RESPIRATORY TEST
A client is on a ventilator. Alarms are sounding, indicating an increase in peak airway pressure. The nurse assesses first for
A kink in the ventilator tubing Explanation: One event that could cause the ventilator's peak-airway-pressure alarm to sound is a kink in the ventilator tubing. After making this and other assessments without correction, then it could be a malfunction of the alarm button. Higher than normal endotracheal cuff pressure could cause client tissue damage but would not make the ventilator alarms sound. A cut or slice in the tubing from the ventilator would result in decreased pressure.
The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with cancer of the larynx. Which laboratory values would be assessed when determining the nutritional status of the client? Select all that apply. A. Albumin level B. Glucose level C. Protein level
A. Albumin level B. Glucose level C. Protein level The nurse also assesses the client's general state of nutrition, including height and weight and body mass index, and reviews laboratory values that assist in determining the client's nutritional status (albumin, protein, glucose, and electrolyte levels). The white blood cell count and the platelet count would not normally assist in determining the client's nutritional status.
When assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli, what finding by the nurse indicates possible deep vein thrombosis? A. Pain in the calf B. Negative Homan's sign
A. Pain in the calf When assessing the client's potential for pulmonary emboli, the client lies on his or her back and lifts his or her leg and his or her foot. If the client reports calf pain during this maneuver, he or she may have a deep vein thrombosis.
A client is being treated for a pulmonary embolism and the medical nurse is aware that the client suffered an acute disturbance in pulmonary perfusion. This involved an alteration in what aspect of normal physiology?
Adequate flow of blood through the pulmonary circulation. Explanation: Pulmonary perfusion is the actual blood flow through the pulmonary circulation. Perfusion is not defined in terms of pH balance, muscle tone, or osmotic pressure.
A client on long-term mechanical ventilation becomes very frustrated when he tries to communicate. Which intervention should the nurse perform to assist the client?
Ask the client to write, use a picture board, or spell words with an alphabet board. If the client uses an alternative method of communication, such as writing, using a picture board, or spelling words on an alphabet board, he'll feel more in control and be less frustrated. Assuring the client that everything will be all right offers false reassurance and telling him not to be upset minimizes his feelings. Neither of these methods helps the client to communicate. Family members are also likely to encounter difficulty interpreting the wishes of a client with an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube. Making them responsible for interpreting the client's gestures may frustrate them. The client may be weaned off a mechanical ventilator only when the physiologic parameters for weaning have been met.
The nurse received a client from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) who has a chest tube to a closed drainage system. Report from the PACU nurse included drainage in the chest tube at 80 mL of bloody fluid. Fifteen minutes after transfer from the PACU, the chest tube indicates drainage as pictured. The client is reporting pain at "8" on a scale of 0 to 10. The first action of the nurse is to:
Assess pulse and blood pressure. Explanation: The client has bled 120 mL of bloody drainage in the chest drainage system within 15 minutes. It is most important for the nurse to assess for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage, which may be indicated by a rapid pulse and decreasing blood pressure. The nurse may then lay the client in a flat position and notify the physician.
The nurse is preparing to suction a client with an endotracheal tube. What should be the nurse's first step in the suctioning process?
Assess the client's lung sounds and SaO2 via pulse oximeter. Explanation: Assessment data indicate the need for suctioning and allow the nurse to monitor the effect of suction on the client's level of oxygenation. Explaining the procedure, performing hand hygiene, and turning on the suction source are interventions that should follow assessment. As with all interventions, assessment should be performed first.
The nurse is to make a room assignment for a client diagnosed with an upper respiratory infection. The other clients with empty beds in the room are listed in the accompanying chart. The best room assignment for the new client would be with Client
B The nurse needs to make the appropriate room assignment based on the client's problems, safety, and risk for infection to others. The client with an upper respiratory infection may transmit infection to susceptible people. Clients A, C, and D have increased susceptibility for infection because of immunosuppression or surgery.
The health care provider has prescribed continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) with the delivery of a client's high-flow oxygen therapy. The client asks the nurse what the benefit of CPAP is. What would be the nurse's best response?
CPAP allows a lower percentage of oxygen to be used with a similar effect. Explanation: Prevention of oxygen toxicity is achieved by using oxygen only as prescribed. Often, positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) or CPAP is used with oxygen therapy to reverse or prevent microatelectasis, thus allowing a lower percentage of oxygen to be used. Oxygen is moistened by passing through a humidification system. Changing the tubing on the oxygen therapy equipment is the best technique for controlling bacterial growth.
A client is prescribed postural drainage because secretions are building in the superior segment of the lower lobes. Which is the best position to teach the client to use for postural drainage?
