Quiz 6 Study Q's (Chp 16 & 17)
Complete transfer in an Hfr F- mating takes approximately __________ minutes. A. 20 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200
100
Which of the following occurs with generalized transduction? A. Degradation of the host chromosome into randomly sized fragments. B. Packaging of any DNA fragment of the appropriate size. C. Transfer of any bacterial gene to the subsequent host. D. All of these occur with generalized transduction.
All of these occur with generalized transduction.
Transposons are frequently used as cloning vectors. T/F
False
The PCR method was developed by A. Boyer. B. Mullis. C. Cohen. D. Sanger.
Mullis.
The production of large quantities of a particular DNA sequence is known as gene __________________.
amplification
Plasmid vectors often contain __________ genes that can be used to screen for recombinants. A. metabolic activation B. antibiotic resistance C. insertion sequence D. promoter/operator
antibiotic resistance
As the result of exposure to a mutagen, cytosine is substituted for thymine in one strand of DNA. Upon subsequent DNA replication, one of the daughter cells will have a GC pair in this position instead of an AT pair. This is called a(n) __________ mutation. A. transversion B. transition C. frameshift D. insertion
transition
Site-specific recombination systems A. do not depend on extensive nucleotide sequence homology. B. depend on enzymes that are often specific for sequences within the host. C. are features of some viruses. D. All of the choices are true.
All of the choices are true.
Which of the following effects may be mediated by transposable elements? A. Insertion into a gene, causing a mutation. B. Activation of nearby genes. C. Formation of genetic deletions. D. All of the choices.
All of the choices.
Which of the following is a possible fate for an exogenote? A. Integration into the host chromosome. B. Independent replication and functioning. C. Degradation to nucleotides. D. All of the choices.
All of the choices.
Which of the following is considered a reverse mutation that will restore the wild type phenotype? A. True reversion back to the wild type base sequence. B. Mutation to a different base sequence, but one that restores the amino acid sequence in the protein to the wild type sequence. C. A mutation that restores the function of a protein even though it does not restore the base sequence or the amino acid sequence to the wild type. D. All of the choices.
All of the choices.
Restriction endonucleases were discovered by A. Arber and Smith. B. Jackson, Symons, and Berg. C. Boyer and Cohen. D. Temin and Baltimore.
Arber and Smith.
_______ are strains that are unable to grow on a minimal medium that supports growth of the wild type strain but are able to grow on the minimal medium if one or more nutritional supplements are added. A. Autotrophs B. Auxotrophs C. Prototrophs D. Minitrophs
Auxotrophs
The three steps that take place in each cycle during PCR occur in which order? A. DNA annealing, denaturation, and synthesis. B. DNA denaturation, annealing, and synthesis. C. DNA synthesis, denaturation, and annealing. D. none of the above.
DNA denaturation, annealing, and synthesis.
Repair of an apurinic or apyrimidinic site in DNA by AP endonuclease must be completed by the action of A. UvrABC endonuclease. B. RecA protein. C. DNA polymerase I. D. none of the choices.
DNA polymerase I.
In _____________, cells are mixed with recombinant DNA and exposed to a brief pulse of high-voltage electricity to cause the membrane to become permeable and allow the uptake of DNA from its environment.
Electroporation
The most frequently chosen prokaryotic host in cloning techniques is A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae. B. Bacillus subtilis. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Escherichia coli.
Escherichia coli.
In an F+ F- conjugation, the donor is the __________ strain. A. F+ B. F- C. both F+ and F- (It is a reciprocal exchange) D. neither F+ nor F- (There is no exchange)
F+
After an F+ F- mating, the donor is __________ and the recipient is __________. A. F+; F- B. F-; F+ C. F-; F- D. F+; F+
F+; F-
Cosmids are so named because they can be used to express foreign genes in a variety of different hosts. T/F
False
Promoters for genes that code for proteins can be isolated from a cDNA library. T/F
False
The thermostable enzyme most commonly used in PCR is reverse transcriptase. T/F
False
When a eukaryotic gene is expressed in a bacterium, the eukaryotic regulatory sequences should be maintained in order to achieve maximum expression of the gene. T/F
False
Who is credited with demonstrating unidirectional and nonreciprocal transfer of DNA between two mating E. coli cells? A. Hayes B. Lederberg C. Tatum D. none of the choices
Hayes
When an F plasmid integrates into the host chromosome, the strain is referred to as A. F+. B. Hfr. C. F'. D. F-.
Hfr.
Which of the following was first produced commercially using recombinant DNA technology? A. Human growth hormone. B. Interleukins. C. Hepatitis B vaccine. D. Human insulin.
Human insulin.
