Serological and Molecular Markers-Routine Tests
D. Autologous donation
A patient's serum reacts with all reagent red cell samples. The autocontrol is negative. An alloantibody to a high incidence antigen is suspected. Which of the following would most likely be a compatible donor? A. Patient's parents B. Patient's siblings C. Patient's children D. Autologous donation
A. An IgM and an IgG antibody
A sample has reactions occurring at immediate spin and AHG in a panel that show varying reaction strengths. There is no obvious pattern that matches a particular panel cell or single antigen profile and the auto-control was negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. An IgM and an IgG antibody B. An IgG antibody only C. An IgM antibody only D. An autoantibody
A. The negative reaction at AHG phase is valid
A tech is performing an antibody screen. The reaction is negative when reading at the AHG (anti-human globulin) phase so the tech then adds Coombs' control cells. Agglutination is now observed. What does this indicate? A. The negative reaction at AHG phase is valid B. The patient's RBCs were not washed thoroughly C. Coombs' control cells are contaminated D. Coombs' control cells were not added
A. Reacts best at 37ºC and AHG
Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics? A. Reacts best at 37ºC and AHG B. Reacts best at room temperature C. Shows hemolysis better than agglutination D. Reacts best at 4oC
D. Agglutination on blood smear and positive DAT
A 54-year-old woman has just braved a winter snow storm in North Dakota to see her doctor for a general checkup. She indicates no complaints but does mention how difficult the cold weather is for her. The doctor notices bluish coloring of her ears and fingers. She states that this has been happening for years whenever it is cold and that the problem subsides during the warm summer months. What abnormal test results might be noted in this patient's blood tests? Choose the BEST answer. A. Negative Donath-Landsteiner test B. Agglutination on blood smear C. Positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) D. Agglutination on blood smear and positive DAT
B. Perform a weak D test
A D-negative mother gives birth to a baby that tests as D-negative in the immediate spin phase. What step should be performed next? A. Calculate dose for RhIg B. Perform a weak D test C. Administer one dose of RhIg D. Perform a Kleihauer-Betke stain
D. AHG addition delayed for 40 or more minutes
A false-negative reaction while performing the DAT technique may be the result of: A. Red cell/AHG tube is over centrifuged B. Blood collected in tube containing silicone gel C. Saline used for wash stored in glass or metal container D. AHG addition delayed for 40 or more minutes
B. Crossmatch E-negative units.
A former patient had an anti-E four years ago, but her antibody panel is now negative. Since she now needs blood for surgery, what should the blood bank do? A. Get autologous blood from relatives. B. Crossmatch E-negative units. C. Give group O negative whole blood. D. Give random compatible units.
B. Patient has a cold autoantibody
A patient front-grouped as AB but back-grouped as O. The screening cells and auto control were positive. If the testing was performed correctly, what is the most likely cause of this discrepancy? A. Patient has two distinct cell populations B. Patient has a cold autoantibody C. Patient has missing or weakly expressed antigens D. Patient has leukemia
B. Fya-; Fyb+; C-c+; K+k-
A patient has a probable anti-Fya; however, anti-c and anti-K have not been excluded. Which of the following cells would be the most useful cell to exclude both anti-c and anti-K efficiently in this patient? A. Fya-; Fyb+; C+c+; K+k+ B. Fya-; Fyb+; C-c+; K+k- C. Fya-; Fyb+; C+c+; K+k- D. Fya+; Fyb-; C-c+; K+k-
D. A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
A patient transfused with two units of packed cells spiked a fever of 99.5oF and complained of chills five days after transfusion. The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) was positive with anti-IgG, but negative with anti-C3d. Compatibility testing was performed on the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. The post-transfusion specimen was incompatible with one of the donor units transfused. An antibody screen was done on both the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. An antibody was detected in the post-transfusion specimen only and identified by panel studies as anti-Jka. This transfusion reaction is most: A. Post-transfusion purpura B. An anaphylactic response C. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction D. A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
A. Rouleaux
A patient with multiple myeloma has the following reactions in the ABO typing: Anti-A= w+ Anti-B = w+ Anti-A,B = w+ Auto control = w+ A1 Cells = 4+ B cells = 4+ What is probably causing these results? A. Rouleaux B. Subgroup of A C. Patient has hypogammaglobulinemia D. Patient has selective IgA deficiency
C. Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells
The chief purpose of performing a serologic crossmatch is to: A. Identify antibodies in donor blood B. Identify antibodies in recipient red blood cells C. Identify recipient antibodies against donor cells D. Identify donor antibodies against recipient cells
B. 0.85 %
The concentration of sodium chloride in an isotonic solution is: A. 8.5 % B. 0.85 % C. 0.08 % D. 85%
A. ABO
The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is most unreliable when diagnosing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to which blood group system? A. ABO B. Duffy C. Rh D. Kidd
C. Donor's red cells and recipient's serum or plasma
The major crossmatch is performed using: A. Donor's serum and recipient's red cells B. Donor's serum and recipient's serum or plasma C. Donor's red cells and recipient's serum or plasma D. Donor's red cells and recipient's red cell
A. B cells
The plant lectin obtained from the Bandeiraea simplicifolia plant will agglutinate which of the following? A. B cells B. O cells C. A2 cells D. A1 cells
D. A1 cells
The plant lectin obtained from the Dolichos biflorus plant will agglutinate which of the following? A. B cells B. O cells C. A2 cells D. A1 cells
D. Detection of alloantibodies in serum
The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in all the following EXCEPT: A. Transfusion reactions B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn D. Detection of alloantibodies in serum
B. 2+
Tube-based agglutination reactions in blood bank are graded from negative (0) to 4+. A reaction that has many medium-sized clumps and clear supernatant. is: A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+
A. 1+
Tube-based agglutination reactions in blood bank are graded from negative (0) to 4+. A reaction that has numerous small clumps in a cloudy, red background is: A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+
D. 4+
Tube-based agglutination reactions in blood bank are graded from negative (0) to 4+. A reaction that has one solid clump, no free cells, and clear supernatant is: A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+
C. 3+
Tube-based agglutination reactions in blood bank are graded from negative (0) to 4+. A reaction that has several large clumps and clear supernatant. is: A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+
A. Group O
What blood group are the RBC screening cells for antibody screens? A. Group O B. Group A C. Group B D. Group AB
C. Antibodies to common alloantigens
What do the two and/or three reagent cells used for antibody screening detect? A. Antibodies to most white cell antigens B. Antibodies to red cell A and B antigens C. Antibodies to common alloantigens D. Antibodies to most private (low incidence) red cell antigens
C. Antigens coating red cells
What is the ABO forward testing and Rh (D antigen) testing usually used to detect? A. Antibodies coating red cells B. Antibodies in the plasma C. Antigens coating red cells D. Antigens in the plasma
A. Antibodies coating red cells
What is the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) usually used to detect? A. Antibodies coating red cells B. Antibodies in the plasma C. Antigens coating red cells D. Antigens in the plasma
B. Antibodies in the plasma
What is the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT) usually used to detect? A. Antibodies coating red cells B. Antibodies in the plasma C. Antigens coating red cells D. Antigens in the plasma
D. Weak subgroup of A
What is the MOST likely cause of the ABO discrepancy when the following results were obtained from a first-time 29-year old, blood donor? Forward Group Anti-A = Negative Anti-B= Negative Reverse Group A1 Cells = Negative B Cells = 3+ A. Loss of antigen due to disease B. Acquired B C. Low immunoglobulin levels D. Weak subgroup of A
B. Direct technique
When AHG or Coombs serum is used to demonstrate that red blood cells are antibody coated in vivo, the procedure is termed: A. Indirect technique B. Direct technique C. Hemagglutination technique D. Hemolysis technique
D. Polyspecific AHG
Which of the following reagents is often used to perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) to determine if either IgG or complement (or both) is attached to a patient's red cells? A. Low-ionic strength solution (LISS) B. Polyethylene glycol (PEG) C. Anti-C3d D. Polyspecific AHG
A. Low pH of saline
Which of the following sources of error will give a false negative result in antihuman globulin testing? A. Low pH of saline B. Dirty glassware C. Samples collected in gel separator tubes D. Refrigerated specimen
D. Clot tube stored at 4oC, transfusion reaction, and warm autoimmune disease.
Which of the following would be a possible cause of a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT)? A. Transfusion reaction and warm autoimmune disease only B. Warm autoimmune disease and clot tube stored at 4°C only C. Clot tube stored at 4oC and transfusion reaction only D. Clot tube stored at 4oC, transfusion reaction, and warm autoimmune disease.
