Ruminant
E - bluetongue
16) Which reportable condition can affect cattle, but mainly causes disease in sheep? A - Anthrax B - Rinderpest C - Vesicular stomatitis D - Malignant Catarrhal fever E - Bluetongue
A - histopath of the obex
20) Which one of the following choices is the best post-mortem diagnostic test for scrapie in sheep? A - Histopathology of the obex B - IFA test on whole blood C - ELISA antibody test on serum D - Immunohistochemistry of the third eyelid E - Skin biopsy of scraped area
A - choanal atresia
28) A 3-day old female alpaca (cria) is presented in respiratory distress. The cria's cheeks flare noticeably during inspiration, and the distress is more pronounced during nursing, when the animal gasps and inhales milk. What is the most likely diagnosis? A - Choanal atresia B - Wry face C - Diaphragmatic hernia D - Lung lob torsion E - Mitral stenosis
E - topical .25% crotoxyfos spray
29) On a cold February day in the Northeastern U.S., the cow shown below is examined for pruritus and crusts around the perineum. A skin scrape shows some kind of mite with long legs and short unsegmented pedicles. What should be done next? A - Topical furazolidone B - Amitraz SQ C - Quarantine animal D - Slaughter E - Topical 0.25% crotoxyfos spray
C - 70-75 days
31) What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably feel placentomes rectally in the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow? A - 40-55 days B - 30-35 days C - 70-75 days D - 80-85 days E - 90-120 days
A - babesiosis
32) The following image is seen on a blood smear from a range cow from south Texas near the Mexican border. The cow has 2 day history of high fever, anorexia, depression and "Redwater" (red urine-hemoglobinuria) What is the diagnosis? A - Babesiosis B - Bacillary Hemoglobinuria C - Leptospirosis D - Anaplasmosis E - Trypanosomiasis
A - normal finding
33) During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are noted. What is the most likely explanation? A - Normal finding B - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis C - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month D - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum E - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
D - coxiella burnetii
34) Which organism determines the minimum temperature needed to pasteurize milk in the United States? A - Mycobacterium bovis B - Listeria monocytogenes C - Brucella abortus D - Coxiella burnetii E - Escherichia coli
B - 30-35 days
35) At what day post breeding (the earliest) can an experienced practitioner feel the fetal membrane slip of the chorioallantoic membrane of a cow? A - 20-25 days B - 30-35 days C - 40-45 days D - 10-15 days E - 45-50 days
A - long-acting oxytetracycline for entire herd
36) Which one of the following choices would be the best method for controlling anaplasmosis in adult cattle in the United States? A - Long-acting oxytetracycline for entire herd B - Vaccination with a modified live vaccine C - Serotest and cull affected cows D - Spray pastures with carbaryl insecticide E - Imidocarb prophylaxis
D - high mountain disease
7) An 18 month old steer is presented that is just down from summer pasture in the mountains of Colorado with brisket edema, slight dyspnea and distended jugular veins. What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list? A - Hardware disease B - Cardiac lymphosarcoma C - White muscle disease D - High Mountain disease E - Cor pulmonale
D - staphylococcus aureus
8) The udder of a goat is cold and bluish, with pitting edema and serous bloody discharge. The animal is down and shocky and appears to have gangrenous mastitis. Which organism is usually associated with cases of severe clinical mastitis in goats and sheep? A - Streptococcus agalactiae B - Escherichia coli C - Pseudomonas aeruginosa D - Staphylococcus aureus E - Arcanobacterium (Actinomyces) pyogenes
B - anaplasmosis
A number of older cows in a Texas herd are losing condition rapidly with a corresponding drop in milk production. Two pregnant animals have aborted. Affected animals are off feed, uncoordinated and out of breath after exertion. On physical exam, affected cows have a rapid bounding pulse and pale mucous membranes. One animal appears icteric with a temperature of 105°F (40.6°C). A blood smear looks like this: What is the most likely diagnosis? A - Eperythrozoon spp. B - Anaplasmosis C - Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae D - Theileriosis E - Babesia bigemina
A - high sulfur diet
13) This cow was found recumbent and blind, with dorsomedial strabismus, in tonic-clonic seizures that led to coma and death. On necropsy, lesions shown below light up under ultraviolet light. What caused this problem? A - High sulfur diet B - Rabies C - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy D - Urea toxicity E - Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME)
A - moraxella bovis
14) This is a corneal abscess secondary to infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye). What is the most commonly recognized organism that causes pinkeye in cows? A - Moraxella bovis B - Chlamydophila pecorum C - Mycoplasma spp. D - Colesiota conjunctivae E - Neisseria spp.
