Quizzes for Negotiation
According to the interests-rights-power model of disputing, negotiators who use an interests-based approach when faced with a dispute situation: a. attempt to reconcile differences in a way that addresses both parties' needs and concerns b. focus on standards of fairness, including legal rights, precedents previously set, or expectations based on norms. c. use threats only in the late stages of negotiation d. never use threats
a
All of the following are effective strategies for transforming personal conflict into task conflict, EXCEPT: a. focusing on the future b. concealing anger and frustration c. finding a common node in parties' social networks d. joining forces to compete against a common enemy
b
Considering the variety of creative techniques for reaching an integrative negotiation agreement, which of the following refers to a cost-cutting solution? a. adding a string of benefits to a small initial offer b. one party getting their preferred items on one issue in exchange for reducing the costs incurred by the counterparty c. reducing the size of concessions d. each party lowering their aspirations on issues that are of less interest to them
b
In the interests-rights-power model, which of the following is an example of using rights? a. making a threat b. asking probing questions c. enforcing a contract d. walking away from the table
c
What example was given in the reading of a "social dilemma"? a. being torn between two friends in taking sides in a negotiation b. Stockholm syndrome c. prisoner's dilemma d. negotiate or go out?
c
Win-win negotiations are also known as: a. fair division negotiations b. equal-concessions negotiations c. integrative negotiations d. distributive negotiations
c
Skilled problem solvers frequently report that after trying to solve a problem and getting nowhere, they put the problem aside for hours, day, even weeks, and upon returning to it, they can see the solution quickly. This process is also best known as: a. preparation b. illumination c. verification d. incubation
d
The bargaining zone, or ZOPA, is the range: a. below the seller's reservation point and above the buyer's target point b. above the seller's focal point and above the buyer's aspiration point c. between negotiators' target points d. of overlap between negotiators' reservation points
d
Two types of status are relevant in most negotiation situations: primary status characteristics and secondary status characteristics. Which of the following is an example of a primary status characteristic? a. gender b. cultural background c. age d. job title
d
Which of the following is not one of the types of gender bias detailed in the Leanin.org film? a. maternal b. attribution c. affinity d. emotional
d - we don't need to know this though
Given that negotiators' judgments of ethical behavior are often biased, what is the "front-page test" and how might it help negotiators make ethical decisions in a negotiation? a. the front page test asks negotiators how comfortable they would be of their behavior was revealed in full in a public format b. the front page test asks negotiators to hold their decisions up against the golden rule of "do unto others as you would have them do unto you" c. the front page test asks negotiators if they would advise others, or their child, to make the same decision d. the front page test asks negotiators to consult a third party for an unbiased view of their decision making rationale
a
In negotiation, _____ occurs when people believe that their interests are incompatible with the other party's interests, when in fact, they are actually compatible. a. false conflict b. the halo effect c. the premature concession d. the lose-lose effect
a
Negotiators who are accountable to constituents are more likely to ______ as compared to negotiators who are NOT accountable to a constituent. a. make higher demands b. worry about making their actions appear more favorable to the counterparty c. make more concesssions d. process offers in an automatic, heuristic way
a
Rarely are negotiations purely competitive situations. Rather, most negotiations are _______ in nature, meaning that parties' interests are imperfectly correlated with one another. a. mixed-motive b. unbalanced c. pareto-optimal d. volatile
a
What is emotional intelligence? a. the ability to effectively manage one's own and respond to others' emotions b. a unique form of intelligence defined by emotions c. a knack for reading other people at the negotiating table d. the capacity to solve problems using emotions
a
When football fans watch a game, they believe the other side commits more infractions on the field than does their own team. This favoritism can best be termed: a. the affiliation bias b. the ethnocentrism bias c. marginalization d. the fundamental attribution error
a
When negotiators are described as being interdependent, that means people need to know how to: a. integrate their interests and work together b. have similar incentive structures c. be self-sufficient and self-focused d. develop different norms of communication
