QUIZ 2
13) Microglia are (the) ________. A) most numerous neuroglial cell B) smallest neuroglial cell C) not a neuroglial cell D) least numerous neuroglial cell E) None of the answers are correct.
B
13) The biceps brachii is an example of a muscle with its fascicle oriented in a ________ fashion. A) convergent B) parallel C) bipennate D) circular E) multipennate
B
13) The trigeminal nerve controls which group of muscles? A) muscles of facial expression B) muscles of mastication C) muscles of the tongue D) muscles of the pharynx E) muscles of the eye
B
14) Skeletal muscle fibers arise from embryonic cells called ________. A) myotomes B) myoblasts C) myomeres D) myofilaments E) myofibrils
B
14) The femoral nerve innervates the ________ muscle(s). A) gracilis B) pectineus C) adductor magnus D) gluteus maximus E) obturator
B
14) Which of the following neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid? A) astrocytes B) ependymal cells C) microglia D) oligodendrocytes E) satellite cells
B
15) The major weight-bearing articulation of the ankle is the ________ joint. A) tibiocalcaneal B) tibiotalar C) tibiofibular D) fibulocuboidal E) fibulotalar
B
16) An example of angular motion away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is ________. A) flexion B) abduction C) extension D) rotation E) adduction
B
16) Flexion of the forearm at the elbow involves the use of the principle of (a) ________ lever(s). A) first- and second-class B) third-class C) first-class D) first- and third-class E) second-class
B
16) The type of synapse that allows the most direct communication between cells, and therefore the fastest communication, is the ________ synapse. A) chemical B) nonvesicular C) neuromuscular D) vesicular E) neuroendocrine
B
17) Which blood vessel is found in the anterior compartment of the upper limb? A) ulnar artery B) brachial artery C) anterior interosseous artery D) posterior ulnar recurrent artery E) radial artery
B
17) Which of the following features are common to the muscles of mastication? A) They share an oculomotor nerve innervation. B) They move the mandible at the temporomandibular joint. C) They are primarily grouped among the muscles of facial expression. D) They allow a person to smile. E) They control swallowing.
B
18) Myelin is (a) ________. A) cell body in the peripheral nervous system B) mostly lipid C) special cell that forms scar tissue after injury D) special area of the brain E) None of the answers are correct.
B
18) Pronation and supination occur at a/the ________. A) humeroulnar joint B) radioulnar joint C) temporomandibular joint D) glenohumeral joint E) tibiofibular joint
B
18) Which of the following extends the vertebral column and depresses the ribs? A) longus capitis B) iliocostalis lumborum C) longus cervicis D) quadratus lumborum E) longus colli
B
19) Areas of a myelinated axon that are NOT covered by myelin are called ________. A) internodes B) nodes C) gray matter D) white matter E) All of the answers are correct.
B
19) Which muscle originates at the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts near the tibial tuberosity? A) tensor fasciae latae B) sartorius C) adductor magnus D) adductor longus E) rectus femoris
B
2) The lesser tubercle of the humerus is the insertion point for the ________ muscle. A) infraspinatus B) subscapularis C) teres major D) deltoid E) supraspinatus
B
20) What movement occurs when the vertebral column bends to the side? A) flexion B) lateral flexion C) abduction D) elevation E) adduction
B
17) A biopsy of infected or injured tissue from the CNS will most likely show an elevated number of ________. A) ependymal cells B) oligodendrocytes C) satellite cells D) microglia E) interneurons
D
30) When contraction occurs, ________. A) the A band remains constant B) the H band gets smaller C) the I band begins to disappear D) the Z lines move closer together E) All of the answers are correct.
E
31) Which of the following are most closely involved with somatic sensory neurons? A) visceral sensory neurons B) bipolar neurons C) interoceptors D) proprioceptors E) exteroceptors
E
1) The ________ is a dense irregular connective tissue layer that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle. A) perimysium B) sarcolemma C) epimysium D) sarcoplasmic reticulum E) endomysium
c
17) The sarcoplasmic reticulum is (the) ________. A) plasmalemma of skeletal muscle fibers B) cytoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers C) a membrane complex similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle fibers D) extension of the skeletal muscle plasmalemma into the cell E) a membrane complex similar to the rough endoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle fibers
c
18) The portion of a sarcomere that contains the thick filaments and the zone of overlap is the ________. A) I band B) M line C) A band D) H band E) Z line
c
10) The movement made at the proximal radioulnar joint when turning the palm of the hand upward is called ________. A) extension B) supination C) flexion D) retraction E) pronation
B
10) The type of joint formed by the joining of the diaphysis and each epiphysis is called a ________. A) gomphosis B) synchondrosis C) synostosis D) symphysis E) suture
B
10) Which of the following muscles originates at the mandible bone? A) thyrohyoid B) geniohyoid C) stylohyoid D) styloglossus E) None of the answers are correct.
B
11) The psoas major muscle inserts at the ________. A) iliac fossa B) lesser trochanter C) ischial spine D) linea aspera E) greater trochanter
B
12) Damage to a joint so that it is slightly out of its normal position is called a ________. A) luxation B) subluxation C) complete dislocation D) separation E) strain
B
1) A joint that permits free movement is called ________. A) a synarthrosis B) a synostosis C) a diarthrosis D) a synchondrosis E) an amphiarthrosis
C
8) Which of the following muscles is inferior to the lips? A) masseter B) frontalis C) depressor anguli oris D) risorius E) zygomaticus major
C
16) Arthritis always involves damage to (the) ________. A) bony tissue B) bursae C) ligaments D) articular cartilages E) tendon sheaths
D
3) The origin of the deltoid muscle is (the) ________. A) clavicle B) scapula C) humerus D) vertebral column E) both the scapula and the clavicle.
E
1) Which of the following belongs to the second group of the axial muscles that include flexors and extensors of the axial skeleton? A) the muscles of the vertebral column B) the muscles of the perineum C) the muscles of the head and neck D) the oblique and rectus muscles E) the muscles of the pelvic diaphragm
A
11) Slow muscle fibers contain large amounts of the oxygen-binding protein ________. A) myoglobin B) calmodulin C) titin D) nebulin E) troponin
A
11) Which of the following is a function of synovial fluid? A) acts as a shock absorber B) prevents movement C) channels the flow of blood D) restricts joint movement E) strengthens and reinforces the joint
A
11) Which of the following muscles originates at two heads? A) sternocleidomastoid B) sternohyoid C) thyrohyoid D) mylohyoid E) stylohyoid
A
12) The ________ crosses the acetabular notch in the hip joint. A) transverse acetabular ligament B) iliofemoral ligament C) acetabular labrum D) pubofemoral ligament E) ischiofemoral ligament
A
12) The adductor brevis muscle originates at the ________. A) inferior ramus of the pubis B) ischial tuberosity C) linea aspera D) adductor tubercle of the femur E) superior ramus of the pubis
A
12) The intermediate layer of the intrinsic back muscles is also called the ________ group. A) erector spinae B) spinal flexor C) intertransversarii D) rotatores E) interspinalis
A
12) ________ is the ability of a plasmalemma to respond to an adequate stimulus. A) Excitability B) Threshold stimulus C) Wallerian degeneration D) Membrane potential E) Propagation
A
13) Actinin molecules form an open meshwork at the ________. A) Z line B) M line C) H band D) I band E) A band
A
13) The ________ muscle is divided longitudinally by a median collagenous partition called the linea alba. A) rectus abdominis B) internal oblique C) transversus abdominis D) diaphragm E) external oblique
A
13) The muscle that can extend, adduct, and medially rotate the shoulder is (the) ________. A) latissimus dorsi B) pectoralis major C) teres major D) subscapularis E) teres minor
A
14) In a ________ muscle, the muscle fibers are based over a broad area, but all the fibers come together at a common attachment site. A) convergent B) spiral C) circular D) multipennate E) parallel
A
14) Movement of joints may occur along how many possible axes of motion? A) three B) two C) one D) five E) four
A
15) The anterior, middle, and posterior scalene muscles are the oblique muscles of the neck, which ________. A) elevate the ribs and/or flex the neck B) depress the ribs and flex the neck C) elevate the ribs and enlarge the thoracic cavity D) depress the ribs and flex the vertebral column E) elevate the ribs and oppose the diaphragm
A
15) Typically, the insertion of a muscle is ________ to its origin. A) distal B) proximal C) medial D) lateral E) deep
A
15) Why does a skeletal muscle fiber have more than one nucleus? A) During development, groups of embryonic cells fuse together to form a single muscle fiber. B) During development, the nucleus of each myoblast replicates several times. C) During development, the plasmalemmae of newly formed muscle fibers disintegrate, making many muscle cells into one. D) During muscular activity, parts of each muscle fiber break down, and the remaining parts, including their nuclei, fuse into new combination fibers. E) All of the answers are correct.
