radiography mock 1 practice
The diameter of a needle's lumen is referred to as its A bevel. B gauge. C hub. D length.
B gauge.
The most effective means of reducing voluntary motion is A expediting the exam. B good communication. C using the shortest possible exposure time. D using immobilization devices/restraints.
B good communication.
When using AEC, the radiographer should set the backup time to which percentage of the total expected required exposure time? A 50% B 100% C 150% D 200%
C 150%
Which bone(s) form the bony nasal septum? 1. Palatine 2. Ethmoid 3. Vomer A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
What bones form the shoulder girdle? A 2 scapulae, 1 clavicle, and 1 sternum B 2 clavicles and 2 humerus C 2 scapulae and 2 clavicles D 1 scapula and 1 humerus
C 2 scapulae and 2 clavicles
The adult skeleton consists of how many bones? A 199 B 204 C 206 D 212
C 206
Which is NOT a type of personnel dosimeter used to measure individual exposure to ionizing radiation? 1. Film badges 2. Thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLDs) 3. Geiger-Muller (GM) detectors 4. Pocket ionization chambers A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 4 only
C 3 only
The SSD in stationary fluoroscopy must be at least A 28 centimeters. B 30 centimeters. C 38 centimeters. D 1 meter.
C 38 centimeters.
When a 1-mm Pb flat contact shield is used to shield male reproductive organs, their dose is reduced by about how much? A 10% B 50% C 90 to 95% D 100%
C 90 to 95%
Which of the following is NOT considered a positive contrast agent? A Barium B Iodine C Air D Metal
C Air
What is the name of the uppermost portion of the lungs (i.e., above the level of the clavicles)? A Base B Hilum C Apex D Costophrenic angle
C Apex
The Federally required minimum lead equivalent for lead aprons is A 0.25 mm Pb equiv. B 0.5 mm Pb equiv. C 5.0 mm Pb equiv. D There is no minimum lead equivalent
A 0.25 mm Pb equiv.
According to the NCRP, the annual occupational whole-body dose equivalent limit for students under age 18 is A 1 mSv B 50 mSv C 150 mSv D 500 mSv
A 1 mSv
Radiographers should wear their dosimeter facing forward at the collar-level to approximate their radiation dose to the 1. thyroid gland 2. gonads 3. breasts A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 only
Which bone(s) separate the oral and nasal cavities? 1. Maxillae 2. Palatine 3. zygomas A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 only
Which of the following is (are) composed of nondividing, differentiated cells? 1. Neurons and neuroglia 2. Epithelial tissue 3. Lymphocytes A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the control dosimeter that accompanies each shipment of personal radiation monitors? 1. It should be stored away from all radiation sources. 2. It should be stored in the main work area. 3. It should be used to replace an employee's lost monitor. A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
A 1 only
When an IV infusion is in place, the IV standard/bag should be how many inches above the level of the vein. A 18 to 24 B 22 to 28 C 26 to 32 D 30 to 36
A 18 to 24
To within what percentage of the SID must the collimator light and actual irradiated area be accurate? A 2% B 5% C 10% D 15%
A 2%
What is the annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals 18 years of age and older? A 50 mSv B 55 mSv C 65 mSv D 100 mSv
A 50 mSv
What skull projection is most commonly used to demonstrate the occipital bone? A AP axial projection (Towne method) B PA axial projection (Haas method) C Parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) D PA axial projection (Caldwell method)
A AP axial projection (Towne method)
Which projection of the elbow will cause superimposition of the proximal ulna by the radial head and neck? A AP oblique with medial rotation B AP C AP oblique with lateral rotation D Lateral
A AP oblique with medial rotation
Which is the most frequently occurring interaction between x-ray photons and tissue in diagnostic x-ray imaging? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Coherent scatter D Characteristic Bremsstrahlung
A Compton scatter
Which of the major interactions between diagnostic x-ray photons and tissue cells occurs with high energy photons? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Coherent scatter D Pair Production
A Compton scatter
Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells is responsible for scattered radiation fog? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical
A Compton scatter
Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells predominates in the diagnostic x-ray range? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical
A Compton scatter
Which of the following are defined as socially shared characteristics, attitudes, beliefs, language, customs, etc. of a group of people that are passed from one generation to the next? A Culture B Ethnicity C Race D Social class
A Culture
Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator? A Epinephrine B Lidocaine C Nitroglycerin D Verapamil
A Epinephrine
What term is used to describe the numeric value representative of the exposure the IR receives in digital radiography? A Exposure indicator B Window level C Window width D Pixel value
A Exposure indicator
Which portion of the following equation represents absorbed dose? Gy × Wr × Wt = EfD A Gy B Wr C Wt D EfD
A Gy
What 2 types of transmission-based precaution require the patient to wear a surgical string mask? I. airborne II. droplet III. contact IV. protective A I and II B I and III C II and III D III and IV
A I and II
Erythema can be an effect of excessive ionizing radiation exposure to what body part? I. Skin II. Lens of eye III. Chromosomes A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above
A I only
Select the condition(s) that are likely to require an increase in exposure: I. atelectasisII. gout III. pneumonia IV. emphysema V. osteochondroma A I, III, V B II, IV C III, IV, V D I, IV, V
A I, III, V
Disposable materials wet with contaminated blood or body fluids should be placed where? A In a special container marked with biohazard symbol B In either a red bag or a special container C In a double red bag
A In a special container marked with biohazard symbol
How is the average energy of the x-ray beam affected with added filtration? A It is increased. B It is decreased. C It is unaffected. D None of the above.
