configuration methods, making changes by editing centralized configuration files. Which answers list an issue solved by using a version control system with those centralized files? (Choose two answers.) The ability to find which engineer changed the central configuration file on a date/time The ability to find the details of what changed in the configuration file over time The ability to use a template with per-device variables to create configurations The ability to recognize configuration drift in a device and notify the staff
The ability to find which engineer changed the central configuration file on a date/time The ability to find the details of what changed in the configuration file over time
Which one answer gives the strongest match between one part of a typical three-tier design with the idea behind the listed generic topology design term? The access layer looks like a partial mesh. The distribution layer looks like a full mesh. The distribution layer looks like a hybrid design. The access layer looks like a star design.
The access layer looks like a star design.
In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? The address of the attacker The address of the reflector The address of the victim The address of the router
The address of the victim
In a three-tier campus LAN design, which of the following are typically true of the topology design? (Choose two answers.) The design uses a partial mesh of links between access and distribution switches. The design uses a full mesh of links between access and distribution switches. The design uses a partial mesh of links between the distribution and core switches. The end-user and server devices connect directly to distribution layer switches.
The design uses a partial mesh of links between access and distribution switches. The design uses a partial mesh of links between the distribution and core switches.
In a two-tier campus LAN design, which of the following are typically true of the topology design? (Choose two answers.) The design uses a full mesh of links between access and distribution switches. The design uses a partial mesh of links between access and distribution switches. The design uses a partial mesh of links between the distribution and core switches. The end-user and server devices connect directly to access layer switches.
The design uses a partial mesh of links between access and distribution switches. The end-user and server devices connect directly to access layer switches.
With dynamic NAT, performing translation for inside addresses only, what causes NAT table entries to be created? The first packet from the inside network to the outside network The first packet from the outside network to the inside network Configuration using the ip nat inside source command Configuration using the ip nat outside source command
The first packet from the inside network to the outside network
A network engineer spends time thinking about the entire Class B network 172.16.0.0 and how to subnet that network. He then chooses how to subnet this Class B network and creates an addressing and subnetting plan, on paper, showing his choices. If you compare his thoughts about this network before subnetting the network to his thoughts about this network after mentally subnetting the network, which of the following occurred to the parts of the structure of addresses in this network? a. The subnet part got smaller. b. The host part got smaller. c. The network part got smaller. d. The host part was removed. e. The network part was removed.
The host part got smaller.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the binary subnet ID, subnet broadcast address, and host IP address values in any single subnet? (Choose two answers.) a. The host part of the broadcast address is all binary 0s. b. The host part of the subnet ID is all binary 0s. c. The host part of a usable IP address can have all binary 1s. d. The host part of any usable IP address must not be all binary 0s.
The host part of the subnet ID is all binary 0s The host part of any usable IP address must not be all binary 0s.
Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices? a. The host always sends packets to its default gateway. b. The host never sends packets to its default gateway. c. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host. d. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in the same subnet as the host.
The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host.
The output of the show interfaces status command on a 2960 switch shows interface Fa0/1 in a "disabled" state. Which of the following is true about interface Fa0/1? (Choose three answers.) a. The interface is configured with the shutdown command. b. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of administratively down and line protocol down. c. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of up and down. d. The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames. e. The interface can currently be used to forward frames
The interface is configured with the shutdown command The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of administratively down and line protocol down. The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames
A Layer 2 switch configuration places all its physical ports into VLAN 2. The IP addressing plan shows that address 172.16.2.250 (with mask 255.255.255.0) is reserved for use by this new LAN switch and that 172.16.2.254 is already configured on the router connected to that same VLAN. The switch needs to support SSH connections into the switch from any subnet in the network. Which of the following commands are part of the required configuration in this case? (Choose two answers.) a. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 1 configuration mode. b. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 2 configuration mode. c. The ip default-gateway 172.16.2.254 command in global configuration mode. d. The switch cannot support SSH because all its ports connect to VLAN 2, and the IP address must be configured on interface VLAN 1.
