Security Fundamentals - Post Assessment
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) symmetric cipher uses how many rounds of substitution and re-arranging when utilizing a 256-bit key size? 13 rounds 9 rounds 24 rounds 18 rounds
13 rounds
When you are configuring password policy settings in Group Policy, what is the recommended setting for password reuse? 6 new passwords must be used before a reused password. 48 new passwords must be used before a reused password. 12 new passwords must be used before a reused password. 24 new passwords must be used before a reused password.
24 new passwords must be used before a reused password.
You are speaking to your CIO, and she has instructed you to ensure that the network is "five nines" in percentage of availability. What is the total yearly downtime that this allows? 8.76 hours 31.5 seconds 5.26 minutes 3.65 days
5.26 minutes
You have been placed in charge of a large number of corporate firewalls and NIPs. Due to the volume of traffic, you would like to recommend the procurement of a product capable of real-time monitoring and management of security information with analysis and reporting of security events. What type of product is this? A Centralized Security Monitoring System product. A Security and Information Event Management product. A Network Security Message Consolidator product. A Host-Based Security Log Aggregator product.
A Security and Information Event Management product.
In the management of virtual machines, what are the risks associated with virtual machine sprawl? A guest operating system will cease to function without management. A guest operating system may malfunction and damage the host computer. A guest operating system may be vulnerable because it has not been maintained. A guest operating system will consume the resources of the host, even when offline.
A guest operating system may be vulnerable because it has not been maintained.
What is a valid disadvantage of the use of a software firewall versus using a hardware firewall? Software firewalls are harder to configure and maintain than a hardware firewall. A malware infection on the machine could compromise the software firewall processes. Software firewalls cannot use stateless firewall settings. Software firewalls are often more expensive than deploying a hardware firewall.
A malware infection on the machine could compromise the software firewall processes.
What can be used to help ensure against employee perpetrated fraud against an employer? A mandatory vacation policy. A non-disclosure agreement. A clean desk policy. An employee geolocation tracking system.
A mandatory vacation policy.
What statement accurately defines what a race condition is and how it might affect a computer? A race condition is when two programs attempt to access the hardware resources of a system at the same time, causing a bottleneck and slowing the system. A race condition results from the use of incorrect input data that causes a program to enter an unexpected loop. A race condition is the result of multiple exploits being used or attempted to gain access to a system, resulting in the faster and more effective method winning. A race condition occurs when concurrent threads of execution access a shared resource simultaneously, producing unintended consequences.
A race condition occurs when concurrent threads of execution access a shared resource simultaneously, producing unintended consequences.
What statement correctly defines what a rainbow table is in relation to password attacks? A rainbow table is a collection of rules designed to match potential password patterns that may be in use by a particular organization. A rainbow table contains password masks that are used to guess passwords using a predetermined sequence. A rainbow table contains a table of potential hash collisions that can be used to try and brute force a password. A rainbow table is a compressed representation of cleartext passwords that are related and organized in a sequence.
A rainbow table is a compressed representation of cleartext passwords that are related and organized in a sequence.
What statement properly describes the propagation or circulation techniques utilized by a worm-type malware? A worm spreads by the activation of an infected software product, and commonly uses macros. A worm is spread through the sharing of an application that appears to have one function, but also has a malicious function. A worm is spread by tricking the user into interacting with their computer in such a way that the worm can propagate. A worm utilizes application or operating system vulnerabilities to spread through a network.
A worm utilizes application or operating system vulnerabilities to spread through a network.
What is NOT a component in the "AAA" framework used to control access to computer resources? Authorization Affiliation Authentication Accounting
Affiliation
If a wireless attacker sends a Request to Send (RTS) frame with a duration field containing a very high value, what happens on the wireless network? The access point will crash due to manipulation of the duration field. The wireless clients will transmit a collision detection frame, causing all traffic to halt. Other wireless clients disassociate from the wireless network. All other wireless client devices on the network will be unable to transmit until their NAV value is 0.
All other wireless client devices on the network will be unable to transmit until their NAV value is 0.
What is not an item that a host based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is capable of monitoring? A system call being made by running processes. All input and output communications on the host. An attempt to access files on the local machine. An attempt to access remote network-shared files.