D - 3.5-4 years
At what age do a cow's permanent canine teeth begin to erupt? A - Cows don't have canines B - 2 to 2.5 years C - 3 years D - 3.5 to 4 years E - 5-6 years
C - 30-35 days
At what day post breeding (the earliest) can an experienced practitioner feel the fetal membrane slip of the chorioallantoic membrane of a cow? A - 20-25 days B - 40-45 days C - 30-35 days D - 10-15 days E - 45-50 days
C - metabolic alkalosis
What acid-base abnormality would be most likely in a dairy cow with a displaced abomasum? A - Depends on severity of displacement B - Metabolic acidosis C - Metabolic alkalosis D - Respiratory alkalosis E - Respiratory acidosis
C - dexamethasone
Which choice is permitted for use in food animals? A - Diethylstilbesterol B - Chloramphenicol C - Dexamethasone D - Estradiol cypionate E - Furazolidone
E - 90-120 days
What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably feel fremitus rectally in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow? A - 60-75 days B - 45-60 days C - 70-80 days D - 120-150 days E - 90 -120 days
D - 90-120 days
What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably feel fremitus rectally in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow? A - 120-150 days B - 45-60 days C - 60-75 days D - 90 -120 days E - 70-80 days
C - IV fluids, NSAIDS, frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic
1) Two calves aged 8 weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak. They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood. One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all. They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6 F (40.7 - 40.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5F], respectively. Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan? A - Immunize well and sick calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine, ABX for sick calves B - NSAIDS, ABX in feed & water C - IV Fluids, NSAIDS, Frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic D - Cull sick calves, Disinfect feeding areas, Prophylactic ABX and NSAIDs for well E - Isolate sick calves, Immunize, tx with ABX, cull those that do not respond to treatment
C - white muscle disease, enterotoemia, colibacillosis
17) Which three diseases are on the differential diagnosis list when encountering sudden death in a young, fast-growing calf? A - Lasalocid toxicity, Salmonellosis, Lymphosarcoma-juvenile form B - Salmonellosis, Colibacillosis, Enzootic Calf Pneumonia C - White muscle disease, Enterotoxemia, Colibacillosis D - Bovine Viral Diarrhea, Lasalocid toxicity, White muscle disease E - Winter dysentery, Enterotoxemia, IBR-encephalitic form
C - white muscle disease, enterotoxemia, colibacillosis
2) Which three diseases are on the differential diagnosis list when encountering sudden death in a young, fast-growing calf? A - Lasalocid toxicity, Salmonellosis, Lymphosarcoma-juvenile form B - Salmonellosis, Colibacillosis, Enzootic Calf Pneumonia C - White muscle disease, Enterotoxemia, Colibacillosis D - Bovine Viral Diarrhea, Lasalocid toxicity, White muscle disease E - Winter dysentery, Enterotoxemia, IBR-encephalitic form
B - systemic oxytetracycline, subconjunctival penicillin
21) A 2 year-old Hereford cow is presented with a 1-week history of blepharospasm, lacrimation and corneal opacity. There is a large central corneal abscess secondary to suspected infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye). What is an appropriate treatment plan? A - Subconjunctival oxytetracycline, Topical polymyxin B ointment B - Systemic oxytetracyline, Subconjunctival penicillin C - Systemic long-acting penicillin-gentamicin D - Systemic Florfenicol, Topical erythromycin ointment E - Systemic Sulfamethazine, Topical atropine ointment
A - grazing tall fescue
22) What is one cause of abdominal fat necrosis (lipomatosis) in cattle? A - Grazing tall fescue B - Chronic excess protein in ration C - Fatty liver disease D - Aflatoxicosis E - Pregnancy toxemia
A - palpate over the lumbar vertebrae
23) What is the best way to evaluate the body condition of an adult llama? A - Palpate over the lumbar vertebrae B - Feel the intercostal spaces C - Digital exam of the supraorbital fossa D - Rectal exam to evaluate pelvic fat E - Weight X height at withers X 0.28
A - cull
24) This heifer has walked with an increasingly stiff and extended hock and stifle since 2 months of age. The gastrocnemius muscle is contracted, and the animal walks with short pendulum-like steps. What advice should be given to the owner? A - Cull B - Vitamin E supplements C - Radial neurectomy D - Quadriceps tenotomy E - Deep bedding, pectineus tenotomy