A It is increased.
The terms libel and slander refer to the spreading of information that causes loss of reputation and/ or defamation of character; what is the difference between the two terms? A Libel is written defamation; slander is verbal defamation B Libel is verbal defamation; slander is written defamation C Libel and slander both refer to spoken defamation. D Libel and slander both refer to written/published defamation
A Libel is written defamation; slander is verbal defamation
What is the active ingredient found in a thermoluminescent dosimeter? A Lithium fluoride B Aluminum oxide C Film D Ionization chamber
A Lithium fluoride
What is the name of the plane that divides the body into left and right halves? A Mid-sagittal plane (MSP) B Transverse plane C Sagittal plane D Coronal plane
A Mid-sagittal plane (MSP)
What is another term for healthcare associated infections (HAI)? A Nosocomial B MRSA C VRE D Pandemic
A Nosocomial
Who of the following is likely to be the most radiosensitive? A One-year-old child B Twenty-year-old young adult C Fifty-year-old adult D All are equally radiosensitive
A One-year-old child
Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients? A Use restraint only when necessary. B Always use physical or mechanical restraint. C Use physical restraint only. D Use mechanical restraint only.
A Use restraint only when necessary.
What is the name of the exposure system that is used to make small incremental changes in exposure to compensate for variations in body part thickness? A Variable kilovoltage system B Fixed kilovoltage system C Online kilovoltage system D None of the above
A Variable kilovoltage system
The abnormal quivering of cardiac muscle fibers, instead of contraction, is termed A atrial fibrillation B myocardial infarction C myocardial ischemia D ventricular fibrillation
A atrial fibrillation
A shorter wavelength photon is associated with A higher frequency, higher energy, and increased ionizing potential. B lower frequency, lower energy, and decreased ionizing potential. C higher frequency, higher energy, and decreased ionizing potential. D lower frequency, higher energy, and increased ionizing potential.
A higher frequency, higher energy, and increased ionizing potential.
The control monitor, which is provided in each batch of dosimeters, should be placed A in a radiation-free area B anywhere inside the x-ray room C behind a secondary barrier D at waist level
A in a radiation-free area
The positional relationship between the plantar surface and the IR in the lateral projection of the foot is A perpendicular B side-by-side C parallel D collateral
A perpendicular
The energy of the diagnostic x-ray beam is correctly described as A polyenergetic. B homogeneous. C monoenergetic. D high LET.
A polyenergetic.
The bilateral AP oblique/frog-leg projection/modified Cleaves method of the pelvis requires that the CR be directed to the midline at a level 1-inch superior to the A pubic symphysis B ASIS C iliac crest D ala
A pubic symphysis
Primary x-ray photons that strike matter and undergo a change in direction are termed A scattered radiation. B leakage radiation. C extra-focal radiation . D recoil radiation.
A scattered radiation.
An abnormal or exaggerated lateral curvature of the spine is termed A scoliosis B kyphosis C spondylolisthesis D lordosis
A scoliosis
A type of short bone occurring in hands and feet and embedded in tendons or joint capsules are called A sesamoid B flagellae C sinusoid D accessory
A sesamoid
As electrons impinge on the target surface, less than 1% of their kinetic energy is changed to A x-rays B heat C gamma rays D recoil electrons
A x-rays
The Bucky slot cover must have at least what lead equivalent? A 0.20 mm Pb equiv B 0.25 mm Pb equiv C 0.30 mm Pb equiv D 0.35 mm Pb equiv
B 0.25 mm Pb equiv
A pregnant radiographer's gestational fetal exposure must not exceed what amount in one month? A 0.05 mSv. B 0.5 mSv. C 1 mSv. D 1.5 mSv.