A
16) If the point of an extremely small probe were passed into a satellite cell, it would be located in which region of the nervous system? A) near a cell body in a ganglion of the PNS B) near the axon of a neuron in the CNS C) near the lining of the ventricles of the brain D) at a neuromuscular synapse E) None of the answers are correct.
A
17) To transmit a nerve impulse in vesicular synapses, the neurotransmitter diffuses across the ________ and binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. A) synaptic cleft B) presynaptic membrane C) axolemma D) secretory vesicles E) sarcolemma
A
18) Nonvesicular synapses, also termed ________, are found between neurons in both the CNS and the PNS. A) electrical synapses B) neuromuscular synapses C) chemical synapses D) neuroendocrine synapses E) All of the answers are correct.
A
2) Muscles of mastication most often insert into the ________. A) mandible B) bones of the face C) tongue D) muscles adjacent to them E) eyes
A
2) The ________ division of the PNS sends motor information to muscles and glands. A) efferent B) sensory C) parallel D) afferent E) serial
A
22) Knee extensors, known as the quadriceps femoris, include the ________. A) three vastus muscles and the rectus femoris muscle B) biceps femoris, gracilis, and sartorius muscles C) popliteus, iliopsoas, and gracilis muscles D) hamstrings and adductors E) gastrocnemius, tibialis, and fibularis muscles
A
23) Axons connecting the ganglion cells with the peripheral effectors are called ________. A) postganglionic fibers B) ganglionic fibers C) preganglionic fibers D) efferent fibers E) afferent fibers
A
26) The deepest lateral layer of the abdominal muscles is the ________. A) transversus abdominis B) rectus abdominis C) internal oblique D) external oblique E) psoas major
A
27) During a shoulder separation injury, which of the following structures is most likely to be damaged? A) acromioclavicular ligament B) coracohumeral ligament C) coracoacromial ligament D) sternoclavicular ligament E) None of the answers are correct.
A
28) Which of the following is the FIRST step in the sliding mechanism of muscle contraction? A) The myosin heads of the thick filaments bind to active sites on the thin filaments. B) Myosin heads pivot toward the M line when cross-bridge binding occurs. C) Thin filaments are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere. D) The cross-bridges detach and return to their original positions. E) A carbohydrate molecule is broken down to produce energy.
A
29) Which of the following is the most superficial and lateral muscle of the male or female urogenital triangle? A) ischiocavernosus B) bulbospongiosus C) pubococcygeus D) coccygeus E) external urethral sphincter
A
3) A fibrous joint that holds skull bones together is called (a) ________. A) suture B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) synostosis E) None of the answers are correct
A
3) Accessory structures found around the joint periphery, which provide packing material and fill spaces created when the joint cavity changes shape, are called ________. A) fat pads B) menisci C) bursae D) tendons E) ligaments
A
3) The anatomical subdivisions of the nervous system are (the) ________. A) central and peripheral nervous systems B) dorsal and ventral nervous systems C) appendicular and axial nervous systems D) autonomic and somatic nervous systems E) None of the answers are correct
A
30) Because a neuron loses its centrioles during differentiation, ________. A) it is rendered incapable of dividing B) it cannot grow as quickly as neurons that retain their centrioles C) it loses its normal ability to produce a myelin sheath D) it is probably located in the PNS E) All of the answers are correct.
A
32) Injured neurons can fully recover their functional capabilities if ________. A) the oxygen and nutrient supplies are restored within a period of a few minutes B) the cause of the damage is removed within a period of weeks C) the cells can divide enough times to replace those that are lost D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
A
39) Which of the following fractures are among the most dangerous seen in elderly people? A) hip fractures B) knee fractures C) elbow fractures D) ankle fractures E) wrist fractures
A
4) A cartilaginous joint that permits slight movement is (a) ________. A) symphysis B) synovial joint C) synostosis D) synchondrosis E) gomphosis
A
4) The fan-shaped ________ muscle, which originates along the ventral and superior margins of several ribs, rotates the scapula so that the glenoid cavity moves superiorly. A) serratus anterior B) pectoralis major C) deltoid D) subscapularis E) supraspinatus
A
4) Which of the following muscles runs between the larynx and the hyoid bone? A) thyrohyoid B) digastric C) mylohyoid D) genioglossus E) geniohyoid
A
43) At a vesicular synapse, the neurons communicate via ________. A) neurotransmitters B) communicating junctions C) terminal arborizations D) nodes E) internodes
A
44) The effects of a neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic membrane include which of the following? A) Excitatory or inhibitory responses result. B) Neurotransmitter molecules are absorbed by the postsynaptic cell. C) The neurotransmitter floats around in the synaptic cleft. D) Upon stimulation, the membrane releases more neurotransmitter molecules. E) None of the answers are correct
A
47) A neuron might be temporarily unable to transmit an impulse to another neuron or effector if ________. A) its supply of neurotransmitters is exhausted B) the neurons are of different types C) the levels of microglia are too low D) there are too many astrocytes present E) the neurotransmitter is inhibitory
A
47) In muscles that have been repeatedly stimulated to produce near-maximal tension, the net effect is ________. A) hypertrophy B) recruitment C) atrophy D) reduced tone E) None of the answers are correct.
A
48) The largest muscle fiber type, which contains densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and relatively few mitochondria, is called ________. A) fast fibers B) slow fibers C) intermediate fibers D) cardiac fibers E) smooth fibers
A
5) Thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments together form ________. A) myofibrils B) the H band C) a triad D) Z discs E) the I band
A
5) What characteristic of muscle tissue allows it to respond to a stimulation by the nervous system? A) excitability B) elasticity C) extensibility D) contractility E) None of the answers are correct.
A
53) Two factors that are used to determine the classification of a skeletal muscle are (1) the arrangement of the muscle fibers. (2) the structural arrangement by which the muscles attach to the skeleton. (3) the overall size of the muscle. (4) the amount of connective tissue present within the muscle. (5) the number of tendons connected to the muscle. A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 and 4 D) 4 and 5 E) 1 and 3
A
53) Which of the following is gray matter? A) neural cortex B) columns C) tracts D) glandular receptors E) nerves
A
56) A bundle of muscle fibers within a skeletal muscle belly is called a ________. A) fascicle B) perimysium C) muscle sheath D) myofiber E) myofilament
A
58) In the case of the triceps brachii, the shoulder is the ________; the olecranon is the ________. A) origin; insertion B) insertion; origin C) agonist; antagonist D) synergist, fixator E) None of the answers are correct.
