?s 44, 45, 60, & 61 Exam 4

A client has been advised to perform weight-bearing exercises to help slow bone loss, but has not followed this advice. What response by the nurse is appropriate at this time? a. Ask the client about fear of falling. b. Instruct the client to increase calcium. c. Suggest other exercises the client can do. d. Tell the client to try weight lifting.

ANS: A Fear of falling can limit participation in activity. The nurse would first assess if the client has this fear and then offer suggestions for dealing with it. The client may or may not need extra calcium, other exercises, or weight lifting.

The client's electronic health record indicates genu varum. What does the nurse understand this term to mean? a. Bow-legged b. Fluid accumulation c. Knock-kneed d. Spinal curvature

ANS: A Genu varum is a bow-legged deformity. A fluid accumulation is an effusion. Genu valgum is knock-kneed. A spinal curvature could be kyphosis or lordosis.

After teaching a client who has stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will limit my total intake of fluids." b. "I must avoid drinking alcoholic beverages." c. "I must avoid drinking caffeinated beverages." d. "I shall try to lose about 10% of my body weight."

ANS: A Limiting fluids concentrates urine and can irritate tissues, leading to increased incontinence or cystitis. Many people try to manage incontinence by limiting fluids. Alcoholic and caffeinated beverages are bladder stimulants. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing incontinence.

An older client is distressed at body changes related to kyphosis. What response by the nurse is appropriate? a. Ask the client to explain more about these feelings. b. Explain that these changes are irreversible. c. Offer to help select clothes to hide the deformity. d. Tell the client that safety is more important than looks.

ANS: A Assessment is the first step of the nursing process, and the nurse would begin by getting as much information about the client's feelings as possible. Explaining that the changes are irreversible discounts the client's feelings. Depending on the extent of the deformity, clothing will not hide it. While safety is more objectively important than looks, the client is worried about looks and the nurse needs to address this issue

(not included in exam) After teaching a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should drink at least 3 L of fluid every day." b. "I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet." c. "Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones." d. "The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone."

ANS: A Dehydration contributes to the precipitation of minerals to form a stone. Although increased intake of calcium causes hypercalcemia and leads to excessive calcium filtered into the urine, if the client is well hydrated, the calcium will be excreted without issues. Dehydration increases the risk for supersaturation of calcium in the urine, which contributes to stone formation. The nurse would encourage the client to drink more fluids, not decrease calcium intake. Ingestion of aspirin or aspirin-containing products does not cause a stone. Antibiotics neither prevent nor treat a stone.

A nurse contacts the primary health care provider after reviewing a client's laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL (12.5 mmol/L) and a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L). What collaborative care measure would the nurse recommend? a. Intravenous fluids b. Hemodialysis c. Fluid restriction d. Urine culture and sensitivity

ANS: A Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L). Normal creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53.0 to 106.1 mcmol/L) (males) or 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44.2 to 97.2 mcmol/L) (females). Creatinine is more specific for kidney function than BUN, because BUN can be affected by several factors (dehydration, high-protein diet, and catabolism). This client's creatinine is normal, which suggests a nonrenal cause for the elevated BUN. A common cause of increased BUN is dehydration, so the nurse would recommend giving the client more fluids, not placing the client on fluid restrictions. Hemodialysis is not an appropriate treatment for dehydration. The lab results do not indicate an infection; therefore, a urine culture and sensitivity are not appropriate.

(not included in exam) A nurse obtains the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which question would the nurse ask when determining this client's risk factors? a. "Do you smoke cigarettes?" b. "Do you use any alcohol?" c. "Do you use recreational drugs?" d. "Do you take any prescription drugs?"

ANS: A Smoking is known to be a factor that greatly increases the risk of bladder cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and prescription drug use (except medications that contain phenacetin) are not known to markedly increase the risk of developing bladder cancer.

The nurse delegates completing a bladder scan to assistive personnel (AP). Which action by the AP indicates that the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task? a. Selecting the female icon for all female patients and male icon for all male patients b. Telling the client, "This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder." c. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and removing it when finished d. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to place the scanning head

ANS: A The AP should use the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy. This allows the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the AP should choose the male icon. The AP should explain the procedure to the client, apply gel to the scanning head and clean it after use, and take at least two readings.

A nurse teaches a young female client who is prescribed cephalexin for a urinary tract infection. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use a second form of birth control while on this medication." b. "You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this drug." c. "You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this drug." d. "Watch for blood in your urine while taking this medication."

ANS: A The client should use a second form of birth control because antibiotic therapy reduces the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives. She should not experience increased menstrual bleeding, an irregular heartbeat, or blood in her urine while taking the drug.