An attempt to access remote network-shared files.
Although change management involves all types of changes to information systems, what two major types of changes regarding security need to be properly documented? (Choose two.) Any change in system architecture, such as new servers, routers, or other equipment. Any new employee or contractor hires that will be given access to the network. The renewal status of support contracts for used equipment and software. The classification status of files or documents, such as a file being changed to confidential or top secret.
Any change in system architecture, such as new servers, routers, or other equipment. The classification status of files or documents, such as a file being changed to confidential or top secret.
What two statements describe methods that can be employed by armored viruses in order to avoid detection? (Choose two.) Armored viruses may mutate or change their code on the fly to avoid detection. Armored viruses can use encrypted code pieces to assemble itself with the help of an infected program. Armored viruses will delete necessary system files to effectively disable the operating system before detection. Armored viruses often masquerade as a legitimate program that performs a benign activity to avoid detection.
Armored viruses may mutate or change their code on the fly to avoid detection.
Once a tester has penetrated a network and gained access, what is the tester's next step? Attempt to pivot or move around inside the network to other resources. End the test and present the findings to the contracted company. Close the vulnerability for the target company. Disconnect from the network and attempt to regain entry using a different method.
Attempt to pivot or move around inside the network to other resources.
Identification of any single points of failure should be a key component in what important business tool? Mission Objectives Statement (MOS) Business Impact Analysis (BIA) Potential Risk Report (PRR) Probability of Failure Report (PFR)
Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
How is confidentiality ensured using the IPsec VPN protocol? By using the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol. By using IPsec's Tunnel Mode. By using IPsec's Transport Mode. By using the Authentication Header (AH) protocol.
By using the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol.
What statement is accurate in regards to adjusting frequency spectrum settings? APs should be configured to use the same channel as other nearby APs to ensure AP familiarity. Channel width determines how much spectrum is available to transfer data. Larger channels are less affected by wireless interference. On a dual band radio, both bands should be enabled even if one band is unused.
Channel width determines how much spectrum is available to transfer data.
What block cipher mode of operation involves each ciphertext block being fed back into the encryption process to encrypt the next plaintext block? Galois/Counter (GCM) Counter (CTR) Electronic Code Book (ECB) Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)
Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)
What encryption protocol is used for the WPA2 wireless standard? Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) Counter Mode with Ecliptic Curve Block Message Authentication Code Protocol (ECBMP) Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) Galois/Counter with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (GCMP)
Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)
How does a distributed denial of service attack differ from a regular denial of service attack? DDoS attacks utilize many computers for making bogus requests, instead of just one. DDoS attacks generate fewer bogus requests by distributing the workload amongst clustered machines. DDoS attacks utilize authorized user access to infiltrate a network. DDoS attacks have multiple targets that are all attacked simultaneously by a single source.
DDoS attacks utilize many computers for making bogus requests, instead of just one.
What DNS vulnerability can be specifically addressed by utilizing Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)? DNS poisoning DNS looping DNS hijacking DNS spoofing
DNS poisoning
What EAP protocol supported by WPA2-Enterprise securely tunnels any credential form for authentication using TLS? EAP-TLS PEAP EAP-TTLS EAP-FAST
EAP-FAST
By creating a starting point for comparison purposes in order to apply targets and goals to measure success, what are you doing? Solidifying a goal. Provisioning a marker. Establishing a baseline. Creating a measurement.
Establishing a baseline.
What are the two different types of one-time password that can be created? (Choose two.) source-based one time password (SOTP) pad-based one time password (POTP) HMAC based one-time password (HOTP) time-based one time password (TOTP)
HMAC based one-time password (HOTP) time-based one time password (TOTP)
What statement best describes how an HMAC-based one-time password (HOTP) works? HOTPs are randomly generated at various intervals as the user accesses resources. HOTPs are created when the user consciously decides to create the HOTP. HOTPs are event-driven and change when specific events occur, such as when a user enters a personal identification number. HOTPs are time-driven and change when a timestamp expires, usually after an hour or so.
HOTPs are event-driven and change when specific events occur, such as when a user enters a personal identification number.