A
59) Regarding a typical muscle insertion, which of the following is TRUE? A) The insertion moves more than does the origin. B) The insertion is proximal to the origin. C) If a muscle extends between a broad aponeurosis and a narrow tendon, the aponeurosis is the insertion. D) If there are several tendons at one end of a muscle and just one at the other, there are multiple insertions. E) All of the answers are correct.
A
6) Which of the following muscles is the most powerful muscle involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth? A) masseter B) omohyoid C) temporalis D) pterygoid E) hyoglossus
A
62) The adductor magnus muscle is so named, partially due to the ________. A) size of the muscle B) shape of the muscle C) parallel versus pennate arrangement of its fibers D) orientation of its muscle fibers E) location of the muscle
A
7) Bundles of neurofilaments, called ________, are cytoskeletal elements that extend into the dendrites and the axon. A) neurofibrils B) collaterals C) telodendria D) terminal arborizations E) Nissl bodies
A
7) Orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi, and platysma are part of the group of muscles known as the muscles of ________. A) facial expression B) mastication C) the extra-ocular region D) the tongue E) the pharynx
A
7) The triceps brachii muscle is opposed in extension of the elbow by the antagonistic muscle, ________. A) brachialis B) brachioradialis C) anconeus D) pronator teres E) extensor digitorum
A
8) The ________ muscle originates on the horns of the hyoid bone and inserts in the median raphe, and is innervated by branches of the pharyngeal plexus. A) middle pharyngeal constrictor B) salpingopharyngeus C) inferior pharyngeal constrictor D) palatopharyngeus E) superior pharyngeal constrictor
A
8) The layers of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle from the inside to the outside in correct order are ________. A) endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium B) epimysium, endomysium, and perimysium C) epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium D) endomysium, epimysium, and perimysium E) perimysium, epimysium, and endomysium
A
9) A dislocation, in which the articulating surfaces of a joint are forced entirely out of position, is called (a) ________. A) luxation B) subluxation C) congenital abnormality D) symphysis E) fracture
A
9) At the humeroradial joint, the ________ articulates with the head of the radius. A) capitulum B) greater tubercle C) glenoid labrum D) lesser tubercle E) trochlea
A
9) Which muscle moves the bolus into the esophagus? A) pharyngeal constrictors B) styloglossus C) levator veli palatini D) salpingopharyngeus E) palatopharyngeus
A
1) Which of the following is the type of muscle that pushes blood through the arteries and veins of the circulatory system? A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) appendicular muscle E) None of the answers are correct.
B
10) The action of the rhomboid major muscle is to ________. A) abduct the scapula B) adduct and rotate the scapula downward C) depress and protract the shoulder D) elevate the scapula E) elevate and rotate the scapula upward
B
20) Which of the following is the function of the superficial layer of the intrinsic back muscles? A) flexion of the vertebral column B) extension or lateral flexion of the neck C) interconnect and stabilize the vertebrae D) extension of the vertebral column E) depress the ribs
B
20) Which powerful hip flexors originate alongside the inferior thoracic and lumbar vertebrae? A) medial rotators of the thigh B) iliopsoas group of the thigh C) adductors of the thigh D) abductors of the thigh E) flexors of the thigh
B
21) The superficial erector spinae muscle group that is located most medial to the vertebral column is the ________. A) longissimus group B) spinalis group C) iliocostalis group D) capitis group E) thoracis group
B
22) A joint that allows only rotational movements is called a ________. A) circumductive joint B) pivot joint C) gliding joint D) pronation joint E) ball and socket
B
27) The diaphragm muscle is innervated by ________. A) cranial nerve X B) the phrenic nerves C) the intercostal nerves D) the subcostal nerves E) the thoracic nerves
B
28) Which structure(s), firmly attached to the superior border of the manubrium, prevents dislocation when the shoulder is depressed? A) glenoid labrum B) interclavicular ligament C) anterior sternoclavicular ligament D) costoclavicular ligament E) glenohumeral ligament
B
29) Movement of nutrients, waste products, and organelles between the cell body and the synaptic terminals is a process called ________. A) axonal transport B) axoplasmic transport C) osmosis D) diffusion E) neuroskeletal contraction
B
29) The joint that permits the greatest range of motion in the entire body is the ________. A) hip B) shoulder C) knee D) elbow E) neck
B
29) The sliding mechanism of myofilaments works when ________. A) the thick filaments detach from the muscle tendon B) the myosin heads of the thick filaments bind to active sites on the actin molecules of the thin filaments C) the myosin heads pivot away from the M line toward the Z lines D) the troponin-tropomyosin complex interacts with the actin molecules E) calcium ions bind to active sites on the actin molecules of the thin filaments
B
33) In the process known as Wallerian degeneration ________. A) the axon proximal to the injury deteriorates B) macrophages phagocytize the debris of damaged axons C) Schwann cells completely degenerate D) no trace is left of the path of the original axon that was damaged E) All of the answers are correct.
B
34) Action potentials result from ________. A) the closing of ion channels B) a change in the membrane potential of axons C) the opening of calcium gates D) neurons transporting neurotransmitters E) All of the answers are correct.
B
34) The neurotransmitter involved in the process of contraction in skeletal muscles is ________. A) ATP B) acetylcholine C) troponin D) globulin E) serotonin
B
34) Which of the knee structures function(s) to reinforce the medial and lateral surfaces of the joint, tighten only at full extension of the joint, and act to stabilize the joint? A) patellar ligament B) tibial and fibular collateral ligaments C) popliteal ligaments D) anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments E) iliofemoral ligament
B
36) The rate of conduction of a nerve impulse depends upon ________. A) properties of the soma of the neuron B) the presence or absence of a myelin sheath C) the number of cell dendrites D) the type of neurotransmitter present E) All of the answers are correct.
B
36) Which of the following events occurs in a muscle that is relaxing? A) The muscle fiber shortens. B) AChE is present in the synaptic cleft. C) Released calcium ions are present. D) Myosin heads bind to active sites on the thin filaments. E) Hydrolysis of ATP occurs.
B
37) In electrical synapses, nerve impulse transmission occurs between cells of the CNS and PNS without any delay due to ________. A) the presence of a neuromuscular synapse between the cells B) communicating junctions that permit the passage of ions between the cells C) the activity of Schwann cells D) the number of neurons in the chain E) the effects of an energy drink
B
37) What is the significance of the change in permeability (transmembrane potential) of the sarcolemma in muscle contraction? A) It has no role, because this phenomenon does not occur. B) It triggers the release of calcium ions. C) This change is caused by a neurotransmitter. D) This change is caused by the displacement of actin and myosin molecules. E) None of the answers are correct.
B
38) Which of the following events occurs FIRST? A) Myosin cross-bridges attach to actin. B) Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Calcium binds to troponin. D) The myosin head pivots toward the M line. E) The myosin head binds ATP and detaches from actin.