( Not included in exam 4) A client with bone cancer is hospitalized for a limb salvage procedure. How can the nurse best address the client's psychosocial needs? a. Assess the client's coping skills and support systems. b. Explain that the surgery leads to a longer life expectancy. c. Refer the client to the social worker or hospital chaplain. d. Reinforce physical therapy to aid with ambulating normally.

ANS: A The first step in the nursing process is assessment. The nurse would assess coping skills and possible support systems that will be helpful in this client's treatment. Explaining that a limb salvage procedure will extend life does not address the client's psychosocial needs. Referrals may be necessary, but the nurse should assess first. Reinforcing physical therapy is also helpful but again does not address the psychosocial needs of the client.

A client had an arthroscopy 1 hour ago on the left knee. The nurse finds the left lower leg to be pale and cool, with a 1+ pedal pulse. What action would the nurse perform first? a. Assess the neurovascular status of the right leg. b. Document the findings in the patient's chart. c. Elevate the left leg on at least two pillows. d. Notify the primary health care provider immediately

ANS: A The nurse would compare findings of the two legs as these findings may be normal for the client. If a difference is observed, the nurse would then notify the primary health care provider. Documentation would occur after the nurse has all the data. Elevating the left leg will not improve perfusion if there is a problem.

( not included in exam 4) A nurse assesses a client who presents with renal calculi. Which question would the nurse ask? a. "Do any of your family members have this problem?" b. "Do you drink any cranberry juice?" c. "Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?" d. "Do you experience burning with urination?"

ANS: A There is a strong association between family history and stone formation and recurrence. Nephrolithiasis is associated with many genetic variations; therefore, the nurse should ask whether other family members have also had renal stones. The other questions do not refer to renal calculi but instead are questions that should be asked of a patient with a urinary tract infection.

What information does the nurse teach a women's group about osteoporosis? a. "Primary osteoporosis occurs in postmenopausal women due to lack of estrogen." b. "Men actually have higher rates of the disease but are underdiagnosed." c. "There is no way to prevent or slow osteoporosis after menopause." d. "Women and men have an equal chance of getting osteoporosis."

ANS: A Women are more at risk of developing primary osteoporosis after menopause due to the lack of estrogen. Men have a slower loss of bone after the age of 75. Many treatments are now available for women to slow osteoporosis after menopause.

(not included in exam 4) A client has a metastatic bone tumor in the left leg. What action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Administer pain medication as prescribed. b. Elevate the extremity and apply moist heat. c. Teach the client about amputation care. d. Place the client on protective precautions

ANS: A Pain medication should be given to control metastatic bone pain. Elevation and heat may or may not be helpful. Protective precautions are not needed for this client.

The nurse takes a history on a male client reporting chronic back pain. Which factor(s) in the client's history may have contributed to his pain? (Select all that apply.) a. Had a motor vehicle crash 10 years ago. b. Played football in college and high school. c. Has installed carpet and other flooring for 30 years. d. Typically takes walks 3 to 4 days each week. e. Eats two servings of dark, green leafy vegetables daily.

ANS: A, B, C A history of trauma caused by an accident, occupation, or contact sports can result in chronic back pain. Regular exercise and diet helps to promote bone health.

( not included in exam) A nurse teaches a client about self-management after experiencing a urinary calculus treated by lithotripsy. Which statements would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better." b. "Drink at least 3 L of fluid each day." c. "The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve." d. "Report any blood present in your urine." e. "It is normal to experience pain and difficulty urinating."

ANS: A, B, C The client should be taught to finish the prescribed antibiotic to ensure that he or she does not get a urinary tract infection. The client should drink at least 3 L of fluid daily to dilute potential stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. After lithotripsy, the client should expect bruising that may take several weeks to resolve. The client should also experience blood in the urine for several days. The client should report any pain, fever, chills, or difficulty with urination to the primary health care provider as these may signal the beginning of an infection or the formation of another stone.

A female client is preparing to have open magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the spine. What action(s) by the nurse is (are) most important to assess before the test? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask if the client has a history of kidney disease. b. Ask the client if she could possibly be pregnant. c. Ensure that the patient has no metal or electronic implants. d. Assess the client for the ability to communicate. e. Assess the client for a history of claustrophobia.

ANS: A, B, C, D The contrast agent that is used for an MRI is gadolinium which can cause complications if the client is pregnant or has kidney disease. The client needs to be able to communicate and should not have any metal or electronic implants due to the magnetic nature of the machine. For an open MRI, claustrophobia is not an issue because the client is not encased in the device.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with urinary tract infection (UTI). What common urinary signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysuria b. Frequency c. Burning d. Fever e. Chills f. Hematuria

ANS: A, B, C, F Fever and chills may occur in clients who have a UTI if the infection has expanded beyond the bladder into the kidneys. However, these symptoms are not urinary signs and symptoms.