Certain positions with the head either up or down or lying on one side or the other will promote drainage of secretions from the smaller bronchial airways to the main bronchi and trachea. Think of the anatomy of the lungs when answering this question.
A hospitalized client with terminal heart failure is nearing the end of life. The nurse observes which of the following breathing patterns?
Cheyne-Stokes breathing is characterized by a regular cycle where the rate and depth of breathing increase, then decrease until apnea occurs. The duration of apnea varies but progresses in length. This breathing pattern is associated with heart failure, damage to the respiratory center in the brain, or both.
The nurse is assessing a patient in respiratory failure. What finding is a late indicator of hypoxia?
Cyanosis Cyanosis, a bluish coloring of the skin, is a very late indicator of hypoxia. The presence or absence of cyanosis is determined by the amount of unoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood. Cyanosis appears when there is at least 5 g/dL of unoxygenated hemoglobin.
Which ventilation-perfusion ratio is exhibited in a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus?
Dead space A dead space exists when ventilation exceeds perfusion (high ventilation-perfusion ratios). An example of a dead space is a pulmonary embolus, pulmonary infarction, and cardiogenic shock. A low ventilation-perfusion ratio exists in pneumonia or with a mucus plug. A silent unit occurs in pneumothorax or acute respiratory distress syndrome.
A patient is being educated in the use of incentive spirometry prior to having a surgical procedure. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?
Encourage the patient to take approximately 10 breaths per hour, while awake. Explanation: The patient should be instructed to perform the procedure approximately 10 times in succession, repeating the 10 breaths with the spirometer each hour during waking hours. The patient should assume a semi-Fowler's position or an upright position before initiating therapy, not be supine. Coughing during and after each session is encouraged, not discouraged. The patient should Splint the incision when coughing postoperatively. The patient should still use the spirometer when in pain.
The nurse is assisting a client with postural drainage. Which of the following demonstrates correct implementation of this technique?
Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. Explanation: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times daily, before meals (to prevent nausea, vomiting, and aspiration) and at bedtime. Prescribed bronchodilators, water, or saline may be nebulized and inhaled before postural drainage to dilate the bronchioles, reduce bronchospasm, decrease the thickness of mucus and sputum, and combat edema of the bronchial walls. The nurse instructs the client to remain in each position for 10 to 15 minutes and to breathe in slowly through the nose and out slowly through pursed lips to help keep the airways open so that secretions can drain while in each position. If the sputum is foul-smelling, it is important to perform postural drainage in a room away from other patients or family members. (Deodorizers may be used to counteract the odor. Because aerosol sprays can cause bronchospasm and irritation, they should be used sparingly and with caution.)
The nurse is explaining the safe and effective administration of nasal spray to a client with seasonal allergies. What information is most important to include in this teaching?
Overuse of nasal spray may cause rebound congestion. Explanation: The use of topical decongestants is controversial because of the potential for a rebound effect. The client should hold his or her head back for maximal distribution of the spray. Only the client should use the bottle.
A client admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle crash has suffered a flail chest. The nurse assesses the client for what most common clinical manifestation of flail chest?
Paradoxical chest movement Explanation: During inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner (pendelluft movement) in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. Upon expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the client's ability to exhale. The mediastinum then shifts back to the affected side. This paradoxical action results in increased dead space, a reduction in alveolar ventilation, and decreased compliance.
A client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important?
Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) Explanation: The most significant and direct indicator of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy is the PaO2 value. Based on the PaO2 value, the nurse may adjust the type of oxygen delivery (cannula, Venturi mask, or mechanical ventilator), flow rate, and oxygen percentage. The other options reflect the client's ventilation status, not oxygenation. The pH, HCO3-, and PaCO2
Which of the following is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2)?
Pulse oximetry Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring SaO2. Measurements of blood pH of arterial oxygen and carbon dioxide tensions are obtained when managing patients with respiratory problems and adjusting oxygen therapy as needed. This is an invasive procedure. Pulmonary function testing assesses respiratory function and determines the extent of dysfunction. Sputum studies are done to identify if any pathogenic organisms or malignant cells are in the sputum.
The nurse is teaching the client in respiratory distress ways to prolong exhalation to improve respiratory status. The nurse tells the client to
Purse the lips when exhaling air from the lungs. To prolong exhalation, the client may perform breathing while sitting in a chair or walking. The client is to inhale through the nose and then exhale against pursed lips. There is no holding the breath.
A nurse is educating a client in anticipation of a procedure that will require a water-sealed chest drainage system. What should the nurse tell the client and the family that this drainage system is used for?