Which of the following can lead to transition mutations? A. Incorporation of a base analog that exhibits different base-pairing properties from the base it replaces. B. Chemical modification of an existing base in the DNA so that in the next round of replication it will pair differently from the unmodified base. C. Incorporation of a base analog that exhibits different base-pairing properties from the base it replaces and chemical modification of an existing base in the DNA so that in the next round of replication it will pair differently from the unmodified base. D. A small insertion or deletion.
Incorporation of a base analog that exhibits different base-pairing properties from the base it replaces and chemical modification of an existing base in the DNA so that in the next round of replication it will pair differently from the unmodified base.
Which of the following is true of the integration of a viral genome into the host chromosome? A. It is a form of site-specific recombination. B. The enzymes are specific for the virus and its host. C. Integration begins the process of host chromosome degradation. D. It is a form of site-specific recombination and the enzymes are specific for the virus and its host.
It is a form of site-specific recombination and the enzymes are specific for the virus and its host.
Which of the following best represents the order of gene transfer in an Hfr F- mating? A. All plasmid genes followed by some or all of the chromosome. B. Part of the plasmid followed by the chromosome followed by the rest of the plasmid. C. The chromosome followed by the plasmid. D. Part of the chromosome followed by the plasmid followed by the rest of the chromosome.
Part of the plasmid followed by the chromosome followed by the rest of the plasmid.
Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes? A. restriction endonucleases B. RNA methylase C. DNA ligase D. reverse transcriptase
RNA methylase
Which of the following is the most error-prone of the repair mechanisms? A. postreplication repair B. recombination repair C. SOS repair D. photoreactivation
SOS repair
When an F' plasmid acts as the donor in a mating, which of the following do(es) not happen? A. The recipient becomes F'. B. The plasmid is transferred, including the chromosomal genes now on the plasmid. C. Some chromosomal genes not on the plasmid are transferred. D. all of the choices
Some chromosomal genes not on the plasmid are transferred.
Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases? A. They make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions. B. They make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme. C. Some make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions and some make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme. D. Depending on the incubation conditions, the same enzyme can either make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions OR make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme.
Some make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions and some make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme.
The enzyme reverse transcriptase was discovered by A. Arber and Smith. B. Jackson, Symons, and Berg. C. Boyer and Cohen. D. Temin and Baltimore.
Temin and Baltimore.
Which of the following is not part of a yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)? A. The F factor. B. A selectable marker. C. An ARS. D. A CEN sequence.
The F factor.
Which of the following is not true of specialized transduction? A. It is carried out by temperate phage. B. It is restricted to those genes on either side of an integrated prophage. C. The phage genome retains the full complement of phage genes. D. All of these are true of specialized transduction.
The phage genome retains the full complement of phage genes.
Which of the following best describes the basis for separation of DNA fragments during agarose gel electrophoresis? A. The fragments with the highest percentage of G and C will migrate fastest. B. The fragments with the highest percentage of A and T will migrate fastest. C. The largest fragments will migrate fastest. D. The smallest fragments will migrate fastest.
The smallest fragments will migrate fastest.
Which of the following is not true of cloning vectors? A. They usually contain multicloning sites or polylinkers. B. They contain at least two replication origins. C. They can be replicated within an appropriate host. D. All of these are true of cloning vectors.
They contain at least two replication origins.
Cosmids are plasmids that can be packaged into capsids of the bacteriophage lambda; therefore, they can be transmitted like phages, but they can exist and replicate in a cell like plasmids. T/F
True
Electroporation is commonly used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into cells. T/F
True
Genetic engineering methods have been used to produce vaccines. T/F
True
One of the major advantages to using plasmids as cloning vectors is that very high copy numbers can be achieved with many types of plasmid vectors. T/F
True
Regardless of the exact approach taken to recombinant DNA technology, one of the keys to successful cloning is choosing the right vector. T/F
True
Some plasmid vectors have incorporated the regulatory sequences of the lactose operon so that the expression of the recombinant gene can be induced at the appropriate time. T/F
True
The Southern blotting technique for transferring DNA from an agarose gel to a piece of nitrocellulose membrane is named for E. M. Southern, the person who developed the procedure.
True
Insertion sequences are A. normally relatively short (700 to 1,650 bp). B. capable of transposition. C. are discrete genetic elements bounded at both ends with inverted repeats. D. all of the choices
all of the choices
SOS repair A. requires RecA protein. B. is inducible by DNA damage. C. is error prone, i.e., produces mutations. D. all of the choices
all of the choices
Which one of the following contributes to the utility of the strains of Salmonella typhimurium used in the Ames reversion assay? A. They are highly permeable to test substances. B. They are defective in DNA repair and, therefore, cannot readily repair damage done by the test substances. C. It is very straightforward to assay the conversion of their histidine auxotrophy mutations to histidine prototrophy. D. all of the choices
all of the choices
Which of the following can be used as vectors for cloning DNA fragments? A. plasmids. B. cosmids. C. bacteriophages. D. all of the choices.
all of the choices.
