Quiz 2 PrepU

Which nerve is implicated in the Chvostek's sign?

Facial Chvostek's sign consists of twitching of muscles supplied by the facial nerve when the nerve is tapped about 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, just below the zygomatic arch.

The nursing assessment of the postoperative client reveals an incision that is well-approximated with sutures intact, minimal redness and edema, and absence of drainage. The nurse recognizes the wound is healing by:

First intention First-intention healing is characterized by a closed incision with little tissue reaction and the absence of signs and symptoms of infection.

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes is scheduled for a surgical procedure. What chief life-threatening hazard should the nurse monitor for?

Hypoglycemia The patient with diabetes who is undergoing surgery is at risk for both hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia may develop during anesthesia or postoperatively from inadequate carbohydrates or excessive administration of insulin. Hyperglycemia, which can increase the risk of surgical wound infection, may result from the stress of surgery, which can trigger increased levels of catecholamine. Other risks are acidosis and glucosuria, but hypoglycemia is a bigger risk. Dehydration is a lesser risk for a patient with diabetes than is hypoglycemia.

Which stage of surgical anesthesia is also known as excitement?

II Stage II is the excitement stage, which is characterized by struggling, shouting, and laughing. Stage II is often avoided if the anesthetic is administered smoothly and quickly. Stage I is the beginning of anesthesia, during which the client breathes in the anesthetic mixture and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and detachment occur. Stage III is surgical anesthesia, which is achieved by continued administration of anesthetic vapor and gas. Stage IV is medullary depression, in which the client is unconscious and lies quietly on the table.

A client reports tingling in the fingers as well as feeling depressed. The nurse assesses positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. Which decreased laboratory results does the nurse observe when the client's laboratory work has returned?

Calcium Calcium deficit is associated with the following symptoms: numbness and tingling of the fingers, toes, and circumoral region; positive Trousseau's sign and Chvostek's sign; seizures, carpopedal spasms, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, irritability, bronchospasm, anxiety, impaired clotting time, decreased prothrombin, diarrhea, and hypotension. Electrocardiogram findings associated with hypocalcemia include prolonged QT interval and lengthened ST.

The nurse is completing a postoperative assessment for a patient who has received a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent. The nursing assessment includes careful monitoring of which body system?

Cardiovascular system Depolarizing muscle relaxants can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.

The nurse is responsible for monitoring cardiovascular function in a postoperative patient. What method can the nurse use to measure cardiovascular function?

Central venous pressure Respiratory rate, pulse rate, blood pressure, blood oxygen concentration, urinary output, level of consciousness, central venous pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary artery wedge pressure, and cardiac output are monitored to provide information on the patient's respiratory and cardiovascular status.

Which of the following medications may increases the hypotensive action of anesthesia?

Chlorpromazine Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) may increase the hypotensive action of anesthetics. Prednisone (Deltasone) may cause cardiovascular collapse and should be discontinued immediately. Warfarin (Coumadin) can increase the risk of bleeding during the intraoperative and postoperative periods. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) may cause respiratory depression resulting from an associated electrolyte imbalance during anesthesia.

A patient is in the operating room for surgery. Which individual would be responsible for ensuring that procedure and site verification occurs and is documented?

Circulating nurse The circulating nurse is responsible for ensuring that the second verification of the surgical procedure and site takes place and is documented. Each member of the surgical team verifies the patient's name, procedure, and surgical site using objective documentation and data before beginning the surgery.

The physician has prescribed 0.9% sodium chloride IV for a hospitalized client in metabolic alkalosis. Which nursing actions are required to manage this client? Select all that apply.

Compare ABG findings with previous results. Maintain intake and output records. Document presenting signs and symptoms. Metabolic alkalosis results in increased plasma pH because of accumulated base bicarbonate or decreased hydrogen ion concentrations. The result is retention of sodium bicarbonate and increased base bicarbonate. Nursing management includes documenting all presenting signs and symptoms to provide accurate baseline data, monitoring laboratory values, comparing ABG findings with previous results (if any), maintaining accurate intake and output records to monitor fluid status, and implementing prescribed medical therapy.

The nurse is caring for a client with a serum sodium concentration of 113 mEq/L (113 mmol/L). The nurse should monitor the client for the development of which condition?

Confusion Normal serum concentration ranges from 135 to 145 mEq/L (135-145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia exists when the serum concentration decreases below 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). When the serum sodium concentration decreases to <115 mEq/L (<115 mmol/L), signs of increasing intracranial pressure, such as lethargy, confusion, muscle twitching, focal weakness, hemiparesis, papilledema, seizures, and death, may occur. General manifestations of hyponatremia include poor skin turgor, dry mucosa, headache, decreased saliva production, orthostatic fall in blood pressure, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramping. Neurologic changes, including altered mental status, status epilepticus, and coma, are probably related to cellular swelling and cerebral edema associated with hyponatremia. Hallucinations are associated with increased serum sodium concentrations.