B 0.5 mSv.
The alveolar process can be found on which bone(s)? 1. Mandible 2. Maxilla 3. Palatine A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the differences between the male and female bony pelvis? 1. The female pelvic outlet is wider 2. The pubic angle is 90 degrees or less in the male 3. The male pelvis is more shallow A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
The lateral projection of the skull utilizes the IOML baseline and requires that the MSP be at what orientation to the IR? 1. Perpendicular 2. Parallel 3. Tangential A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 2 only
The SSD in mobile fluoroscopy must be at least A 28 centimeters. B 30 centimeters. C 38 centimeters. D 1 meter.
B 30 centimeters.
Approximately what degree angle is formed by the petrous ridges and MSP in the mesocephalic shaped skull? A 45° B 47° C 49° D 5145°
B 47°
The usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is NPO for how many hours prior to the examination? A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16
B 8
Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A If the part is not accurately centered to the appropriate AEC detector, over- or underexposure is likely to occur. B Artificial contrast media are required when subject contrast is high. C CR artifacts appearing as random small black spots are usually representative of fog from environmental sources. D "Minimum response time" is the shortest exposure time the AEC is capable of.
B Artificial contrast media are required when subject contrast is high.
X-ray energy and X-ray wavelength are related in the following way: A As X-ray energy increases, wavelength also increases B As X-ray energy increases, wavelength decreases C X-ray energy and wavelength are inversely proportional D X-ray energy and wavelength are directly proportional
B As X-ray energy increases, wavelength decreases
What is the difference between assault and battery? A Assault is unlawful touching of another without consent; battery is unlawful touching of another without consent B Assault is the threat to touch another in an injurious way; battery is unlawful touching of another without consent C Assault is unlawful restraint and battery is failure to use reasonable care D Assault is failure to use reasonable care and battery is unlawful restraint
B Assault is the threat to touch another in an injurious way; battery is unlawful touching of another without consent
An AP medial oblique projection of the elbow will demonstrate which of the following anatomic parts free of superimposition? A Radial head and neck B Coronoid process C Medial epicondyle D Trochlea
B Coronoid process
What type of relationship exists between total exposure and exposure time? A Indirect B Direct C Inverse D Unrelated
B Direct
What is the destruction of pathogens through the use of chemical materials termed? A Aseptic B Disinfection C Handwashing D Sterilization
B Disinfection
What type of transmission-based precaution is required for influenza, mumps, and rubella? A Airborne B Droplet C Contact D All of the above
B Droplet
What unit is used to describe ionization in air? A Sv B Gya C Gyt D None of the above
B Gya
The lower GI tract includes which of the following structures? I. Sigmoid colon II. Cecum III. Ileum IV. Jejunum V. Right colic flexure A I, III, IV B I, II, V C III, IV, V D II, III, IV
B I, II, V
Select the violations of ARRT Rules of Ethics from the following: I. Submitting misleading educational history II. Revealing privileged patient communication III. Failure to obtain pertinent information for the radiologist IV. Violating state/federal narcotics laws A I and III only B I, II, and IV only C All of the above D None of the above
B I, II, and IV only
Projections that are generally included in an acute abdomen survey include which of the following? I. AP supine abdomen II. Dorsal decubitus abdomen III. Erect or lateral decubitus abdomen IV. PA chest V. Ventral decubitus abdomen A I, II, IV B I, III, IV C II, IV, V D III, IV, V
B I, III, IV
Which 3 of the following latex allergy reactions are considered mild? I. Skin redness II. Itchy eyes III. Running nose IV. Hives V. Itching VI. Sneezing VII. Difficulty breathing VIII. Wheezing. A I, II, VI B I, IV, V C II, IV, VI D I, III, VII
B I, IV, V
For the same FOV, arrange the following radiography matrix sizes in order of increasing spatial resolution I. 1500 x 1500 II. 2500 x 2500 III. 750 x 750 A I, II, II B III, I, II C II, I, III
B III, I, II
What is the term used to describe restriction of patient movement to ensure safety? A Restraint B Immobilization C Restraints and immobilization can be used interchangeably D None of the above
B Immobilization
Where should the control badge be kept? A Outside the lead apron B In a radiation-free area C Available as spare dosimeter D On control panel
B In a radiation-free area
An RPO position of the lumbar vertebrae demonstrates zygapophyseal joints poorly visualized and the pedicle is seen anterior on the vertebral body. What does this indicate? A Excessive rotation B Insufficient rotation C Pelvic tilt D Correct positioning
B Insufficient rotation