Removing excess air and fluid Explanation: Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. They are not used to maintain positive chest-wall pressure, monitor pleural fluid, or provide positive intrathoracic pressure.
The critical care nurse and the other members of the care team are assessing the client to see if he is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. What are the most important predictors of successful weaning that the nurse should identify?
Stable vital signs and ABGs Among many other predictors, stable vital signs and ABGs are important predictors of successful weaning. Pulse oximetry must greatly exceed 80%. Nutritional status is important, but vital signs and ABGs are even more significant. Clients who are weaned may or may not have full level of consciousness.
A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation. When the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, what should the nurse do?
Suction the client's artificial airway. Explanation: A high-pressure alarm on a continuous mechanical ventilator indicates an obstruction in the flow of gas from the machine to the client. The nurse should suction the client's artificial airway to remove respiratory secretions that could be causing the obstruction. The sounding of a ventilator alarm has no relationship to the apical pulse. Increasing the oxygen percentage and ventilating with a handheld mechanical ventilator wouldn't correct the airflow blockage.
The nurse is assisting a physician with an endotracheal intubation for a client in respiratory failure. It is most important for the nurse to assess for:
Symmetry of the client's chest expansion Explanation: Immediately after intubation, the nurse should check for symmetry of chest expansion. This is one finding that indicates successful endotracheal placement. The tracheal cuff pressure is set between 15 and 20 mm Hg. Routine deflation of the tracheal cuff is not recommended, because the client could then aspirate secretions during the period of deflation. Warm, high, humidified air is administered through the endotracheal tube.
For which reason does gas exchange decrease in older adults?
The alveolar walls contain fewer capillaries. Although the number of alveoli remains stable with age, the alveolar walls become thinner and contain fewer capillaries, resulting in decreased gas exchange. The lungs also lose elasticity and become stiffer. Elasticity of lungs does not increase with age, and the number of alveoli does not decrease with age.
A client is exhibiting signs of a pneumothorax following tracheostomy. The surgeon inserts a chest tube into the anterior chest wall. What should the nurse tell the family is the primary purpose of this chest tube?
To remove air from the pleural space Chest tubes and closed drainage systems are used to re-expand the lung involved and to remove excess air, fluid, and blood. The primary purpose of a chest tube is not to drain sputum secretions, monitor bleeding, or assist with mechanical ventilation.
After lobectomy for lung cancer, a client receives a chest tube connected to a disposable chest drainage system. The nurse observes that the drainage system is functioning correctly when she notes tidal movements or fluctuations in which compartment of the system as the client breathes?
Water-seal chamber Fluctuations in the water-seal compartment are called tidal movements and indicate normal function of the system as the pressure in the tubing changes with the client's respirations. The air-leak meter — not chamber — detects air leaking from the pleural space. The collection chamber connects the chest tube from the client to the system. Drainage from the tube drains into and collects in a series of calibrated columns in this chamber. The suction control chamber provides the suction, which can be controlled to provide negative pressure to the chest.
The nurse needs to make the appropriate room assignment based on the client's problems, safety, and risk for infection to others. The client with an upper respiratory infection may transmit infection to susceptible people. Clients A, C, and D have increased susceptibility for infection because of immunosuppression or surgery.
laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer. Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer; it can be prevented by abstaining from excessive drinking and smoking. Inhaling noxious fumes, such as in polluted air, is a risk factor for laryngeal cancer. Roughly 80% of laryngeal cancer cases occur in men. Squamous cell carcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer.
The nurse is interpreting blood gases for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which set of blood gas values indicates respiratory acidosis?
pH 7.25, PaCO2 48, HCO3 24 pH less than 7.35, PaCO2 48, HCO3 24 indicate respiratory acidosis; pH 7.87, PaCO2 38, HCO3 28 indicate metabolic alkalosis; pH 7.47, PaCO2 28, HCO3 30 indicate respiratory alkalosis; and pH 7.49, PaCO2 34, HCO3 25 indicate respiratory alkalosis.
A physician stated to the nurse that the client has fluid in the pleural space and will need a thoracentesis. The nurse expects the physician to document this fluid as
pleural effusion. Fluid accumulating within the pleural space is called a pleural effusion. A pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. A hemothorax is blood within the pleural space. Consolidation is lung tissue that has become more solid in nature as a result of the collapse of alveoli or an infectious process.