a
Which of the following is a strategically wise method of anchoring? a. setting an assertive aspiration point early in the negotiation b. immediately rejecting the counterparty's first offer c. determining the exact midpoint between the last two offers on the table d. refusing to make any concessions
a
A major obstacle to reaching integrative negotiation agreements is negotiators' beliefs about the outcome of some future event. A ______ is a type of agreement in which parties leverage differences of opinion to form an integrative agreement. a. speculative agreement b. contingent contract c. compromise contract d. fixed contract
b
A negative bargaining zone indicates that: a. parties are worse off by not reaching agreement than by reaching agreement b. there is no positive overlap between the parties' reservation points c. parties should keep negotiating to find a positive bargaining zone d. the counterparty's first offer was not accepted
b
A negotiator's reservation point is a quantification of the negotiator's: a. target point b. BATNA c. ZOPA d. opening offer
b
In negotiation there can be quite a few complexities to sharing or failing to share info with the counterparty. _______ occurs when a negotiator does not mention their true preferences and allows the other party to arrive at an erroneous conclusion. a. active misrepresentation b. passive misreprentation c. lying by omission d. lying by comission
b
In negotiation, a dispute is best defined as a situation in which: a. negotiators turn down favors and rewards from others b. a claim is made by one party and rejected by the other party c. parties have to resort to their BATNAs d. parties fail to exchange resources
b
In negotiation, people often have faulty perceptions. The fixed-pie perception refers to: a. simultaneously improving the outcomes for both parties b. believing that the counterparty's Interests are directly opposed to one's own interests c. a fixed alternative agreement that improves one party's outcome d. settling for outcomes that exceed parties' reservation points
b
In negotiation, the timing of offer exchange and the insight it provides is important. Negotiators who make _______ first offers in the negotiations are more likely to discover creative agreements that meet the parties' underlying interests. a. early b. later c. high d. low
b
In preparing for negotiation, a negotiator needs to determine what would constitute an ideal outcome, or favorable set of terms, also known as a ______. a. winner's result b. target point c. BATNA d. reservation point
b
Negotiation is best described as: a. a contest of wills between opposing parties b. an interpersonal decision-making process necessary whenever people cannot achieve their objectives single-handedly c. a third party mediation d. the process of compromise so as to instigate conflict with one side coming out the victor
b
Negotiators who consider how the counterparty _____ the negotiation are more effective than negotiators who consider how the counterparty _____ the negotiation. a. guarantees; finalizes b. thinks about; feels about c. closes; complies with d. discusses; expedites
b
Negotiators who desire to increase their share of the bargaining zone are best advised to: a. set fair aspirations b. improve their BATNA c. avoid making the first offer d. reveal their reservation price
b
Negotiators who have high situational awareness have knowledge about: a. the certainty of future events b. linkage effects, norms, and time constraints c. how the counterparty feels about the negotiation d. the counterparty's interests
b
Negotiators' evaluations of the fairness of procedures determine their satisfaction and willingness to comply with negotiated outcomes. Procedural justice is best defined as: a. the promises made to a counterparty to deliver on a contract b. the processes by which decisions are made, the methodology behind how resources are distributed, and how outcomes are determined c. the agreements wherein negotiators make bets based on their differences in beliefs, forecasts, risk profiles, and interests d. the rectification of wrongs
b
Once we decide someone is trustworthy, other qualities about this person are perceived as consistent with this favorable impression. This tendency can then give rise to ______, which is the propensity to believe that people we trust and like are also intelligent and capable. a. the forked-tail effect b. the halo effect c. sticky ties d. tunnel vision
b
People form three major types of trust relationships with others. One of those trust types is a deterrence-based trust and it is based on: a. reverse psychology b. consistency of behavior c. loss-frame thinking d. emotional connection
b
Regarding some of the major shortcomings that negotiators struggle to overcome, "lose-lose" negotiation occurs when negotiators: a. accept all terms offered by the counterparty b. both parties make unwise sacrifices and fail to recognize and exploit opportunities for mutual gain c. do not sign a binding contract d. settle for too little by making concessions that are too small.