When using application-based firewalls, what is NOT capable of being used to identify an application being used? pre-defined application signatures IP addresses header inspection payload analysis
IP addresses
When discussing protections provided by cryptography, what does non-repudiation mean? Individuals are prevented from fraudulently denying that they were involved in a transaction. It means the encrypted information cannot be changed except by authorized users who have the key. Encrypted information can only be viewed by those who have been provided the key. It means there is proof that the sender was legitimate and not an imposter.
Individuals are prevented from fraudulently denying that they were involved in a transaction.
On Windows, how does the Mandatory Integrity Control (MIC) MAC implementation ensure data integrity? It controls access to securable objects through the use of timestamps. It controls access to securable objects through the use of security identifiers. It mediates access to files and records file access in an audit log. It repudiates changes made to a file without the proper access.
It controls access to securable objects through the use of security identifiers.
What statement describes the Privacy Enhancement Mail (PEM) X.509 format? It is the preferred file format for creating certificates to authenticate mail applications, and contains public and private keys. It is the standard file format for exporting certificates, and includes the public and private keys. It is one of a numbered set of 15 standards defined by RSA, and uses RSA public key algorithm and contains both public and private keys. It is designed to provide confidentiality and integrity to emails utilizing DER encoding.
It is designed to provide confidentiality and integrity to emails utilizing DER encoding.
What is NOT an advantage of using job rotation in a complex business environment? It helps expose any potential avenues for fraud by having multiple individuals with different perspectives learn about a job. It reduces burnout in employees and increases employee satisfaction, motivation, and improves employee skills. It reduces job training costs by ensuring everyone knows how to do everyone else's job. It limits the amount of time that individuals are in a position to manipulate security configurations.
It reduces job training costs by ensuring everyone knows how to do everyone else's job.
What does a component's mean time between failures (MTBF) value determine? It refers to the average amount of times a component will fail before it is no longer usable. It determines the exact time at which a component will fall out of warranty coverage. It refers to the average amount of time until a component fails and cannot be repaired. It determines the maximum amount of time an item should be left in service before it is replaced.
It refers to the average amount of time until a component fails and cannot be repaired.
What statement regarding the use of load balancers on a network is NOT accurate? Load balancers can be used to remove server identification headers from HTTP responses. Load balancers can only be used in an active-pass configuration. Servers behind load balancers often utilize a virtual IP address. Load balancers can be used to hide HTTP error pages from users.
Load balancers can only be used in an active-pass configuration.
What are two valid weaknesses of utilizing MAC filtering for controlling wireless network access? The 48-bit MAC address does not have enough complexity to be secure. Filtering by MAC address requires significant administrative overhead to maintain the list of allowed MACs. MAC addresses are initially exchanged between wireless devices and the AP in unencrypted format. MAC address filtering requires knowing all the MAC addresses that will be prevented from access.
MAC addresses are initially exchanged between wireless devices and the AP in unencrypted format. Filtering by MAC address requires significant administrative overhead to maintain the list of allowed MACs.
You are involved in the creation of your company's employee offboarding policy. What statement reflects a good policy measure? Offboarded employee accounts remain active, but must have password changed after 7 days of employee's leave date. Offboarded employee accounts are immediately deleted. Offboarded employee accounts are immediately disabled. Offboarded employee accounts are handed over to supervisory employees within 7 days.
Offboarded employee accounts are immediately disabled.
How does the use of the perfect forward secrecy key exchange method differ from other key exchange methods? Perfect forward secrecy uses temporal keys that are used for a period of time and then discarded. Perfect forward secrecy involves the use of public key systems that generate random public keys that differ for each session. Perfect forward secrecy utilizes large prime numbers and a related integer agreed upon by two parties, and the key never changes. Perfect forward secrecy utilizes elliptic curve cryptography instead of prime numbers in computation.
Perfect forward secrecy involves the use of public key systems that generate random public keys that differ for each session.
When dealing with the preservation of evidence, who should be responsible for processing the evidence? Properly trained computer evidence specialists. A designated supervisor in the affected company. Only users with some level of computer experience. Only law enforcement personnel.
Properly trained computer evidence specialists.
What statement regarding the use of Software Defined Networking (SDN) is NOT accurate? In order to move through the network, traffic must first receive permission from the SDN controller. SDN controllers and switches are limited to Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model. Communication between the SDN controller and the SDN switches uses a standard protocol and application programing interface (API). SDNs can be used to help capture data for NIDS and NIPS.
