Section 5
What is the GAS model?
- Alarm reaction: Intro of mechanical stimulus that is new/different. Results in DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness) - Resistance Development: This is where your body gets use to the soreness - Exhaustion: Overtraining.
Structural vs. functional scoliosis
- structural: fixed curve - functional: underlying cause
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0-60 seconds
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
0-90 seconds
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 or 2 sessions per week
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
Seconds/Reps for Active Stretching
1-2 seconds, 5-10 reps
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
10%
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?
10% BW max
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 to 60 seconds
Amount of time per week for moderate intensity?
150 minutes
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 or 4 sets
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 to 5 reps
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?
5-10 minutes
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
6-8 drills
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
What is osteoporosis?
A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
What is synergistic dominance?
A neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover.
What is pertubation?
A postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?
A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered movement patterns
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
Plyometrics for advanced
As explosive and fast as possible
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Autogenic inhibition
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic inhibiton
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
BOSU ball
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
Training Zone 1
Builds aerobic base and aids in recovery 65-75%
What is semi-dynamic balance?
COG fixed BOS on unstable surface
Five components of fitness
Cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition.
Stage 2 Training
Consists of a mix of recovery intervals just below VT1 (moderate intensity) and work intervals performed at an intensity just above VT1 (challenging to hard intensity).
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
Decreased rest periods
Stage 1 training
Designed to help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients using a target intensity below ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) and involves steady-state aerobic exercise.
Training Zone 4
Difficulty workout above 90%
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Electromechanical delay
What is metabolic specificity?
Energy demand placed on the body
Core exercises should start with...
Exercises that involve little motion of the spine and target the local core musculature
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, heads
FITTE-VP principle
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
Training Zone 2
Group Exercise classes, spinning; Increases Aerobic and Anerobic Endurance Maximal HR x .76-.85)
What is complex training?
Heavy exercise followed by explosive exercise
Stage 3 Training
Includes the client moving in and out of training zones 1, 2, and 3.
Second stage of core exercises
Incorporates more motion at the spine that also targets global core muscles
Third stage of core exercises
Involves explosive movement through the trunk and extremities.
Stage 4 Training
Involves interval training integrating all four training zones
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Plyometrics for intermediates
Larger jumps, repetitive, faster
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local muscles
Time for moderate vs vigorous exercise per week?
Moderate = 150 minutes Vigorous = 75 minutes
Moderate vs. vigorous exercise frequency
Moderate = 5 times Vigorous = 3 times
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Osteoporosis is a contraindication to what?
Myofascial rolling
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Nerves
What is autogenic inhibition?
Neural impulses that sense tension > than the impulses that cause muscles to contract
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Training Zone 5
ONly maintend for short periods of time up to 100% HR
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric
Phase 2 Goal
Prime mover strength
What is altered reciprocal inhibition?
Process by which an overactive muscle decreases neural drive to its functional antagonist
Phase 5 Goal
Rate of force production
If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?
Reach their knee
What is neuromuscular specificity?
Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
What is agility?
SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural contro
Plyometrics for beginners
Small jumps, hold bottom for 3-5 secs
Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
Somatosensory system
What is the SAID principle?
Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands
What is speed?
Speed/time
Training Zone 3
Sprinting; Builds high end work capacity Maximal HR x .86-.96)
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Stabilization endurance
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization-focused exercise
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and extend the spine
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique?
Static stretching
How should exercises be performed in second phase of OPT?
Strength --> Stability
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride rate and stride length
Phase 1 Goal
Teach optimal movement patterns, stability, familiarity
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Tensor fascia latae
Neuromuscular Efficiency
The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles, produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all three planes of motion
What is neuromuscular efficiency?
The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
What is quickness?
The ability to react to a stimulus and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus.
What is agility?
The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction while maintaining postural control.
Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?
The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
What are the criteria for an aerobic exercise?
The exercise targets large muscle groups The exercise is rhythmic The exercise is continuous in nature
What is flexibility?
The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint
What is mechanical specificity?
The weight and movements placed on the body
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Transverse plane box jump-down
What is dynamic stretching?
Uses the force production of a muscle and the body's momentum to take a joint through the full available ROM
What is active stretching?
Using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a ROM,
What is reciprocal inhibition?
When antagonist relaxes due to contraction by agonist.
Acute training variables
choice of exercise, order of exercise, training volume, intensity (load), inter-set rest intervals
Stage 5 Training
focuses on drills that help improve conditioning using linear, multidirectional, and sport-specific activities performed as conditioning and often combines high- intensity interval training with small-sided games and agility drills
What is the vestibular system?
in the inner ear; helps with balance and maintaining our equilibrium in space
What is osteokinematics?
movement of bones
What is arthrokinematics?
movement of joint surfaces
What is the stretch reflex?
muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle
What is a nocireceptor?
pain receptor
What is relative flexibility?
tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance
What is heart rate reserve?
the difference between maximal heart rate and resting heart rate