A nurse assesses a client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months. Which question(s) would the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.) a. "How much water do you drink every day?" b. "Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?" c. "Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?" d. "Are you on steroids or other immune-suppressing drugs?" e. "Do you drink grapefruit juice or orange juice daily?"

ANS: A, B, D Fluid intake, estrogen levels, and immune suppression all can increase the chance of recurrent cystitis. Family history is usually insignificant, and cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to increase the acidic pH and reduce the risk for bacterial cystitis

A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their description? (Select all that apply.) a. Stress incontinence—urine loss with physical exertion b. Urge incontinence—loss of urine upon feeling the need to void c. Functional incontinence—urine loss results from abnormal detrusor contractions d. Overflow incontinence—constant dribbling of urine e. Reflex incontinence—leakage of urine without lower urinary tract disorder

ANS: A, B, D Stress incontinence is a loss of urine with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with an abrupt and strong urge to void and usually has a large amount of urine released with each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs with bladder distention and results in a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence is the leakage of urine caused by factors other than a disorder of the lower urinary tract. Reflex incontinence results from abnormal detrusor contractions from a neurologic abnormality.

A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis would the nurse identify as normal? (Select all that apply.) a. pH: 6 b. Specific gravity: 1.015 c. Protein: 1.2 mg/dL d. Glucose: negative e. Nitrate: small f. Leukocyte esterase: positive

ANS: A, B, D The pH, specific gravity, and glucose are all within normal ranges. The other values are abnormal

A nurse is assessing a community group for dietary factors that contribute to osteoporosis. In addition to inquiring about calcium, the nurse also assesses for which other dietary components? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Fat d. Carbonated beverages e. Vitamin D

ANS: A, B, D, E Dietary components that affect the development of osteoporosis include alcohol, caffeine, high phosphorus intake, carbonated beverages, and vitamin D. Tobacco is also a contributing lifestyle factor. Fat intake does not contribute to osteoporosis.

When assessing gait, what feature(s) would the nurse inspect? (Select all that apply.) a. Balance b. Ease of stride c. Goniometer readings d. Length of stride e. Steadiness

ANS: A, B, D, E To assess gait, look at balance, ease and length of stride, and steadiness. Goniometer readings assess flexion and extension or joint range of motion.

A nurse prepares a client for a percutaneous kidney biopsy. What actions should the nurse take prior to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours. b. Review coagulation study results. c. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position. d. Assess for blood in the client's urine. e. Administer client's antihypertensive medications

ANS: A, B, E Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the patient should be NPO for 4 to 6 hours. Coagulation studies should be completed to prevent bleeding after the biopsy. Blood pressure medications should be administered to prevent hypertension before and after the procedure. There is no need to keep the patient on bedrest or assess for blood in the client's urine prior to the procedure; these interventions should be implemented after a percutaneous kidney biopsy.

The nurse is preparing a client for a percutaneous kidney biopsy. Which laboratory tests results would the nurse review prior to the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Hemoglobin b. Hematocrit c. Sodium d. Potassium e. Platelet count f. Prothrombin time

ANS: A, B, E, F Kidneys are very vascular and the client is at risk for bleeding after a biopsy. Therefore, it is essential that the nurse review preprocedure laboratory test results for anemia and coagulation problems.

A nurse plans care for an older adult patient. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.) a. Ensure adequate fluid intake. b. Leave the bathroom light on at night. c. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours. d. Delegate bladder training instructions to the assistive personnel (AP). e. Provide thorough perineal care after each voiding. f. Assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infection.

ANS: A, B, E, F The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate fluid intake and has adequate lighting to ambulate safely to the bathroom at night, encourage the client to use the toilet every 2 hours, provide thorough perineal care after each voiding, and assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infections. The nurse would not delegate any teaching to the AP, including bladder training instructions. The AP may participate in bladder training activities, including encouraging and assisting the client to the bathroom at specific times.

( not included in exam 4) The nurse is assessing a client for chronic osteomyelitis. Which features distinguish this from the acute form of the disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Draining sinus tracts b. High fevers c. Presence of foot ulcers d. Swelling and redness e. Tenderness or pain

ANS: A, C Draining sinus tracts and foot ulcers are seen in chronic osteomyelitis. High fever, swelling, and redness are more often seen in acute osteomyelitis. Pain or tenderness can be in either case.

A client asks the nurse why she has urinary incontinence. What risk factors would the nurse recall in preparing to respond to the client's question? (Select all that apply.) a. Diuretic therapy b. Anorexia nervosa c. Stroke d. Dementia e. Arthritis f. Parkinson disease

ANS: A, C, D, E, F Drugs, such as diuretics, cause frequent voiding, often in large amounts. Diseases or disorders that limit mobility, such as stroke, arthritis, and Parkinson disease, can prevent an individual from getting to the bathroom in a timely manner. Mental/behavioral problems, such as dementia, impair cognition and the ability to recognize when he or she needs to void.