D. Addition of AHG reagent is delayed for 40 minutes or more after final saline wash.
Which one of the following may cause a FALSE-NEGATIVE result with antiglobulin techniques? A. Dust or dirt is present in the glass tubes used for antiglobulin testing. B. Patient or donor blood specimen was collected in silicone gel tubes. C. Patient or donor blood specimen has a positive DAT. D. Addition of AHG reagent is delayed for 40 minutes or more after final saline wash.
B. A cold antibody may be present
Your screen cells are 3+ at immediate spin and weak (W)+ at AHG. Your autocontrol is negative for both phases. Some of your antibody panel cells are 3+ at immediate spin and negative at AHG. What should you suspect? A. A warm autoantibody is present B. A cold antibody may be present C. Bad specimen draw D. A warm reacting alloantibody
A. ABO, Rh
If the unit is going to be transfused within the collection facility, autologous blood must always be tested for which of the following before transfusion? A. ABO, Rh B. ABO, Rh, HBsAg C. ABO, Rh, HIV D. ABO, Rh, HBsAg, HIV
C. Failure to add AHG
IgG coated red cells are added to negative antiglobulin tests to detect which of the following sources of error? A. Delay in washing procedure B. Improper resuspension of the red cells C. Failure to add AHG D. Improper incubation time or temperature
D. ABO/Rh, DAT and/or antibody screening are NOT routinely performed in this scenario
Of the following, what is the recommended routine testing to be performed on a ne.wborn of a group B Rh positive female? A. ABO and Rh testing would routinely be performed in this scenario. B. ABO, Rh and DAT would routinely be performed in this scenario. C. ABO, Rh and antibody screening would routinely be performed in this scenario. D. ABO/Rh, DAT and/or antibody screening are NOT routinely performed in this scenario
C. IgG and C3d
Polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) reagent used in antiglobulin testing should react with which one of the following? A. IgG and IgA B. IgM and IgA C. IgG and C3d D. IgM and C3d
B. One determination of recipient's ABO group is made
All of the following are advantages of performing the computer crossmatch EXCEPT? A. Greater flexibility in staffing B. One determination of recipient's ABO group is made C. Better management of blood bank inventory D. Reduced volume of sample needed on large crossmatch orders
A. Prevent recipient alloimmunization
All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT: A. Prevent recipient alloimmunization B. Verify ABO and Rh C. Select proper blood products D. Detect antibodies against donor cells
D. Anti-IgM sources
All of the following are the reacting substances that may be in the Coombs sera (antihuman globulin) EXCEPT? A. Monoclonal antibody sources B. Polyclonal antibody sources C. Complement antibodies (e.g. anti-C3b) D. Anti-IgM sources
D. Screening cell #1 has homozygous antigen for the reacting antibody whereas screening cell #2 is heterozygous.
All of the following could explain why screening cell #2 has a stronger reaction than screening cell #1 EXCEPT: A. The patient has more than one antibody and all corresponding antigens are on screen cell #2 but not on screen cell #1. B. The patient has an antibody other than anti-D and screen cell #2 has a double dose of the antigen, whereas cell #1 has only a single dose. C. Operator variability - When dislodging the cell buttons during reading, the technologist shook screen cell #1's test more vigorously than cell #2's test. D. Screening cell #1 has homozygous antigen for the reacting antibody whereas screening cell #2 is heterozygous.
C. The antibodies are IgG.
All of the following regarding Anti-A and Anti-B reagents used in forward typing for ABO typing are true EXCEPT? A. They contain monoclonal antibodies. B. The antibodies are highly specific. C. The antibodies are IgG. D. They produce an expected 3+ or 4+ reaction with the corresponding antigens.