A - anesthesia distal to tourniquet
25) A tourniquet was placed at mid cannon bone on this cow's leg. Lidocaine is being injected in the dorsal pedal vein. What is expected to happen? A - Anesthesia distal to tourniquet B - Bradycardia with gradual tourniquet removal C - Anesthesia only from mid-pastern to the toe D - Cessation of atrial fibrillation after tourniquet removal E - Anesthesia only of skin in the region of the injection
B - copper deficiency
26) A 5-month old steer is presented that is unthrifty-looking and failing to gain weight. He appears somewhat lame, has a rough, light-colored hair coat and depigmented hair around his eyes like spectacles. The steer has a watery dark diarrhea full of gassy bubbles. What is the diagnosis? A - Selenium toxicity B - Copper deficiency C - Molybdenum deficiency D - Quercus (Oak) poisoning E - Magnesium deficiency
D - infectious necrotic hepatitis
27) Several sheep aged 1-2 years in a herd of 300 were observed lagging and acting depressed in late summer. This morning, two animals found in sternal recumbancy died within hours. On necropsy of one animal, the skin appears bruised and blackened due to extensive capillary rupture subcutaneously. The pericardial sac is filled with straw-colored fluid and there is excess fluid in both the thoracic and peritoneal cavities. The liver has grayish yellow, necrotic foci and flukes. What is the diagnosis? A - Tyzzer's disease B - Bacillary hemoglobinuria C - Clostridium hemolyticum D - Infectious necrotic hepatitis E - Blackleg
D - blackleg
3) Two of the best-growing 14-month old steers at a free range beef operation die suddenly. The farmer reports that one was acutely lame, trembling and prostrate for a half-day before death. The other animal died suddenly. A few other cattle are febrile and lame. On necropsy the following lesions are evident What is the diagnosis? A - Tetanus B - Bacillary hemoglobinuria C - Malignant edema D - Blackleg E - Infectious necrotic hepatitis
C - AGID
30) What is the best screening test for identifying infected animals or herds for bovine leukemia virus (leukosis)? A - Lymph node biopsy B - Western blot C - AGID D - IFA E - PCR
B - rectal palpation in 1st 42 days of pregnancy
37) Atresia coli in the calf is associated with which one of the following choices? A - Freemartins B - Rectal palpation in 1st 42 days of pregnancy C - History of ketosis/hepatic lipidosis in dam D - Oral doxycycline E - Dry matter intake over 20% during dam's peak lactation
A - congenital hypotrchosis
38) A registered Hereford cow on pasture gave birth to this calf with a very short, curly, frosted-looking pale coat and normal-appearing skin. By two weeks of age, some of the hair is falling out. Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation for its appearance? A - Congenital hypotrichosis B - Ichthyosis C - Baldy calf syndrome D - Zinc deficiency E - Normal appearance until 21 days of age
A - 5-7
39) How many cows should be in estrus each day in a pen of 122 non-pregnant heifer cows? A - 5 to 7 B - 2 to 4 C - 7 to 8 D - 9 to 11 E - 4 to 6
A - vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
40) Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation. Which one of the following choices is the most practical and effective control measure? A - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid B - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases C - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years D - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd E - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
A - herpesvirus
43) A herd of 25 Holstein heifers present with fever (104 to 106 °F, 40 to 41.1°C, N=100-102.5 F) lethargy, and purulent nasal discharge. They also have loud harsh coughs. Physical exam reveals crackles over the trachea, but not the lungs. Fibrinonecrotic plaques are randomly dispersed over the nasal and ocular mucosa, but no oral ulcers are present. Urine and feces appear normal. Several affected heifers have an arched back and are straining because of a fibrinonecrotic vaginitis. Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of this condition? A - Herpesvirus B - Togavirus C - Rhabdovirus D - Orbivirus E - Morbillivirus
E - cull this cow
5) A 5-year old Holstein cow is presented with a 2-day history of being off feed and a precipitous drop in milk production. T=103 F (39.4 C)..[N=101.5-103.5 F] HR=132 bpm........[N=55-80] RR=36 brpm.........[N=10-30] The cow stands with abducted elbows, an arched back and is reluctant to move. Physical exam shows intermandibular edema and bilateral jugular distention. A grunt is heard when pressure is applied to her xiphoid and there is a washing machine murmur (almost like splashing sounds) on both sides. There is little rumen activity. What is the recommendation for the farmer? A - Treat with high-dose penicillin/streptomycin B - Check the feed for excess monensin/lasalocid C - Test the herd for bovine leukosis D - Check the feed for cottonseed meal (gossypol) E - Cull this cow