The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 2 configuration mode The ip default-gateway 172.16.2.254 command in global configuration mode
An engineer's desktop PC connects to a switch at the main site. A router at the main site connects to each branch office through a serial link, with one small router and switch at each branch. Which of the following commands must be configured on the branch office switches, in the listed configuration mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch office switches and supply only a password to login? (Choose three answers.) a. The ip address command in interface configuration mode b. The ip address command in global configuration mode c. The ip default-gateway command in VLAN configuration mode d. The ip default-gateway command in global configuration mode e. The password command in console line configuration mode f. The password command in vty line configuration mode
The ip address command in interface configuration mode The ip default-gateway command in global configuration mode The password command in vty line configuration mode
A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1, G0/2, and G0/3 in the channel. Which of the following are true about SW1's configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4 packets correctly? (Choose two answers.) a. The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface. b. The ip address command must be on interface G0/1 (lowest numbered port). c. The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport command. d. Interface G0/1 must be configured with the routedport command.
The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface. The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport command.
Examine the following configuration commands: interface Ethernet0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside interface Serial0/0 ip address 200.1.1.249 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside source list 1 interface Serial0/0 access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 If the configuration is intended to enable source NAT overload, which of the following commands could be useful to complete the configuration? (Choose two answers.) The ip nat outside command The ip nat pat command The overload keyword The ip nat pool command
The ip nat outside command, The overload keyword
An engineer migrates from a more traditional OSPFv2 configuration that uses network commands in OSPF configuration mode to instead use OSPFv2 interface configuration. Which of the following commands configures the area number assigned to an interface in this new configuration? a. The area command in interface configuration mode b. The ip ospf command in interface configuration mode c. The router ospf command in interface configuration mode d. The network command in interface configuration mode
The ip ospf command in interface configuration mode
Switch SW1 uses its Gigabit 0/1 interface to connect to switch SW2's Gigabit 0/2 interface. SW2's Gi0/2 interface is configured with the speed 1000 and duplex full commands. SW1 uses all defaults for interface configuration commands on its Gi0/1 interface. Which of the following are true about the link after it comes up? (Choose two answers.) a. The link works at 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps). b. SW1 attempts to run at 10 Mbps because SW2 has effectively disabled IEEE standard autonegotiation. c. The link runs at 1 Gbps, but SW1 uses half duplex and SW2 uses full duplex. d. Both switches use full duplex.
The link works at 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) Both switches use full duplex
Host A is a PC, connected to switch SW1 and assigned to VLAN 1. Which of the following are typically assigned an IP address in the same subnet as host A? (Choose two answers.) a. The local router's WAN interface b. The local router's LAN interface c. All other hosts attached to the same switch d. Other hosts attached to the same switch and also in VLAN 1
The local router's LAN interface Other hosts attached to the same switch and also in VLAN 1
Switch SW1 has been configured to use Dynamic ARP Inspection with DHCP Snooping in VLAN 5. An ARP request arrives on port G0/1. Which answer describes two items DAI always compares regardless of the configuration? The message's ARP origin hardware address and the message's Ethernet header source MAC address The message's ARP origin hardware address and the DHCP Snooping binding table The message's ARP target IP address and the DHCP Snooping binding table The message's ARP target IP address and the switch's ARP table
The message's ARP origin hardware address and the DHCP Snooping binding table
Which of the following are true about IP address 192.168.6.7's IP network? (Choose two answers.) a. The network ID is 192.168.6.0. b. The network is a Class B network. c. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0. d. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
The network ID is 192.168.6.0. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0.
Which of the following are true about IP address 172.16.99.45's IP network? (Choose two answers.) a. The network ID is 172.0.0.0. b. The network is a Class B network. c. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0. d. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
The network is a Class B network. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
An engineer configures a static IPv4 route on Router R1. Which of the following pieces of information should not be listed as a parameter in the configuration command that creates this static IPv4 route? a. The destination subnet's subnet ID b. The next-hop router's IP address c. The next-hop router's neighboring interface d. The subnet mask
The next-hop router's neighboring interface
Which of the following is different on the Cisco switch CLI for a Layer 2 switch as compared with the Cisco router CLI? a. The commands used to configure simple password checking for the console b. The number of IP addresses configured c. The configuration of the device's hostname d. The configuration of an interface description
The number of IP addresses configured
Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two answers.) The policer may or may not be discarding packets. The policer is definitely discarding packets. The shaper may or may not be queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.