b
Regarding the different aspects of a negotiator's motivational orientation and style, negotiators who use a competitive-based approach tend to: a. be indifferent as to how much the counterparty is getting in the agreement b. want to maximize the difference between their own profits and those of the other party c. want to minimize the difference between negotiator's outcomes d. legitimize the counterparty's needs
b
Sometimes, negotiators hire agents to act on their behalf in negotiations. In a study of home buyers and sellers, home selling prices were highest when the agent only knew: a. the seller's reservation price b. the buyer's reservation price c. the seller's time constraints d. the buyer's time constraints
b
The negotiator's surplus is the positive difference between: a. negotiator's reservation point b. the settlement outcome and the negotiator's reservation point c. the bargaining surplus and the settlement outcome d. the best and worst possible economic outcomes
b
There are problems with deterrence-based trust systems. Often a consequence of a deterrence system is the reactance theory which is the tendency for people to: a. make more rules to restrict behavior further b. be angry that their freedom has been taken away and act to reassert it c. feel more secure but have less intrinsic motivation d. watch each other very closely and report any policy infractions
b
What is a strategic flinch? a. when one party walks away from the table in hopes that the other party will make a concession b. a verbal or physical display of shock, disgust, or disbelief made to an opening offer c. a negotiation tactic used to enhance the relationship to the counterparty at just the right moment d. none of the above
b
When both parties to negotiation have the same interests, but fail to capitalize on compatible interests, this situation is best termed: a. naive conflict b. the lose-lose effect c. premature concessions d. the propinquity effect
b
Which of the following best describes the differences between individualism and collectivism as cultural values in a negotiation? a. individualists focus on relationships; collectivists focus on money b. individualists see themselves as autonomous entities; collectivists see themselves in relation to others c. Individualists prefer to work in groups; collectivists prefer to work alone d. individualists are cooperative; collectivists are competitive
b
Win-win negotiation does not pertain to how the pie is _____ but rather, to how the pie is ______ by negotiators. a. enlarged; divided b. divided; enlarged c. envisioned; distributed d. built; promoted
b
With regard to effective negotiation, the ability of negotiators to understand emotions in themselves and others an to use that understanding to generate positive outcomes is defined as: a. reciprocity b. emotional intelligence c. motivational orientation d. social comparison
b
When using rights and power, negotiators should consider threatening the other party's interests, clarity, credibility, and: a. social aspects b. not burning bridges c. skills and resources d. mixed message popularity
b - this is the one she got rid of
A negotiator who lacks a well-formed _____ risks agreeing to a settlement that is worse than what they could do by following another course of action. a. aspiration point b. reference point c. reservation point d. focal points
c
All of the following are TKI styles of negotiation except: a. compromising b. avoiding c. cooperating d. collaborating
c
Conflict escalation threatens the ability of the negotiators to reach agreement. One of the most effective ways to respond to a power move by an opponent is: a. punishment b. laugh at the behavior c. do not reciprocate d. encourage a bigger threat
c
Cultures differ with respect to their values and beliefs. In negotiation, sacred values refer to: a. the values prevalent in individualistic cultures b. the customs and beliefs that change frequently c. the beliefs that people regard to be so fundamental that they are not discussable or debatable. d. the values that can make your counterparty highly competitive
c
Groups often simplify the negotiation of multiple issues among multiple parties through voting and decision rules. In a multiparty negotiation, the most common procedure used to aggregate the preferences of team members is _____. However, this type of voting procedure fails to recognize the strength of individual preferences and therefore ______. a. the unanimity rule; mutually beneficial trade-offs are not stable b. a voting paradox; promotes fixed-pie thinking c. majority rule; does not promote integrative tradeoffs among issues d. a consensus agreement; is not easy to implement
c
Many negotiations appear to be about a single, salient issue - such as price or salary. However it is NOT advisable to focus on a single issue in a negotiation because single-issue negotiations are ______ in nature. a. integrative b. variable sum c. fixed sum d. mixed motive
c
Negotiators need to be effective in terms of maximizing all areas of potential value at the bargaining table. In virtually any negotiation, two things are at stake: economic value and: a. money and scarce resources b. personal reputation c. relationships and trust d. a person's ego
c
Negotiators often develop trusting, long-term relationships with people who are physically close to them, or located nearby. This effect is known as: a. reactance theory b. halo effect c. propinquity effect d. networking game
c
Nobel Laureate Herb Simon distinguished optimizing from satisficing. Satisficing is best defined as: a. helping other people b. negotiating a slice of the pie that is much larger than your original aspirations c. settling for something less than you could have had otherwise d. setting high aspirations
c
Of the different types of mental models that shape and guide behavior in negotiation, the most common type of the model is the_____, and is based on the cognitive bias called the ______. a. partnership model; hindsight bias b. problem solving model; surface level transfer c. haggling model; fixed-pie perception d. game-playing model; representativeness heuristic
c