B - 5-15%
6) What percentage of dairy cows have a retained placenta after calving? A - 1-4% B - 5-15% C - 25% D - 20-30% E - 30-40%
E - conium maculatum (poison hemlock)
A 2 year old Angus cow presents with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait. On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated. The cow's breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine. Suddenly the cow's pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure. Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs? A - Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle) B - Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage) C - Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush) D - Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine) E - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
C - salmonellosis
A 2-month old calf is presented that was found dead. The night before this calf was weak, feverish and had a mucoid brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood and a nasty odor. Necropsy reveals a pseudo-diptheritic membrane lining parts of the distal small bowel and large bowel. What is the diagnosis? A - Cryptosporidiosis B - Bovine Viral Diarrhea, mucosal form C - Salmonellosis D - Ostertagiasis E - Coccidiosis
B - Cryptosporidosis
A 2-week old calf is presented that is dehydrated and almost emaciated from weight loss. She has a 1 week history of watery, foamy diarrhea and exhibits tenesmus during examination. The calf is the only sick one in a mixed group of calves that range from 3 weeks to 2 months of age What is the diagnosis? A - Colibacillosis B - Cryptosporidiosis C - Coccidiosis D - Ostertagiasis E - Coronavirus
B - cryptosporidiosis
A 2-week old calf is presented that is dehydrated and almost emaciated from weight loss. She has a 1 week history of watery, foamy diarrhea and exhibits tenesmus during examination. The calf is the only sick one in a mixed group of calves that range from 3 weeks to 2 months of age What is the diagnosis? A - Colibacillosis B - Cryptosporidiosis C - Coccidiosis D - Ostertagiasis E - Coronavirus
D - choanal atresia
A 3-day old female alpaca (cria) is presented in respiratory distress. The cria's cheeks flare noticeably during inspiration, and the distress is more pronounced during nursing, when the animal gasps and inhales milk. What is the most likely diagnosis? A - Lung lobe torsion B - Wry face C - Diaphragmatic hernia D - Choanal atresia E - Mitral stenosis
C - treat the other calves with vitamin E/selenium
A 3-month old calf is presented for necropsy. The calf collapsed and suddenly died this morning after she escaped and was chased around the back pasture for 45 minutes by her owner. Among other things, endocardial plaques in the left ventricle of this calf's heart are discovered. What advice should be given the farmer? A - Take all the calves off ionophore-containing feed B - Start the other calves on Ceftiofur (Naxcel ®) C - Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium D - Check the mother for bovine leukosis by AGID E - Search the calf barn for sources of lead
A - fractured P3
A Holstein cow is presented with acute onset of right thoracic limb lameness. When she stands, the right limb is crossed over her left. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Fractured P3 B - Bog Spavin C - Humeroscapular luxation D - Ulnar nerve paralysis E - Radial nerve paralysis
E - Photosensitization
A Holstein cow presents with large patches of erythema and edema. There are also vesicles, scabbing and ulceration. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Contagious ecthyma B - Tick bite hypersensitivity C - Squamous cell carcinoma D - Dermatophytosis E - Photosensitization
D - photosensitization
A Holstein presents with large patches of erythema and edema. There are also vesicles, scabbing and ulceration. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Tick bite hypersensitivity B - Squamous cell carcinoma C - Dermatophytosis D - Photosensitization E - Contagious ecthyma
E - sarcoptic mange
A cow is presented with pruritus and crusts around the face, as shown in image 1. Image 2 shows the result of a skin scrape. What is the diagnosis? A - Psoroptic mange B - Trombiculidiasis C - Cutaneous onchocerciasis D - Chorioptic mange E - Sarcoptic mange