The policer may or may not be discarding packets. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.
Layer 2 switch SW2 connects a Layer 2 switch (SW1), a router (R1), a DHCP server (S1), and three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3). All PCs are DHCP clients. Which of the following are the most likely DHCP Snooping trust state configurations on SW2 for the ports connected to the listed devices? (Choose two answers.) The port connected to the router is untrusted. The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted. The port connected to PC1 is untrusted. The port connected to PC3 is trusted.
The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted, The port connected to PC1 is untrusted.
The command output shows two routes from the longer output of the show ipv6 route command. Which answers are true about the output? (Choose two answers.) R1# show ipv6 route static ! Legend omitted for brevity S 2001:DB8:2:2::/64 [1/0] via 2001:DB8:4:4::4 S ::/0 [1/0] via Serial0/0/1, directly connected a. The route to ::/0 is added because of an ipv6 route global command. b. The administrative distance of the route to 2001:DB8:2:2::/64 is 1. c. The route to ::/0 is added because of an ipv6 address interface subcommand. d. The route to 2001:DB8:2:2::/64 is added because of an IPv6 routing protocol.
The route to ::/0 is added because of an ipv6 route global command. The administrative distance of the route to 2001:DB8:2:2::/64 is 1
OSPF interface configuration uses the ip ospf process-id area area-number configuration command. In which modes do you configure the following settings when using this command? a. The router ID is configured explicitly in router mode. b. The router ID is configured explicitly in interface mode. c. An interface's area number is configured in router mode. d. An interface's area number is configured in interface mode.
The router ID is configured explicitly in router mode. An interface's area number is configured in interface mode.
A router connects to an Internet Service Provider (ISP) using its G0/0/0 interface, with the ip address dhcp command configured. What does the router do with the DHCP-learned default gateway information? The router ignores the default gateway value learned from the DHCP server. The router uses the default gateway just like a host, ignoring its routing table. The router forwards received packets based on its routing table but uses its default gateway setting to forward packets it generates itself. The router adds a default route based on the default gateway to its IP routing table.
The router adds a default route based on the default gateway to its IP routing table.
A router receives an Ethernet frame that holds an IPv6 packet. The router then makes a decision to route the packet out a serial link. Which of the following statements is true about how a router forwards an IPv6 packet? a. The router discards the Ethernet data-link header and trailer of the received frame. b. The router makes the forwarding decision based on the packet's source IPv6 address. c. The router keeps the Ethernet header, encapsulating the entire frame inside a new IPv6 packet before sending it over the serial link. d. The router uses the IPv4 routing table when choosing where to forward the packet.
The router discards the Ethernet data-link header and trailer of the received frame.
An engineer types the command ipv6 route 2001:DB8:8:8::/64 2001:DB8:9:9::9 129 in configuration mode of Router R1 and presses Enter. Later, a show ipv6 route command does not list any route for subnet 2001:DB8:8:8::/64. Which of the following could have caused the route to not be in the IPv6 routing table? a. The command should be using a next-hop link-local address instead of a global unicast. b. The command is missing an outgoing interface parameter, so IOS rejected the ipv6 route command. c. The router has no routes that match 2001:DB8:9:9::9. d. A route for 2001:DB8:8:8::/64 with administrative distance 110 already exists
The router has no routes that match 2001:DB8:9:9::9
A network engineer issues a show running-config command and sees only one line of output that mentions the enable secret command, as follows: enable secret 5 $1$ZGMA$e8cmvkz4UjiJhVp7.maLE1 Which of the following is true about users of this router? A user must type $1$ZGMA$e8cmvkz4UjiJhVp7.maLE1 to reach enable mode. The router will hash the clear-text password that the user types to compare to the hashed password. A no service password-encryption configuration command would decrypt this password. The router will decrypt the password in the configuration to compare to the clear-text password typed by the user.
The router will hash the clear-text password that the user types to compare to the hashed password.