The nurse is planning the care for a client at risk of developing pulmonary embolism. What nursing interventions should be included in the care plan? Select all that apply. A. Instructing the client to move the legs in a "pumping" exercise B. Applying a sequential compression device C. Using elastic stockings, especially when decreased mobility would promote venous stasis D. Encouraging a liberal fluid intake
A. Instructing the client to move the legs in a "pumping" exercise B. Applying a sequential compression device C. Using elastic stockings, especially when decreased mobility would promote venous stasis D. Encouraging a liberal fluid intake The use of anti-embolism stockings or intermittent pneumatic leg compression devices reduces venous stasis. These measures compress the superficial veins and increase the velocity of blood in the deep veins by redirecting the blood through the deep veins. Having the client move the legs in a "pumping" exercise helps increase venous flow. Legs should not be dangled or feet placed in a dependent position while the client sits on the edge of the bed; instead, feet should rest on the floor or on a chair.
A client involved in a motor vehicle crash suffered a blunt injury to the chest wall and was brought to the emergency department. The nurse assesses the client for which clinical manifestation that would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax? A. sucking sound at the site of injury B. Diminished breath sounds
A. sucking sound at the site of injury Open pneumothorax is one form of traumatic pneumothorax. It occurs when a wound in the chest wall is large enough to allow air to pass freely in and out of the thoracic cavity with each attempted respiration. Because the rush of air through the wound in the chest wall produces a sucking sound, such injuries are termed "sucking chest wounds."
Constant bubbling in the water seal of a chest drainage system indicates which problem?
Air leak The nurse needs to observe for air leaks in the drainage system; they are indicated by constant bubbling in the water seal chamber, or by the air leak indicator in dry systems with a one-way valve. Tidaling is fluctuation of the water level in the water seal that shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent.
The acute medical nurse is preparing to wean a client from the ventilator. Which assessment parameter is most important for the nurse to assess?
Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels Explanation: Before weaning a client from mechanical ventilation, it is most important to have baseline ABG levels. During the weaning process, ABG levels will be checked to assess how the client is tolerating the procedure. Other assessment parameters are relevant, but less critical. Measuring fluid volume intake and output is always important when a client is being mechanically ventilated. Prior attempts at weaning and ECG results are documented on the client's record, and the nurse can refer to them before the weaning process begins.
The nurse is caring for an adolescent client injured in a snowboarding accident. The client has a head injury, a fractured right rib, and various abrasions and contusions. The client has a blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg, pulse of 102 beats/minute, and respirations of 26 breaths/minute. Which laboratory test best provides data on a potential impairment in ventilation?
Blood gases Explanation: Blood gases report the partial pressure of oxygen, which is dissolved in the blood. Normal readings are 80 to 100 mm Hg. By documenting oxygen levels in the blood, the nurse recognizes the current ventilation. The complete blood count provides information regarding number of blood cells, which can relate to the disease processes such as anemia and infection. The blood chemistry provides information on liver/renal function and electrolytes within the system. Serum alkaline phosphate is a laboratory test used to help detect liver disease and bone disorders.
For a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system, the nurse should include which action in the care plan?
Measuring and documenting the drainage in the collection chamber Explanation: The nurse should regularly measure and document the amount of chest tube drainage to detect abnormal drainage patterns, such as may occur with a hemorrhage (if excessive) or a blockage (if decreased). Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates a leak in the closed chest drainage system, which must be corrected. The nurse should keep the collection chamber below chest level to allow fluids to drain into it. The nurse shouldn't strip chest tubes because doing so may traumatize the tissue or dislodge the tube.
A client has been diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension, in which the capillaries in the alveoli are squeezed excessively. The nurse should recognize a disturbance in what aspect of normal respiratory function? A. Diffusion B. Perfusion
Perfusion Explanation: Perfusion is influenced by alveolar pressure. The pulmonary capillaries are sandwiched between adjacent alveoli and, if the alveolar pressure is sufficiently high, the capillaries are squeezed. This does not constitute a disturbance in ventilation (air movement), diffusion (gas exchange), or acid-base balance.
The nurse caring for a client with an endotracheal tube recognizes several disadvantages of an endotracheal tube. What would the nurse recognize as a disadvantage of endotracheal tubes?
The cough reflex is depressed. Explanation: There are several disadvantages of an endotracheal tube. Disadvantages include suppression of the client's cough reflex, thickening of secretions, and depressed swallowing reflexes. Ulceration and stricture of the larynx or trachea may develop, but bleeding is not an expected finding. The tube should not influence cognition and daily ABGs are not always required.
While assessing the client, the nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the client's closed chest-drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?
The system has an air leak. Explanation: Constant bubbling in the chamber often indicates an air leak and requires immediate assessment and intervention. The client with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the nurse should notice that the fluid has stopped fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.
Perfusion refers to blood supply to the lungs, through which the lungs receive nutrients and oxygen. What are the two methods of perfusion?