SDN controllers and switches are limited to Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.
What two cryptographic transport protocols should not be used or are considered obsolete? (Choose two.) SSL v2.0 TLS v1.2 TLS v1.1 SSL v3.0
SSL v2.0 SSL v3.0
What type of agreement serves as a contract between a vendor and a client that specifies what services will be provided, the responsibilities of each party, and any guarantees of service? Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) Service Level Agreement (SLA) Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)
Service Level Agreement (SLA)
What federation system technology uses federation standards to provide SSO and exchanging attributes? SSOnly Shibboleth Open ID Connect OAuth
Shibboleth
In multifactor authentication, a password is considered to be what element of authentication? Something you have. Something you know. Something you are. Something you do.
Something you know.
What type of digital certificate is primarily used for Microsoft Exchange servers or unified communications? email digital certificate code signing digital certificate wildcard digital certificate Subject Alternative Name (SAN) certificate
Subject Alternative Name (SAN) certificate
Consider the following network: PC1->Switch1->Switch2->PC2. When Switch1 receives a frame from PC1 intended for PC2, but does not have an entry in the MAC table for PC2, what happens? Switch1 attempts to locate PC2 by asking for MAC addresses on all connected ports, using targeted unicast traffic. This in turn triggers Switch2 to do the same if it does not know where the MAC is. Once the proper port is found, the frame is delivered. Switch1 broadcasts the frame out all connected ports. Switch2 will do the same if it too does not contain an entry for PC2, else the frame will be delivered to the port PC2 resides on. Switch1 returns the frame to PC1 with a "frame undeliverable" message due to the MAC not being in the forwarding table. PC1 then initiates a MAC address discovery using ARP, and forwards the MAC information to the switch once it is found. The frame is then retransmitted. Switch1 attempts to locate the PC2 port, and creates a temporary switching loop in the process. Once the ensuing broadcast storm ends, the switch will have populated its MAC address table, and the frame will be forwarded on through Switch2 to PC2.
Switch1 broadcasts the frame out all connected ports. Switch2 will do the same if it too does not contain an entry for PC2, else the frame will be delivered to the port PC2 resides on.
When might an industry-specific security framework or architecture be required for a company? The company operates internationally. The company operates nationally. The company's industry is regulated. The company's industry is non-regulated.
The company's industry is regulated.
If a company that employs a SCADA system comes under attack, and the SCADA system itself is affected, what are the risks? The control systems managed by SCADA could malfunction, possibly causing damage to equipment. The organization may lose access to reports on control systems. None, as SCADA is designed to be a supervisory system only, allowing control systems to be managed separately if affected. Minimal, as a SCADA system does not provide access to any other equipment in the network.
The control systems managed by SCADA could malfunction, possibly causing damage to equipment.
Elliot's computer has a TPM chip, which was used to encrypt the contents of his hard drive. Due to a component failure on the motherboard, Elliot had to move the hard drive to a new computer, also with a TPM chip. What happens to the drive upon starting the computer? Nothing; without the original TPM chip, the drive is essentially rendered useless. The drive's contents will be automatically available due to the presence of a TPM chip. The drive's contents will be wiped due to the new TPM chip not matching the old chip. The drive will be unavailable until the recovery password is entered.
The drive will be unavailable until the recovery password is entered.
When performing a vulnerability scan, what is NOT one of the things the scan looks for? A lack of proper security controls to establish a secure framework. The presence of vulnerabilities or security weaknesses. Any common misconfigurations that could compromise the system. The likelihood of zero-day malware attacks on the system.
The likelihood of zero-day malware attacks on the system.
Once a system has been infected, what is the method of operation of a logic bomb malware program? The logic bomb code lies dormant until a specific logical event triggers it, upon which data is deleted and/or the system is sabotaged. The logic bomb silently captures and stores keystroke information, then passes the information on to an attacker. The logic bomb opens or creates vulnerabilities on the running system, allowing an attacker to access the system remotely. The logic bomb software passively tracks and monitors a user's activities until an attacker decides to "detonate" the bomb.