B
39) In the case of somatic neuromuscular neurons, the arrival of a nerve impulse at the terminal bouton immediately triggers ________. A) a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic plasmalemma B) the release of ACh at the presynaptic membrane C) the generation of an action potential in the axon D) long-lived effects at the synaptic membrane E) an action potential
B
4) Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of muscle tissues? A) excitability B) cognitive ability C) contractility D) extensibility E) elasticity
B
44) When a resting muscle contracts only enough to produce tension without movement, this is an example of ________. A) activation B) muscle tone C) hypertrophy D) atrophy E) twitch
B
45) Neurotransmitters are ________. A) produced on command B) stored in synaptic vesicles in the presynaptic membrane C) never recycled D) released only at electrical synapses E) produced by astrocytes
B
48) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events at a synapse? (1) neurotransmitter release/diffusion (2) generation of action potential in the postsynaptic cell membrane (3) arrival of nerve impulse at terminal bouton in the presynaptic cell (4) removal of neurotransmitter molecules from receptors (5) binding of neurotransmitter to receptors A) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 E) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3
B
49) An inhibitory response ________. A) makes an action potential more likely B) makes an action potential less likely C) directly causes an action potential D) causes ACh release E) None of the answers are correct.
B
5) Inflammation of the extensor and flexor retinacula of the wrist can restrict movement and irritate the ________, resulting in carpal tunnel syndrome. A) musculocutaneous nerve B) median nerve C) ulnar nerve D) radial nerve E) axillary nerve
B
5) Receptors may be classified as ________. A) effectors and muscles B) somatic and visceral C) glands and muscles D) voluntary and involuntary E) subconscious and conscious
B
5) The atlanto-axial joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) gliding B) pivot C) saddle D) ellipsoid E) hinge
B
5) The cell body usually has several branching ________, which are specialized to respond to specific stimuli in the extracellular environment. A) soma B) dendrites C) astrocytes D) axons E) satellite cells
B
51) When sensory neurons bring information into the CNS that is subsequently distributed to neuronal pools throughout the spinal cord and brain, the type of processing is known as ________. A) parallel processing B) divergence C) convergence D) serial processing E) reverberation
B
54) The surface of the brain is called the ________. A) higher center B) neural cortex C) neuronal nuclei D) white matter E) basal nuclei
B
55) Collections of neuron cell bodies in the interior of the CNS form larger groups called ________. A) spinal nerves B) nuclei C) cranial nerves D) columns E) reverberating neurons
B
6) The muscle that originates on the lateral nasal cartilages and the aponeuroses covering the inferior portions of the nasal bones, and draws the medial angle of eyebrows inferiorly is called the ________. A) mentalis B) procerus C) occipitofrontalis D) nasalis E) corrugator supercilii
B
6) The smallest functional units of the muscle fibers are the ________. A) fascicles B) sarcomeres C) myofilaments D) cisternae E) neuromuscular synapses
B
6) The structure that surrounds a diarthrotic joint is called (a) ________. A) meniscus B) joint capsule C) synovial membrane D) bursa E) fat pad
B
6) Which muscle flexes the wrist? A) supinator B) palmaris longus C) pronator teres D) brachialis E) anconeus
B
61) The triceps brachii and biceps brachii are good examples of ________. A) muscles that flex the elbow B) an agonist-antagonist pair C) synergists D) agonists E) antagonists
B
63) What does the term longissimus in a muscle name primarily indicate about that muscle? A) the muscle location in the body B) the muscle length C) the manner in which the fibers of the muscle are oriented D) the insertion of the muscle fibers is oriented with respect to the long axis of the body E) the action of the muscle
B
64) What does the name flexor carpi radialis most likely mean? A) It is a forearm muscle whose primary function is synergistic to that of the biceps brachii muscle. B) It is a lateral forearm muscle that flexes at the wrist. C) It is a convergent muscle found along the radial border of the forearm. D) The muscle originates at the wrist. E) All of the answers are correct.
B
65) How does a muscle named lateralis differ from one named latissimus? A) There is no difference; the two terms are synonymous. B) Lateralis refers to the side of the organism, whereas latissimus refers to the width of the structure. C) Latissimus means the structure is larger than one that is merely lateralis. D) Two muscles so named would always have completely different functions. E) A latissimus structure is always deep to a lateralis structure.
B
66) A word in a muscle name that indicates it is a pear-shaped muscle might be ________. A) splenius B) piriformis C) pectinate D) teres E) pyramidal
B
7) A muscle that elevates the corner of the mouth and draws it laterally is the ________ muscle. A) levator anguli oris B) zygomaticus major C) risorius D) depressor anguli oris E) orbicularis oris
B
7) Why are skeletal muscles called voluntary? A) These muscles maintain a constant rhythm of contraction. B) Their contractions can be consciously controlled. C) Only these muscles are stimulated to contract by the central nervous system. D) Contraction of specific muscles occurs to maintain body posture and body position. E) All of the answers are correct.
B
8) Lateral compartment muscles of the upper limb include the ________ muscle. A) coracobrachialis B) brachioradialis C) triceps brachii D) supinator E) anconeus
B
9) Neuroglia in the nervous system function to ________. A) carry nerve impulses B) act as phagocytes C) process information in the nervous system D) transfer nerve impulses from the brain to the spinal cord E) All of the answers are correct
B
9) When the ________ muscle contracts, the thyroid cartilage of the larynx is elevated and the hyoid is depressed. A) sternohyoid B) thyrohyoid C) sternocleidomastoid D) stylohyoid E) mylohyoid
B
9) ________ monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints. A) Interoceptors B) Proprioceptors C) Exteroceptors D) Visceral sensory neurons E) Nissl bodies
B
1) The nervous system and the ________ system share important structural and functional characteristics, such as relying upon some form of chemical communication with targeted tissues and organs. A) skeletal B) lymphatic C) endocrine D) immune E) circulatory
C
10) The connective tissue surrounding a bundle of muscle fibers is called ________. A) endomysium B) epimysium C) perimysium D) a tendon E) an aponeurosis
C
10) When the ________ muscle contracts, the eye rolls and looks up and laterally. A) inferior rectus B) superior oblique C) inferior oblique D) superior rectus E) lateral rectus
C
12) The supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles are both innervated by (the) ________. A) long thoracic nerve B) axillary nerve C) suprascapular nerve D) thoracodorsal nerve E) musculocutaneous nerve
C
13) If an axon ________, the impulse will be conducted ________. A) has a smaller diameter; less slowly B) has more myelination; more slowly C) has a larger diameter; more rapidly D) is longer in length; more rapidly E) is shorter in length; less rapidly
C
13) The ________ muscles of the thigh insert on the linea aspera. A) lateral rotation B) iliopsoas C) adductor D) gluteal E) abductor
C
14) Flexion of the spinal column and depression of the ribs are actions accomplished by the ________ group of muscles in the abdominal wall. A) inferior serratus posterior B) diaphragm C) rectus abdominis D) internal intercostals E) transversus abdominis
C
14) The neuromuscular synapse is a vesicular synapse that releases the neurotransmitter ________. A) norepinephrine B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) epinephrine E) serotonin
C
14) The superficial ________ reinforce(s) the back of the knee joint. A) anterior cruciate ligament B) patellar ligaments C) popliteal ligaments D) medial collateral ligament E) posterior cruciate ligament
C
15) Extensors of the elbow include (the) ________. A) brachioradialis and brachialis muscles B) coracobrachialis and brachioradialis muscles C) triceps brachii and anconeus muscles D) deltoid and supinator muscles E) palmaris longus and brachioradialis muscles
C
15) Which of the following associations describes the shoulder joint? A) uniaxial—hinge B) biaxial—condyloid C) triaxial—ball and socket D) monaxial—hinge E) None of the answers are correct.