What opening is formed when the two half-moon-shaped areas of the superior and inferior vertebral notches line up? A Foramen ovale B Intervertebral foramina C Foramen magnum D Vertebral foramen
B Intervertebral foramina
Which of the following applies to correct body alignment and movement to avoid injury when stooping, lifting, and moving objects or patients? A Carry heavy objects well away from your body B Keep a wide base of support when lifting and moving C Keep your knees straight and bend from your waist when lifting D Twist at the waist to lift an object and move it to another location
B Keep a wide base of support when lifting and moving
The spinous process is formed by the posterior unification of which part of the lumbar vertebra? A Pedicles B Laminae C Articular processes D Transverse process
B Laminae
What cervical spine projection(s) is/are used to demonstrate antero-posterior vertebral mobility? A Fuchs or Judd methods B Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension C Swimmer's lateral position D Both oblique cervical view projections
B Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension
For a lateral projection of the thoracic spine, what is the relationship of the mid-sagittal plane to the image receptor? A Perpendicular B Parallel C Right angle D 45-degree caudal angle
B Parallel
In a correctly positioned parietoacanthial projection (Waters method), what anatomical structure(s) should be projected below the maxillary sinuses? A Zygomatic arches B Petrous pyramids C Frontal bone D Mandibular condyles
B Petrous pyramids
Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves the greatest patient dose? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical
B Photoelectric effect
Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter is more likely to produce short-scale contrast? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Compton scatter and photoelectric effect D None of the above
B Photoelectric effect
Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells is a major contributor to patient dose? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical
B Photoelectric effect
Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells results in total absorption of the incident photon? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical
B Photoelectric effect
In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in Figure 2-25 probably made? A Supine recumbent B Prone recumbent C PA upright D Supine Trendelenburg
B Prone recumbent
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? A AP or PA erect B Right lateral decubitus C Left lateral decubitus D Ventral decubitus
B Right lateral decubitus
What type of personnel dosimeter is used as a secondary monitor when performing procedures that require hands to be in or near the primary beam? A Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter B Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) ring C Pocket ionization chamber D Personal digital ionization dosimeter
B Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) ring
Radiography of most structures usually requires A a minimum of four projections at right angles (perpendicular) to each other. B a minimum of two projections at right angles (perpendicular) to each other. C a minimum of four projections parallel to each other. D a minimum of two projections parallel to each other.
B a minimum of two projections at right angles (perpendicular) to each other.
The drug acetaminophen is classified as a(n) A diuretic B antipyretic C antihistamine D emetic
B antipyretic
Where should the Bucky tray be located during fluoroscopic examinations? A at the head of the x-ray table B at the foot of the x-ray table C at the center of the x-ray table D none of the above
B at the foot of the x-ray table
OR persons in sterile gown and gloves must pass each other A front-to-front. B back-to-back. C back-to-front. D front-to-back.
B back-to-back.
HVL and kV are used to express A beam intensity. B beam quality. C focal spot size. D effective dose.
B beam quality.
In the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder (Lawrence method), the arm is abducted 90 degrees from the body and rotated A internally B externally C anatomically D in dorsiflexion
B externally
The lateral malleolus is the distal expanded portion of the A ulna B fibula C radius D tibia
B fibula
While caring for an unconscious patient in an emergency, treatment can be given on the basis of A expressed consent B implied consent C informed consent D ignorant consent
B implied consent
Select the best completion: When skin is being prepared for a surgical procedure, A it is cleansed in a circular motion, from outermost to center. B it is cleansed in a circular motion, from center outward. C it is cleansed longitudinally, from lower to upper body. D it is cleansed longitudinally, from upper to lower body.
B it is cleansed in a circular motion, from center outward.
Which technical factor(s) regulate(s) x-ray photon wavelength and beam penetration? A mA B kV C SID and kV D SID and mA
B kV
Ionizing radiation that is emitted from the x-ray tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed A scattered radiation. B leakage radiation. C extra-focal radiation. D recoil radiation.
B leakage radiation.