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions to a client who has undergone minor same-day surgery. Which client statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

"I am not permitted to drive myself home after surgery." There are specific educational points that the nurse needs to provide to the client before discharging after a same-day procedure. After teaching, the client should be able to describe activities that can or cannot be performed, such as limited driving for 2 days. Rather than self-teaching at home, the discharge instructions will educate the client how to identify interventions and strategies for adaptive equipment. The client should be instructed to call the health care provider for a follow-up postsurgical appointment. The client should be able to name the procedure that was performed and not just give a vague statement of something being done in the abdomen.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The client is being treated for a serum potassium concentration of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L). Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

"I can use laxatives and enemas but only once a week." The client is experiencing hypokalemia, most likely due to the diagnosis of bulimia. Hypokalemia is defined as a serum potassium concentration <3.5 mEq/L (3.5 mmol/L), and usually indicates a deficit in total potassium stores. Clients diagnosed with bulimia frequently suffer increased potassium loss through self-induced vomiting and misuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas; thus, the client should avoid laxatives and enemas. Prevention measures may involve encouraging the client at risk to eat foods rich in potassium (when the diet allows), including fruit juices and bananas, melon, citrus fruits, fresh and frozen vegetables, lean meats, milk, and whole grains. If the hypokalemia is caused by abuse of laxatives or diuretics, client education may help alleviate the problem.

Which statement by the client indicates further teaching about epidural anesthesia is necessary?

"I will become unconscious." The client receiving epidural anesthesia will remain conscious during the procedure.

After teaching a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery using moderate sedation, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the teaching based on which of the following statements?

"I'll be sleepy but able to respond to your questions." With moderate sedation, the patient can maintain a patent airway (i.e., doesn't need a tube to help breathing), retain protective airway reflexes, and respond to verbal and physical stimuli. The patient is not unconscious with moderate sedation. Local anesthesia involves anesthetizing or numbing the area of the surgery.

For the client who is taking aspirin, it is important to stop taking this medication at least how many day(s) before surgery?

7 Aspirin should be stopped at least 7 to 10 days before surgery. The other time frames are incorrect.

A client having a surgical procedure takes aspirin 325 mg daily for prevention of platelet aggregation. When should the client stop taking the aspirin before the surgery?

7 to 10 days Aspirin, a common OTC medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, should be prudently discontinued 7 to 10 days before surgery; otherwise, the client may be at increased risk for bleeding.

What abnormal postoperative urinary output should the nurse report to the physician for a 2-hour period?

<30 mL If the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter, hourly outputs are monitored and rates of less than 30 mL per hour are reported; if the patient is voiding, an output of less than 240 mL per 8-hour shift is reported.

The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical unit. The nurse is most correct to review which client's laboratory reports first for an electrolyte imbalance?

A 52-year-old with diarrhea Electrolytes are in both intracellular and extracellular water. Electrolyte deficiency occurs from an inadequate intake of food, conditions that deplete water such as nausea and vomiting, or disease processes that cause an excess of electrolyte amounts. The 52-year-old with diarrhea would be the client most likely to have an electrolyte imbalance. The orthopedic client will not likely have an electrolyte imbalance. Myocardial infarction clients will occasionally have electrolyte imbalance, but this is the exception rather than the rule.

What measurement should the nurse report to the physician in the immediate postoperative period?

A systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mm Hg A systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mm Hg is usually considered immediately reportable. However, the patient's preoperative or baseline blood pressure is used to make informed postoperative comparisons. A previously stable blood pressure that shows a downward trend of 5 mm Hg at each 15-minute reading should also be reported. The other findings are normal or close to normal.

A client with hypervolemia asks the nurse by what mechanism the sodium-potassium pump will move the excess body fluid. What is the nurse's best answer?

Active transport Active transport is the physiologic pump maintained by the cell membrane that results in the movement of fluid from an area of lower concentration to one of higher concentration. Active transport requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy. The sodium-potassium pump actively moves sodium against the concentration gradient out of the cell, and fluid follows. Passive osmosis does not require energy for transport. Free flow is the natural transport of water. Passive elimination is a filter process carried out in the kidneys.

A client refuses to remove her wedding band when preparing for surgery. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Allow the client to wear the ring and cover it with tape. Most facilities will allow a client to wear a wedding band during a surgical procedure. The nurse must secure the ring with tape. Although it is appropriate to discuss the risk for infection, the client has already refused to remove the ring. The surgery should not be canceled and the ring should not be removed without permission.

A client recovering from abdominal surgery has abdominal distention and nausea. Which action will the nurse take?

Assist with ambulation Assessment and management of GI function are important after surgery because the GI tract is subject to uncomfortable or potentially life-threatening complications. Any postoperative client may suffer from distention. Postoperative distention of the abdomen results from the accumulation of gas in the intestinal tract. Manipulation of the abdominal organs during surgery may produce a loss of normal peristalsis for 24 to 48 hours, depending on the type and extent of surgery. Even though nothing is given by mouth, swallowed air and GI tract secretions enter the stomach and intestines; if not propelled by peristalsis, they collect in the intestines, producing distention and causing the client to report fullness or pain in the abdomen. After major abdominal surgery, distention may be avoided by having the client ambulate as early as possible.Coughing and deep breathing after surgery is necessary to decrease respiratory complications, not abdominal distension. Maintaining nothing by mouth status may make the distention worse. A pillow to splint the incision during position change prevents wound dehiscence.

What medication should the nurse prepare to administer in the event the client has malignant hyperthermia?