B. Leukocyte antigen studies
All of the following would be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation, EXCEPT: A, ABO/Rh check of post-transfusion sample B. Leukocyte antigen studies C. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on post-transfusion sample D. Clerical check
B. Warm autoantibody
An O positive patient has no reactions at immediate spin but both screen cells are positive and all antibody panel cells are reacting 1+ at AHG. The auto control is 1+. What would you suspect to be the cause? A. Cold autoantibody B. Warm autoantibody C. Anti-Lea D. Anti-K
C. False positives may be seen
An antibody screen utilizing polyethylene glycol (PEG) was performed. Reaction readings of this antibody screen are analyzed after immediate spin and again at 37°C incubation with subsequent centrifugation. How will the centrifugation of the tubes affect the patient's results? A. Reactions will be enhanced B. No effect will be seen C. False positives may be seen D. False negatives may be seen
C. 3 positive reactions to rule in an antibody and 3 negative reactions to rule out an antibody
Antibody identification interpretations would be considered correct 95% of the time or have a P value of 0.05 (5% probability that the result is due to chance) if you have: A. 2 positive reactions to rule in an antibody and 2 negative reactions to rule out an antibody B. 1 positive reaction to rule in an antibody and 3 negative reactions to rule out an antibody C. 3 positive reactions to rule in an antibody and 3 negative reactions to rule out an antibody D. 3 positive reactions to rule in an antibody and 1 negative reaction to rule out an antibody
B.. Each day of use
At what frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of anti-human globulin to be in compliance with the FDA's current good manufacturing practices requirements? A. At the beginning of each work shift B.. Each day of use C. Only at the time of receipt D. By each new user
D. IgG antibodies
Coombs control check cells used to verify negative reactions at the anti-globulin (IAT) phase are coated with: A. Anti-P1 B. Anti-M C. IgM antibodies D. IgG antibodies
B. 7 days
Donor and recipient blood samples must be kept for at least how long after transfusion? A. 10 days B. 7 days C. 3 days D. 24 hours
A. 72 hours
How long after collection can a patient's sample be used for compatibility testing? A. 72 hours B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 7 days
D. Some antigens are destroyed and may not detect an antibody that is present
Enzyme panel reactions cannot be used as the only source of rule-outs during antibody identification. Why is this? A .Enzyme panels only detect warm autoantibodies B. Enzyme panels only detect IgM antibodies C. All antigens on the panel cells are destroyed by enzymes D. Some antigens are destroyed and may not detect an antibody that is present
D. Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
Essential components of compatibility testing include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Antibody screen on recipient's serum B. Major crossmatch or computer crossmatch C. ABO and Rh typing of recipient D. Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
B. Inadequate washing of the red cells
FALSE-NEGATIVE results at the indirect antiglobulin phase of an antibody screening test using a tube method (i.e., not a Gel-method) are usually caused by which of the following? A. Excessive washing of the red cells B. Inadequate washing of the red cells C. Warm autoantibody present in the patient's serum D. Cold autoantibody present in the patient's serum
D. Red blood cells have a positive DAT
False negative results may occur with indirect antiglobulin tests as a result of all of the following EXCEPT: A. Undercentrifugation B. Delay in adding antiglobulin reagent C. Failure to adequately wash cells D. Red blood cells have a positive DAT
D. Lymphocyte enumeration
For granulocyte concentrations, all of the following laboratory tests must be performed on the unit by the donor center EXCEPT? A. ABO and Rh B. Red Cell antibodies. C. Infectious disease markers D. Lymphocyte enumeration
A. The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low.
In an emergency release, why do blood bankers seldom encounter patients who have experienced hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) from transfusion of uncrossmatched packed RBCs? Select the best response. A. The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low. B. They usually receive group O Rh-negative red blood cells; a hemolytic transfusion reaction will never occur if O Rh-negative red blood cells are transfused. C. They hemorrhage so severely that incompatible donor red blood cells "bleed out" before a reaction occurs. D. Some patients have cold-reactive antibodies that will not react at body temperature.
B. 1, 3
In blood banking, the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is used in the investigation of which of the following clinical conditions? 1. Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN) 2. IgA deficiency 3. Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (HTR) 4. Zika virus infection A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 4 D. 2, 3, 4
A. Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the cord blood
In order to detect the presence of antibodies fixed on the RBC's of newborns one should: A. Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the cord blood B. Perform an indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) on the cord blood C. Test the baby's cells with typing antiserum D. Look for agglutination in a mixture of mother's serum and baby's cells
A. Repeat procedure with new AHG reagent and check the cell washer.
In the Coombs phase of a crossmatch, what is the proper procedure to follow if the Check Cells give a negative reaction? A. Repeat procedure with new AHG reagent and check the cell washer. B. Add additional Check Cells and dilute with 100% distilled water. C. Add additional AHG reagent plus proteolytic enzymes to enhance the reaction. D. Accept the crossmatch results as correct - nothing further needs to be done.