Alternate forms of genes resulting from mutations are called A. isoforms. B. alterons. C. alleles. D. lethal.
alleles.
An F' plasmid results when A. an F+ F- mating is interrupted before completion. B. an Hfr F- mating is interrupted before completion. C. an integrated F plasmid is incorrectly excised, bringing host genes with it. D. none of the choices
an integrated F plasmid is incorrectly excised, bringing host genes with it.
A(n)__________ __________ is a piece of DNA with all of the features necessary for chromosomal replication and which can carry large (up to 1000 kb) pieces of foreign DNA into a host organism.
artificial chromosome
Restriction endonucleases are produced by A. fungi. B. bacteria. C. protozoa. D. plants. E. all of the choices
bacteria.
Which of the following types of cloning vector can carry the largest amount of foreign DNA? A. bacterial artificial chromosome. B. bacteriophage. C. cosmid. D. plasmid.
bacterial artificial chromosome.
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to produce __________ of copies in a few hours. A. hundreds B. thousands C. millions D. billions
billions
The Ames test A. can be used to measure the mutagenicity of chemicals. B. is used to measure the repair of thymine dimers. C. is used to measure levels of oxygen free radicals. D. none of the choices
can be used to measure the mutagenicity of chemicals.
Lethal mutations can be recovered in haploid organisms if they are A. dominant. B. active. C. conditional. D. none of the choices
conditional.
Transfer of genetic information via direct cell-cell contact is called A. transformation. B. transduction. C. transfection. D. conjugation.
conjugation.
Movement of charged molecules in an electrical field, which is used to separate nucleic acid fragments for recombinant DNA work, is called A. iontophoresis. B. nucleophoresis. C. electrophoresis. D. plasmaphoresis.
electrophoresis.
The genome of a recipient cell is called a(n) __________. A. merozygote B. exogenote C. endogenote D. none of the choices
endogenote
An enzyme that cleaves internal phosphodiester bonds of a DNA molecule is a (n) A. exonuclease. B. endonuclease. C. ligase. D. methylase.
endonuclease.
Spontaneous mutations are caused by A. errors in DNA replication. B. insertion of transposons. C. radiation. D. errors in DNA replication and insertion of transposons E. all of the choices
errors in DNA replication and insertion of transposons
DNA molecules that enter a bacterium by one of several mechanisms is called a(n) A. merozygote. B. exogenote. C. endogenote. D. none of the choices
exogenote.
A (n) __________ vector contains promoters that result in high-level transcription of the gene cloned within a multicloning site. A. shuttle B. chimeric C. expression D. phage
expression
Cloning a gene involves all of the following except A. isolating the fragment of DNA containing the desired gene. B. insertion of the gene into an appropriate vector. C. expression of the vector and the gene in a cell-free environment. D. introducing ligated DNA into E. coli cells.
expression of the vector and the gene in a cell-free environment.
A mutation from the most prevalent form of a gene to a mutant form is called a __________ mutation. A. forward B. reverse C. wild card D. escalating
forward
The most serious typeof mutation is a _______ mutation.
frameshift
The incorporation of a single strand of donor DNA into a recipient DNA duplex so that the donor strand replaces one of the strands or the recipient duplex generates __________ DNA. A. aberrant B. unstable C. heterogeneous D. heteroduplex
heteroduplex
A reciprocal exchange in which a pair of DNA with the same nucleotide sequence break and rejoin in a crossover is called __________ recombination. A. homologous B. site-specific C. replicative D. none of the choices
homologous
Transfer of genes from one mature independent organism to another is called A. horizontal gene transfer. B. lateral gene transfer. C. vertical gene transfer. D. orthogonal gene transfer.
horizontal gene transfer.
Which of these transposable elements do not carry genes for functions other than those needed for transposition? A. insertion sequences B. composite transposons C. retrotransposons D. conjugal transposons
insertion sequences
A mutagen that inserts between the stacked bases of a DNA double helix, distorting the DNA to induce single-pair insertions or deletions is called a(n) __________ agent. A. insertional B. interspersing C. intercalating D. distortional
intercalating
In order to express eukaryotic genes in a bacterium, the __________ must first be removed. A. introns B. exons C. enhancers D. 3' poly A sequence
introns
Mutations that result in the death of an organism when expressed are called __________ mutations. A. dominant B. recessive C. lethal D. conditional
lethal
A genomic __________ is a sufficiently large collection of recombinant DNA molecules in which the inserted sequences together represent the entire genome of an organism.
library
Conjugative transposons A. can be transferred from one bacterium to another by a phage mediated process. B. may be involved in the spread of antibiotic resistance in bacteria. C. often express enzymes that degrade aromatic compounds. D. all of the choices.
may be involved in the spread of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.