Dantrolene sodium Anesthesia and surgery should be postponed. However, if end-tidal carbon dioxide (CO2) monitoring and dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) are available and the anesthesiologist is experienced in managing malignant hyperthermia, the surgery may continue using a different anesthetic agent.

The nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client who has been admitted to the unit for a fluid volume imbalance. The nurse knows which of the following is the most common fluid imbalance in older adults?

Dehydration The most common fluid imbalance in older adults is dehydration. Because of reduced thirst sensation that often accompanies aging, older adults tend to drink less water. Use of diuretic medications, laxatives, or enemas may also deplete fluid volume in older adults. Chronic fluid volume deficit can lead to other problems such as electrolyte imbalances.

A client scheduled for surgery follows a vegan eating plan. For which potential postoperative complication will the nurse plan care for this client?

Delayed wound healing The client following a vegan eating plan is at risk for a low protein intake. The reduced protein can lead to impaired or delayed wound healing and cause decreased skin and wound strength. A low protein intake does not cause blood clots, stasis pneumonia, or hypoactive bowel sounds.

The nurse is assigned a client scheduled for an outpatient colonoscopy in an ambulatory care setting. During which phase of perioperative care would the nurse document the admission vital signs in the recovery room?

During the postoperative phase The nurse realizes that documentation of vital signs in the recovery room begins the postoperative phase of perioperative care. The preoperative phase occurs until the client reaches the operating area. The intra operative phase includes the entire surgical procedure until the transfer to the recovery area. There is no transfer phase of perioperative care.

A client with osteoarthritis receives a recommendation to have joint replacement surgery. For which type of surgery will the nurse plan teaching for this client?

Elective Elective surgery means that the client should have the surgery even though failure to have the surgery is not catastrophic. Urgent surgery means that prompt attention is required within 24 to 30 hours. Required surgery means that the client needs to have surgery within a few weeks or months. Emergent surgery means that the client requires immediate attention for a life-threatening disorder without delay.

A fractured skull would be classified under which category of surgery based on urgency?

Emergent Emergent surgery occurs when the client requires immediate attention. An elective surgery is classified as a surgery that the client should have. A required surgery means that the client needs to have surgery. An urgent surgery occurs when the client requires prompt attention.

A nurse asks a client who had abdominal surgery 1 day ago if he has moved his bowels since surgery. The client states, "I haven't moved my bowels, but I am passing gas." How should the nurse intervene?

Encourage the client to ambulate as soon as possible after surgery. The nurse should encourage the client to ambulate as soon as possible after surgery. Ambulating stimulates peristalsis, which helps the bowels to move. It isn't appropriate to apply heat to a surgical wound. Moreover, heat application can't be initiated without a health care provider's order. A tap water enema is typically administered as a last resort after other methods fail. A health care provider's order is needed with a tap water enema as well. Notifying the health care provider isn't necessary at this point because the client is exhibiting bowel function by passing flatus.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just arrived for surgery. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing dehydration because of taking nothing by mouth after midnight for the surgery?

Blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg Assessment of a client's hydration status is essential preoperatively. The client's NPO (nothing by mouth or nil per os) status should be confirmed preoperatively. Preoperative fasting helps prevent the risk of aspiration but it also induces stress on the body, including the loss of glycogen stores, and the body sacrifices lean muscle to meet the energy needs of the surgery. This may lead to dehydration, which may be exhibited day of surgery by low blood pressure. A urine output of 60 mL/hr is within normal limits. A pulse of 88 beats per minute is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within normal limits.

A client is transferred from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) to an inpatient care unit. What will the nurse assess first?

Breathing The nurse will assess the client being transferred from the PACU to an inpatient care unit. The priority is to assess breathing and administer oxygen if prescribed because this provides a baseline and helps identify for the development of respiratory distress. Pain level is assessed after the surgical site and level of consciousness are assessed.

The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. What nursing interventions help prevent venous stasis and other circulatory complications in a client who has undergone surgery?

Encourage the client to move legs frequently and do leg exercises. The nurse should encourage the client to move legs frequently and do leg exercises to prevent venous stasis and other circulatory complications. The nurse should not place pillows under the client's knees or calves unless prescribed and should avoid placing pressure on the client's lower extremities. Placing the client in a side-lying position will not help prevent venous stasis and other circulatory complications in a client who has undergone surgery.

A nurse assesses a postoperative client as having abdominal organs protruding through the surgical incision. Which term best describes this assessment finding?

Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall. Dehiscence refers to the partial or complete separation of wound edges. Erythema refers to the redness of tissue.

Which term refers to the protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision?

Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall. Dehiscence refers to the partial or complete separation of wound edges. Erythema refers to the redness of tissue.

The nurse is planning care for a client in the postoperative period. Place the following nursing diagnoses in sequence, from highest to lowest priority.

Impaired Gas Exchange Fluid Volume Deficit Altered Comfort Anxiety Risk for Infection According to the Maslow's hierarchy of deeds, airway and gas exchange is of the highest priority. Next would be the deficiency in fluid volume. Altered comfort would be higher than anxiety because decreasing pain may alleviate/reduce anxiety. Lastly, a risk for infection is not a current problem but an important teaching point to reduce the risk.

An obese client is undergoing abdominal surgery. During the procedure a surgical resident states, "The amount of fat we have to cut through is disgusting." What is the best response by the nurse?