A lesion with a stalk projecting from the intestinal mucosa into the lumen is a(n) A fistula B polyp C diverticulum D abscess
B polyp
A direct relationship exists between image brightness and A range of densities B radiographic contrast C window level D window width
B radiographic contrast
Using the variable kV exposure system, kV is adjusted for each centimeter increase or decrease of tissue thickness by A ±1 kV. B ±2 kV. C ±5 kV. D ±10 kV.
B ±2 kV.
Which of the following terms is used for ionizing radiation-induced hair loss? 1. Alopecia 2. Epilation 3. Desquamation A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 1 and 2 only
Ribs 1-10 articulate with thoracic vertebrae at which of the following locations? 1. Vertebral body 2. Pedicle 3. Lamina 4. Transverse processes A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only
C 1 and 4 only
The LPO and RPO positions of the sacroiliac joints requires that the CR be directed A 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS. B 2 inches medial to the down ASIS. C 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS. D 1 inch medial to the down ASIS.
C 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS.
The annual effective dose (EfD) limit for radiography students participating in clinical education before the age of 18 is A 0.05 mSv. B 0.5 mSv. C 1 mSv. D 1.5 mSv.
C 1 mSv.
What bones form the shoulder girdle? A 2 scapulae, 2 clavicles, and 1 sternum B 2 clavicles and 2 humerus C 1 scapula and 1 clavicle D 1 scapula, 1 clavicle and 1 humerus
C 1 scapula and 1 clavicle
How many posterior ribs should be visualized above the diaphragm in order for a PA chest to be evaluated for adequate inspiration? A 6 B 8 C 10 D 12
C 10
The neck of the femur forms a what degree angle with its body/shaft? A 100° B 110° C 120° D 130°
C 120°
Which is the term used to describe patient protection concerning release of their private information? A Autonomy B Beneficence C Confidentiality D Nonmaleficence E Veracity
C Confidentiality
What type of transmission-based precaution is required for MRSA and varicella? A Airborne B Droplet C Contact D All of the above
C Contact
Which of the following is associated with the image receptor's sensitivity and accuracy in converting incoming information to the image displayed on the output viewing device? A Dose-area product (DAP) B Nyquist frequency C Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) D Modulation transfer function (MTF)
C Detective quantum efficiency (DQE)
Which of these statements is/are true regarding electromagnetic radiation? A Electromagnetic radiations differ in velocity; they have the same frequency and wavelength. B Electromagnetic radiations have the same velocity, frequency, and wavelength. C Electromagnetic radiations have the same velocity, they differ in frequency and wavelength. D Electromagnetic radiations differ in velocity, frequency, and wavelength.
C Electromagnetic radiations have the same velocity, they differ in frequency and wavelength.
Which of the following technical factors will cause no change in image receptor exposure? A kVp B Milliamperage C Focal spot size D Exposure time
C Focal spot size
Which of the following is a type of indwelling catheter? A Straight catheter B Condom catheter C Foley catheter D Suprapubic catheter
C Foley catheter
The easiest and most effective method of controlling the transmission of infections is probably what? A Aseptic B Disinfection C Handwashing D Sterilization
C Handwashing
Types of communication include which of the following? I. Verbal/oral II. Written III. Nonverbal A I only B I and II C I, II, and III
C I, II, and III
Types of communication include which of the following? I. Verbal/oral II. Written III. Nonverbal A I only B I and II C I, II, and III D None of the above
C I, II, and III
Irregular bones include which of the following? I. Facial bones II. Carpals III. Vertebra IV. Pelvis bones V. Scapula A I, II, III B III, IV, V C I, III, IV D II, IV, V
C I, III, IV
The typical vertebra includes which of the following processes? I. Superior articular II. Lamina III. Spinous IV. Transverse V. Pedicle A I, II, III B II, III, IV C I, III, IV D I, IV, V
C I, III, IV
Examples of arthropod-borne infectious diseases include which 3 of the following? I. Lyme disease II. Influenza III. Tuberculosis IV. Bubonic plague V. Rocky Mountains spotted fever A III, IV, V B I, II, V C I, IV, V D II, III, IV
C I, IV, V
Which of those listed below have ionizing properties? I. visible light II. alpha particles III. x-rays IV. microwaves V. beta particles A I and II only B II, III, and IV only C II, III, and V only D III, IV, and V only
C II, III, and V only
Select the condition(s) that are likely to require a decrease in exposure: I. congestive heart failure II. sclerosis III. Pneumothorax IV. Osteoporosis V. cirrhosis A I and III only B II and V only C III and IV only D III and V only