C
16) How do the extrinsic eye muscles differ in action from the intrinsic eye muscles? A) The two muscle groups do not differ in movement types, only in when the movements occur. B) The extrinsic muscles cause faster movements than do the intrinsic muscles. C) Extrinsic eye muscles move the eyeball in relation to the rest of the body, whereas intrinsic muscles move structures within the eyeball. D) The extrinsic eye muscles are smooth muscles inside the eyeball while the intrinsic eye muscles originate on the surface of the orbit and insert into the sclera of the eye just posterior to the cornea. E) None of the answers are correct.
C
16) The complex known as the triad consists of ________. A) actin, myosin, and myofilaments B) one A band, one H zone, and one I band C) one transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae D) myofilaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres E) one sarcomere, one sarcoplasmic reticulum, and one sarcoplasm
C
17) Aging skeletal muscles develop increasing amounts of ________. A) glycogen reserves B) ATP C) fibrous connective tissue D) myoglobin E) myofibrils
C
19) Nodding of the head as a person falls asleep sitting up involves primarily the muscles of (the) ________. A) lumborum region only B) cervicis and thoracis regions C) capitis and cervicis regions D) cervicis region only E) None of the answers are correct.
C
19) Which of the following is an example of angular motion? A) depression B) protraction C) extension D) eversion E) opposition
C
2) Smooth muscles are primarily used to ________. A) generate heat B) pump blood through the circulation C) push fluid and solids along the digestive tract D) provide voluntary movements to the body E) pull on bones of the skeleton
C
2) The muscles that form the rotator cuff include the ________. A) supraspinatus, infraspinatus, deltoid, and teres major B) biceps brachii and deltoid C) teres minor, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and subscapularis D) pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis E) subclavius, deltoid, and pectoralis minor
C
2) Which of the following is the correct classification for the distal articulation between the tibia and fibula, and the interosseous membrane between the radius and ulna? A) gomphosis B) suture C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis E) synostosis
C
21) In the PNS, the neuron cell bodies are found in clusters called ________. A) white matter B) nuclei C) ganglia D) columns E) tracts
C
22) Collections of axons in the CNS that have a common origin and destination are called ________. A) nerves B) centers C) tracts D) ganglia E) nuclei
C
23) Intercarpal joints are ________. A) ellipsoidal joints B) hinge joints C) gliding joints D) ball and socket joints E) None of the answers are correct.
C
23) The muscular partition that separates the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities is the ________. A) masseter B) transversus abdominis C) diaphragm D) perineum E) rectus abdominis
C
24) The portion of a neuron that carries information in the form of a nerve impulse (action potential) is called the ________. A) soma B) Nissl body C) axon D) dendrite E) myelin
C
25) The condition called ________ may occur under severe compression, when the nucleus pulposus breaks through the annulus fibrosus. A) rheumatoid arthritis B) rheumatism C) herniated disc D) a sprain E) None of the answers are correct.
C
25) Which of the following ions is the trigger for a muscle contraction? A) sodium B) chloride C) calcium D) ATP E) acetylcholine
C
26) The function of T tubules is to ________. A) bind muscle fibers together at the neuromuscular synapse B) separate the terminal from the motor end plate of the skeletal muscle fiber C) help distribute the electrical impulse, which triggers the release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) bind actin and myosin molecules together E) release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft
C
26) The structural classification of a neuron is based upon ________. A) the size of the dendrites B) the number of axons C) the number of processes that project from the cell body D) the type of chemical neurotransmitter it secretes E) the overall size of the cell
C
28) The deep layer of muscles that constitute a muscular layer that extends between the pubic bones is called (the) ________. A) urogenital triangle B) anal triangle C) urogenital diaphragm D) diaphragm muscle E) both urogenital triangle and anal triangle
C
3) A tendon of the ________ muscle inserts on the radial tuberosity. A) brachialis B) supinator C) biceps brachii D) pronator teres E) triceps brachii
C
3) The ________ muscle elevates the larynx and is innervated by cranial nerve VII. A) sternohyoid B) thyrohyoid C) stylohyoid D) omohyoid E) mylohyoid
C
31) Regarding the effect of sarcomere length on tension production, a very highly stretched muscle (increased sarcomere length above normal 3.1 µm) will produce a contraction (% maximum tension) that is ________. A) optimal (100%) B) much greater than average (80-90%) C) fairly weak (20-40%) D) slightly stronger than resting position (~10%) E) None of the answers are correct.
C
31) Which structure(s) connects the distal radius to the anterior surfaces of the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum? A) dorsal radiocarpal ligament B) ulnar collateral ligament C) palmar radiocarpal ligament D) radial collateral ligament E) intercarpal ligament
C
35) The enzyme that is partly responsible for shutting down a muscle contraction is ________. A) actinin B) actinase C) acetylcholinesterase D) titin E) glycolytic enzyme
C
38) Which of the following are synovial plane joints in the foot that permit flexion/extension and abduction/adduction? A) intertarsal joints B) tarsometatarsal joints C) metatarsophalangeal joints D) interphalangeal joints E) None of the answers are correct.
C
4) The ________ muscle attaches to the radial tuberosity. A) supinator B) anconeus C) biceps brachii D) brachioradialis E) None of the answers are correct.
C
4) The movement of the clavicles, which occurs when one's arms are crossed across the chest, is called ________. A) flexion B) opposition C) retraction D) protraction E) extension
C
49) Slow muscle fibers ________. A) are about two-thirds the diameter of fast fibers B) take twice as long to contract after stimulation as do fast fibers C) can continue to contract long after fast fibers have fatigued D) have less oxygen than do fast fibers E) None of the answers are correct.
C
5) An accessory structure of a joint that may subdivide a synovial cavity, channel the flow of synovial fluid, or allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces is a ________. A) ligament B) bursa C) meniscus D) fat pad E) tendon
C
5) Which of the following muscles has an origin on the temporal bone? A) palatoglossus muscle B) hyoglossus muscle C) styloglossus muscle D) genioglossus muscle E) None of the answers are correct
C
50) A neuronal pool is ________. A) a group of identical nerve cells B) a group of neurons linked by communicating junctions C) a group of interconnected neurons with specific functions D) the group of neurons available to regenerate a damaged nerve E) a group of neurons linked by electrical synapses
C
51) Slow fibers primarily use which of the following substrates for energy? A) glycogen B) lipids and carbohydrates through the anaerobic pathway C) carbohydrates, lipids, and amino acids through the aerobic pathway D) anaerobic metabolism E) protein
C
52) A very good sprinter is likely to have ________. A) more slow twitch fibers than average B) more intermediate fibers than average C) more fast twitch fibers than average D) average muscles; performance is based solely on training E) None of the answers are correct.
C
52) The process of reverberation involves ________. A) a negative feedback loop through nerve circuits B) a single repeat of a stimulus prior to extinction C) extension of collateral axons back toward the source of an impulse and further stimulation of the presynaptic neurons D) several neuronal pools processing information at one time E) All of the answers are correct.
C
54) Muscle fibers can have various arrangements. The most powerful arrangement, in which more tension is generated during contraction, is called ________. A) circular B) parallel C) pennate D) convergent E) None of the answers are correct.