The two methods of perfusion are the bronchial and pulmonary circulation. Explanation: The two methods of perfusion are the bronchial and pulmonary circulation. There is no alveolar circulation. Capillaries are the vessels that performs the perfusion regardless of which area of the lung they are in.
A client in acute respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department. After endotracheal (ET) intubation and initiation of mechanical ventilation, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit. Before suctioning the ET tube, the nurse hyperventilates and hyperoxygenates the client. What is the rationale for these interventions?
They help prevent cardiac arrhythmias. ET suctioning removes oxygen, lowering the partial pressure of arterial oxygen; this, in turn, may induce a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperventilating and hyperoxygenating the client before and during (or after) suctioning helps prevent this complication. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air from the pleural cavity leaks into subcutaneous tissue; it isn't a complication associated with suctioning. Hyperventilation and hyperoxygenation can't prevent a pneumothorax because this condition itself indicates air in the pleural space. Pulmonary edema is associated with cardiac dysfunction, not ET suctioning.
A nurse is caring for a client who was intubated because of respiratory failure. The client is now receiving mechanical ventilation with a preset tidal volume and number of breaths each minute. The client has the ability to breathe spontaneously between the ventilator breaths with no ventilator assistance. The nurse should document the ventilator setting as:
synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) In SIMV mode, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume. The client can breathe on his own in between the breaths delivered by the ventilator. In PSV, a pressure plateau is added to the ventilator to prevent the airway pressure from falling beneath a preset level. In AC ventilation, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume and any breaths that the client takes on his own are assisted by the ventilator so they reach the preset tidal volume. In CPAP, the ventilator provides only positive airway pressure; it doesn't provide any breaths to the client.
A client suspected of developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is experiencing anxiety and agitation due to increasing hypoxemia and dyspnea. A nurse would implement which intervention to improve oxygenation and provide comfort for the client? A. Assist the client into a chair B. Position the client in the prone position
B. Position the client in the prone position The patient is extremely anxious and agitated because of the increasing hypoxemia and dyspnea. It is important to reduce the patient's anxiety because anxiety increases oxygen expenditure. Oxygenation in patients with ARDS is sometimes improved in the prone position. Rest is essential to limit oxygen consumption and reduce oxygen needs.
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) therapy has which effect on the heart? A. Bradycardia B. Reduced cardiac output
B. Reduced cardiac output Explanation: PEEP reduces cardiac output by increasing intrathoracic pressure and reducing the amount of blood delivered to the left side of the heart. It doesn't affect heart rate, but a decrease in cardiac output may reduce blood pressure, commonly causing compensatory tachycardia, not bradycardia. However, the resulting tachycardia isn't a direct ef
The nurse is caring for a client who is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. In preparing to assist in the collaborative process of weaning, the nurse should anticipate that the weaning of the client will progress in what order? A. Removal from oxygen, ventilator, and then tube B. Removal from the ventilator, tube, and then oxygen
B. Removal from the ventilator, tube, and then oxygen Explanation: The process of withdrawing the client from dependence on the ventilator takes place in three stages: the client is gradually removed from the ventilator, then from the tube, and, finally, oxygen.
A nurse is wroking with a client being extubated from the ventilator. Before weaning a client from a ventilator, which assessment parameter is the most important for the nurse to obtain?
Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels Before weaning the client from mechanical ventilation, it's most important to have baseline ABG levels. During the weaning process, ABG levels will be checked to assess how the client is tolerating the procedure. Other assessment parameters are less critical. Measuring fluid volume intake and output is always important when a client is being mechanically ventilated. Anemic hypoxia is an issue but would not be most important before weaning ECG results are documented on the client's record, and the nurse can refer to them before the weaning process
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client correctly mentions which early sign of exacerbation?
Shortness of breath Early signs and symptoms of pulmonary sarcoidosis may include dyspnea, cough, hemoptysis, and congestion. Generalized symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and weight loss.
Most cases of acute pharyngitis are caused by which of the following?
Viral infection Explanation: Most cases of acute pharyngitis are caused by viral infection. Responsible viruses include the adenovirus, influenza virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and herpes simplex virus.
When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for how long?
10 to 15 seconds Explanation: In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10 to 15 seconds. Applying suction for 20-25 or 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the development of hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest. Applying suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.
The nurse is an occupational health nurse who is presenting a workshop on laryngeal cancer. What risk factors would the nurse be sure to include in the workshop? Select all that apply. A. industrial pollutants B. alcohol C. tobacco
A. industrial pollutants B. alcohol C. tobacco Carcinogens, such as tobacco, alcohol, and industrial pollutants, are associated with laryngeal cancer.