( not included in exam 4 ) A client with chronic osteomyelitis is being discharged from the hospital. What information is important for the nurse to teach this client and family? (Select all that apply.) a. Adherence to the antibiotic regimen b. Correct intramuscular injection technique c. Eating high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods d. Keeping daily follow-up appointments e. Proper use of the intravenous equipment

ANS: A, C, E The client going home with chronic osteomyelitis will need long-term antibiotic therapy—first intravenous, and then oral. The client needs education on how to properly administer IV antibiotics, care for the IV line, adhere to the regimen, and eat a healthy diet to encourage wound healing. The antibiotics are not given by IM injection. The client does not need daily follow-up.

A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cystoscopy. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in urine output b. Tolerating oral fluids c. Prescription for metformin d. Blood clots present in the urine e. Burning sensation when urinating

ANS: A, D The nurse would monitor urine output and contact the primary health care provider if urine output decreases or becomes absent. The nurse would also assess for blood in the client's urine. The urine may be pink-tinged, but gross bleeding or blood clots should not be present. If bleeding is present, the nurse would urgently contact the primary health care provider. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive outcome and does not need intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the patient received dye; no dye is used in a cystoscopy procedure. The client may experience a burning sensation when urinating after this procedure; this would not require a call to the primary health care provider.

The nurse is planning health teaching for a client starting mirabegron for urinary incontinence. What health teaching would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "Monitor blood tests carefully if you are on prescribed warfarin." b. "Avoid crowds and individuals with infection." c. "Report any fever to your primary health care provider." d. "Take your blood pressure frequently at home." e. "Report palpitations or chest soreness that may occur."

ANS: A, D This drug can cause increase blood pressure and, therefore, the client's blood pressure should be monitored. Mirabegron can increase the effect of warfarin causing bleeding or bruising. The client will need additional coagulation studies to ensure that the INR is within a therapeutic range.

After treating several young women for urinary tract infections (UTIs), the college nurse plans an educational offering on reducing the risk of getting a UTI. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Void before and after each act of intercourse. b. Consider changing to spermicide from birth control pills. c. Do not douche or use scented feminine products. d. Wear loose-fitting nylon panties. e. Wipe or clean the perineum from front to back.

ANS: A, E Woman can reduce their risk of contracting UTIs by voiding before and after intercourse, not douching or using scented feminine products, and wiping from front to back. If spermicides are currently used, the woman should consider another form of birth control. Loose-fitting cotton underwear is best.

After delegating care to assistive personnel (AP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the AP's understanding. Which action indicates that the AP needs additional teaching? a. Toileting the client after breakfast b. Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet c. Encouraging the client to drink fluids d. Recording the client's incontinence episodes

ANS: B Habit training is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should reeducate the AP on the technique of habit training. The AP should continue to toilet the client after meals, encourage the client to drink fluids, and record incontinent episodes.

A nurse cares for a postmenopausal client who has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months. The client asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Your immune system becomes less effective as you age." b. "Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection." c. "You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area." d. "It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease."

ANS: B Low estrogen levels decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area and cause other tissue changes, predisposing it to the development of infection. Urethritis is most common in postmenopausal women for this reason. Although immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases are a known cause of urethritis, the most likely reason in this patient is low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene usually does not contribute to this disease process.

The nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question would the nurse ask first? a. "Are you drinking plenty of water?" b. "What medications are you taking?" c. "Have you tried laxatives or enemas?" d. "Has this type of thing ever happened before?"

ANS: B Some types of incontinence or other health problems are treated with anticholinergic medications. Anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse needs to assess the client's medication list to determine whether the he or she is taking an anticholinergic medication. The other questions are not as helpful to understanding the current situation.

A client has a bone density score of -2.8. What intervention would the nurse anticipate based on this assessment? a. Asking the client to complete a food diary b. Planning to teach about bisphosphonates c. Scheduling another scan in 2 years d. Scheduling another scan in 6 months

ANS: B A T-score from a bone density scan at or lower than -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The nurse would plan to teach about medications used to treat this disease, such as the bisphosphonates. A food diary is helpful to determine if the client gets adequate calcium and vitamin D, but at this point, dietary changes will not prevent the disease. Simply scheduling another scan will not help treat the disease either.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about the risk for osteoporosis associated with race or ethnicity. Which population typically has a decreased incidence of osteoporosis when compared to Euro-Americans? a. Irish Americans b. African Americans c. American Indians d. Asian Americans

ANS: B African Americans usually have more bone mass when compared to Euro-Americans which makes them at a decreased risk for osteoporosis.