Inform the resident that all communication needs to remain professional. The nurse must advocate for the client, especially when the client cannot speak for themselves. By informing the resident that all communication needs to be professional, the nurse is addressing the comment at that moment in time, advocating for the client. Ignoring the comment is not appropriate. The nurse may need to address the concerns of unprofessional communication with the attending surgeon or the charge nurse if the behavior continues. The best action is to address the behavior when it happens.

With which condition should the nurse expect that a decrease in serum osmolality will occur?

Kidney failure Failure of the kidneys results in multiple fluid and electrolyte abnormalities including fluid volume overload. If renal function is so severely impaired that pharmacologic agents cannot act efficiently, other modalities are considered to remove sodium and fluid from the body.

The nurse is caring for a client with multiple organ failure and in metabolic acidosis. Which pair of organs is responsible for regulatory processes and compensation?

Lungs and kidney The lungs and kidneys facilitate the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid. Carbon dioxide is one of the components of carbonic acid. The lungs regulate carbonic acid levels by releasing or conserving CO2 by increasing or decreasing the respiratory rate. The kidneys assist in acid-base balance by retaining or excreting bicarbonate ions.

What is the highest priority nursing intervention for a client in the immediate postoperative phase?

Maintaining a patent airway All interventions listed are correct. The highest priority intervention, however, is maintaining a patent airway. Without a patent airway, the other interventions—monitoring vital signs, assessing urinary output, and assessing for hemorrhage—become secondary to the possibility of a lack of oxygen.

A client in the emergency department reports that he has been vomiting excessively for the past 2 days. His arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.50, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 43 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 75 mm Hg, and bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 42 mEq/L. Based on these findings, the nurse documents that the client is experiencing which type of acid-base imbalance?

Metabolic alkalosis A pH over 7.45 with a HCO3- level over 26 mEq/L indicates metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is always secondary to an underlying cause and is marked by decreased amounts of acid or increased amounts of base HCO3-. The client isn't experiencing respiratory alkalosis because the PaCO2 is normal. The client isn't experiencing respiratory or metabolic acidosis because the pH is greater than 7.35.

A client is undergoing preoperative assessment. During admission paperwork, the client reports having enjoyed a hearty breakfast this morning to be ready for the procedure. What is the nurse's next action?

Notify the surgeon. If the client has not carried out a specific portion of preoperative instructions, such as withholding foods and fluids, the nurse immediately notifies the surgeon. This scenario does not include information to support documentation of the client's food intake or giving the client water at this point. It is not the nurse's responsibility to cancel the surgery.

An OR nurse needs to assist a patient to the Trendelenburg position. Which of the following is the correct position?

On his back, with his head lowered, so that the plane of his body meets the horizontal on an angle The Trendelenburg position usually is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis to obtain good exposure by displacing the intestines into the upper abdomen. In this position, the head and body are lowered. The patient is held in position by padded shoulder braces.

Which is the preferred route of administration for potassium?

Oral When the client cannot ingest sufficient potassium by consuming foods that are high in potassium, administering oral potassium is ideal because oral potassium supplements are absorbed well. Administration by IV is done with extreme caution using an infusion pump, with the patient monitored by continuous ECG. To avoid replacing potassium too quickly, potassium is never administered by IV push or intramuscularly. Potassium is not administered subcutaneously.

The nurse positions the client in the lithotomy position in preparation for

Perineal surgery The client undergoing perineal surgery will be placed in the lithotomy position.

The nurse documents the presence of granulation tissue in a healing wound. How should the nurse describe the tissue?

Pink to red and soft, bleeding easily In second-intention healing, necrotic material gradually disintegrates and escapes, and the abscess cavity fills with a red, soft, sensitive tissue that bleeds easily. This tissue is composed of minute, thin-walled capillaries and buds that later form connective tissue. These buds, called granulations, enlarge until they fill the area left by the destroyed tissue.

A nurse is caring for a client in the PACU after surgery requiring general anesthesia. The client tells the nurse, "I think I'm going to be sick." What is the primary action taken by the nurse?

Position the client in the side-lying position. The primary action taken by the nurse should be to position the client in the side-lying position in order to prevent aspiration of stomach contents if the client vomits. The nurse may also obtain an emesis basin and administered an anti-emetic if one is ordered; however, these will be done after the client is repositioned. There is no need for the nurse to ask the client for more clarification.

The nurse is reviewing client lab work for a critical lab value. Which value is called to the physician for additional orders?

Potassium: 5.8 mEq/L Normal potassium level is approximately 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Elevated potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, paresthesias, and cardiac dysrhythmias.

When is the ideal time to discuss preoperative teaching

Preadmission visit The ideal timing for preoperative teaching is not on the day of surgery but during the preadmission visit, when diagnostic tests are performed. Teaching should be done long before the patient enters the preop area. Preoperative teaching should not be done when the patient is sedated.

A nurse is reviewing the medications of a postoperative client. What medication related to the recent surgery may be of concern to the nurse?

Prednisone Corticosteroids such as prednisone (Deltasone) may impair the normal inflammatory process and may mask infection. Furosemide (Lasix), digoxin (Lanoxin), and allopurinol (Zyloprim) should not be of concern postoperatively.