C - isolation of corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis from an aspirate
A ewe is examined because of a large swelling on the shoulder. On evaluation the swelling is fluctuant and has a draining purulent discharge. Other sheep in the herd have nonpainful subcutaneous swellings on the neck and shoulder. A few animals in the herd appear emaciated. What is the best way to confirm a presumptive diagnosis of caseous lymphadenitis? A - ELISA test for antibodies to Pasteurella multocida from a serum sample B - Fecal culture of Mycobacterium ovis C - Isolation of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis from an aspirate D - Serologic testing for phospholipase D exotoxin E - PCR for capsular antigen A1
A - pseudocowpox
A farmer presents some of his cows that have horseshoe-shaped scabs on the teats. He also has some itchy purplish-red nodules on his hand. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? Image courtesy, Nottingham Vet School. A - Pseudocowpox B - Contagious pustular dermatitis C - Contagious Ecthyma D - Papillar stomatitis E - Cowpox
D - ostertagia
A group of calves have profuse watery diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, weakness, and a rough coat. Fecal exam is negative and bloodwork reveals a hypoproteinemia. Necropsy of one of the calves shows petechia, edema, and small umbilicated nodules in the abomasum. The pH of the abomasal contents is 7. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Strongyloides B - Oesophagostomum C - Chabertia D - Ostertagia E - Cooperia
D - toxo
A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected, all stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak. On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis. Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis? A - Chlamydiosis B - Brucella C - Listeria monocytogenes D - Toxoplasma gondii E - Histophilus ovis
E - toxoplasma gondii
A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected, all stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak. On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis. Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis? A - Listeria monocytogenes B - Brucella C - Chlamydiosis D - Histophilus ovis E - Toxoplasma gondii
A - tachycardia, weak pulse slowing to bradycardia, strong pulse
A postpartum down cow is being treated for Milk fever with a slow IV of Calcium gluconate. During treatment, the heart is ausculted and pulses in the facial artery are monitored. What changes are expected as the treatment progresses? A - Tachycardia, weak pulse slowing to bradycardia, strong pulse B - Tachycardia slowing to bradycardia, pulse strength about the same C - Arrhythmia changing to steady rhythm D - Bradycardia, weak pulse, speeding up to tachycardia, strong pulse E - Bradycardia, weak pulse, changing to tachycardia, +/- arrhythmia
A - congenital hypotrichosis
A registered Hereford cow on pasture gave birth to this calf with a very short, curly, frosted-looking pale coat and normal-appearing skin. By two weeks of age, some of the hair is falling out. Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation for its appearance? A - Congenital hypotrichosis B - Ichthyosis C - Baldy calf syndrome D - Zinc deficiency E - Normal appearance until 21 days of age
C - more than 90%
Among mixed-sex twins in cows (ie: a male twin and a female twin), what % of female twins are sterile freemartins? A - 30-50% B - 10-30% C - More than 90% D - Less than 10% E - 60-80%
E - skin scraping and microsocpic exam
An alpaca is presented in poor body condition with an unkempt coat, patchy alopecia and severe pruritis and crusting of the extremities. A photo of an affected limb is shown below. What is the most appropriate diagnostic step? A - Tell Yoda you found his brother B - Test skin crusts for contagious ecthyma parapoxviruses C - Check thyroid status and bluetongue titers D - Punch biopsy E - Skin scraping and microscopic exam
A - campylobacteriosis, Tritrichomonas foetus
During a breeding soundness exam of a bull, preputial wash samples are typically cultured for which two organisms? A - Campylobacteriosis, Tritrichomonas (Trichomonas) foetus B - Chlamydophila abortus, Leptospira hardjo C - Ureaplasma diversum, Coxiella burnetii D - Brucella abortus,Mycoplasma bovis E - Toxoplasma gondii,Neosporosis
A - Normal finding
During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are noted. What is the most likely explanation? A - Normal finding B - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis C - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month D - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum E - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