A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection (bacterial cystitis). The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in the client's white blood cell count. What action would the nurse take? a. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells. b. Notify the primary health care provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics. c. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to strain the client's urine for renal calculi. d. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock

ANS: B An increase in band cells creates a "shift to the left." A left shift most commonly occurs with urosepsis and is seen rarely with uncomplicated urinary tract infections. The nurse will be administering antibiotics, most likely via IV, so he or she would notify the primary health care provider and prepare to give the antibiotics. The shift to the left is part of a differential white blood cell count. The nurse would not need to strain urine for stones. Allergic reactions are associated with elevated eosinophil cells, not band cells.

A client has been prescribed denosumab. What health teaching about this drug is most appropriate for the nurse to include? a. "Drink at least 8 ounces (240 mL) of water with it." b. "Make appointments to come get your injection." c. "Sit upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking it." d. "Take the drug on an empty stomach."

ANS: B Denosumab is given by subcutaneous injection twice a year. The client does not need to drink 8 ounces (240 mL) of water with this medication as it is not taken orally. The client does not need to remain upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking this medication, nor does the client need to take the drug on an empty stomach.

A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis would the nurse recognize as abnormal? a. pH of 5.6 b. Ketone bodies present c. Specific gravity of 1.020 d. Clear and yellow color

ANS: B Ketone bodies are by-products of incomplete metabolism of fatty acids. Normally, no ketones are present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when fat sources are used instead of glucose to provide cellular energy. A pH between 4.6 and 8, specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow urine are normal findings in a urinalysis.

The nurse is assessing a group of clients for their risk of kidney disease. Which racial/ethnic group is at the greatest risk as they age? a. Latino Americans b. African Americans c. Jewish Americans d. Asian Americans

ANS: B Older African Americans have a greater age-related decrease in glomerular filtration rate when compared to other racial-ethnic groups. In addition, blood flow decreases and sodium excretion is less effective in older hypertensive African Americans. These changes make this group most at risk for kidney disease.

A nurse reviews the health history of a client with an oversecretion of renin. Which disorder would the nurse correlate with this assessment finding? a. Alzheimer disease b. Hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Viral hepatitis

ANS: B Renin is secreted when special cells in the distal convoluted tubule, called the macula densa, sense changes in blood volume and pressure. When the macula densa cells sense that blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels are low, renin is secreted. Renin then converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This leads to a series of reactions that cause secretion of the hormone aldosterone. This hormone increases kidney reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium levels. Inappropriate or excessive renin secretion is a major cause of persistent hypertension. Renin has no impact on Alzheimer disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis.

The nurse is teaching assistant personnel (AP) about care of an older ambulatory adult who has osteopenia. Which statement by the AP indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I will tell the client to change positions frequently to prevent pressure injury." b. "I will remind the client to take frequent walks to strengthen bones." c. "I will assist the client with activities of daily living as needed." d. "I will apply warm compresses to the joints to relieve pain."

ANS: B The ambulatory client who has osteopenia has experienced bone loss. Therefore, taking walks as a weight-bearing exercise helps to prevent further bone loss. The client does not have joint pain and does not need assistance or position changes because the client is ambulatory and probably independent.

(not included in exam) A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy for renal calculi. The nurse notes an ecchymotic area on the client's right lower back. What action would the nurse take? a. Administer fresh-frozen plasma. b. Apply an ice pack to the site. c. Place the client in the prone position. d. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

ANS: B The shock waves from lithotripsy can cause bleeding into the tissues through which the waves pass. Application of ice can reduce the extent and discomfort of the bruising. Although coagulation test results and fresh-frozen plasma are used to assess and treat bleeding disorders, ecchymosis after this procedure is not unusual and does not warrant a higher level of intervention. Changing the client's position will not decrease bleeding.

A client with osteoporosis is going home where the client lives alone. What action by the nurse is best? a. Refer the client to Meals on Wheels. b. Arrange a home safety evaluation. c. Ensure that the client has a walker at home. d. Help the client look into assisted living.

ANS: B This client has several risk factors that place him or her at a high risk for falling. The nurse should consult social work or home health care to conduct a home safety evaluation. The other options may or may not be needed based upon the client's condition at discharge

An older client's serum calcium level is 8.7 mg/dL (2.18 mmol/L). What possible etiology(ies) does the nurse consider for this result? (Select all that apply.) a. Good dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D b. Normal age-related decrease in serum calcium c. Possible occurrence of osteoporosis or osteopenia d. Potential for metastatic cancer or Paget disease e. Recent bone fracture in a healing stage

ANS: B, C This slightly low calcium level could be an age-related decrease in serum calcium or could indicate a metabolic bone disease, such as osteoporosis or osteopenia. A good dietary intake would be expected to produce normal values. Metastatic cancer, Paget disease, or healing bone fractures will elevate calcium.