The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of secure-down. Which one of the following answers must be true about this interface at this time? The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10.
The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled.
Which of the following commands might you see associated with a router CLI, but not with a switch CLI? a. The show mac address-table command b. The show ip route command c. The show running-config command d. The show interfaces status command
The show ip route command
In a switch that disables VTP, an engineer configures the commands vlan 30 and shutdown vlan 30. Which answers should be true about this switch? (Choose two answers.) a. The show vlan brief command should list VLAN 30. b. The show running-config command should list VLAN 30. c. The switch should forward frames that arrive in access ports in VLAN 30. d. The switch should forward frames that arrive in trunk ports tagged with VLAN 30.
The show vlan brief command should list VLAN 30 The show running-config command should list VLAN 30
The output of the show ip interface brief command on R1 lists interface status codes of "down" and "down" for interface GigabitEthernet 0/0. The interface connects to a LAN switch with a UTP straight-through cable. Which of the following could be true? a. The shutdown command is currently configured for router interface G0/0. b. The shutdown command is currently configured for the switch interface on the other end of the cable. c. The router was never configured with an ip address command on the interface. d. The router was configured with the no ip address command.
The shutdown command is currently configured for the switch interface on the other end of the cable.
A switch's port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two answers.) The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. The switch discards both the first and second frame.
The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1.
Examine the following output from the show spanning-tree vlan 5 command, which describes a root switch in a LAN. Which answers accurately describe facts related to the root's bridge ID? SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 5 VLAN0005 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root ID Priority 32773 Address 1833.9d7b.0e80 Cost 15 Port 25 (GigabitEthernet0/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec a. The system ID extension value, in decimal, is 5. b. The root's configured priority value is 32773. c. The root's configured priority value is 32768. d. The system ID extension value, in hexadecimal, is 1833.9d7b.0e80.
The system ID extension value, in decimal, is 5. The root's configured priority value is 32768
An actual potential to exploit a vulnerability is known as which one of the following terms? Vulnerability Attack Exploit Threat
Threat
How does a lightweight access point communicate with a wireless LAN controller? a. Through an IPsec tunnel b. Through a CAPWAP tunnel c. Through a GRE tunnel d. Directly over Layer 2
Through a CAPWAP tunnel
Which of the following are advantages of using multimode fiber for an Ethernet link instead of UTP or single-mode fiber? a. To achieve the longest distance possible for that single link. b. To extend the link beyond 100 meters while keeping initial costs as low as possible. c. To make use of an existing stock of laser-based SFP/SFP+ modules. d. To make use of an existing stock of LED-based SFP/SFP+ modules.
To extend the link beyond 100 meters while keeping initial costs as low as possible
Why does the formula for the number of hosts per subnet (2H - 2) require the subtraction of two hosts? a. To reserve two addresses for redundant default gateways (routers) b. To reserve the two addresses required for DHCP operation c. To reserve addresses for the subnet ID and default gateway (router) d. To reserve addresses for the subnet broadcast address and subnet ID
To reserve addresses for the subnet broadcast address and subnet ID
Which of the following SNMP messages are typically sent by an SNMP agent? Trap Get Request Inform Set Request
Trap, Inform
An autonomous AP will be configured to support three WLANs that correspond to three VLANs. The AP will connect to the network over which one of the following? a. Access mode link b. Trunk mode link c. LAG mode link d. EtherChannel link
Trunk mode link
Which one of the following is the goal of a brute-force attack? Try every possible TCP port until a service answers Try every possible combination of keyboard characters to guess a user's password Initiate a denial-of-service operation on every possible host in a subnet Spoof every possible IP address in an organization
Try every possible combination of keyboard characters to guess a user's password
Which of the following fields in the HDLC header used by Cisco routers does Cisco add, beyond the ISO standard HDLC? a. Flag b. Type c. Address d. FCS
Type
Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.) a. Ethernet b. HTTP c. IP d. UDP e. SMTP f. TCP
UDP and TCP
Which of the following refer to standards that deliver power over all four pairs in a UTP cable? (Choose two answers.) PoE UPoE PoE+ UPoE+
UPoE, UPoE+
Which of the following fields cannot be compared based on an extended IP ACL? (Choose two answers.) Protocol Source IP address Destination IP address TOS byte URL Filename for FTP transfers
URL Filename for FTP transfers
In Cisco Software-Defined Access (SDA), which term refers to the devices and cabling, along with configuration that allows the network device nodes enough IP connectivity to send IP packets to each other? Fabric Overlay Underlay VXLAN
Underlay
Which one of the following WLC deployment models would be best for a large enterprise with around 3000 lightweight APs? a. Cisco Mobility Express b. Embedded c. Unified d. Cloud-based
