Security + SYO-701

Which of the following BEST explains the difference between an Agent-based and Agentless NAC? A. Agent based NACs use additional software to authenticate users, while Agentless NACs use network level protocols to authenticate users B. Agent based NACs use network level protocols to authenticate users, while Agentless NACs use additional software to authenticate users.

A. Agent based NACs use additional software to authenticate users, while Agentless NACs use network level protocols to authenticate users Both forms of NAC authenticate users and grant access. Agent-based NACs use a software component installed on a central server to monitor network traffic, while Agentless involves monitoring network devices directly through the use of network level protocols without the need for additional software. Agent-based NACs require additional software.

Which of the following BEST describes an organizational structure that allows for autonomous decision-making in separate departments or sectors within the company? A. Decentralized governance B. Flat organization C. Hierarchical Management D. Matrix Structure

A. Decentralized governance In decentralized governance, decision-making is distributed among various departments or sectors, promoting responsiveness and specialization.

A drone manufacturer employs a real-time operating system (RTOS) to ensure timely task executions. While optimizing for real-time performance, which of the following security concerns might arise? A. Inadequate buffer overflow protections B. Uncontrolled cloud access C. Lack of legacy protocol support D. Overhead from virtualization

A. Inadequate buffer overflow protections RTOSs prioritize performance, sometimes at the expense of security features like buffer overflow protections, potentially leaving the system susceptible to certain attacks. RTOSs aren't primarily concerned with supporting legacy protocols, and this isn't a direct security risk associated with them.

Which of the following BEST describes an approach where the foundational systems are set up and overseen using scripts and automated instruments instead of hands-on methods? A. IaC B. Microservices architecture C. Air gapped network D. Serverless architecture

A. Infrastructure as code (IaC) allows infrastructure to be provisioned and managed using code, making it easier to manage, replicate, and scale.

Which of the following ports, if left open and unmonitored, might allow database queries from unauthorized external sources? A. Port 1433 B. Port 21 C. Port 53 D. Port 443

A. Port 1433 File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port 21 for unencrypted data transfers, not for database operations. Port 443 is used for secure web traffic through SSL/TLS

When sending an encrypted message to Dion Training, a client would use which of the following to ensure only Dion Training can decrypt and read the message? A. Public key B. Wildcard certificate C. Key escrow D. Private key

A. Public Key

What does AH Stand for ?

AH (Authentication header) is a protocol component of IPSec which offers packet integrity

Clumsy Contraptions Engineering is seeking to change its security footing. In the past, they have found that too many pieces of malicious software have gotten past the system. Their Chief Security Officer believes they need a device which will actively evaluate traffic and reject or modify packets according to policies the company sets. What type of device is the CSO suggesting? A. SASE B. Inline C. Remote Access D. Fail-close

B. Inline Inline devices are designed to interact with network traffic actively and can take actions such as accepting, rejecting, or modifying packets, making them the optimal choice for this scenario

What type of encryption only affects a section of a storage device? A. File-level encryption B. Partition encryption C. Full-disk encryption D. Database encryption

B. Partition encryption

What port is used for DNS? A. 21 B. 53 C. 50 D. 1053

B. Port 53

Dion Training Solutions is aiming to optimize their wide-area network (WAN) while ensuring advanced network management and performance optimization. They are considering a solution that can be deployed both on-premises and in the cloud. Which of the following technologies would BEST match their requirements? A. SASE B. SD-WAN C. TLS D. AH

B. SD-WAN (Software-defined wide area network) provides centralized network management, flexible routing, and traffic management capabilities. It can be hosted both on-premises and in the cloud, giving it an edge for comprehensive WAN optimization.

Susan, a security analyst at Kelly Innovations LLC, is reviewing alerts from the IPS. She recognizes a pattern of false positives from signature-based detections. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for false positives in signature-based detection systems? A. The system is only updated with old signatures B. The Signatures Require Tuning C. The IPS is scanning encrypted traffic only D. Signature databases are stored in volatile memory

B. The signatures Require Tuning

Which of the following terms refers to critical predictive metric that organizations monitor to foresee potential risks and their impact on operations? A. Risk Parameters B. Risk Threshold C. Key Risk Indicators D. Risk Metrics

C. Key Risk Indicators metrics that provide early warnings of increasing risk exposures, enabling organizations' leadership to manage these risks proactively

Which of the following is an aspect of asset management that ensures that each IT asset is clearly associated with a specific individual or department, providing clarity on responsibilities and access rights? A. Decommissioning B. Acquisition C. Ownership D. Monitoring

C. Ownership

Horizon Security, a cybersecurity training company, experienced a data breach due to a vendor's negligence. This breach led to a significant loss of sensitive customer information and damage to the company's reputation. What type of consequence is Horizon MOST likely to face? A. Fines B. Sanctions C. Reputational Damage D> Loss of License

C. Reputational Damage

You are a security analyst at Dion Training and you discover that an unauthorized device has been connected to the company's network. As you investigate, you discover that the device was added so the employee could play video games during her breaks. What type of threat actor are you dealing with? A. Unskilled Actor B. Insider Threat C. Shadow IT D. Nation-State Actor

C. Shadow IT Shadow IT is a type of threat actor that is the result of unauthorized or unapproved IT systems or devices within an organization.

What port is for Microsoft SQL Server ? A. 443 B. 21 C. 53 D. 1433

D. 1433 Port 1433 is the default for Microsoft SQL Server. Organizations typically restrict or monitor access to this port to prevent unauthorized database operations.

Kelly Innovations LLC wants to implement a network appliance that focuses on filtering traffic based on source and destination IP addresses, and port numbers. Which layer of the OSI model is this appliance primarily operating at? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 4

D. Layer 4, or the transport layer, deals with protocols like TCP and UDP and is concerned with port numbers and connection-oriented communication. Network appliances operating at this layer filter and manage traffic based on source and destination IP addresses, as well as port numbers. Layer 3, the network layer, is primarily focused on routing data and IP addressing. Devices at this layer, like routers, aren't primarily concerned with port numbers. Layer 5, the session layer, establishes, maintains, and terminates connections between applications on different devices. It doesn't handle filtering based on IP addresses and port numbers. Layer 2, the data link layer, deals with frames and MAC addresses. Switches typically operate at this layer.

Which of the following terms refers to the specific laws and regulations set by a country's government that dictate how the personal data of its citizens should be collected, stored, and processed? A. Consent Management B. Data encryption C. General Data Protection Regulation D. National Legal Implications

D. National Legal Implications - laws and regulations set at the country level that outline the requirements and boundaries for data protection and privacy.

Quantitative measures of risk that do not specifically refer to the predictive indicators used for monitoring potential risks

Risk Metrics

The level of risk an organization is willing to accept, not a predictive indicator.

Risk Threshold