An older client with diabetes is admitted with a heavily draining leg wound. The client's white blood cell count is 38,000/mm3 (38 × 109/L) but the client is afebrile. Which nursing action is most appropriate at this time? a. Administer acetaminophen as needed. b. Educate the client on amputation. c. Place the client on Contact Precautions. d. Refer the client to the wound care nurse.

ANS: C In the presence of a heavily draining wound, the nurse would place the client on Contact Precautions. If the client has discomfort, acetaminophen can be used, but this client has not reported pain and is afebrile. The client may or may not need an amputation in the future. The wound care nurse may be consulted but not as the most appropriate action.

(not included in exam) The nurse assesses a client who has possible bladder cancer. What common assessment finding associated with this type of cancer would the nurse expect? a. Urinary retention b. Urinary incontinence c. Painless hematuria d. Difficulty urinating

ANS: C The classic and most common finding in clients who have bladder cancer is painless and intermittent hematuria that can be with gross or microscopic. Dysuria, frequency, and urgency occur in clients who have bladder infection or obstruction.

A nurse teaches a client who is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals." b. "Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours." c. "Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time." d. "The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week."

ANS: C The client should try to hold urine consciously until the next scheduled toileting time. Toileting should occur at specific intervals during the training. The interval can be increased once the client becomes comfortable with the interval

The nurse is teaching a client who had a left humeral biopsy about home care. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching? a. "I will take my opioids only when I have severe pain." b. "I will keep my left arm elevated for 24 hours." c. "I will watch for tenderness and warmth around the biopsy site." d. "I will report any discomfort to my primary health care provider immediately."

ANS: C Bone biopsy is an ambulatory procedure which can cause some discomfort but not severe pain. The client can use the affected arm soon after the procedure but should watch for tenderness and warmth which could indicate infection.

A client with pneumonia and dementia is admitted with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. During interprofessional rounds the following day, which question would the nurse ask the primary health care provider? a. "Do you want daily weights on this client?" b. "Will the client be able to return home?" c. "May we discontinue the indwelling catheter?" d. "Should we get another chest x-ray today?"

ANS: C An indwelling urinary catheter dramatically increases the risks of urinary tract infection and urosepsis. Nursing staff should ensure that catheters are left in place only as long as they are medically needed. The nurse would inquire about removing the catheter. All other questions might be appropriate, but because of client safety, this question takes priority.

The nurse teaches assistive personnel (AP) about care of an older adult diagnosed with osteoporosis. What teaching would the nurse include? a. "Teach the client to eat high-calcium foods in the diet." b. "Assist the client with activities of daily living." c. "Osteoporosis places the client is at risk for fractures." d. "The client should stay in bed to prevent falling."

ANS: C Anyone who has osteoporosis is at risk for fragility fractures even if he or she does not experience trauma like a fall. The client needs to keep active rather than stay in bed where more bone could be lost. High-calcium foods may not be helpful because bone loss is already severe. There is no indication that the client needs assistance with ADLs.

A nurse assesses a client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count. The client asks, "Is my anemia related to my kidney problem?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys." b. "Your anemia and kidney problem are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density." c. "Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow." d. "Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood."

ANS: C Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency. The kidneys do not play a role in the transportation of red blood cells or any other cells in the blood.

A nurse reviews the urinalysis results of a client and notes a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/kg (1200 mmol/kg). Which action would the nurse take? a. Contact the primary health care provider to recommend a low-sodium diet. b. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic. c. Encourage the client to drink more fluids. d. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions.

ANS: C Normal urine osmolality ranges from 300 to 900 mOsm/kg (300 to 900 mmol/kg). This client's urine is more concentrated, indicating dehydration. The nurse would encourage the client to drink more water. Dehydration can be associated with elevated serum sodium levels. Although a low-sodium diet may be appropriate for this client, this diet change will not have a significant impact on urine osmolality. A diuretic would increase urine output and decrease urine osmolality further. Low serum sodium levels, not elevated serum levels, place the client at risk for seizure activity. These options would further contribute to the client's dehydration or elevate the osmolality

After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will not take this drug with food or milk." b. "I will have my partners tested for STIs." c. "An orange color in my urine should not alarm me." d. "I will drink two glasses of cranberry juice daily."

ANS: C Phenazopyridine discolors urine, most commonly to a deep reddish orange. Many clients think that they have blood in their urine when they see this. In addition, the urine can permanently stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or needs while taking this medication.

A nurse assesses clients in an osteoporosis clinic. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client taking calcium with vitamin D who reports flank pain 2 weeks ago. b. Client taking ibandronate who cannot remember when the last dose was. c. Client taking raloxifene who reports unilateral calf swelling. d. Client taking risedronate who reports occasional dyspepsia.

