Reproductive

A nurse is asked what can cause liver cirrhosis. What is the nurse's best response? Common causes of liver cirrhosis are hepatitis C and: A. Alcoholism. B. Cocaine abuse. C. Overdose of antibiotic medications. D. Liver cancer.

A. Alcoholism. High alcohol consumption causes liver injury and inflammation resulting in fibrosis and scarring of the liver.

A patient has dysmenorrhea and the primary care provider prescribes a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. When should the nurse advise the patient to take this drug? A. At or before the onset of menses B. At or after the onset of menses C. On the last day of menses D. During the middle of menses

A. At or before the onset of menses Management of dysmenorrhea is usually successful with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (which block prostaglandin production), but these medications must be started at, or even before, the onset of menses.

The nurse is assessing a patient with bladder cancer. Which of the following is a typical finding for patients with bladder cancer? A. Hematuria B. Renal calculi C. Jaundice D. Fever

A. Hematuria Hematuria is the archetypal clinical manifestation of bladder cancer.

Which information should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis? Tissue damage in acute pancreatitis is caused by: A. Leakage of pancreatic enzymes into pancreatic tissue. B. Hydrochloric acid reflux into the pancreatic duct. C. Autoimmune destruction of the pancreas. D. Insulin toxicity.

A. Leakage of pancreatic enzymes into pancreatic tissue. Tissue damage in acute pancreatitis is caused by leakage of pancreatic enzymes into pancreatic tissue and the resulting autodigestion of the gland.

The nurse is assessing the patient for overactive bladder syndrome. Which of the following will help confirm the diagnosis? A. Nocturia B. Dysuria C. Proteinuria D. Hematuria

A. Nocturia Overactive bladder is characterized by urinary urgency, frequency and nocturia with or without incontinence.

The most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer is: A. Older age. B. Smoking. C. Low-fat diet. D. Urethral stricture.

A. Older age. By age 85, 1 in 6 American men will develop prostate cancer and about 3% will die from it.

A patient has a cystocele. What other condition should the nurse assess for in this patient? A. Stress incontinence B. Significant problems defecating C. The descent of the rectum into the vaginal canal D. Infertility

A. Stress incontinence A cystocele occurs when the bladder descends into the anterior aspect of the vaginal canal and usually results in bladder control problems such as stress incontinence.

The nurse is assessing patients for the development of acute pyelonephritis. Which factor places the patient at highest risk of developing acute pyelonephritis? A. Urinary obstruction B. Diabetes C. Respiratory disease D. Glomerulonephritis

A. Urinary obstruction Urinary obstruction and reflux of urine from the bladder are the most common underlying risk factors for acute pyelonephritis.

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of ascites and portal hypertension. Which information should the nurse include? Portal hypertension leads to ascites because: A. Hepatosplenomegaly develops. B. Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs. C. Esophageal varices form in the lower esophagus. D. Hemorrhoids can bleed.

B. Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs. In portal hypertension, the back-up of blood in the abdominal (mesenteric) veins causes an increase in capillary hydrostatic pressures and the leakage of fluid into the peritoneal cavity, which is called ascites.

Benign ovarian cysts are classified as: A. Subserous, submucous, or intramural. B. Follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid. C. Hyperplastic, atrophic, or functional. D. Stage I, II, III or IV.

B. Follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid. Benign ovarian cysts are classified as follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, and dermoid.

The patient has been diagnosed with an upper urinary tract infection. Which of the following consequences does the nurse assess for? A. Renal stone formation. B. Hydronephrosis C. Dilation of the urethra. D. Nephrolithiases

B. Hydronephrosis Dilation of the urinary tract occurs proximal to the obstruction. In this case the proximal renal pelvis and kidney would enlarge, causing a condition known as hydronephrosis.

A patient has a dilated ureter from an obstructed upper urinary tract. Which term will the nurse use to describe this condition? A. Hydronephrosis B. Hydroureter C. Ureterohydronephrosis D. Ureterduct

B. Hydroureter Dilation of the ureter is referred to as hydroureter (accumulation of urine in the ureter).

What complication will the nurse monitor for in a patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome? A. Hair loss B. Infertility C. Hypotension D. Extreme weight loss

B. Infertility Polycystic ovarian syndrome results in stimulation of follicle growth without ovulation and generally leads to infertility.

A patient has chronic pyelonephritis. What would the nurse expect to see in this patient? A. Bladder infection B. Kidney scarring C. Ureter dilation D. Uretheral blockage

B. Kidney scarring Chronic pyelonephritis is a persistent or recurrent infection of the kidney leading to scarring of one or both kidneys.

The patient is diagnosed with kidney stones. The nurse practitioner recommends using ultrasound waves to break large renal calculi into smaller stones that can be passed through the urinary tract. Which procedure is the nurse practitioner discussing? A. Pyelography B. Lithotripsy C. Renal biopsy D. Enterocystoplasty

B. Lithotripsy Lithotripsy is a noninvasive way to treat kidney stones with ultrasound waves.

The patient is curious about some of the causes of lower urinary tract obstruction. The nurse explains that obstruction of the lower urinary tract in males is often caused by: A. Congenital stricture of a calyx. B. Prostate enlargement. C. Pelvic organ prolapse. D. Urinary tract infection.