D. AHG
In the antibody screening test, at what phase of reactivity is it most important to read the reactions for detection of clinically significant antibodies? A. 4°C B. Immediate spin C. 37°C D. AHG
B. Saline replacement
In the evaluation of a positive DAT result, all of the below techniques can be used to dissociate the antibody(ies) form the RBCs EXCEPT: A. EDTA-glycine B. Saline replacement C. Chloroquine diphosphate D. Murine monoclonal antibodies
C. Adding IgG sensitized red cells.
The AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services requires a control system for antiglobulin tests interpreted as negative. What is done for this control system? A. Running tests in duplicate. B. Adding an extra incubation. C. Adding IgG sensitized red cells. D. Performing a minimum of 3 extra washes.
A. Antibodies sensitizing red cells
The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is used to detect: A. Antibodies sensitizing red cells B. Antibodies in the plasma C. Antigens coating red cells D. Antigens in the plasma
B. Antibodies in the plasma
The Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT) is used to detect: A. Antibodies sensitizing red cells B. Antibodies in the plasma C. Antigens coating red cells D. Antigens in the plasma
D. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antibodies
What is the correct description for Group I discrepancies? A. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to miscellaneous problems. B. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are caused by protein or plasma abnormalities. C. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antigens. D. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antibodies
C. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antigens.
What is the correct description for Group II discrepancies? A. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to miscellaneous problems. B. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are caused by protein or plasma abnormalities. C. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antigens. D. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antibodies
B. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are caused by protein or plasma abnormalities.
What is the correct description for Group III discrepancies? A. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to miscellaneous problems. B. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are caused by protein or plasma abnormalities. C. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antigens. D. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antibodies
A. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to miscellaneous problems
What is the correct description for Group IV discrepancies? A. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to miscellaneous problems. B. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are caused by protein or plasma abnormalities. C. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antigens. D. These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antibodies
A. Detect antibodies in recipient serum/plasma that react with donor red blood cells.
What is the fundamental purpose of the full, pre-transfusion crossmatch? A. Detect antibodies in recipient serum/plasma that react with donor red blood cells. B. Discover HLA antibodies in graft-versus-host situations. C. Verify that the donor and recipient are the same blood type. D. Prevent hemolytic destruction of the recipient red blood cells.
B. 3 days
What is the maximum interval during which a recipient sample may be used for compatibility testing if the patient has recently been transfused or was pregnant within the past 3 months? A. 24 hours B. 3 days C. One week D. Two weeks
B. Three
What is the minimum number of reactive antigen-positive and non-reactive antigen-negative panel cells that must be present in order to identify a red cell antibody with statistical confidence? A. Two B. Three C. Five. D. Ten
B. Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched
What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for crossmatch after recipient antibodies have been identified? A. Perform DAT on patient serum and donor units B. Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched C. Perform IAT on patient cells and donor units D. Obtain a different sample for repeat antibody panel testing
A. The antibody screen must be negative and there is not history of detection of unexpected antibodies.
What must be true for the antiglobulin phase of the serologic crossmatch to be omitted (i.e., immediate spin crossmatch is done)? A. The antibody screen must be negative and there is not history of detection of unexpected antibodies. B. The patient has not been transfused within the past 24 hours. C. The blood is needed for surgery. D. There is a history of detection of unexpected antibodies but the current antibody screen is negative.
C. Reverse typing
What procedure is used by the laboratory personnel to confirm ABO typing by using cells with known blood groups? A. DAT B. Forward typing C. Reverse typing D. Antibody identification panel
C. Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit
What should be done FIRST if a donor unit of red blood cells is found to be incompatible at the antiglobulin phase but compatible at immediate spin with several different recipients? A. Repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using different sera B. Do a panel made up of red cells having all low-frequency antigens C. Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit D. Obtain a new specimen and repeat the minor crossmatch
B. Incubate at room temperature or 4°C to enhance weak expression.
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are NEGATIVE? A. Perform additional testing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B. B. Incubate at room temperature or 4°C to enhance weak expression. C. Perform testing with new reagents and retype. D. Perform an antibody screen.