The logic bomb code lies dormant until a specific logical event triggers it, upon which data is deleted and/or the system is sabotaged.
In a white box penetration test of a network, how much information is known to the tester, if any? The tester will only be provided with the location of systems to be tested. The tester will have no prior knowledge of the network. The tester will have limited information of the network and systems tested. The tester will have in-depth knowledge of the network and systems tested.
The tester will have in-depth knowledge of the network and systems tested.
When using OAuth, how are a user's username and password received by a third party server. The username and password are used to create a certificate, which then is used to authenticate to the third party server. The username and password are forwarded directly to the third party server, which then verifies with an OAuth server. The username and password must be transmitted in clear text to the web application, which must then verify the credentials before giving access. The username and password are replaced by a an authentication token, which is then used to gain access to the third party server.
The username and password are replaced by a an authentication token, which is then used to gain access to the third party server.
When deploying sensors, collectors, and filters, where should they be placed in the network? They should be placed where the stream of data is largest. At random locations throughout the network to gather a complete picture. They should only be placed in the low-traffic areas of the network. They should be placed at each server on the network.
They should be placed where the stream of data is largest.
What are two valid methods that could be used to prevent a replay attack? (Choose two.) Timestamps can be utilized for all communication. The MAC entries of computers requiring secure communications can be entered statically into the ARP table. An administrator can employ the use of a network hub, instead of a network switch. Both sides of communication could utilize random keys that are valid for limited periods of time.
Timestamps can be utilized for all communication. Both sides of communication could utilize random keys that are valid for limited periods of time.
Of the two encryption modes supported by IPsec, what mode is more secure, and why? Tunnel mode, because the data portion of each packet is encrypted. Transport mode, because the data portion of each packet is encrypted. Transport mode, because the header and data portion of the packet are encrypted. Tunnel mode, because the header and data portion of the packet are encrypted.
Tunnel mode, because the header and data portion of the packet are encrypted.
The Secure Boot security standard is used in conjunction with what type of booting process firmware? Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Coreboot OpenFirmware
Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
Due to the sensitivity of the computer equipment your company has in its core network, you would like to shield these devices from electromagnetic pulses. What can you do to accomplish this? You can use electromagnetic dispersing devices to counter any EMPs. You can add additional insulation to the walls in the server room. You can use a metallic enclosure known as a Faraday cage. You can place the sensitive equipment underground.
You can use a metallic enclosure known as a Faraday cage.
Per your company's data destruction policy, you have been tasked with the destruction of data on a magnetic hard drive. The policy employed by your company specifies that you must destroy the drive by reducing or eliminating the magnetic fields present in the drive. What method should you use? You should perform a random write of 0s and 1s to the drive. You should utilize the purging data method built in to the operating system being used. You should utilize a wiping utility, such as DBAN. You should perform a degaussing procedure on the drive.
You should perform a degaussing procedure on the drive
What type of information security policy is often considered to be the most important policy? personal email policy acceptable use policy information sensitivity policy antivirus policy
acceptable use policy
A Bluetooth piconet is an example of what type of network topology? bus topology ad hoc topology dynamic topology small network topology
ad hoc topology
What type of backup is considered to be an evidence-grade backup, because its accuracy meets evidence standards? bit-stream backup full backup differential backup incremental backup
bit-stream backup
You have been tasked with responding to a security incident involving the compromise of a manager's documents. You and your team have determined that the attacker involved copied files via a Bluetooth connection with the manager's unprotected cell phone. What kind of attack was this? near field communication (NFC) attack bluejacking attack bluesnarfing attack bluesnatching attack
bluesnarfing attack
An attack in which the attacker substitutes the return address in a program with a pointer to malicious code is an example of what kind of attack? buffer overflow attack refactoring attack memory leap attack integer overflow attack
buffer overflow attack
What is the most secure form of IEEE 802.1x authentication? certificate based pre-shared key MAC authentication token based
certificate based
What type of redundant site provides office space, but equipment necessary for continuing operations must be provided by the customer? hot site hybrid site cold site warm site
cold site
An attacker is attempting to generate data that has the same hash as a captured hash of a password. What type of attack is this? collision attack downgrade attack known-ciphertext attack birthday attack