ANS: C The client on raloxifene needs to be assessed first because of the potential for deep vein thrombosis, which is an adverse effect of raloxifene. The client with flank pain may have had a kidney stone but is not acutely ill now. The client who cannot remember taking the last dose of ibandronate can be seen last. The client on risedronate may need to change medications

A client had a bunionectomy with osteotomy. The client asks why healing may take up to 3 months. What explanation by the nurse is best? a. "The bones in your feet are hard to operate on." b. "The surrounding bones and tissue are damaged." c. "Your feet have less blood flow, so healing is slower." d. "Your feet bear weight so they never really heal."

ANS: C The feet are the most distal to the heart and receive less blood flow than other organs and tissues, prolonging the healing time after surgery. The other explanations are not correct.

The nurse is performing an assessment of a client with possible plantar fasciitis in the right foot. What assessment finding would the nurse expect in the right foot? a. Multiple toe deformities b. Numbness and paresthesias c. Severe pain in the arch of the foot d. Redness and severe swelling

ANS: C The most common assessment finding is the client's report of severe pain in the arch of the foot, especially when walking. The other findings are not typical in clients with this health problem

The nurse is caring for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, "I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child's bladder." How would the nurse respond? a. "I understand how you feel. I would be mortified." b. "Incontinence pads will minimize leaks in public." c. "I can teach you strategies to help control your incontinence." d. "More people experience incontinence than you might think."

ANS: C The nurse would accept and acknowledge the client's concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse would not diminish the client's concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

A nurse is caring for four clients. After the hand-off report, which client would the nurse see first? a. Client with osteoporosis and a white blood cell count of 27,000/mm3 (27 × 109/L) b. Client with osteoporosis and a bone fracture who requests pain medication c. Post-microvascular bone transfer client whose distal leg is cool and pale d. Client with suspected bone tumor who just returned from having a spinal CT

ANS: C This client is the priority because the assessment findings indicate a critical lack of perfusion. A high white blood cell count is an expected finding for the client with osteoporosis. The client requesting pain medication should be seen second. The client who just returned from a CT scan is stable and needs no specific postprocedure care.

A hospitalized client's strength of the upper extremities is rated at a 4. What does the nurse understand about this client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs)? a. The client is able to perform ADLs but not lift some items. b. The client is unable to perform ADLs alone. c. No difficulties are expected with ADLs. d. The client would need almost total assistance with ADLs.

ANS: C This rating indicates good muscle strength with full range of motion

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy. The client states, "My pain has suddenly increased from a 3 to a 10 on a scale of 0-10." Which action would the nurse take first? a. Reposition the client on the operative side. b. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic. c. Assess the client's pulse rate and blood pressure. d. Examine the color of the client's urine.

ANS: C An increase in the intensity of pain after a percutaneous kidney biopsy is a symptom of possible internal hemorrhage. A change in vital signs (elevated pulse and decreased blood pressure) can indicate that hemorrhage is occurring.

A nurse is providing education to a community women's group about lifestyle changes helpful in preventing osteoporosis. What topics does the nurse cover? (Select all that apply.) a. Cut down on tobacco product use. b. Limit alcohol to two drinks a day. c. Strengthening exercises are important. d. Take recommended calcium and vitamin D. e. Walk for 30 minutes at least three times a week.

ANS: C, D, E Lifestyle changes can be made to decrease the occurrence of osteoporosis and include strengthening and weight-bearing exercises and getting the recommended amounts of both calcium and vitamin D. Tobacco should be totally avoided. Women should not have more than one drink per day.

The nurse reviews a list of drugs that can cause secondary osteoporosis.Which drugs are most commonly associated with this health problem? (Select all that apply.) a. Antianxiety agents b. Antibiotics c. Barbiturates d. Corticosteroids e. Loop diuretics

ANS: C, D, E Several classes of drugs can cause secondary osteoporosis, including barbiturates, corticosteroids, and loop diuretics. Antianxiety agents and antibiotics are not associated with the formation of osteoporosis.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory profile for a client who has muscular dystrophy. Which laboratory value(s) would the nurse expect to be elevated? (Select all that apply.) a. Calcium (Ca) b. Phosphate (PO4) c. Creatine kinase (CK) d. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) e. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) f. Aldolase (ALD)

ANS: C, D, E, F Muscular dystrophy causes elevations in muscle enzymes and does not affect minerals like calcium and phosphorus.

The nurse is caring for several clients with osteoporosis. For which client would bisphosphonates not be a good option? a. Client with diabetes who has a serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL (61 mcmol/L). b. Client who recently fell and has vertebral compression fractures. c. Hypertensive client who takes calcium channel blockers. d. Client with a spinal cord injury who cannot tolerate sitting up.