C III and IV only
In which projection of the scapula should the vertebral and axillary borders be superimposed? A AP scapula B Grashey method C Lateral scapula D Fisk modification
C Lateral scapula
Which of the following is another name for professional negligence? A Assault B Battery C Malpractice D Maleficence
C Malpractice
Which of the following is a fast-acting vasodilator used to lower blood pressure and relieve the pain of angina pectoris? A Digitalis B Dilantin C Nitroglycerin D Cimetidine (Tagamet)
C Nitroglycerin
What pathological condition is often seen in boys 10 to 15 years of age and involves detachment of the tibial tuberosity by the patellar tendon? A Ewing sarcoma B Bone cysts C Osgood-Schlatter disease D Enchondroma
C Osgood-Schlatter disease
What is the relationship of the epicondyles to the IR in an AP projection of the humerus or elbow? A Vertical B Perpendicular C Parallel D Diagonal
C Parallel
In which type of monitoring device do photons release electrons by their interaction with air? A Film badge B TLD C Pocket dosimeter D OSL dosimeter
C Pocket dosimeter
Which of the following is a disease that is most often a complication of thrombus formation in one or both lower extremities? A Phlebitis B Aneurysm C Pulmonary embolus (PE) D Dissecting aneurysm
C Pulmonary embolus (PE)
Which type of shielding should be used during an examination that requires a sterile field? A Shaped contact shield B Flat contact shield C Shadow shield D Fixed shield
C Shadow shield
Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2-24? A Body of L3 B Body of L4 C Spinous process D Transverse process
C Spinous process
What ligament of the atlas (C1) holds the odontoid process and/or dens (C2) in place? A Nuchal ligament B Interspinous ligament C Transverse atlantal ligament D Ligamentum flavum
C Transverse atlantal ligament
Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux? A Retrograde urogram B Intravenous urogram (IVU) C Voiding cystourethrogram D Retrograde cystogram
C Voiding cystourethrogram
Which portion of the following equation represents the degree of radiosensitivity of the irradiated organ/tissue? Gy × Wr × Wt = EfD A Gy B Wr C Wt D EfD
C Wt
The long-curved process that extends laterally above the head of the humerus is called the A coracoid B coronoid C acromion D olecranon
C acromion
A radiographer would be in violation of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Code of Ethics for the Profession of Radiologic Technology for all of the following except Afailing to wear a lead apron when performing mobile radiography. B failing to participate in continuing education. C communicating information regarding suspected child abuse to the referring physician. D refusing to participate in new and innovative technical procedures.
C communicating information regarding suspected child abuse to the referring physician.
A fracture generally shown radiographically by a decreased vertical dimension of the anterior vertebral body is called a(n) A avulsion fracture B depressed (ping-pong) fracture C compression fracture D hangman fracture
C compression fracture
The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is A bronchial asthma. B bronchitis. C emphysema. D TB.
C emphysema.
The purpose of personnel monitoring is A protect the user from scattered radiation B protect the user from leakage radiation C evaluate the effectiveness of personal radiation protection D identify the type and energy of ionizing radiation
C evaluate the effectiveness of personal radiation protection
The large opening in the base of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes through is called the A foramen oval B foramen rotundum C foramen magnum D external occipital protuberance
C foramen magnum
A febrile condition usually indicates A blood loss. B shock. C infection. D anemia.
C infection.
An abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the spine is termed A scoliosis B lordosis C kyphosis D spondylolysis
C kyphosis
The omission or failure to take reasonable care or caution is termed A assault B battery C negligence D fraud
C negligence
When a lead apron is worn during a procedure, the personnel dosimeter should be placed A under the lead apron at collar level B outside of the exam room C outside of the apron at collar level D at waist level
C outside of the apron at collar level
For a lateral projection of the cervical spine, the MSP and the IR should be A perpendicular B at a right angle C parallel D horizontal (axial)
C parallel
The radiographer's principal source of exposure to scattered radiation is A x-ray tube leakage. B failure to use the control booth. C the patient. D exposure to the useful beam.
C the patient.
The most important way to reduce involuntary motion is A expediting the exam. B good communication. C using the shortest possible exposure time. D using immobilization devices/restraints.