There are three main social value motivational orientations in negotiation: competitive, cooperative, and individualistic. The "cooperative" negotiator prefers to: a. make interpersonal comparisons b. maximize their own gains c. maximize joint gain, minimize differences d. make deductions about other people's motivations
c
There are three main social value motivational orientations in negotiation: competitive, cooperative, and individualistic. The "cooperative" negotiator prefers to: a. maximize their own gains b. make interpersonal comparisons c. seek equality d. make deductions about other people's motivations
c
When a negotiator rejects a proposal that is demonstrably better than any other option available, this is called: a. the agreement bias b. the winner's curse c. walking away from the table or hubris d. settling for too little
c
When formulating counteroffers and concessions, negotiators need to consider three things: a. the starting value, the end value, and the magnitude of concessions b. the fairness, the misuse, and the pattern of concessions c. the pattern, the magnitude, and the timing of concessions d. the impact, the size, and the timing of endowment effects
c
With regard to successfully repairing broken trust in negotiations, which of the following is most TRUE? a. people who believe that moral character can change over time are less likely to trust someone after an apology b. repairing broken trust is more difficult with individuals than groups c. allowing the injured parties to express their regret and apologize d. avoid involving a professional third party
c
Effective negotiation preparation encompasses three general abilities: situation assessment, other-party assessment, and ______. a. financial assessment b. location assessment c. team assessment d. self-assessment
d
In a job interview, when the prospective employer asks about your desired salary, what is the recommended response to use? a. Give a salary range that would meet your needs in order to seem less fixated on a particular number b. make a take-it-or-leave-it offer c. make an extreme offer and negotiate your way back down to your acceptable BATNA range d. present a variety of different combinations of highly attractive offer packages that are of equivalent value to yourself
d
In order to reach a successful negotiation outcome, the negotiators must understand that their BATNA is: a. the outcome that the negotiator wishes to achieve b. able to be modified by persuasive offers c. not time-sensitive d. determined by objective reality
d
Negotiation is best described as a _____, which involves both _______ and ______. a. self-assessment; focus; introspection b. grass is greener negotiation; selectiveness; restlessness c. strategic risk; aggressiveness; gambling d. mixed-motive enterprise; cooperation; competition
d
People in high______ cultures openly express their ideas, are more emotionally expressive, and would endorse statements such as, "People must always be ready to defend their reputation" and "if a person gets insulted and they don't respond, they will look weak" a. relational b. face c. dignity d. honor
d
Unfortunately, many negotiators hold faulty assumptions that prevent the discovery and creation of integrative, win-win agreements. Which of the following strategies are useful in helping negotiators avoid lose-lose agreements? a. negotiators should assume that their interests are opposed to the other party's interests b. negotiators should have plenty of negotiation experience c. negotiators should make some premature concessions to the other party d. negotiators should develop an accurate understanding of the other party's interests
d
What is conflict adaptivity as defined in our reading? a. The ability to perform in different types of conflict b. the capacity to respond to different conflict situations in accordance with the demands of the situation c. an example of emotional intelligence d. all of the above
d
When it comes to resolving conflict, managers from hierarchical cultures prefer: a. to regulate behavior via public shaming b. an interests model that relies on resolving underlying conflicts c. to attribute a disagreeable person's behavior to an underlying disposition and desire formal dispute resolution procedures d. to defer to a higher-status person
d
When negotiators arrange to have their preferred alternatives entered at later stages of a sequential voting process, what psychological principle are they taking advantage of? a. majority rule - all individual votes count by the same weight b. in-group bias - a pattern of favoring members of one's in-group over out-group members c. impossibility theorem - the derivation of group preference from individuals' preferences is indeterminate d. condorcet paradox - the winners of majority rule elections will change as a function of the order in which the alternatives are proposed
d
Which of the following is a myth that negotiators often hold about negotiation? a. whatever is good for one party must be good for the counterparty b. a good negotiator should always approach a counterparty as if they were of equal status c. good negotiators play it safe and do not take risks d. good negotiators rely on intuition
d
With regards to lying about one's BATNA in a negotiation, which of the following is advisable? a. lying about one's BATNA is only advisable if the negotiator is prepared to have the other party walk away from the table b. lying about one's BATNA is sometimes permissible, but lying about one's reservation price is never permissible c. lies about BATNAs are not permissible, but lying about the other party's BATNA is strategically advisable d. lies about BATNAs are equivalent to lying about material facts, and therefore, the lying party is at legal risk
d
A multi-party negotiation is formed when three or more individuals attempt to resolve perceived differences of interest. A key difference between two-party and multi-party negotiations is: a. faster information sharing in multiparty negotiations b. equalization of outcomes in multiparty negotiations c. more accurate judgments in multiparty negotiations d. the potential for a subset of members to form a coalition in multiparty negotiations
d.