C
6) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by ________. A) astrocytes B) oligodendrocytes C) ependymal cells D) Schwann cells E) satellite cells
C
6) Muscle cells, gland cells, and specialized cells that respond to neural stimuli are called ________. A) receptors B) reflexes C) effectors D) axons E) dendrites
C
6) The muscle that assists the pectoralis major in adducting and medially rotating the shoulder, but extends rather than flexes the joint, is the ________. A) trapezius B) supraspinatus C) latissimus dorsi D) rhomboid major E) serratus anterior
C
68) A lever in which the load is between the fulcrum and the applied force is a ________. A) first-class lever B) third-class lever C) second-class lever D) simple lever E) complex lever
C
69) Which of the following is/are properties of a lever? A) It is a flexible structure. B) It is the effort produced by the muscle contraction. C) It moves on a fulcrum. D) It is the weight that opposes the applied force. E) All of the answers are correct.
C
7) The ________ connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae within the vertebral arch. A) supraspinous ligament B) posterior longitudinal ligament C) ligamentum flavum D) interspinous ligament E) anterior longitudinal ligament
C
9) By varying the ________ at any one time, the nervous system provides precise control over the pull exerted by the muscle. A) reflexes triggered B) concentration of glycolytic enzymes C) number of motor units activated D) energy reserves utilized E) degree of muscle atrophy
C
9) The epimysium, which separates the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs, is connected to the ________. A) superficial fascia B) subserous fascia C) deep fascia D) aponeuroses E) None of the answers are correct.
C
1) A specialized form of fibrous synarthrosis that binds each tooth to the surrounding bony socket is a(n) ________. A) syndesmosis B) symphysis C) synchondrosis D) gomphosis E) synostosis
D
1) The diamond-shaped ________ muscle originates on the middle of the neck and back, and inserts on the clavicles and scapular spines, covering the upper back and extending to the base of the skull. A) latissimus dorsi B) rhomboid major C) levator scapulae D) trapezius E) serratus posterior
D
1) The muscular system is divided into axial and appendicular divisions. The other system that is similarly divided is the ________ system. A) integument B) nervous C) digestive D) skeletal E) circulatory
D
1) Which of the following is a factor affecting appendicular muscle function? A) Muscles whose action lines cross the posterior aspect of the shoulder joint are extensors. B) Muscles whose action lines cross the anterior aspect of the shoulder joint may produce lateral flexion. C) Muscles whose action liens cross the inferior aspect of the shoulder joint may produce extension. D) Muscles whose action lines cross the posterior aspect of the shoulder joint may produce extension. E) Muscles whose action lines across the superior aspect of the shoulder joint are abductors.
D
10) Most of the skeletal muscle fibers in the body are called ________ fibers, in reference to their duration of contraction following stimulation. A) red B) intermediate C) slow D) fast E) All of the answers are correct.
D
10) Which of the following selections lists only types of glial cells? A) astrocytes and parenchymal cells B) apocrine and exocrine cells C) merocrine, platelet, and ependymal cells D) microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells E) None of the answers are correct.
D
11) Oligodendrocytes ________. A) remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis B) regulate oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrient and neurotransmitter levels around neurons in ganglia C) maintain the blood-brain barrier and provide structural support D) provide structural framework and myelinate the central nervous system (CNS) axons E) line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord
D
11) The muscle that originates on the sacrum and transverse process of each vertebra and inserts on the spinous process of the third or fourth more superior vertebra is the ________ muscle. A) quadratus lumborum B) interspinalis C) semispinalis D) multifidus E) rotatores
D
11) The serratus anterior muscle is innervated by (the) ________. A) cervical nerves B) accessory nerve C) dorsal scapular nerve D) long thoracic nerve E) None of the answers are correct.
D
12) Satellite cells surround the cell bodies of peripheral neurons, which can be found in (the) ________. A) nuclei B) peripheral centers C) roots D) ganglia E) All of the answers are correct.
D
13) Small, synovial fluid-filled pockets in connective tissue are called ________. A) tendons B) intrinsic ligaments C) fat pads D) bursae E) extrinsic ligaments
D
14) Muscles of the head and neck that are innervated by the trochlear nerve are associated with ________. A) those that govern feeding B) those that govern verbal communication C) actions that form facial expressions D) actions that orient the eyes E) None of the answers are correct.
D
14) The ________ muscle is the most active muscle of the pectoral girdle because it can move the scapula in nearly any direction, depending on the active region and the state of other muscles. A) deltoid B) levator scapulae C) rhomboid major D) trapezius E) latissimus dorsi
D
15) All somatic neuromuscular synapses utilize ________. A) epinephrine B) serotonin C) norepinephrine D) acetylcholine E) dopamine
D
15) If the CNS were susceptible to a drug that should not affect it, this might indicate damage to which of the following cells? A) microglia B) Schwann cells C) satellite cells D) astrocytes E) ependymal cells
D
15) The ________ muscle is found in the lateral compartment of the leg. A) gastrocnemius B) tibialis anterior C) popliteus D) fibularis longus E) tibialis posterior
D
18) Which of the following muscles belongs to the group known as "hamstrings"? A) semitendinosus and rectus femoris B) semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and gracilis C) biceps femoris, gracilis, and sartorius D) semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris E) adductor magnus, semimembranosus, and rectus femoris
D
2) The central nervous system (CNS) includes the ________. A) brain only B) spinal cord only C) nerves only D) brain and spinal cord E) nerves and muscles
D
20) A type of information processing wherein information is relayed in a stepwise sequence, from one neuron to another or from one neuronal pool to the next, is called ________. A) reverberation B) parallel processing C) divergence D) serial processing E) convergence
D
20) Areas of the nervous system that are dominated by myelinated axons are referred to as ________. A) arachnoid mater B) gray matter C) dura mater D) white matter E) pia matter
D
20) Which of the following is true of myosin molecules? A) They have a core of nebulin. B) They make up the thin filaments. C) They interact with the thick filaments. D) They form the globular heads called cross-bridges. E) All of the answers are correct.
D
21) The adductor magnus, longus, and brevis muscles of the thigh all insert on the ________. A) pectineal line B) greater trochanter C) lesser trochanter D) linea aspera E) iliotibial band
D
21) To contact a Schwann cell, where would a microprobe have to be inserted in the nervous system? A) anywhere in the CNS B) near or at a neuron cell body C) alongside an unmyelinated axon in the CNS D) along any axon in the PNS, myelinated or not E) None of the answers are correct.
D
22) The structure of each myosin molecule includes ________. A) a double myosin strand B) an attached elongated tail C) a free globular head D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
D
22) Which of the following can flex the neck? A) iliocostalis lumborum B) iliocostalis cervicis C) longissimus thoracis D) longus colli E) multifidus
D
22) Which of the following structures do NOT contribute to the coarse grainy appearance of the perikaryon of a neuron? A) mitochondria B) free and fixed ribosomes C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) All of the answers are correct.
D
24) The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ________. A) oxygen. B) glucose. C) ATP. D) calcium ions. E) glycogen.
D
28) Involuntary cardiac muscle fibers of the heart are innervated by ________. A) sensoriganglionic fibers B) preganglionic fibers C) somatic motor fibers D) visceral motor fibers E) All of the answers are correct.
D
3) Axial muscles fall into logical groups based upon ________. A) muscle fiber pattern B) muscle shape and function C) muscle structure D) location and function E) None of the answers are correct.
D
3) How many muscles are there in the muscular system? A) 50 B) 206 C) thousands D) 700+ E) 116
D
3) The nervous system includes all of the ________ tissue in the body. A) muscle B) skeletal C) connective D) neural E) epithelial
D
30) Which ligament is often injured as a result of the repetitive, high-velocity motions involved in throwing? A) radial collateral ligament B) annular ligament C) transverse humeral ligament D) ulnar collateral ligament E) coracoacromial ligament
D
32) Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a single ________. A) synaptic cleft B) motor end plate C) triad of transverse tubule and terminal cisternae D) motor neuron whose cell body is located inside the central nervous system E) neurotransmitter
D
33) The knee joint differs from other large, complex synovial joints of the body in which of the following features? A) It is a hinge joint. B) It is reinforced by ligaments. C) It is rarely dislocated. D) It is composed of two joints within a complex synovial capsule. E) The knee joint does not differ from other joints.