C using the shortest possible exposure time
The presence of ionizing radiation may be detected in which of the following ways? 1. Ionizing effect on air 2. Physiologic effect on living tissue 3. Fluorescent effect on certain phosphors A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is (are) features of fluoroscopic equipment designed especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to patient and/or personnel? 1. Protective curtain 2. Filtration 3. Collimation A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
During intravenous injection, the needle should form what angle with the arm? A 90° B 75° C 45° D 15°
D 15°
How much total filtration is required for equipment operating above 70 kV? A 0.25 mm aluminum equivalent B 25 mm aluminum equivalent C 250 mm aluminum equivalent D 2.5 mm aluminum equivalent
D 2.5 mm aluminum equivalent
What type of radiation mainly causes indirect damage to biologic tissues? 1. High-LET 2. Alpha particles 3. Gamma rays 4. Low-LET A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 3 only D 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only
What is the LD 50/30 for adult humans? A 1 Gy B 2.5 Gy C 3 Gy D 3 to 4 Gy
D 3 to 4 Gy
Mediolateral "frog-leg" projections of the hip require femur abduction of how many degrees? A 15-20 B 25-30 C 35-40 D 40-45
D 40-45
To visualize the proximal tibiofibular articulation, the AP knee should be obliqued how many degrees medially? A 30° B 35° C 40° D 45°
D 45°
The NCRP-recommended annual dose limit for the thyroid is A 5 mSv B 50 mSv C 150 mSv D 500 mSV
D 500 mSV
The NCRP-recommended annual occupational dose limit for localized areas of the skin, hands, and feet is A 0.5 mSv B 5 mSv C 50 mSv D 500 mSv
D 500 mSv
Which of the following projections of the elbow will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition by the ulna? A Lateral projection (lateromedial) B Acute flexion projection C AP medial oblique (internal rotation) D AP lateral oblique (external rotation)
D AP lateral oblique (external rotation)
Which of the following is used to describe a discriminatory attitude toward the elderly? A Therapeutic communication B Racism C Classism D Ageism
D Ageism
Biologic effects of radiation exposure on the whole body depend on several factors including 1. Type of radiation 2. Total dose 3. Stage of cell division 4. Time interval over which dose is received A 1 and 2 only B 1, 2, and 4 only C 4 only D All of the above
D All of the above
Choosing an mA (milliamperage) station 1. Determines the current 2. Determines the number of electrons boiled off the filament 3. Determines the filament (small or large) 4. Determines the resistance A 1 and 4 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D All of the above
D All of the above
For a 12-degree angle of an anode target face 1. The heat dissipation is maintained 2. The sharper the image 3. The effective focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot 4. The anode heel effect is produced A 1 and 2 only B 3 only C 4 only D All of the above
D All of the above
In C-arm imaging, it is recommended that the image intensifier be located above the patient for A decreased OID. B increased resolution. C decreased scattered radiation. D All of the above
D All of the above
Which of the cardinal principles of radiation protection is used to decrease personnel exposure? A Increase distance from the source of radiation B Place shielding between the source and yourself C Decrease the amount of time exposed D All of the above
D All of the above
What is the term used to describe the extent/number of exposure intensities an image receptor can accurately detect? A Radiographic density B Exposure indicator C Optical density (OD) D Dynamic range
D Dynamic range
What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid? A Septic B Cardiogenic C Anaphylactic D Hypovolemic
D Hypovolemic
Vehicles of infection include which of the following? I. Contaminated water II. Food III. Blood IV. Drugs A I only B I and II C II and III D I, II, III, IV
D I, II, III, IV
Flat bones include which of the following? I. Calvarium II. Sternum III. Vertebrae IV. Ribs V. Scapulae A I, II B I, II, V C I, IV, V D I, II, IV, V
D I, II, IV, V
Flat bones include which of the following? I. Calvarium II. Sternum III. VertebraeIV. Ribs V. Scapulae A I, II B I, II, V C I, IV, V D I, II, IV, V
D I, II, IV, V
From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to impact image spatial resolution: I. focal spot size II. kVp III. OIDIV. mAs V. SID A I and III only B I, II, and III only C II, IV, and V only D I, III, and V only
D I, III, and V only
The feature(s) of digital fluoroscopy that function to reduce patient dose are I. magnification mode II. pulsed fluoroscopy III. last image hold A I only B I and II only C I and III only D II and III only
D II and III only
When viewing a lateral skull radiograph, incorrect positioning caused by rotation is evidenced by which of the following structures not being superimposed? I. mandibular rami II. orbital plates/roofs III. EAMs IV. sella turcica V. greater wings of sphenoid A I, IV, V B II, III, V C I, III, IV D II, III, IV
D II, III, IV