A client who is deaf without bilateral hearing aids has them removed in preparation for a surgical procedure. Which action(s) will the nurse take to communicate with this client? Select all that apply.

Provide written information. Use hand gestures to communicate. Speak slowly so the client can lip read. Plan for a sign language interpreter. Special considerations for clients with physical disabilities include the need for appropriate assistive devices, modifications in preoperative education, and additional assistance with communication. If the client is deaf when bilateral hearing aids are removed, an alternative form of communication needs to be planned such as providing written information, using gestures, speaking slowly so the client can lip read, and planning for an interpreter to provide sign language. Talking loudly into one ear will not be effective because the client is deaf when the hearing aids are removed.

A nurse is witnessing a client sign the consent form for surgery. After signing the consent form, the client starts asking questions regarding the risks and benefits of a surgical procedure. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Request that the surgeon come and answer the questions. It is the physician's responsibility to provide information pertaining to risks and benefits of surgery. It is not the responsibility of the nurse or nurse manager to discuss risks and benefits. The consent form should not be placed in the medical record until all of the client's questions are answered fully.

The anesthesiologist will use moderate (conscious) sedation during the client's surgical procedure. The circulating nurse will expect the client to:

Respond verbally during the procedure Clients can respond to verbal and physical stimuli and maintain an oral airway and protective reflexes during moderate sedation.

A client receiving moderate sedation for a minor surgical procedure begins to vomit. What should the nurse do first?

Roll the client onto his or her side. The client must be rolled to the side to prevent aspiration. All the other interventions are correct for a sedated client who is vomiting, but the highest priority is preventing aspiration.

There are four stages of general anesthesia. Select the stage during which the OR nurse knows not to touch the patient (except for safety reasons) because of possible uncontrolled movements.

Stage II: excitement The excitement stage, characterized variously by struggling, shouting, talking, singing, laughing, or crying, is often avoided if the anesthetic is administered smoothly and quickly. Because of the possibility of uncontrolled movements, the patient should not be touched except for purposes of restraint.

Which of the following techniques least exhibits surgical asepsis?

Suctioning the nasopharyngeal cavity of a client To maintain surgical asepsis, only sterile items should touch sterile items. Basic guidelines ensuring that all materials in contact with the surgical wound or used within the sterile field are sterile and maintaining at least a 1-foot distance from the sterile field. Surgical gowns are considered sterile in front from the chest to the level of the sterile field, and sleeves are considered sterile from 2 inches above the elbow to the stockinette cuff; therefore, sterile gloved hands should be kept above the sterile field to prevent contamination. Nasopharyngeal suction is an aerosol-generating procedure.

A nurse is working as a registered nurse first assistant as defined by the state's nurse practice act. This nurse practices under the direct supervision of which surgical team member?

Surgeon The registered nurse first assistant practices under the direct supervision of the surgeon. The circulating nurse works in collaboration with other members of the health care team to plan the best course of action for each patient. The scrub nurse assists the surgeon during the procedure as well as setting up sterile tables and preparing equipment. The anesthetist administers the anesthetic medications.

The nurse is caring for a client during an intraoperative procedure. When assessing vital signs, which result indicates a need to alert the anesthesiologist immediately?

Temperature of 102.5°F (39°C) Intraoperative hyperthermia can indicate a life-threatening condition called malignant hyperthermia. The circulating nurse closely monitors the client for signs of hyperthermia. The pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure did not indicate a significant concern.

A physician calls the nurse for an update on his client who underwent abdominal surgery 5 hours ago. The physician asks the nurse for the total amount of drainage collected in the Hemovac since surgery. The nurse reports that according to documentation, no drainage has been recorded. When the nurse finishes on the telephone, she goes to assess the client. Which assessment finding explains the absence of drainage?

The Hemovac drain isn't compressed; instead it's fully expanded The Hemovac must be compressed to establish suction. If the Hemovac is allowed to fully expand, suction is no longer present, causing the drain to malfunction. The client who requires major abdominal surgery typically produces abdominal drainage despite the client's position. An NG tube drains stomach contents, not incisional contents. Therefore, the NG tube drainage of 400 ml is normal in this client and is not related to the absence of Hemovac drainage. Dry drainage on the dressing indicates leakage from the incision; it isn't related to the Hemovac drainage.

A client at risk for malignant hyperthermia returns to the surgical unit. For what time period will the nurse monitor the client for development of malignant hyperthermia?

The client can develop malignant hyperthermia up to 24 hours after surgery. Although malignant hyperthermia usually manifests about 10 to 20 minutes after induction of anesthesia, it can also occur during the first 24 hours after surgery. Malignant hyperthermia can be triggered by inhalant anesthesia with muscle relaxants.

A nurse is teaching a client about diaphragmatic breathing. What client action indicates that further teaching is needed?

The client exhales forcefully with a short expiration. Diaphragmatic breathing should be performed gently and fully. Placing the hands on the lower chest to feel the rise and fall with breathing, performing diaphragmatic breathing in a semi-Fowler's position, and breathing deeply through the nose and mouth are all aspects of diaphragmatic breathing.

A nurse is caring for a client who is three hours post op from open abdominal surgery. During routine assessment, the nurse notes the previously stable client now appears anxious, apprehensive, and has a blood pressure of 90/56. What does the nurse consider is the most likely cause of the client's change in condition?