A - Check the pasture for oak trees and acorns
Last Fall several malformed calves, that looked like the image below, were born on this ranch. This Spring, the owner could not deliver feed to the back pasture for 3 days. Now, 14 days later, heifers on this pasture are losing weight, off feed and lethargic. Physical exam is unremarkable except for large linear cracks extending to the dermis on muzzles of affected cows. Blood chemistry and urinalysis results from a sick cow are below Na=122 mEq/l...................[N=136-144], K=2.2 mEq/l..[N=3.6-4.9] Ca=6 mg/dl......................[N=8.4-11.0], ALT=70 u/l..[N=6.9-35] CK=150 u/l.......................[N=0-350], SDH=82 u/l..[N=4.3-15.3] Bilirubin (total)=0.6 mg/dl..[N=0-1.6], BUN=140 mg/dl..[N=10-25] Creatinine=4.0 mg/dl.........[N=0.5-2.2], Glob=4.4 g/dl..[N=3.0-3.5] Alb=2.2 g/dl......................[N=2.5-3.8] USp.G= 1.010...................[N=1.030-1.045] protein +++, blood +++, numerous granular and hyaline casts What should be done next? A - Check the pasture for oak trees and acorns B - Check the pasture for pigweed or lamb's quarter C - Analyze the ration mix for selenium/vitamin E content D - Analyze the ration mix for lysine deficiency E - Do serum titers for cytopathic bovine virus diarrhea virus
A - Mycobacterium bovis
Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to prevent transmission of one organism to people. Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products. What is the organism? A - Mycobacterium bovis B - Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7 C - Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis D - Mycobacterium tuberculosis E - Mycobacterium avium
A - bluetongue
Several sheep are sick at a petting-zoo that has cows, horses, pigs, bison and white-tailed deer. One of the deer is also affected. Affected sheep are listless and off-feed, with serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge and rectal temperatures ranging from 105-107.5°F (40.5-42°C). Physical exam shows swollen muzzles with edema and congestion of the lips, nose and face with small hemorrhages and ulcers on the mucous membranes. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue. Two affected sheep are lame. What is the diagnosis? A - Bluetongue B - Peste des petits ruminants (PPR) C - Caprine arthritis encephalitis D - Contagious ecthyma (soremouth) E - Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD)
A - vaccinate all animals with clostridium novyi toxoid
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation. Which one of the following choices is the most practical and effective control measure? A - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid B - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases C - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years D - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd E - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
D - Bovine viral diarrhea virus
The calf seen in the image below presented with ataxia, intention tremors, and hypermetria; all signs were present since birth. The second image shows a normal bovine calf brain on the left and the brain from this calf on the right. Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of the disorder in this calf? A - Organophosphate toxicity B - Copper deficiency C - Border disease D - Bovine viral diarrhea virus E - Caudal occipital malformation syndrome
B - BVDV
The calf seen in the image below presented with ataxia, intention tremors, and hypermetria; all signs were present since birth. At necropsy, a very small cerebellum was found. The second image shows a normal bovine calf brain on the left and the brain from this calf on the right. Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of the disorder in this calf? A - Border disease B - Bovine viral diarrhea virus C - Copper deficiency D - Organophosphate toxicity E - Caudal occipital malformation syndrome
D - cattle
The following lesion is typically found on the ventral midline of which animals? A - Camelids B - Sheep and goats C - Pigs D - Cattle E - Horses
E - bluetongue
The sheep seen in the images below presents with listlessness, reluctance to move, and a crusty muzzle. On examination, there is a wide reddened area just proximal to the coronary bands. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Fuzzy wool disease B - Vesicular stomatitis C - Sheeppox D - Caprine arthritis/encephalitis E - Bluetongue
E - 12-13 months
What should the target calving interval be for a cattle herd? A - 10 to 11 months B - 14 to 15 months C - 9 to 10 months D - 14 months E - 12 to 13 months