What specific anatomical structure is the body weight resting on when a patient is seated in an upright position? A Ischial ramus B Pubic symphysis C Obturator foramen D Ischial tuberosity
D Ischial tuberosity
In digital systems, what is the primary controlling factor influencing contrast? A kVp B mAs C Grayscale D LUT
D LUT
An AP internal rotation projection of the shoulder demonstrates what anatomical part in profile? A Glenoid cavity B Greater tubercle C Anatomic neck D Lesser tubercle
D Lesser tubercle
Which of the following terms refers to the act of urination or voiding? A Defecation B Mastication C Emesis D Micturition
D Micturition
Which is the ethical term used to describe no evil, that is, our obligation not to inflict harm? A Autonomy B Beneficence C Confidentiality D Nonmaleficence E Veracity
D Nonmaleficence
Which of the following shares a meaning with the medical term epistaxis? A Vomiting B Headache C Fainting D Nosebleed
D Nosebleed
What is the relationship of the epicondyles to the IR in a lateral projection of the humerus or elbow? A Diagonal B Parallel C Angled D Perpendicular
D Perpendicular
Select the one incorrect statement below: A If there are too few x-ray photons reaching the digital image receptor the resultant image will appear noisy/quantum mottle/graininess. B Exposure indicators (EI), expressed as S number, EI value, or lgM number depending on equipment type, indicate the acceptable range of exposure in digital imaging. C Precise/close collimation should be used with digital systems because excessive scatter causes histogram analysis errors. D Quantum mottle often occurs in CR imaging when using an IP that has not been used or erased for 48
D Quantum mottle often occurs in CR imaging when using an IP that has not been used or erased for 48
What is the name of the vertical portion of the mandible? A Body B Symphysis C Gonion D Ramus
D Ramus
Which of the following projection(s) will best demonstrate the cervicothoracic area when not well visualized on a lateral cervical spine view? A Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension cervical spine positions B Lateral thoracic spine position C Horizontal beam (trauma) lateral of the cervical spine D Swimmer's lateral position
D Swimmer's lateral position
Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A In order to produce predictable and accurate results, AECs require precise positioning and centering of CR. B The AEC device automatically terminates the exposure once the IR has received the required radiation intensity. C The x-ray tube may accurately be described as a diode. D The line focus principle refers to the difference in beam intensity between anode and cathode.
D The line focus principle refers to the difference in beam intensity between anode and cathode.
The portion of fluoroscopic equipment that functions to adjust the kVp and/or mA automatically to adjust for differences in anatomic thickness or density is known as A automatic exposure control (AEC) B anatomically programmed radiography (APR) C charge-coupled device (CCD) D automatic brightness control (ABC)
D automatic brightness control (ABC)
Microcephaly, mental retardation, and central nervous system (CNS) anomalies can all result from radiation exposure to A children B adults C DNA D embryos or fetuses
D embryos or fetuses
Radiation-induced reddening of the skin at a dose of 2 Gy is termed A epidermis B epilation C desquamation D erythema
D erythema
Arrange the following steps for opening a sterile package in their correct order: A side flaps; flap located furthest from you; flap located closest to you B flap located closest to you; side flaps; flap located furthest from you C flap located furthest from you; flap located closest to you; side flaps D flap located furthest from you; side flaps; flap located closest to you
D flap located furthest from you; side flaps; flap located closest to you
Filters used in personal radiation monitors serve to A protect the user from scattered radiation. B protect the user from leakage radiation. C decrease the ionizing properties of the radiation. D identify the type and energy of ionizing radiation.
D identify the type and energy of ionizing radiation.
Changing from non-grid to grid procedure will require a/an A increase in SID. B decrease in SID. C decrease in patient dose. D increase in patient dose.
D increase in patient dose.
The greatest enemy of record detail is A large focal spot. B part angle. C tube angle. D motion.
D motion.
Fluoroscopic and radiographic examination of the spinal cord and its meninges using positive contrast agents is termed A spinal puncture B urography C angiography D myelography
D myelography
X-rays are electrically A positive. B negative. C both positive and negative. D neutral.
D neutral.
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the A transverse processes. B vertebral arches. C laminae. D pedicles.
D pedicles.
The typical vertebral foramen is bound anteriorly by the vertebral body and posteriorly by the A spinous process B transverse processes C laminae D vertebral arch
D vertebral arch
Eye contact, facial expression, personal appearance, touch, etc are all examples of what type of communication. A Verbal/oral B Written C Nonverbal D Intuitive
c. nonverbal