collision attack
The Google Android OS Smart Lock feature is an example of what kind of authentication? application-aware authentication user state-aware authentication open system authentication context-aware authentication
context-aware authentication
Your organization is planning to deploy wireless access points across their campus network, and you have been tasked with securing the installation. Currently, the design calls for a wireless network with many APs that are controlled by a single device, to allow centralized management. What type of APs will you be securing? standalone APs fat APs thin APs controller APs
controller APs
A client PC on your company's network is attempting to browse to a vendor's web page on the Internet, but the computer goes to a malicious web page instead. What two utilities can you use to verify that the DNS records are correct for the web page? (Choose two.) dig nslookup netstat tracert
dig nslookup
What type of cryptography provides security comparable to asymmetric encryption with significantly reduced computational power and with smaller key sizes? elliptic curve cryptography asymptotic cryptography symmetric encryption quadratic cryptography
elliptic curve cryptography
In dealing with facial recognition technology, what term describes the rate at which imposters are recognized as legitimate users? false rejection rate (FRR) crossover error rate (CER) true acceptance rate (TAR) false acceptance rate (FAR)
false acceptance rate (FAR)
What feature of a mobile device management system could be used to restrict the use of an application containing confidential data to only a specific geographical area? digital locking location tracking geofencing Wi-Fi fencing
geofencing
An unskilled person who downloads automated attack software (i.e. open-source intelligence) and uses it to carry out attacks would be considered to be what type of threat actor? hactivist cracker script kiddie organized criminal
hactivist
What is not one of the more common security issues that should be planned for? weak security configurations unauthorized software data exfiltration inventory management
inventory management
Providing the minimum amount of privileges necessary to perform a job or function is known as what security principle? necessary privilege required privilege minimal privilege least privilege
least privilege
In mandatory access control, what are the two key elements used to grant permissions? (Choose two.) markers levels labels tags
levels labels
An Advanced Persistent Threat is most commonly associated with what type of threat actor? script kiddie hactivists nation state actors insiders
nation state actors
What type of a social engineering attack attempts to trick a user via email or web page into surrendering private information, such as login information to financial websites? phishing attack spam attack impersonation attack watering hole attack
phishing attack
What type of security control implements security in a defined structure and location? preventative control deterrent control security control physical control
physical control
Recently, a managed Cisco network switch in a publicly accessible closet experienced a crash, dropping all those that were connected to it. Based on logs recovered from a central logging system, you determine that the switch may have been flooded with spoofed MAC addresses, causing the memory available on the switch to be consumed. What feature could you implement to help prevent this from happening in the future? port mirroring Access Control Lists (ACLs) spanning-tree algorithm port security
port security
You are currently engaged in troubleshooting an active connection that is being cut off in mid-transmission each time an attempt is made to communicate. What type of program should you use to diagnose the problem with this transmission? data sanitizer honeypot software protocol analyzer port scanner
protocol analyzer
What type of malware specializes in avoiding detection by accessing lower layers of the operating system or by using undocumented functions to make alterations? ransomware adware rootkit Trojan
rootkit
What are two items that are specifically part of the Secure DevOps methodology? (Choose two.) security automation user training continuous integration funding management
security automation continuous integration
In what type of security policy might you define the required minimal security configuration for servers on the network? acceptable use policy antivirus policy server security policy network sensitivity policy
server security policy
What Linux/UNIX-based command interface and protocol can be used for securely accessing a remote computer? rsh scp rlogin ssh
ssh
What type of fingerprint scanner requires that a user place their entire thumb or finger over a small oval window, which then takes an optical picture of the fingerprint? automatic fingerprint scanner dynamic fingerprint scanner digital fingerprint scanner static fingerprint scanner
static fingerprint scanner
The basic ROT13 cipher is an example of what kind of cipher algorithm? diffusion cipher XOR cipher Beale cipher substitution cipher
substitution cipher
When performing an audit, what is the process that looks at the applications that the user is provided, how frequently they are used, and how they are being used known as? recertification permission auditing and review usage auditing and review time analysis and review
usage auditing and review
You are an administrator for the site example.com, and would like to secure all the subdomains under example.com with a single SSL certificate. What type of certificate should you use? code signing certificate SAN certificate self-signed certificate wildcard certificate
wildcard certificate