D
33) The motor neuron releases its neurotransmitter, which then binds to receptors sites on a special region of the sarcolemma called ________. A) a T tubule B) the motor unit C) a fascicle D) a motor end plate E) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D
35) The cruciate ligaments attach to the ________ of the tibia. A) condyles B) epicondyles C) anterior tuberosity D) intercondylar area E) linea aspera
D
35) When an action potential develops in one location of an axon, ________. A) it will stimulate astrocytes to release chemicals B) it will regenerate the threshold stimulus at the originating location on the same axon C) Schwann cells in the area begin to divide and form a solid cellular cord D) it will propagate along the length of the axon toward the terminal bouton E) it will propagate faster along the smaller unmyelinated fibers
D
36) Which structure(s) is/are attached to the anterior surface of the tibia? A) tibial collateral ligament B) popliteal ligament C) anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments D) patellar ligament E) fibular collateral ligament
D
38) Over 50 different neurotransmitters have been identified, but the best known is ________. A) norepinephrine B) epinephrine C) glutamate D) acetylcholine E) GABA
D
4) Between the endomysium and the muscle fibers lie a number of scattered cells that aid in the repair of damaged muscle tissues. These cells are the ________ cells. A) myoblast B) myofibril C) isotropic D) myosatellite E) myosin
D
4) The digastric and omohyoid muscles are similar in that they both ________. A) depress the mandible B) have origins on the inferior surface of the mandible at the chin C) depress the hyoid bone D) have two bellies E) originate from the superior border of the scapula near the suprascapular notch
D
40) Nonvesicular synapses are unique because they have ________. A) two interacting neurons B) neurotransmitter release C) only a postsynaptic membrane D) a communicating junction E) receptor proteins
D
40) What type of muscular activity is present in a muscle at rest? A) There is no activity. B) There is some activity that causes the muscle to make continual tiny movements. C) Motor units activate partially in a unified wavelike motion. D) Motor units activate in a random pattern to cause slight constant tension, known as muscle tone. E) There are large amounts of short contraction.
D
41) When one motor neuron fires a single action potential the result affects one ________. A) upper motor neuron B) synaptic cleft C) lower motor neuron D) motor unit E) sensory unit
D
42) A communicating junction acts to facilitate ________. A) the passage of neurotransmitters between cells B) growth of Schwann cells C) a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane D) the passage of ions between the cells E) All of the answers are correct.
D
43) When a single motor neuron controls a greater number of muscle fibers in a motor unit, ________. A) the greater the number of stimuli will be required to produce a contraction B) each contraction will last longer C) the muscle contraction will be slower D) the less precise the control will be E) None of the answers are correct.
D
45) When all of the motor units of a muscle contract at the maximal rate of stimulation, it leads to the production of ________. A) the longest contraction B) the fastest contraction C) multiple motor unit summation D) peak tension E) fast, long contractions
D
46) While wearing a cast due to breaking a bone, muscles shrink due to the process of ________. A) recruitment B) cell division C) hypertrophy D) atrophy E) chronic inflammation, or swelling
D
56) Pathways that connect the CNS with effectors include ________. A) motor pathways B) descending pathways C) efferent pathways D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
D
57) If a muscle has a tendon that branches within the muscle tissue, it is (a) ________. A) sphincter muscle B) parallel muscle C) circular muscle D) multipennate muscle E) None of the answers are correct.
D
6) The insertion of the ________ (an extracapsular structure of the temporomandibular joint) covers the posterior portion of the mylohyoid line. A) lateral ligament B) temporomandibular ligament C) geniohyoid ligament D) sphenomandibular ligament E) stylomandibular ligament
D
67) Which of the following words means slender? A) longissimus B) brevis C) latissimus D) gracilis E) major
D
7) Skeletal muscle fiber contractions are caused by the interaction between the ________ and the ________ filaments of the sarcomeres. A) actin; nebulin B) titin; actin C) myosin; nebulin D) actin; myosin E) titin; myosin
D
7) The ________ muscle originates at the medial epicondyle of the humerus and the coracoid process of the ulna. A) flexor carpi radialis B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) supinator D) palmaris longus E) pronator teres
D
7) Which of the following associations is most accurate? A) synarthroses—slightly movable B) amphiarthroses—freely movable C) diarthroses—immovable D) diarthroses—synovial E) gomphoses—slightly movable
D
8) The ________ extends between the greater and lesser tubercles and holds the long head of the biceps brachii muscle against the humerus. A) coracoclavicular ligament B) acromioclavicular ligament C) glenohumeral ligament D) transverse humeral ligament E) coracoacromial ligament
D
8) The cells responsible for information processing and transfer are the ________. A) astrocytes B) neuroglia C) Schwann cells D) neurons E) All of the answers are correct.
D
8) The forearm muscles that provide strength and gross control of the hand and fingers are innervated by the ________. A) radial, median, and musculocutaneous nerves B) median, musculocutaneous, and ulnar nerves C) ulnar, axillary, and median nerves D) median, radial, and ulnar nerves E) radial, axillary, and musculocutaneous nerves
D
8) When acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate, ________ occurs immediately. A) vesicular enzymatic activity B) cross-bridge formation C) ATP-myosin binding D) an action potential E) myosin head pivoting
D
8) Which of the following is a classification of a joint in which the bones are separated by fibrous cartilage? A) ball and socket B) gliding C) pivot D) symphysis E) hinge
D
1) Functions of the nervous system include which of the following? A) seat of higher functions, such as intelligence, memory, learning, and emotions B) receives sensory input; coordinates sensory input and motor output C) regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activities D) integrating and processing data E) All of the answers are correct.
E
10) During neural regeneration in the PNS as the neuron continues to recover, its axon grows into the injury site and the ________ wrap around it along its original path. A) oligodendrocytes B) satellite cells C) astrocytes D) macrophages E) Schwann cells
E
10) Muscles originating on the surface of the pelvis and inserting on the femur will produce characteristic movements determined by their position relative to the ________. A) obturator foramen B) linea aspera C) greater trochanter D) intertrochanteric line E) acetabulum
E
11) The attachment of a muscle to a bone is called ________. A) a bursa B) an aponeurosis C) a ligament D) a capsule E) either a tendon or an aponeurosis
E
11) The metacarpophalangeal joints are ________ joints. A) saddle B) plane C) hinge D) gliding E) condylar
E
11) When a stimulus is applied to the axon, it produces a temporary change in the ________ of the axolemma in a localized area of the axon. A) temperature sensation B) glandular activity C) neural regeneration D) Wallerian degeneration E) permeability
E
12) An intermediate fiber contracts fast, and it has more ________ and greater resistance to fatigue in comparison to a fast fiber. A) calcium ions B) myoglobin C) ribosomes D) oxygen-binding pigments E) mitochondria
E
12) Cranial nerve VII supplies the muscles of ________. A) the tongue B) the eyes C) mastication D) the anterior neck E) facial expression
E
12) Which of these orders of functional muscle structures progresses from the smallest to largest in diameter? A) muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril B) fascicle, myofibril, muscle fiber, filament C) fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, muscle D) muscle, muscle fiber, myofibril, fascicle E) myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle
E
13) ________ of the knee is preceded by unlocking of the knee. A) Extension B) Protraction C) Opposition D) Retraction E) Flexion
E
15) Which of the following is/are the major action(s) of the anterior neck musculature? A) depress the mandible B) stabilize the muscles of the tongue and pharynx C) tense the floor of the mouth D) control the position of the larynx E) All of the answers are correct.