C - staphylococcus aureus
The udder of a goat is cold and bluish, with pitting edema and serous bloody discharge. The animal is down and shocky and appears to have gangrenous mastitis. Which organism is usually associated with cases of severe clinical mastitis in goats and sheep? A - Pseudomonas aeruginosa B - Arcanobacterium (Actinomyces) pyogenes C - Staphylococcus aureus D - Escherichia coli E - Streptococcus agalactiae
B - listeriosis
This 3 year old Charolais bull weighing 2100 lbs was found at pasture walking in circles. He has been fed silage enriched with 5% dried chicken litter in addition to the winter pasture. T = 104.6°F (40.3°C)..[N=101.5-103.5 F, N=37.8-39.7 C] Pulse rate = 46 beats per minute....[N=55-80 bpm] Resp. rate = 21 per minute....[N=10-30 brpm] He is depressed, anorectic and drooling, with a head tilt to right. The right ear and eyelid both droop. The bull is ataxic with predominantly right sided proprioceptive deficits. A sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) taken at the lumbosacral space has normal color, no turbidity but has an increased mononuclear cell count and an elevated protein concentration. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Nervous coccidiosis B - Listeriosis C - Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis D - Rabies E - Otitis media/interna
D - fasciolosis
This Holstein cow has submandibular edema, slightly pale mucus membranes, and reduced milk yield. CBC shows mild anemia. GGT is elevated. Fecal examination shows a few oval, operculated, golden brown eggs. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Traumatic reticuloperitonitis B - High-mountain disease C - Liver abscesses D - Fasciolosis E - Paramphistomosis
E - Foothill abortion agent
This calf was aborted at 7.5 months pregnancy in early fall. The dam was a primiparous beef animal housed on pasture in Northern California. Necropsy revealed multiple petechial hemorrhages on the palate and scleral mucus membranes of the fetus, and marked lymphadenopathy. The calf was not decomposed; the cow retained the placenta. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis of the abortion in this case? A - Leptospira pomona B - Brucella abortus C - Neospora caninun D - Pine needles E - Foothill abortion agent
B - remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
Two bucket-fed calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2] Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment? A - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline C - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube D - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements E - Cull affected calves
C - IV fluids, NSAIDs, frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic
Two calves aged 8 weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak. They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood. One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all. They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6 F (40.7 - 40.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5F, N=37.8-39.7 C], respectively. Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan? A - Immunize well and sick calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine, ABX for sick calves B - NSAIDS, ABX in feed & water C - IV Fluids, NSAIDS, Frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic D - Cull sick calves, Disinfect feeding areas, Prophylactic ABX and NSAIDs for well E - Isolate sick calves, Immunize, tx with ABX, cull those that do not respond to treatment
A - Metabolic alkalosis
What acid-base abnormality would be most likely in a dairy cow with a displaced abomasum? A - Metabolic alkalosis B - Metabolic acidosis C - Depends on severity of displacement D - Respiratory alkalosis E - Respiratory acidosis
D - inadequate nutrition
What is the primary factor associated with pregnancy toxemia in ewes and goats? A - Young age at parturition B - Clostridium perfringens C - Polioencephalomalacia D - Inadequate nutrition E - High sulfur, Low thiamine diet
C - 12 to 13 months
What should the target calving interval be for dairy cattle? A - 9 to 10 months B - 10 to 11 months C - 12 to 13 months D - 14 months E - 14 to 15 months
A - cornual
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle? A - Cornual B - Infratrochlear C - Auriculopalpebral D - Cornual and Infratrochlear E - Auriculopalpebral and Infraorbital
A - caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, L2