A recipient cell that is temporarily diploid for a portion of the genome during the replacement process is called a(n) __________. A. merozygote B. exogenote C. endogenote D. none of the choices
merozygote
A mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein by substitution is called a __________ mutation. A. missense B. nonsense C. silent D. none of the choices
missense
Which of the following types of mutation may play an important role in driving evolution because they are often nonlethal and, therefore, remain in the gene pool? A. nonsense B. missense C. frameshift D. deletion
missense
A __________ mutation is one that causes premature termination of the synthesis of the protein product. A. missense B. nonsense C. silent D. none of the choices
nonsense
Specialized transduction can be carried out by A. any bacteriophage. B. any temperate bacteriophage. C. only those temperate bacteriophages that integrate into the host chromosome. D. all of the choices
only those temperate bacteriophages that integrate into the host chromosome.
___________ is a bacterial plasmid vector. A. Lambda B. T4 DNA ligase C. pUC19 D. SV40
pUC19
Repair of thymine dimers using light to split the dimers apart into separate monomers is called A. photodedimerication. B. photoreactivation. C. photoreparation. D. none of the choices
photoreactivation.
A __________ is a DNA molecule used in hybridization reactions to detect the presence of a particular gene in separated DNA fragments. A. plasmid B. vector C. probe D. blot
probe
Restriction endonucleases in bacteria may have evolved in order to A. carry out natural genetic engineering. B. protect the bacteria from infection by viruses. C. use nucleic acids as a food (energy) source. D. all of the choices
protect the bacteria from infection by viruses.
Microbial strains that can grow on minimal medium are called __________. A. autotrophs B. auxotrophs C. prototrophs D. minitrophs
prototrophs
A PCR procedure that allows a determination of the amount of a particular DNA fragment that is present in a sample is called A. quantitative PCR. B. analytical PCR. C. real-time PCR. D. reverse PCR.
real-time PCR.
Lethal mutations can be maintained in diploid organisms if they are A. dominant. B. recessive. C. deletions. D. none of the choices
recessive.
The process in which one or more nucleic acid molecules are rearranged or combined to produce a new nucleotide sequence is called A. transformation. B. conjugation. C. recombination. D. transduction.
recombination.
Transposons that transpose by inserting a copy at a new location while a copy remains at the original location are said to transpose by _______________ transposition. A. simple B. composite C. incomplete D. replicative
replicative
Plasmids that have genes that decrease bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics are called __________ factors. A. col B. resistance C. virulence D. metabolic
resistance
Complementary DNA (cDNA) probes are produced using A. restriction endonucleases. B. RNA polymerase. C. DNA ligase. D. reverse transcriptase.
reverse transcriptase.
Antibiotics incorporated into the culture medium can A. select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid. B. select against organisms that have incorporated a plasmid not containing the desired gene. C. enhance production of recombinant proteins. D. select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid and select against organisms that have incorporated a plasmid not containing the desired gene
select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid.
A (n) __________ vector is a plasmid that can be replicated in several different organisms because it has at least one origin of replication that will function in each host. A. shuttle B. chimeric C. expression D. phage
shuttle
A __________ mutation does not alter the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein. A. missense B. nonsense C. silent D. none of the choices
silent
When a eukaryotic gene is cloned into a bacterium, the advantage of a complementary DNA (cDNA) gene being used instead of fragments of genomic DNA is that A. the promoter and terminator are found in the cDNA gene but not in the genomic fragment. B. the introns have been removed from the cDNA gene but not from the genomic fragment. C. the cDNA is made with the nucleotides found in the prokaryote but not in the eukaryote. D. there is no advantage to using a cDNA gene rather than a genomic fragment.
the introns have been removed from the cDNA gene but not from the genomic fragment.
When bacterial genes are transferred to another bacterium by a virus, it is called A. conjugation. B. transformation. C. transduction. D. transfection.
transduction.
Plasmid cloning vector DNA is usually introduced into bacterial hosts by A. ligation. B. transformation. C. transduction. D. plasmolysis.
transformation.
When a recipient cell acquires a piece of naked DNA from the environment, it is called A. conjugation. B. transformation. C. transduction. D. transfection.
transformation.
A DNA molecule used to carry a foreign gene into a host organism is called a A. plasmid. B. vector. C. probe. D. blot.
vector.