E
16) The ________ muscle ejects urine or semen in the male. A) deep transverse perineal B) superficial transverse perineal C) ischiocavernosus D) external urethral sphincter E) bulbospongiosus
E
16) Which intrinsic muscle(s) of the hand flexes the metacarpophalangeal joints, and also produces extension at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints? A) palmaris brevis B) flexor pollicis brevis C) abductor pollicis brevis D) opponens digiti minimi E) lumbricals
E
17) Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that reduces the angle between the articulating elements is ________. A) abduction B) adduction C) extension D) rotation E) flexion
E
19) Neuronal pools are defined on the basis of ________. A) the number of neurons present B) the diameter of the axons C) anatomy rather than on functional grounds D) the location of the neurons E) function rather than on anatomical grounds
E
2) The ________ pulls the eyebrow skin inferiorly and medially, and wrinkles the brow. A) orbicularis oculi B) levator palpebrae superioris C) procerus D) levator anguli oris E) corrugator supercilii
E
2) The ribs and wrist are ________ joints. A) nonaxial B) monoaxial C) triaxial D) quadaxial E) biaxial
E
21) The area of a myofibril where there are no actin filaments is the ________. A) A band B) Z line C) I band D) M line E) H band
E
21) The first carpometacarpal joint is an example of a/an ________. A) hinge joint B) ellipsoid joint C) pivot joint D) gliding joint E) saddle joint
E
23) Nebulin is which of the following types of molecules? A) functional hormone B) secretory protein C) regulatory protein D) enzyme E) accessory protein
E
24) The oblique muscle and/or rectus muscle do which of the following? A) rotate the vertebral column B) compress underlying structures C) occur in the neck D) important role in respiratory movements of the ribs E) All of the answers are correct.
E
24) The temporomandibular joint is ________. A) amphiarthrotic B) a symphysis C) a gliding joint D) actually made up of three separate joints E) primarily a hinge joint
E
25) Of the following muscles, which can compress the abdomen? A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis E) All of the answers are correct.
E
25) The area in a multipolar neuron that connects the cell body to the initial segment of the axon is called the ________. A) neurofibril B) Nissl body C) axoplasm D) initial segment E) axon hillock
E
26) Joints between the superior and inferior articulating facets of adjacent vertebrae are called ________. A) symphyses B) gomphoses C) synostoses D) syndesmoses E) zygapophysial joints
E
27) The functional classifications of neurons include ________, which carry information toward the CNS. A) sensory neurons B) interneurons C) motor neurons D) axoplasmic neurons E) All of the answers are correct.
E
27) Troponin assists in controlling the interaction between myosin heads and thin filaments by ________. A) forming a long chain that covers the active sites of thin filaments. B) storing calcium ions in the troponin-tropomyosin complex. C) binding to myosin heads, which allows tropomyosin to pivot, thereby exposing the active sites. D) assisting in the formation of the myofilaments. E) binding calcium ions to produce a change in the orientation of the troponin-tropomyosin complex.
E
32) Which of the following is an intracapsular ligament that stabilizes the hip joint, and tenses only when the thigh is flexed and undergoing external rotation? A) the iliofemoral ligament B) the pubofemoral ligament C) the ischiofemoral ligament D) the transverse acetabular ligament E) the ligament of the femoral head
E
37) Structures that compose the ankle joint include ________. A) the distal articular surface of the tibia B) the medial malleolus C) the lateral malleolus of the fibula D) the trochlea and lateral articular facets of the talus E) All of the answers are correct.
E
39) Most of the time whole muscles do NOT contract at full strength because ________. A) only a few motor units are recruited at a given time B) we tend not to need the full capabilities of our muscles C) the muscle fibers of each motor unit are intermingled with those of other units, ensuring multiple motor unit summation D) the muscle fibers will use up their energy reserves and the muscle will be forced to relax E) All of the answers are correct.
E
4) Functions of the peripheral nervous system include ________. A) providing sensory information to the CNS only B) making higher order decisions to interpret sensory inputs C) carrying motor commands to the peripheral tissues and systems only D) carrying information up and down the spinal cord E) providing sensory information to the CNS and carrying motor commands to the peripheral tissues and systems
E
4) Glial cells are roughly ________ times the number of neurons. A) 2 B) 10 C) 7 D) 15 E) 5
E
41) Which of the following are examples of neuroeffector synapses? A) neuromuscular synapse B) neuroglandular synapse C) neuroneural synapse D) neuroaxonic synapses E) both neuromuscular synapse and neuroglandular synapse
E
42) The number of cells per motor unit in the leg muscles can reach up to ________. A) one hundred B) less than a dozen C) millions D) hundreds E) many thousands
E
46) Types of synapses include which of the following? A) axoaxonic B) axodendritic C) axosomatic D) neuroeffector synapses E) All of the answers are correct
E
5) The deltoid muscle is innervated by the ________ nerve. A) radial B) median C) ulnar D) musculocutaneous E) axillary
E
5) The muscle that assists in mastication, and is also useful to musicians, as in playing a trumpet, is the ________ muscle. A) masseter B) orbicularis oris C) procerus D) temporalis E) buccinator
E
50) Slow twitch fibers appear red due to the intracellular storage of ________. A) nebulin B) titin C) hemoglobin D) glycogen E) myoglobin
E
55) The muscles surrounding the entrances of the digestive and urinary tracts are classified as ________. A) convergent B) bipennate C) parallel D) multipennate E) circular
E
6) Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) support soft tissues D) maintain body temperature E) All of the answers are correct
E
60) A muscle whose contraction is mostly responsible for a movement is said to be the ________ for that movement. A) synergist B) agonist and fixator C) antagonist D) fixator E) agonist and prime mover
E
7) Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands are regulated by the ________. A) somatic nervous system B) parasympathetic division C) sympathetic division D) central nervous system E) autonomic nervous system
E
8) Interneurons ________. A) are responsible for the analysis of sensory inputs and the coordination of motor outputs B) are located entirely within the brain and spinal cord C) can be classified as excitatory or inhibitory on the basis of their effects on the postsynaptic membranes of other neurons D) outnumber all other neurons combined E) All of the answers are correct
E
9) All extensor muscles of the upper limb are innervated by the ________ nerve or a branch of that nerve. A) median B) ulnar C) musculocutaneous D) axillary E) radial
E
9) The posterior interosseous nerve innervates muscles found in the ________. A) posterior compartment of the arm B) superficial anterior compartment of the forearm C) anterior compartment of the arm D) deep anterior compartment of the forearm E) posterior compartment of the forearm
E
19) The structures within the muscle fiber that shorten to cause skeletal muscle fiber contraction are (the) ________. A) myoneural junctions B) myofibrils C) myosatellite cells D) neuromuscular synapses E) myoblasts
b
3) The connective tissue that surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and binds each muscle fiber to its neighbor is the ________. A) endosteum B) endomysium C) epimysium D) periosteum E) perimysium
b
2) A skeletal muscle is divided into a series of internal compartments, each of which contains a bundle of muscle fibers called a ________. A) myofibril B) sarcomere C) triad D) cross-bridge E) fascicle
e