ANS: D Clients on bisphosphonates must be able to sit upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking them. The client who cannot tolerate sitting up is not a good candidate for this class of drug. Poor renal function also makes clients poor candidates for this drug, but the client with a creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL (61 mcmol/L) is within normal range. Diabetes and hypertension are not related unless the client also has renal disease. The client who recently fell and sustained fractures is a good candidate for this drug if the fractures are related to osteoporosis.

The nurse is taking a history from an older client who reports having frequent falls. Which dietary habit could be contributing to the client's problem? a. Consumes high-protein foods. b. Eats few concentrated sweets. c. Limits fatty or greasy foods. d. Avoids dairy products

ANS: D Falls can occur when older adults have inadequate calcium and Vitamin D because they are at risk for osteopenia and osteoporosis. Dairy products have a high concentration of both calcium and Vitamin D and this client avoids those foods. High-protein foods are recommended to help prevent osteopenia and sweets and fatty/greasy foods have no impact on bone health.

A nurse teaches a client with functional urinary incontinence. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "You must clean around your catheter daily with soap and water." b. "You will need to be on your drug therapy for life." c. "Operations to repair your bladder are available, and you can consider these." d. "You might want to get pants with elastic waistbands."

ANS: D Functional urinary incontinence occurs as the result of problems not related to the client's bladder, such as trouble ambulating or difficulty accessing the toilet. One desired outcome is that the client will be able to manage his or her clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down and back up can help the client get on the toilet in time to void. The other instructions do not relate to functional urinary incontinence.

A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. What action would the nurse take? a. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. b. Contact the primary health care provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test. c. Review the client's recent dietary selections over 3 days. d. Perform a finger stick blood glucose assessment.

ANS: D Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L), which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L) will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a blood glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor are not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client's dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

A nurse plans care for a client with overflow incontinence. Which intervention does the nurse include in this client's plan of care to assist with elimination? a. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh. b. Use intermittent catheterization. c. Provide digital anal stimulation. d. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

ANS: D In patients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is not intact. Mechanical pressure, such as that achieved through the Valsalva maneuver (holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate), can initiate voiding. Stroking the medial aspect of the thigh or providing digital anal stimulation requires the reflex arc to be intact to initiate elimination. Due to the high risk for infection, intermittent catheterization should only be implemented when other interventions are not successful.

A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action would the nurse take? a. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity. b. Place the client on restricted fluids. c. Assess the client's creatinine level. d. Increase the client's fluid intake.

ANS: D Normal specific gravity for urine is 1.005 to 1.030. A high specific gravity can occur with dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow (often because of dehydration), and presence of antidiuretic hormone. Increasing the client's fluid intake would be a beneficial intervention. Assessing the creatinine or obtaining a urine culture would not provide data necessary for the nurse to make a clinical decision.

The nurse is caring for a young client who has been diagnosed with osteopenia. Which risk factor in the client's history most likely contributed to the bone loss? a. Osteoarthritis b. Hypothyroidism c. Addison disease d. Rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: D Rheumatoid arthritis often occurs in young female adults and can lead to osteoporosis as a common complication. Cushing disease (rather than Addison disease) and hyperthyroidism (rather than hypothyroidism) are also risk factors. Osteoarthritis is a joint disease.

(not included in exam) A nurse cares for a client who has kidney stones from gout ricemia. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? a. Phenazopyridine b. Doxycyline c. Tolterodine d. Allopurinol

ANS: D Stones caused by hyperuricmia caused by gout or other reason respond to allopurinol. Phenazopyridine is given to clients with urinary tract infections. Doxycycline is an antibiotic. Tolterodine is an anticholinergic with smooth muscle-relaxant properties.

The nurse teaches a client who has stress incontinence methods to regain more urinary continence. Which health teaching is the most important for the nurse to include for this client? a. What type of incontinence pads to use? b. What types of liquids to drink and when? c. Need to perform intermittent catheterizations. d. How to do Kegel exercises to strengthen muscles?

ANS: D The client who has stress incontinence needs to strengthen the muscles of the pelvic floor using Kegel exercises. Catheterizations would not help with incontinence. Incontinence pads may need to be used by this client but that is not the most important thing to teach, and it does not help the client regain more control over his or her bladder.

The nurse is caring for an older client who has kyphosis and a widened gait. For which health problems is the client at risk? a. Osteoporosis b. Contracture c. Osteopenia d. Falls

ANS: D Kyphosis is caused by bone loss and causes the client to bend forward which changes the center of gravity leading to problems with balance. Older adults who have balance issues are at risk for falls.

CH 44

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Ch 45

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Ch 60

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Ch 61

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