Unified
In what modes can you type the command show mac address-table and expect to get a response with MAC table entries? (Choose two answers.) a. User mode b. Enable mode c. Global configuration mode d. Interface configuration mode
User mode Enable mode
Which of the following answers is most accurate about access link options for an MPLS network? Uses only TDM (T1, T3, E1, E3, etc.) Uses only Ethernet Uses only DSL and cable Uses a wide variety of Layer 1 and Layer 2 networking technologies
Uses a wide variety of Layer 1 and Layer 2 networking technologies
A Network Management Station (NMS) is using SNMP to manage some Cisco routers and switches with SNMPv2c. Which of the following answers most accurately describes how the SNMP agent on a router authenticates any SNMP Get requests received from the NMS? Using a username and hashed version of a password Using either the read-write or read-only community string Using only the read-write community string Using only the read-only community string
Using either the read-write or read-only community string
Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password instead of storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes.
Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted.
An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider Using an Internet connection without VPN Using an intercloud exchange Using an Internet connection with VPN
Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider
An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two answers.) Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider Using an Internet connection without VPN Using an intercloud exchange Using an Internet connection with VPN
Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider Using an intercloud exchange
A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (Choose two answers.) a. Using the exit command once b. Using the end command once c. Pressing the Ctrl+Z key sequence once d. Using the quit command
Using the end command once Pressing the Ctrl+Z key sequence once
A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer configures the vlan 22 and name Hannahs-VLAN commands and then exits configuration mode. Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.) a. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command. b. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command. c. VLAN 22 is not created by this process. d. VLAN 22 does not exist in that switch until at least one interface is assigned to that VLAN
VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command
An engineer has successfully configured a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for VLANs 2 and 3. Hosts in the subnets using VLANs 2 and 3 can ping each other with the Layer 3 switch routing the packets. The next week, the network engineer receives a call that those same users can no longer ping each other. If the problem is with the Layer 3 switching function, which of the following could have caused the problem? (Choose two answers.) a. Six (or more) out of 10 working VLAN 2 access ports failing due to physical problems b. A shutdown command issued from interface VLAN 4 configuration mode c. VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch's VLAN list d. A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode
VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch's VLAN list A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode
In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? LISP GRE OSPF VXLAN
VXLAN
Which one of the following terms means anything that can be considered to be a weakness that can compromise security? Exploit Vulnerability Attack Threat
Vulnerability
Which one of the following is a wireless encryption method that has been found to be vulnerable and is not recommended for use? a. AES b. WPA c. EAP d. WEP
WEP
The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? (Choose all that apply.) a. WEP b. WPA2 c. 802.11 d. AES
WPA2
A pre-shared key is used in which of the following wireless security configurations? (Choose all that apply.) a. WPA2 personal mode b. WPA2 enterprise mode c. WPA3 personal mode d. WPA3 enterprise mode
WPA2 personal mode, WPA3 personal mode
Which one of the following can be used to provide wireless connectivity to a nonwireless device? a. Wireless repeater b. Workgroup bridge c. Transparent bridge d. Adaptive bridge
Workgroup bridge
Which of the following access-list commands matches all packets sent from hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23? access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.5 0.0.255.0 access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 access-list 1 permit 172.16.5.0 access-list 1 permit 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
Which of the following access-list commands permit packets going from host 10.1.1.1 to all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5? (Choose two answers.) access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 1951 permit ip host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 2523 permit ip host 10.1.1.1 eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
Which of the following access-list commands permits packets going to any web client from all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5? access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 1951 permit ip host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 2523 permit tcp any eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www any
access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www any
In the URI http://blog.certskills.com/config-labs, which part identifies the web server? http blog.certskills.com certskills.com http://blog.certskills.com The file name.html includes the hostname.