The client is displaying early signs of shock. The early stage of shock manifests with feelings of apprehension and decreased cardiac output. Late signs of shock include worsening cardiac compromise and leads to death if not treated. Medication or anesthesia reactions may cause client symptoms similar to these; however, these causes are not as likely as early shock.

A perioperative nurse is conducting an in-service education program about maintaining surgical asepsis during the intraoperative period. Which of the following would the nurse emphasize?

The edges of a sterile package, once opened, are considered unsterile. To maintain surgical asepsis, the edges of a sterile package, once opened, are considered unsterile. When moving around a sterile field, individuals must maintain a distance of at least 1 foot from the sterile field. If a tear occurs in a sterile drape, it must be replaced. Only scrubbed personnel and sterile items may come in contact with sterile areas. Circulating nurses can only contact unsterile areas.

The nurse is teaching the client about patient-controlled analgesia. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

Therapeutic drug levels can be maintained more evenly with patient-controlled analgesia. Advantages of patient-controlled analgesia include participation of the client in care, elimination of delayed administration of analgesics, and maintenance of therapeutic drug levels. The client must have the cognitive and physical abilities to self-dose.

Treatment of FVE involves dietary restriction of sodium. Which of the following food choices would be part of a low-sodium diet, mild restriction (2 to 3 g/day)?

Three ounces of light or dark meat chicken, 1 cup of spaghetti and a garden salad Ham (1,400 mg Na for 3 oz) and bacon (155 mg Na/slice) are high in sodium as is tomato juice (660 mg Na/¾ cup) and low fat cottage cheese (918 mg Na/cup). Packaged meals are high in sodium.

A nurse is reviewing a report of a client's routine urinalysis. Which value requires further investigation?

Urine pH of 3.0 Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3.0 is abnormal and requires further investigation. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.010 to 1.025, making this client's value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals. Red blood cells should measure 0 to 3 per high-power field; white blood cells, 0 to 4 per high-power field. Urine should be clear, with color ranging from pale yellow to deep amber.

The nurse is caring for a client 6 hours post surgery. The nurse observes that the client voids urine frequently and in small amounts. The nurse knows that this most probably indicates what?

Urine retention

A nurse is teaching a client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

Use diaphragmatic breathing. In chronic bronchitis the diaphragm is flat and weak. Diaphragmatic breathing helps to strengthen the diaphragm and maximizes ventilation. Exhalation should be longer than inhalation to prevent collapse of the bronchioles. The client with chronic bronchitis should exhale through pursed lips to prolong exhalation, keep the bronchioles from collapsing, and prevent air trapping. Diaphragmatic breathing — not chest breathing — increases lung expansion.

A client is brought to the operating room for an elective surgery. What is the priority action by the circulating nurse?

Verify consent. Surgery cannot be performed without consent. Documentation of the start of surgery can only happen once the surgery has started. Blood products must be administered within an allotted time frame and therefore should not be acquired unless needed. The sponge and syringe count is a safety issue that should be completed before surgery and while the wound is being sutured, but if the client has not consented, the surgery should not take place.

Which of the following sets of clinical data would allow the nurse to conclude that the nursing actions taken to prevent postoperative pneumonia have been effective?

Vital signs within normal limits; absence of chills and cough Pneumonia is characterized by chills, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, and sometimes cough.

The nurse's assessment of a postop client reveals a temperature of 103.2°F, tachycardia, and client complaints of increased incisional pain. What does the nurse recognize that this client is experiencing?

Wound infection Clinical manifestations of a wound infection include fever, tachycardia, an elevated white blood cell count, and increased incisional pain.

A client had a nephrectomy 2 days ago and is now complaining of abdominal pressure and nausea. The first nursing action should be to:

auscultate bowel sounds If abdominal distention is accompanied by nausea, the nurse must first auscultate bowel sounds. If bowel sounds are absent, the nurse should suspect gastric or small intestine dilation and these findings must be reported to the physician. Palpation should be avoided postoperatively with abdominal distention. If peristalsis is absent, changing positions and inserting a rectal tube won't relieve the client's discomfort.

The nurse recognizes that a traumatic wound with fecal contamination would be classified as

dirty. An example of a dirty wound includes a traumatic wound with delayed repair, devitalized tissue, foreign bodies, or fecal contamination. A clean wound occurs at a nontraumatic site or at an uninfected site. Examples of clean contaminated wounds include appendectomy or a minor break in aseptic technique. An example of a contaminated wound is gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract.

A nurse evaluates the potential effects of a client's medication therapies before surgery. Which drug classification may cause respiratory depression from an associated electrolyte imbalance during anesthesia?

diuretics Diuretics during anesthesia may cause excessive respiratory depression resulting from an associated electrolyte imbalance. Corticosteroids, insulin, and anticoagulants are not known to cause respiratory depression during anesthesia.