B. Prostate enlargement. Prostate enlargement from benign prostatic hypertrophy or prostate cancer obstructs the male urethra as it passes through the gland.

A characteristic of ulcerative colitis is: A. The disease has "skip" lesions. B. The disease begins in the rectum and may advance back through the colon in a continuous manner. C. It has a cobblestone appearance that increases the risk for colon cancer. D. It has a beginning in the small intestines and advances to the large intestines.

B. The disease begins in the rectum and may advance back through the colon in a continuous manner. Ulcerative colitis begins in the rectum and advances up through the colon in a continuous manner and does not "skip" parts of the mucosa.

A patient has a small bowel obstruction. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess for in this patient? A. Nausea, dyspnea, and mid-back pain B. Vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, and abdominal distension C. Diarrhea, pelvic pain, and dysuria D. Fever, heartburn, and mouth ulcers

B. Vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, and abdominal distension Crampy/colicky pains followed by vomiting and distention are the cardinal symptoms of small bowel obstruction.

The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is: A. Narcotic addiction. B. Gall stones. C. Alcohol abuse. D. Diabetes mellitus.

C. Alcohol abuse. Chronic pancreatitis is most often associated with chronic alcohol abuse.

Symptoms of prostate cancer are similar to: A. Urinary tract infection. B. Epididymitis. C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia. D. Prostatitis.

C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia. The major symptom of prostate cancer is unrelieved urethral obstruction and decreased urinary flow. These problems also occur with BPH.

A patient has galactorrhea. Which area is the priority during patient assessment? A. Prostate B. Ovary C. Breast D. Cervix

C. Breast Galactorrhea is marked by inappropriate lactation from the breast.

Which cancer is the nurse testing for when the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for routine screening? A. Ovarian B. Endometrial C. Cervical D. Testicular

C. Cervical The Pap smear is routinely used to screen for cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer.

Which of the following disorders is most commonly associated with bright red blood in the stools? A. Mallory-Weiss tear B. Peptic ulcers C. Colorectal cancer D. Hernia

C. Colorectal cancer Colorectal cancer is a common cause of lower gastrointestinal bleeding.

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of duodenal ulcers. Which information should the nurse include? A. Chronic inflammation inhibits the proton pumps in the gastric lining to decreased acid levels. B. The presence of bacteria in the stomach causes the pyloric sphincter to open slowly. C. H. pylori

C. H. pylori H. pylori releases toxins and enzymes that promote inflammation.

Which of the following dietary nutrients should be restricted when the patient has renal failure/ chronic kidney disease? A. Fats B. Carbohydrates C. Protein D. Fiber

C. Protein Protein restriction is necessary to avoid excessive uremia caused by metabolism of amino acids. Adequate caloric intake is necessary, and there is no reason to restrict carbohydrates or fats in the diet.

A patient has a suspected urinary tract infection. Which laboratory test is it most important for the nurse to obtain? A. Arterial blood gas B. 24-hour urine collection C. Urine culture D. Hemoglobin level

C. Urine culture Infections are diagnosed by urine culture of specific microorganisms with counts of 10,000/ml or more from freshly voided urine.

A patient newly diagnosed with reflux esophagitis asks the nurse what this disease is. The nurse should identify that reflux esophagitis is defined as: A. The autoimmune destruction of the esophageal lining. B. Dysplasia of the epithelial lining of the esophagus. C. A congenital anomaly of the esophagus. D. An inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux.

D. An inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux. Reflux esophagitis is an inflammatory response to the mucosal injury from acid and enzymes that occur with gastroesophageal reflux.

A patient has vaginal cancer. While the nurse is obtaining the history from the patient, the nurse will find that the patient was most likely exposed to: A. Tamoxifen. B. Tylenol. C. Ibuprofen. D. DES.

D. DES.Exposure in utero to nonsteroidal estrogens (diethylstilbestrol [DES]) also has been identified as a risk factor for vaginal cancer.

Which complication should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic gastritis? A. Excessive intrinsic factor B. Polyachlorhydria C. Liver failure D. Gastric cancer

D. Gastric cancer Chronic damage to the stomach mucosa can cause cellular changes that lead to gastric cancer, achlorhydria, and mucosal erosions that can result in gastrointestinal bleeding.

Which intervention will the nurse incorporate in a plan of care for a patient with benign breast disease? A. Use the TNM system to stage the disease B. Administer the vaccine C. Encourage radiation D. Monitor intake of caffeine and chocolate

D. Monitor intake of caffeine and chocolate Reduction in the consumption of caffeinated beverages (e.g., cola) and chocolate is recommended for patients with benign breast disease.