blog.certskills.com
What command copies the configuration from RAM into NVRAM? a. copy running-config tftp b. copy tftp running-config c. copy running-config start-up-config d. copy start-up-config running-config e. copy startup-config running-config f. copy running-config startup-config
copy running-config startup-config
Which of the following configuration settings on a router does not influence which IPv4 route a router chooses to add to its IPv4 routing table when using OSPFv2? a. auto-cost reference-bandwidth b. delay c. bandwidth d. ip ospf cost
delay
Examine the following URI that works with a Cisco DNA Controller: https://dnac.example.com/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device?managementIPAddress = 10.10.22.74 Which part of the URI, per the API documentation, is considered to identify the resource but not any parameters? https:// dnac.example.com dna/intent/api/v1/network-device managementIPAddress = 10.10.22.74
dna/intent/api/v1/network-device
Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode? a. enable password b. enable secret c. Neither d. The password command, if it is configured
enable secret
Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode? enable password enable secret Neither The password command, if it's configured
enable secret
Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1. The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid configuration for Router 1's Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two answers.) a. interface fastethernet 0/0.4 b. dot1q enable c. dot1q enable 4 d. trunking enable e. trunking enable 4 f. encapsulation dot1q 4
interface fastethernet 0/0.4 encapsulation dot1q 4
A Layer 2 switch needs to be configured to use Dynamic ARP Inspection along with DHCP Snooping. Which command would make DAI monitor ARP message rates on an interface at an average rate of 4 received ARP messages per second? (Choose two answers.) ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 2 ip arp inspection limit rate 16 burst interval 4 ip arp inspection limit rate 4
ip arp inspection limit rate 16 burst interval 4 ip arp inspection limit rate 4
Switch SW1 needs to be configured to use Dynamic ARP Inspection along with DHCP Snooping in VLAN 6 and only VLAN 6. Which commands must be included, assuming at least one switch port in VLAN 6 must be a trusted port? (Choose two answers.) no ip arp inspection untrust ip arp inspection trust ip arp inspection ip arp inspection vlan 6
ip arp inspection trust ip arp inspection vlan 6
Switch SW1 needs to be configured to use DHCP Snooping in VLAN 5 and only VLAN 5. Which commands must be included, assuming at least one switch port in VLAN 5 must be an untrusted port? (Choose two answers.) no ip dhcp snooping trust ip dhcp snooping untrust ip dhcp snooping ip dhcp snooping vlan 5
ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 5
NAT has been configured to translate source addresses of packets for the inside part of the network, but only for some hosts as identified by an access control list. Which of the following commands indirectly identifies the hosts? ip nat inside source list 1 pool barney ip nat pool barney 200.1.1.1 200.1.1.254 netmask 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ip nat inside 200.1.1.1 200.1.1.2
ip nat inside source list 1 pool barney
Which of the following commands correctly configures a static route? a. ip route 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.130.253 b. ip route 10.1.3.0 serial 0 c. ip route 10.1.3.0 /24 10.1.130.253 d. ip route 10.1.3.0 /24 serial 0
ip route 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.130.253
Which of the following commands on a Windows OS should list both the IP address and DNS servers as learned with DHCP? ifconfig ipconfig ifconfig /all ipconfig /all
ipconfig /all
Router R1 has an interface named Gigabit Ethernet 0/1, whose MAC address has been set to 0200.0001.000A. Which of the following commands, added in R1's Gigabit Ethernet 0/1 configuration mode, gives this router's G0/1 interface a unicast IPv6 address of 2001:1:1:1:1:200:1:A, with a /64 prefix length? a. ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:1:200:1:A/64 b. ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:1:200:1:A/64 eui-64 c. ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:1:200:1:A /64 eui-64 d. ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:1:200:1:A /64 e. None of the other answers are correct.
ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:1:200:1:A/64
An engineer needs to add a static IPv6 route for prefix 2000:1:2:3::/64 to Router R5. Which of the following answers shows a valid static IPv6 route for that subnet on Router R5? (figure could not be copied here) a. ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 2000:1:2:56::5 b. ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 2000:1:2:56::6 c. ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 FE80::FF:FE00:5 d. ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 FE80::FF:FE00:6
ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 2000:1:2:56::6
An engineer needs to add a static IPv6 route for prefix 2000:1:2:3::/64 to Router R5's configuration. Which of the following answers shows a valid static IPv6 route for that subnet, on Router R5? a. ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 S0/1/1 b. ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 S0/1/0 c. ip route 2000:1:2:3::/64 S0/1/1 d. ip route 2000:1:2:3::/64 S0/1/0
ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 S0/1/1
Which of the following line subcommands tells a switch to wait until a show command's output has completed before displaying log messages on the screen? a. logging synchronous b. no ip domain-lookup c. exec-timeout 0 0 d. history size 15
logging synchronous
What command limits the messages sent to a syslog server to levels 4 through 0? logging trap 0-4 logging trap 0,1,2,3,4 logging trap 4 logging trap through 4
logging trap 4
Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1? a. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0 b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 c. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.255 area 0 d. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.255.255 area 0
network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0
Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1? a. network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.0 area 0 c. network 10.1.1.0 0.x.1x.0 area 0 d. network 10.1.1.0 255.0.0.0 area 0 e. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
On a multilayer switch, a switch needs to be configured to perform DHCP Snooping on some Layer 2 ports in VLAN 3. Which command may or may not be needed depending on whether the switch also acts as a DHCP relay agent? no ip dhcp snooping information option ip dhcp snooping limit rate 5 errdisable recovery cause dhcp-rate-limit ip dhcp snooping vlan 3
no ip dhcp snooping information option
Imagine that you are told that switch 1 is configured with the dynamic auto parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch 2. You have to configure switch 2. Which of the following settings for trunking could allow trunking to work? (Choose two answers.) a. on b. dynamic auto c. dynamic desirable d. access e. None of the other answers are correct
on, dynamic desirable
Which combinations of keywords on the channel-group interface subcommand on two neighboring switches will cause the switches to use LACP and attempt to add the link to the EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.) a. desirable and active b. passive and active c. active and auto d. active and active
passive and active active and active
Which type value on the spanning-tree mode type global command enables the use of RSTP? a. rapid-pvst b. pvst c. rstp d. rpvst
rapid-pvst
Imagine that a switch connects through an Ethernet cable to a router, and the router's host name is Hannah. Which of the following commands could tell you information about the IOS version on Hannah without establishing a Telnet connection to Hannah? (Choose two answers.) show neighbors Hannah show cdp show cdp neighbors show cdp neighbors Hannah show cdp entry Hannah show cdp neighbors detail
show cdp entry Hannah show cdp neighbors detail
Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces: interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.) a. show interfaces b. show interfaces switchport c. show interfaces trunk d. show trunks
show interfaces switchport show interfaces trunk
An engineer configures an ACL but forgets to save the configuration. At that point, which of the following commands display the configuration of an IPv4 ACL, including line numbers? (Choose two answers.) show running-config show startup-config show ip access-lists show access-lists
show ip access-lists show access-lists
Which of the following commands do not list the IP address and mask of at least one interface? (Choose two answers.) a. show running-config b. show protocols type number c. show ip interface brief d. show interfaces e. show version
show ip interface brief show version
Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off interface serial 0/0? (Choose two answers.) a. show ip ospf neighbor b. show ip ospf interface brief c. show ip neighbor d. show ip interface e. show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0
show ip ospf neighbor show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0
A switch is cabled to a router whose host name is Hannah. Which of the following LLDP commands could identify Hannah's model of hardware? (Choose two answers.) show neighbors show neighbors Hannah show lldp show lldp interface show lldp neighbors show lldp entry Hannah
show lldp neighbors show lldp entry Hannah
Which of the following commands list the MAC address table entries for MAC addresses configured by port security? (Choose two answers.) show mac address-table dynamic show mac address-table show mac address-table static show mac address-table port-security
show mac address-table show mac address-table static