A client is taking spironolactone to control hypertension. The client's serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority during assessment?

electrocardiogram (ECG) results Although changes in all these findings are seen in hyperkalemia, ECG results should take priority because changes can indicate potentially lethal arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. It wouldn't be appropriate to assess the client's neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, or respiratory rate for effects of hyperkalemia.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as

emergency. Emergency surgery means that the client requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life threatening. Urgent surgery means that the client requires prompt attention within 24 to 30 hours. Required surgery means that the client needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

A PACU nurse is caring for an older adult who presents with clinical manifestations of delirium. What short-term outcome would be most important for this client?

experiences pain within tolerable limits. Because pain can contribute to postoperative delirium, adequate pain control without oversedation is essential. Nursing assessment of mental status and of all physiologic factors influencing mental status helps the nurse plan for care because delirium may be the initial or only indicator of infection, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, or deterioration of respiratory or hemodynamic status in the older adult client.

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a skin biopsy and has three stitches in place. This wound is healing by:

first intention. Wounds with a small amount of tissue damage that are the result of procedures that use sterile technique and that are properly closed, such as with stitches, heal by first intention. Granulation tissue is generally not visible and scar formation is minimal. Second intention healing occurs in infected wounds or wounds with edges that aren't approximated. These wounds are usually packed with moist dressings. Third intention healing occurs with deep wounds that aren't sutured together, resulting in a deep, wide scar. There is no fourth intention of wound healing.

In advance of a client's scheduled appendectomy, the nurse spends significant time explaining to the client what will happen, both before the procedure and after the procedure is complete. The primary reason the nurse puts so much effort into preoperative teaching is to:

increase the likelihood of a successful recovery. Teaching clients about their surgical procedure and expectations before and after surgery is best done during the preoperative period. Clients and family members can better participate in recovery if they know what to expect. Although preoperative teaching may minimize the time spent postoperatively on questions and help nurses improve their teaching skills, these are not the primary reasons for spending significant preoperative time on teaching. Clients must participate in their recovery process. Education encourages clients to participate in their own care in addition to giving important information to family. Absolving the hospital of legal responsibility would not be a primary nursing goal.

A client recovering from an acute asthma attack experiences respiratory alkalosis. The nurse measures a respiratory rate of 46 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg, and a temperature of 98.6° F (37° C). To help correct respiratory alkalosis, the nurse should:

instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag. A client recovering from an acute asthma attack who experiences respiratory alkalosis should breathe into a paper bag to increase arterial carbon dioxide tension and ease anxiety (which may exacerbate the alkalosis). An NG tube would be indicated for a client with metabolic alkalosis secondary to ingestion of toxic substances; there is no reason to believe that this has occurred. Fever may cause metabolic (not respiratory) alkalosis and would be treated with acetaminophen. A client with sepsis also may have metabolic alkalosis and probably would receive antibiotics; however, this clinical situation doesn't suggest sepsis.

The nurse understands that the purpose of the "time out" is to:

maintain the safety of the client. Verification of the identification of the client, procedure, and operative site are essential to maintain the safety of the client.

Monitored anesthesia care differs from moderate sedation in that monitored anesthesia care:

may result in the administration of general anesthesia. Monitored anesthesia care may require the anesthesiologist to convert to general anesthesia.

The nurse assesses a client to determine if there is increased risk for complications intraoperatively or postoperatively. Which are general risk factors? Select all that apply.

nutritional status age physical condition health status General surgical risk factors are related to age; nutritional status; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other substances; and physical condition.

The client is experiencing nausea and vomiting following surgery. What will the nurse expect the surgeon to order?

ondansetron Ondansetron (Zofran) is used to treat nausea and vomiting.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg In respiratory acidosis, ABG analysis reveals an arterial pH below 7.35 and partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) above 45 mm Hg. Therefore, the combination of a pH value of 7.25 and a PaCO2 value of 50 mm Hg confirms respiratory acidosis. A pH value of 7.5 with a PaCO2 value of 30 mm Hg indicates respiratory alkalosis. A ph value of 7.40 with a PaCO2 value of 35 mm Hg and a pH value of 7.35 with a PaCO2 value of 40 mm Hg represent normal ABG values, reflecting normal gas exchange in the lungs.

When does the nurse understand the patient is knowledgeable about the impending surgical procedure?

the patient participates willingly in the preoperative preparation. The nurse knows that the patient understands the surgical intervention when the patient participates in preoperative preparation. The other answers pertain to the patient experiencing decreased fear or anxiety, not knowledge about the procedure.

A client has been admitted to the hospital unit with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia; however, the client has not lost weight. The client exhibits a localized enlargement of her abdomen. What condition could the client be presenting?

third-spacing Third-spacing describes the translocation of fluid from the intravascular or intercellular space to tissue compartments, where it becomes trapped and useless. The client manifests signs and symptoms of hypovolemia with the exception of weight loss. There may be signs of localized enlargement of organ cavities (such as the abdomen) if they fill with fluid, a condition referred to as ascites. Pitting edema occurs when indentations remain in the skin after compression. Anasarca is another term for generalized edema, or brawny edema, in which the interstitial spaces fill with fluid. Hypovolemia (fluid volume deficit) refers to a low volume of extracellular fluid.

A client is undergoing a lumbar puncture. The nurse educates the client about surgical positioning. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?

"You will be lying on your side with your knees to your chest." For the lumbar puncture procedure, the client usually lies on the side in a knees-to-chest position. A position flat on the table, face down does not open the vertebral spaces to allow access for the lumbar puncture. Having the client lie on their back does not allow access to the surgical site.