C. Reagent antisera and patient red cells
What two things are put together for the testing known as forward grouping (testing)? A. Patient red cells and patient serum B. Reagent red cells and patient serum C. Reagent antisera and patient red cells D. Patient serum and donor red cells
A. Testing for weak D on potential transfusion recipient samples.
When is testing for weak D optional (not required)? A. Testing for weak D on potential transfusion recipient samples. B. Testing on donor red blood cells. C. Testing cord blood on infants born to Rh-negative moms D. Testing for Rh immune globulin workups.
A. Fya
When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be destroyed by enzyme treatment? A. Fya B. Jka C. E D. Lua
B. Repeat testing using warmed patient sample/reagent and just do AHG reading
When performing an antibody screen, both the screen cells are 4+ at immediate spin and W+ at AHG. The antibody panel shows 4+ reactions at immediate spin and W+ reactions at AHG and there is no specific match to the reaction pattern. The auto control is negative. What would be a logical next step? A. Have patient redrawn B. Repeat testing using warmed patient sample/reagent and just do AHG reading C. Run an enzyme panel D. Use acidified reagents
D. Gas production
When testing for the quality of platelet concentrates, all of the following must be included EXCEPT? A. pH B. Platelet count C. Bacterial detection D. Gas production
D. Acquired B antigen
When would unexpected positive reactions be encountered during ABO forward typing? A. A or B subgroups B. Antigen depression due to leukemia C. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Acquired B antigen
B. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent red blood cells to detect ABO antibodies in the patient's serum or plasma.
Which of the following accurately represents reverse typing? A. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent antisera to detect ABO antigens on the patient's red blood cells. B. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent red blood cells to detect ABO antibodies in the patient's serum or plasma. C. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent screening cells to detect clinically significant antibodies in the patient's serum or plasma. D. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent antisera to phenotype donor red blood cells for clinically significant antigens.
B. Rh, Lewis, and Kidd antibodies
Which of the following antibodies is enhanced by enzyme treatment of red cells? A. MN and Duffy antibodies B. Rh, Lewis, and Kidd antibodies C. Rh, A, B, and S antibodies D. Duffy, A, and B antibodies
B. Known antigen used to detect ABO antibodies.
Which of the following best describes reverse typing? A. Known antisera used to detect ABO antigens. B. Known antigen used to detect ABO antibodies. C. Known antigen used to detect ABO antigens. D. Known antisera used to detect ABO antibodies.
A. AHG (anti-human globulin) detects antibody already sensitized to red cells
Which of the following best describes the direct antiglobulin (DAT) test principle? A. AHG (anti-human globulin) detects antibody already sensitized to red cells B. AHG (anti-human globulin) prevents antibody from sensitizing red cells C. AHG (anti-human globulin) is directed against cell antigens D. AHG (anti-human globulin) is directed against plasma antibodies
D. Indirect antiglobulin test
Which of the following choices is the basic technique used to detect unexpected antibodies with a commercial set of reagent cells? A. Polyclonal technique B. Direct antiglobulin test C. Enzyme technique. D. Indirect antiglobulin test
A. Anti-P1, anti-Leb, anti-M.
Which of the following groups of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at room temperature or 4oC? A. Anti-P1, anti-Leb, anti-M. B. Anti-K, anti-Lua, anti-Fya C. Anti-S, anti-Jkb, anti-Leb D. Anti-K, anti-Lub, anti-s
B. Anti-A = positive & Anti-B = negative; A1 cells = negative & B cells = positive; interpretation = group A
Which of the following has the correct interpretation for the ABO group based on the forward and reverse testing? A. Anti-A & Anti-B = negative; A1 cells & B cells = positive; interpretation = group AB B. Anti-A = positive & Anti-B = negative; A1 cells = negative & B cells = positive; interpretation = group A C. Anti-A = negative & Anti-B = positive; A1 cells = positive & B cells = negative; interpretation = group A D. Anti-A & Anti-B = positive; A1 cells & B cells = negative; interpretation = group O
B. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A.
Which of the following is the MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates an "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon? A. Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is O. B. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A. C. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is B. D. Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is AB.
A. 37º C
Which of the following is the proper temperature to use when crossmatching in the presence of a cold antibody? A. 37º C B. 25º C C. 15º C D. 4º C
D. Failure to follow manufacturer's directions precisely
Which of the following may result in a false negative reaction when performing Rh typing? A. Rouleaux B. Centrifuging too long C. Cold agglutinins D. Failure to follow manufacturer's directions precisely