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow? A - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 B - Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L4 C - Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, L3 D - In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L4 E - At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4
A - Caudal to the transverse processes of t13, L1, L2
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow? A - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 B - Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L4 C - Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, L3 D - In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L4 E - At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4
A - T13, L1, and L2
Which of the following nerves are targeted with a paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow? A - T13, L1, and L2 B - L1-3, and S1-5 C - L2, L3, S1, and S2 D - L1, L2, L3 E - L1, L2, and L4
A - abdominal wall adjacent to prepuce
Which one of the following best describes the exit site of a tube cystostomy in sheep and goats? A - Abdominal wall adjacent to prepuce B - Perineal area approximately 6 cm distal to anus C - Urethral process D - Ureteral orifice E - Internal urethral orifice
A - pyelonephritis
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Pyelonephritis B - Pyometra C - Polycystic kidney disease D - Leptospirosis E - Dioctophyma renale
C - long acting oxytetracycline IM, repeat in 1 week
Which one of the following choices would be the best method for treating carrier cattle with anaplasmosis in North America? A - Serotest and cull positives B - Vaccinate entire herd with modified-live vaccine C - Long-acting oxytetracycline IM, repeat in 1 week D - Melarsomine dichlorhydrate drench, plus spray pastures with carbaryl insecticide E - Cross-matched blood transfusion plus Imidocarb IV
E - Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema
Which one of the following conditions occurs in the Fall in temperate climates, among cattle moved from poor pasture to lush pasture? A - Rumenal hyperkeratosis B - Vagal indigestion C - Vena caval thrombosis and metastatic pneumonia D - Verminous bronchitis (Husk) E - Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema
A - bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Which one of the following diseases have been linked with the variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in humans? A - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy B - Q fever C - Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis D - Equine West Nile virus encephalitis E - Eastern equine encephalomyelitis (EEE)
A - Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
Which one of the following sets of conditions predispose a cow to metritis? A - Dystocia, Overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed B - Agalactia, Milk fever, Bovine vibriosis C - Strep. agalactiae mastitis, Retained placenta, Laminitis D - Milk fever, Malnutrition, Excess dietary zinc E - Contaminated calving environment, Abortion, Hypomagnesemia
A - dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
Which one of the following sets of conditions predispose a cow to metritis? A - Dystocia, Overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed B - Agalactia, Milk fever, Bovine vibriosis C - Strep. agalactiae mastitis, Retained placenta, Laminitis D - Milk fever, Malnutrition, Excess dietary zinc E - Contaminated calving environment, Abortion, Hypomagnesemia
A - small intestinal dilation
Which one of the following would NOT be a clinical sign of anterior abdominal peritonitis in a cow? A - Small intestinal dilation B - Rumen hypomotility C - Arched back D - Scant firm stool E - Decreased milk production
A - cryptosporidiosis, salmonella
Which pair of neonatal calf diarrheas both have public health/zoonotic significance? A - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella B - Colibacillosis, Ostertagiasis C - Salmonella, Coccidiosis D - Colibacillosis, Rotavirus E - Clostridium perfringens, Coronavirus
D - Abomasum
Which part of a cow's digestive system is a true glandular stomach, similar to a dog or human stomach? A - Reticulum B - Rumen C - Omasum D - Abomasum
C - left displaced abomasum
While examining a high-producing dairy cow that is off-feed, the vet puts her stethoscope on the left side in a line between the left elbow and the cow's hip bones and starts flicking her fingers against the side of the cow while listening to the stethoscope. She lets you listen and you hear a musical pinging sound when her finger hits the cow. What is the cause of this sound? A - It is normal in healthy cattle B - Rumen contraction waves C - Left displaced abomasum D - Hardware disease