The physician has prescribed a hypotonic IV solution for a patient. Which IV solution should the nurse administer?

0.45% sodium chloride Half-strength saline (0.45% sodium chloride) solution is frequently used as an IV hypotonic solution.

At which serum sodium concentration might convulsions or coma occur?

130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) Normal serum concentration level ranges from 135 to 145 mEq/L (135-145 mmol/L). When the level dips below 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L), hyponatremia occurs. Manifestations of hyponatremia include mental confusion, muscular weakness, anorexia, restlessness, elevated body temperature, tachycardia, nausea, vomiting, and personality changes. Convulsions or coma can occur if the deficit is severe. Values of 140, 142, and 145 mEq/L (mmol/L) are within the normal range.

A patient is admitted with severe vomiting for 24 hours as well as weakness and "feeling exhausted." The nurse observes flat T waves and ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram. Which potassium level does the nurse observe when the laboratory studies are complete?

2.5 mEq/L Symptoms of hypokalemia (<3.0 mEq/L) include fatigue, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, muscle weakness, polyuria, decreased bowel motility, ventricular asystole or fibrillation, paresthesias, leg cramps, hypotension, ileus, abdominal distention, and hypoactive reflexes. Electrocardiogram findings associated with hypokalemia include flattened T waves, prominent U waves, ST depression, and prolonged PR interval.

What action by the nurse best encompasses the preoperative phase?

Educating clients on signs and symptoms of infection Educating clients on preventing or recognizing complications begins in the preoperative phase. Applying SCDs and frequently monitoring vital signs happen after the preoperative phase. Only electric clippers should be used to remove hair.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with a possible clotting disorder. The client is complaining of excessive bleeding and bruising without cause. The nurse knows to take extra care to check for signs of bruising or bleeding in what condition?

Hypocalcemia Hypocalcemia or low serum calcium levels can affect clotting. Therefore, in this condition, the nurse should take extra care to check for bruising or bleeding. There is no such risk in dehydration, hypokalemia, or hypomagnesemia.

Oral intake is controlled by the thirst center, located in which of the following cerebral areas?

Hypothalamus Oral intake is controlled by the thirst center located in the hypothalamus. The thirst center is not located in the cerebellum, brainstem, or thalamus.

A nurse is assessing a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. Which finding requires further action?

Jugular vein distention Jugular vein distention requires further action because this finding signals vascular fluid overload. Tetanic contractions aren't associated with this disorder, but weight gain and fluid retention from oliguria are. Polyuria is associated with diabetes insipidus, which occurs with inadequate production of antidiuretic hormone.

A student nurse is scheduled to observe a surgical procedure. The nurse provides the student nurse with education on the dress policy and provides all attire needed to enter a restricted surgical zone. Which observation by the nurse requires immediate intervention?

Mask is placed over nose and extends to bottom lip. The mask should fit tightly, covering the nose and mouth. The mask should extend down past the chin. The mask may not effectively cover the mouth if extended only to the bottom lip. The hair, scrub top, drawstring, and shoe covering are all appropriate and do not require intervention.

The nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes type I who is having severe vomiting and diarrhea. What condition that exhibits blood values with a low pH and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration should the nurse assess for?

Metabolic acidosis Metabolic acidosis is a common clinical disturbance characterized by a low pH (increased H+ concentration) and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration. Metabolic alkalosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a high pH (decreased H+ concentration) and a high plasma bicarbonate concentration. Respiratory acidosis is a clinical disorder in which the pH is less than 7.35 and the PaCO2 is greater than 42 mm Hg and a compensatory increase in the plasma HCO3 occurs. Respiratory alkalosis is a clinical condition in which the arterial pH is greater than 7.45 and the PaCO2 is less than 38 mm Hg.

Which is a classic sign of hypovolemic shock?

Pallor The classic signs of hypovolemic shock are pallor, rapid, weak thready pulse, low blood pressure, and rapid breathing.

Which electrolyte is a major cation in body fluid?

Potassium Potassium is a major cation that affects cardiac muscle functioning. Chloride, bicarbonate, and phosphate are anions.

The nurse observes that a postsurgical client has hemorrhaged and is in hypovolemic shock. Which nursing intervention will manage and minimize hemorrhage and shock?

Reinforcing dressings or applying pressure if bleeding is frank The nurse should reinforce the dressing or apply pressure if bleeding is frank. The nurse should keep the head of the bed flat unless it is contraindicated. Encouraging the client to breathe deeply and rubbing the back will not help manage and minimize hemorrhage and shock.

Hypothermia may occur as a result of

open body wounds. Inadvertent hypothermia may occur as a result of a low temperature in the OR, infusion of cold fluids, inhalation of cold gases, open wounds or cavities, decreased muscle activity, advanced age, or particular pharmaceutical agents.

The nurse recognizes that the older adult is at risk for surgical complications due to:

decreased renal function Renal function declines with age, resulting in slowed excretion of waste products and anesthetic agents.

A client is to receive general anesthesia with sevoflurane. What does the nurse anticipate would be given with the inhaled anesthesia?

oxygen Sevoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic always combined with oxygen to decrease the risk of coughing and laryngospasm. It would not be combined with alfentanil, rocuronium, or lidocaine. Alfentanil and rocuronium are intravenous anesthetics. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic.